SSC CGL 2025 Tier-I Solved Paper (12 September 2025) Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

1. Option (1) is correct. The pattern followed as:
   W W W W W
   Z V R N
   0 0 0 0
   4 4 4
   J
   W O G Y Q
   T H
   4
   8 8 8 8
   12 12
   V J X 12 12

2. Option (2) is correct. As, the Mekong River originates in Tibet, similarly, the
   Amazon RiveroriginatesintheAndes(Mountains/Peru).

3. Option (3) is correct. The pattern followed as:
   C G K O S
   G K O S
   4 4 4 4
   4 4 4
   W
   K O S W A
   4
   4 4 4 4

4. Option (3) is correct. The pattern followed as:
   M N O P Q
   I J K L
   1 1 1 1
   1 1 1
   M
   N M L K J
   1
   1 1 1 1

5. Option (4) is correct. The pattern followed as:
   B E H K N
   R U X A
   3 3 3 3
   3 3 3
   D
   F H J L N
   3
   2 2 2 2

6. Option (3) is correct. As, Watt is the SI unit of Power, similarly Pascal is the SI
   unit of Pressure.

7. Option (3) is correct. The pattern followed as:
   M N O P Q
   C E G I
   1 1 1 1
   2 2 2
   K
   F K P U Z
   I P
   2
   5 5 5 5
   7 7
   W W D K
   7 7

8. Option (2) is correct. The pattern followed as:
   3 7 11 15
   12 16 20 24
   4 4 4
   4 4 4

9. Option (2) is correct. The alphabetical order is: DENSTTU
   So, the second letter from the left end is E, and the fourth
   letter from the right end is S. So, the number of letters
   between E and S in the English alphabetical series is 13.

10. Option (3) is correct. Addresses 2 and 4 are identical to each other.

11. Option (1) is correct. Address 1 is identical to the given address.

12. Option (2) is correct. As, A I
    G O
    8
    8
    Similarly, C K
    M U
    8
    8

13. Option (1) is correct. The correct sitting arrangement is:
    A ______ B
    So, the person who is sitting to the right of A is seated to
    the left of B.

14. Option (1) is correct. From the first word to the second, the first, the third and
    fourth letters move forward 2 letters; also, the second
    letter moves 1 letter forward.
    Hence, the required word will be YPTF.

15. Option (1) is correct. Given: GNIDAER : READING
    The first word GNIDAER is the reverse of the second
    word READING.
    Pattern: Reverse the letters.
    Now apply the same pattern to the third word:
    NOITULOS
    Reverse it → SOLUTION

16. Option (3) is correct. From the first word to the second, all letters move
    forward 2 letters.
    Hence, the required word will be PERFECT.

17. Option (3) is correct. 20 is the odd one, as the other numbers are prime
    numbers.

18. Option (3) is correct. Except numbers in the third option, all other options
    contain prime numbers.

19. Option (1) is correct. Rani’s mother’s son-in-law is her husband.

20. Option (4) is correct. Inalloptionsexceptoption4,thelettersandthenumbers
    are decreased by 2.

21. Option (4) is correct. In all options except option 4, the letters and the
    numbers are increased by 1, and all the symbols are the
    shift-symbols on the computer keyboard for the key
    corresponding to (number + 1).

22. Option (1) is correct. The only daughter of the woman’s father is the woman
    herself. So, the man is the son of the woman.

23. Option (3) is correct. The wife of John’s uncle’s only son is the wife of John’s
    cousin. Hence, the woman is the sister-in-law of John.

24. Option (2) is correct. The man’s mother’s husband is his father. And the father
    of my sister’s brother is my father. So, my father is the
    son of the man’s father, i.e, the man is my father.

25. Option (3) is correct. The expression becomes:
    9 # 2 @ 3 $ 1 = 9 × 2 – 3 + 1 = 18 – 3 + 1 = 19 – 3 = 16
    General Awareness$

26. Option (2) is correct. The 59^th
    National Cross Country Championships - 2025
    were held on 12 January, 2025, in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.
    This event marked the start of the domestic Indian
    athletics calendar for the year, showcasing top cross-
    country runners from across the country. The venue
    for the championships was the Army Golf Course in
    Meerut.

27. Option (1) is correct. The correct statements about the Goncha Festival of
    Bastar are 1 and 2. Therefore, the answer is only 1 and 2.
    Statement 1 is Correct: The festival features the playful
    tradition of Tupki (a mock gun made of bamboo) being
    used to shoot Goncha fruit (a small, wild fruit) using
    harmless bullets. This mock battle is a unique and
    cherished part of the celebration.
    Statement 2 is Correct: The tradition of the Rath Yatra
    (Chariot Procession) in Bastar is linked to the historical
    efforts of the Chalukya rulers of the region, most
    notably Maharaja Purushottam Dev. He is credited with
    instituting the practice after visiting Jagannath Puri and
    receiving blessings and traditions related to the Lord
    Jagannath chariot festival.
    Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Rath Yatra, which is part of
    the Goncha Festival, begins on Ashadh Shukla Dwitiya
    (Dutiya), the second day of the bright half of the Hindu
    lunar month of Ashadh. It does not begin on Ashadh
    Shukla Dashmi (the tenth day). The Dashmi is typically
    associated with the return journey or a related ritual, not
    the commencement of the Yatra.

28. Option (3) is correct. In Carnatic music, a laghu with five beats is known as
    Khanda Jaati. The term jaati refers to the rhythmic count
    or number of beats within a laghu, which forms the base
    of a tala or rhythmic cycle. There are five main types of
    jaatis: Tishra (3 beats), Chaturashra (4 beats), Khanda (5
    beats), Mishra (7 beats), and Sankeerna (9 beats). The
    Khanda Jaati adds rhythmic diversity and complexity
    to Carnatic compositions, enhancing their expressive
    depth.

29. Option (1) is correct. Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.
    It originated as a modern martial art derived from
    traditional Japanese jujutsu and emphasises techniques
    of throws, locks, and holds rather than striking. Jigoro
    Kano founded the Kodokan Institute to promote Judo as
    both a physical discipline and a moral education system.
    Judo later became an Olympic sport in 1964, not 1965,
    making the first statement the only accurate one.

30. Option (2) is correct. The Elephanta Caves are distinct from other early Indian
    rock-cut sites due to their strong Shaivite themes and
    remarkable sculptural depth achieved through the play
    of light and shadow. Located on Elephanta Island near
    Mumbai, these caves primarily depict Lord Shiva in
    various forms, such as Nataraja and Ardhanarishvara.
    The central masterpiece, the Trimurti Sadashiva, reflects
    exceptional artistry and spiritual symbolism, setting
    Elephanta apart from predominantly Buddhist or Jain
    cave traditions.

31. Option (3) is correct. The core structural focus of the 2024 India–UAE Bilateral
    Investment Treaty (BIT) is to assure post-establishment

investorconfidenceviastandardandnationaltreatment.
Thismeansthetreatyemphasisesprotectinginvestments
madeaftertheirestablishment,ensuringinvestorsreceive
fair, equitable, and non-discriminatory treatment similar
to domestic investors. It aligns with India’s reformed
model BIT framework, which prioritises safeguarding
sovereign policy space while promoting transparent and
secure investment environments, marking a shift from
earlier pre-establishment investment protection models.

32. Option (2) is correct. The Santosh Trophy 2022–23 final was uniquely held in
    Riyadh, the capital of Saudi Arabia, where Karnataka
    defeated Meghalaya to clinch the title after 54 years. This
    marked the first time in the tournament’s history that
    the final was played outside India, reflecting growing
    international collaboration in Indian football. The event
    highlighted India’s expanding sporting ties with West
    Asian nations and provided global exposure to domestic
    football talent on an international stage.

33. Option (1) is correct. The statement that best captures the essence of
    “Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought”
    by Kavitha Iyer is that it is a study of human and
    ecological impacts of droughts in India. The book
    presents a deeply researched, non-fictional account of
    how recurring droughts affect farmers, rural livelihoods,
    gender dynamics and the environment. Through
    personal narratives and field reporting, Iyer highlights
    the socioeconomic struggles and systemic neglect that
    intensify India’s agrarian and ecological crises.

34. Option (3) is correct. Both statements about glacial landforms are correct.
    Hanging valleys are smaller tributary valleys that join a
    main glacial valley at a higher elevation, often forming
    waterfalls where they meet. This occurs because the
    main glacier erodes its valley floor more deeply than the
    smaller tributary glacier. Additionally, the spurs or ridges
    of these hanging valleys are truncated into triangular
    facets due to intense glacial erosion, forming the
    characteristic steep and angular topography of glaciated
    regions.

35. Option (2) is correct. The primary function of the Crew Escape System
    (CES) on ISRO’s Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) rocket
    is to eject the crew module to safety during launch
    emergencies. This system is designed to rapidly pull the
    astronaut-carrying crew module away from the launch
    vehicle in case of a malfunction or explosion. Using
    powerful, quick-acting solid motors, the CES ensures
    astronauts can safely distance themselves from danger
    and descend via parachutes, making it a critical safety
    mechanism in human spaceflight missions.

36. Option (1) is correct. Justice Sanjiv Khanna is the 51^st
    Chief Justice of India,
    having assumed office on 11 November 2024. He
    succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, continuing the
    judicial leadership of the Supreme Court of India.
    However, it is incorrect to state that he has served as
    Chief Justice since 2023, as his tenure officially began in

37. Option (3) is correct. The correct objectives that are part of the National Pop-
    ulation Policy (NPP) 2000 are 1, 3 and 4. The policy aims
    to achieve population stabilisation through measures
    such as providing free and compulsory education up to
    14 years of age, reducing the infant mortality rate below
    30 per 1,000 live births, and promoting delayed marriage
    for girls to improve maternal and child health. Howev-
    er, it does not aim to increase the fertility rate; instead,
    it seeks to reduce fertility for sustainable population
    growth and development.

38. Option (3) is correct. The Electron Transport Chain (ETC) generates the most
    ATP during cellular respiration. It occurs in the inner
    mitochondrial membrane, where high-energy electrons
    from NADH and FADH are transferred through a series
    of protein complexes. This process drives the production
    of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation, yielding about
    32–34 ATP molecules per glucose molecule. In contrast,
    glycolysis and the Krebs cycle produce only a small
    amount of ATP directly, making the ETC the most
    energy-efficient stage.

39. Option (1) is correct. The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956,
    leading to the creation of zonal councils to promote
    interstate cooperation. Following this, the first Central
    Zonal Council meeting was held, and later, the Eastern
    Zonal Council meeting took place as part of ongoing
    regional coordination efforts. Thus, the sequence—
    (b) States Reorganisation Act passed → (c) First Central
    Zonal Council meeting → (a) Eastern Zonal Council
    meeting—is historically accurate.

40. Option (3) is correct. The right to property under Article 300A of the Indian
    Constitution is best described as a constitutional legal
    right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.
    After the 44^th
    Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, the
    right to property ceased to be a fundamental right and
    became a constitutional legal right. This means that the
    State can deprive a person of property only through a
    validly enacted law, ensuring lawful authority but not
    guaranteeing compensation in every case.

41. Option (2) is correct. For a rigid body, the angular velocity of any particle
    about a given axis of rotation is the same for all particles.
    In rotational motion, every point in a rigid body rotates
    throughthesameangleinthesametime,regardlessofits
    distance from the axis. However, their linear (tangential)
    velocities differ, being proportional to the distance from
    the axis. Thus, while linear speed varies, angular velocity
    remains uniform throughout the rigid body.

42. Option (3) is correct. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) places
    special emphasis on the use of technology to ensure
    the authenticity of digital and electronic evidence.
    This includes emails, CCTV footage, mobile data, and
    other electronic records. The Act modernises India’s
    evidentiary framework by providing legal recognition
    and procedural safeguards for digital evidence,
    ensuring reliability, chain of custody, and prevention of
    tampering. This focus reflects the increasing importance
    of technology-driven documentation in modern
    investigations and judicial proceedings.

43. Option (1) is correct. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of
    A. The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme
    indeed ensures portability of food grains, allowing
    beneficiaries to access their entitled rations anywhere

in India. This nationwide portability is made possible
through Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication,
which verifies beneficiaries’ identities in real-time
through digital point-of-sale (PoS) systems. Hence, the
useof Aadhaartechnologydirectlyenables the portability
feature, making R the correct explanation of A.

44. Option (1) is correct. Cheraw, the traditional bamboo dance, is a famous
    folk dance of Mizoram. In this dance, performers
    skillfully step in and out of crossed bamboo sticks that
    are rhythmically tapped on the ground. The dance is
    often performed during festivals like Chapchar Kut,
    symbolising joy and celebration. Cheraw reflects the
    grace, rhythm, and cultural vibrancy of the Mizo people
    and is one of the oldest and most iconic traditional
    dances of Mizoram.

45. Option (3) is correct. In the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking 2025,
    a key factor assessed is the defence budget of a nation.
    This budget reflects the financial capacity of a country
    to fund its armed forces, procure advanced weaponry,
    maintain military infrastructure, and support research
    and development in defence technology. Along with
    manpower, logistics and natural resources, the defence
    budget plays a crucial role in determining a country's
    overall military strength and strategic readiness on the
    global stage.

46. Option (3) is correct. Cooperative sector industries are owned by workers or
    suppliers who share profits and losses collectively. These
    industries operate on the principles of cooperation,
    mutual benefit and democratic management. Members
    contribute resources and participate in decision-
    making, ensuring equitable distribution of income and
    responsibilities. Examples include Amul, IFFCO and
    KRIBHCO, which promote self-reliance and community
    welfare rather than profit maximisation. Thus, they
    represent a people-centric approach to industrial
    development within India’s mixed economy.

47. Option (3) is correct. After the 42^nd
    Amendment Act of 1976, education was
    moved to the Concurrent List. This means that both
    the Central and State Governments can make laws on
    matters related to education. The shift aimed to bring
    greateruniformityinthenationaleducationsystemwhile
    still allowing flexibility for states to address local needs.
    This amendment strengthened India’s educational
    policy framework by promoting coordination between
    the Union and State governments in planning and
    implementation.

48. Option (3) is correct. The main objective of the National Framework for
    Climate Services (NFCS), launched in 2024, is to deliver
    sector-specific climate information services. This
    initiative aims to provide accurate, timely and localised
    climate data to key sectors such as agriculture, water,
    health, energy and disaster management. By enhancing
    climate resilience and adaptive capacity, NFCS supports
    informed decision-making and policy planning. It aligns
    with the World Meteorological Organisation’s global
    framework, helping India strengthen preparedness
    against climate-related risks.

49. Option (1) is correct. Argon in the Earth’s crust is primarily produced through
    thedecayofpotassium-40(K-40).Thisradioactiveisotope
    of potassium undergoes electron capture or positron
    emission to form argon-40 over geological time scales.
    The accumulation of argon in rocks and minerals is a key
    principle behind radiometric dating techniques, such
    as potassium-argon (K-Ar) dating, used to determine
    the age of ancient rocks and volcanic materials. Thus,
    argon originates mainly from K-40 decay, not external
    processes like volcanism or cosmic rays.

50. Option (3) is correct. The correct statement is that Fundamental Rights
    are justiciable, but Directive Principles of State Policy
    (DPSPs) are not. Fundamental Rights, enshrined in
    Part III of the Constitution, can be directly enforced
    by the courts if violated. In contrast, DPSPs, listed in
    Part IV, serve as guiding principles for governance but
    are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced
    through legal action. However, DPSPs are essential for
    achieving social and economic justice, complementing
    Fundamental Rights in promoting welfare.
    Quantitative Aptitude

51. Option (2) is correct. Given fractions are:
    5
    9
    4
    7
    3
    5
    2
    3
    , , ,
    LCM of 9, 7, 5, 3 = 315
    So,
    5
    9
    =
    175
    315
    4
    7
    180
    315
    ; = ;
    3
    5
    =
    189
    315
    2
    3
    210
    315
    ; =
    The correct ascending order is:
    175
    315
    180
    315
    189
    315
    210
    315
    ; ; ; i.e.,
    5
    9
    4
    7
    3
    5
    2
    3
    , , ,

52. Option (1) is correct. 2
    1
    2
    3 6 1 9
    . . = (2.5 + 3.6) – 1.9
    = 6.1 – 1.9 = 4.2

53. Option (3) is correct. 7
    1
    4
    5
    6
    1
    3
    1
    2
    3
    4
    1
    4
    =
    29
    4
    5
    6
    1
    3
    1
    2
    1
    2
    =
    29
    4
    5
    6
    1
    3
    1
    4
    =
    29
    4
    5
    6
    1
    12
    =
    29
    4
    5
    6
    12
    29
    4
    10
    =
    =
    29 40
    4
    11
    4
    2
    3
    4
    −
    − − = =

54. Option (2) is correct. Number of software engineers who are proficient in
    Python
    = 70 + 50 = 120
    Number of software engineers who are proficient in Java
    = 50 + 60 = 110
    So, required ratio = 120 : 110 = 12 : 11

55. Option (4) is correct. Total profit = 105000 According to the question, the ratio of their shares is: 12 × 80000 : 8 × 120000 : 4 × 160000
    = 960000:960000:640000 = 3 : 3 : 2 So, share of Chandan = 2 3 3 2 + + × 105000 = 2 8 × 105000 = 26250

56. Option (4) is correct. Total profit = 45000 According to the question, the ratio of their shares is: 9 × 80000 : 6 × 120000 = 720000 : 720000 = 1 : 1 So, share of B = 1 1 1 + × 45000 = 1 2 × 45000 = 22500

57. Option (1) is correct. The integers between 100 and 250 that are exactly
    divisible by 11 are:
    110, 121, …, 242
    Sum of all above integers =
    13
    2
    (110 + 242)
    =
    13
    2
    × 352 = 2288
    So, average =
    2288
    13
    = 176

58. Option (1) is correct. Price of first oil = 90/kg; Price of second oil = 150/kg
    Selling price of mixture = 144/kg; Profit = 20% Selling Price = 1.2 × Cost Price 144 = 1.2 × C.P . C.P . = 144 1 2 . = 120/kg
    As, mean price = 120 per kg So, mean differences are: 120 – 90 = 30 per kg
    and 150 – 120 = ` 30 per kg
    Hence, ratio = 30 : 30 = 1 : 1

59. Option (3) is correct. Given: Cost of flat = 8,00,000 Desired annual return = 9% Maintenance = 2,000 per month
    As, 9% of 8,00,000 =
    9
    100
    × 8,00,000 = 72,000
    Rent charge without maintenance
    =
    72000
    12
    6000 =
    Rent charge maintenance
    = 6000 + 2000 = 8000

60. Option (1) is correct. Let amount = A; time = 5 years; principal = P
    According to the question,
    2P = P
    R
    1
    100
    5
    2 = 1
    100
    5
    R
    Now, if amount = 8P , then
    8P = P
    R
    T
    1
    100
    8 = ( ) 2
    1
    5 T
    23
    = 25
    T
    T
    5
    = 3
    T = 15 years

61. Option (3) is correct. Here, amount = ` 6600; time = 2 years; principal = P
    So, 6600 = P
    R
    1
    100
    2
    6600
    1
    2
    P
    = 1
    100

R
…(i)
Now, amount = ` 7920; time = 3 years; principal = P
So, 7920 = P
R
1
100
3
7920
1
3
P
= 1
100
+
R
…(ii)
From (i) and (ii),
6600
1
2
P

7920
1
3
P
6600
1
2
6
P

7920
1
3
6
P
6600
3
P

7920
2
P
P =
6600 6600 6600
7920 7920
× ×
×
= ` 4583.33

62. Option (2) is correct. Given: 25 litres of milk at 45/litre; 15 litres of milk at 50/litre
    Total = 25 + 15 = 40 litres
    Selling price = 48/litre Cost price of 25 litres at 45/litre = 25 × 45 = 1125 Cost price of 15 litres at 50/litre = 15 × 50 = 750 Total cost price = (1125 + 750) = 1875 Total selling price = 40 × 48 = 1920 Profit = SP – CP = 1920 – 1875 = 45

63. Option (1) is correct. Given: Total toy cars produced = 1200
    Total cost = 90,000 So, cost price per toy car = 90,000 ÷ 1200 = ` 75
    Donated cars = 200
    Remaining cars for sale = 1200 – 200 = 1000

Market price per car = 120 Discount = 10%, So, Selling Price (SP) per car = 120 – 10% of 120 = 108
Effective SP per car =
8 108
10
× `

864 10 = 86.40
Total revenue = 1000 × 86.40 = 86,400 Total cost = 90,000
Loss = Cost – Revenue
= 90,000 – 86,400 = ` 3,600
Loss % =
3600
90000
× 100 = 4%

64. Option (3) is correct. Let the original cost price of the air conditioner = ` x
    So, marked price =
    180
    100
    × x = 1.8x
    After 25% discount, the price becomes
    1.8x × (1 – 0.25) = 1.8x × 0.75 = 1.35x
    Apply additional 10% discount
    1.35x × (1 – 0.10) = 1.35x × 0.9 = 1.215x
    According to the question,
    1.215x = 15552
    x =
    15552
    1 215 .
    = 12,800

65. Option (2) is correct. Total mixture = 40 litre; Ratio = Juice : Water = 5 : 3
    So, juice =
    5
    8
    × 40 = 25 litres
    And, water =
    3
    8
    × 40 = 15 litres
    Let x litres of water be added, then
    25
    15+x
    =
    2
    3
    25 × 3 = 2(15 + x)
    75 = 30 + 2x
    x = 22.5

66. Option (3) is correct. Part of work done by A in 1 day =
    1
    15
    Part of work done by B in 1 day =
    1
    20
    So, work done by both A and B together in 4 days
    = 4
    1
    15
    1
    20
    = 4
    35
    300
    × =
    7
    15
    So, part of remaining work = 1
    7
    15
    8
    15
    − =

67. Option (3) is correct. Given: Average of 15 numbers = 80
    So, sum of 15 numbers = 80 × 15 = 1200
    Average of first 6 numbers = 72
    So, sum of first 6 numbers = 72 × 6 = 432
    Average of next 6 numbers =
    125
    100
    × 72 = 90
    So, sum of next 6 numbers = 90 × 6 = 540
    Let the 15^th
    number be X.
    So, 13^th
    number = X + 8
    And, 14^th
    number = X – 10
    As, sum of 15 numbers = 1200
    So, 432 + 540 + X + 8 + X – 10 + X = 1200
    3X + 970 = 1200
    3X = 230
    X =
    230
    3
    = 76.67
    Now, average of 13^th
    and 14^th
    number
    =
    X X 8 10
    2
    =
    2 2
    2
    X−
    = X – 1 = 75.67

68. Option (1) is correct. Given: Pipe A fills
    1
    6
    of the tank per hour;
    pipe B fills
    1
    8
    of the tank per hour
    and pipe C fills
    1
    12
    of the tank per hour.
    Combined rate =
    1
    6
    1
    8
    1
    12

=
4
24
3
24
2
24

• • = 9
    24
    3
    8
    =
    So, all three together fill
    3
    8
    of the tank per hour.
    Work done in first 2 hours= 2
    3
    8
    6
    8
    3
    4
    Remaining = 1
    3
    4
    1
    4
    After closing pipe C, the combined rate of A and B work
    =
    1
    6
    1
    8
    4 3
    24
    7
    24
    Time =
    Work remaining
    Rate
    =
    1
    4
    7
    24
    24
    28
    6
    7
    = = hours

69. Option (3) is correct. Time = 30 minutes =
    1
    2
    hour
    Distance = Speed × Time
    = 240 ×
    1
    2
    = 120 km
    New distance = 120 + 20% of 120
    = 120 + 24 = 144 km
    New speed =
    Distance
    Time
    =
    144
    0 5 .
    = 288 km/h
    New average speed = 288 km/h

70. Option (1) is correct. Let the speeds of cars X and Y be x km/h and y km/h,
    respectively.
    According to the question,
    (x + y) × 4 = 360
    x + y = 90 …(1)
    And, (x – y) × 12 = 360
    x – y = 30 …(2)
    On solving, we get
    2x = 120 ⇒ x = 60
    So, speed of car x = 60 km/h

71. Option (2) is correct. Radius of circular pizza = 21 cm
    Since,75%ofpizzaiseaten,so25%ofpizzaisremaining.
    Hence, required area =
    25
    100
    × π × 21 × 21
    =
    1
    4
    × 3.141 × 21 × 21
    = 346.3 cm2

72. Option (1) is correct. Outer radius = 10 cm, inner radius = 7 cm
    Area of outer circle = 100π cm2
    Area of inner circle = 49π cm2
    Hence, area of ring = 100π – 49π = 51π ≈ 50π cm2
    So, ratio = 50π : 100π = 1 : 2

73. Option (2) is correct. Radius of wheel = 35 cm
    Circumference of wheel = 2πr = 2 ×
    22
    7
    × 35 = 220 cm
    Distance covered in a quarter turn =
    220
    4
    = 55 cm
    So, required percentage =
    55
    220
    100 × = 25%

74. Option (3) is correct. Since, the line y = mx + 5 passes through (1, 8), so
    8 = m(1) + 5
    m = 8 – 5 = 3

75. Option (2) is correct. 313

• 183 – 373
• 210 = 29791 + 5832 – 50653 + 210 = 35833 – 50653 = –14820
  English Comprehension

76. Option (3) is correct. “Accusation” implies a statement saying that you think a
    person is guilty of doing something wrong or illegal; the
    fact of accusing somebody. “Denunciation” is a public
    condemnation of someone or something. “Indictment”
    means a formal charge or accusation of a serious
    crime. While an official reprimand or strong criticism is
    “censure”. Example: The act of violence by the student
    union received strong censure from society.

77. Option (3) is correct. Hobson's choice refers to the necessity of accepting one
    of two or more equally objectionable alternatives. Thus,
    the correct option is: no real choice at all. Example: It felt
    like a “Hobson's Choice” when I was left with the choice
    of choosing to stay with my beloved or continuing to
    stay with my parents.

78. Option (3) is correct. The word “perfidious” means deceitful and
    untrustworthy or untrue to what should command
    one's fidelity or allegiance. As analysed earlier that
    its synonym is “treacherous”, so anything to do with
    loyalty is its antonym. Thus, the most suitable antonym
    is “loyal”. Other options (1, 2 and 4) are synonyms of the
    given word.

79. Option (4) is correct. “Vicereine” refers to the wife of a viceroy. The word
    “floccinaucinihilipilification” means “the estimation
    of something as worthless”. To “defenestrate” means
    to throw someone or something out of a window.
    “Quintessance” is spelt incorrectly; it must be written as
    “quintessence”, which means the most perfect or typical
    example of a quality or class.

80. Option (1) is correct. The correct spelling of a CSF shunt procedure is
    “ventriculoperitoneal”.

81. Option (3) is correct. The word “perfidious” means deceitful and
    untrustworthyoruntruetowhatshouldcommand one's
    fidelity or allegiance. Thus, the most suitable synonym is
    “treacherous”.Otheroptions(1,2and4)areantonymsof
    the given word. Example: The couple who had gone into
    hiding to escape the wrath of their respective families
    hardly knew that they had confided their whereabouts
    to a perfidious friend cum relative.

82. Option (1) is correct. The startup scaled so rapidly that its infrastructure could
    barely keep pace. “Merely” means simply; nothing more
    than. Example: I am merely a small player in the bigger
    scheme of things. “Scarcely” means almost not at all.
    Example: Scarcely had I left the house, when my uncle
    arrived. “Barely” means “only just” or “almost not”,
    and this aligns with the context of the infrastructure
    struggling to keep up with the rapid scaling.

83. Option (4) is correct. Rare though the phenomenon is, it can occur under
    prolonged drought conditions. “Under” is used to
    indicate the conditions or circumstances in which
    something occurs, aligning with the idea that the
    phenomenon happens when prolonged drought
    conditions are present.

84. Option (2) is correct. The correct answer is: While the proposal appeared
    pragmatic on paper, its implementation proved more
    complicated than expected. The sentence compares two
    different situations, so the use of the comparative degree
    of the adjective is mandated (“more complicated”),
    followed by “than”. Thus, “more” is justified here.

85. Option (2) is correct. The error lies in “of the community unrest were
    surprising”; it must be written as “of the community
    unrest was surprising”. This is related to the error of
    subject-verb agreement. The subject is “the failure of
    the report”, which was surprising because the subject
    is singular, which will be followed by the verb in the
    singular (“was”).

86. Option (2) is correct. The error lies in “What renders the draft legislation
    particularly contentious is not its proposed realignment
    of fiscal powers per se but that it presumes, without
    empirical substantiation”; it must be written as “but that

it assumes, without empirical substantiation”. Assume
means to accept something as true without proof, while
presume means to believe something is true based on
likelihood or evidence. The fact that the draft legislation
is without empirical substantiation makes “assumes” the
correct alternative. The correct answer is: What renders
the draft legislation particularly contentious is not its
proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se, but that it
assumes, without empirical substantiation.

87. Option (4) is correct. The sentence “They have been neglecting maintenance
    of the archives for years” is in active voice, and to change
    to passive voice, the subject of active voice will change
    to the object in the passive. Similarly, the object of the
    active voice will become the subject in the passive voice.
    Thereby, the object “maintenance of the archives” will
    become the subject in passive voice. The structure of the
    present perfect continuous in passive voice is: has/have
    been being + past participle (“has been neglecting”).
    The phrase of time “for years” remains unchanged.

All
options, except (4), use the incorrect form of tense. The
correct sentence is: Maintenance of the archives has
been being neglected for years.

88. Option (2) is correct. Inthesentence,“Thechildbegantheintroitatthepriest’s
    signal”, the word “introit” refers to a hymn, psalm, or
    anthem that is sung as the ministers enter to begin the
    eucharist.

All options, except (2), have the implication of
a hymn sung at the beginning of a worship service.

89. Option (1) is correct. Thesentence“Itwasbeingsuggestedbymultiplesources
    that the operation had been compromised internally”
    is in passive voice, and to change to active voice, the
    subject of passive voice will change to the object in
    active. Similarly, the object of passive voice will become
    the subject in active voice. Thereby, the object/agent
    “Multiple sources” will become the subject in active
    voice. The past perfect tense (had been compromised) in
    passivevoicechangestosimplepast“wascompromised”
    in active. The correct sentence is: Multiple sources
    suggested the operation was compromised internally.

90. Option (3) is correct. As evident from the passage, education focuses on
    rote memorisation and standardised testing, while
    wisdom can be attained through trials, experiences and
    reflections.

91. Option (2) is correct. The passage says that “wisdom transcends rigidity”,
    and it entails the application to real-life events, which
    are enhanced by emotional intelligence and experience.
    Wisdom involves judgements that are influenced by
    real-life contexts and enables applying learning ethically
    and morally. Wisdom is associated with prudence and
    sagacity, which correlate to the development of moral
    awareness. This confirms that “wisdom enriches the
    soul” means that it fosters deeper moral insight.

92. Option (2) is correct. The passage clearly states that “many wise individuals—
    farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal
    education, but their decisions exhibit prudence and
    sagacity cultivated through lived realities.”

93. Option (4) is correct. The passage is on the divergence between education
    and wisdom, where education centres around the
    formal acquisition of knowledge based on theoretical
    frameworks; whereas, “wisdom transcends rigidity” and
    it entails the application to real-life events, which are
    enhanced by emotional intelligence and experience. On
    another level, education focuses on rote memorisation
    and standardised testing, while wisdom can be attained
    through trials, experiences and reflections. These two
    sets of pictures evince that the central contrast in the
    passageisbetweenformallearningandappliedwisdom.

94. Option (3) is correct. It is explicitly stated in the passage that education
    equips the mind and wisdom enriches the soul, in an
    era dominated by information overload and algorithmic
    thinking, which has resulted in the widening of the
    schism. Thus, the reason behind the widening of the gap
    between education and wisdom.

95. Option (2) is correct. The correct sentence is: She has the reputation of being
    a kind woman. The part “to be a kind woman” will be
    replaced by “of being a kind woman”. “Reputation” is a
    noun, and we need a noun or gerund (a verb ending in
    “-ing”). Moreover, “to be” is an infinitive form of the verb
    and doesn’t naturally follow “reputation.”

96. Option (3) is correct. The correct sentence is: The doctor advised him to avoid
    eating sweets and to exercise regularly. The original
    sentence lacks parallel structure and is inconsistent in
    structure.Theverb“advised”isfollowedbytheinfinitive
    form “to avoid”. Similarly to maintain parallelism, we
    must use the infinitive form “to exercise” for the second
    action. The verb “advised him” must be followed by “to”,
    not the gerund form.

97. Option (1) is correct. The sentence: He asked me, “Have you done your
    homework?” is in direct speech. To change the question
    into indirect speech, the reporting verb “asked“ is used.
    Here, questions become statements, so we remove the
    question mark. In interrogative statements, we add “if”
    before removing the quotation marks. Other changes
    include in terms of pronoun and tense- “You” becomes
    “I“ and present perfect (“have done“) changes to past
    perfect (“had done“) because we shift the tense back for
    indirect speech. The correct sentence then becomes “He
    asked me if I had done my homework.”

98. Option (1) is correct. The sentence “He said that he would join the meeting
    after lunch” is in indirect speech. To change into direct
    speech, the reporting clause (“He said that“) must be
    removed and by eliminating “that”. The words of the
    speaker will be put within quotation marks. Other
    changes include in terms of pronoun and tense-“He“
    becomes “I“ and “would” changes to “will“.

99. Option (1) is correct. To form a logical and procedural flow of ideas:

I. - (3) User interactions were collected across platforms.

• Data collection comes first.

II. - (2) Demographic metrics were tracked from cam-
paign dashboards.

• After gathering user interactions, measurable data (metrics) are analysed.

III. - (4) Analysts segmented users by age and behaviour.

• Once metrics are analysed, segmentation logically follows.

IV. - (1) A media strategy was framed based on outreach
results.

• The strategy is the final outcome informed by the data analysis.

100. Option (1) is correct. Let’s analyse logically based on how a coherent
     description of research develops:

I. - (2) Research is a foundational pillar of academic and
scientific progress.

• This introduces the topic — the importance and role of research.

II. - (1) It is a process that involves the systematic and
objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts
or to confirm existing ones.

• This defines what research is, following the introduction.

III. - (3) This can be either theoretical, aiming to expand
knowledge, or applied, seeking to solve a practical
problem.

• This elaborates on the types of research, adding detail after the definition.

IV. - (4) The findings of this investigation are then
documented and peer-reviewed to ensure validity and
credibility.

• This concludes logically with the outcome or final step of research.