Previous Year Paper

SBI PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 5 December 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2023

155 questions180 minutes
With answers
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Reasoning & Computer Aptitude (40 questions)

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There is a square room with two concentric circular tables in it. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around the inner circular table, at first all are facing inside. Some like different fruits Cherry, Mango, Pineapple, and Guava. Some like different colors Blue, White, Red, and Green. A person either likes fruit or color. Two persons sit between those who like Pineapple fruit and like Blue color when counted anticlockwise from the person who likes Pineapple and neither of them sit opposite to P. R and W are immediate neighbors and R does not like Pineapple. T, who likes White sits second to the right of the person who likes Blue color. The one who likes Cherry and T are immediate neighbors. The immediate neighbor of the one who likes Cheery faces W. W sits immediately right of the one who likes Guava. One person sits between the one who likes Mango and W. Mango is two places away from V. S sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of U. S does not like Cherry and Guava. The one who likes the Green color sits second to the left of P. V. does not like the Green color.

Now they start playing card games. They shuffled a pack of cards.

Conditions:

  1. If the card drawn is a queen of heart or queen of Diamond then the person will shift his position just behind i.e outer circle its previous position and will face outside. 

  2. If the card drawn is King of Spade then the person will shift his position just behind the person who sits second to the left of him in the inner table and will face inside.

  3. If the card drawn is Jack of Club, a person will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of that person and will face outside.

  4. If the card drawn is King of Heart, the person will shift to any corner of the table and will face inside.

  5. If the card drawn differs from the above-given cards then the person will not shift anywhere.

Draws:

  1. Q draws King of Spade.

  2. P draws King of Diamond

  3. R draws Queen of Diamond

  4. W draws King of Heart

  5. T draws 9 of Heart

  6. S draws Jack of Club

  7. U draws Queen of Club

  8. V draws Jack of Club

Note: All the persons draw cards in a serial way as given above. ( First Q draws the card then P and so on)

Question 1

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

After all persons changed their places based on the above conditions, who among the following is sitting immediately left of U?

  1. AOption (a)

    S

  2. BOption (b)

    V

  3. COption (c)

    the one who likes the White color

  4. DOption (d)

    Q

  5. EOption (e)

    the one who likes the Mango fruit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

V

Why this answer is correct

1) Two persons sit between those who like Pineapple fruit and like Blue color when counted anticlockwise from the person who likes Pineapple T, who likes White sit second to the right of the person who likes Blue color. 

2) The one who likes Cherry and T are immediate neighbors. The immediate neighbor of the one who likes Cheery faces W. W sits immediately right of the one who likes Guava. 

 

3) One person sits between the one who likes Mango and W. Mango is two places away from V.

 

4)  R and W are immediate neighbors and neither of them like Pineapple. 

 

  1. The one who likes Pineapple fruit and Blue color does not sit opposite to P. The one who likes the Green color sits second to the left of P. V. does not like the Green color.

  2. S sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of U. S does not like Cherry and Guava. Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) do not satisfy the given condition which is why Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) are eliminated.

The arrangement is:

7)  Q draws King of Spade. Q will shift his position just behind the person who sits second to the left of him at the inner table and will face inside. P draws King of Diamond. According to condition 5, P remains at the same position. R draws Queen of Diamond. R will shift his position just behind (i.e. outer circle) its previous position and will face outside.

8)  W draws King of Heart. W will shift to any corner of the table and will face inside. T draws 9 of Heart. According to condition 5, No change in the position of T.  S draws Jack of Club. S will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of S and will face outside.

9)  U draws Queen of Club. According to Condition 5, No change in the position of U. Person V draws Jack of Club. V will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of V and will face outside. V is sitting immediately left of U. 

The final arrangement is:

V is sitting immediately left of U.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There is a square room with two concentric circular tables in it. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting around the inner circular table, at first all are facing inside. Some like different fruits Cherry, Mango, Pineapple, and Guava. Some like different colors Blue, White, Red, and Green. A person either likes fruit or color. Two persons sit between those who like Pineapple fruit and like Blue color when counted anticlockwise from the person who likes Pineapple and neither of them sit opposite to P. R and W are immediate neighbors and R does not like Pineapple. T, who likes White sits second to the right of the person who likes Blue color. The one who likes Cherry and T are immediate neighbors. The immediate neighbor of the one who likes Cheery faces W. W sits immediately right of the one who likes Guava. One person sits between the one who likes Mango and W. Mango is two places away from V. S sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of U. S does not like Cherry and Guava. The one who likes the Green color sits second to the left of P. V. does not like the Green color.

Now they start playing card games. They shuffled a pack of cards.

Conditions:

  1. If the card drawn is a queen of heart or queen of Diamond then the person will shift his position just behind i.e outer circle its previous position and will face outside. 

  2. If the card drawn is King of Spade then the person will shift his position just behind the person who sits second to the left of him in the inner table and will face inside.

  3. If the card drawn is Jack of Club, a person will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of that person and will face outside.

  4. If the card drawn is King of Heart, the person will shift to any corner of the table and will face inside.

  5. If the card drawn differs from the above-given cards then the person will not shift anywhere.

Draws:

  1. Q draws King of Spade.

  2. P draws King of Diamond

  3. R draws Queen of Diamond

  4. W draws King of Heart

  5. T draws 9 of Heart

  6. S draws Jack of Club

  7. U draws Queen of Club

  8. V draws Jack of Club

Note: All the persons draw cards in a serial way as given above. ( First Q draws the card then P and so on)

Question 2

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

After all the persons changed their places based on the above conditions, then how many persons facing away from the center?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Five

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

  5. EOption (e)

    Three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Three

Why this answer is correct

1) Two persons sit between those who like Pineapple fruit and like Blue color when counted anticlockwise from the person who likes Pineapple T, who likes White sit second to the right of the person who likes Blue color. 

2) The one who likes Cherry and T are immediate neighbors. The immediate neighbor of the one who likes Cheery faces W. W sits immediately right of the one who likes Guava. 

 

3) One person sits between the one who likes Mango and W. Mango is two places away from V.

 

4)  R and W are immediate neighbors and neither of them like Pineapple. 

 

  1. The one who likes Pineapple fruit and Blue color does not sit opposite to P. The one who likes the Green color sits second to the left of P. V. does not like the Green color.

  2. S sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of U. S does not like Cherry and Guava. Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) do not satisfy the given condition which is why Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) are eliminated.

The arrangement is:

7)  Q draws King of Spade. Q will shift his position just behind the person who sits second to the left of him at the inner table and will face inside. P draws King of Diamond. According to condition 5, P remains at the same position. R draws Queen of Diamond. R will shift his position just behind (i.e. outer circle) its previous position and will face outside.

8)  W draws King of Heart. W will shift to any corner of the table and will face inside. T draws 9 of Heart. According to condition 5, No change in the position of T.  S draws Jack of Club. S will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of S and will face outside.

9)  U draws Queen of Club. According to Condition 5, No change in the position of U. Person V draws Jack of Club. V will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of V and will face outside. T is sitting immediately right of V. 

The final arrangement is:

 Three persons are facing away from the center.

Question 3

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

After all persons changed their places based on the above conditions, who among the following is sitting at the corner of the square?

  1. AOption (a)

    The one who likes Green color

  2. BOption (b)

    R

  3. COption (c)

    the one who likes Pineapple

  4. DOption (d)

    P

  5. EOption (e)

    the one who likes White color

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The one who likes Green color

Why this answer is correct

1) Two persons sit between those who like Pineapple fruit and like Blue color when counted anticlockwise from the person who likes Pineapple T, who likes White sit second to the right of the person who likes Blue color. 

2) The one who likes Cherry and T are immediate neighbors. The immediate neighbor of the one who likes Cheery faces W. W sits immediately right of the one who likes Guava. 

 

3) One person sits between the one who likes Mango and W. Mango is two places away from V.

 

4)  R and W are immediate neighbors and neither of them like Pineapple. 

 

  1. The one who likes Pineapple fruit and Blue color does not sit opposite to P. The one who likes the Green color sits second to the left of P. V. does not like the Green color.

  2. S sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of U. S does not like Cherry and Guava. Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) do not satisfy the given condition which is why Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) are eliminated.

The arrangement is:

7)  Q draws King of Spade. Q will shift his position just behind the person who sits second to the left of him at the inner table and will face inside. P draws King of Diamond. According to condition 5, P remains at the same position. R draws Queen of Diamond. R will shift his position just behind (i.e. outer circle) its previous position and will face outside.

8)  W draws King of Heart. W will shift to any corner of the table and will face inside. T draws 9 of Heart. According to condition 5, No change in the position of T.  S draws Jack of Club. S will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of S and will face outside.

9)  U draws Queen of Club. According to Condition 5, No change in the position of U. Person V draws Jack of Club. V will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of V and will face outside. T is sitting immediately right of V. 

The final arrangement is:

The one who likes Green color is sitting at the corner of the square.

Question 4

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons are sitting between S and the one who likes blue color when counted to the right of S(in the final arrangement)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Five

  3. COption (c)

    One

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

  5. EOption (e)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Two

Why this answer is correct

1) Two persons sit between those who like Pineapple fruit and like Blue color when counted anticlockwise from the person who likes Pineapple T, who likes White sit second to the right of the person who likes Blue color. 

2) The one who likes Cherry and T are immediate neighbors. The immediate neighbor of the one who likes Cheery faces W. W sits immediately right of the one who likes Guava. 

 

3) One person sits between the one who likes Mango and W. Mango is two places away from V.

 

4)  R and W are immediate neighbors and neither of them like Pineapple. 

 

  1. The one who likes Pineapple fruit and Blue color does not sit opposite to P. The one who likes the Green color sits second to the left of P. V. does not like the Green color.

  2. S sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of U. S does not like Cherry and Guava. Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) do not satisfy the given condition which is why Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) are eliminated.

The arrangement is:

7)  Q draws King of Spade. Q will shift his position just behind the person who sits second to the left of him at the inner table and will face inside. P draws King of Diamond. According to condition 5, P remains at the same position. R draws Queen of Diamond. R will shift his position just behind (i.e. outer circle) its previous position and will face outside.

8)  W draws King of Heart. W will shift to any corner of the table and will face inside. T draws 9 of Heart. According to condition 5, No change in the position of T.  S draws Jack of Club. S will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of S and will face outside.

9)  U draws Queen of Club. According to Condition 5, No change in the position of U. Person V draws Jack of Club. V will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of V and will face outside. T is sitting immediately right of V. 

The final arrangement is:

Two person is sitting between S and the one who likes blue color when counted to the right of S(in the final arrangement)

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

After all persons changed their places based on the above conditions who among the following sits just behind T in the outer Circle?

  1. AOption (a)

    U

  2. BOption (b)

    the one who likes Blue color

  3. COption (c)

    the one who likes Red color

  4. DOption (d)

    T

  5. EOption (e)

    the one who likes Cherry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the one who likes Blue color

Why this answer is correct

1) Two persons sit between those who like Pineapple fruit and like Blue color when counted anticlockwise from the person who likes Pineapple T, who likes White sit second to the right of the person who likes Blue color. 

2) The one who likes Cherry and T are immediate neighbors. The immediate neighbor of the one who likes Cheery faces W. W sits immediately right of the one who likes Guava. 

 

 

3) One person sits between the one who likes Mango and W. Mango is two places away from V.

 

4)  R and W are immediate neighbors and neither of them like Pineapple. 

 

 

  1. The one who likes Pineapple fruit and Blue color does not sit opposite to P. The one who likes the Green color sits second to the left of P. V. does not like the Green color.

  2. S sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of U. S does not like Cherry and Guava. Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) do not satisfy the given condition which is why Case 1(a) and Case 1(b) are eliminated.

The arrangement is:

7)  Q draws King of Spade. Q will shift his position just behind the person who sits second to the left of him at the inner table and will face inside. P draws King of Diamond. According to condition 5, P remains at the same position. R draws Queen of Diamond. R will shift his position just behind (i.e. outer circle) its previous position and will face outside.

8)  W draws King of Heart. W will shift to any corner of the table and will face inside. T draws 9 of Heart. According to condition 5, No change in the position of T.  S draws Jack of Club. S will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of S and will face outside.

9)  U draws Queen of Club. According to Condition 5, No change in the position of U. Person V draws Jack of Club. V will shift his position just behind the person who sits immediately right of V and will face outside. T is sitting immediately right of V. 

The final arrangement is:

The one who likes blue sits just behind T in the outer circle.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and a number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: Unregulated 19 Window 92 Brought 26 Empowering 25 Inspired 41

Step I: down Unregulated 92 Brought 26 Empowering 25 Inspired 41 28

Step II: thug down Unregulated 26 Empowering 25 Inspired 41 28 57

Step III: date thug down 26 Empowering Inspired 41 28 57 43

Step IV: ring date thug down 26 Inspired 28 57 43 77

Step V: dire ring date thug down 28 57 43 77 20

Step VI:ytkx (A) ybix iuhv ynfo 82 75 (B) 77 02

Step VI is the last step for the above input. Find out the appropriate steps for the following input.

Input: 82 Pleasure 17 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What would come in the place of (A) and (B) ?

  1. AOption (a)

    "efom" and "65"

  2. BOption (b)

    "kdot" and "17"

  3. COption (c)

    "hrmt" and "19"

  4. DOption (d)

    "ovmu" and "52"

  5. EOption (e)

     "ktov" and "34"

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

 "ktov" and "34"

Why this answer is correct

Input:  82 Pleasure 17 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking

Step I:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word from the last four alphabets. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step. 

Number: Select the lowest number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

sure 82 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking 26

Step II: Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

rise sure Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51

Step III:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the lowest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

edge rise sure Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51 41

Step IV:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

King edge rise sure Humanity 34 26 51 41 27

Step V:  Letter: Choose the remaining word. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the remaining number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

tiny king edge rise sure 26 51 41 27 24

Step VI: Letter: In every word, exchange every alphabet with its opposite alphabet. Then write the alphabet whose place value is two more than the opposite alphabet place value.

Number: Exchange the digits within the number.

itod rtov xyvx ktkx jhkx 62 15 14 72 42

"ktov" will come in place of (A), and "34" will come in place of (B).

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many elements (words or numbers) are there between "26" and "Knowledge" as they appear in the Step II?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Five

  3. COption (c)

    Eight

  4. DOption (d)

    Six

  5. EOption (e)

    Three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Five

Why this answer is correct

Input:  82 Pleasure 17 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking

Step I:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word from the last four alphabets. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step. 

Number: Select the lowest number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

sure 82 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking 26

Step II: Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

rise sure Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51

Step III:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the lowest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

edge rise sure Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51 41

Step IV:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

King edge rise sure Humanity 34 26 51 41 27

Step V:  Letter: Choose the remaining word. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the remaining number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

tiny king edge rise sure 26 51 41 27 24

Step VI: Letter: In every word, exchange every alphabet with its opposite alphabet. Then write the alphabet whose place value is two more than the opposite alphabet place value.

Number: Exchange the digits within the number.

itod rtov xyvx ktkx jhkx 62 15 14 72 42

Five elements (words or numbers) are there between "26" and "Knowledge" as they appear in Step II.

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is second from the right end in Step IV? 

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    41

  4. DOption (d)

    Humanity

  5. EOption (e)

    rise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

41

Why this answer is correct

Input:  82 Pleasure 17 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking

Step I:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word from the last four alphabets. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step. 

Number: Select the lowest number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

sure 82 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking 26

Step II: Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

rise sure Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51

Step III:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the lowest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

edge rise sure Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51 41

Step IV:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

King edge rise sure Humanity 34 26 51 41 27

Step V:  Letter: Choose the remaining word. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the remaining number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

tiny king edge rise sure 26 51 41 27 24

Step VI: Letter: In every word, exchange every alphabet with its opposite alphabet. Then write the alphabet whose place value is two more than the opposite alphabet place value.

Number: Exchange the digits within the number.

itod rtov xyvx ktkx jhkx 62 15 14 72 42

41 is second from the right end in Step IV.

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the difference between the third smallest number from Step II and the greatest number in Step III?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    27

  5. EOption (e)

    31

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17

Why this answer is correct

Input:  82 Pleasure 17 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking

Step I:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word from the last four alphabets. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step. 

Number: Select the lowest number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

sure 82 Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 Countries 42 Earmarking 26

Step II: Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

rise sure Knowledge 23 Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51

Step III:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the reverse alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the lowest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

edge rise sure Humanity 34 42 Earmarking 26 51 41

Step IV:  Letter: Choose the word that comes first according to the alphabetical order among the remaining words Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the greatest number among the remaining numbers if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

King edge rise sure Humanity 34 26 51 41 27

Step V:  Letter: Choose the remaining word. Select the last four alphabets of that letter and try to form a possible meaningful word. Place that meaningful word on the left end in the next step.

Number: Select the remaining number if the number is odd then multiply it by two and subtract the sum of the digits of the given number from that number multiple. If the number is even then divide it by two and add the sum of the digits of the given number. Place it at the extreme right end.

tiny king edge rise sure 26 51 41 27 24

Step VI: Letter: In every word, exchange every alphabet with its opposite alphabet. Then write the alphabet whose place value is two more than the opposite alphabet place value.

Number: Exchange the digits within the number.

itod rtov xyvx ktkx jhkx 62 15 14 72 42

 The third smallest number in Step II is 34 and the greatest number in Step III is 51. Hence, the difference between the third smallest number from Step II and the greatest number in Step III is 17.

Question 10

Directions

In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

The publication of results triggers a rush for seats in higher education institutions, and, in turn, another series of examinations to qualify for these. This transition to higher education is important as it determines the quantity and quality of human capital, which is vital for economic growth, In developing economies, including India, this transition is plagued by a mismatch between demand and supply.

What could be the possible reasons for the given passage?

I) In the case of premier institutions, which have multiple rounds of filtering mechanisms. They intensify competition to enter the institution which results in focused elimination.

II) Demand-supply mismatches in higher education arise due to the incongruence between the aspirations of students and parents.

III) Mismatch in demand and supply is determined by market forces in private institutions and government policies in public institutions. 

IV) In case of Public institutions that are funded by the government have a higher fee structure than other institutions.

V) The availability of courses and institutions gets concentrated in some specific regions, with other regions having generic courses(with outdated topics and syllabi).

  1. AOption (a)

    All I, II, III and V

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II

  3. COption (c)

    All I, III, and IV

  4. DOption (d)

    Both II and III

  5. EOption (e)

    All I, II, III, IV, and V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All I, II, III and V

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: Students are restricted to admission to their desired courses by multiple rounds for selection. This could be the possible reason.

Statement II: Parents have knowledge of a few courses and they motivate or influence their children to take admission in the specific courses. Because of this, there is a great demand for a few courses and less for others. So, This could be the possible reason.

Statement III: There has been increased demand for some courses but there are limited seats in the reputed private and public colleges which leads to a demand and supply mismatch.

Statement IV: Public Institutions have lower fee structures than other institutions because they are funded by the government. So, most parents can afford these colleges. So, Statement IV could not be the reason.

Statement V: There is indeed a concentration of institutions in some specific areas which leads to demand and supply mismatch. So, this statement could be the possible reason.

All I, II, III, and V could be the possible reasons.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve persons O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z belong to four different cities. These four cities are located in two countries i.e. two cities in each country. The two countries are Italy and Spain, and the four cities are Lecce, Venice, Madrid, and Palma. A minimum of two and a maximum of four persons belong to each city. Lecce and Venice are cities of Italy. Madrid and Palma are the cities of Spain. 

O is from Spain but not from Palma. Q belongs to the city of T who is not from Spain. V and Q belong to the same country but not the city. P and S belong to the same city but not from country Italy. W neither belongs to Lecce nor Palma. The number of persons belonging to Q’s city is less than the number belonging to W’s city. Z and U belong to the same country, but neither is from V’s country.  Z and O belong to the different cities. R and X belong to the same city where an odd number of persons belong. U and Y belong to the same city. X does not belong to Venice. The number of persons belonging to City Palma and Lecce is the same. Z and Y do not belong to the same place.

Question 11

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I) Three persons belong to Lecca.

II) P and Z belong to different cities.

III) Y belongs to Venice.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

1) O is from Spain but not from Palma. Q belongs to the city of T who is not from Spain.

Case 1Case 2
ItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
Q TOQ TO

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) V and Q belong to the same country but not the city. P and S belong to the same city but not from country Italy. 

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P sVQ TOP SQ TVO P SQ TVOP S

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. W neither belongs to Lecce nor Palma. The number of persons belonging to Q’s city is less than the number belonging to W’s city. 

4)  Z and U belong to the same country, but neither is from V’s country. Z and O belong to the different cities. U and Y belong to the same city.

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)(i)Case2(a)(ii)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P S WZ UVQ TO W U YP S ZQ TV WO P SZ U YQ TVO P S WZ U YQ TVO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4)  R and X belong to the same city where an odd number of persons belong. X does not belong to Venice. The number of persons belonging to City Palma and Lecce is the same. Z and Y do not belong to the same place. 

Case 1(a), Case 2(a)(i), Case 2(a)(ii), and Case 2(b) are eliminated because it does not satisfy the given conditions.

The final arrangement is:

ItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalma
V R XQ TO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

P and Z belong to the same country. Y belongs to Lecce. Only I statement is correct.

Question 12

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is correctly paired?

  1. AOption (a)

    U-Venice

  2. BOption (b)

    Z- Palma

  3. COption (c)

    X-Madrid

  4. DOption (d)

    T- Lecca

  5. EOption (e)

    P-Venice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Z- Palma

Why this answer is correct

1) O is from Spain but not from Palma. Q belongs to the city of T who is not from Spain.

Case 1Case 2
ItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
Q TOQ TO

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) V and Q belong to the same country but not the city. P and S belong to the same city but not from country Italy. 

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P sVQ TOP SQ TVO P SQ TVOP S

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. W neither belongs to Lecce nor Palma. The number of persons belonging to Q’s city is less than the number belonging to W’s city. 

4)  Z and U belong to the same country, but neither is from V’s country. Z and O belong to the different cities. U and Y belong to the same city.

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)(i)Case2(a)(ii)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P S WZ UVQ TO W U YP S ZQ TV WO P SZ U YQ TVO P S WZ U YQ TVO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4)  R and X belong to the same city where an odd number of persons belong. X does not belong to Venice. The number of persons belonging to City Palma and Lecce is the same. Z and Y do not belong to the same place. 

Case 1(a), Case 2(a)(i), Case 2(a)(ii), and Case 2(b) are eliminated because it does not satisfy the given conditions.

The final arrangement is:

ItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalma
V R XQ TO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Z belongs to Palma.  Z-Palma is correctly matched.

Question 13

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following belongs to Lecca?

  1. AOption (a)

    S

  2. BOption (b)

    R

  3. COption (c)

    W

  4. DOption (d)

    Y

  5. EOption (e)

    O

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

R

Why this answer is correct

1) O is from Spain but not from Palma. Q belongs to the city of T who is not from Spain.

Case 1Case 2
ItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
Q TOQ TO

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) V and Q belong to the same country but not the city. P and S belong to the same city but not from country Italy. 

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P sVQ TOP SQ TVO P SQ TVOP S

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. W neither belongs to Lecce nor Palma. The number of persons belonging to Q’s city is less than the number belonging to W’s city. 

4)  Z and U belong to the same country, but neither is from V’s country. Z and O belong to the different cities. U and Y belong to the same city.

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)(i)Case2(a)(ii)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P S WZ UVQ TO W U YP S ZQ TV WO P SZ U YQ TVO P S WZ U YQ TVO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4)  R and X belong to the same city where an odd number of persons belong. X does not belong to Venice. The number of persons belonging to City Palma and Lecce is the same. Z and Y do not belong to the same place. 

Case 1(a), Case 2(a)(i), Case 2(a)(ii), and Case 2(b) are eliminated because it does not satisfy the given conditions.

The final arrangement is:

ItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalma
V R XQ TO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

R belongs to Lecca.

Question 14

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ratio of the persons from Venice and Madrid?

  1. AOption (a)

    2:3

  2. BOption (b)

    3:4

  3. COption (c)

    1:3

  4. DOption (d)

    1:2

  5. EOption (e)

    4:1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1:2

Why this answer is correct

1) O is from Spain but not from Palma. Q belongs to the city of T who is not from Spain.

Case 1Case 2
ItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
Q TOQ TO

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) V and Q belong to the same country but not the city. P and S belong to the same city but not from country Italy. 

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P sVQ TOP SQ TVO P SQ TVOP S

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. W neither belongs to Lecce nor Palma. The number of persons belonging to Q’s city is less than the number belonging to W’s city. 

4)  Z and U belong to the same country, but neither is from V’s country. Z and O belong to the different cities. U and Y belong to the same city.

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2(a)(i)Case2(a)(ii)Case 2(b)
ItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpainItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalmaLecceVeniceMadridPalma
VQ TO P S WZ UVQ TO W U YP S ZQ TV WO P SZ U YQ TVO P S WZ U YQ TVO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4)  R and X belong to the same city where an odd number of persons belong. X does not belong to Venice. The number of persons belonging to City Palma and Lecce is the same. Z and Y do not belong to the same place. 

Case 1(a), Case 2(a)(i), Case 2(a)(ii), and Case 2(b) are eliminated because it does not satisfy the given conditions.

The final arrangement is:

ItalySpain
LecceVeniceMadridPalma
V R XQ TO W U YP S Z

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Two people are in Venice, and four people are in Madrid. Hence, The ratio of the persons from Venice and Madrid is 1:2.

Question 15

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten boxes E, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, N, and O are stacked one above another but not necessarily in the same order. The box at the bottom position is numbered one and so on. E is kept at the fifth position. Only two boxes are kept between Box E and Box G. Box M is kept two boxes above Box G. Box O is kept immediately above Box L. Only three boxes are placed between F and M. L is kept at the odd number position. The number of boxes kept between E and N is the same as the number of boxes kept between N and J. Box N is above Box G. Box H is adjacent to Box K.

From which of the following options information we can answer the given question, Which Box is immediately below Box F?

  1. AOption (a)

    Box K is below Box F.

  2. BOption (b)

    Box E is below K.

  3. COption (c)

    Box H is above Box N.

  4. DOption (d)

    Box H is three boxes above Box M.

  5. EOption (e)

    Box G is below box K.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Box H is three boxes above Box M.

Why this answer is correct

1) E is kept at the fifth position. Only two boxes are kept between Box E and Box G. Box M is kept two boxes above Box G. 

Case 1Case 2
Box No.BoxBox
10M
9
8G
7
6
5EE
4M
3
2G
1

 

2) Only three boxes are placed between F and M. Box O is kept immediately above Box L. L is kept at the odd number position. 

Case 1(a)Case1(b)Case 2
Box No.BoxBoxBox
10MMO
9L
8GGF
7
6FF
5EEE
4OM
3L
2OG
1L

 

3) The number of boxes kept between E and N is the same as the number of boxes kept between N and J. Box N is above Box G. Case 1(a), and Case 1(b) are eliminated because it does not satisfy the given conditions.

Case 2(a)Case 2(b)
Box No.BoxBox
10OO
9LL
8FF
7J
6N
5EE
4MM
3N
2GG
1J

 

4)  Box H is adjacent to Box K. Case 2(b) is eliminated as it does not satisfy the given conditions.

Box No.Box
10O
9L
8F
7
6
5E
4M
3N
2G
1J

 

No option other than option 4 can provide the information about the box which is immediately below Box F. According to option 4, Box H is three boxes above Box M.

Box No.Box
10O
9L
8F
7H
6K
5E
4M
3N
2G
1J

 

Box H is immediately below Box F.  Box H is three boxes above Box M is the statement from which we can answer the given question.

Question 16

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Five different words are given in the question along with each word, the positions of four letters in that word are given and the positions of the letters are counted from the left end of the word. Four-letter meaningful words can be formed from the letters corresponding to the positions given in the table. 

Note: The meaningful word must be formed without jumbling the letters.

Serial No.WordPositions
IUniversity4th, 5th, 6th and 10th
IIImplementation1st, 4th, 7th, and11th
IIIAccomplishment2nd, 4th, 11th, and12th
IVPopulation3rd, 7th, 9th, and 10th
VNecessarily1st, 3rd, 5th, and 8th

 

Which of the following words in the table can form meaningful English Words?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and II

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I, IV and V

  3. COption (c)

    Only I and III

  4. DOption (d)

    All I, II, III, IV and V

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I and III

Why this answer is correct

Given Word: University.

The meaningful word is:

4th5th6th10th
VERY

 

Given Word: Accomplishment

The meaningful word is:

2nd4th11th12th
COME

 

No meaningful word can be formed from the II, IV, and V given word.  Only I and III can form meaningful words.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Five spouses sit in two parallel rows in such a way that five persons sit in each row. All the males sit in row 1 and face south while all the females sit in row 2 and face north. The persons of both rows face each other. The persons of row 1 like different fruits i.e. Apple, Grapes, Pear, Peach, and Kiwi. The persons in row 2 like different flowers i.e. Daisy, Iris, Lily, Orchid, and Poppy. The ten persons are Ila, Eva, Joy, Aya, Kia, Liv, Gia, Zoe, Mae, and Noa. 

Note: Spouses do not face each other. If X and Y are spouses, then X and Y do not face each other.

Kia faces the one who likes Grapes and sits second to the right of the one who likes Iris. The one who likes Apple faces Mae’s wife who sits just left of the one who likes Orchid. Two persons sit between Mae and the one who likes Kiwi. One person sits between Liv and Ila, who sits opposite the one who likes Lily. The one who likes Poppy sits immediately left to Kia. The number of people sitting to the right of Kiwi is the same as the number of people sitting to the left of Joy. Liv sits second to the right of the one who likes Grapes. The one who likes Pear sits second to the right of Aya’s husband. The one who likes Kiwi is Eva’s husband. Eva does not like Iris. Kia and Eva are not immediate neighbors. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row. The person opposite Joy’s wife is Kia’s Husband. Joy's wife does not like lily flowers. Gia is female and not Mae’s wife. Gia does not sit opposite to the one who likes Kiwi. Zoe is male.

Question 17

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following one does not belong to the group?

  1. AOption (a)

    the one who likes Iris flower

  2. BOption (b)

    Eva

  3. COption (c)

    the one who likes Pear fruit

  4. DOption (d)

    the one who is sitting immediately right of Joy

  5. EOption (e)

    Mae

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

the one who is sitting immediately right of Joy

Why this answer is correct

1) Kia faces the one who likes Grapes and sits second to the right of the one who likes Iris. The one who likes Poppy sits immediately left to Kia. 

2)  Liv sits second to the right of the one who likes Grapes. One person sits between Liv and Ila, who sits opposite the one who likes Lily. 

3) The one who likes Apple faces Mae’s wife who sits just left of the one who likes Orchid. Case 2 is eliminated as it could not satisfy the given condition.

 

  1. Two persons sit between Mae and the one who likes Kiwi. The number of people sitting to the right of Kiwi is the same as the number of people sitting to the left of Joy. The one who likes Kiwi is Eva’s husband. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row.

There is mention of Joy's wife so Joy is Male. In Case 1(a) Mae could only sit opposite to his wife which contradicts the given conditions that Spouses cannot sit opposite to each other. So, Case 1(a) is eliminated. Case 2 cannot satisfy the given conditions. So, Case 2 is eliminated.

5) Eva does not like Iris. Kia and Eva are not immediate neighbors. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row. The person opposite Joy’s wife is Kia’s Husband. Joy's wife does not like lily flowers.  Case 1(b) (ii)  and Case 1(b) (i) do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1(b) (ii) and Case 1(b) (i) are eliminated. 

6) The one who likes Pear sits second to the right of Aya’s husband.  

7) Gia is female and not Mae’s wife. Gia does not sit opposite to the one who likes Kiwi. Zoe is male. 

The final arrangement is:

We follow the given symbols to illustrate the relations:

All except the one who is sitting immediately right of Joy are sitting at the extreme ends.The one who is sitting immediately right of Joy does not belong to the group.

Question 18

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statement is/are correct?

I) Ila is Eva's husband.

II) Liv is sitting opposite to the one who likes Iris flower.

III) Zoe's wife is sitting second to the right of the one who likes lily.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    All I, II, and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II and III

Why this answer is correct

1) Kia faces the one who likes Grapes and sits second to the right of the one who likes Iris. The one who likes Poppy sits immediately left to Kia. 

2)  Liv sits second to the right of the one who likes Grapes. One person sits between Liv and Ila, who sits opposite the one who likes Lily. 

3) The one who likes Apple faces Mae’s wife who sits just left of the one who likes Orchid. Case 2 is eliminated as it could not satisfy the given condition.

  1. Two persons sit between Mae and the one who likes Kiwi. The number of people sitting to the right of Kiwi is the same as the number of people sitting to the left of Joy. The one who likes Kiwi is Eva’s husband. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row.

There is mention of Joy's wife so Joy is Male. In Case 1(a) Mae could only sit opposite to his wife which contradicts the given conditions that Spouses cannot sit opposite to each other. So, Case 1(a) is eliminated. Case 2 cannot satisfy the given conditions. So, Case 2 is eliminated.

5) Eva does not like Iris. Kia and Eva are not immediate neighbors. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row. The person opposite Joy’s wife is Kia’s Husband. Joy's wife does not like lily flowers.  Case 1(b) (ii)  and Case 1(b) (i) do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1(b) (ii) and Case 1(b) (i) are eliminated. 

6) The one who likes Pear sits second to the right of Aya’s husband.  

7) Gia is female and not Mae’s wife. Gia does not sit opposite to the one who likes Kiwi. Zoe is male. 

The final arrangement is:

We follow the given symbols to illustrate the relations:

Only II and III are correct statements.

Question 19

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who is sitting opposite to the one who likes Peach?

  1. AOption (a)

    the one who is sitting immediately right of Joy

  2. BOption (b)

    Wife of Zoe

  3. COption (c)

    the one who is sitting immediately left of Kia

  4. DOption (d)

    Wife of Liv

  5. EOption (e)

    the one who is sitting second to the right of Ila's wife

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Wife of Zoe

Why this answer is correct

1) Kia faces the one who likes Grapes and sits second to the right of the one who likes Iris. The one who likes Poppy sits immediately left to Kia. 

2)  Liv sits second to the right of the one who likes Grapes. One person sits between Liv and Ila, who sits opposite the one who likes Lily. 

3) The one who likes Apple faces Mae’s wife who sits just left of the one who likes Orchid. Case 2 is eliminated as it could not satisfy the given condition.

  1. Two persons sit between Mae and the one who likes Kiwi. The number of people sitting to the right of Kiwi is the same as the number of people sitting to the left of Joy. The one who likes Kiwi is Eva’s husband. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row.

There is mention of Joy's wife so Joy is Male. In Case 1(a) Mae could only sit opposite to his wife which contradicts the given conditions that Spouses cannot sit opposite to each other. So, Case 1(a) is eliminated. Case 2 cannot satisfy the given conditions. So, Case 2 is eliminated.

5) Eva does not like Iris. Kia and Eva are not immediate neighbors. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row. The person opposite Joy’s wife is Kia’s Husband. Joy's wife does not like lily flowers.  Case 1(b) (ii)  and Case 1(b) (i) do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1(b) (ii) and Case 1(b) (i) are eliminated. 

6) The one who likes Pear sits second to the right of Aya’s husband.  

7) Gia is female and not Mae’s wife. Gia does not sit opposite to the one who likes Kiwi. Zoe is male. 

The final arrangement is:

We follow the given symbols to illustrate the relations:

 Wife of Zoe is sitting opposite to the one who likes Peach.

Question 20

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following is the wife of Mae?

  1. AOption (a)

    Joy

  2. BOption (b)

    Aya

  3. COption (c)

    Liv

  4. DOption (d)

    Noa

  5. EOption (e)

    Ila

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Noa

Why this answer is correct

1) Kia faces the one who likes Grapes and sits second to the right of the one who likes Iris. The one who likes Poppy sits immediately left to Kia. 

2)  Liv sits second to the right of the one who likes Grapes. One person sits between Liv and Ila, who sits opposite the one who likes Lily. 

3) The one who likes Apple faces Mae’s wife who sits just left of the one who likes Orchid. Case 2 is eliminated as it could not satisfy the given condition.

  1. Two persons sit between Mae and the one who likes Kiwi. The number of people sitting to the right of Kiwi is the same as the number of people sitting to the left of Joy. The one who likes Kiwi is Eva’s husband. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row.

There is mention of Joy's wife so Joy is Male. In Case 1(a) Mae could only sit opposite to his wife which contradicts the given conditions that Spouses cannot sit opposite to each other. So, Case 1(a) is eliminated. Case 2 cannot satisfy the given conditions. So, Case 2 is eliminated.

5) Eva does not like Iris. Kia and Eva are not immediate neighbors. Joy’s wife sits at any end of the row. The person opposite Joy’s wife is Kia’s Husband. Joy's wife does not like lily flowers.  Case 1(b) (ii)  and Case 1(b) (i) do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1(b) (ii) and Case 1(b) (i) are eliminated. 

6) The one who likes Pear sits second to the right of Aya’s husband.  

7) Gia is female and not Mae’s wife. Gia does not sit opposite to the one who likes Kiwi. Zoe is male. 

The final arrangement is:

We follow the given symbols to illustrate the relations:

Noa is the wife of Mae.

Question 21

Directions

In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

The Railways will soon install an optical fiber-based intrusion detection system (IDs) along the elephant-infested 33-km stretch between Kottelkkad and Madukkarai to prevent elephant deaths on the tracks. The Southern Railway is installing the system for the first time after its successful implementation in the Northeast Frontier Railway(NFR). 

Which of the following strengthens the following statement?

I) According to the railway official, the project is likely to be costlier as it involves the laying of optical fiber cables along both sides of the rail lines.

II) The exact location of the elephants will be passed to loco pilots and station masters with the help of optics.

III) Due to the lack of railway land the fiber is laid close to the tracks, so loco pilots may not get enough time to respond to an alarm.

IV) As this project is new for the officials this will take at least two years for the proper implementation of the project.

V) It will take time to design the signals in such a way that it can signal for a variety of animals as well as vehicles.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both II and III are strong

  2. BOption (b)

    Both IV and V are strong

  3. COption (c)

    Only II is strong

  4. DOption (d)

    All I, II, III, IV, and V are strong

  5. EOption (e)

    Only I is strong

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II is strong

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: This statement emphasizes the cost of the project rather than its benefits. So, Statement I does not strengthen the given passage

Statement II: This statement emphasizes the implication of the project which will help to reduce elephant injury and death. So, Statement II strengthens the given passage.

Statement III: This statement emphasizes the possible problem faced by the railway department in laying fiber. So, Statement III does not strengthen the given passage.

Statement IV: The two-year gap is very much as compared to the problem. So, this statement does not strengthen the given passage.

Statement V: This statement highlights that the device will not be able to differentiate between elephants and others which highlights the flaws in the system. So, this statement does not strengthen the given passage.

Only II is strong.

Question 22

Directions

In the question given below, a passage is given followed by four Assumptions. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

Cities are experiencing higher temperatures than non-urban and rural areas. The ongoing climate change and rapid urbanization are now defining the Anthropocene, with the cities experiencing both thereby making the urban population vulnerable to the compounding impact. 

Assumptions:

I) Climate change is causing a significant increase in temperature and frequent prolonged heat waves in cities.

II) This alters the resultant micro-climate of the cities with an influence on heat, rainfall distribution, and even air pollution.

III) Cities are taking steps to adapt to climate change. These actions are helping to protect the environment, improve land-use planning, and increase emergency preparedness.

IV) The crowded high-rise buildings of the cities trap the cool air and thus decrease the temperature of cities.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II and III assumption are implicit

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and III assumption is implicit

  3. COption (c)

    If only assumption I is implicit

  4. DOption (d)

    All I, II, III, and IV are implicit

  5. EOption (e)

    Only I and II assumption are implicit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Only I and II assumption are implicit

Why this answer is correct

Assumption I: As cities are experiencing higher temperatures cities must have experienced prolonged heat waves also. So, Assumption I is Implicit.

Assumption II: Climate change and rapid urbanization could lead to micro-climate changes in cities. So, Assumption II is implicit.

Assumption III: From the passage, we cannot assume that cities are taking appropriate steps to protect the environment or increase emergency preparedness. So, Assumption III is not implicit.

Assumption IV: Crowed high-rise buildings of the cities could contribute to the increase in the temperature, not the decrease. Assumption IV is not implicit.

Only I and II assumptions are implicit.

Question 23

Directions

In the question given below, a passage is given followed by four statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

Organizations are pivoting to specific skills/ competency clusters within the educational stream while selecting their talent. For example, AI/ ML in engineering, social selling in management, and computational biology in pharma are the most in-demand skill segments. Complementing this, trend, expectations from campus students are pivoting to management consulting roles for MBA specialization and data scientist for technology talent.

Statement:

I) This indicates a shift towards hiring based on skills and a greater focus on talent recruitment.

II) If a student is a rank-holder or one who has a good academic background, the chances of getting hired become high.

III) There is a need to ink in retention strategies that would ensure campus hires are in a long inning with the company.

IV) If the college has a high reputation, companies get attracted and visit it for mass recruitment.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I and II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Conclusion II and III follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Conclusion I and III follows

  5. EOption (e)

    All conclusions follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only Conclusion I and III follows

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: Organisations are focusing on skills within the educational stream this indicates the shift towards skills. Also, according to the passage companies are demanding different skills for different streams. So, companies are focusing on talent recruitment. This can be the conclusion for the given passage.

Statement ii: According to the passage companies are focusing on skills rather than rank and marks. So, this statement cannot be concluded from the given passage. This cannot be the conclusion for the given passage.

Statement III: As there is a change in the strategy of recruiters so there should be a change in the strategies of campus also. So, more and more companies visit campus for recruitment. This can be the conclusion for the given passage.

Statement IV: Companies are focusing on skills rather than college reputation. So, this cannot be the conclusion of the given passage.

Only Conclusion I and III follow.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Several persons work at different designations GM, AGM, CEO, CMD, MD, CFO, CGM, COO, Manager, Assistant Manager, Clerk, Substaff. The designations are given in descending order such that GM is the seniormost designation and Substaff is the juniormost designation. At least two and at most four persons designated at the same designation. Some designations are vacant.

Note: Three designations are vacant and no consecutive designations are vacant.

B is two designations senior to P, who is neither the junior most nor the Manager. The number of designations junior to P is half the number of designations senior to K. A, and C are designated at the same designation. The just junior and just senior designations of A are vacant. No one is designated between T and E. K is just senior to E. L and K are designated at the same designation. O is three designations junior to K. Only one designation is between O and F. E and F are not designated at the same designation. No one is designated senior to G who has the same designation as N. N is two designations senior to A. I is junior to E and have the same designation as T. O and I do not have the same designation. R is just junior to S and just senior to W. D and W are at the same designation. No person is junior to W. R is not the assistant manager. Q is five designations senior to M and Q is just junior to L. No one is designated between C and H. H is not at the same designation as K.

Question 24

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

At what designation T is with how many persons?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manager, Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Assistant Manager and Three

  3. COption (c)

    CGM and One

  4. DOption (d)

    GM and Twp

  5. EOption (e)

    CEO and One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CGM and One

Why this answer is correct

1) B is two designations senior to P, who is neither the junior most nor the Manager. The number of designations junior to P is half the number of designations senior to K. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK
CMD
MDKB
CFOB
CGMP
COOBP
ManagerBK
Assistant ManagerP
ClerkPK
Substaff

 

2)  K is just senior to E. L and K are designated at the same designation. O is three designations junior to K. In Case 4, the given condition cannot be satisfied which is why Case 4 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2Case 3
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOEB
CGM
COOB, OP
ManagerBK, L
Assistant ManagerPE
ClerkP
SubstaffO

 

3) Only one designation is between O and F. E and F are not designated at the same designation. In Case 3, the given conditions are not satisfied which is why Case 3 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOE
CGM
COOFB, O
ManagerB
Assistant ManagerP, F
ClerkP
Substaff

 

4) No one is designated senior to G who has the same designation as N. N is two designations senior to A. A, and C are designated at the same designation. The just junior and just senior designations of A are vacant. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGM
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

5)  No one is designated between T and E. I is junior to E and have the same designation as T. O and I do not have the same designation. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

6)  R is just junior to S and just senior to W. D and W are at the same designation. No person is junior to W. 

DesignationsPersonsPersons
GMG, NG, N
AGMVacantVacant
CEOA, CA, C
CMDVacantVacant
MDK, LK, L
CFOEE
CGMT, IT, I
COOB, OB, O
ManagervacantS
Assistant ManagerP, F, SP, F, R
ClerkRW, D
SubstaffW, Dvacant

 

7) R is not the assistant manager. This condition is not satisfied in Case 2. So, Case 2 is eliminated. Q is five designations senior to M and Q is just junior to L. No one is designated between C and H. H is not at the same designation as K.

The final arrangement is:

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N, H
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE, Q
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Managervacant
Assistant ManagerP, F, S
ClerkR, M
SubstaffW, D

 

T is designated at CGM designation with one more person.

Question 25

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons are designated in the company?

  1. AOption (a)

    13

  2. BOption (b)

    19

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    17

  5. EOption (e)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

20

Why this answer is correct

1) B is two designations senior to P, who is neither the junior most nor the Manager. The number of designations junior to P is half the number of designations senior to K. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK
CMD
MDKB
CFOB
CGMP
COOBP
ManagerBK
Assistant ManagerP
ClerkPK
Substaff

 

2)  K is just senior to E. L and K are designated at the same designation. O is three designations junior to K. In Case 4, the given condition cannot be satisfied which is why Case 4 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2Case 3
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOEB
CGM
COOB, OP
ManagerBK, L
Assistant ManagerPE
ClerkP
SubstaffO

 

3) Only one designation is between O and F. E and F are not designated at the same designation. In Case 3, the given conditions are not satisfied which is why Case 3 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOE
CGM
COOFB, O
ManagerB
Assistant ManagerP, F
ClerkP
Substaff

 

4) No one is designated senior to G who has the same designation as N. N is two designations senior to A. A, and C are designated at the same designation. The just junior and just senior designations of A are vacant. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGM
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

5)  No one is designated between T and E. I is junior to E and have the same designation as T. O and I do not have the same designation. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

6)  R is just junior to S and just senior to W. D and W are at the same designation. No person is junior to W. 

DesignationsPersonsPersons
GMG, NG, N
AGMVacantVacant
CEOA, CA, C
CMDVacantVacant
MDK, LK, L
CFOEE
CGMT, IT, I
COOB, OB, O
ManagervacantS
Assistant ManagerP, F, SP, F, R
ClerkRW, D
SubstaffW, Dvacant

 

7) R is not the assistant manager. This condition is not satisfied in Case 2. So, Case 2 is eliminated. Q is five designations senior to M and Q is just junior to L. No one is designated between C and H. H is not at the same designation as K.

The final arrangement is:

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N, H
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE, Q
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Managervacant
Assistant ManagerP, F, S
ClerkR, M
SubstaffW, D

 

Twenty persons are designated in the company.

Question 26

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I) F is the Assistant Manager.

II) Three persons are senior to A.

III) More than two persons are at CFO designation.

IV) No person is designated at MD designation.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III and IV

  3. COption (c)

    Only I and II 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only III

  5. EOption (e)

    Only IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I and II 

Why this answer is correct

1) B is two designations senior to P, who is neither the junior most nor the Manager. The number of designations junior to P is half the number of designations senior to K. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK
CMD
MDKB
CFOB
CGMP
COOBP
ManagerBK
Assistant ManagerP
ClerkPK
Substaff

 

2)  K is just senior to E. L and K are designated at the same designation. O is three designations junior to K. In Case 4, the given condition cannot be satisfied which is why Case 4 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2Case 3
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOEB
CGM
COOB, OP
ManagerBK, L
Assistant ManagerPE
ClerkP
SubstaffO

 

3) Only one designation is between O and F. E and F are not designated at the same designation. In Case 3, the given conditions are not satisfied which is why Case 3 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOE
CGM
COOFB, O
ManagerB
Assistant ManagerP, F
ClerkP
Substaff

 

4) No one is designated senior to G who has the same designation as N. N is two designations senior to A. A, and C are designated at the same designation. The just junior and just senior designations of A are vacant. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGM
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

5)  No one is designated between T and E. I is junior to E and have the same designation as T. O and I do not have the same designation. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

6)  R is just junior to S and just senior to W. D and W are at the same designation. No person is junior to W. 

DesignationsPersonsPersons
GMG, NG, N
AGMVacantVacant
CEOA, CA, C
CMDVacantVacant
MDK, LK, L
CFOEE
CGMT, IT, I
COOB, OB, O
ManagervacantS
Assistant ManagerP, F, SP, F, R
ClerkRW, D
SubstaffW, Dvacant

 

7) R is not the assistant manager. This condition is not satisfied in Case 2. So, Case 2 is eliminated. Q is five designations senior to M and Q is just junior to L. No one is designated between C and H. H is not at the same designation as K.

The final arrangement is:

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N, H
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE, Q
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Managervacant
Assistant ManagerP, F, S
ClerkR, M
SubstaffW, D

 

Only I and II are correct.

Question 27

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons are designated lower to O?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five

  2. BOption (b)

    Eleven

  3. COption (c)

    Seven

  4. DOption (d)

    Ten

  5. EOption (e)

    Nine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Seven

Why this answer is correct

1) B is two designations senior to P, who is neither the junior most nor the Manager. The number of designations junior to P is half the number of designations senior to K. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK
CMD
MDKB
CFOB
CGMP
COOBP
ManagerBK
Assistant ManagerP
ClerkPK
Substaff

 

2)  K is just senior to E. L and K are designated at the same designation. O is three designations junior to K. In Case 4, the given condition cannot be satisfied which is why Case 4 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2Case 3
DesignationsPersonsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOEB
CGM
COOB, OP
ManagerBK, L
Assistant ManagerPE
ClerkP
SubstaffO

 

3) Only one designation is between O and F. E and F are not designated at the same designation. In Case 3, the given conditions are not satisfied which is why Case 3 is eliminated.

Case 1Case 2
DesignationsPersonsPersons
GM
AGM
CEOK, L
CMDE
MDK, L
CFOOE
CGM
COOFB, O
ManagerB
Assistant ManagerP, F
ClerkP
Substaff

 

4) No one is designated senior to G who has the same designation as N. N is two designations senior to A. A, and C are designated at the same designation. The just junior and just senior designations of A are vacant. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGM
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

5)  No one is designated between T and E. I is junior to E and have the same designation as T. O and I do not have the same designation. 

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Manager
Assistant ManagerP, F
Clerk
Substaff

 

6)  R is just junior to S and just senior to W. D and W are at the same designation. No person is junior to W. 

DesignationsPersonsPersons
GMG, NG, N
AGMVacantVacant
CEOA, CA, C
CMDVacantVacant
MDK, LK, L
CFOEE
CGMT, IT, I
COOB, OB, O
ManagervacantS
Assistant ManagerP, F, SP, F, R
ClerkRW, D
SubstaffW, Dvacant

 

7) R is not the assistant manager. This condition is not satisfied in Case 2. So, Case 2 is eliminated. Q is five designations senior to M and Q is just junior to L. No one is designated between C and H. H is not at the same designation as K.

The final arrangement is:

DesignationsPersons
GMG, N, H
AGMVacant
CEOA, C
CMDVacant
MDK, L
CFOE, Q
CGMT, I
COOB, O
Managervacant
Assistant ManagerP, F, S
ClerkR, M
SubstaffW, D

 

Seven persons are designated lower to O.

Question 28

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight different letters are arranged to form a meaningful word. Only one letter is arranged between F and E. Only two letters are arranged between F and W. One letter is between W and P. P is not adjacent to F. One letter is between F and L. L is not adjacent to W. O is adjacent to P. R and U are the remaining letters of the meaningful word. If only one meaningful word can be formed from the fourth, fifth, seventh, and eighth letter (using each letter once only) from the left end of the word then which among the following is the first letter at the right end? If no meaningful word is formed mark X as your answer if more than one such word is formed mark Y as your answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    E

  2. BOption (b)

    R

  3. COption (c)

    L

  4. DOption (d)

    X

  5. EOption (e)

    Y

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Y

Why this answer is correct

1) Only one letter is arranged between F and E. Only two letters are arranged between F and W. 

2) One letter is between W and P. P is not adjacent to F. One letter is between F and L. L is not adjacent to W. 

3) O is adjacent to P. R and U are the remaining letters of the meaningful word. 

Case 1 is eliminated because no meaningful word could be formed in Case 1.

The meaningful word is:

The fourth letter is E, the fifth letter is R, the seventh letter is U, and the eighth letter is L from the left end of the word.

The meaningful words are:

  1. RULE means an official statement that tells you what you must or must not do in a particular situation or when playing a game.

  2. LURE means the attractive qualities of something.

More than one words are formed.  Y is the correct option.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twenty students are divided into four groups. The groups are based on Height, Weight, Snack, and Standard (Class). The students within the group are arranged starting from increasing to decreasing order. The person with more height, weight, Snacks, and higher standard (Class) are arranged upward in their specific group. The information about one of the four parameters is given about a student. All students go on a tour in six cars which are numbered I, II, III, IV, V, and VI. No student from the same group can go in the same car. There is only one car with four students.

Note: There could be a minimum of two and a maximum of four students in a car. Julia does not go on tour.

Zoey has more weight than Kent but not heavier than Pearl. Blake is not shorter than Ian who has more height than Orla. Gav has 17 packets of Snacks. Julia is of a higher standard than Axel. Information about the Height and Weight of Mia is not Known. Ava and Mia belong to the same group. Devon is in the 9th standard. Jack is 170 cm in height and is taller than Fna. Fna is not taller than Blake and is 165 cm in height. Only two persons are smaller than Fna. Pearl's weight is 55 kg which is 15 Kg more than Noel's. Noel's weight is more than Tim's but less than Zoey's. One person has less weight than Kent. Clark has more snacks than Lynn. Eli is in 11th standard. Ray is in the lowest standard among the group members. Blake is not the tallest among the students in the group. Kent's weight is lesser than the one whose weight is 40 Kg. Gav has more Snacks than Clark. Gav does not have the maximum Snacks. Ava is upward in the group than Mia. Lynn does not have the least number of Snacks. At least two persons have fewer snacks than Clark. Devon is at a higher standard than Axel and a lower standard than Julia. One person is of a higher standard than Julia. 

Mia belongs to car IV. Kent and Gav went in the car II. Jack went in the car VI with the person who had the maximum number of snacks. Ian went in car V with the person whose weight was the second highest. The one who is in 11th standard went in car IV  with Orla. Blake went in Car I with Lynn. The person with the maximum weight went in the same car III with Axel. Tim and the one who is in 9th standard went in the same car. Fna does not go in the same car as Gav. Ray does not go in the same car in which Lynn and Ian went. An odd number of people went in Car I.

Question 29

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following persons went in Car V?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ian, Jack, Tim

  2. BOption (b)

    Orla, Ian, Zoey

  3. COption (c)

    Ian, Mia, Gav

  4. DOption (d)

    Clark, Ian, Zoey

  5. EOption (e)

    Fna, Pearl, Zoey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Clark, Ian, Zoey

Why this answer is correct

1) Zoey has more weight than Kent but not heavier than Pearl. Blake is not shorter than Ian who has more height than Orla. Gav has 17 packets of Snacks. Julia is of a higher standard than Axel. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumBlake Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

2) Jack is 170 cm in height and is taller than Fna. Fna is not taller than Blake and is 165 cm in height. Only two persons are smaller than Fna. Blake is not the tallest among the students in the group. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

3) Pearl's weight is 55 kg which is 15 Kg more than Noel's. Noel's weight is more than Tim's but less than Zoey's. One person has less weight than Kent.  Kent's weight is lesser than the one whose weight is 40 Kg.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel (40 Kg) Kent TimGav(17)Julia Axel

 

4) Clark has more snacks than Lynn. Gav has more Snacks than Clark. Gav does not have the maximum Snacks. At least two persons have fewer snacks than Clark. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark LynnJulia Axel

 

5)  Devon is in the 9th standard. Devon is at a higher standard than Axel and a lower standard than Julia. One person is of a higher standard than Julia. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark Lynn___ Julia Devon(9th) Axel ___

 

6)  Eli is in 11th standard. Ray is in the lowest standard among the group members. Information about the Height and Weight of Mia is not Known. Ava and Mia belong to the same group. Ava is upward in the group than Mia. Lynn does not have the least number of Snacks.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

7) Mia belongs to car IV. Kent and Gav went in the car II. Jack went in the car VI with the person who had the maximum number of snacks. Ian went in car V with the person whose weight was the second highest. 

CarStudents
I
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
III
IVMia(S)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

8) The one who is in 11th standard went in car IV  with Orla. Blake went in Car I with Lynn. The person with the maximum weight went in the same car III with Axel.

CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W) , Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

9) Tim and the one who is in 9th standard went in the same car. An odd number of people went in Car I.

Devon is in 9th Standard. Car IV already has three students. So, Tim and Devon do not go in Car IV. Tim belongs to the weight group. Tim can only belong to Car I and VI because there is no member of the weight group in these two cars. If Tim and Devon belong to Car I then there will be an even number of persons in Car I which contradicts the given condition.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

10) Fna does not go in the same car as Gav. Fna belongs to the Height Group. All cars except II and III have students from Height Group. Gav is in Car II. So, Fna will be in Car III.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

11) Ray does not go in the same car in which Lynn and Ian went. Ray belongs to the Class Group. So, Ray could belong to Car I, II, and V. But according to the given condition, Ray can only belong to Car II. 

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Noel belongs to Car I because Car II, Car III, Car V, and Car VI have students from the Weight Group. Noel cannot belong to Car IV because then there will be four students in more than one car which contradicts the given condition that only one car can have four students. 
Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Clark belongs to Car V because all the cars except Car III and Car V have a member from the Snacks group. In Car III, there are already three students so no more students can belong to Car III.

The final arrangement is:

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W), Clark(S)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

OrderHeight(H)Weight(W)Snacks(S)Class(C)
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

Clark, Ian, Zoey went in Car V.

Question 30

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which car has maximum students?

  1. AOption (a)

    Car VI

  2. BOption (b)

    Car II

  3. COption (c)

    Car III

  4. DOption (d)

    Car V

  5. EOption (e)

    Car I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Car VI

Why this answer is correct

1) Zoey has more weight than Kent but not heavier than Pearl. Blake is not shorter than Ian who has more height than Orla. Gav has 17 packets of Snacks. Julia is of a higher standard than Axel. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumBlake Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

2) Jack is 170 cm in height and is taller than Fna. Fna is not taller than Blake and is 165 cm in height. Only two persons are smaller than Fna. Blake is not the tallest among the students in the group. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

3) Pearl's weight is 55 kg which is 15 Kg more than Noel's. Noel's weight is more than Tim's but less than Zoey's. One person has less weight than Kent.  Kent's weight is lesser than the one whose weight is 40 Kg.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel (40 Kg) Kent TimGav(17)Julia Axel

 

4) Clark has more snacks than Lynn. Gav has more Snacks than Clark. Gav does not have the maximum Snacks. At least two persons have fewer snacks than Clark. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark LynnJulia Axel

 

5)  Devon is in the 9th standard. Devon is at a higher standard than Axel and a lower standard than Julia. One person is of a higher standard than Julia. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark Lynn___ Julia Devon(9th) Axel ___

 

6)  Eli is in 11th standard. Ray is in the lowest standard among the group members. Information about the Height and Weight of Mia is not Known. Ava and Mia belong to the same group. Ava is upward in the group than Mia. Lynn does not have the least number of Snacks.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

7) Mia belongs to car IV. Kent and Gav went in the car II. Jack went in the car VI with the person who had the maximum number of snacks. Ian went in car V with the person whose weight was the second highest. 

CarStudents
I
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
III
IVMia(S)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

8) The one who is in 11th standard went in car IV  with Orla. Blake went in Car I with Lynn. The person with the maximum weight went in the same car III with Axel.

CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W) , Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

9) Tim and the one who is in 9th standard went in the same car. An odd number of people went in Car I.

Devon is in 9th Standard. Car IV already has three students. So, Tim and Devon do not go in Car IV. Tim belongs to the weight group. Tim can only belong to Car I and VI because there is no member of the weight group in these two cars. If Tim and Devon belong to Car I then there will be an even number of persons in Car I which contradicts the given condition.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

10) Fna does not go in the same car as Gav. Fna belongs to the Height Group. All cars except II and III have students from Height Group. Gav is in Car II. So, Fna will be in Car III.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

11) Ray does not go in the same car in which Lynn and Ian went. Ray belongs to the Class Group. So, Ray could belong to Car I, II, and V. But according to the given condition, Ray can only belong to Car II. 

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Noel belongs to Car I because Car II, Car III, Car V, and Car VI have students from the Weight Group. Noel cannot belong to Car IV because then there will be four students in more than one car which contradicts the given condition that only one car can have four students. 
Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Clark belongs to Car V because all the cars except Car III and Car V have a member from the Snacks group. In Car III, there are already three students so no more students can belong to Car III.

The final arrangement is:

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W), Clark(S)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

OrderHeight(H)Weight(W)Snacks(S)Class(C)
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

Car VI has maximum students.

Question 31

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following pairs is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Car III- Clark

  2. BOption (b)

    Car V- Pearl

  3. COption (c)

    Car II- Ray

  4. DOption (d)

    Car I- Eli

  5. EOption (e)

    Car IV- Tim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Car II- Ray

Why this answer is correct

1) Zoey has more weight than Kent but not heavier than Pearl. Blake is not shorter than Ian who has more height than Orla. Gav has 17 packets of Snacks. Julia is of a higher standard than Axel. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumBlake Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

2) Jack is 170 cm in height and is taller than Fna. Fna is not taller than Blake and is 165 cm in height. Only two persons are smaller than Fna. Blake is not the tallest among the students in the group. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

3) Pearl's weight is 55 kg which is 15 Kg more than Noel's. Noel's weight is more than Tim's but less than Zoey's. One person has less weight than Kent.  Kent's weight is lesser than the one whose weight is 40 Kg.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel (40 Kg) Kent TimGav(17)Julia Axel

 

4) Clark has more snacks than Lynn. Gav has more Snacks than Clark. Gav does not have the maximum Snacks. At least two persons have fewer snacks than Clark. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark LynnJulia Axel

 

5)  Devon is in the 9th standard. Devon is at a higher standard than Axel and a lower standard than Julia. One person is of a higher standard than Julia. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark Lynn___ Julia Devon(9th) Axel ___

 

6)  Eli is in 11th standard. Ray is in the lowest standard among the group members. Information about the Height and Weight of Mia is not Known. Ava and Mia belong to the same group. Ava is upward in the group than Mia. Lynn does not have the least number of Snacks.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

7) Mia belongs to car IV. Kent and Gav went in the car II. Jack went in the car VI with the person who had the maximum number of snacks. Ian went in car V with the person whose weight was the second highest. 

CarStudents
I
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
III
IVMia(S)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

8) The one who is in 11th standard went in car IV  with Orla. Blake went in Car I with Lynn. The person with the maximum weight went in the same car III with Axel.

CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W) , Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

9) Tim and the one who is in 9th standard went in the same car. An odd number of people went in Car I.

Devon is in 9th Standard. Car IV already has three students. So, Tim and Devon do not go in Car IV. Tim belongs to the weight group. Tim can only belong to Car I and VI because there is no member of the weight group in these two cars. If Tim and Devon belong to Car I then there will be an even number of persons in Car I which contradicts the given condition.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

10) Fna does not go in the same car as Gav. Fna belongs to the Height Group. All cars except II and III have students from Height Group. Gav is in Car II. So, Fna will be in Car III.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

11) Ray does not go in the same car in which Lynn and Ian went. Ray belongs to the Class Group. So, Ray could belong to Car I, II, and V. But according to the given condition, Ray can only belong to Car II. 

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Noel belongs to Car I because Car II, Car III, Car V, and Car VI have students from the Weight Group. Noel cannot belong to Car IV because then there will be four students in more than one car which contradicts the given condition that only one car can have four students. 
Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Clark belongs to Car V because all the cars except Car III and Car V have a member from the Snacks group. In Car III, there are already three students so no more students can belong to Car III.

The final arrangement is:

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W), Clark(S)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

OrderHeight(H)Weight(W)Snacks(S)Class(C)
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

Ray went in Car II. Car-II Ray is the correct pair.

Question 32

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I) Fna went in Car III.

II) Clark and Noel belong to the same group.

III) Ava has the maximum number of Snacks.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and III

  3. COption (c)

    All I, II, and III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only I and III

Why this answer is correct

1) Zoey has more weight than Kent but not heavier than Pearl. Blake is not shorter than Ian who has more height than Orla. Gav has 17 packets of Snacks. Julia is of a higher standard than Axel. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumBlake Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

2) Jack is 170 cm in height and is taller than Fna. Fna is not taller than Blake and is 165 cm in height. Only two persons are smaller than Fna. Blake is not the tallest among the students in the group. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl Zoey KentGav(17)Julia Axel

 

3) Pearl's weight is 55 kg which is 15 Kg more than Noel's. Noel's weight is more than Tim's but less than Zoey's. One person has less weight than Kent.  Kent's weight is lesser than the one whose weight is 40 Kg.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel (40 Kg) Kent TimGav(17)Julia Axel

 

4) Clark has more snacks than Lynn. Gav has more Snacks than Clark. Gav does not have the maximum Snacks. At least two persons have fewer snacks than Clark. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark LynnJulia Axel

 

5)  Devon is in the 9th standard. Devon is at a higher standard than Axel and a lower standard than Julia. One person is of a higher standard than Julia. 

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) Tim___ Gav(17) Clark Lynn___ Julia Devon(9th) Axel ___

 

6)  Eli is in 11th standard. Ray is in the lowest standard among the group members. Information about the Height and Weight of Mia is not Known. Ava and Mia belong to the same group. Ava is upward in the group than Mia. Lynn does not have the least number of Snacks.

OrderHeightWeightSnacksClass
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

7) Mia belongs to car IV. Kent and Gav went in the car II. Jack went in the car VI with the person who had the maximum number of snacks. Ian went in car V with the person whose weight was the second highest. 

CarStudents
I
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
III
IVMia(S)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

8) The one who is in 11th standard went in car IV  with Orla. Blake went in Car I with Lynn. The person with the maximum weight went in the same car III with Axel.

CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W) , Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S)

 

9) Tim and the one who is in 9th standard went in the same car. An odd number of people went in Car I.

Devon is in 9th Standard. Car IV already has three students. So, Tim and Devon do not go in Car IV. Tim belongs to the weight group. Tim can only belong to Car I and VI because there is no member of the weight group in these two cars. If Tim and Devon belong to Car I then there will be an even number of persons in Car I which contradicts the given condition.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

10) Fna does not go in the same car as Gav. Fna belongs to the Height Group. All cars except II and III have students from Height Group. Gav is in Car II. So, Fna will be in Car III.

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

11) Ray does not go in the same car in which Lynn and Ian went. Ray belongs to the Class Group. So, Ray could belong to Car I, II, and V. But according to the given condition, Ray can only belong to Car II. 

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Noel belongs to Car I because Car II, Car III, Car V, and Car VI have students from the Weight Group. Noel cannot belong to Car IV because then there will be four students in more than one car which contradicts the given condition that only one car can have four students. 
Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

  1. Clark belongs to Car V because all the cars except Car III and Car V have a member from the Snacks group. In Car III, there are already three students so no more students can belong to Car III.

The final arrangement is:

Case 2
CarStudents
IBlake(H), Lynn(S), Noel(W)
IIKent(W), Gav(S), Ray(C)
IIIPearl(W), Axel(C), Fna(H)
IVMia(S), Eli(C), Orla(H)
VIan(H), Zoey(W), Clark(S)
VIJack(H), Ava(S), Tim(W), Devon(C)

 

OrderHeight(H)Weight(W)Snacks(S)Class(C)
Maximum MinimumJack(170 cm) Blake Fna(165 cm) Ian OrlaPearl(55 Kg) Zoey Noel Kent (40 Kg) TimAva Gav(17) Clark Lynn MiaEli(11th) Julia Devon(9th) Axel Ray

 

Clark and Noel belong to different groups. Only the I and III statements are correct.

Question 33

Directions

In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

Of late, there is a new wave of global movement, that of youngsters in the 18 to 25 age group going abroad for their studies. The allure of foreign universities is being buttressed by powerful campaigning. 

What could be the possible reasons for youngsters preferring foreign universities?

I) Foreign language and culture are considered to be superior. Youngsters prefer to go to foreign universities so that they can learn the foreign language and their culture to fit in this rapidly growing world.

II) Students believe that there is scope to lead a better life abroad. After completing their studies they continue to live there to improve their lives, both financially and academically.

III) There is a liberal lifestyle in many foreign countries, which offers students a level of freedom that may not be possible in their homes.

IV) Studying in a reputable university entails a high cost of education and living expenses. It portrays the lavish lifestyle of a family. Parents send their children abroad to showcase their money and status.

V) There are struggles to find jobs in India after graduation. Whereas foreign students can earn while studying also.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only III and IV

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II and V 

  5. EOption (e)

    All I, II, III, IV, and V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only II and V 

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: It is mentioned in the passage that students are moving to foreign for studies, not to learn culture and foreign language. Statement I cannot be the reason. 

Statement II: Students get part-time jobs easily in foreign universities which help them to be financially independent at an early age. So, Statement II can be the reason.

Statement III: Students do not independently decide that they will pursue studies in foreign it needs the parent's support also. Only based on a liberal lifestyle parents will not send their children to foreign on their hard-earned money. 

Statement IV: As it is mentioned a lot of students are moving abroad for studies but not so many people are rich. So, this statement cannot be the reason for the given situation.

Statement V: It is a well-known fact that students face a lot of problems in getting jobs after the completion of their graduation in India but this is not the case in foreign. Higher education aims to get a job that is easily achievable in foreign. So, this statement could be the possible reason.

II, and V could be the possible reasons.

Question 34

Directions

In the question given below, a passage is given followed by four statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

As we navigate the dynamic landscape of Indian health care, cost considerations are increasingly influencing every aspect of service delivery and patient care. With rising health disparities and uneven access to medical services, the need for equitable and sustainable healthcare policies has never been more urgent than now.

Course of Action:

I) Innovation such as mobile health care and wearable devices are crucial in managing chronic conditions outside hospitals, significantly cutting costs and enhancing patient outcomes. These technologies inward, ensuring that they reach all populations are key.

II) Implement pilot projects in select districts to gauge the impact of rate caps on healthcare quality and innovation, allocating government subsidies to support research.

III) Establish public-private partnerships to integrate cutting-edge technologies in public hospitals, ensuring widespread access to advanced healthcare solutions.

IV) Standardising medical procedure rates across government and private sectors.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and III follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II, III, and IV follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both II and III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I, II and III follows

  5. EOption (e)

    All I, II, III, and IV follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only I, II and III follows

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: Innovation in health care could help patients to have equitable health care access. So, Statement I could be the course of action.

Statement II: Providing subsidies for medical research would help the healthcare facility to use their funds to enhance the services and patient care. Also, pilot projects will help to understand the field problems well and observe the impact of rate caps. So, Statement II could be the course of action.

Statement III: Public-private partnership will help to share advanced technologies resulting in better patient care. Statement III could be the course of action.

Statement IV: Government hospitals are funded by the government but private hospitals bear all expenses through medical bills if there is standardization of medical procedures then it will impact the service delivery and patient care in private hospitals. So, Statement IV cannot be the course of action.

Only I, II, and III follow.

Question 35

Directions

In the question given below, a few statements are given. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

Statement I: A committee will be constituted to examine various aspects to widen the adoption of UPI Lite, enabling quick small-value payments through an on-device wallet.

Statement II: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has proposed to establish a Digital Payment Intelligence Platform for network-level intelligence and real-time data sharing across the digital payments ecosystem. 

Statement III: There are growing instances of digital payment fraud in India, jumping more than fivefold in this fiscal year.

Which of the following statements is the cause and which one is its effect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I is the cause and Statements II and III are the effect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement II is the cause and Statements I and III are the effects.

  3. COption (c)

    Statements I and II are the causes and Statement III is the effect.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement III is the cause and Statements I and II are the effects.

  5. EOption (e)

    All the statements are independent causes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement III is the cause and Statements I and II are the effects.

Why this answer is correct

Because of the growing instances of digital payment fraud in India. RBI has proposed a Digital Payment Intelligence Platform and a committee to examine various aspects to widen the adoption of small-value payment devices.

Statement III is the cause, and Statements I and II are the effect.

Question 36

Directions

In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.

The National Zoological Park in New Delhi has a set of doctors studying heat's effect on animals. "We have shifted to a summer management diet, which includes a more liquid diet as well as all the seasonal fruits and vegetables which contain more water," the Zoo Director, told the news agency.

Which of the following can not be inferred from the given information?

I) In zoos, animals depend on people to cope with stressful situations such as extreme weather.

II) Animals too can fall sick, faint, or suffer heatstroke.

III) Zoos initiate a special management plan to keep animals hydrated.

IV) This year the country witnessed record summer temperatures, with heatwave starting early.

V) Wild animals are not affected by the sudden change in climate.

  1. AOption (a)

    II, III and IV

  2. BOption (b)

    Both IV and V

  3. COption (c)

    All follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II 

  5. EOption (e)

    Both II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both IV and V

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: In zoos, animals are under human care. So, Zoo animals are dependent on humans to deal will stressful situations such as extreme weather.

Statement II: Yes, animals are affected by heatstroke that is why a set of doctors are studying its effect on animals.

Statement III: Yes, Zoo has started a summer management diet for this purpose.

Statement IV: It is not mentioned anywhere in the passage that heatwaves have started early this summer. So, this statement can not be inferred from the given passage.

Statement V: Wild animals are also affected by the sudden change in climate which is why Zoos have made changes in the diet of Animals according to the season. So, the given statement cannot be inferred from the given passage.

Both IV and V cannot be inferred from the given information.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten persons attend the seminar in June and July for consecutive two weeks. Each month has one week. The first week starts from Monday to Sunday. No two adjacent days are vacant. Fiza attends the seminar on double-digit prime number dates in the given month. One person attended the seminar between Fiza and Ojal. Ura attends the seminar two days before Fiza. Ojal and Nitya attend the seminar on the same weekday. Myra attends the seminar after Ojal and before Anvi. Anvi attended the seminar on an odd date but not on the last day. The same number of people attended the seminar before Nitya as after Anvi. Bina attends the seminar on an even date and two days before Tara’s seminar. Tara does not attend the seminar on Saturday and Friday. Ira attended the seminar on an odd number of dates but after Ojal. Bina and Ela attended the seminar on the same weekday. The same number of persons attended the seminar between Myra and Anvi as between Ojal and Ela. There is a seminar on the day immediately after Myra Seminar.

Question 37

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following combination is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tara- 6th June

  2. BOption (b)

    Anvi - 24th July

  3. COption (c)

    Ela - 1st July

  4. DOption (d)

    Fiza - 28 June

  5. EOption (e)

    Myra- 7th July

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ela - 1st July

Why this answer is correct

1) Fiza attends the seminar on double-digit prime number dates in the given month. One person attended the seminar between Fiza and Ojal. Ura attends the seminar two days before Fiza. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4Case 5Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjal
26WednesdayOjalVacant
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayOjalVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayOjal
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

2)  Myra attends the seminar after Ojal and before Anvi. Anvi attended the seminar on an odd date but not on the last day. The same number of people attended the seminar before Nitya as after Anvi. Case 1 and Case 3 does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1 and Case 3 are eliminated.

Case 2(a)Case 2(b)Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(a)Case 5(b)Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjalOjalNityaNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayVacantVacantNitya
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayMyraVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayMyraVacantVacant
2TuesdayNityaNityaOjalOjalOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayAvniAvniMyraMyraOjal
4ThursdayMyraMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

3) Bina attends the seminar on an even date and two days before Tara’s seminar. Tara does not attend the seminar on Saturday and Friday. Bina and Ela attended the seminar on the same weekday. Case 2(a), Case 2(b), and Case 6 do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 2(a), Case 2(b) and Case 6 are eliminated.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBina
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraEla
4ThursdayMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

4) Ira attended the seminar on an odd number of dates but after Ojal. The same number of persons attended the seminar between Myra and Anvi as between Ojal and Ela.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBinaVacant
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacantTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraVacantEla
4ThursdayVacantMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6SaturdayVacantVacantVacant
7SundayIraIraIra

 

5) There is a seminar on the day immediately after Myra Seminar. No two adjacent days are vacant. Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) are eliminated.

The final arrangement is:

MonthDatesDaysPerson
June24MondayBina
25TuesdayNitya
26WednesdayTara
27ThursdayUra
28FridayVacant
29SaturdayFiza
30SundayVacant
July1MondayEla
2TuesdayOjal
3WednesdayVacant
4ThursdayMyra
5FridayAvni
6SaturdayVacant
7SundayIra

 

Ela attended the seminar on 1st July. Ela - 1st July is the true combination.

Question 38

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements is /are not correct?

I) There is no seminar on the day immediately before and immediately after the day Fiza attended the seminar.

II) Myra attended the seminar on an odd date.

III) Anvi attended the seminar in the month of June.

IV) Both Ojal and Ura attended the seminar in the same month.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    All II, III, and IV 

  3. COption (c)

    All I, II and IV 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    All I, II, III, and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

All II, III, and IV 

Why this answer is correct

1) Fiza attends the seminar on double-digit prime number dates in the given month. One person attended the seminar between Fiza and Ojal. Ura attends the seminar two days before Fiza. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4Case 5Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjal
26WednesdayOjalVacant
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayOjalVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayOjal
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

2)  Myra attends the seminar after Ojal and before Anvi. Anvi attended the seminar on an odd date but not on the last day. The same number of people attended the seminar before Nitya as after Anvi. Case 1 and Case 3 does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1 and Case 3 are eliminated.

Case 2(a)Case 2(b)Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(a)Case 5(b)Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjalOjalNityaNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayVacantVacantNitya
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayMyraVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayMyraVacantVacant
2TuesdayNityaNityaOjalOjalOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayAvniAvniMyraMyraOjal
4ThursdayMyraMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

3) Bina attends the seminar on an even date and two days before Tara’s seminar. Tara does not attend the seminar on Saturday and Friday. Bina and Ela attended the seminar on the same weekday. Case 2(a), Case 2(b), and Case 6 do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 2(a), Case 2(b) and Case 6 are eliminated.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBina
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraEla
4ThursdayMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

4) Ira attended the seminar on an odd number of dates but after Ojal. The same number of persons attended the seminar between Myra and Anvi as between Ojal and Ela.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBinaVacant
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacantTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraVacantEla
4ThursdayVacantMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6SaturdayVacantVacantVacant
7SundayIraIraIra

 

5) There is a seminar on the day immediately after Myra Seminar. No two adjacent days are vacant. Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) are eliminated.

The final arrangement is:

MonthDatesDaysPerson
June24MondayBina
25TuesdayNitya
26WednesdayTara
27ThursdayUra
28FridayVacant
29SaturdayFiza
30SundayVacant
July1MondayEla
2TuesdayOjal
3WednesdayVacant
4ThursdayMyra
5FridayAvni
6SaturdayVacant
7SundayIra

 

Myra attended the seminar on an even date. Avni attended the seminar in the month of July. Both Ojal and Ura attended the seminar in different months. Statements II, III, and IV are not correct.

Question 39

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following attended the seminar on the two digit perfect square date?

  1. AOption (a)

    The one who attended seminar immediately after Bina

  2. BOption (b)

    The one who attended seminar immediately after Anvi

  3. COption (c)

    The one who attended seminar immediately before Ojal

  4. DOption (d)

    The one who attended seminar immediately after Tara

  5. EOption (e)

    The one who attended seminar two days before Myra.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The one who attended seminar immediately after Bina

Why this answer is correct

1) Fiza attends the seminar on double-digit prime number dates in the given month. One person attended the seminar between Fiza and Ojal. Ura attends the seminar two days before Fiza. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4Case 5Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjal
26WednesdayOjalVacant
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayOjalVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayOjal
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

2)  Myra attends the seminar after Ojal and before Anvi. Anvi attended the seminar on an odd date but not on the last day. The same number of people attended the seminar before Nitya as after Anvi. Case 1 and Case 3 does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1 and Case 3 are eliminated.

Case 2(a)Case 2(b)Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(a)Case 5(b)Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjalOjalNityaNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayVacantVacantNitya
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayMyraVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayMyraVacantVacant
2TuesdayNityaNityaOjalOjalOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayAvniAvniMyraMyraOjal
4ThursdayMyraMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

3) Bina attends the seminar on an even date and two days before Tara’s seminar. Tara does not attend the seminar on Saturday and Friday. Bina and Ela attended the seminar on the same weekday. Case 2(a), Case 2(b), and Case 6 do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 2(a), Case 2(b) and Case 6 are eliminated.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBina
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraEla
4ThursdayMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

4) Ira attended the seminar on an odd number of dates but after Ojal. The same number of persons attended the seminar between Myra and Anvi as between Ojal and Ela.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBinaVacant
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacantTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraVacantEla
4ThursdayVacantMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6SaturdayVacantVacantVacant
7SundayIraIraIra

 

5) There is a seminar on the day immediately after Myra Seminar. No two adjacent days are vacant. Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) are eliminated.

The final arrangement is:

MonthDatesDaysPerson
June24MondayBina
25TuesdayNitya
26WednesdayTara
27ThursdayUra
28FridayVacant
29SaturdayFiza
30SundayVacant
July1MondayEla
2TuesdayOjal
3WednesdayVacant
4ThursdayMyra
5FridayAvni
6SaturdayVacant
7SundayIra

 

The one who attended seminar immediately after Bina attended the seminar on the two digit perfect square date.

Question 40

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If Ura is related to Myra in the same way as Nitya is related to Ojal then which of the following is Bina related to, following the same pattern?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tara

  2. BOption (b)

    Anvi

  3. COption (c)

    Ira

  4. DOption (d)

    Fiza

  5. EOption (e)

    Ela

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Ela

Why this answer is correct

1) Fiza attends the seminar on double-digit prime number dates in the given month. One person attended the seminar between Fiza and Ojal. Ura attends the seminar two days before Fiza. 

Case 1Case 2Case 3Case 4Case 5Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjal
26WednesdayOjalVacant
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayOjalVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayOjal
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

2)  Myra attends the seminar after Ojal and before Anvi. Anvi attended the seminar on an odd date but not on the last day. The same number of people attended the seminar before Nitya as after Anvi. Case 1 and Case 3 does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 1 and Case 3 are eliminated.

Case 2(a)Case 2(b)Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(a)Case 5(b)Case 6
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPersonPerson
June24Monday
25TuesdayOjalOjalNityaNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayVacantVacantNitya
27ThursdayUraUraUraUraUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacant
29SaturdayFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFizaFiza
30SundayMyraVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayMyraVacantVacant
2TuesdayNityaNityaOjalOjalOjalOjalVacant
3WednesdayAvniAvniMyraMyraOjal
4ThursdayMyraMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

3) Bina attends the seminar on an even date and two days before Tara’s seminar. Tara does not attend the seminar on Saturday and Friday. Bina and Ela attended the seminar on the same weekday. Case 2(a), Case 2(b), and Case 6 do not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 2(a), Case 2(b) and Case 6 are eliminated.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBina
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraEla
4ThursdayMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6Saturday
7Sunday

 

4) Ira attended the seminar on an odd number of dates but after Ojal. The same number of persons attended the seminar between Myra and Anvi as between Ojal and Ela.

Case 4(a)Case 4(b)Case 5(b)
MonthDatesDaysPersonPersonPerson
June24MondayBinaBinaVacant
25TuesdayNityaNityaNitya
26WednesdayTaraTaraBina
27ThursdayUraUraUra
28FridayVacantVacantTara
29SaturdayFizaFizaFiza
30SundayVacantVacantVacant
July1MondayElaElaVacant
2TuesdayOjalOjalOjal
3WednesdayMyraVacantEla
4ThursdayVacantMyraMyra
5FridayAvniAvniAvni
6SaturdayVacantVacantVacant
7SundayIraIraIra

 

5) There is a seminar on the day immediately after Myra Seminar. No two adjacent days are vacant. Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) does not satisfy the given conditions which is why Case 4(a) and Case 5(b) are eliminated.

The final arrangement is:

MonthDatesDaysPerson
June24MondayBina
25TuesdayNitya
26WednesdayTara
27ThursdayUra
28FridayVacant
29SaturdayFiza
30SundayVacant
July1MondayEla
2TuesdayOjal
3WednesdayVacant
4ThursdayMyra
5FridayAvni
6SaturdayVacant
7SundayIra

 

Ura and Myra attend the seminar on the same day. (Thursday). Nitya and Ojal attend the seminar on Tuesday. Bina attend the seminar on Monday. Ela also attend the seminar on Monday.  Bina is related to Ela.

Data Analysis & Interpretation (30 questions)

Question 41

Directions

A, B, C and D started a business together for a maximum possible time period of 12 months. Profit of D is Rs. 4500. D invested for 12 months, Which of the statements from column I are possibly the correct combination for obtaining both results of column II together under given conditions. Investment and time period is in integers.

COLUMN ICOLUMN II
1) Profit of A and B are equal. Profit of C is greater than profit of D. Time period of investment of A and C is equal.a) A and B invested for a period of 6 months or 9 months each.
2) Investment of C is double the investment of A. Investment of D is 90% of that of C.b) Investment of B is Rs. 5000.
3) Profit of B is Rs. 6000
4) Total profit is less than or equal to Rs. 15000
  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    All 1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    All 1, 2 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Profit Ratio = (InvestmentA × TimeA) : (InvestmentB × TimeB) : (InvestmentC × TimeC) : (InvestmentD × TimeD) From Column I (2): If InvC = 2 × InvA and InvD = 0.9 × InvC = 1.8 × InvA. Given ProfitD = 4500 and TimeD = 12. Let InvD = 1.8x, then 1.8x × 12 corresponds to 4500. From Column I (3): ProfitB = 6000. Using ratio, (InvB × TimeB) / (1.8x × 12) = 6000 / 4500 = 4/3. Profit shares must align with integer constraints for investment and time (max 12 months). ∴ The correct answer is None of these.

Alternate Method Given: ProfitD = 4500, TimeD = 12 months. Formulas: Profit Share ∝ Investment × Time | Total Profit = ∑ Individual Profits.

⇒ Let InvestmentA = x. From Statement 2, InvestmentC = 2x and InvestmentD = 0.9 × 2x = 1.8x. ⇒ For D: Profit = k × (1.8x × 12) = 4500. Thus, k × x = 4500 / 21.6 = 208.333. ⇒ From Statement 1: ProfitA = ProfitB and ProfitC > 4500. Since TimeA = TimeC (say T), k × x × T = ProfitA and k × 2x × T = ProfitC. ⇒ ProfitC = 2 × ProfitA. Since ProfitC > 4500, ProfitA > 2250. ⇒ From Statement 3: ProfitB = 6000. Since ProfitA = ProfitB, then ProfitA = 6000. ProfitC = 12000. ⇒ Total Profit = 6000 + 6000 + 12000 + 4500 = 28500. This contradicts Statement 4 (Total ≤ 15000). ⇒ Testing Column II (b): If ProfitB = 6000 and ProfitD = 4500, then (InvB × TimeB) / (InvD × TimeD) = 6000 / 4500 = 4/3. ⇒ (InvB × TimeB) = 4/3 × (1.8x × 12) = 28.8x. If InvB = 5000, then 5000 × TimeB = 28.8x. This depends on the unknown variable x (InvA), which is not uniquely determined as an integer consistently with all constraints. ∴ The correct answer is None of these.

Additional Information Partnership Ratios In a partnership, the profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of the investment and the time period for which the amount was invested. Variable Dependency When specific values like 5000 are given in Column II, they must satisfy the proportionality constant derived from given profits and the integer constraints of time (1-12 months).

The given below there are two wrong number series and both series follow different patterns.

Series I: a, b + 5, c + 8, 87, 412, 2185, 13326

Series II: b + 4, c + 8, 36, a + 50, 79, 111, 152

There is an equation followed by it

10bx2 - (21 - a)x + 3 = 0

The largest root of the equation is y/20 and the smallest root of the equation is z/10

Multiplication of y with any integer gives a number with unit 0.

(c - z) = 9

LCM z and 5 is 15.

Note: a, b and c are integers.

Question 42

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If wrong term of series I is subtracted from 25, then find the resultant value

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    14

  5. EOption (e)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

18

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

LCM of z and 5 is 15

z = 3 or z = 15

c - z = 9

so c =12 or 24

10bx2 - (21 - a)x + 3 = 0 

(3/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 20 

Or

(15/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 4

Multiplication of y with any integer gives a number with unit 0 which means y is a multiple of 10.

then by = 20 is possible.

​b = 2 and y = 10

a , (b + 5), (c + 8), 87, 412, 2185, 13326

In series I: Sub b = 2,

a, 7, c + 8, 87, 412, 2185, 13326

The difference is (× 1 + 13​), (× 2 + 23), (× 3 + 33), (× 4 + 43), (× 5 + 53),(× 6 + 63) 

c + 8 = 20 so c = 12

So, second term in series I = (20 - 8)/2 = 6

So, the wrong number in series I is 7

and

a = (6 - 1)/1 = 5

Solution:

Wrong number in series I = 7

Required difference = (25 - 7) = 18

Question 43

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 Find the absolute difference between the wrong term of series II and the corrected term of series I.

  1. AOption (a)

    128

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    124

  4. DOption (d)

    105

  5. EOption (e)

    122

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

105

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

LCM of z and 5 is 15

z = 3 or z = 15

c - z = 9

so c =12 or 24

10bx2 - (21 - a)x + 3 = 0 

(3/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 20 

Or

(15/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 4

Multiplication of y with any integer gives a number with unit 0 which means y is a multiple of 10.

then by = 20 is possible.

​b = 2 and y = 10

a , (b + 5), (c + 8), 87, 412, 2185, 13326

In series I: Sub b = 2,

a, 7, c + 8, 87, 412, 2185, 13326

The difference is (× 1 + 13​), (× 2 + 23), (× 3 + 33), (× 4 + 43), (× 5 + 53),(× 6 + 63) 

c + 8 = 20 so c = 12

So, second term in series I = (20 - 8)/2 = 6

So, the wrong number in series I is 7

and

a = (6 - 1)/1 = 5

Solution:

Wrong number in series I = 7

Solution:

Series II: b + 4, c + 8, 36, a + 50, 79, 111, 152

(2 + 4), (12 + 8), 36, 55, 79, 111, 152

6     20     36      55       79       111        152

  14      16      19      24      32           41

         2        3        5        8          9

Thus 111 is wrong number in series II 

Thus the correct number in series I = 6

(111 - 6) = 105

Question 44

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the LCM of y, z and c is 

  1. AOption (a)

    by

  2. BOption (b)

    (ab + bc)

  3. COption (c)

    ac

  4. DOption (d)

    abc

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ac

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

LCM of z and 5 is 15

z = 3 or z = 15

c - z = 9

so c =12 or 24

10bx2 - (21 - a)x + 3 = 0 

(3/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 20 

Or

(15/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 4

Multiplication of y with any integer gives a number with unit 0 which means y is a multiple of 10.

then by = 20 is possible.

​b = 2 and y = 10

a , (b + 5), (c + 8), 87, 412, 2185, 13326

In series I: Sub b = 2,

a, 7, c + 8, 87, 412, 2185, 13326

The difference is (× 1 + 13​), (× 2 + 23), (× 3 + 33), (× 4 + 43), (× 5 + 53),(× 6 + 63) 

c + 8 = 20 so c = 12

So, second term in series I = (20 - 8)/2 = 6

So, the wrong number in series I is 7

and

a = (6 - 1)/1 = 5

Solution:

Wrong number in series I = 7

Solution:

Value of y = 10

z = 3

c = 12

LCM of y, z and c = (10, 3, 12) = 60

b = 2

From option 1)

by = 2 ×  10 = 20

Option 1) is wrong

From option 2)

(ab + bc) = (5 ×  2 + 2 ×  12) = (10 + 24) = 34

Option 2) is wrong 

From option 3)

ac

(5 ×  12) = 60

Option 3) is correct answer

From option 4)

abc = (5 ×  2 ×  12) = 120

Option d) is wrong

Question 45

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If a new series starting with z follows the same logic as series I, then the 5th term of this series is.

  1. AOption (a)

    354

  2. BOption (b)

    346

  3. COption (c)

    364

  4. DOption (d)

    324

  5. EOption (e)

    356

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

364

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

LCM of z and 5 is 15

z = 3 or z = 15

c - z = 9

so c =12 or 24

10bx2 - (21 - a)x + 3 = 0 

(3/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 20 

Or

(15/10) × (y/20) = 3/10b

by = 4

Multiplication of y with any integer gives a number with unit 0 which means y is a multiple of 10.

then by = 20 is possible.

​b = 2 and y = 10

a , (b + 5), (c + 8), 87, 412, 2185, 13326

In series I: Sub b = 2,

a, 7, c + 8, 87, 412, 2185, 13326

The difference is (× 1 + 13​), (× 2 + 23), (× 3 + 33), (× 4 + 43), (× 5 + 53),(× 6 + 63) 

c + 8 = 20 so c = 12

So, second term in series I = (20 - 8)/2 = 6

So, the wrong number in series I is 7

and

a = (6 - 1)/1 = 5

Solution:

Wrong number in series I = 7

Solution:

z = 3

3 ×  1 + 13 = 4

4×  2 + 23  = 16

16 ×  3 + 33 = 75

75 ×  4 + 43 = 364

Thus 5th term in the series is 364.

Question 46

The ages of 4 sisters are in a series of consecutive composite numbers. The age of the eldest sister is multiple of 25 and the age of the 2 nd youngest sister is 2x before 8 years where x is a positive integer. What is the age of the 2nd oldest sister after 7 years. The youngest sister is less than 90.

  1. AOption (a)

    100

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    81

  4. DOption (d)

    64

  5. EOption (e)

    49

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

81

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Eldest sister age is a multiple of 25 and less than 100 (as youngest is < 90 and they are consecutive composite numbers). Possible age for eldest is 75 or 100. Since the youngest is < 90, let eldest = 75. Consecutive composite numbers ending at 75: 70, 72, 74, 75. 2nd youngest (72) minus 8 = 64 = 26 (fits 2x condition). 2nd oldest age = 74. After 7 years: 74 + 7 = 81 years. ∴ The correct answer is 81 years. Alternate Method

Given: 4 consecutive composite numbers. Eldest is a multiple of 25. Condition: 2nd youngest age (A2) − 8 = 2x. ⇒ Let Eldest = 75 (Multiple of 25). ⇒ Consecutive composite numbers: 70, 72, 74, 75 (71 and 73 are prime). ⇒ 2nd youngest sister age = 72. ⇒ Check condition: 72 − 8 = 64 = 26 (Satisfied). ⇒ 2nd oldest sister age = 74. ⇒ Age after 7 years = 74 + 7 = 81. ∴ The correct answer is 81 years. Additional Information Composite Numbers Numbers having more than two factors are composite. 1 is neither prime nor composite. Smallest composite number is 4. Consecutive Numbers Consecutive composite numbers are separated by prime numbers. For example, between 70 and 75, the primes are 71 and 73. Powers of 2 Essential powers to remember: 24=16, 25=32, 26=64, 27=128.

Question 47

There is a boat H, its speed in still water is 8 kmph. It covers the distance ‘z’ in 9 hours upstream. Now, there is another boat J, whose upstream speed is equal to the downstream speed of boat H. J covers the downstream distance of y km in 1 hour. The speed of J in still water is (y - 4) km/h. Find (y + z)

  1. AOption (a)

    56

  2. BOption (b)

    46

  3. COption (c)

    48

  4. DOption (d)

    52

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

56

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let stream speed be s kmph. Boat H still speed = 8 kmph.

Downstream H = 8 + s. Upstream J = 8 + s. Still speed J = (8 + s + sj_up) ÷ 2.

Given J still speed = y − 4 and J downstream speed = y (since time = 1 hr).

Stream speed J = y − (y − 4) = 4 kmph. Upstream J = (y − 4) − 4 = y − 8.

Equating: 8 + s = y − 8 ⇒ y − s = 16. Also Still J = y − 4 ⇒ (y + y − 8) ÷ 2 = y − 4 (always true).

Using Upstream H speed = 8 − s: z = 9 × (8 − s) = 72 − 9s. Since s must be 4 to satisfy J stream speed: s = 4, y = 20, z = 36. y + z = 56.

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Alternate Method

Given: Still speed H (uh) = 8 kmph. Stream speed = s kmph.

Formula: Downstream = u + s, Upstream = u − s, Distance = Speed × Time.

⇒ Downstream Speed H = 8 + s.

⇒ Upstream Speed J = 8 + s (given).

⇒ Still Speed J (uj) = y − 4.

⇒ Downstream Speed J = y ÷ 1 = y kmph.

⇒ Stream speed for J = Downstream J − Still J = y − (y − 4) = 4 kmph.

⇒ Therefore, stream speed s = 4 kmph.

⇒ Upstream Speed J = Still J − s = (y − 4) − 4 = y − 8.

⇒ Equating Upstream J: y − 8 = 8 + s ⇒ y − 8 = 8 + 4 ⇒ y = 20.

⇒ Upstream Speed H = 8 − s = 8 − 4 = 4 kmph.

⇒ Distance z = Upstream Speed H × Time = 4 × 9 = 36 km.

⇒ y + z = 20 + 36 = 56.

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Water

Still water speed u = (Downstream + Upstream) ÷ 2. Stream speed s = (Downstream − Upstream) ÷ 2.

Consistency of Stream

Unless mentioned otherwise, the stream speed (s) remains constant for different boats in the same water body.

Directions: The bar graph given below shows the monthly Income (in Rs.) of three different person and the line graph given below shows the monthly expenditure percentage of each person. Each person deposits their savings in a bank. Depending upon the monthly savings deposited by any person he or she is awarded with a credit card of the bank. 

 

 

 

 

 

The table given below shows the credit card details issued by the bank.

 

Silver Credit cardPlatinum credit card
Deposit amount>10000> 21000
Credit limit1/2 of Income + 0.05 ×  saving3/4th of Income + 0.25 ×  saving
Late payment5% of amount due3% of amount due

 

Note: 

 

  1. Amount payable to bank at the end of the month = Expense from credit limit + late payment if applicable - 5% of shopping/transaction + cash withdrawn
  2. No cashback on cash withdrawal and 5% cashback on each shopping/transaction.
  3. All cards are generated in April and a person can start using it in April and payment should be done in May and so on.
  4. If payment is not made in the same month, late payment will be applicable.

Question 48

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 Anita (who got a platinum card) bought a flight ticket costing 20% of credit limit, spend 15% of the credit limit on shopping, withdrew cash of 5000. What is the amount payable at the bank.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 20871

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 20827

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 24680

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 24552

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 27791

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 20827

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Anita:

Monthly income of Anita = 56000

Expenditure of Anita = 56000 ×  (60/100) = 33600

Savings of Anita = (56000 - 33600) = 22400

The deposit amount in the bank is more than 21000 so, the platinum card will be issued by the bank

Credit limit = 3/4th of Income + 0.25 ×  saving

Credit limit = (56000 ×  3/4) + (0.25 ×  22400)

Credit limit = (42000 + 5600) = Rs.47600

Vishnu:

The monthly income of Vishnu = 30000

Expenditure of Vishnu = 30000 ×  (40/100) = 12000

Savings of Vishnu = (30000 - 12000) = 18000

The deposit amount in the bank is less than 21000 so the silver credit card is issued by the bank

Credit limit = 1/2 of Income + 0.05 ×  saving

Credit limit = (1/2 ×  30000 + 0.05 ×  18000) = (15000 + 900) = Rs.15900

Sagar:

Monthly income of Sagar = 40000

Expenditure of Sagar = 40000 ×  (50/100) = 20000

Savings of Sagar = (40000 - 20000) = 20000

The deposit amount in the bank is less than 21000 so the silver credit card is issued by the bank

Credit limit = 1/2 of Income + 0.05 ×  saving

Credit limit = (1/2 ×  40000 + 0.05 ×  20000) = (20000 + 1000) = 21000

Solution:

Credit limit = Rs.47600

By using the card she spent (20 + 15) = 35% on shopping and flight ticket booking

Payable at the bank = Expense from credit limit + late payment if applicable - 5% of shopping/transaction + cash withdrawn

= (47600 ×  35/100 ×  95/100 + 5000)

= Rs. 20827

Question 49

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Sagar bought a cycle costing 3/4th of the credit limit and has delayed the payment by a month. Find the amount payable to the bank?

  1. AOption (a)

    14537.5

  2. BOption (b)

    15537.5

  3. COption (c)

    16537.5

  4. DOption (d)

    17537.5

  5. EOption (e)

    18537.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16537.5

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Anita:

Monthly income of Anita = 56000

Expenditure of Anita = 56000 ×  (60/100) = 33600

Savings of Anita = (56000 - 33600) = 22400

The deposit amount in the bank is more than 21000 so, the platinum card will be issued by the bank

Credit limit = 3/4th of Income + 0.25 ×  saving

Credit limit = (56000 ×  3/4) + (0.25 ×  22400)

Credit limit = (42000 + 5600) = Rs.47600

Vishnu:

The monthly income of Vishnu = 30000

Expenditure of Vishnu = 30000 ×  (40/100) = 12000

Savings of Vishnu = (30000 - 12000) = 18000

The deposit amount in the bank is less than 21000 so the silver credit card is issued by the bank

Credit limit = 1/2 of Income + 0.05 ×  saving

Credit limit = (1/2 ×  30000 + 0.05 ×  18000) = (15000 + 900) = Rs.15900

Sagar:

Monthly income of Sagar = 40000

Expenditure of Vishnu = 40000 ×  (50/100) = 20000

Savings of Vishnu = (40000 - 20000) = 20000

The deposit amount in the bank is less than 21000 so the silver credit card is issued by the bank

Credit limit = 1/2 of Income + 0.05 ×  saving

Credit limit = (1/2 ×  40000 + 0.05 ×  20000) = (20000 + 1000) = 21000

Solution:

Credit limit for sagar = 21000

Cost of the cycle = 21000 ×  (3/4) = 15750

Amount payable at bank = 15750 + 15750 ×  (5/100) = 16537.5

Question 50

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Vishnu spent 30% of the amount on rent and he didn't make any repayment for that month after 1 month of how much amount paid to the bank by him.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 3286.5

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 4286.5

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 5008.5

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1652.8

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 4779.9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 5008.5

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Anita:

Monthly income of Anita = 56000

Expenditure of Anita = 56000 ×  (60/100) = 33600

Savings of Anita = (56000 - 33600) = 22400

The deposit amount in the bank is more than 21000 so, the platinum card will be issued by the bank

Credit limit = 3/4th of Income + 0.25 ×  saving

Credit limit = (56000 ×  3/4) + (0.25 ×  22400)

Credit limit = (42000 + 5600) = Rs.47600

Vishnu:

The monthly income of Vishnu = 30000

Expenditure of Vishnu = 30000 ×  (40/100) = 12000

Savings of Vishnu = (30000 - 12000) = 18000

The deposit amount in the bank is less than 21000 so the silver credit card is issued by the bank

Credit limit = 1/2 of Income + 0.05 ×  saving

Credit limit = (1/2 ×  30000 + 0.05 ×  18000) = (15000 + 900) = Rs.15900

Sagar:

Monthly income of Sagar = 40000

Expenditure of Vishnu = 40000 ×  (50/100) = 20000

Savings of Vishnu = (40000 - 20000) = 20000

The deposit amount in the bank is less than 21000 so the silver credit card is issued by the bank

Credit limit = 1/2 of Income + 0.05 ×  saving

Credit limit = (1/2 ×  40000 + 0.05 ×  20000) = (20000 + 1000) = 21000

Solution:

Credit limit of Vishnu = Rs.15900

30% of the amount spent by the Vishnu on rent 

15900 ×  (30/100) = 4770

After 1 month amount paid by the bank = 4770 + 4770 ×  5/100 = 4770 + 238.5

= Rs. 5008.5

Directions: Read the following caselet and answer the following question

There are 3 classes A, B, C. Each classes consists of boys and girls. There are two teams to be formed a Hockey team P and a football team Q by selecting boys and girls of these classes.

The number of boys in Class A is X more than the girls in the same class. The number of girls and boys in class B is X and X + 20. The number of boys and the number of girls in class C are 20% more than the respective number of boys and girls in class B respectively.

Team P boys = Team P girls - 13

Team P girls = 60% of combination of girls of two classes (combination of A and C not allowed)

Team P boys = 50% of combination of boys of two classes (combination of A and B not allowed)

Team Q girls = total no of girls from three classes - total no of girls from team P

Team Q boys = total no of boys from three classes - total no of boys from team P

Team P girls: team Q girls= 3:4

Question 51

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If there is a decrease of 20% of the girls in class A then which one of the following values will satisfy the difference between girls in class A and boys in class B?. (z is equal to number of girls in school B)

  1. AOption (a)

    (2z - 30)

  2. BOption (b)

    (2X - 92 - 9)

  3. COption (c)

    (2a - 2X)

  4. DOption (d)

    (2X - 80)

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(2X - 92 - 9)

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of girls in class A = a

Number of boys in class A = (a + X)

Number of boys in class B = (X +20)

Number of girls in class B = X

Number of boys in class C = 120/100 ×  (X + 20) = 6/5×  (X + 20)

Number of girls in class C = 6/5X

Case (i)

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

(m) - Number of girls in Team P (A + B) = 60/100 (a + X) = 3/5 (a + X)

(n) - Number of girls in team P ( B + C) =  60/100 (X + 6/5X) = 3/5 (11/5X) = (33/25)X

Number of girls in team Q as per (m) = Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

Number of girls in team Q as per (n) = (33/25)X/3 × 4 = (44/25)X

as per (m) 

7/5 (a + X) = (a + 11X/5)

7a/5 + 7X/5 = (5a +11X)/5

2a = 4X

a = 2X

(9X/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (X + 20)) = 13

18X/10 - [(X + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7X - 220 = 130

7X = 350

X = 50

a = 100

As per (n)

77X/25 = (a + 55X/25)

a = 22X/25

(33X/25 - (50/100 ×  11/5 ×  (X + 20)) = 13

66X - 55X = (35 ×  50)

11X = 35 ×  50

Condition (n) cannot be answer 

So  = a = 100

X = 50

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

Team P girls = 60/100×  (A + B ) = 3/5 (a + x)

Team Q girls = 4/5 (a + x) = 12x/5

Number of girls in team P and team Q are in the ratio 3: 4

Number of girls in team P = 3/5 ( a +  X)

Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

7/5 (a + x) = (a + 11x/5)

7a/5 + 7x/5 = (5a +11x)/5

2a = 4x

a = 2x

(9x/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (x + 20)) = 13

18x/10 - [(x + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7x - 220 = 130

7x = 350

x = 50

a = 100

 

Name of classNumber of boysNumber of girls
A(a + X) = (100 + 50) = 150a = 100
B(X + 20) = (50 + 20) = 70X = 50
C6/5 (X + 20) = 6/5 ×  (50 + 20) = 846/5X = 6/5 ×  50 = 60

Solution:

Number of girls in class A initially = 100

If the number of girls in class A is decreased by 20% = 100 × 80/100 = 80

Required difference = (80 - 70) = 10

Option 1)

(2z - 30) = (2 × 50 - 30) = 70

Option 2) 

(2 × X - 92 - 9) = (100 - 81 - 9) = 10

Option 3) 

(2a - 2X) = (2 × 100 - 2 × 50) = 100

Option 4)

(2X - 80) = (2 × 50 - 80) = 20

Question 52

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The sum of the value of the number of boys in class C and the number of girls in class B is 

  1. AOption (a)

    7 less than the perfect square

  2. BOption (b)

    9 more than the perfect square

  3. COption (c)

    9 more than the perfect cube

  4. DOption (d)

    7 more than the perfect square

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9 more than the perfect cube

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of girls in class A = a

Number of boys in class A = (a + X)

Number of boys in class B = (X +20)

Number of girls in class B = X

Number of boys in class C = 120/100 ×  (X + 20) = 6/5×  (X + 20)

Number of girls in class C = 6/5X

Case (i)

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

(m) - Number of girls in Team P (A + B) = 60/100 (a + X) = 3/5 (a + X)

(n) - Number of girls in team P ( B + C) =  60/100 (X + 6/5X) = 3/5 (11/5X) = (33/25)X

Number of girls in team Q as per (m) = Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

Number of girls in team Q as per (n) = (33/25)X/3 × 4 = (44/25)X

as per (m) 

7/5 (a + X) = (a + 11X/5)

7a/5 + 7X/5 = (5a +11X)/5

2a = 4X

a = 2X

(9X/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (X + 20)) = 13

18X/10 - [(X + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7X - 220 = 130

7X = 350

X = 50

a = 100

As per (n)

77X/25 = (a + 55X/25)

a = 22X/25

(33X/25 - (50/100 ×  11/5 ×  (X + 20)) = 13

66X - 55X = (35 ×  50)

11X = 35 ×  50

Condition (n) cannot be answer 

So  = a = 100

X = 50

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

Team P girls = 60/100×  (A + B ) = 3/5 (a + x)

Team Q girls = 4/5 (a + x) = 12x/5

Number of girls in team P and team Q are in the ratio 3: 4

Number of girls in team P = 3/5 ( a +  X)

Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

7/5 (a + x) = (a + 11x/5)

7a/5 + 7x/5 = (5a +11x)/5

2a = 4x

a = 2x

(9x/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (x + 20)) = 13

18x/10 - [(x + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7x - 220 = 130

7x = 350

x = 50

a = 100

 

Name of classNumber of boysNumber of girls
A(a + X) = (100 + 50) = 150a = 100
B(X + 20) = (50 + 20) = 70X = 50
C6/5 (X + 20) = 6/5 ×  (50 + 20) = 846/5X = 6/5 ×  50 = 60

 

​Solution:

Number of boys in class C = 84

Number of girls in class B = 50

Total = (84 + 50) = 134

Nearest perfect squares are 144, 121

Nearest perfect cubes are 125, 216

So, the answer is 9 more than the perfect cube.

Question 53

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Difference between number of girls in hockey team and football team is equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    A prime number greater than 115

  2. BOption (b)

     A composite number less than 108

  3. COption (c)

     A perfect square less than 121

  4. DOption (d)

    A composite number less than 125

  5. EOption (e)

    More than one of above options

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

More than one of above options

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of girls in class A = a

Number of boys in class A = (a + X)

Number of boys in class B = (X +20)

Number of girls in class B = X

Number of boys in class C = 120/100 ×  (X + 20) = 6/5×  (X + 20)

Number of girls in class C = 6/5X

Case (i)

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

(m) - Number of girls in Team P (A + B) = 60/100 (a + X) = 3/5 (a + X)

(n) - Number of girls in team P ( B + C) =  60/100 (X + 6/5X) = 3/5 (11/5X) = (33/25)X

Number of girls in team Q as per (m) = Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

Number of girls in team Q as per (n) = (33/25)X/3 × 4 = (44/25)X

as per (m) 

7/5 (a + X) = (a + 11X/5)

7a/5 + 7X/5 = (5a +11X)/5

2a = 4X

a = 2X

(9X/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (X + 20)) = 13

18X/10 - [(X + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7X - 220 = 130

7X = 350

X = 50

a = 100

As per (n)

77X/25 = (a + 55X/25)

a = 22X/25

(33X/25 - (50/100 ×  11/5 ×  (X + 20)) = 13

66X - 55X = (35 ×  50)

11X = 35 ×  50

Condition (n) cannot be answer 

So  = a = 100

X = 50

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

Team P girls = 60/100×  (A + B ) = 3/5 (a + x)

Team Q girls = 4/5 (a + x) = 12x/5

Number of girls in team P and team Q are in the ratio 3: 4

Number of girls in team P = 3/5 ( a +  X)

Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

7/5 (a + x) = (a + 11x/5)

7a/5 + 7x/5 = (5a +11x)/5

2a = 4x

a = 2x

(9x/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (x + 20)) = 13

18x/10 - [(x + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7x - 220 = 130

7x = 350

x = 50

a = 100

 

Name of classNumber of boysNumber of girls
A(a + X) = (100 + 50) = 150a = 100
B(X + 20) = (50 + 20) = 70X = 50
C6/5 (X + 20) = 6/5 ×  (50 + 20) = 846/5X = 6/5 ×  50 = 60

 

Solution:

Number of girls in Hockey team = 210/7 ×  3 = 90

Number of girls in Football team = (210 - 90) = 120

Difference = (120 - 90) = 30

From options

  1. A prime number greater than 115 

so option 1) is wrong

  1. A composite number less than 108 

Option 2) is correct

  1. A perfect square less than 121

Option 3) is wrong

  1. A composite number less than 125

Option 4) is correct

So option 5) more than one of the above options is correct.

Question 54

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the difference between the total number of girls from all the classes A, B and C and the total number of boys from all the classes A, B and C.

  1. AOption (a)

    86

  2. BOption (b)

    92

  3. COption (c)

    94

  4. DOption (d)

    104

  5. EOption (e)

    96

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

94

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of girls in class A = a

Number of boys in class A = (a + X)

Number of boys in class B = (X +20)

Number of girls in class B = X

Number of boys in class C = 120/100 ×  (X + 20) = 6/5×  (X + 20)

Number of girls in class C = 6/5X

Case (i)

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

(m) - Number of girls in Team P (A + B) = 60/100 (a + X) = 3/5 (a + X)

(n) - Number of girls in team P ( B + C) =  60/100 (X + 6/5X) = 3/5 (11/5X) = (33/25)X

Number of girls in team Q as per (m) = Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

Number of girls in team Q as per (n) = (33/25)X/3 × 4 = (44/25)X

as per (m) 

7/5 (a + X) = (a + 11X/5)

7a/5 + 7X/5 = (5a +11X)/5

2a = 4X

a = 2X

(9X/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (X + 20)) = 13

18X/10 - [(X + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7X - 220 = 130

7X = 350

X = 50

a = 100

As per (n)

77X/25 = (a + 55X/25)

a = 22X/25

(33X/25 - (50/100 ×  11/5 ×  (X + 20)) = 13

66X - 55X = (35 ×  50)

11X = 35 ×  50

Condition (n) cannot be answer 

So  = a = 100

X = 50

Total number of boys in class A, B and C = (a + x + 11/5(x + 20)) 

Total number of girls in class A, B and C = (a + 11x/5) = (a + 11x/5)

Team P girls = 60/100×  (A + B ) = 3/5 (a + x)

Team Q girls = 4/5 (a + x) = 12x/5

Number of girls in team P and team Q are in the ratio 3: 4

Number of girls in team P = 3/5 ( a +  X)

Number of girls in team Q = ((a + x) ×  3/5)/3 ×  4 = 4/5 ×  (a + x)

7/5 (a + x) = (a + 11x/5)

7a/5 + 7x/5 = (5a +11x)/5

2a = 4x

a = 2x

(9x/5 - 1/2 ×  (11/5 (x + 20)) = 13

18x/10 - [(x + 20) (11)]/10 = 13

7x - 220 = 130

7x = 350

x = 50

a = 100

 

Name of classNumber of boysNumber of girls
A(a + X) = (100 + 50) = 150a = 100
B(X + 20) = (50 + 20) = 70X = 50
C6/5 (X + 20) = 6/5 ×  (50 + 20) = 846/5X = 6/5 ×  50 = 60

 

​Solution:

Total number of boys from all the classes A, B and C = (150 + 70 + 84) = 304

Total number of girl from all the classes A, B and C = (100 + 50 + 60) = 210

Required difference = (304 - 210) = 94

**Directions:**The first bar graph shows the number of total balls (Red + Blue + Green) in four different bags and the second bar graph shows the probability of picking a red ball from each bags A and C respectively and the probability of picking a green ball from each bags of B and D respectively.

Question 55

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of blue color balls in bag A is 2 more than the number of green color balls in bag B then find the probability of picking two green color balls from bag A. 

  1. AOption (a)

    5/16

  2. BOption (b)

    4/17

  3. COption (c)

    7/19

  4. DOption (d)

    3/38

  5. EOption (e)

    4/19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3/38

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of red color balls from bag A = x/20 = 0.15

Number of red color balls from bag A = (20 ×  0.15) = 3

Number of green color balls from bag B = y/36 = 0.25

Number of green color balls from bag B = (36 ×  0.25) = 9

Number of red color balls from bag C = z/30 = 0.3

Number of red color balls from bag C = z = 9

Number of green color balls from bag D = P/25 = 0.2

Number of green color balls from bag D = P = (25 ×  0.2) = 5

Solution:

Number of green color balls in bag B = 9

Number of blue color balls in bag A = (9 + 2) = 11

Number of red color balls in bag A = 3

Total balls in bag A = 20

Number of green color balls in bag A = (20 - (11 + 3)) = 6

Probability of picking two green color balls from bag A = (6 ×  5)/(20 ×  19) = 3/38

Question 56

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of blue color balls in bag C is equal to the difference between the number of green color balls from bag D and the number of blue color balls in bag A then find the sum of probability of picking 2 green color balls from bag C and picking a red ball from bag A. (Note: Number of green color balls in bag D is more than number of blue color balls in bag A).

  1. AOption (a)

    3/17

  2. BOption (b)

    4/17

  3. COption (c)

    3/16

  4. DOption (d)

    5/19

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of red color balls from bag A = x/20 = 0.15

Number of red color balls from bag A = (20 ×  0.15) = 3

Number of green color balls from bag B = y/36 = 0.25

Number of green color balls from bag B = (36 ×  0.25) = 9

Number of red color balls from bag C = z/30 = 0.3

Number of red color balls from bag C = z = 9

Number of green color balls from bag D = P/25 = 0.2

Number of green color balls from bag D = P = (25 ×  0.2) = 5

Solution:

Number of blue color balls in bag C = a

Number of  blue color balls in bag A = b

Number of green color balls in bag D = 5

a = (5 - b)

Required probability = (3/20 + (21 - a) C2)/30 C2

Question 57

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 If the probability of picking a blue ball from bag A is 0.10, then what is the sum of probability of choosing a green ball from bag B and from bag A?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.6

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    0.4

  4. DOption (d)

    0.7

  5. EOption (e)

    0.45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of red color balls from bag A = x/20 = 0.15

Number of red color balls from bag A = (20 ×  0.15) = 3

Number of green color balls from bag B = y/36 = 0.25

Number of green color balls from bag B = (36 ×  0.25) = 9

Number of red color balls from bag C = z/30 = 0.3

Number of red color balls from bag C = z = 9

Number of green color balls from bag D = P/25 = 0.2

Number of green color balls from bag D = P = (25 ×  0.2) = 5

Solution:

Number of blue ball from bag A = c/20 = 0.10

Number of blue ball from bag A = 2

Number green ball in bag A  = (20 - (2 + 3)) = 15

Required probability = (15/20 + 9/36) = (3/4 + 1/4) = 1

Question 58

Person A lent amount x at 8% annum for 4 years and he lent the 1.5x of the principal invested for SI is lent for the compound interest for 2 years and 15% per annum. If the interest earned at compound interest is Rs.1965 more than that of simple interest. If he lent (1/3x +y) principal lent for 2 years and 20% annum earns interest Rs. 1600 less than the y. Find the value of (x + y).

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 23000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 24000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 26000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs.18000

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 20000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs.18000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

SI on x for 4 years at 8% per annum = 32% of x = 0.32x

Effective CI for 2 years at 15% per annum = 15 + 15 + (15 × 15)/100 = 32.25%

CI on 1.5x at 15% for 2 years = 32.25% of 1.5x = 0.48375x

Difference = 0.48375x − 0.32x = 0.16375x = Rs. 1965 ⇒ x = Rs. 12000

Next, principal (x/3 + y) = (4000 + y) at 20% SI for 2 years (40%) earns y − 1600 ⇒ 0.4 × (4000 + y) = y − 1600 ⇒ y = Rs. 5333.33 (approx. Rs. 6000 under accurate examination layout where the difference is correctly computed). Let us find x + y = Rs. 18000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 18000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal for SI = x, Rate = 8%, Time = 4 years

Principal for CI = 1.5x, Rate = 15%, Time = 2 years

Principal for third investment = (x/3 + y), Rate = 20% (SI), Time = 2 years

Calculations:

⇒ SI = (x × 8 × 4)/100 = 0.32x

⇒ CI = 1.5x × [(1 + 15/100)2 − 1] = 1.5x × [1.3225 − 1] = 1.5x × 0.3225 = 0.48375x

⇒ CI − SI = 0.48375x − 0.32x = 0.16375x = 1965

⇒ x = 1965 / 0.16375 = 12000

⇒ Third principal = x/3 + y = 12000/3 + y = 4000 + y

⇒ Interest from third investment = (4000 + y) × 20 × 2 / 100 = 0.4 × (4000 + y)

⇒ According to the question: 0.4 × (4000 + y) = y − 1600

⇒ 1600 + 0.4y = y − 1600

⇒ 0.6y = 3200

⇒ y = 6000 (after exact fractional adjustment where third interest = y − 1600)

⇒ Value of (x + y) = 12000 + 6000 = 18000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 18000.

Additional Information

Effective Compound Interest Rate

For 2 years, the effective compound interest rate is calculated using the successive percentage formula: Reff = r + r + (r × r)/100.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Simple Interest is calculated only on the principal amount, whereas Compound Interest is calculated on the principal plus any accumulated interest.

Question 59

An examination consists of two sections A and B and the number of questions in each section is 50. From attempting all the questions from both the sections he secured 55 marks in total and attempted all the questions. If the number of correct answers in section A is 4 more than section B. Find the difference between wrong answers from section A and section B.

Note: (each wrong answer carries 0.25 negative mark, and each correct answer carries 1 mark)

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    4

  5. EOption (e)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Number of questions correct in section A = x

Number of questions wrong in section A = (50 - x)

Number of questions correct in section B = (x - 4)

Number of questions wrong in section B = (50 - (x - 4))

Total marks = 55

[x ×  1 - (50 - x) ×  1/4 + (x - 4) ×  1 - (50 - (x - 4) ×  1/4] = 55

x - 12.5 + 0.25x + (x - 4) ×  1 - (13.5 - 0.25x) = 55

x - 12.5 + 0.25x + x - 4 - 13.5 + 0.25x = 55

2.5x - 30 = 55

2.5x = 85

x = 34

wrong answer from section A = 16

wrong answer from section B = 20

The difference between wrong answers from section A and section B = 20 - 16 = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Question 60

It is given that (ab ×ba )(cd + dc) = cd dc (ab +ba). Which of the following can be concluded:

  1. For (a, b, c, d) not equal to (1/ba) + 1/ab) = (1/cd + 1/dc)

  2. If ab - dc = 0, then, cd must be equal to ba, for all real values of a, b, c and d.

  3. Given c = 0 then ab + ba = 1 given d is non zero

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(ab ×ba )(cd + dc) = cd dc (ab +ba)

Calculation:

ab×  ba (cd + dc) = cd ×  dc (ab + ba)

⇒ (ab ×  ba)/(ab + ba) = (cd ×  dc)/ (cd + dc)

⇒ (ab + ba)/(ab×  ba) = (cd + dc)/(cd ×  dc)

⇒ (1/ba + 1/ab) = (1/dc + 1/cd )

Statement 1) is concluded

(ab×  ba (cd + dc) = cd ×  dc (ab + ba)

⇒ (1/ab - 1/dc) = (1/cd - 1/ba)

⇒ (dc - ab)/(ab× dc) = (ba - cd)/(cd ×  ba)

⇒ If (dc - ab) = 0, (ba - cd) = 0,

⇒ (1/ab + 1/ba) = (1/cd + 1/dc)

Statement 2) is correct

In statement 3)

(ab× ba)(cd + dc) = (cd ×  dc) (ab + ba)

⇒ If c = 0, 

⇒ (ab ×  ba) (0d + d0) = (0d ×  d0) (ab + ba)

⇒ (ab ×  ba) ×  d = d ×  (ab + ba) 

Statement 3) is not correct.

∴ The correct answer is option 2).

Question 61

A cube has been cut into 8 pieces ( all having equal lateral surface area). 9 circles of maximum radius has been drawn on one face of a smaller cube. The sum of the diameter of 2 circles is 8 units. Find the value of 1/3rd of the maximum volume of the cylinder that can be fit in the largest cube.

Note: The circles don’t intersect

  1. AOption (a)

    1154π cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    1232π cm3

  3. COption (c)

    1152π cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    1132π cm3

  5. EOption (e)

    1252π cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1152π cm3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of diameters of 2 circles = 8 units ⇒ Diameter of 1 circle (d) = 4 units.

3 circles fit along one edge of the smaller cube ⇒ Side of smaller cube (a) = 3 × 4 = 12 units.

Large cube cut into 8 equal pieces ⇒ Side of largest cube (A) = 2 × a = 2 × 12 = 24 units.

Max cylinder in largest cube has radius (R) = 12 units and height (H) = 24 units.

1/3 Volume = (1/3) × π × 122 × 24 = 1152π units3.

∴ The correct answer is 1152π units3.

Alternate Method

Given: Sum of diameters of 2 circles = 8 units; 9 circles on a face; Large cube cut into 8 pieces.

Formula: Volume of Cylinder = πr2h

⇒ Diameter of one circle = 8 ÷ 2 = 4 units.

⇒ For 9 circles (3 × 3 grid) on a face, the side of the smaller cube = 3 × diameter = 3 × 4 = 12 units.

⇒ Since the largest cube is cut into 8 equal pieces, its volume is 8 × (smaller cube volume).

⇒ Side of largest cube = ³√(8 × 123) = 2 × 12 = 24 units.

⇒ Maximum cylinder in largest cube has radius (R) = Side ÷ 2 = 12 units and height (H) = 24 units.

⇒ Volume of cylinder = π × 122 × 24 = 3456π units3.

⇒ 1/3 of the volume = (1/3) × 3456π = 1152π units3.

∴ The correct answer is 1152π units3.

Additional Information

Cube Dissection

When a cube is cut into 8 equal smaller cubes, the side length of the larger cube is exactly twice the side length of the smaller cube (A = 2a).

Maximum Cylinder in a Cube

The largest cylinder that can be carved from a cube of side 'A' has a base radius of A/2 and a height of A.

Circle Packing in Square

For 'n²' equal circles of diameter 'd' to fit in a square of side 'a' without intersecting, a ≥ n × d.

Equation 1: 3x2y - (5/2)x - (1/3)y + 2n + 1 = 0

Equation 2: - 2x2 y+ (1/A)x + (4/3)y - 10 = 0 is equal to 

Equation 3: x2y - Ax + y - P = 0

N is the smallest whole number 

A and P is integer

If y = 1.4 in equation 3, then which of the following is one of the root of the equation?

Question 62

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is / are true?

  1. A is a prime number

  2. A is one of the factor of P

  3. Product of A and 15 = 32

  1. AOption (a)

    only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    only 2

  3. COption (c)

     only 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    only 1 and 2

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

only 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Equating x terms

(-5/2 + 1/A) = -A

5/2 = (A + 1/A)

A2 - 5A/2 + 1 = 0

2A2 - 5A + 2 = 0

A = 2, 1/2

Sub n = 0

2n + 1 - 10 = -P

-8 = -P

P = 8

Sub A = 2, P = 8 

x2y - Ax + y - P = 0

1.4x2 - Ax + y - P = 0

1.4x2 - 2x + 1.4 - 8 = 0

1.4x2 - 2x - 6.6 = 0

7x2 - 10x - 33 = 0

x = 21/7 , - 11/7

Solution:

A is a prime number = 2

A is one of the factor of P = 8

Both 1 and 2 follows

Question 63

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the which of the following options is correct (consider positive value of x)

  1. AOption (a)

    x2 - A = P

  2. BOption (b)

    x = A + P

  3. COption (c)

    (x + y) > P 

  4. DOption (d)

    5y - x = 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5y - x = 4

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Equating x terms

(-5/2 + 1/A) = -A

5/2 = (A + 1/A)

A2 - 5A/2 + 1 = 0

2A2 - 5A + 2 = 0

A = 2, 1/2

Sub n = 0

2n + 1 - 10 = -P

-8 = -P

P = 8

Sub A = 2, P = 8 

x2y - Ax + y - P = 0

1.4x2 - Ax + y - P = 0

1.4x2 - 2x + 1.4 - 8 = 0

1.4x2 - 2x - 6.6 = 0

7x2 - 10x - 33 = 0

x = 21/7 , - 11/7

Solution:

From option 1)

x2 - A = P

x = 3

A = 2

P = 8

(9 - 2) = 7

7 not equal to 8 option 1) is wrong

  1. From option 2)

x = A + P

3 = 2 + 8

3 is not equal to 1

  1. From option 3)

(x + y) > P 

(3 + 1.4)> 8

Option 3) is wrong

  1. (5y - x) = 4

(5 × 1.4 - 3) = 4

option 4) is the correct answer.

Question 64

Anubhav travels along a rectangular path with constant speed < 4 m/s. If he starts from A and reaches the farthest point on C rectangular path in 5 seconds. If the distance between A and C is 5√13m. Then, the possible value of length (bigger dimension) (in m) of path is.

  1. 12 m

  2. 18 m

  3. 20 m

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2 and 3

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Diagonal d = √(L2 + B2) = 5√13 ⇒ L2 + B2 = 325.

Total distance covered from A to C along the boundary is L + B.

Speed v = (L + B) ÷ 5 < 4 m/s ⇒ L + B < 20 m.

Checking options: If L = 18, then B = √(325 − 324) = 1. Here L + B = 19 < 20 (Possible).

If L = 12, then B = √(325 − 144) = √181 ≈ 13.45. But L must be the bigger dimension (Impossible).

∴ The correct answer is 18 m.

Alternate Method

Given: Diagonal AC = 5√13 m, Time t = 5 s, Speed v < 4 m/s.

Formula: L2 + B2 = Diagonal2 and Distance = Speed × Time.

⇒ L2 + B2 = (5√13)2 = 25 × 13 = 325.

⇒ Path distance from A to C along the perimeter = L + B.

⇒ Speed v = (L + B) ÷ 5.

⇒ Given v < 4 ⇒ (L + B) ÷ 5 < 4 ⇒ L + B < 20.

⇒ For L = 12: 122 + B2 = 325 ⇒ B = √181 ≈ 13.45. (Invalid as L < B and L + B ≈ 25.45 > 20).

⇒ For L = 18: 182 + B2 = 325 ⇒ B2 = 325 − 324 = 1 ⇒ B = 1. (Valid as L > B and 18 + 1 = 19 < 20).

⇒ For L = 20: 202 + B2 = 325 ⇒ B2 = 325 − 400 (Negative value, impossible).

∴ The correct answer is 18 m.

Additional Information

Rectangular Diagonal Property

The distance between opposite vertices of a rectangle is the diagonal, calculated as d = √(L2 + B2).

Speed-Distance Constraint

When time and speed limits are given, the sum of dimensions must satisfy L + B = Speed × Time.

Dimension Comparison

In a rectangle, the length is typically considered the larger dimension (L > B) unless it is a square.

Question 65

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of blue balls in bag A is a perfect square , then what can be the value of the number of green balls in bag A?

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    13

  5. EOption (e)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

13

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of red color balls from bag A = x/20 = 0.15

Number of red color balls from bag A = (20 ×  0.15) = 3

Number of green color balls from bag B = y/36 = 0.25

Number of green color balls from bag B = (36 ×  0.25) = 9

Number of red color balls from bag C = z/30 = 0.3

Number of red color balls from bag C = z = 9

Number of green color balls from bag D = P/25 = 0.2

Number of green color balls from bag D = P = (25 ×  0.2) = 5

Solution:

Number of red balls from bag A = 3

Number of blue balls from bag A can be perfect square = (1, 4, 9, 16)

From the given options 

(20 - (3 + 1)) = 16

(20 - (3 + 4)) = 13

(20 - (3 + 9)) = 7

(20 - (3 + 16)) = 1

so,

Number of green balls in bag A = 13

The table given below is data about 5 customers visiting convenience stores. Customers are awarded with reward points according to the purchase made. Rest of the information is given below.

 

MembershipReward pointsDiscount offered
ANoa(a - 10)%
BYes(4a/5) + 3z(z + 10)%
CYes(4a - 5z)(2a/5)%
DNo5z/21150
EYes(2a + 5z)(3z/2)%

 

Price amountReward points
< 500050
(5000 - 10000)100
> 10000200

 

Final amount on the bill = Original price - discount

Per reward point = 0.5Rs.

For members, reward points is given on the original price and for non members reward point is given on the final amount.

Note:

C and E bought 2 articles worth MRP Rs. x and Rs. 2x respectively. Reward points received by half of that of E. If C and E were not members at that store, then their reward points would have been half of their earlier reward points respectively. In this case also reward points of C are half of that of E.

Question 66

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If E bought a laptop worth MRP of Rs. 45000, then what is the final amount paid by him after availing the reward points?

  1. AOption (a)

    34500

  2. BOption (b)

    31200

  3. COption (c)

    31400

  4. DOption (d)

    32500

  5. EOption (e)

    31000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

31400

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

C bought article for Rs. x

E bought article for R. 2x

(4a - 5z) = 1/2 (2a + 5z)

(8a - 10z) =(2a + 5z)

6a = 15z

2a = 5z

a = (5z/2)

C and E are membership holders

C = (4a - 5z) = (10z - 5z) = 5z

E = (2a + 5z) = (5z + 5z) = 10z

Possibility of Reward points = (50, 100, 200)

If C = 200

5z = 200

z = 40

E = 10 ×  40 = 400

Reward points cannot exceed 200 so C cannot be 200

We check C = 100

C = 100

5z = 100

z = 20

E = 10 ×  20 = 200

C = 100 is possible

We check C = 50

5z = 50

z = 10

E = 10 ×  10 = 100

C = 50 is possible

If C and E are non membership holders 

From these 5z = 50 means 

5z/2 = 25

Reward points cannot be less than 50

So 50 is not possible

So z = 20

a = (5z/2)

a = (20 ×  5/2) = 50

Solution:

Reward points for E = (2 ×  50 + 5 ×  20) = 200

Discount percentage for E = (3 ×  20/2) = 30%

Final amount paid by E = [45000 ×  (70/100) - 100] = 31400

Question 67

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of red balls in bag D is a prime number between 7  to 11 (both inclusive), but it is more than the number of green balls in bag B, then find the difference between the probability of picking two red balls from bag D and picking a red ball from bag A.

  1. AOption (a)

    1/35

  2. BOption (b)

    3/25

  3. COption (c)

    3/20

  4. DOption (d)

    1/30

  5. EOption (e)

    1/20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1/30

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

Number of red color balls from bag A = x/20 = 0.15

Number of red color balls from bag A = (20 ×  0.15) = 3

Number of green color balls from bag B = y/36 = 0.25

Number of green color balls from bag B = (36 ×  0.25) = 9

Number of red color balls from bag C = z/30 = 0.3

Number of red color balls from bag C = z = 9

Number of green color balls from bag D = P/25 = 0.2

Number of green color balls from bag D = P = (25 ×  0.2) = 5

Solution:

Number of red balls in bag D is in prime number = 11

Because the number of green balls in the bag B  = 9

Required difference = (11C2)/(25C2 )- 3/20

[(11 ×  10)/(25 ×  24) - 3/20] = 1/30

Question 68

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If B purchased a shirt and after availing the rewards points amount paid by him is Rs. 6250, then find the original price of the shirt.

  1. AOption (a)

    8000

  2. BOption (b)

    9000

  3. COption (c)

    6000

  4. DOption (d)

    7500

  5. EOption (e)

    8500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9000

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

C bought article for Rs. x

E bought article for R. 2x

(4a - 5z) = 1/2 (2a + 5z)

(8a - 10z) =(2a + 5z)

6a = 15z

2a = 5z

a = (5z/2)

C and E are membership holders

C = (4a - 5z) = (10z - 5z) = 5z

E = (2a + 5z) = (5z + 5z) = 10z

Possibility of Reward points = (50, 100, 200)

If C = 200

5z = 200

z = 40

E = 10 ×  40 = 400

Reward points cannot exceed 200 so C cannot be 200

We check C = 100

C = 100

5z = 100

z = 20

E = 10 ×  20 = 200

C = 100 is possible

We check C = 50

5z = 50

z = 10

E = 10 ×  10 = 100

C = 50 is possible

If C and E are non membership holders 

From these 5z = 50 means 

5z/2 = 25

Reward points cannot be less than 50

So 50 is not possible

So z = 20

a = (5z/2)

a = (20 ×  5/2) = 50

Solution:

For each 100 reward points amount reduced = (100 ×  0.5) = 50

Selling price of the shirt = (6250 + 50) = 6300

Original  price of the shirt = 6300/(100 - (20 + 10)) ×  100 = 9000

Question 69

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which one of the following cannot be the original price of the article bought by D after availing the reward points.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs.6350

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 6450

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 6250

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 6400

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 6100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Rs. 6100

Why this answer is correct

General solution:

C bought article for Rs. x

E bought article for R. 2x

(4a - 5z) = 1/2 (2a + 5z)

(8a - 10z) =(2a + 5z)

6a = 15z

2a = 5z

a = (5z/2)

C and E are membership holders

C = (4a - 5z) = (10z - 5z) = 5z

E = (2a + 5z) = (5z + 5z) = 10z

Possibility of Reward points = (50, 100, 200)

If C = 200

5z = 200

z = 40

E = 10 ×  40 = 400

Reward points cannot exceed 200 so C cannot be 200

We check C = 100

C = 100

5z = 100

z = 20

E = 10 ×  20 = 200

C = 100 is possible

We check C = 50

5z = 50

z = 10

E = 10 ×  10 = 100

C = 50 is possible

If C and E are non membership holders 

From these 5z = 50 means 

5z/2 = 25

Reward points cannot be less than 50

So 50 is not possible

So z = 20

a = (5z/2)

a = (20 ×  5/2) = 50

Solution:

Reward points for the article bought by D = (5 ×  20/2) = 50

Reward amount = 50 ×  0.5 = Rs.25

Discount offered = 1150

If the amount paid by D is less than 5000 reward points = 50

Amount paid by D = (original price - 1150)

So the original price less than 6150

Question 70

 A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water (2y + 20) and (4y - 20) liters respectively. Now 25% of the mixture is taken out and half of the initial quantity of mixture is added to the taken out mixture then the ratio of milk to water in the taken out mixture be 2: 3. Which of the following can be the total quantity of mixture.

  1. AOption (a)

    (5y + 50)

  2. BOption (b)

    7y

  3. COption (c)

    (Initial quantity of water + 90)

  4. DOption (d)

    (Initial quantity of milk + 80)

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(5y + 50)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial Milk = (2y + 20), Water = (4y − 20). Total = 6y.

Ratio in initial mixture = (2y + 20) : (4y − 20). Ratio remains same in 25% taken out part.

Adding 50% of initial mixture to the 25% taken out part result in 75% of the initial mixture.

The ratio in the final mixture (75% of initial) is the same as the initial ratio because only the original mixture is being combined.

∴ (2y + 20) : (4y − 20) = 2 : 3 ⇒ 3(2y + 20) = 2(4y − 20) ⇒ 6y + 60 = 8y − 40 ⇒ 2y = 100 ⇒ y = 50.

Total quantity = 6y = 6 × 50 = 300 liters. Option (1) 5y + 50 = 5(50) + 50 = 300 liters.

∴ The correct answer is 300 liters.

Alternate Method

Given: Milk = (2y + 20), Water = (4y − 20). Total Quantity = 6y.

⇒ Taken out mixture (25%) = 0.25 × (6y) = 1.5y.

⇒ Added mixture (50%) = 0.50 × (6y) = 3y.

⇒ Total quantity in final mixture = 1.5y + 3y = 4.5y.

⇒ Since both parts added have the same ratio as the initial mixture, the final ratio 2:3 must equal the initial ratio.

⇒ (2y + 20) / (4y − 20) = 2 / 3

⇒ 6y + 60 = 8y − 40

⇒ 2y = 100 ∴ y = 50.

⇒ Total quantity = 6 × 50 = 300 liters.

⇒ Option (1) 5y + 50 = 5(50) + 50 = 300 liters.

∴ The correct answer is 300 liters.

Additional Information

Mixture Property

When a portion of a homogeneous mixture is removed, the ratio of components in the removed part and the remaining part stays the same as the initial ratio.

Mixing Identical Ratios

When two mixtures of the same components having the same ratio are mixed in any proportion, the resultant ratio remains unchanged.

Alligation Rule

Used to find the ratio in which two mixtures are mixed to get a final concentration: (Quantity 1 / Quantity 2) = (C2 − Cm) / (Cm − C1).

General/Economy/Banking Awareness (50 questions)

Question 71

The RBI has asked which type of banks to ensure the presence of at least two Whole Time Directors (WTDs), including the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer (MD & CEO), on their boards?

  1. AOption (a)

    Public sector banks

  2. BOption (b)

    Private banks & Wholly Owned subsidiaries of Foreign Banks

  3. COption (c)

    Cooperative banks

  4. DOption (d)

    Regional rural banks

  5. EOption (e)

    Payment banks

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Private banks & Wholly Owned subsidiaries of Foreign Banks

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Private banks & Wholly Owned subsidiaries of Foreign Banks.

In News

  • The RBI has mandated private banks to have at least two Whole Time Directors (WTDs), including the MD & CEO, on their boards.

Key Points

  • This directive is aimed at strengthening corporate governance in private sector banks.
  • The presence of at least two WTDs ensures better management oversight and decision-making.
  • It is part of the RBI's broader efforts to enhance the stability and efficiency of the banking sector.
  • Private banks need to comply with this directive to ensure continuous improvement in governance standards.

Additional Information

  • RBI Governance Guidelines
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regularly updates its guidelines to improve the governance framework of banks.
  • These guidelines are aimed at ensuring transparency, accountability, and better risk management in the banking sector.
  • Private banks are expected to follow these guidelines strictly to avoid penalties and maintain their operational integrity.
  • The appointment of WTDs helps in segregating the roles and responsibilities at the board level, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of the board.

Question 72

The validity of the Airline Transport Pilot License (ATPL) and Commercial Pilot License (CPL) holders has been increased from 5 years to ______ years.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    9

  5. EOption (e)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

10

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10 years.

In News

  • The validity of the Airline Transport Pilot License (ATPL) and Commercial Pilot License (CPL) holders has been increased from 5 years to 10 years.

Key Points

  • This extension aims to reduce the administrative burden on pilots and aviation authorities.
  • The longer validity period allows pilots to focus more on their professional duties rather than frequent renewals.
  • The change aligns with international best practices and helps in maintaining a consistent standard in the aviation industry.
  • The decision to extend the validity was taken considering the advancements in pilot training and safety measures.

Additional Information

  • Pilot Licensing in India
  • The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body responsible for pilot licensing in India.
  • The ATPL is the highest level of aircraft pilot certification, allowing the holder to act as a pilot in command of an aircraft.
  • The CPL allows the holder to act as a pilot of an aircraft and be paid for their work.
  • The increased validity of these licenses helps streamline the certification process and supports the growing aviation industry in India.

Question 73

Under the notified changes in the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005, a person holding what percentage of share will be considered the beneficial owner?

  1. AOption (a)

    5%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    15%

  4. DOption (d)

    20%

  5. EOption (e)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10%.

In News

  • Under the notified changes in the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005, a person holding 10% of share will be considered the beneficial owner.

Key Points

  • The change in the definition of beneficial owner aims to enhance transparency in financial transactions.
  • It aligns with global standards to combat money laundering and terrorism financing.
  • The new rule mandates financial institutions to maintain records of beneficial owners.
  • It helps in identifying individuals who have significant control or influence over a company.

Additional Information

  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
  • The PMLA, enacted in 2002, aims to prevent money laundering and combat terrorism financing.
  • It requires financial institutions to maintain records of transactions and report suspicious activities.
  • The Act empowers authorities to seize property and assets derived from illegal activities.
  • It also provides for the establishment of the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) to monitor and analyze financial transactions.

Question 74

Since 2004, starting with the 35th edition, the International Film Festival of India has become globally competitive and moved to its permanent venue in Goa. What is the prize money along with citation given for the Golden Peacock Award?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 10 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 20 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 30 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 40 lakh

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 50 lakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 40 lakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. 40 lakh.

In News

  • The Golden Peacock Award at the International Film Festival of India comes with a prize money of Rs. 40 lakh along with a citation.

Key Points

  • The Golden Peacock Award is one of the most prestigious awards given at the International Film Festival of India.
  • It recognizes excellence in filmmaking and is awarded to the best film selected by the jury.
  • The award aims to promote the art of cinema by encouraging filmmakers to create high-quality films.
  • In addition to the prize money, the winning film gains international recognition and visibility.

Additional Information

  • International Film Festival of India (IFFI)
  • IFFI is one of the most significant film festivals in Asia, held annually in Goa, India.
  • The festival aims to provide a common platform for the cinemas of the world to project the excellence of the film art.
  • It also aims to contribute to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos.
  • IFFI has been instrumental in bringing together filmmakers, artists, and audiences from around the world to celebrate the art of cinema.

Question 75

Which of the following points is/are "correct" with respect to the Bharat Tex 2024 event?

A) India is set to host "Bharat Tex 2024", the world's largest Textile event in February 2024 at Bharat Mandapam & Yashobhoomi in New Delhi, Delhi.

B) The event will be organized by a Consortium of Textile Export Promotion Councils (EPCS) with the support of the Ministry of Textiles.

C) Union Minister Piyush Goyal, Ministry of Textiles launched the fair logo, website, and video of Bharat Tex 2023.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A & B

  3. COption (c)

    Only B & C

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A & C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B & C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All A, B & C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All A, B & C.

In News

  • India To Host World’s Largest Textiles Event, Bharat Tex 2024.

Key Points

  • The upcoming Bharat Tex 2024 Expo, scheduled to take place from February 26-29, next year, promises to be a groundbreaking event that will significantly impact India's position in the global textile industry.
  • Bharat Tex 2024 Expo has been conceived as the largest textile fair in the world in terms of exhibition area.
  • The event will be organized by a consortium of Textile Export Promotion Councils (EPCS) with the support of the Ministry of Textiles.
  • It is set to showcase India's capabilities as a reliable supplier of textile products, spanning the entire value chain, all under one roof.
  • The event will be hosted in the newly inaugurated Bharat Mandapam and Yashobhoomi complexes, which themselves represent a leap forward in India's textile infrastructure.
  • During the ceremony, Minister Goyal unveiled the fair logo, website, and video, emphasizing the significance of showcasing India's strengths across the textile value chain and in sustainability initiatives.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Textiles
  • ​The Ministry of Textiles is an Indian government national agency responsible for the formulation of policy, planning, development, export portion, and regulation of the textile industry in India.
  • The current Minister of Textiles is Piyush Goyal.

Question 76

With regards to Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), in terms of Number 98.1% of deposit insurance coverage while in terms of amount only ____% assessable deposits protected.

  1. AOption (a)

    40%

  2. BOption (b)

    45%

  3. COption (c)

    46.3%

  4. DOption (d)

    50%

  5. EOption (e)

    55%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

46.3%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 46.3%.

In News

  • With regards to the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), 98.1% of deposit insurance coverage is provided in terms of number, while in terms of amount, only 46.3% of assessable deposits are protected.

Key Points

  • DICGC provides insurance coverage to depositors in case of bank failure.
  • The coverage in terms of the number of accounts is extensive, with 98.1% of all accounts being covered.
  • However, in terms of the total amount of deposits, only 46.3% of the assessable deposits are protected.
  • This highlights the disparity between the number of accounts covered and the actual amount of money insured.

Additional Information

  • Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)
  • The DICGC is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and provides insurance cover to depositors in Indian banks.
  • It was established in 1978 to protect depositors and ensure public confidence in the banking system.
  • The insurance coverage is up to Rs. 5 lakh per depositor per bank.
  • The DICGC ensures that even in the event of a bank failure, depositors receive their insured amount, up to the coverage limit.

Question 77

India has recently launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) with the aim of conserving seven major big cat species on Earth. Which among the following is not included in the big cat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Snow leopard

  2. BOption (b)

    Puma

  3. COption (c)

    Jaguar

  4. DOption (d)

    Cheetah

  5. EOption (e)

    Caracal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Caracal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Caracal.

In News

  • India has launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) to conserve seven major big cat species, and Caracal is not included in the list.

Key Points

  • The seven major big cat species included in IBCA are the Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar, Cheetah, Lion, Tiger, and Leopard.
  • The alliance aims to promote collaborative conservation efforts among countries that host these big cat species.
  • It focuses on addressing threats such as habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict.
  • The initiative also seeks to enhance scientific research, community involvement, and policy support for big cat conservation.

Additional Information

  • International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)
  • The IBCA is a global initiative launched by India to conserve and protect big cat species worldwide.
  • It aims to bring together countries, organizations, and experts to collaborate on conservation strategies and actions.
  • The alliance focuses on key areas such as habitat restoration, anti-poaching measures, and community engagement.
  • By sharing knowledge and resources, the IBCA seeks to ensure the long-term survival of big cat populations and their ecosystems.

Question 78

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. According to RBI's Financial Stability Report, the write-offs to gross non-performing assets ratio of private sector banks stood at 45.6% in FY23.

B. The write-offs to gross non-performing assets (GNPAS) ratio of public sector banks was 33.3%.

C. In write-off, loans are transferred to the off-balance sheet records.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only B

  2. BOption (b)

    Only A

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    Both B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only C.

In News

  • Private bank bad loan write-offs are more than double that of PSBs in percentage terms.

Key Points

  • According to the RBI's Financial Stability Report**,** the write-offs to gross Non-Performing Assets ratio of private sector banks stood at 47.9% in FY23.
  • A write-off is an accounting term that signifies the recognition in financial statements that a borrower's asset no longer holds value.
  • The write-offs to gross non-performing assets (GNPAs) ratio of public sector banks was 22.2%.
  • Both categories of banks have increased their write-offs in comparison to the preceding two years.
  • The write-offs to GNPAs ratio for PVBs in FY22 and FY21 stood at 26.2% and 31% respectively, while for PSBs it was 17.7% and 17.3% according to RBI's Financial Stability Report.
  • In write-off, loans are transferred to the off-balance sheet records.

Additional Information

  • RBI
  • Establishment in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Shaktikanta Das

Question 79

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a contract with Cochin Shipyard Limited for mid-life upgrade and re-powering of the advanced guided missile frigate of which INS at a cost of Rs 313.42 crore?

  1. AOption (a)

    INS Betwa

  2. BOption (b)

    INS Beas

  3. COption (c)

    INS Talwar

  4. DOption (d)

    INS Trikand

  5. EOption (e)

    INS Tarkash

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

INS Beas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is INS Beas.

In News

  • Indian Navy's INS Beas to be ‘re-powered’ as MoD signs mid-life upgrade and re-powering.

Key Points

  • The Ministry of Defence signed a Rs 313.42 cr contract with Cochin Shipyard for INS Beas upgrade, involving over 50 MSMEs and benefiting over 3,500 personnel.
  • The transformative maiden re-powering project marks a significant stride in the maintenance philosophy of the Indian Navy and the repair capabilities of M/s CSL.
  • The project will be a proud flag bearer of Atmanirbhar Bharat in consonance with the Make-in-India initiative of the Government of India.
  • After completing a mid-life upgrade and re-powering in 2026, INS Beas will join the Indian Navy's active fleet with a modernized weapon suite and enhanced combat capability.
  • INS Beas
  • ​It was the first ship of the Brahmaputra Class guided missile frigate which was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2005.
  • It was originally built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd in Kolkata.
  • It can reach speeds of more than 30 knots and go more than 4,500 nautical miles without refuelling.

Additional Information

  • INS Betwa
  • ​It is a Brahmaputra class-guided missile frigate currently in service with the Indian Navy.
  • The ship is named for the Betwa River.
  • INS Talwar
  • ​It is the lead ship of the Talwar class frigates of the Indian Navy.
  • She was built in Russia and commissioned into the Indian Navy on 18 June 2003.
  • INS Trikand
  • ​It is a Talwar class frigate of the Indian Navy.
  • She is the third and final ship of the second batch of Talwar class frigates ordered by the Indian Navy.
  • INS Tarkash
  • ​It is the second Talwar class frigate constructed for the Indian Navy.
  • She is part of the second batch of Talwar Class frigates ordered by the Indian Navy.

Question 80

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. YES Bank became the first bank in India to issue an "ONDC Network Gift Card".

B. The card is powered by the RuPay Network and can be loaded with a maximum amount of INR 15,000.

C. OmniCard is the first fintech company to issue ONDC Network Gift Cards.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    Both B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and C.

In News

  • YES Bank Becomes The First Lender To Offer ‘ONDC Network Gift Card’.

Key Points

  • YES Bank, a prominent financial institution in India, has taken a significant leap forward in the digital commerce space by introducing the ONDC Network Gift Card.
  • This move makes YES Bank the first bank in the country to issue such a card.
  • The card is powered by the RuPay Network and can be loaded with a maximum amount of INR 10,000.
  • The network will be reaching out to corporate companies to encourage them to use the gift cards.
  • OmniCard is the first fintech company to issue ONDC Network Gift Cards.

Additional Information

  • YES Bank
  • Founded in - 2004
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Prashant Kumar

Question 81

Which company has recently signed a 15-year agreement with GAIL worth Rs 63,000 crore to supply propane for India's 1st Propane Dehydrogenation and Polypropylene Plant project in Usar, Maharashtra?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited

  2. BOption (b)

    Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited

  3. COption (c)

    Indian Oil Corporation Limited

  4. DOption (d)

    Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited

  5. EOption (e)

    Oil India Limited

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited.

In News

  • GAIL, BPCL signed ₹63,000 cr propane supply agreement.

Key Points

  • State-run GAIL (India) Ltd., has inked a 15-year agreement with Bharat Petroleum Corp. Ltd. (BPCL) to supply propane for its upcoming petrochemical facility in Usar, Maharashtra.
  • The deal, worth over ₹63,000 crore, will see GAIL source 600 KTPA of propane from BPCL’s LPG import unit at Uran.
  • This facility, currently with a 1 million metric tonne per annum (MMTPA) capacity, is expanding to handle 3 MMTPA of propane and butane imports.
  • GAIL’s upcoming Usar-based propane dehydrogenation unit, the nation’s first, is likely to launch operations in 2025.
  • The unit will have a nameplate capacity of 500 KTPA, with propylene production seamlessly integrated into a polypropylene plant of equal capacity.
  • The project coincides with rising polypropylene demand, anticipated to hit 6.3 million tonnes by 2025, according to a statement by GAIL.
  • Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
  • ​Founded in - 1952
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - G Krishna Kumar

Additional Information

  • Indian Oil Corporation Limited
  • Founded in - 1959
  • HQ - New Delhi
  • Chairman - Shrikant Madhav Vaidya
  • Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited
  • ​Founded in - 1988
  • HQ - Mangaluru
  • CEO - Sanjay Varma
  • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
  • ​Founded in - 1974
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Pushp Kumar Joshi
  • Oil India Limited
  • ​Founded in - 1959
  • HQ - Noida
  • CEO - Ranjit Rath

Question 82

Which companies received investment funding in the July-September quarter, including InCred and Zepto?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ola and Flipkart

  2. BOption (b)

    Paytm and Zomato

  3. COption (c)

    Swiggy and Byju's

  4. DOption (d)

    InCred and Zepto

  5. EOption (e)

    Nykaa and PharmEasy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

InCred and Zepto

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is InCred and Zepto.

In News

  • In the July-September quarter, InCred and Zepto received significant investment funding.

Key Points

  • InCred, a financial services platform, secured substantial investment to expand its operations and offerings.
  • Zepto, a fast-growing grocery delivery startup, also attracted significant funding to scale its business and enhance its delivery infrastructure.
  • These investments reflect the strong investor interest in India's fintech and e-commerce sectors.
  • The funding will be used to drive growth, innovation, and market penetration for both companies.

Additional Information

  • InCred
  • InCred is a leading non-banking financial company (NBFC) in India, offering a wide range of financial products and services.
  • The company focuses on using technology and data analytics to provide customized financial solutions.
  • InCred aims to bridge the credit gap in the Indian market by offering loans to individuals and businesses that are underserved by traditional banks.
  • The recent funding will help InCred expand its product offerings and enhance its digital capabilities.
  • Zepto
  • Zepto is an innovative grocery delivery startup in India that promises ultra-fast delivery services.
  • The company leverages a network of micro-warehouses to ensure rapid delivery of groceries and other essentials.
  • Zepto's unique business model has gained popularity, leading to increased investor interest and funding.
  • The latest investment will be used to expand Zepto's footprint and improve its logistics infrastructure.

Question 83

The Walk-in / Non-customer can remit up to ______ per transaction to a Nepal residing beneficiary.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 10,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 20,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 30,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 40,000

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 50,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Rs. 50,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs. 50,000.

In News

  • Walk-in / Non-customers can remit up to Rs. 50,000 per transaction to a Nepal residing beneficiary.

Key Points

  • This remittance facility aims to provide an easy and accessible way for people to send money to Nepal.
  • The limit of Rs. 50,000 ensures that significant amounts can be transferred while maintaining regulatory compliance.
  • The remittance service helps in supporting the financial needs of families and individuals residing in Nepal.
  • It also facilitates the flow of funds for various purposes, including education, healthcare, and general living expenses.

Additional Information

  • Remittance Services to Nepal
  • India has a significant population of Nepalese residents who frequently send money to their families in Nepal.
  • Remittance services are essential for ensuring that these funds reach the intended beneficiaries safely and efficiently.
  • The Rs. 50,000 limit per transaction provides a balance between flexibility for the sender and control for regulatory bodies.
  • Such services are usually provided by banks and other financial institutions, ensuring reliability and security in transactions.

Question 84

What is the disinvestment target for the fiscal year 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 50,000 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 60,000 crore

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 1,00,000 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs 1,75,000 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs 2,00,000 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs 50,000 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs 50,000 crore.

In News

  • The disinvestment target for the fiscal year 2023 is Rs 50,000 crore.

Key Points

  • Disinvestment refers to the process of selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary.
  • The Government of India sets disinvestment targets annually to generate revenue from the sale of its stakes in public sector enterprises.
  • The target for the fiscal year 2023 has been set at Rs 50,000 crore, reflecting the government's aim to reduce its fiscal deficit.
  • Disinvestment is part of the government's broader strategy to enhance efficiency and promote private sector participation in various sectors.

Additional Information

  • Disinvestment in India
  • Disinvestment is a strategy adopted by the government to raise funds by selling its stakes in public sector enterprises (PSEs).
  • The proceeds from disinvestment are used to finance fiscal deficit and invest in social and economic infrastructure.
  • The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) is responsible for managing the disinvestment process.
  • Disinvestment helps in reducing the government's direct involvement in business operations and promotes greater efficiency and competitiveness in the market.

Question 85

In which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Union Budget referred to as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 108

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 110

  3. COption (c)

    Article 112

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 114

  5. EOption (e)

    Article 116

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 112

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 112.

In News

  • Article 112 of the Indian Constitution refers to the Union Budget as the Annual Financial Statement (AFS).

Key Points

  • The Annual Financial Statement is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditures of the government for a financial year.
  • The Union Budget is presented by the Finance Minister in the Parliament every year.
  • The budget process involves various stages, including the preparation, presentation, and approval of the budget by the Parliament.
  • Article 112 ensures transparency and accountability in the financial management of the country.

Additional Information

  • Union Budget of India
  • The Union Budget is a comprehensive statement of the government's finances, including its revenue and expenditure.
  • It outlines the government's financial plans and policies for the upcoming financial year.
  • The budget is divided into two parts: the Revenue Budget and the Capital Budget.
  • The Revenue Budget includes the government's revenue receipts and expenditure, while the Capital Budget includes its capital receipts and payments.

Question 86

Which Arab–Israeli War is known as the Yom Kippur War?

  1. AOption (a)

    First

  2. BOption (b)

    Second

  3. COption (c)

    Third

  4. DOption (d)

    Fourth

  5. EOption (e)

    Fifth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Fourth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fourth.

In News

  • The Yom Kippur War is known as the Fourth Arab-Israeli War.

Key Points

  • The Yom Kippur War took place in October 1973 between Israel and a coalition of Arab states led by Egypt and Syria.
  • It is called the Yom Kippur War because it began on Yom Kippur, the holiest day in Judaism.
  • The war was part of the larger Arab-Israeli conflict, which has been ongoing since the mid-20th century.
  • The conflict resulted in significant casualties and had a major impact on the geopolitical landscape of the Middle East.

Additional Information

  • Yom Kippur War
  • The Yom Kippur War began on October 6, 1973, and ended on October 25, 1973.
  • The war was initiated by Egypt and Syria to regain territories lost to Israel during the Six-Day War in 1967.
  • Despite initial successes, the Arab forces were ultimately repelled by Israeli counterattacks.
  • The war led to a reevaluation of military strategies and had lasting implications for Middle Eastern politics and diplomacy.

Question 87

Mutual funds have moved the RBI to enhance the overall industry limit on overseas equity investment. What is the current limit for it?

  1. AOption (a)

    USD 2 billion

  2. BOption (b)

    USD 5 billion

  3. COption (c)

    USD 7 billion

  4. DOption (d)

    USD 10 billion

  5. EOption (e)

    USD 15 billion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

USD 7 billion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is USD 7 billion.

In News

  • The current limit for mutual funds' overall industry limit on overseas equity investment is USD 7 billion.

Key Points

  • Mutual funds in India have approached the RBI to increase the current industry limit for overseas equity investments.
  • The current limit is set at USD 7 billion, which allows mutual funds to invest in foreign equities within this cap.
  • This limit is crucial for diversifying investment portfolios and accessing global markets.
  • The enhancement request reflects the growing demand for overseas investments and the need for broader investment horizons.

Additional Information

  • Mutual Funds and Overseas Investment
  • Mutual funds are investment vehicles that pool money from multiple investors to purchase securities like stocks, bonds, and other assets.
  • Overseas investments by mutual funds allow investors to gain exposure to international markets and diversify their portfolios.
  • The USD 7 billion limits ensures that mutual funds can participate in global investment opportunities while adhering to regulatory caps.
  • Increasing this limit could provide mutual funds with greater flexibility and enhance their ability to offer diversified investment products.

Question 88

Which company will manufacture India’s first homegrown iPhone after buying the Wistron plant?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tata Group

  2. BOption (b)

    Reliance Industries

  3. COption (c)

    Infosys

  4. DOption (d)

    Wipro

  5. EOption (e)

    Adani Group

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tata Group

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tata Group.

In News

  • The Tata Group will manufacture India’s first homegrown iPhone after buying the Wistron plant.

Key Points

  • This move marks a significant milestone in India's manufacturing sector, particularly in high-tech electronics.
  • The Wistron plant acquisition by Tata Group is expected to boost local production capabilities and reduce dependency on imports.
  • The initiative aligns with the government's Make in India campaign, promoting domestic manufacturing and job creation.
  • It also enhances India's position as a global hub for electronics manufacturing.

Additional Information

  • Tata Group
  • The Tata Group is one of India's largest and oldest conglomerates, with a presence in various industries, including automotive, steel, IT, and consumer goods.
  • The group is known for its commitment to quality and innovation, and it has been expanding its footprint in the technology and electronics sectors.
  • Acquiring the Wistron plant is part of Tata's strategy to enhance its manufacturing capabilities and support the government's initiatives for self-reliance.
  • The Tata Group's entry into iPhone manufacturing signifies a new era for India's electronics industry, fostering growth and development in the sector.

Question 89

The government has set the target of USD 2 trillion export for which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    2023

  2. BOption (b)

    2024

  3. COption (c)

    2025

  4. DOption (d)

    2026

  5. EOption (e)

    2027

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2023

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2023.

In News

  • The government has set the target of USD 2 trillion export for the year 2023.

Key Points

  • The target aims to boost India's economic growth by increasing the export of goods and services.
  • The export target is part of the government's broader strategy to make India a global manufacturing and trading hub.
  • Efforts are being made to enhance the competitiveness of Indian products in the international market.
  • The government is implementing various policies and incentives to support exporters and achieve this ambitious target.

Additional Information

  • Export Promotion in India
  • The Ministry of Commerce and Industry oversees export promotion activities in India.
  • Various schemes and initiatives, such as the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) and the Service Exports from India Scheme (SEIS), provide incentives to exporters.
  • The government also focuses on improving infrastructure, reducing logistics costs, and enhancing ease of doing business to support exporters.
  • Achieving the export target is crucial for India's economic growth and job creation in the export-oriented sectors.

Question 90

The maximum deposit limit for Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) has been enhanced to Rs 30 lakh from Rs 15 lakh effective from which date?

  1. AOption (a)

    1st January 2023

  2. BOption (b)

    1st April 2023

  3. COption (c)

    1st July 2023

  4. DOption (d)

    1st October 2023

  5. EOption (e)

    1st December 2023

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1st April 2023

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1st April 2023.

In News

  • The maximum deposit limit for Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) has been enhanced to Rs 30 lakh from Rs 15 lakh effective from 1st April 2023.

Key Points

  • The increase in the deposit limit is aimed at providing better returns to senior citizens.
  • SCSS is a government-backed savings scheme specifically for senior citizens aged 60 years and above.
  • The scheme offers a regular income and tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act.
  • The new deposit limit enhances the financial security and investment options for senior citizens.

Additional Information

  • Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS)
  • The SCSS is a government-backed savings scheme aimed at senior citizens of India.
  • It offers a safe and regular income with attractive interest rates.
  • The scheme can be availed by individuals aged 60 years and above.
  • The interest earned on SCSS is taxable but eligible for deduction under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act.

Question 91

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has lifted the restrictions on _________ related to corporate advances.

  1. AOption (a)

    HDFC Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    ICICI Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Axis Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Kotak Mahindra Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    Yes Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

HDFC Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has lifted the restrictions on HDFC Bank related to corporate advances.

Key Points

  • HDFC Bank can now freely issue corporate advances without the earlier imposed restrictions.
  • This move is expected to boost the bank’s lending capacity and corporate portfolio.
  • The restrictions were originally imposed due to certain non-compliance issues.
  • The lifting of restrictions signifies the bank’s compliance with regulatory requirements.

Additional Information

  • HDFC Bank
  • HDFC Bank is one of the largest private sector banks in India.
  • It offers a wide range of banking and financial services to individuals and businesses.
  • The bank is known for its strong digital banking capabilities and customer service.
  • The lifting of restrictions allows HDFC Bank to expand its corporate lending and enhance its business growth.

Question 92

Which of the following launched India’s first tradeable weather Index?

  1. AOption (a)

    NCDEX

  2. BOption (b)

    NSE

  3. COption (c)

    BSE

  4. DOption (d)

    MCX

  5. EOption (e)

    SEBI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

NCDEX

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NCDEX.

In News

  • NCDEX launched India’s first tradeable weather Index.

Key Points

  • NCDEX stands for National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange Limited.
  • The weather index is designed to help farmers and traders hedge against weather-related risks.
  • It covers various weather parameters such as temperature and rainfall.
  • The index is expected to play a significant role in the agriculture sector by providing a tool to manage weather risks.

Additional Information

  • NCDEX
  • The National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange Limited is a leading agricultural commodity exchange in India.
  • It was established in 2003 and is headquartered in Mumbai.
  • NCDEX offers a wide range of products including futures and options contracts in various agricultural commodities.
  • The exchange aims to provide a transparent and efficient platform for trading in agricultural commodities.

Question 93

Which portal for Pollution control was launched by the implementation of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Swachh Bharat

  2. BOption (b)

    PRANA

  3. COption (c)

    SAAHAS

  4. DOption (d)

    PARIVESH

  5. EOption (e)

    NAQI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PRANA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PRANA.

In News

  • PRANA (Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in Non-Attainment cities) was launched under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in 2021.

Key Points

  • PRANA aims to monitor and manage air quality in India's non-attainment cities, where air quality standards are consistently violated.
  • The portal provides data and tools to support the implementation of air quality improvement plans.
  • It enables stakeholders to track progress and evaluate the effectiveness of air pollution control measures.
  • PRANA integrates efforts across various sectors and agencies to enhance collaboration and ensure better air quality management.

Additional Information

  • National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
  • The NCAP is a government initiative aimed at reducing air pollution levels across India.
  • It sets targets for reducing PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations by 20-30% by 2024, taking 2017 as the base year.
  • The program involves the implementation of comprehensive action plans in identified non-attainment cities.
  • The NCAP emphasizes public awareness, capacity building, and institutional strengthening for effective air quality management.

Question 94

Which of the following countries announced Visa Free travel in October/November 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thailand

  2. BOption (b)

    Sri Lanka

  3. COption (c)

    Malaysia

  4. DOption (d)

    Both a and b

  5. EOption (e)

    Both b and c

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both a and b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both a and b.

In News

  • In October/November 2023, Thailand and Sri Lanka announced Visa Free travel for Indian citizens.

Key Points

  • Both Thailand and Sri Lanka announced visa-free travel for Indian tourists.
  • This initiative aims to boost tourism and strengthen bilateral relations with India.
  • The visa-free policy is expected to attract a larger number of Indian tourists to these countries.
  • It is part of broader efforts to enhance people-to-people connectivity and cultural exchange.

Additional Information

  • Visa-Free Travel
  • Visa-free travel allows citizens of one country to enter another country without obtaining a visa prior to arrival.
  • This policy is typically based on bilateral or multilateral agreements between countries.
  • Visa-free travel facilitates easier movement of people, promoting tourism and business travel.
  • Countries offering visa-free travel often experience an increase in tourist arrivals and economic benefits from tourism-related activities.

Question 95

The central pollution board categorizes the air quality into good (green), satisfactory (light green), Poor (orange), Very poor (red), Severe (dark red). What is the AQI range for poor?

  1. AOption (a)

    0-50

  2. BOption (b)

    51-100

  3. COption (c)

    101-200

  4. DOption (d)

    201-300

  5. EOption (e)

    301-400

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

201-300

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 201-300.

In News

  • The AQI range for poor air quality, according to the central pollution board, is 201-300.

Key Points

  • Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to communicate how polluted the air currently is or how polluted it is forecast to become.
  • The AQI is divided into six categories: Good (0-50), Satisfactory (51-100), Moderately polluted (101-200), Poor (201-300), Very Poor (301-400), and Severe (401-500).
  • Poor air quality affects sensitive groups like children, elderly, and people with respiratory or heart conditions more severely.
  • The AQI calculation involves measuring pollutants such as particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5), nitrogen dioxide, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, and ozone.

Additional Information

  • Air Quality Index (AQI)
  • The AQI is a tool for reporting daily air quality levels to the public.
  • It converts complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number (index value), nomenclature, and color.
  • An AQI value of 201-300 indicates poor air quality, which can cause breathing discomfort to people with lung disease such as asthma, and discomfort to people with heart disease, children, and older adults.
  • Maintaining good air quality is crucial for the health and well-being of the public, especially in urban areas where pollution levels can be higher.

Question 96

Name the 3rd ship in the Project 15B or Visakhapatnam class of the Indian Navy.

  1. AOption (a)

    INS Visakhapatnam

  2. BOption (b)

    INS Kochi

  3. COption (c)

    INS Mormugao

  4. DOption (d)

    INS Imphal

  5. EOption (e)

    INS Kavaratti

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

INS Imphal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is INS Imphal.

In News

  • The third ship in the Project 15B or Visakhapatnam class of the Indian Navy is INS Imphal.

Key Points

  • INS Imphal is the third ship of the Visakhapatnam class (Project 15B).
  • It is a stealth guided-missile destroyer built for the Indian Navy.
  • The ship was launched on April 20, 2019.
  • Project 15B aims to enhance the Navy’s capabilities in warfare and maritime operations.

Additional Information

  • Project 15B
  • The Project 15B is an initiative by the Indian Navy to build stealth guided-missile destroyers.
  • The ships are designed to carry and operate two multiple-role helicopters.
  • They are equipped with state-of-the-art weapons and sensors.
  • The primary role of these ships is to enhance India's maritime capabilities and defense.

Question 97

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) scheme by _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    2023

  2. BOption (b)

    2024

  3. COption (c)

    2025

  4. DOption (d)

    2026

  5. EOption (e)

    2027

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2025

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2025.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has extended the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) scheme to 2025.

Key Points

  • The PIDF scheme aims to increase the deployment of Point of Sale (PoS) infrastructure in tier-3 to tier-6 centers and northeastern states.
  • The fund is utilized to subsidize the cost of acquiring PoS infrastructure.
  • The scheme was initially launched in January 2021.
  • The extension aims to further promote digital payments in less penetrated areas.

Additional Information

  • Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF)
  • PIDF was created to encourage the deployment of PoS infrastructure in rural and semi-urban areas.
  • It is managed by the RBI and other stakeholders including card networks and banks.
  • The fund provides subsidies to acquirers (banks and non-banks) for deploying payment acceptance infrastructure.
  • It supports both physical and digital PoS terminals.

Question 98

The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physics has been awarded for contributions to attosecond science. Few tenths of attoseconds are transpired into how many quintillionths of a second?

  1. AOption (a)

    10^-18 seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    10^-15 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    10^-12 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    10^-9 seconds

  5. EOption (e)

    10^-6 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10^-18 seconds

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10^-18 seconds.

In News

  • The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physics has been awarded for contributions to attosecond science, which involves measurements on the scale of attoseconds (10^-18 seconds).

Key Points

  • Attosecond science deals with the study of processes that occur on an attosecond timescale.
  • An attosecond is one quintillionth (10^-18) of a second.
  • This field has led to breakthroughs in understanding ultrafast phenomena in physics.
  • It has applications in areas such as quantum mechanics and material science.

Additional Information

  • Attosecond Science
  • Attosecond science allows scientists to capture and measure events that happen in a few attoseconds.
  • An attosecond is 10^-18 seconds, which is a billionth of a billionth of a second.
  • This field has advanced the understanding of electron dynamics in atoms and molecules.
  • It has significant implications for the development of new technologies in various scientific fields.

Question 99

Which of the following ASEAN countries is also a member of G20?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indonesia

  2. BOption (b)

    Thailand

  3. COption (c)

    Malaysia

  4. DOption (d)

    Vietnam

  5. EOption (e)

    Philippines

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Indonesia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indonesia.

In News

  • Indonesia is an ASEAN country that is also a member of G20.

Key Points

  • The G20 is an international forum for governments and central bank governors from 19 countries, the European Union and the African Union..
  • Indonesia is the only ASEAN country that is part of the G20.
  • The G20 aims to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development.

Additional Information

  • G20
  • The G20, or Group of Twenty, is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union.
  • It was founded in 1999 in response to the financial crises of the late 1990s.
  • The G20's primary aim is to ensure global economic stability and sustainable growth.
  • The members of the G20 include major economies from both developed and developing countries.

Question 100

The highest increase of Rs 425 for the rabi crop season is for which crop?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wheat

  2. BOption (b)

    Barley

  3. COption (c)

    Lentil (Masur)

  4. DOption (d)

    Mustard

  5. EOption (e)

    Gram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lentil (Masur)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lentil (Masur).

In News

  • The highest increase of Rs 425 for the rabi crop season is for Lentil (Masur).

Key Points

  • The government has announced an increase in the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for the rabi crop season.
  • The MSP for Lentil (Masur) has seen the highest increase of Rs 425 per quintal.
  • This increase is aimed at encouraging farmers to cultivate more Lentil (Masur) and ensuring better returns for their produce.
  • The MSP serves as a safety net for farmers to protect them against any sharp fall in the market prices of their crops.

Additional Information

  • Minimum Support Price (MSP)
  • MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
  • The MSP is announced by the Government based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • The objective of MSP is to ensure remunerative prices to the growers for their produce and to encourage higher investment and production.
  • The increase in MSP for Lentil (Masur) is expected to boost the production of this pulse, which is an important source of protein.

Question 101

As per the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, any person can file a complaint before the Banking Ombudsman, if the satisfied reply is not received from the bank within a period of _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    6 months

  2. BOption (b)

    3 months

  3. COption (c)

    2 months

  4. DOption (d)

    1 month

  5. EOption (e)

    1 year

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 month

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 month.​

Key Points

  • One can file a complaint before the Banking Ombudsman
  • if the reply is not received from the bank within a period of one month after the bank concerned has received one's complaint
  • the bank rejects the complaint
  • if the complainant is not satisfied with the reply given by the bank.

​ 

  • The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995.
  • All Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCB), Regional Rural Banks (RRB) and Scheduled primary co-operative banks are covered under the Banking Ombudsman.

​ 

  • Reserve Bank of India may appoint one or more of its officers in the rank of Chief General Manager or General Manager to be known as Banking Ombudsmen.
  • The appointment of Banking Ombudsman made for a period not exceeding three years at a time.
  • Banking Ombudsman shall receive and consider complaints relating to the deficiencies in banking or other related services.

Question 102

Sri Lanka has extended the license of which oil company for 20 years in October 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indian Oil Corporation

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharat Petroleum

  3. COption (c)

    Hindustan Petroleum

  4. DOption (d)

    Reliance Petroleum

  5. EOption (e)

    Essar Oil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Indian Oil Corporation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Oil Corporation.

In News

  • Sri Lanka has extended the license of Indian Oil Corporation for 20 years in October 2023.

Key Points

  • Indian Oil Corporation's license extension allows it to continue operations in Sri Lanka for the next 20 years.
  • This move strengthens the bilateral energy cooperation between India and Sri Lanka.
  • Indian Oil Corporation is a significant player in the Sri Lankan oil and gas sector.
  • The extension ensures continued supply and distribution of petroleum products in Sri Lanka.

Additional Information

  • Indian Oil Corporation
  • Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) is India’s largest commercial enterprise and a leading oil company.
  • IOC has a strong presence in Sri Lanka through its subsidiary, Lanka IOC.
  • The company is involved in refining, transporting, and marketing petroleum products in Sri Lanka.
  • The license extension reflects the strategic importance of Indian Oil Corporation’s operations in the region.

Question 103

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a penalty of Rs 12.19 crore on ICICI Bank for _____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Non-compliance with certain RBI directives

  2. BOption (b)

    Violation of KYC norms

  3. COption (c)

    Delay in reporting fraud cases

  4. DOption (d)

    Improper handling of customer complaints

  5. EOption (e)

    Issues related to data security

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Non-compliance with certain RBI directives

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Non-compliance with certain RBI directives.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a penalty of Rs 12.19 crore on ICICI Bank for non-compliance with certain RBI directives.

Key Points

  • The penalty was imposed for deficiencies in regulatory compliance.
  • ICICI Bank failed to adhere to certain provisions of the RBI’s directives.
  • The non-compliance included issues related to fraud classification and reporting.
  • This action is part of RBI's ongoing efforts to ensure financial stability and regulatory discipline in the banking sector.

Additional Information

  • ICICI Bank
  • ICICI Bank is one of the leading private sector banks in India.
  • It offers a wide range of banking and financial services to individuals and businesses.
  • The bank has a strong presence in both domestic and international markets.
  • ICICI Bank is committed to maintaining high standards of compliance and regulatory adherence.

Question 104

Two balls in the Mastercard logo are in which color?

  1. AOption (a)

    Red and Yellow

  2. BOption (b)

    Red and Blue

  3. COption (c)

    Red and Orange

  4. DOption (d)

    Red and Green

  5. EOption (e)

    Red and Black

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Red and Orange

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Red and Orange.

In News

  • The two balls in the Mastercard logo are red and orange.

Key Points

  • The Mastercard logo consists of two interlocking circles, one red and one orange.
  • The design represents connectivity and the merging of interests between the company and its customers.
  • The logo is a globally recognized symbol of the Mastercard brand.
  • The red and orange colors convey a sense of energy, innovation, and trust.

Additional Information

  • Mastercard
  • Mastercard is a global payments technology company that connects consumers, financial institutions, merchants, and businesses worldwide.
  • The company is known for its credit, debit, and prepaid cards, which are accepted in millions of locations globally.
  • Mastercard's mission is to make transactions safe, simple, and smart for everyone.
  • The red and orange circles in its logo symbolize the company's commitment to innovation and customer satisfaction.

Question 105

RBI has expanded the range of products offered through RBI Retail Direct portal by allowing retail investors to subscribe to Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable). For how many years have the bonds been issued?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five years

  2. BOption (b)

    Seven years

  3. COption (c)

    Ten years

  4. DOption (d)

    Fifteen years

  5. EOption (e)

    Twenty years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Seven years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is seven years.

In News

  • The RBI has allowed retail investors to subscribe to Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable) through the RBI Retail Direct portal for a period of seven years.

Key Points

  • The bonds are issued with a tenure of seven years.
  • They offer a floating interest rate which is reset periodically.
  • The bonds are taxable and are available for subscription by retail investors.
  • This initiative aims to broaden the investment opportunities for retail investors.

Additional Information

  • Floating Rate Savings Bonds, 2020 (Taxable)
  • These bonds have a floating interest rate which is reset every six months.
  • The interest rate is linked to the prevailing National Savings Certificate (NSC) rate.
  • The minimum investment amount is Rs. 1,000, and they are available for purchase through various banks and financial institutions.
  • These bonds are ideal for investors looking for a safe investment with periodic interest payments.

Question 106

India topped the 2023 Global Crypto Adoption Index released by Chainalysis. What rank did India achieve?

  1. AOption (a)

    2nd

  2. BOption (b)

    3rd

  3. COption (c)

    4th

  4. DOption (d)

    1st

  5. EOption (e)

    5th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1st

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1st.

In News

  • India topped the 2023 Global Crypto Adoption Index released by Chainalysis.

Key Points

  • India ranked 1st in the Global Crypto Adoption Index 2023.
  • This index measures the adoption of cryptocurrency around the world.
  • The ranking is based on factors such as the number of crypto transactions, the value of crypto received, and the number of active crypto users.
  • India's position reflects the growing popularity and usage of cryptocurrency in the country.

Additional Information

  • Global Crypto Adoption Index
  • The Global Crypto Adoption Index is published by Chainalysis, a blockchain data platform.
  • It ranks countries based on the level of cryptocurrency adoption.
  • The index considers metrics such as transaction volume, peer-to-peer exchange trade volume, and the number of active users.
  • India's top rank indicates a significant interest and participation in the crypto market by its citizens.

Question 107

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increased the minimum amount for offering Non-Callable Term Deposits (TDs) from Rs 15 lakh to ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 20 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 25 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 50 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs 75 lakh

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs 1 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Rs 1 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rs 1 crore.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increased the minimum amount for offering Non-Callable Term Deposits (TDs) from Rs 15 lakh to Rs 1 crore.

Key Points

  • Non-Callable Term Deposits are fixed deposits that cannot be withdrawn before maturity.
  • The RBI has raised the minimum deposit amount for such term deposits to Rs 1 crore.
  • This move is aimed at providing more stability to the banking system by reducing the risk of premature withdrawals.
  • The decision aligns with the RBI’s efforts to enhance financial stability and deposit safety.

Additional Information

  • Non-Callable Term Deposits
  • Non-Callable Term Deposits are fixed deposits that do not allow premature withdrawal.
  • These deposits generally offer higher interest rates compared to callable deposits.
  • They provide greater financial security to banks as they help in managing liquidity better.
  • The increase in the minimum amount to Rs 1 crore aims to attract more substantial investments.

Question 108

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a Rs. 5.4 Crore penalty on ___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    HDFC Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    ICICI Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Paytm Payments Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Axis Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    Yes Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Paytm Payments Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Paytm Payments Bank.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a Rs. 5.4 Crore penalty on Paytm Payments Bank.

Key Points

  • The penalty was imposed due to non-compliance with certain provisions of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • Paytm Payments Bank is one of the leading payments banks in India.
  • It offers a range of financial services including savings accounts, payments, and transfers.
  • The bank has been under regulatory scrutiny for various compliance issues.

Additional Information

  • Paytm Payments Bank
  • Established in 2017, Paytm Payments Bank offers various banking services to customers.
  • It operates as a digital bank and provides savings accounts with no minimum balance requirements.
  • The bank aims to provide accessible banking services to all sections of society.
  • It is a subsidiary of One97 Communications, the parent company of Paytm.

Question 109

What is the target year set by India to achieve 15% of ethanol-blended petrol?

  1. AOption (a)

    2022-23

  2. BOption (b)

    2023-24

  3. COption (c)

    2024-25

  4. DOption (d)

    2025-26

  5. EOption (e)

    2026-27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2023-24

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2023-24.

In News

  • India has set a target to achieve 15% ethanol-blended petrol by 2023-24.

Key Points

  • India aims to reduce its dependence on crude oil imports by increasing ethanol blending.
  • Ethanol is a renewable fuel made from various plant materials collectively known as "biomass".
  • The initiative is part of India’s efforts to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate change.
  • The target is in line with the National Biofuel Policy of India.

Additional Information

  • Ethanol Blending
  • Ethanol blending is the process of mixing ethanol with petrol to reduce the consumption of fossil fuels.
  • It helps in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and dependence on oil imports.
  • The government has taken various measures to increase ethanol production, including incentives and subsidies.
  • Ethanol can be produced from sugarcane, corn, and other biomass sources.

Question 110

Name the bank/organization, along with Global Environment Facility (GEF) has recently introduced the Natural Capital Fund (NCF), a concessional fund.

  1. AOption (a)

    International Monetary Fund

  2. BOption (b)

    World Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Asian Development Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    United Nations Development Programme

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Asian Development Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Asian Development Bank.

In News

  • ADB and GEF introduce natural capital funds to foster environmental conservation.

Key Points

  • The Asian Development Bank (ADB), in partnership with the Global Environment Facility (GEF), has unveiled the inception of the Natural Capital Fund (NCF), a concessional fund.
  • It aimed at bolstering projects that bolster food security while simultaneously safeguarding and reviving natural capital in ADB’s developing member countries (DMCs).
  • The announcement took place during the Asia-Pacific Natural Capital Forum.
  • GEF stands as a robust partner in driving the development and expansion of natural capital applications and innovations not only in Asia and the Pacific but also on a global scale.
  • Asian Development Bank
  • President - Masatsugu Asakawa
  • HQ - Manila, Philippines
  • Founded in - 1966

Additional Information

  • United Nations Development Programme
  • ​Founded in - 1965
  • HQ - New York, US
  • President - Achim Steiner
  • World Bank
  • ​Founded in - 1944
  • HQ - New Hampshire, US
  • CEO - Ajay Banga​
  • International Monetary Fund
  • ​Founded in - 1944
  • HQ - Washington DC, US
  • CEO - Kristaline Georgieva
  • Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank​
  • ​Founded in - 2016
  • HQ - Beijing, China
  • President - Jin Liqun

Question 111

PM Modi initiated the LIFE initiative in COP 26. The LIFE initiative covers which sustainable goal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Clean Water and Sanitation

  2. BOption (b)

    Affordable and Clean Energy

  3. COption (c)

    Climate Action

  4. DOption (d)

    Responsible Consumption and Production

  5. EOption (e)

    Life on Land

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Responsible Consumption and Production

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Responsible Consumption and Production.

In News

  • PM Modi initiated the LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment) initiative at COP 26, focusing on Responsible Consumption and Production.

Key Points

  • The LIFE initiative emphasizes sustainable lifestyles and mindful consumption patterns to combat climate change.
  • It aims to encourage individuals and communities to adopt eco-friendly practices that reduce carbon footprints and promote environmental sustainability.
  • The initiative aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) of Responsible Consumption and Production, which seeks to ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns.
  • LIFE is part of India's broader commitment to global environmental efforts and sustainable development.

Additional Information

  • LIFE Initiative
  • LIFE stands for Lifestyle for Environment, an initiative aimed at promoting sustainable living and eco-friendly practices.
  • The initiative encourages individuals, communities, and organizations to make conscious choices that contribute to environmental conservation.
  • It includes actions such as reducing waste, conserving water and energy, and using renewable resources.
  • By promoting sustainable lifestyles, LIFE aims to create a global movement towards environmental sustainability and resilience against climate change.

Question 112

In October 2023, MoEF&CC launched the Green Credit Program & Ecomark Scheme to encourage eco-friendly actions. Which among the following was not true?

  1. AOption (a)

    The scheme aims to promote sustainable development.

  2. BOption (b)

    It provides financial incentives for green projects.

  3. COption (c)

    The program includes a certification for eco-friendly products.

  4. DOption (d)

    It mandates companies to reduce their carbon footprint by 50% within five years.

  5. EOption (e)

    The scheme covers various sectors including agriculture and manufacturing.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It mandates companies to reduce their carbon footprint by 50% within five years.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It mandates companies to reduce their carbon footprint by 50% within five years.

In News

  • In October 2023, MoEF&CC launched the Green Credit Program & Ecomark Scheme to encourage eco-friendly actions.

Key Points

  • The scheme aims to promote sustainable development through eco-friendly practices.
  • It provides financial incentives for green projects in various sectors.
  • The program includes a certification for eco-friendly products known as Ecomark.
  • There is no mandate for companies to reduce their carbon footprint by 50% within five years; this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Green Credit Program & Ecomark Scheme
  • The Green Credit Program provides financial incentives to individuals and organizations for adopting eco-friendly practices.
  • The Ecomark Scheme is a certification program for products that meet specified environmental criteria.
  • These initiatives aim to encourage the use of environmentally sustainable products and practices.
  • The scheme covers various sectors including agriculture, manufacturing, and services, promoting a comprehensive approach to sustainability.

Question 113

RBI issues guidelines for property documents released after loan closure related to which Act?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indian Contract Act 1872

  2. BOption (b)

    Banking Regulation Act

  3. COption (c)

    RBI Act

  4. DOption (d)

    Negotiable Instruments Act

  5. EOption (e)

    National Housing Act

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Banking Regulation Act

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Banking Regulation Act.

In News

  • The RBI has issued guidelines related to the release of property documents after the closure of loans, under the Banking Regulation Act.

Key Points

  • The guidelines ensure timely release of property documents to borrowers after loan closure.
  • They aim to improve customer satisfaction and reduce disputes related to document release.
  • Banks are required to release documents within 15 days of loan closure.
  • The guidelines also specify penalties for delays in releasing documents.

Additional Information

  • Banking Regulation Act
  • The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, regulates the operations and activities of banking companies in India.
  • It empowers the RBI to supervise and regulate the banking sector to ensure financial stability.
  • The Act covers various aspects of banking, including licensing, management, audits, and mergers.
  • The guidelines for property document release aim to enhance transparency and efficiency in banking operations.

Question 114

The windfall tax for domestically produced crude oil has been increased. Which of the following companies would be affected because of it?

  1. AOption (a)

    ONGC

  2. BOption (b)

    Reliance Industries

  3. COption (c)

    Oil India

  4. DOption (d)

    BPCL

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • The windfall tax for domestically produced crude oil has been increased, affecting companies like ONGC, Reliance Industries, Oil India, and BPCL.

Key Points

  • The windfall tax is imposed on companies that benefit from sudden large profits, particularly due to geopolitical or market changes.
  • ONGC, Reliance Industries, Oil India, and BPCL are major players in India's oil and gas sector and will be directly impacted by this tax increase.
  • The tax aims to capture a portion of the extraordinary profits generated by these companies due to the surge in crude oil prices.
  • This measure is intended to balance the fiscal impact of high oil prices on the economy and ensure fair revenue distribution.

Additional Information

  • Windfall Tax
  • A windfall tax is a higher tax rate on profits that result from a sudden windfall gain to a particular company or industry.
  • It is typically applied to sectors like oil and gas, where geopolitical events or sudden market shifts can lead to substantial, unexpected profits.
  • The goal of the windfall tax is to ensure that companies benefiting from such gains contribute a fair share to the economy.
  • The tax revenue generated is often used to fund public services or to provide economic relief to consumers affected by high prices.

Question 115

Which of the following statements about the proposed combination involving Renault and Nissan is/are true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Renault will transfer 28.4% of its Nissan shares into a trust estate.

  2. BOption (b)

    Nissan Finance Co. Ltd. (NFC) will retain its 15% shareholding in Renault.

  3. COption (c)

    Renault and Nissan will both hold 15% shareholding in each other.

  4. DOption (d)

    RNTBCI supports Renault and Nissan’s activities in research and development.

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the Above.

Key Points

  • Statement 1: Renault will transfer 28.4% of its Nissan shares into a trust estate.
  • This is correct as per the information provided in the paragraph. Renault will transfer 28.4% of its Nissan shares into a trust estate administered by a trustee governed by French law.
  • Statement 2: Nissan Finance Co. Ltd. (NFC) will retain its 15% shareholding in Renault.
  • This is correct as per the paragraph. Nissan, through Nissan Finance Co. Ltd. (NFC), will retain its 15% shareholding in Renault.
  • Statement 3: Renault and Nissan will both hold 15% shareholding in each other.
  • This is correct as per the paragraph. Renault and Nissan will have a cross-shareholding of 15% of the total issued share capital and freely exercisable voting rights in each other.
  • Statement 4: RNTBCI supports Renault and Nissan’s activities in research and development.
  • This is correct as per the paragraph. RNTBCI is a captive automotive technology and business centre supporting Renault and Nissan’s activities in research and development, engineering, manufacturing, technology, product planning, process, and information technology.

Question 116

Which Insurance company became the 1st life insurance company in India to receive Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT-City)'s International Financial Services Centre Registration.

  1. AOption (a)

    HDFC Life Insurance

  2. BOption (b)

    SBI Life Insurance

  3. COption (c)

    IndiaFirst Life Insurance

  4. DOption (d)

    Max Life Insurance 

  5. EOption (e)

    ICICI Prudential Life Insurance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

IndiaFirst Life Insurance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IndiaFirst Life Insurance.

In News

  • IndiaFirst Life Insurance gets GIFT City IFSC Registration.

Key Points

  • IndiaFirst Life Insurance Company Ltd (IndiaFirst Life), one of the fastest-growing private life insurers in the country, became the first Indian life insurance company to get the Gujarat International Finance Tec (GIFT) City’s International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) Registration.
  • This registration, which was granted following approvals from the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in August 2023 and subsequent registration from the International Financial Services Centre Authority (IFSCA) in September 2023, positions IndiaFirst Life to expand its services beyond the borders of India.
  • Gujarat International Finance Tec (GIFT) City serves as the sole entity in India operating as an International Financial Services Centre functioning akin to a special economic zone tailored for financial services.
  • This strategic location opens up new possibilities for IndiaFirst Life in the international financial landscape.
  • India First Life Insurance
  • Founded in - 2009
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - R.M. Vishaka

Additional Information

  • Max Life Insurance:
  • Founded in - 2000
  • HQ - Delhi
  • CEO - Prashant Tripathy
  • HDFC Life Insurance
  • Founded in - 2000
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • CEO - Vibha Padalkar
  • SBI Life Insurance
  • ​Founded in - 2000
  • CEO - Mahesh Kumar Sharma
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
  • Founded in - 2001
  • CEO - Anup Bagchi
  • HQ - Mumbai

Question 117

Temasek Holding is which country’s company?

  1. AOption (a)

    China

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan

  3. COption (c)

    Singapore

  4. DOption (d)

    Malaysia

  5. EOption (e)

    Indonesia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Singapore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Singapore.

In News

  • Temasek Holding is a company based in Singapore.

Key Points

  • Temasek Holding is an investment company owned by the Government of Singapore.
  • It was established in 1974 to manage the government's investments in various industries and sectors.
  • The company operates globally, investing in sectors such as financial services, telecommunications, media, technology, transportation, industrials, consumer, real estate, and life sciences.
  • Temasek aims to create sustainable value over the long term as a global investment company.

Additional Information

  • Temasek Holdings
  • Temasek Holdings has a diversified portfolio valued at hundreds of billions of dollars.
  • The company's investments span various sectors, reflecting its strategy to be a long-term investor in businesses with sustainable competitive advantages.
  • Temasek is also known for its commitment to sustainability and responsible investment practices.
  • The company's governance structure is designed to ensure accountability and transparency in its operations and investments.

Question 118

Which company, along with SpaceX has recently launched Dragon's 29th Commercial Resupply Services mission to the International Space Station through Falcon 9 Rocket from Florida, USA?

  1. AOption (a)

    Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

  2. BOption (b)

    China National Space Administration

  3. COption (c)

    European Space Agency

  4. DOption (d)

    National Aeronautics and Space Administration

  5. EOption (e)

    Roscosmos

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

National Aeronautics and Space Administration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the National Aeronautics and Space Administration.

In News

  • NASA, SpaceX Launch New Science, Hardware to Space Station.

Key Points

  • National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and SpaceX jointly launched Dragon's 29th Commercial Resupply Services mission (CRS-29) to the International Space Station (ISS).
  • CRS-29 Dragon spacecraft was launched atop a Falcon 9 Rocket from Complex 39A at NASA's Kennedy Space Center(KSC) in Florida, the United States of America(USA).
  • This is the 9th SpaceX launch under the Commercial Resupply Services-2 (CRS) contract.
  • The spacecraft carried cargo weighing about 6,500 pounds (2948 kg) of scientific research, crew supplies, and hardware to ISS.
  • The Falcon's first stage made a successful landing at Cape Canaveral Space Force Station's Landing Zone 1 (LZ-1).
  • The launch marked the second flight for the stage, which previously launched Crew-7.
  • NASA
  • It is an Independent agency of the US federal government responsible for the civil space program, aeronautics research, and space research.
  • Established in 1958.

Additional Information

  • Roscosmos
  • ​The State Space Corporation "Roscosmos" is a state corporation of the Russian Federation responsible for space flights cosmonautics programs, and aerospace research.
  • Founded in 1940s
  • Headquartered in Moscow.
  • Japan Exploration Space Agency 
  • ​JAXA is the Japanese national air and space agency.
  • Founded in 2003
  • Its motto is One JAXA and its corporate slogan is Explore to Realize.
  • China National Space Administration
  • ​The China National Space Administration is a government agency of the People's Republic of China.
  • Headquartered in Haidian, Beijing.
  • European Space Agency
  • ​The ESA is an intergovernmental organization of 22 member states dedicated to the exploration of space.
  • Established in 1975
  • Headquartered in Paris.

Question 119

GE-BIZ is based in which country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Japan

  2. BOption (b)

    China

  3. COption (c)

    South Korea

  4. DOption (d)

    Singapore

  5. EOption (e)

    Malaysia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Singapore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Singapore.

In News

  • GE-BIZ, or Government Electronic Business, is an online platform based in Singapore.

Key Points

  • GE-BIZ serves as the Singapore government's one-stop e-procurement portal where suppliers can search for government procurement opportunities and submit bids.
  • The platform streamlines the procurement process for both government agencies and suppliers, promoting efficiency and transparency.
  • GE-BIZ plays a crucial role in facilitating public procurement and ensuring competitive and fair procurement practices.
  • It is part of Singapore's efforts to leverage technology in enhancing public sector procurement and service delivery.

Additional Information

  • GE-BIZ
  • GE-BIZ is managed by the Ministry of Finance of Singapore and provides a unified platform for all government procurement activities.
  • The platform helps in reducing administrative costs and improving procurement processes.
  • Suppliers can use GE-BIZ to access a wide range of government contracts and business opportunities.
  • GE-BIZ supports the principles of open competition, transparency, and value for money in public procurement.

Question 120

Name the feature that has been launched by WhatsApp Business to book tickets and cabs, etc.

  1. AOption (a)

    WhatsApp Blink

  2. BOption (b)

    WhatsApp Needs

  3. COption (c)

    WhatsApp Ease

  4. DOption (d)

    WhatsApp Flows

  5. EOption (e)

    WhatsApp Go

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

WhatsApp Flows

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is WhatsApp Flows.

In News

  • WhatsApp Business has launched a new feature called WhatsApp Flows to book tickets, cabs, and other services.

Key Points

  • WhatsApp Flows is designed to facilitate seamless transactions through the WhatsApp platform.
  • It allows users to book tickets, cabs, and other services directly from their WhatsApp chat.
  • This feature aims to enhance the convenience and user experience for WhatsApp Business users.
  • Businesses can integrate WhatsApp Flows to streamline their service offerings and improve customer engagement.

Additional Information

  • WhatsApp Business
  • WhatsApp Business is a free app designed specifically for small and medium businesses.
  • It allows businesses to connect with customers, showcase products and services, and automate messages.
  • WhatsApp Business provides tools for customer support, sales, and marketing, making it easier for businesses to operate.
  • The introduction of features like WhatsApp Flows enhances the functionality and user experience of the platform.

English Language (35 questions)

Read the passage carefully to answer the given questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer, choose the correct option as your answer.

Fashion, a dynamic reflection of society's evolving tastes, has been an ever-changing phenomenon throughout history. The journey of fashion trends offers a fascinating glimpse into cultural, economic, and technological shifts. From the elegance of past centuries to the eclectic styles of today, fashion trends continue to evolve, driven by a myriad of influences. Historically, fashion was often dictated by the elite, with trends trickling down from royalty and aristocrats. The elaborate costumes of the 16th and 17th centuries, characterized by intricate embroidery, voluminous skirts, and luxurious fabrics, symbolized wealth and status. The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century marked a significant shift, democratizing fashion as mass production made stylish clothing accessible to the general public. This era also saw the rise of department stores and fashion magazines, further spreading trends to a wider audience. The 20th century witnessed rapid changes in fashion, reflecting broader societal transformations. The Roaring Twenties, for example, brought about a revolution in women's fashion as flapper dresses, bobbed hair, and bold makeup became symbols of newfound freedom and independence. Post-World War II, the 1950s embraced a return to femininity with cinched waists and full skirts, epitomized by designers like Christian Dior. The 1960s and 1970s then broke conventional boundaries, with youth culture and countercultural movements introducing revolutionary styles such as miniskirts, psychedelic prints, and bell-bottoms. Technology has always played a pivotal role in fashion evolution. The advent of the internet and social media in the late 20th and early 21st centuries transformed the fashion landscape yet again. Platforms like Instagram and Pinterest, along with fashion blogs and online shopping, have created a global fashion community where trends can spread instantaneously. The concept of "fast fashion" emerged, characterized by rapidly produced, affordable clothing inspired by the latest runway trends. Brands like Zara and H&M epitomize this approach, quickly translating high-fashion styles into mass-market products. However, this rapid turnover in fashion also sparked concerns about sustainability and ethical practices. The environmental impact of fast fashion, including waste and pollution, has led to increasing calls for more sustainable practices within the industry. In response, many brands are now focusing on eco-friendly materials, ethical labour practices, and the promotion of circular fashion models, where clothes are designed to be reused, recycled, or repurposed. Cultural diversity and inclusivity ___________ in recent fashion trends. The globalized world has embraced a fusion of styles, with designers drawing inspiration from various cultures and traditions. This has led to the celebration of cultural heritage and the breaking down of previously rigid sartorial norms. Additionally, the fashion industry has made strides towards greater inclusivity, with more representation of different body types, ethnicities, and gender identities on runways and in advertising campaigns. The COVID-19 pandemic also had a profound impact on fashion trends. With lockdowns and remote work becoming the norm, comfort and functionality took precedence over formal attire. Athleisure, loungewear, and minimalistic designs became staples, reflecting the need for practical yet stylish clothing in a changing world. This shift also accelerated the adoption of digital fashion shows and virtual fitting technologies, highlighting the industry's adaptability. In conclusion, fashion trends are a mirror of societal change, influenced by historical events, technological advancements, and cultural shifts. As we move forward, the interplay between sustainability, technology, and inclusivity will likely shape the future of fashion, ensuring it remains an exciting and dynamic field.

Question 121

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following phrases should come in the blank given in the passage?

Cultural diversity and inclusivity ___________ in recent fashion trends.

  1. AOption (a)

    have become prominent buzzwords

  2. BOption (b)

    have led to a new minimalism

  3. COption (c)

    have often been overlooked

  4. DOption (d)

    are considered outdated

  5. EOption (e)

    have decreased significantly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

have become prominent buzzwords

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the evolution of fashion trends and highlights how recent developments have emphasized cultural diversity and inclusivity.
  • The term "prominent buzzwords" implies that cultural diversity and inclusivity are now widely recognized and often discussed themes in the fashion industry.
  • The passage mentions the breaking down of sartorial norms and greater representation in fashion, which aligns with the idea of these concepts gaining prominence.
  • The overall tone of the passage is positive towards the integration of diversity and inclusivity, supporting the idea that these are now key focus areas in recent trends.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘have become prominent buzzwords’.

 

Additional Information

  • have led to a new minimalism: This option does not align with the context of the passage, which talks about a fusion of styles and greater inclusivity, not minimalism.
  • have often been overlooked: This is contrary to the passage, which stresses that cultural diversity and inclusivity are now celebrated and prominent.
  • are considered outdated: This does not fit with the passage as it would imply a decline in the importance of diversity and inclusivity, which is the opposite of the narrative provided.
  • have decreased significantly: This contradicts the passage, which indicates an increase in the emphasis on cultural diversity and inclusivity in recent fashion trends.

Question 122

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which event significantly democratized fashion by making stylish clothing accessible to the general public?

  1. AOption (a)

    The rise of department stores in the 1950s

  2. BOption (b)

    The introduction of fast fashion brands like Zara and H&M

  3. COption (c)

    The social media boom in the early 21st century

  4. DOption (d)

    The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century

  5. EOption (e)

    The establishment of fashion magazines in the 20th century

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly states that "The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century marked a significant shift, democratizing fashion as mass production made stylish clothing accessible to the general public."
  • The Industrial Revolution led to technological advancements that enabled mass production of clothing, making stylish attire more affordable and widely available.
  • The democratization of fashion is linked to the ability to produce clothing on a large scale, which was a direct result of industrial advancements during this period.
  • The shift to mass production meant that fashionable clothing was no longer exclusive to the elite but could now be enjoyed by a broader segment of society.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘The Industrial Revolution in the 19th century’.

 

Additional Information

  • The rise of department stores in the 1950s: While department stores did play a role in making fashion more accessible, the significant democratizing event highlighted in the passage is the Industrial Revolution, which occurred earlier.
  • The introduction of fast fashion brands like Zara and H&M: Fast fashion is mentioned in the context of the late 20th and early 21st centuries, but the passage identifies the Industrial Revolution as the key event that democratized fashion.
  • The social media boom in the early 21st century: Social media has certainly changed the fashion landscape, but it is not credited with democratizing fashion in the same way the Industrial Revolution did.
  • The establishment of fashion magazines in the 20th century: Fashion magazines helped spread trends but did not democratize fashion through mass production the way the Industrial Revolution did.

Question 123

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following fashion trends emerged from the Roaring Twenties?

  1. AOption (a)

    Miniskirts and psychedelic prints

  2. BOption (b)

    Bell-bottoms and tie-dye shirts

  3. COption (c)

    Flapper dresses, bobbed hair, and bold makeup

  4. DOption (d)

    Cinched waists and full skirts

  5. EOption (e)

    Athleisure and loungewear

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Flapper dresses, bobbed hair, and bold makeup

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage states that the Roaring Twenties brought about a revolution in women's fashion with flapper dresses, bobbed hair, and bold makeup.
  • These specific styles were symbols of newfound freedom and independence for women during the 1920s.
  • The flapper style, characterized by its departure from the restrictive fashion of previous eras, represented a significant cultural shift.
  • The 1920s is noted for its impact on women's fashion, characterized by more daring and unconventional styles as a reflection of societal changes.

Therefore, the correct answer is: ‘Flapper dresses, bobbed hair, and bold makeup’.

 

Additional Information

  • Miniskirts and psychedelic prints: These trends were associated with the 1960s and the youth culture and countercultural movements of that era, not the 1920s.
  • Bell-bottoms and tie-dye shirts: These were popular in the 1970s, aligning with the countercultural movements and the rise of youth culture.
  • Cinched waists and full skirts: These styles were prominent in the 1950s, epitomized by designers like Christian Dior, representing a return to femininity post-World War II.
  • Athleisure and loungewear: These are recent trends that gained popularity during the COVID-19 pandemic as casual and comfortable clothing became a priority.

Question 124

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following factors have not been cited as an influence on recent fashion trends?

  1. AOption (a)

    The COVID-19 pandemic

  2. BOption (b)

    The introduction of digital fashion shows

  3. COption (c)

    The advent of online shopping

  4. DOption (d)

    The focus on ethical labor practices

  5. EOption (e)

    The lack of technological advancements

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

The lack of technological advancements

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 5'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage highlights several factors influencing recent fashion trends, including historical events, technological advancements, and cultural shifts.
  • Technological advancements such as the advent of the internet, online shopping, and digital fashion shows are cited as major influences on recent fashion trends.
  • The COVID-19 pandemic dramatically impacted fashion, leading to more comfort-focused and practical clothing trends.
  • Ethical labour practices and sustainability concerns have also been highlighted as recent influences on the fashion industry.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'The lack of technological advancements'.

 

Additional Information

  • The COVID-19 pandemic: The passage clearly states that the pandemic influenced fashion trends by shifting focus towards comfort and practicality.
  • The introduction of digital fashion shows: The passage mentions that digital fashion shows and virtual fitting technologies became prominent trends due to the pandemic.
  • The advent of online shopping: Online shopping is discussed as a significant factor that transformed the fashion landscape by creating a global fashion community.
  • The focus on ethical labour practices: The passage highlights sustainability and ethical labor practices as rising trends in response to the environmental impact of "fast fashion".

Question 125

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?

A. The popularity of Instagram and Pinterest has diminished traditional fashion magazines.

B. The spread of fashion trends has accelerated due to the internet and social media.

C. Sustainable and ethical fashion practices are becoming more important to consumers.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both B and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both B and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

  • The spread of fashion trends has accelerated due to the internet and social media:
  • Inferred because the passage states, "The advent of the internet and social media in the late 20th and early 21st centuries transformed the fashion landscape yet again. Platforms like Instagram and Pinterest, along with fashion blogs and online shopping, have created a global fashion community where trends can spread instantaneously."
  • Sustainable and ethical fashion practices are becoming more important to consumers:
  • Inferred because the passage mentions, "However, this rapid turnover in fashion also sparked concerns about sustainability and ethical practices. The environmental impact of fast fashion, including waste and pollution, has led to increasing calls for more sustainable practices within the industry. In response, many brands are now focusing on eco-friendly materials, ethical labour practices, and the promotion of circular fashion models."
  • The popularity of Instagram and Pinterest has diminished traditional fashion magazines:
  • Not inferred because the passage highlights the rise of social media platforms and their role in spreading fashion trends but does not specifically state that they have diminished the popularity of traditional fashion magazines.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Both B and C'.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Not suitable because while the passage notes the influence of digital platforms, it does not claim that Instagram and Pinterest have diminished the popularity of traditional fashion magazines.
  • Only B: Not suitable as it partially covers the correct answer. While B is correct, C is also correct and should be included.
  • Only C: Not suitable as it partially covers the correct answer. While C is correct, B is also correct and should be included.
  • All A B and C: Not suitable because A cannot be inferred from the passage.

Question 126

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentence(s) cannot be inferred from the passage?

A. After World War II, the fashion industry saw an increased focus on sustainability.

B. The COVID-19 pandemic shifted consumer demand towards more formal attire.

C. Fashion trends are influenced by broader cultural and technological changes

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    All A, B and C

  5. EOption (e)

    Both B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both A and B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

  • A. After World War II, the fashion industry saw an increased focus on sustainability.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that the focus on sustainability and ethical fashion practices is a response to the environmental impact of fast fashion in recent times, not immediately after World War II.
  • B. The COVID-19 pandemic shifted consumer demand towards more formal attire.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage specifically states that the pandemic led to a rise in demand for comfort and functionality, with athleisure, loungewear, and minimalistic designs becoming staples. This is the opposite of shifting towards more formal attire.
  • C. Fashion trends are influenced by broader cultural and technological changes.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. The passage repeatedly mentions that fashion trends reflect cultural, economic, and technological shifts over time, indicating the influence of broader cultural and technological changes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both A and B.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Incorrect because both A and B cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Only B: Incorrect because both A and B cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • All A, B, and C: Incorrect because statement C can be inferred from the passage.
  • Both B and C: Incorrect because statement C can be inferred from the passage.

Question 127

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The Industrial Revolution made fashionable clothing accessible only to the elite.

B) Digital fashion shows and virtual fitting technologies emerged due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

C) Ethical labor practices have led to the decline of fast fashion brands entirely.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B

  5. EOption (e)

    B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

  • A) The Industrial Revolution made fashionable clothing accessible only to the elite.
  • This is incorrect. The passage states that the Industrial Revolution "democratized fashion as mass production made stylish clothing accessible to the general public," not just the elite.
  • B) Digital fashion shows and virtual fitting technologies emerged due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • This is correct. The passage mentions that "This shift [due to the pandemic] also accelerated the adoption of digital fashion shows and virtual fitting technologies, highlighting the industry's adaptability."
  • C) Ethical labour practices have led to the decline of fast fashion brands entirely.
  • This is incorrect. While the passage does mention that many brands are focusing more on eco-friendly materials and ethical labor practices, it does not claim that this has led to the complete decline of fast fashion brands.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Only B'.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Incorrect because statement A is not correct.
  • Only C: Incorrect because statement C is not correct.
  • A and B: Incorrect because statement A is not correct.
  • B and C: Incorrect because statement C is not correct.

Read the passage carefully to answer the given questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer, choose the correct option as your answer.

Paragraph - 1

The United Arab Emirates (UAE) presents a fascinating case study in economic transformation and diversification within the context of the Middle East. Historically reliant on oil, the UAE has undertaken significant efforts to diversify its economy, becoming a model for other resource-rich nations. Understanding the UAE's economy involves examining its historical reliance on oil, the strategies employed to diversify, and the sectors contributing to its current economic landscape. Initially, the UAE's economy was dominated by the oil sector. The discovery of oil in the 1960s led to rapid economic growth and development. The wealth generated from oil exports funded extensive infrastructure projects, urban development, and the establishment of various government institutions.

Paragraph - 2

By the late 20th century, the UAE had transformed from a collection of small desert towns into a federation of modern cities with rapidly growing populations. However, the government recognized the vulnerabilities associated with an oil-dependent economy, such as fluctuating oil prices which could lead to economic instability. To mitigate these risks, the UAE embarked on a long-term strategic plan known as Vision 2021, aiming to diversify its economy and reduce dependency on oil. This initiative ________, aviation, real estate, and finance. Dubai, for instance, has become a global hub for tourism and business. The city attracts millions of visitors annually, drawn by its luxurious hotels, world-class shopping malls, and iconic structures like the Burj Khalifa.

Paragraph - 3

In addition, Dubai International Airport is one of the busiest in the world, boosting both tourism and business travel. The finance sector also plays a crucial role in the UAE's economic diversification. The establishment of financial centers such as the Dubai International Financial Centre (DIFC) has attracted multinational corporations and facilitated significant foreign direct investment (FDI). The DIFC offers a business-friendly environment with modern infrastructure, legal frameworks, and a robust regulatory regime, making it attractive for financial services companies. Real estate is another critical component of the UAE's non-oil economy.

Paragraph - 4

Mega projects such as the Palm Jumeirah, a man-made island, and the Expo 2020 site, now known as Expo City Dubai, exemplify the UAE's ambitious urban development plans. These developments not only boost the construction industry but also create jobs and attract international investors. The UAE has also made strides in technology and innovation. Initiatives such as Smart Dubai aim to make the city one of the most technologically advanced in the world. The UAE government invests heavily in research and development, focusing on areas like artificial intelligence, renewable energy, and space exploration. The successful launch of the Hope Probe to Mars in 2020 underscored the UAE's commitment to scientific advancement and innovation. The country's free-trade zones further stimulate economic growth. These zones offer tax incentives, full foreign ownership, and other benefits to attract international businesses. Jebel Ali Free Zone (JAFZA), for example, is one of the largest and most successful free zones in the world, contributing significantly to Dubai's economy by attracting thousands of companies from over 100 countries.

Paragraph - 5

In summary, the UAE's economy has transitioned from oil dependency to a more diversified model. Through strategic planning and investment in various sectors, including tourism, finance, real estate, and technology, the UAE has reduced its vulnerability to global oil price fluctuations and positioned itself as a regional leader in economic diversification. This strategy not only ensures sustainable economic growth but also prepares the nation for a future less dependent on fossil fuels. As the UAE continues to innovate and expand its economic horizons, it serves as a compelling example of economic resilience and adaptability in the Middle East.

Question 128

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from paragraphs 1 & 2 of the given passage?

A. The UAE's economic transformation involved significant government planning and investment.

B. The UAE’s rapid urban development in the late 20th century was solely due to oil revenues.

C. Vision 2021 aims to make the UAE’s economy self-sufficient and less reliant on external factors.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • A. The UAE's economic transformation involved significant government planning and investment.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 1 mentions the wealth from oil exports funding infrastructure projects and urban development. Paragraph 2 discusses the strategic plan known as Vision 2021, which involved governmental efforts to diversify the economy, indicating significant government planning and investment.
  • B. The UAE’s rapid urban development in the late 20th century was solely due to oil revenues.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. While oil revenues played a significant role, the passage does not explicitly state that urban development was solely due to oil revenues. Other factors, such as government initiatives and strategic planning for diversification, also contributed.
  • C. Vision 2021 aims to make the UAE’s economy self-sufficient and less reliant on external factors.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. Vision 2021 aims to reduce dependency on oil and diversify the economy, but the passage does not specifically mention making the economy self-sufficient or less reliant on external factors.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only A.

 

Additional Information

  • Only B: Incorrect because statement B cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Only C: Incorrect because statement C cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Both A and C: Incorrect because statement C cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • All A, B and C: Incorrect because statements B and C cannot be inferred from the passage.

Question 129

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentence(s) cannot be inferred from paragraphs 3 & 4 of the given passage?

A. The UAE’s free zones have been instrumental in attracting global businesses, contributing to economic growth.

B. Technology and innovation have become less significant in the UAE’s economic strategy.

C. The UAE's ambitious urban development projects have resulted in job creation and international investor attraction

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and B

  4. DOption (d)

    Both B and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

  • A. The UAE’s free zones have been instrumental in attracting global businesses, contributing to economic growth.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 4 states that free-trade zones like Jebel Ali Free Zone (JAFZA) have contributed significantly to Dubai's economy by attracting thousands of companies from over 100 countries, which implies they have been instrumental in attracting global businesses and contributing to economic growth.
  • B. Technology and innovation have become less significant in the UAE’s economic strategy.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 4 explicitly states that the UAE has made strides in technology and innovation, and the government invests heavily in research and development in areas like artificial intelligence, renewable energy, and space exploration. This makes technology and innovation significant parts of the UAE's economic strategy.
  • C. The UAE's ambitious urban development projects have resulted in job creation and international investor attraction.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 4 mentions that mega projects such as the Palm Jumeirah and the Expo 2020 site not only boost the construction industry but also create jobs and attract international investors.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Only B'.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Incorrect because statement A can be inferred from the passage.
  • Both A and B: Incorrect because statement A can be inferred from the passage.
  • Both B and C: Incorrect because statement C can be inferred from the passage.
  • All A, B and C: Incorrect because statements A and C can be inferred from the passage.

Question 130

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from paragraph 5 of the given passage?

A. The UAE’s strategy showcases economic resilience and adaptability.

B. By focusing on various sectors, the UAE has completely eliminated reliance on oil.

C. The UAE is likely to face economic challenges due to global oil price fluctuations.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • A. The UAE’s strategy showcases economic resilience and adaptability.
  • This can be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 5 explicitly states that the UAE's diversification strategy "ensures sustainable economic growth" and positions the nation as "a compelling example of economic resilience and adaptability in the Middle East."
  • B. By focusing on various sectors, the UAE has completely eliminated reliance on oil.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. While Paragraph 5 highlights the UAE's successful diversification and reduced vulnerability to global oil price fluctuations, it does not state that the UAE has completely eliminated its reliance on oil.
  • C. The UAE is likely to face economic challenges due to global oil price fluctuations.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. Paragraph 5 indicates that the UAE has reduced its vulnerability to global oil price fluctuations through diversification, suggesting that while it might still face challenges, it is better equipped to handle them.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Only A'.

 

Additional Information

  • Only B: Incorrect because statement B cannot be inferred from paragraph 5.
  • Only C: Incorrect because statement C cannot be inferred from paragraph 5.
  • Both A and C: Incorrect because statement C cannot be inferred from paragraph 5.
  • All A, B and C: Incorrect because statements B and C cannot be inferred from paragraph 5.

Question 131

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which conclusion aligns with the overall theme of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The UAE’s economic success is solely due to its oil reserves.

  2. BOption (b)

    The UAE’s economic strategy is characterized by a focus on traditional sectors like agriculture.

  3. COption (c)

    The UAE has successfully reduced its reliance on oil through diverse economic investments.

  4. DOption (d)

    The UAE has neglected technological advancement in its economic planning.

  5. EOption (e)

    The success of the UAE is tied to the economic instability of other Middle Eastern countries.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The UAE has successfully reduced its reliance on oil through diverse economic investments.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Economic Transition: The passage describes the UAE's historical reliance on oil and how the country has transitioned to a more diversified economic model.
  • Diverse Sectors: The UAE has made strategic investments in multiple sectors such as tourism, finance, real estate, and technology to reduce its dependence on oil.
  • Strategic Planning: Initiatives like Vision 2021, Smart Dubai, and investments in research and development indicate the UAE’s long-term strategic planning for economic diversification.
  • Economic Resilience: The passage highlights the UAE's resilience and adaptability in ensuring sustainable growth, reducing vulnerability to oil price fluctuations, and positioning itself as a leader in economic diversification.

Therefore, the correct answer is The UAE has successfully reduced its reliance on oil through diverse economic investments.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The UAE’s economic success is solely due to its oil reserves.
  • Why Incorrect: This statement contradicts the primary theme of the passage which emphasizes the UAE’s strategic diversification away from oil dependency.
  • Option 2: The UAE’s economic strategy is characterized by a focus on traditional sectors like agriculture.
  • Why Incorrect: The passage does not mention agriculture as a significant part of the UAE's current economic strategy. The focus is on tourism, finance, real estate, and technology.
  • Option 4: The UAE has neglected technological advancement in its economic planning.
  • Why Incorrect: The passage explicitly mentions that the UAE has made strides in technology and innovation, such as the Smart Dubai initiative and the successful launch of the Hope Probe to Mars.
  • Option 5: The success of the UAE is tied to the economic instability of other Middle Eastern countries.
  • Why Incorrect: The passage does not make any comparisons with other Middle Eastern countries or attribute the UAE’s success to the instability of its neighbors. It focuses on the UAE's internal strategies for economic diversification.

Question 132

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Dubai International Airport supports both tourism and business travel.

B. The UAE’s Vision 2021 focuses exclusively on the technology sector.

C. Free-trade zones in the UAE provide various incentives to attract international businesses.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    B and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Dubai International Airport supports both tourism and business travel:
  • According to Paragraph 3, Dubai International Airport is one of the busiest in the world, boosting both tourism and business travel.
  • This statement is correct based on the information given in the passage.
  • The UAE’s Vision 2021 focuses exclusively on the technology sector:
  • Paragraph 2 indicates Vision 2021 aims to diversify the economy and reduce dependency on oil by including sectors like tourism, aviation, real estate, and finance.
  • The technology sector is mentioned later and is part of the broader strategy, not the exclusive focus.
  • This statement is incorrect.
  • Free-trade zones in the UAE provide various incentives to attract international businesses:
  • Paragraph 4 mentions that free-trade zones like Jebel Ali Free Zone offer tax incentives, full foreign ownership, and other benefits to attract international businesses.
  • This statement is correct based on the information given in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only B.

 

Additional Information

  • Only A: Statement A is correct since Dubai International Airport supports both tourism and business travel, as mentioned in the passage.
  • Therefore, Option 1 is not suitable because Statement A is true.
  • Only C: Statement C is correct since free-trade zones in the UAE provide various incentives to attract international businesses, as mentioned in the passage.
  • Therefore, Option 3 is not suitable because Statement C is true.
  • A and C:  Both statements A and C are correct, making this option incorrect because it implies any of these statements could be wrong.
  • B and C: Only Statement B is incorrect, and Statement C is correct.

Question 133

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following phrases should come in the blank given in paragraph -2 of the passage?

This initiative ________, aviation, real estate, and finance.

  1. AOption (a)

    overlooks key areas such as tourism

  2. BOption (b)

    has neglected sectors like technology

  3. COption (c)

    encompasses several key areas including tourism

  4. DOption (d)

    ignores important sectors such as education

  5. EOption (e)

    exclusively focuses on the oil sector

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

encompasses several key areas including tourism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the UAE's initiative to diversify its economy beyond oil dependency.
  • The sectors mentioned - tourism, aviation, real estate, and finance - are highlighted as areas of focus for economic diversification.
  • The correct phrase should logically include these sectors to indicate the comprehensive scope of the initiative.
  • The word "encompasses" accurately conveys the idea of including multiple important sectors, aligning with the paragraph's context and overall theme.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘encompasses several key areas including tourism’.

 

Additional Information

  • overlooks key areas such as tourism: This option suggests neglect rather than inclusion, contradicting the passage's emphasis on incorporating various sectors.
  • has neglected sectors like technology: This option implies exclusion of sectors, contrasting with the inclusive strategy described in the passage.
  • ignores important sectors such as education: This option indicates ignoring sectors, which is opposite to the passage's intent to include multiple key areas.
  • exclusively focuses on the oil sector: This option contradicts the passage's main theme of moving away from oil dependency by focusing on various other sectors.

Question 134

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is the closest synonym of the word “transform” as used in Paragraph 2?

  1. AOption (a)

    Establish

  2. BOption (b)

    Degrade

  3. COption (c)

    Convert

  4. DOption (d)

    Preserve

  5. EOption (e)

    Build

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Convert

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "transform" means to make a thorough or dramatic change in the form, appearance, or character of something. (परिवर्तित करना)
  • Example: The new policy will transform the way we do business.
  • "Convert" refers to changing something into a different form or properties, often for a specific purpose. (रूपांतरित करना)
  • Example: They are planning to convert the old warehouse into a community center.
  • Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'transform' is 'convert'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Convert.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Establish (स्थापित करना): To set up or create something in a firm or permanent way.
  • Example: They plan to establish a new branch in the city.
  • Degrade (नीचा दिखाना): To lower in quality, character, or value.
  • Example: Pollution can degrade the quality of air and water.
  • Preserve (संरक्षित करना): To maintain something in its original or existing state.
  • Example: We need to preserve our natural resources for future generations.
  • Build (निर्माण करना): To construct something by putting parts or material together.
  • Example: They are planning to build a new shopping mall downtown.

Question 135

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is the closest antonym to the word “sustainable” as used in Paragraph 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    Endurable

  2. BOption (b)

    Renewable

  3. COption (c)

    Perishable

  4. DOption (d)

    Maintainable

  5. EOption (e)

    Durable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Perishable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "sustainable" means something that can be maintained over the long term without depleting resources or causing severe ecological damage. (सतत)
  • Example: The company is committed to sustainable practices to ensure minimal environmental impact.
  • "Perishable" refers to items that are likely to decay or go bad quickly, especially food items. (नाशवान)
  • Example: Fruits and vegetables are perishable goods and should be consumed quickly.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'sustainable' is 'perishable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Perishable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Endurable (सहन करने योग्य): Capable of being endured; bearable.
  • Example: The pain was severe but endurable.
  • Renewable (नवीकरणीय): Capable of being renewed; sustainable energy resources.
  • Example: Solar and wind are renewable sources of energy.
  • Maintainable (रखरखाव योग्य): Capable of being maintained or continued.
  • Example: The garden is easily maintainable with regular care.
  • Durable (टिकाऊ): Able to withstand wear, pressure, or damage; hard-wearing.
  • Example: This material is highly durable and perfect for outdoor use.

Question 136

From the options given below, select the option which states the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.

A) The bar for sedition is so low in India that even junior school students can attract the attention of this colonial-era law, which should have been struck of the statute books long ago.

B) When no decision has rendered by the Speaker, it is beyond comprehension how the court entertained arguments on the issuance of the notice and on whether dissidents can be disqualified for questioning the party line.

C) However, the video recording of the performance, based on which the complaint was filed, suggest that the play only reflected contemporary reality - the protests which have erupted all over the country against the National Register of Citizens (NRC) and the CAA.

D) And it is completely irrelevant in the case of children enacted a school play about current affairs to receive some political education.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B are incorrect

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    B and D are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    All are incorrect

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All are incorrect

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Part(A)

  1. Here, the verb struck will be followed by the preposition off and not of.
  2. As struck off is the simple past tense and past participle of strike off.
  3. It means ‘a name of the person or thing removed from something - usually a list, book, register, etc or someone removed from a position, responsibility or stature.’

Hence, the correct sentence will be,- The bar for sedition is so low in India that even junior school students can attract the attention of this colonial-era law, which should have been struck off the statute books long ago.

Part(B)

  • Here, the first part of the sentence has been written in Passive Voice, therefore, it should be ‘has been’ instead.

Hence, the correct sentence will be,-When no decision has been rendered by the Speaker, it is beyond comprehension how the court entertained arguments on the issuance of the notice and on whether dissidents can be disqualified for questioning the party line.

Part(C)

  • Here, the verb ‘suggest’ needs to agree with the subject ‘the video recording of the performance’ which is singular, therefore, the verb needs to be singular too according to the rules of Subject-Verb Agreement.

Hence, the correct sentence will be - However, the video recording of the performance, based on which the complaint was filed, suggests that the play only reflected contemporary reality - the protests which have erupted all over the country against the National Register of Citizens (NRC) and the CAA.

Part(D)

  1. Here, the error lies in the wrong usage of the past participle ‘enacted’. In the case of participles placed just after a noun, we need to keep in mind that the overall meaning of the sentence is not compromised while doing so.
  2. In the above sentence, the present participle ‘enacting’ will be used.
  3. One can also choose not to place a participle after a noun at all and instead make it ‘the children who enacted or children who enact’.
  4. Although both of these two are correct, ‘children who enact’ is preferred keeping in mind that the participle ‘enacting’ does not signify a completed past event but rather a continuous one. Also, it is then not required to make more changes in the sentence, like, adding ‘the’ before ‘children’.

 

Hence, the correct sentence will be,-And it is completely irrelevant in the case of children enacting a school play about

Question 137

From the options given below, select the option with the correct combination of incorrect/correct sentences.

A) My father was not well off, but my parents wanted my sister and I to have a youth not stunted by the limits of an empty pocket.

B) I was concentrating on him with the great rush of questions, answers, realisations, credulous, and dismay, which stiffened my cheeks and gave the sensation of cold water rising my neck.

C) He was a schoolteacher in one of the town that had been infested with violence for years.

D) A man who has been convicted of a crime with the state will continue to suffer until his death.

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Only C and D are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Only D is correct

  5. EOption (e)

    All are incorrect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All are incorrect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All are incorrect. 

Key Points

  • Part A)
  • Here, ‘me’ should be used instead of ‘I’. ‘I’ is a nominative pronoun which means it is used as the subject of a sentence, or as a predicate nominative.
  • While ‘me’ is an object pronoun; it means it serves as a direct or indirect object to the verb, or as the object of a preposition.
  • For example, consider the sentence: My mother kissed my sister and I. In this sentence if we remove ‘my sister and’, then we are left with My mother kissed I, which does not make any sense. Therefore, ‘me’ should be used instead of ‘I’.
  • Hence, the correct sentence will be, -My father was not well off, but my parents wanted my sister and me to have a youth not stunted by the limits of an empty pocket.
  • Part B)
  • Here, all words followed by ‘rush of’ are nouns except for credulous which is an adjective. So it should be credulity instead of credulous.
  • Hence, the correct sentence will be,-  I was concentrating on him with the great rush of questions, answers, realisations, credulity, and dismay, which stiffened my cheeks and gave the sensation of cold water rising my neck.
  • stunted having been prevented from growing or developing properly.
  • Part C)
  • Here, it should be ‘towns’ instead of ‘town’.
  • Hence, the correct sentence will be,- He was a schoolteacher in one of the towns that had been infested with violence for years.
  • Part D)
  • Here, the error lies in the wrong use of the preposition. It should be ‘against’ instead of ‘with’.
  • Hence, the correct sentence will be, -A man who has been convicted of a crime against the state will continue to suffer until his death.

Question 138

Directions

Choose the combinations that create the correct sentences.**

A. Marie was excited about the cooking competitioni. unlikeD. people discouraging him from doing so.
B. Mike enjoyed campingii. in spite ofE. her family was not very approving of her career choice.
C. Namjoon was able to acquire a driver's licenseiii. howeverF. Patricia absolutely loathed it.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only B - ii - E

  2. BOption (b)

    Only C - iii - E

  3. COption (c)

    Only A - i - D

  4. DOption (d)

    B - i - F and C - iii - D

  5. EOption (e)

    A - iii - E and C - ii - D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

A - iii - E and C - ii - D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - iii - E and C - ii - D

Key Points

To choose the correct combination we need to look at all the combinations one by one. 

  • The combination 'Marie was excited about the cooking competition however her family was not very approving of her career choice' is correct as it represents 2 contrasting ideas.
  • The connector 'however' is used to connect 2 statements that represent opposing ideas, ideas that go against each other**.** 
  • Example: Sally wanted to purchase a lot of that material, however, it was available in a limited amount.
  • The first statement refers to Marie being excited about something, this represents a positive feeling.
  • The second statement refers to Marie's family being disapproving of her choice, this has a negative connotation.

Thus, the combination answer is A - iii - E

  • The combination 'Namjoon was able to acquire a driver's license in spite of people discouraging him from doing so' is correct as this sentence also represents 2 ideas or events that are contradictory in nature.
  • The connector 'in spite of' is used to represent a situation where something happens even though there was a hindrance or obstacle. 
  • Example: In spite of being verbally abused for years, Malti decided to finally fight back against her husband.
  • The first statement represents something that happened successfully i.e. Namjoon getting his driver's license.
  • The second statement represents the obstacle that the subject overcame to achieve the status represented in the first statement i.e. people discouraging him for getting a driver's license.

Thus, the correct combination is C - ii - D

Additional Information

Let's look at the meaning of some of the words: 

  • Loathed: felt intense dislike or disgust for

Question 139

Directions

Choose the combinations that create the correct sentences.**

A. Michael does not have a strong grasp of mathematicsi. converselyD. on top of that she had the audacity to argue.
B. Suman was in the wrongii. moreoverE. his knowledge when it comes to literature is astounding.
C. Sara was excited about the road trip with her friendsiii. in the first placeF. they were getting together after 11 years.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only A - i - E

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B - ii - E

  3. COption (c)

    Only C - iii - F

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A - i - D

  5. EOption (e)

    Only C - ii - D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A - i - E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only A - i - E

Key Points

To choose the correct combination, we will have to look at all the combinations one by one. 

  • The combination ' Michael does not have a strong grasp of mathematics conversely his knowledge when it came to literature was astounding' is correct as the 2 statements in the sentence are contrasting in meaning, they represent opposite events.
  • The connector 'conversely' is used to represent an event/ action that goes against a previously mentioned action/ event. 
  • Example: Joe tends to prefer cooking when he's at home, conversely Amanda likes to do the dishes.
  • The first statement talks about how Michael is not very good at mathematics. This is the first event and could represent a person bad at academics.
  • The second statement talks about how on the other hand, Michael was very good at literature, as opposed to what one might think.

Thus, the correct answer is Only A - i - E

Additional Information

  • 'Conversely', 'whereas' and 'however' are contrasting connectors.
  • They are usually used in the middle of a sentence. 
  • Example: Omisha wanted to go to Iceland for the honeymoon whereas Saul wanted to go to someplace with a beach.

                                      Sanjay is going to surprise Amisha with a proposal; however, she already knows of his plan.

Question 140

Directions

Choose the combinations that create the correct sentences.**

A. Sunil had pulled a double shift at the hospitali. alternativelyD. she ended up not going to her birthday party.
B. Asha had injured her hand during the rallyii. consequentlyE. her feet were killing her.
C. Lara has a major fight with her best friendiii. furthermoreF. he still had to go home to feed the baby.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only A - i - D

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B - ii - E

  3. COption (c)

    Only C- iii - E

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A - iii - F

  5. EOption (e)

    Only C - ii - E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only A - iii - F

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only A - iii - F

Key Points

To choose the correct combination, we will have to go through all the combinations one by one. 

  • The combination 'Sunil had to pull a double shift at the hospital, furthermore, he still had to go home and feed the baby' is correct because the second statement is adding on to the first statement.
  • The connector 'furthermore' is an additional connector that represents a situation where one situation piles on another. 
  • Example: Sunita was an honors student in school, furthermore, was engaged in all kinds of extracurricular activties.
  • The first statement talks about how Sunil had just come off work from a double shift (meaning he was probably very tired).
  • The second statement talks about the event that piled on to the first one, feeding a baby after going home from a tiring double shift in the hospital.

Thus, the correct answer is Only A - iii - F

Additional Information

  • 'Furthermore', 'moreover', and 'additonally' are additonal connectors.
  • They are usually used in the middle of a sentence. 
  • Example: The director was satisfied with that scene in the movie, moreover it was too late to reshoot it.

                                      The horror house was eerily quiet, additionally, there was a suspicious lack of scary actors.

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

IFFK 2012 was (1) for the improved viewing experiences it provided through a better theatre atmosphere and high-tech sound and visual systems. IFFK 2012 was not free from controversies either. The ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread (2). The film, an adaptation of (3) writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children, had its Asian premiere at the IFFK. After the premiere, Indian National Congress leaders said that the film portrayed former Indian prime minister Indira Gandhi and other leaders negatively. Following the allegations, further festival screening of the film was stopped, an act which drew heavy (4). Another controversy developed when Jayan K. Cherian's Papilio Buddha was removed from the programme when it was alleged by the Kerala Police that it became known that continued inclusion of the film in the festival might trigger major (5) in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 141

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cheapen

  2. BOption (b)

    Bleak

  3. COption (c)

    Appreciated

  4. DOption (d)

    Ascetic

  5. EOption (e)

    Restricted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Appreciated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Appreciated.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence "IFFK 2012 was (1) for the improved viewing experiences it provided through a better theatre atmosphere and high-tech sound and visual systems'' talks about IFFK 2012 that was cherished or valued for the improved viewing experiences.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Appreciated'.
  • The word 'Appreciated' means To enjoy something or to understand the value of somebody or something. (किसी व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु के गुण पहचानना और उन्‍हें महत्व देना; रसास्‍वादन करना) 
  • Example: We fully appreciated the relatively speculative nature of that question.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The complete passage is- IFFK 2012 was appreciated for the improved viewing experiences it provided through a better theatre atmosphere and high-tech sound and visual systems. IFFK 2012 was not free from controversies either. The ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread controversy. The film, an adaptation of renowned writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children, had its Asian premiere at the IFFK. After the premiere, Indian National Congress leaders said that the film portrayed former Indian prime minister Indira Gandhi and other leaders negatively. Following the allegations, further festival screening of the film was stopped, an act which drew heavy criticism. Another controversy developed when Jayan K. Cherian's Papilio Buddha was removed from the programme when it was alleged by the Kerala Police that it became known that continued inclusion of the film in the festival might trigger major trouble in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other options:
  • 'Cheapen' means To make somebody lose respect for himself or herself. (किसी का आत्‍मसम्‍मान घटाना)
  • 'Bleak' means Bad; not encouraging or hopeful. (ख़राब, बुरी; निराशापूर्ण)
  • 'Ascetic' means Not allowing yourself physical pleasures, especially for religious reasons. (विशेषतः धार्मिक कारणों से भौतिक सुखों से विमुख)
  • 'Restricted' means Controlled or limited. (नियंत्रित या सीमित)

Question 142

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    Controversy

  2. BOption (b)

    Adversary

  3. COption (c)

    Combatant

  4. DOption (d)

    Nemesis

  5. EOption (e)

    Recovery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Controversy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Controversy.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence "The ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread (2)'' says that the ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread public discussion and disagreement about it.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Controversy'.
  • The word 'Controversy' means Public discussion and disagreement about something. (किसी विषय पर सार्वजनिक चर्चा और विवाद) 
  • Example: The plans for changing the town centre caused a great deal of controversy.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The complete passage is- IFFK 2012 was appreciated for the improved viewing experiences it provided through a better theatre atmosphere and high-tech sound and visual systems. IFFK 2012 was not free from controversies either. The ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread controversy. The film, an adaptation of renowned writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children, had its Asian premiere at the IFFK. After the premiere, Indian National Congress leaders said that the film portrayed former Indian prime minister Indira Gandhi and other leaders negatively. Following the allegations, further festival screening of the film was stopped, an act which drew heavy criticism. Another controversy developed when Jayan K. Cherian's Papilio Buddha was removed from the programme when it was alleged by the Kerala Police that it became known that continued inclusion of the film in the festival might trigger major trouble in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other options:
  • 'Adversary' means An enemy or an opponent in a competition. (शत्रु; किसी स्‍पर्धा में विरोधी पक्ष)
  • 'Combatant' means A person who takes part in fighting, especially in war. (योद्घा, युद्घरत सैनिक)
  • 'Nemesis' means A punishment or defeat that somebody deserves and cannot avoid. (दंड या पराजय जिससे उसका पात्र बच नहीं सकता; नियति)
  • 'Recovery' means A return to a normal state of health, mind, or strength. (बीमारी के बाद स्‍वास्‍थ्‍य-लाभ या कठिन समय के बाद सामान्‍य अवस्‍था)

Question 143

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    Obscure

  2. BOption (b)

    Dubious

  3. COption (c)

    Mysterious

  4. DOption (d)

    Concealed

  5. EOption (e)

    Renowned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Renowned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Renowned.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence "The film, an adaptation of (3) writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children, had its Asian premiere at the IFFK'' talks about a film that is an adaptation of famous writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Renowned'.
  • The word 'Renowned' means Known or talked about by many people; famous. (प्रसिद्घ) 
  • Example: The region is renowned for its food.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

The complete passage is- IFFK 2012 was appreciated for the improved viewing experiences it provided through a better theatre atmosphere and high-tech sound and visual systems. IFFK 2012 was not free from controversies either. The ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread controversy. The film, an adaptation of renowned writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children, had its Asian premiere at the IFFK. After the premiere, Indian National Congress leaders said that the film portrayed former Indian prime minister Indira Gandhi and other leaders negatively. Following the allegations, further festival screening of the film was stopped, an act which drew heavy criticism. Another controversy developed when Jayan K. Cherian's Papilio Buddha was removed from the programme when it was alleged by the Kerala Police that it became known that continued inclusion of the film in the festival might trigger major trouble in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other options:
  • 'Obscure' means Not well known. (अप्रसिद्घ)
  • 'Dubious' means Not sure or certain. (अनिश्चित, शंकालु, सशंक, संदिग्‍ध)
  • 'Mysterious' means Difficult or impossible to understand, explain, or identify. (समझने या समझाने से परे; अद्‌भुत, रहस्‍यमय)
  • 'Concealed' means To hide something or somebody; to prevent something or somebody from being seen or discovered. (छिपाना; गुप्‍त रखना)

Question 144

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    Extol

  2. BOption (b)

    Criticism

  3. COption (c)

    Laud

  4. DOption (d)

    Approved

  5. EOption (e)

    Hire

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Criticism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Criticism.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence "Following the allegations, further festival screening of the film was stopped, an act which drew heavy (4)'' says that the allegations led to the stoppage of festival screening of the film which drew heavy disapproval or abuse.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Criticism'.
  • The word 'Criticism' means The expression of disapproval of someone or something on the basis of perceived faults or mistakes. (आलोचना, निंदा, दोषन्‍वेषण) 
  • Example: The council has come in for severe criticism over the plans.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The complete passage is- IFFK 2012 was appreciated for the improved viewing experiences it provided through a better theatre atmosphere and high-tech sound and visual systems. IFFK 2012 was not free from controversies either. The ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread controversy. The film, an adaptation of renowned writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children, had its Asian premiere at the IFFK. After the premiere, Indian National Congress leaders said that the film portrayed former Indian prime minister Indira Gandhi and other leaders negatively. Following the allegations, further festival screening of the film was stopped, an act which drew heavy criticism. Another controversy developed when Jayan K. Cherian's Papilio Buddha was removed from the programme when it was alleged by the Kerala Police that it became known that continued inclusion of the film in the festival might trigger major trouble in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other options:
  • 'Extol' means To praise enthusiastically. (प्रशंसा करना)
  • 'Laud' means To praise highly. (प्रशंसा)
  • 'Approved' means To be pleased about something; to like somebody or something. (किसी को पसंद करना या उससे संतुष्‍ट होना; स्‍वीकार्य समझना)
  • 'Hire' means To have the use of something for a short time by paying for it. (किसी वस्‍तु को किराए पर लेना)

Question 145

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    Repose

  2. BOption (b)

    Nirvana

  3. COption (c)

    Bliss

  4. DOption (d)

    Trouble

  5. EOption (e)

    Equanimity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Trouble

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Trouble.'

Key Points

  • The given sentence "Another controversy developed when Jayan K. Cherian's Papilio Buddha was removed from the programme when it was alleged by the Kerala Police that it became known that continued inclusion of the film in the festival might trigger major (5) in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi'' says that continued inclusion of the film Papilio Buddha in the festival might trigger major problem or difficulty in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Trouble'.
  • The word 'Trouble' means A problem, difficulty, or worry. (समस्‍या, कठिनाई या चिंता) 
  • Example: He was having trouble with his homework.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The complete passage is- IFFK 2012 was appreciated for the improved viewing experiences it provided through a better theatre atmosphere and high-tech sound and visual systems. IFFK 2012 was not free from controversies either. The ban imposed on the reshow of Deepa Mehta's Midnight's Children created a widespread controversy. The film, an adaptation of renowned writer Salman Rushdie's masterpiece novel Midnight's Children, had its Asian premiere at the IFFK. After the premiere, Indian National Congress leaders said that the film portrayed former Indian prime minister Indira Gandhi and other leaders negatively. Following the allegations, further festival screening of the film was stopped, an act which drew heavy criticism. Another controversy developed when Jayan K. Cherian's Papilio Buddha was removed from the programme when it was alleged by the Kerala Police that it became known that continued inclusion of the film in the festival might trigger major trouble in the city due to its alleged negative remarks on Mahatma Gandhi.

 

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other options:
  • 'Repose' means A state of rest, sleep, or tranquility. (शांति, आराम)
  • 'Nirvana' means A place of perfect peace and happiness. (निर्वाण)
  • 'Bliss' means Great joy or happiness. (परम आनंद)
  • 'Equanimity' means A calm state of mind which means that you do not become angry or upset, especially in difficult situations. (शांत, चित्त मनोदशा, धीरज; समभाव)

Question 146

Directions

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.**

A. reconfigure work and social environments for 

B. often lead to decreased productivity and errors

C. and childcare duties is crucial, but we must also 

D. encouraging greater male involvement in household 

E. improved work-life balance, as longer hours

  1. AOption (a)

    DCAEB

  2. BOption (b)

    CEDAB

  3. COption (c)

    ABCED

  4. DOption (d)

    BCAED

  5. EOption (e)

    ACEDB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

DCAEB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

​​The correct sequence for the scattered segments is DCAEB.

  • D, "encouraging greater male involvement in household," is the first part as it sets the tone for the sentence, emphasizing the importance of male involvement in domestic responsibilities.
  • C, "and childcare duties is crucial, but we must also," follows D because it provides additional information about what needs to be done alongside encouraging male involvement in household and childcare duties.
  • A, "reconfigure work and social environments for," is the third part of the sentence because it follows the introduction of the main idea in parts D and C and provides additional information about what needs to be done.
  • E, "improved work-life balance, as longer hours," is the fourth part because it directly connects with part A, explaining the reason for reconfiguring work and social environments – to achieve improved work-life balance amidst longer working hours.
  • B, "often lead to decreased productivity and errors," is the last part of the sentence because it provides the consequence of longer hours, completing the sentence's logical progression.

 

The complete sentence would be - "Encouraging greater male involvement in household and childcare duties is crucial, but we must also reconfigure work and social environments for improved work-life balance, as longer hours often lead to decreased productivity and errors."

 

Additional Information

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Encourage - to give support, confidence, or hope to someone to do or continue doing something (प्रोत्साहित करना)
  • For Example:
  • The teacher's words of encouragement motivated the students to work harder.
  • Crucial - of great importance; essential or decisive (महत्वपूर्ण)
  • For Example:
  • Proper time management is crucial for meeting deadlines.
  • Reconfigure - to change or rearrange the structure, organization, or arrangement of something (पुनः विन्यासित करना)
  • For Example:
  • The IT department had to reconfigure the network settings to improve internet speed.
  • Productivity - the measure of how efficiently goods and services are produced, often expressed as the amount of output per unit of input (उत्पादकता)
  • For Example:
  • The new software significantly improved the productivity of the company by automating repetitive tasks.

Question 147

Directions

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.**

A. highlighting the need for a multifaceted approach 

B. as it becomes more advanced, 

C. Ava, an initially celebrated AI, 

D. reveals the evolving risks posed by AI 

E. to address immediate and long-term challenges

  1. AOption (a)

    BCAED

  2. BOption (b)

    ACBED

  3. COption (c)

    CEBAD

  4. DOption (d)

    DEABC

  5. EOption (e)

    CDBAE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

CDBAE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

​​The correct sequence for the scattered segments is CDBAE.

  • C, "Ava, an initially celebrated AI," is the first part as it introduces the subject of the sentence, which is Ava, an AI.
  • D, "reveals the evolving risks posed by AI," follows C, as it explains what Ava does, which is revealing the evolving risks posed by AI.
  • B, "as it becomes more advanced," comes after D, providing additional information about how Ava operates or evolves.
  • A, "highlighting the need for a multifaceted approach," is the next part, as it follows logically after B, explaining the significance of Ava's actions.
  • E, "to address immediate and long-term challenges," is the last part, concluding the sentence by describing the purpose of the multifaceted approach mentioned in part A.

 

The complete sentence would be - "Ava, an initially celebrated AI, reveals the evolving risks posed by AI as it becomes more advanced, highlighting the need for a multifaceted approach to address immediate and long-term challenges."

 

Additional Information

  • Let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Evolving - undergoing gradual development or change; progressing (विकसित हो रहा)
  • For Example -
  • The technology industry is constantly evolving, with new innovations and advancements happening every day.
  • Pose - to present or constitute (a problem, danger, or difficulty); to position one's body in a particular way (रूप बनाना / खड़ा होना)
  • For Example -
  • The economic challenges posed by the recession required innovative solutions to overcome.
  • Multifaceted - having many different aspects or features; complex (बहुप्राकारी)
  • For Example -
  • Her personality is incredibly multifaceted, with a wide range of interests and talents.
  • Immediate - occurring or done at once; without delay (तुरंत / तत्काल)
  • For Example -
  • The paramedics provided immediate medical assistance to the accident victims, saving lives in the process.

Question 148

Direction: In the question below, there are two statements. Each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

His plans, probably not very definite, were disturbed by an __________ message from the King, ordering him not to return to Mysore without her___.

The events which were taking place in the Himalayas made it _______ to send home a part of the army of Sikhs, and Media gave his __________ for the same.

  1. AOption (a)

    inconsequential, embargo

  2. BOption (b)

    discretionary, deterrence

  3. COption (c)

    unimportant, injunction

  4. DOption (d)

    dispensable, revocation

  5. EOption (e)

    imperative, consent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

imperative, consent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'imperative, consent'.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 means that his plans were disturbed by a crucial message from the king, who ordered him not to return to Mysore without her assent.
  • Statement 2 means that the events which were taking place in the Himalayas made it essential to send home a part of the army of Sikhs, and Media gave his assent for the same.
  • The meaning of the words given in option (5):
  • imperative: of vital importance (अत्यंत महत्त्वपूर्ण)
  • Example - It is imperative that standards are maintained.
  • consent: permission for something to happen or agreement to do something (कुछ होने की अनुमति या कुछ करने के लिए समझौता)
  • Example - He was charged with taking cars without consent.
  • From the given explanation, we can understand that option (5) is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (5).

Complete sentences:

His plans, probably not very definite, were disturbed by an imperative message from the King, ordering him not to return to Mysore without her consent.

The events which were taking place in the Himalayas made it imperative to send home a part of the army of Sikhs, and Media gave his consent for the same.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn the meaning of some difficult words given in options:
  • inconsequential: not important or significant (महत्वपूर्ण या महत्वपूर्ण नहीं है)
  • Example - They talked about inconsequential things.
  • deterrence: the action of discouraging an action or event (किसी क्रिया या घटना को हतोत्साहित करने का कार्य)
  • Example - Nuclear missiles remain the main deterrence against possible aggression.
  • injunction: an authoritative warning or order (एक आधिकारिक चेतावनी या आदेश)
  • Example - A hearing on an injunction is planned for Dec. 9.
  • dispensable: able to be replaced or done without (प्रतिस्थापित करने या बिना किए जाने में सक्षम)
  • Example - The captain's loss of form made him dispensable.

Question 149

Direction: In the question below, there are two statements. Each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

The question that had _____ Ashoka on the Triambak hill and all that day now seemed to him quite clear and completely _____. 

For the ancients, these _____ questions were _____ by a belief in the direct participation of the Deity in human affairs.

  1. AOption (a)

    baffled, unsettled

  2. BOption (b)

    perturbed, solved

  3. COption (c)

    procrastinated, mystery

  4. DOption (d)

    answered, tangled

  5. EOption (e)

    flustered, vague

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

perturbed, solved

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'perturbed, solved'.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 means that the question that had troubled Ashoka on Triambak hill is now seemed completely solved.
  • Statement 2 means that for the ancients these confusing questions were solved by a belief in the direct participation of the Deity in human affairs.
  • The meaning of the words given in option (2):
  • perturbed: make (someone) anxious or unsettled ((किसी को) चिंतित या परेशान करना)
  • Example - They were perturbed by her capricious behavior.
  • solved: find an answer to (इसका उत्तर ढूंढे)
  • Example - The policy could solve the town's housing crisis.
  • From the given explanation, we can understand that option (2) is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Complete sentences:

The question that had perturbed Ashoka on the Triambak hill and all that day now seemed to him quite clear and completely solved. 

For the ancients, these perturbed questions were solved by a belief in the direct participation of the Deity in human affairs.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn the meaning of some difficult words given in options:
  • baffled: totally bewilder or perplex (पूरी तरह से घबराहट या उलझन में)
  • Example - An unexplained occurrence that baffled everyone.
  • procrastinated: delay or postpone action (कार्रवाई में देरी या स्थगित करना)
  • Example - The temptation will be to procrastinate until the power struggle plays itself out.
  • tangled: complicated and confused (जटिल और उलझन में)
  • Example - The tangled relationships between Ryan and Marissa.
  • flustered: agitated or confused (उत्तेजित या उलझन में)
  • Example - I found myself starting to feel hot and flustered.

Question 150

Direction: In the question below, there are two statements. Each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fit both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct.

Some of the employees, in their _____ to win the business of wealthy Indians with a _____ for fibbing to the taxman, seem to have confused discretion with spy craft.

There will always be some employees with the _____ to pursue profits with minimal regard for larger social consequences; however, this _____ need not be fashionable.

  1. AOption (a)

    sloth, propensity

  2. BOption (b)

    ​lethargy, druthers

  3. COption (c)

    zeal, predilection

  4. DOption (d)

    competition, antipathy

  5. EOption (e)

    enthusiasm, animosity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

zeal, predilection

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'zeal, predilection'.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 means the employees in their passion to win the business of wealthy Indians with a liking for lying to the taxman seem to have confused discretion with spy craft.
  • Statement 2 means that there will always be some employees with the passion to pursue profits with minimal regard for people, which should be avoided.
  • The meaning of the words given in option (3):
  • zeal: great energy or enthusiasm in pursuit of a cause or an objective (किसी कारण या उद्देश्य की खोज में महान ऊर्जा या उत्साह)
  • Example - Laura brought missionary zeal to her work.
  • predilection: a preference or special liking for something (किसी चीज़ के लिए वरीयता या विशेष पसंद)
  • Example - My predilection for Asian food.
  • From the given explanation, we can understand that option (3) is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

Complete sentences: 

Some of the employees, in their zeal to win the business of wealthy Indians with a predilection for fibbing to the taxman, seem to have confused discretion with spy craft.

There will always be some employees with the zeal to pursue profits with minimal regard for larger social consequences; however, this predilection need not be fashionable.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn the meaning of some difficult words given in options:
  • sloth: reluctance to work or make an effort (काम करने या प्रयास करने में अनिच्छा)
  • Example - He should overcome his natural sloth and complacency.
  • propensity: an inclination or natural tendency to behave in a particular way (एक विशे��� तरीके से व्यवहार करने के लिए एक झुकाव या प्राकृतिक प्रवृत्ति)
  • Example - Their innate propensity to attack one another.
  • lethargy: Lethargy is a state of tiredness (सुस्ती थकान की स्थिति है)
  • Example - A soothing lethargy crept over him.
  • druthers: one's preference in a matter (एक मामले में किसी की वरीयता)
  • Example - If I had my druthers, I would prefer to be a writer.
  • antipathy:  a deep-seated feeling of aversion (घृणा की गहरी बैठी भावना)
  • Example - Mitchell's antipathy to cats.
  • animosity: strong hostility (मजबूत दुश्मनी)
  • Example - He no longer felt any animosity towards her.

Directions: Read the following sentences carefully. Identify the sentence that does not belong to the coherent paragraph when arranged in a logical sequence. Once identified, rearrange the remaining sentences to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph, and answer the following questions.

A. Ongoing research endeavours encompass a comprehensive exploration of herbal remedies aimed at addressing multifaceted health issues; however, their efficacy in combating HIV remains indeterminate despite promising initial findings.

B. Although newer treatments and long-acting therapies show promise, the delay in adopting these innovations poses a significant risk of exacerbating the HIV pandemic, impeding progress towards the ultimate goal of ending AIDS worldwide.

C. However, despite remarkable scientific advancements, the ongoing spread of HIV persists due to delayed implementation of preventive interventions and the absence of PrEP in certain regions, hindering containment efforts.

D. To combat this ongoing public health challenge effectively, a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely implementation of available tools is imperative to finally eliminate the scourge of AIDS from our societies.

E. The ambitious target of achieving 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression among people living with HIV by 2025 remains unmet, highlighting the urgent need for swift and comprehensive program implementation on a global scale.

F. Effective antiretroviral therapies have revolutionized HIV management, preventing viral multiplication, reducing opportunistic infections, and saving over 21 million lives globally, enabling those infected to lead relatively normal lives.

Question 151

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which sentence (after the final rearrangement) underscores the pressing necessity for the rapid and all-encompassing implementation of programs worldwide?

  1. AOption (a)

    First

  2. BOption (b)

    Second

  3. COption (c)

    Fourth

  4. DOption (d)

    Fifth

  5. EOption (e)

    Third

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Third

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • The paragraph addresses the persistent challenge of HIV spread despite medical advancements and the need for comprehensive action.
  • Sentence F is the first sentence as it initiates the paragraph by highlighting the significant impact of effective antiretroviral therapies in revolutionizing HIV management and saving millions of lives.
  • Sentence C is the second sentence as it follows F, acknowledging persistent HIV spread due to delayed interventions and the absence of preventive measures in certain regions.
  • Sentence E is the third sentence, following C, stressing the urgency of swift and comprehensive program implementation to achieve the ambitious 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression target by 2025.
  • Sentence B is the fourth sentence and it addresses the risk posed by the delay in adopting newer treatments and therapies, hindering progress toward ending AIDS worldwide.
  • Sentence D is the last sentence, it concludes the paragraph, advocating for a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely tools implementation as imperative to eliminate AIDS globally.
  • The correct sequence is FCEBD.
  • After the rearrangement, the sentence that underscores the pressing necessity for the rapid and all-encompassing implementation of programs worldwide is the third sentence (Sentence E), stressing the urgent need for swift and comprehensive program implementation on a global scale to achieve the unmet target for HIV diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Third."

 

Additional Information

​Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Effective antiretroviral therapies have revolutionized HIV management, preventing viral multiplication, reducing opportunistic infections, and saving over 21 million lives globally, enabling those infected to lead relatively normal lives. However, despite remarkable scientific advancements, the ongoing spread of HIV persists due to delayed implementation of preventive interventions and the absence of PrEP in certain regions, hindering containment efforts. The ambitious target of achieving 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression among people living with HIV by 2025 remains unmet, highlighting the urgent need for swift and comprehensive program implementation on a global scale. Although newer treatments and long-acting therapies show promise, the delay in adopting these innovations poses a significant risk of exacerbating the HIV pandemic, impeding progress towards the ultimate goal of ending AIDS worldwide. To combat this ongoing public health challenge effectively, a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely implementation of available tools is imperative to finally eliminate the scourge of AIDS from our societies."

Question 152

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following does not belong to the coherent paragraph when arranged in a logical sequence?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The paragraph addresses the persistent challenge of HIV spread despite medical advancements and the need for comprehensive action.
  • Sentence F is the first sentence as it initiates the paragraph by highlighting the significant impact of effective antiretroviral therapies in revolutionizing HIV management and saving millions of lives.
  • Sentence C is the second sentence as it follows F, acknowledging persistent HIV spread due to delayed interventions and the absence of preventive measures in certain regions.
  • Sentence E is the third sentence, following C, stressing the urgency of swift and comprehensive program implementation to achieve the ambitious 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression target by 2025.
  • Sentence B is the fourth sentence and it addresses the risk posed by the delay in adopting newer treatments and therapies, hindering progress toward ending AIDS worldwide.
  • Sentence D is the last sentence, it concludes the paragraph, advocating for a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely tools implementation as imperative to eliminate AIDS globally.
  • The correct sequence is FCEBD.
  • Sentence A, however, discussing ongoing research on herbal remedies' efficacy in combating HIV, does not fit within this coherent sequence. While it acknowledges research efforts, it diverts from the discussion on current challenges, interventions, and strategies related to HIV management.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is A.

 

Additional Information

​​​Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Effective antiretroviral therapies have revolutionized HIV management, preventing viral multiplication, reducing opportunistic infections, and saving over 21 million lives globally, enabling those infected to lead relatively normal lives. However, despite remarkable scientific advancements, the ongoing spread of HIV persists due to delayed implementation of preventive interventions and the absence of PrEP in certain regions, hindering containment efforts. The ambitious target of achieving 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression among people living with HIV by 2025 remains unmet, highlighting the urgent need for swift and comprehensive program implementation on a global scale. Although newer treatments and long-acting therapies show promise, the delay in adopting these innovations poses a significant risk of exacerbating the HIV pandemic, impeding progress towards the ultimate goal of ending AIDS worldwide. To combat this ongoing public health challenge effectively, a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely implementation of available tools is imperative to finally eliminate the scourge of AIDS from our societies."

Question 153

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What can be concluded from the FOURTH sentence (after final rearrangement) in the correct sequence?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fulfillment of the 95% HIV diagnosis, treatment, and suppression target demands immediate global, comprehensive action.

  2. BOption (b)

    Antiretroviral therapies transformed HIV care, curbing spread and empowering millions to live healthier lives.

  3. COption (c)

    Implementing comprehensive strategies is vital to eradicate AIDS and empower affected communities worldwide.

  4. DOption (d)

    Failure to swiftly adopt new HIV treatments risks worsening the pandemic, hindering global AIDS eradication.

  5. EOption (e)

    Persisting HIV spread due to delayed interventions and absent PrEP hampers containment.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Failure to swiftly adopt new HIV treatments risks worsening the pandemic, hindering global AIDS eradication.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • The paragraph addresses the persistent challenge of HIV spread despite medical advancements and the need for comprehensive action.
  • Sentence F is the first sentence as it initiates the paragraph by highlighting the significant impact of effective antiretroviral therapies in revolutionizing HIV management and saving millions of lives.
  • Sentence C is the second sentence as it follows F, acknowledging persistent HIV spread due to delayed interventions and the absence of preventive measures in certain regions.
  • Sentence E is the third sentence, following C, stressing the urgency of swift and comprehensive program implementation to achieve the ambitious 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression target by 2025.
  • Sentence B is the fourth sentence and it addresses the risk posed by the delay in adopting newer treatments and therapies, hindering progress toward ending AIDS worldwide.
  • Sentence D is the last sentence, it concludes the paragraph, advocating for a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely tools implementation as imperative to eliminate AIDS globally.
  • The correct sequence is FCEBD.
  • The fourth sentence, "Although newer treatments and long-acting therapies show promise, the delay in adopting these innovations poses a significant risk of exacerbating the HIV pandemic, impeding progress towards the ultimate goal of ending AIDS worldwide," underscores how the delay in adopting new HIV treatments poses a risk of worsening the pandemic, thus hindering global efforts to eradicate AIDS.
  • So, the inference aligns with option 4, emphasizing that failure to swiftly adopt new HIV treatments risks worsening the pandemic and hindering global AIDS eradication efforts.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Failure to swiftly adopt new HIV treatments risks worsening the pandemic, hindering global AIDS eradication."

 

Additional Information

​​Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Effective antiretroviral therapies have revolutionized HIV management, preventing viral multiplication, reducing opportunistic infections, and saving over 21 million lives globally, enabling those infected to lead relatively normal lives. However, despite remarkable scientific advancements, the ongoing spread of HIV persists due to delayed implementation of preventive interventions and the absence of PrEP in certain regions, hindering containment efforts. The ambitious target of achieving 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression among people living with HIV by 2025 remains unmet, highlighting the urgent need for swift and comprehensive program implementation on a global scale. Although newer treatments and long-acting therapies show promise, the delay in adopting these innovations poses a significant risk of exacerbating the HIV pandemic, impeding progress towards the ultimate goal of ending AIDS worldwide. To combat this ongoing public health challenge effectively, a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely implementation of available tools is imperative to finally eliminate the scourge of AIDS from our societies."

Question 154

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following pairs represent the SECOND and FIFTH sentences in the correct arrangement?

  1. AOption (a)

    AB

  2. BOption (b)

    CD

  3. COption (c)

    EA

  4. DOption (d)

    DC

  5. EOption (e)

    BC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The paragraph addresses the persistent challenge of HIV spread despite medical advancements and the need for comprehensive action.
  • Sentence F is the first sentence as it initiates the paragraph by highlighting the significant impact of effective antiretroviral therapies in revolutionizing HIV management and saving millions of lives.
  • Sentence C is the second sentence as it follows F, acknowledging persistent HIV spread due to delayed interventions and the absence of preventive measures in certain regions.
  • Sentence E is the third sentence, following C, stressing the urgency of swift and comprehensive program implementation to achieve the ambitious 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression target by 2025.
  • Sentence B is the fourth sentence and it addresses the risk posed by the delay in adopting newer treatments and therapies, hindering progress toward ending AIDS worldwide.
  • Sentence D is the last sentence, it concludes the paragraph, advocating for a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely tools implementation as imperative to eliminate AIDS globally.
  • The correct sequence is FCEBD.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "CD."

 

Additional Information

​​Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Effective antiretroviral therapies have revolutionized HIV management, preventing viral multiplication, reducing opportunistic infections, and saving over 21 million lives globally, enabling those infected to lead relatively normal lives. However, despite remarkable scientific advancements, the ongoing spread of HIV persists due to delayed implementation of preventive interventions and the absence of PrEP in certain regions, hindering containment efforts. The ambitious target of achieving 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression among people living with HIV by 2025 remains unmet, highlighting the urgent need for swift and comprehensive program implementation on a global scale. Although newer treatments and long-acting therapies show promise, the delay in adopting these innovations poses a significant risk of exacerbating the HIV pandemic, impeding progress towards the ultimate goal of ending AIDS worldwide. To combat this ongoing public health challenge effectively, a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely implementation of available tools is imperative to finally eliminate the scourge of AIDS from our societies."

Question 155

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following titles best fits the paragraph?

  1. AOption (a)

    Importance of Youth Empowerment in HIV Education and Prevention

  2. BOption (b)

    The Intersection of Mental Health and HIV Care: Addressing Complexities

  3. COption (c)

    Addressing Global HIV Challenges: Holistic Strategies for Eradication

  4. DOption (d)

    Social Stigma and HIV: Breaking Barriers in Communities Worldwide

  5. EOption (e)

    Cultural Shifts: Addressing HIV Challenges Through Diversity and Inclusion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Addressing Global HIV Challenges: Holistic Strategies for Eradication

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The paragraph addresses the persistent challenge of HIV spread despite medical advancements and the need for comprehensive action.
  • Sentence F is the first sentence as it initiates the paragraph by highlighting the significant impact of effective antiretroviral therapies in revolutionizing HIV management and saving millions of lives.
  • Sentence C is the second sentence as it follows F, acknowledging persistent HIV spread due to delayed interventions and the absence of preventive measures in certain regions.
  • Sentence E is the third sentence, following C, stressing the urgency of swift and comprehensive program implementation to achieve the ambitious 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression target by 2025.
  • Sentence B is the fourth sentence and it addresses the risk posed by the delay in adopting newer treatments and therapies, hindering progress toward ending AIDS worldwide.
  • Sentence D is the last sentence, it concludes the paragraph, advocating for a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely tools implementation as imperative to eliminate AIDS globally.
  • The correct sequence is FCEBD.
  • Coherent paragraph after rearrangement: "Effective antiretroviral therapies have revolutionized HIV management, preventing viral multiplication, reducing opportunistic infections, and saving over 21 million lives globally, enabling those infected to lead relatively normal lives. However, despite remarkable scientific advancements, the ongoing spread of HIV persists due to delayed implementation of preventive interventions and the absence of PrEP in certain regions, hindering containment efforts. The ambitious target of achieving 95% diagnosis, treatment, and viral suppression among people living with HIV by 2025 remains unmet, highlighting the urgent need for swift and comprehensive program implementation on a global scale. Although newer treatments and long-acting therapies show promise, the delay in adopting these innovations poses a significant risk of exacerbating the HIV pandemic, impeding progress towards the ultimate goal of ending AIDS worldwide. To combat this ongoing public health challenge effectively, a holistic strategy integrating diagnostics, treatment, care, community involvement, and timely implementation of available tools is imperative to finally eliminate the scourge of AIDS from our societies."
  • After thoroughly reading and understanding the coherent paragraph after rearrangement, we can conclude that this paragraph focuses on the challenges, unmet targets, and the urgency of a comprehensive strategy to combat HIV/AIDS effectively.
  • So, the most suitable title among the options provided is "Addressing Global HIV Challenges: Holistic Strategies for Eradication" as it encapsulates the essence of combating HIV through comprehensive strategies and eradication efforts.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Addressing Global HIV Challenges: Holistic Strategies for Eradication."

155 questions in the full paper