Previous Year Paper

RRB Technician Grade III Official Paper (Held On: 24 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

100 questions90 minutes
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

A shopkeeper offered successive discounts of 10% and 15% on an article with the marked price of Rs. 28,000. Find the selling price of the article. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 21,402

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 22,140

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 21,240

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 21,420

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 21,420

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net multiplier for successive discounts of 10% and 15% = 0.90 × 0.85 = 0.765

Selling Price = Marked Price × Net multiplier

⇒ SP = 28,000 × 0.765

⇒ SP = 21,420

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 21,420.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 28,000

First Discount (d1) = 10%

Second Discount (d2) = 15%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 − d1/100) × (1 − d2/100)

Calculations:

⇒ Price after 1st discount = 28,000 − (10% of 28,000)

⇒ Price after 1st discount = 28,000 − 2,800 = Rs. 25,200

⇒ Selling Price = 25,200 − (15% of 25,200)

⇒ SP = 25,200 − (15/100 × 25,200)

⇒ SP = 25,200 − 3,780

⇒ SP = Rs. 21,420

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 21,420.

Additional Information

Single Equivalent Discount

For two successive discounts of x% and y%, the single equivalent discount is calculated as (x + y − xy/100)%.

Relationship between MP and SP

Selling Price = Marked Price × (100 − Discount%)/100. Discounts are always calculated on the Marked Price unless stated otherwise.

Successive Percentage Change

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 ± r1/100) × (1 ± r2/100), where r represents the rate of increase (+) or decrease (−).

Question 2

Evaluate the given expression. 

{15 × 32 ÷ 2 × 5} ÷ 75

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16

Why this answer is correct

Given:

{15 × 32 ÷ 2 × 5} ÷ 75

Formula used:

BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

Calculations:

{15 × 32 ÷ 2 × 5} ÷ 75

⇒ {15 × 16 × 5} ÷ 75

⇒ {240 × 5} ÷ 75

⇒ 1200 ÷ 75

⇒ 16

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 3

Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 7 0 6 0 6 7 7 2 7 6 1 5 0 1 9 2 9 2 2 6 5 9 2 4 0 0 7 7 3 8 (Right)

What is the sum of the 5th digit from the left and the 10th digit from the right?

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11

Why this answer is correct

Given series: (Left) 7 0 6 0 6 7 7 2 7 6 1 5 0 1 9 2 9 2 2 6 5 9 2 4 0 0 7 7 3 8 (Right)

According to the question, sum of the 5th digit from the left and the 10th digit from the right: (Left) 7 0 6 0 6 7 7 2 7 6 1 5 0 1 9 2 9 2 2 6 5 9 2 4 0 0 7 7 3 8 (Right) → 6 + 5 = 11

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 4

If glucose :: six-carbon molecule, then pyruvate :: _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    four-carbon molecule 

  2. BOption (b)

    three-carbon molecule 

  3. COption (c)

    five-carbon molecule  

  4. DOption (d)

    two-carbon molecule 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

three-carbon molecule 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Three-carbon molecule.

Key Points

  • Pyruvate is a three-carbon molecule produced during glycolysis as the end product of glucose metabolism.
  • It is a crucial intermediate compound in cellular respiration, leading to further metabolic processes like the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) in aerobic conditions.
  • Pyruvate can be converted into lactate in anaerobic conditions (lactic acid fermentation) or into acetyl-CoA in the presence of oxygen.
  • Pyruvate plays an essential role in both energy production and metabolic pathways in cells, especially in tissues like muscles.
  • It is produced from glucose, a six-carbon molecule, after a series of enzymatic reactions in the cytoplasm during glycolysis.

Additional Information

  • Glycolysis
  • It is a set of reactions that converts glucose to pyruvate or lactate.
  • Glycolysis is the primary step of cellular respiration.
  • Glycolysis is followed by the Krebs cycle during aerobic respiration.

Question 5

In July 2024, the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee was held in which of the following locations? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jaipur 

  2. BOption (b)

    Indore 

  3. COption (c)

    New Delhi 

  4. DOption (d)

    Bengaluru  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

New Delhi 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

  • The World Heritage Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention.
  • The Committee defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties.
  • In July 2024, the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee was held in New Delhi, India.
  • New Delhi is the capital city of India and is known for its rich cultural heritage and significant historical landmarks.
  • The hosting of the session in New Delhi highlights India's commitment to preserving and promoting its cultural and natural heritage.

 Additional Information

  • Jaipur
  • Jaipur, also known as the Pink City, is the capital of the Indian state of Rajasthan.
  • It is famous for its palaces, forts, and vibrant culture.
  • Jaipur is a major tourist destination and has been recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • Indore
  • Indore is the largest city in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is known for its educational institutions, commercial activity, and vibrant food culture.
  • Indore has consistently ranked as one of the cleanest cities in India.
  • Bengaluru
  • Bengaluru (also known as Bangalore) is the capital of the Indian state of Karnataka.
  • It is known as the Silicon Valley of India due to its role as the nation's leading information technology (IT) exporter.
  • Bengaluru is known for its pleasant climate, parks, and nightlife.

Question 6

The traffic lights at three different crossings turn red after every 30 sec, 45 sec and 60 sec, respectively. If they all tum red simultaneously at 8:30 a.m., then at what time will they again turn red simultaneously? 

  1. AOption (a)

    8:33 a.m.  

  2. BOption (b)

    8:35 a.m.  

  3. COption (c)

    8:38 a.m. 

  4. DOption (d)

    8:34 a.m. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8:33 a.m.  

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Find the LCM of the given time intervals: 30, 45, and 60.

LCM(30, 45, 60) = 180 seconds.

Convert 180 seconds to minutes: 180 ÷ 60 = 3 minutes.

Add the interval to the initial time: 8:30 a.m. + 3 minutes = 8:33 a.m.

∴ The correct answer is 8:33 a.m.

Alternate Method

Given: Intervals are 30 sec, 45 sec, and 60 sec. Starting time = 8:30 a.m.

Formula: Simultaneous occurrence time = LCM of individual intervals.

⇒ Prime factors of 30 = 2 × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 45 = 32 × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 60 = 22 × 3 × 5

⇒ LCM = 22 × 32 × 5 = 4 × 9 × 5 = 180 seconds

⇒ 180 seconds = 180 ÷ 60 minutes = 3 minutes

⇒ Next simultaneous time = 8:30:00 + 0:03:00 = 8:33 a.m.

∴ The correct answer is 8:33 a.m.

Additional Information

LCM Application

LCM (Least Common Multiple) is used to find the first instance when multiple periodic events with different frequencies occur at the same time.

Time Conversion

Always ensure all units are consistent. 60 seconds = 1 minute and 60 minutes = 1 hour.

Successive Occurrences

To find the nth simultaneous occurrence, use the formula: Start Time + (n × LCM).

Question 7

The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles gives rise to:  

  1. AOption (a)

    Tyndall effect 

  2. BOption (b)

    delay in sunset  

  3. COption (c)

    twinkling of stars 

  4. DOption (d)

    rainbow 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tyndall effect 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tyndall effect.

Key Points

  • The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by particles in a colloid or in a very fine suspension.
  • This phenomenon is named after the 19th-century physicist John Tyndall.
  • The effect is used to distinguish between colloidal and true solutions.
  • When a beam of light passes through a colloid, the particles in the colloid scatter the light, making the light beam visible. This is the Tyndall effect.
  • This scattering is more pronounced when the particles are large compared to the wavelength of the light.
  • Examples of the Tyndall effect include the visibility of beams of sunlight in misty or dusty air and the light scattered by the particles in a colloidal solution.

 Additional Information

  • Delay in sunset
  • The delay in sunset is caused by the refraction of light in the Earth's atmosphere.
  • As the Sun sets, its light passes through more of the Earth's atmosphere, which bends the light and makes the Sun appear higher in the sky than it actually is.
  • Twinkling of stars
  • The twinkling of stars is caused by the atmospheric turbulence that refracts the light from stars in different directions.
  • This phenomenon is also known as stellar scintillation.
  • Rainbow
  • A rainbow is caused by the dispersion of light in water droplets, resulting in a spectrum of light appearing in the sky.
  • This phenomenon involves reflection, refraction, and dispersion of light.

Question 8

Which city of India was host of ITU’s prestigious World Telecom Standardization Assembly (WTSA 2024)?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Jaipur 

  2. BOption (b)

    Chandigarh  

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata 

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

New Delhi 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

  • World Telecom Standardization Assembly (WTSA) is a prestigious event organized by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
  • The WTSA event is held every four years and defines the next period of study for the ITU-T (International Telecommunication Union - Telecommunication Standardization Sector).
  • New Delhi being the capital city of India, often hosts such significant international events due to its strategic importance and robust infrastructure.
  • The assembly brings together experts from around the world to discuss and set telecommunication standards that will shape the future of global communications.
  • The event in New Delhi underscores India's growing influence and active participation in the global telecommunications sector.
  • Hosting WTSA 2024 in New Delhi aligns with India's goal to become a leader in information and communication technology (ICT).

 Additional Information

  • Jaipur
  • Jaipur is known as the Pink City and is a major tourist destination in India.
  • It is famous for its rich cultural heritage, including historical palaces and forts.
  • While Jaipur hosts various national and regional conferences, it is less likely to host major international telecommunication events compared to New Delhi.
  • Chandigarh
  • Chandigarh is a union territory and serves as the capital of both Punjab and Haryana.
  • It is known for its modern architecture and urban planning, designed by the Swiss-French architect Le Corbusier.
  • Though a significant city, it is not a common choice for hosting large-scale international events like the WTSA.
  • Kolkata
  • Kolkata, formerly known as Calcutta, is the capital of the Indian state of West Bengal.
  • It is known for its rich cultural and literary heritage, including being the home of the famous poet Rabindranath Tagore.
  • While Kolkata is a major city with significant historical importance, New Delhi's strategic position as the capital gives it an edge in hosting international events like WTSA.

Question 9

What sum of money will amount to Rs. 1,116 at 4% per annum simple interest in 6 years? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 800

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 700

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 900

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 900

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In Simple Interest, Total % Interest = Rate × Time.

Total Interest = 4% × 6 = 24%.

Amount % = Principal (100%) + Interest (24%) = 124%.

124% = ₹1,116 ⇒ 1% = 9 ⇒ 100% = ₹900.

∴ The correct answer is ₹900.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹1,116

Rate (R) = 4% per annum

Time (T) = 6 years

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + (R × T) ÷ 100)

Calculations:

⇒ 1,116 = P × (1 + (4 × 6) ÷ 100)

⇒ 1,116 = P × (1 + 24 ÷ 100)

⇒ 1,116 = P × (124 ÷ 100)

⇒ P = (1,116 × 100) ÷ 124

⇒ P = 9 × 100

⇒ P = ₹900

∴ The correct answer is ₹900.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

The basic formula for SI is (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where P is Principal, R is Rate, and T is Time.

Difference between SI and CI

In Simple Interest, interest is calculated only on the principal, whereas in Compound Interest, interest is calculated on the principal plus the accumulated interest.

Relationship between Amount and Principal

Amount (A) is always the sum of Principal (P) and Interest (I). i.e., A = P + I.

Question 10

Which party formed the government in Odisha after the 2024 Assembly elections?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharatiya Janata Party 

  2. BOption (b)

    Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) 

  3. COption (c)

    Janata Dal (United) 

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian National Congress 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bharatiya Janata Party 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatiya Janata Party.

Key Points

  • The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) is one of the two major political parties in India, along with the Indian National Congress.
  • The BJP's political ideology is centered around Hindutva, which seeks to promote Hindu values and culture.
  • The party was founded in 1980 as the political wing of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS).
  • It has been in power in various states and at the central level multiple times, with significant electoral victories in recent years.
  • The BJP is known for its focus on economic reforms, national security, and infrastructure development.
  • In the 2024 Assembly elections in Odisha, the BJP managed to secure a majority and formed the government.

 Additional Information

  • Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)
  • The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) was founded in 2012 by Arvind Kejriwal and other social activists.
  • The party emerged from the India Against Corruption movement and focuses on issues like anti-corruption, education, and healthcare.
  • AAP has a significant presence in Delhi, where it has formed the government multiple times.
  • Janata Dal (United)
  • Janata Dal (United) is a center-left political party primarily active in the state of Bihar.
  • The party was formed in 1999 through the merger of the Janata Dal factions and is led by Nitish Kumar.
  • JD(U) emphasizes social justice, secularism, and regional development.
  • Indian National Congress
  • The Indian National Congress is one of the oldest political parties in India, founded in 1885.
  • The party played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement against British rule.
  • Congress has a center-left political stance, focusing on social justice, economic development, and secularism.

Question 11

If 30% of a number exceeds 20% of it by 12, then the number is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    150

  3. COption (c)

    200

  4. DOption (d)

    180

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

120

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the number be 100%.

Difference in percentages = 30% − 20% = 10%.

Given, 10% of the number = 12.

So, 100% of the number = 12 × 10 = 120.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Alternate Method

Given:

First percentage = 30%

Second percentage = 20%

Difference value = 12

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

⇒ (30/100) × x − (20/100) × x = 12

⇒ (10/100) × x = 12

⇒ 0.1x = 12

⇒ x = 12 ÷ 0.1

⇒ x = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Additional Information

Percentage Difference

When comparing two percentages of the same base, the absolute difference in value is equal to the difference in percentages multiplied by the base value (Number × (P1% − P2%) = Difference).

Base Value Concept

In percentage problems, the original number is always considered as 100% unless specified otherwise.

Question 12

________ broke the national record at the 2024 Portland Track Festival. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Avinash Sable 

  2. BOption (b)

    Muhammad Anas  

  3. COption (c)

    Jyoshna Sabar  

  4. DOption (d)

    Gulveer Singh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gulveer Singh 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Gulveer Singh.

Key Points

  • Gulveer Singh is an Indian track and field athlete.
  • He specializes in long-distance running.
  • Gulveer Singh has shown exceptional performance in various national and international events.
  • His record-breaking performance at the 2024 Portland Track Festival gained significant attention.
  • The Portland Track Festival is known for featuring elite athletes and providing a competitive platform for breaking records.

 Additional Information

  • Avinash Sable
  • Avinash Sable is an Indian track and field athlete specializing in 3,000 meters steeplechase.
  • He has represented India at various international competitions including the Olympics.
  • Muhammad Anas
  • Muhammad Anas is an Indian sprinter specializing in the 400 meters race.
  • He has set national records and represented India in multiple international events.
  • Jyoshna Sabar
  • Jyoshna Sabar is an emerging Indian athlete known for her performance in middle-distance running.
  • She has been a part of various national-level competitions.

Question 13

The value of 362 ÷ 92 + 42 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    36

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    49

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

32

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expression = 362 ÷ 92 + 42

Formula used:

BODMAS rule (Division then Addition)

(a ÷ b)n = an ÷ bn

Calculations:

362 ÷ 92 + 42

⇒ (36 ÷ 9)2 + 42

⇒ 42 + 42

⇒ 16 + 16

⇒ 32

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 14

Which of the following endocrine glands secretes growth hormone? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Pituitary 

  2. BOption (b)

    Thyroid 

  3. COption (c)

    Pancreas 

  4. DOption (d)

    Adrenal 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pituitary 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pituitary.

Key Points

  • The pituitary gland is a small, pea-shaped gland located at the base of the brain.
  • It is often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls several other hormone glands in the body, including the thyroid and adrenal glands.
  • The pituitary gland secretes growth hormone (GH), which is crucial for growth, cell repair, and metabolism.
  • Growth hormone stimulates growth in almost all tissues of the body, including bones and muscles.
  • The pituitary gland is divided into two parts: the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary. Growth hormone is produced in the anterior pituitary.

 Additional Information

  • Thyroid
  • The thyroid gland is located in the neck and produces hormones like thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) that regulate metabolism.
  • It plays a vital role in controlling the body's metabolic rate, heart and digestive functions, muscle control, brain development, and bone maintenance.
  • Pancreas
  • The pancreas is located behind the stomach and has both endocrine and exocrine functions.
  • It produces important hormones like insulin and glucagon which regulate blood sugar levels.
  • Adrenal
  • The adrenal glands are located on top of each kidney.
  • They produce a variety of hormones including adrenaline and cortisol which help regulate metabolism, immune response, blood pressure, and stress responses.

Question 15

The chemical reaction that carries hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst is called: 

  1. AOption (a)

    addition reaction 

  2. BOption (b)

    rearrangement reaction  

  3. COption (c)

    elimination reaction 

  4. DOption (d)

    combustion reaction 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

addition reaction 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is addition reaction.

Key Points

  • Hydrogenation is a chemical reaction between hydrogen (H2) and another compound or element.
  • This reaction typically occurs in the presence of a catalyst such as nickel (Ni).
  • In the case of vegetable oils, hydrogenation converts unsaturated fats to saturated fats by adding hydrogen atoms to the double bonds in the fatty acid chains.
  • This is an addition reaction because hydrogen atoms are being added to the molecules of the vegetable oil.
  • Vegetable oils typically contain unsaturated fatty acids which have one or more double bonds in their structure.
  • The process of hydrogenation makes the oils more solid at room temperature and increases their shelf life.
  • Hydrogenation is widely used in the food industry to produce margarines and shortenings.

 Additional Information

  • Rearrangement reaction
  • A rearrangement reaction involves the reorganization of the molecular structure of a compound.
  • It often results in a change in the connectivity of atoms within the molecule.
  • Rearrangement reactions are common in organic chemistry and are used to synthesize complex molecules.
  • Elimination reaction
  • An elimination reaction involves the removal of atoms or groups from a molecule, resulting in the formation of a double or triple bond.
  • This type of reaction is often the opposite of an addition reaction.
  • Examples include the formation of alkenes from alcohols.
  • Combustion reaction
  • A combustion reaction is a high-temperature exothermic redox chemical reaction between a fuel and an oxidant, producing oxidized products and releasing heat.
  • Common examples include the burning of hydrocarbons in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.

Question 16

The perimeter of a rhombus is 148 cm, and one of its diagonals is 24 cm. The area in cm2 of the rhombus is:

  1. AOption (a)

    840

  2. BOption (b)

    700

  3. COption (c)

    770

  4. DOption (d)

    875

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

840

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Side of rhombus (a) = Perimeter ÷ 4 = 148 ÷ 4 = 37 cm.

In a rhombus, the half-diagonals (d1/2, d2/2) and the side (a) form a Pythagorean triplet.

Half-diagonal 1 = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm. Using triplet (12, 35, 37), half-diagonal 2 = 35 cm.

Area = 2 × (d1/2 × d2/2) = 2 × 12 × 35 = 840 cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 840 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter = 148 cm, Diagonal 1 (d1) = 24 cm.

Formula Used: Side (a) = Perimeter ÷ 4; Area = (1/2) × d1 × d2; Relationship: a2 = (d1/2)2 + (d2/2)2.

⇒ Side (a) = 148 ÷ 4 = 37 cm

⇒ (d2/2)2 = a2 − (d1/2)2

⇒ (d2/2)2 = 372 − 122 = 1369 − 144 = 1225

⇒ d2/2 = √1225 = 35 cm ⇒ d2 = 70 cm

⇒ Area = (1/2) × 24 × 70 = 12 × 70 = 840 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 840 cm2.

Additional Information

Properties of Rhombus

All sides are equal and diagonals bisect each other at right angles (90°).

Area of Rhombus

Area = (1/2) × d1 × d2 or Area = base × height.

Side-Diagonal Relation

4a2 = d12 + d22, where 'a' is the side and d1, d2 are diagonals.

Question 17

Pipe R can empty a full tank in 30 hours. But two pipes P and Q can fill the tank in 15 hours and 10 hours, respectively. Ram unknowingly opened all three taps. After 2 hours Shyam realised it and closed Pipe R. Due to this mistake how much time more would it take to fill the tank?  

  1. AOption (a)

    24 min 

  2. BOption (b)

    18 min 

  3. COption (c)

    1 hour 20 min  

  4. DOption (d)

    2 hours 15 min 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

24 min 

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total work (LCM of 15, 10, 30) = 30 units.

Efficiencies: P = +2, Q = +3, R = −1. Combined (P+Q+R) = 4.

Work done in 2 hours = 4 × 2 = 8 units. Remaining = 30 − 8 = 22 units.

Time with P and Q only = 22 ÷ 5 = 4.4 hours (4 hr 24 min).

Time if R was never open = 30 ÷ 5 = 6 hours. But from t=0, P+Q take 30/5 = 6 hours. After 2 hours, they would need 4 hours. Extra time = 4 hr 24 min − 4 hr = 24 min.

∴ The correct answer is 24 min.

Alternate Method

PipeTime (hrs)Total WorkEfficiency
Pipe P (Fill)1530 units+2
Pipe Q (Fill)10+3
Pipe R (Empty)30−1

⇒ Combined efficiency of P, Q and R = 2 + 3 − 1 = 4 units/hr

⇒ Work done in first 2 hours = 4 × 2 = 8 units

⇒ Remaining work = 30 − 8 = 22 units

⇒ After closing R, efficiency of (P + Q) = 2 + 3 = 5 units/hr

⇒ Actual time to complete remaining work = 22 ÷ 5 = 4.4 hours = 4 hours 24 minutes

⇒ Ideal time needed after 2 hours (if R was never open) = (30 − (5 × 2)) ÷ 5 = 20 ÷ 5 = 4 hours

⇒ Extra time taken = 4 hr 24 min − 4 hr = 24 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 24 min.

Additional Information

Negative Efficiency

In Pipes and Cisterns, an emptying pipe (leak) is always assigned a negative efficiency while a filling pipe is assigned a positive one.

Time and Work Relation

Efficiency × Time = Total Work. Total work is usually taken as the LCM of the individual time periods for easier calculation.

Extra Time Calculation

Extra time is the difference between the actual time taken to fill the tank and the scheduled time if no error/leak occurred.

Question 18

If 'A’ stands for ‘÷’, 'B’ stands for ‘+’, 'C’ stands for ‘×’ and 'D’ stands for ‘-’, what will come in place of the question mark '?' in the following equation? 

15 A 3 B 9 D 2 C 4 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6

Why this answer is correct

Decoding letters:

LetterABCD
Stands for÷+×-

Given: 15 A 3 B 9 D 2 C 4 = ?

After interchanging the letters,

15 A 3 B 9 D 2 C 4 = ? ⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 9 - 2 × 4 = ?

⇒ 15 ÷ 3 + 9 - 2 × 4 = ?

⇒ 5 + 9 - 2 × 4 = ?

⇒ 5 + 9 - 8 = ?

⇒ 14 - 8 = ?

⇒ 6 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 19

The mean proportional of 25 and 36 is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Mean Proportional of a and b = √(a × b)

⇒ √(25 × 36)

⇒ 5 × 6 = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number (a) = 25

Second number (b) = 36

Formula Used:

If x is the mean proportional between a and b, then a : x :: x : b

⇒ x2 = a × b

Calculations:

⇒ x2 = 25 × 36

⇒ x = √(25 × 36)

⇒ x = √(900)

⇒ x = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Additional Information

Third Proportional

For two numbers a and b, the third proportional c is such that a : b :: b : c, which gives c = b2 / a.

Fourth Proportional

For three numbers a, b, and c, the fourth proportional d is such that a : b :: c : d, which gives d = (b × c) / a.

Continued Proportion

Three quantities a, b, c are in continued proportion if a/b = b/c.

Question 20

Which of the following statements about the principal focus of a spherical mirror is/are correct?

(a) It always lies midway between the pole and the centre of curvature.

(b) Its position depends on the size of the mirror.

(c) It always lies at the centre of curvature.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a) and (b)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b) and (c)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (a)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only (a)

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Only (a).

Key Points

  • The principal focus of a spherical mirror is the point where rays of light parallel to the principal axis converge (in a concave mirror) or appear to diverge from (in a convex mirror) after reflection.
  • For a concave mirror, the principal focus lies midway between the pole (the center of the mirror's surface) and the center of curvature (the center of the sphere of which the mirror is a part).
  • The position of the principal focus does not depend on the size of the mirror. It is always at a fixed distance, which is half the radius of curvature (i.e., focal length = radius of curvature / 2).
  • For a convex mirror, the principal focus is also located midway between the pole and the center of curvature but appears to be behind the mirror.

 Additional Information

  • Its position depends on the size of the mirror
  • This statement is incorrect because the position of the principal focus is determined by the radius of curvature and not by the size of the mirror.
  • The focal length remains constant for a given mirror regardless of its size.
  • It always lies at the centre of curvature
  • This statement is incorrect because the principal focus is distinct from the center of curvature. The center of curvature is twice the distance from the mirror compared to the principal focus.

Question 21

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(2, 8, 32)

(5, 20, 80)

  1. AOption (a)

    (9, 36, 144)

  2. BOption (b)

    (9, 36, 124)

  3. COption (c)

    (9, 36, 142)

  4. DOption (d)

    (9, 39, 144)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(9, 36, 144)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given:

(2, 8, 32)

2 × 4 = 8

8 × 4 = 32

And,

(5, 20, 80)

5 × 4 = 20

20 × 4 = 80

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (9, 36, 144)

9 × 4 = 36

36 × 4 = 144

Option 2) (9, 36, 124)

9 × 4 = 36

36 × 4 = 124 ≠ 144

Option 3) (9, 36, 142)

9 × 4 = 36

36 × 4 = 142 ≠ 144

Option 4) (9, 39, 144)

9 × 4 = 36 ≠ 39

39 × 4 = 156 ≠ 144

Thus, out of all the options, '(9, 36, 144)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 22

The average of the first 10 natural numbers is:

  1. AOption (a)

    5.5

  2. BOption (b)

    6.5

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5.5

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For the average of first n natural numbers, the direct formula is (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Here, n = 10.

Average = (10 + 1) ÷ 2 = 11 ÷ 2 = 5.5.

∴ The correct answer is 5.5.

Alternate Method

Given: First 10 natural numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10.

Formula Used: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations

⇒ Sum = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 = 55

⇒ Total numbers = 10

⇒ Average = 55 ÷ 10

⇒ Average = 5.5

∴ The correct answer is 5.5.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by Sn = [n(n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Average of AP Series

For any sequence in Arithmetic Progression (AP), Average = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Average of Even/Odd Numbers

Average of first n even numbers is (n + 1). Average of first n odd numbers is n.

Question 23

In a certain code language,

‘A + B' means ‘A is the sister of B’,

'A - B' means ‘A is the husband of B’,

‘A × B' means ‘A is the mother of B'

and 'A ÷ B' means ‘A is the son of B’.

How is V related to T if 'S + T - U × V - W + X?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son's son

  2. BOption (b)

    Son

  3. COption (c)

    Brother 

  4. DOption (d)

    Father 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Son

Why this answer is correct

Decoding symbols:

A is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningSisterHusbandMotherSon
to B

Given: S + T - U × V - W + X

S + T → S is the sister of T.

T - U → T is the husband of U.

U × V → U is the mother of V.

V - W → V is the husband of W.

W + X → W is the sister of X.

Thus, V is T's son.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 24

A gas can be liquefied by _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    low pressure and high temperature 

  2. BOption (b)

    low pressure and low temperature 

  3. COption (c)

    high pressure and low temperature 

  4. DOption (d)

    high pressure and high temperature 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

high pressure and low temperature 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is high pressure and low temperature.

Key Points

  • Gases can be liquefied by increasing the pressure and decreasing the temperature.
  • Increasing the pressure forces gas molecules closer together, promoting the formation of a liquid phase.
  • Decreasing the temperature reduces the kinetic energy of the gas molecules, making it easier for intermolecular forces to hold the molecules together in a liquid state.
  • These principles are based on the Ideal Gas Law and Phase Diagrams which describe the state of matter under different conditions of pressure and temperature.
  • Liquefaction of gases is a fundamental process in the production and storage of liquefied natural gas (LNG), liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), and in the industrial gas industry.

 Additional Information

  • Low pressure and high temperature
  • Low pressure and high temperature conditions generally favor the formation of gases rather than liquids because the molecules have high kinetic energy and are far apart.
  • Low pressure and low temperature
  • While low temperature can support liquefaction, low pressure does not help in bringing molecules close together, making it ineffective for liquefying gases.
  • High pressure and high temperature
  • High pressure can promote liquefaction, but high temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules, counteracting the effects of high pressure.

Question 25

A pair of parallel lines is intersected by a transversal such that ∠1 and ∠2 form a pair of interior angles on the same side of the transversal. If m∠1 = 65°, what is the measure of ∠2?

  1. AOption (a)

    145°

  2. BOption (b)

    95°

  3. COption (c)

    65°

  4. DOption (d)

    115°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

115°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Interior angles on the same side of a transversal (consecutive interior angles) between parallel lines are always supplementary.

Sum = 180°

∠2 = 180° − 65° = 115°

∴ The correct answer is 115°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Lines are parallel.

m∠1 = 65°

∠1 and ∠2 are interior angles on the same side of the transversal.

Formula Used:

Sum of consecutive interior angles = 180°

Calculations:

⇒ m∠1 + m∠2 = 180°

⇒ 65° + m∠2 = 180°

⇒ m∠2 = 180° − 65°

⇒ m∠2 = 115°

∴ The correct answer is 115°.

Additional Information

Alternate Interior Angles

When parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, alternate interior angles are equal in measure.

Corresponding Angles

Angles in the same relative position at each intersection where a straight line crosses two others are equal if the lines are parallel.

Vertically Opposite Angles

When two lines intersect, the angles opposite each other at the vertex are always equal.

Question 26

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

Some doors are locks.

No lock is a key.

Conclusions:

(I) No door is a key.

(II) Some locks are doors.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions I and II follow 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion I follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion II follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) No door is a key → Does not follow (As some doors are locks and no lock is a key. As no direct relation is given between doors and key, therefore it is false)

(II) Some locks are doors → Follow (As some doors are locks. As some part of doors is common with locks, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 27

A sum of money is to be distributed among four members A, B, C, and D in the ratio 4 : 7 : 9 : 3. If C gets Rs. 720 more than D, find D's share.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 240

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 360

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 160

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 480

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 360

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of A : B : C : D = 4 : 7 : 9 : 3

Difference between C and D in ratio = 9 − 3 = 6 units

Given, 6 units = Rs. 720 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 120

D share = 3 units = 3 × 120 = Rs. 360

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 360.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of shares A : B : C : D = 4x : 7x : 9x : 3x

Difference between C share and D share = Rs. 720

⇒ 9x − 3x = 720

⇒ 6x = 720

⇒ x = 720 ÷ 6

⇒ x = 120

D share = 3x

⇒ 3 × 120 = 360

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 360.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion Basics

A ratio a:b represents the relative sizes of two quantities. If a total sum S is divided in ratio a:b:c, the share of the first person is (a / (a+b+c)) × S.

Difference Rule in Ratios

When the difference between two parts is given, equate the difference in ratio units to the actual value to find the value of 1 unit (x).

Total Sum Calculation

Total Sum = (Sum of all ratio parts) × Value of 1 unit. For this case: (4+7+9+3) × 120 = 23 × 120 = Rs. 2760.

Question 28

Select the INCORRECT pair.

  1. AOption (a)

    Paper cup - biodegradable 

  2. BOption (b)

    Plastic glass - non-biodegradable 

  3. COption (c)

    Vegetable - biodegradable

  4. DOption (d)

    Kulhad non-biodegradable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kulhad non-biodegradable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kulhad non-biodegradable.

Key Points

  • Biodegradable materials are those that can be broken down by natural processes and decomposed by microorganisms.
  • Kulhad is a traditional Indian cup made from clay, which is an eco-friendly and biodegradable material.
  • Since Kulhad is made from natural clay, it easily decomposes back into the soil, contributing to environmental sustainability.
  • Using Kulhad helps reduce the use of plastic and other non-biodegradable materials, thereby reducing environmental pollution.
  • In contrast, materials like plastic take hundreds of years to decompose and can cause significant environmental damage.

 Additional Information

  • Paper cup - biodegradable
  • Paper cups are typically made from wood pulp and are biodegradable.
  • They can decompose naturally and are often recyclable.
  • Plastic glass - non-biodegradable
  • Plastic glasses are made from synthetic polymers, which are non-biodegradable.
  • They can persist in the environment for hundreds of years, causing pollution.
  • Vegetable - biodegradable
  • Vegetables are organic and biodegradable.
  • They decompose naturally through the action of microorganisms.

Question 29

In human beings, air is taken into the body through the nostrils and from here the air passes through the throat and into the lungs. Which of the following ensures that the air-passage does NOT collapse in the throat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rings of cartilage

  2. BOption (b)

    Nostrils large hairs

  3. COption (c)

    Size of mouth cavity

  4. DOption (d)

    Nostrils large pores

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rings of cartilage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rings of cartilage.

Key Points

  • Rings of cartilage are present in the trachea, also known as the windpipe.
  • These rings are C-shaped structures that provide structural support to the trachea.
  • They prevent the trachea from collapsing and ensure that the airway remains open for air to pass through.
  • This structure is crucial for maintaining an unobstructed pathway for respiration.
  • Cartilage is a flexible but strong connective tissue that provides necessary rigidity while allowing some flexibility.

 Additional Information

  • Nostrils large hairs
  • Large hairs present in the nostrils filter out dust and other particles from the air before it enters the respiratory system.
  • They do not play a role in preventing the collapse of the air passage in the throat.
  • Size of mouth cavity
  • The size of the mouth cavity affects speech and chewing, but it does not influence the structural integrity of the air passage in the throat.
  • Nostrils large pores
  • The nostrils contain small pores that help in the passage of air and the filtering process, but they do not contribute to preventing the collapse of the air passage in the throat.

Question 30

Which of the following is a unit of pressure?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kelvin

  2. BOption (b)

    Pascal

  3. COption (c)

    Cubic metre

  4. DOption (d)

    Newton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pascal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pascal.

Key Points

  • Pascal (Pa) is the SI unit of pressure.
  • It is defined as one newton per square meter (N/m²).
  • Named after the French mathematician and physicist Blaise Pascal.
  • Commonly used to measure internal pressure, stress, Young's modulus, and ultimate tensile strength.
  • In everyday applications, kilopascal (kPa) is often used, where 1 kPa = 1000 Pa.
  • In meteorology, atmospheric pressure is often given in hectopascals (hPa), where 1 hPa = 100 Pa.

 Additional Information

  • Kelvin
  • Kelvin (K) is the SI unit of temperature.
  • It is one of the seven base units in the International System of Units (SI).
  • The Kelvin scale starts from absolute zero, the theoretical point where molecular motion ceases.
  • Cubic metre
  • Cubic metre (m³) is the SI unit of volume.
  • It is the volume of a cube with edges one metre in length.
  • Commonly used to measure the volume of liquids or gases.
  • Newton
  • Newton (N) is the SI unit of force.
  • It is named after Sir Isaac Newton in recognition of his work in classical mechanics.
  • Defined as the force required to accelerate a one-kilogram mass by one metre per second squared (m/s²).

Question 31

Unit of pressure is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Newton/meter

  2. BOption (b)

    Pascal

  3. COption (c)

    Newton

  4. DOption (d)

    Angstrom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pascal

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Pascal.

Key Points

  • The Pascal (Pa) is the SI unit of pressure.
  • It is defined as one newton per square meter (N/m²).
  • The unit is named after the French mathematician Blaise Pascal, who made significant contributions to fluid mechanics and the study of pressure.
  • It is widely used in various fields such as physics, engineering, and meteorology.
  • Common multiples of the Pascal include the hectopascal (hPa) and the kilopascal (kPa).

 Additional Information

  • Newton
  • The Newton (N) is the SI unit of force.
  • It is named after Sir Isaac Newton for his work on the laws of motion.
  • It is defined as the force required to accelerate a one-kilogram mass by one meter per second squared.
  • Angstrom
  • The Angstrom (Å) is a unit of length used primarily to express wavelengths of light.
  • One angstrom is equivalent to 10-10 meters or 0.1 nanometers.
  • It is named after the Swedish physicist Anders Jonas Ångström.

Question 32

Which of the following is the dispersed phase of butter?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only gas

  2. BOption (b)

    Only solid

  3. COption (c)

    Both solid and liquid

  4. DOption (d)

    Only liquid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only liquid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only liquid.

Key Points

  • Butter is an example of a colloid, specifically an emulsion.
  • In a colloidal system, the dispersed phase is the phase that is distributed in the form of very small particles or droplets throughout the bulk of another phase, known as the continuous phase.
  • In the case of butter, the continuous phase is solid fat.
  • The dispersed phase in butter is water, making it a liquid.
  • This means that the water droplets are dispersed throughout the solid fat.
  • Therefore, the dispersed phase of butter is only liquid.

 Additional Information

  • Only gas
  • In a colloidal system, if the dispersed phase is a gas, the colloid is typically termed as a foam.
  • An example of such a system is whipped cream, where air (gas) is dispersed in liquid cream.
  • Only solid
  • When the dispersed phase is a solid, such colloidal systems are known as sols or gels.
  • An example includes gelatin, where solid particles are dispersed in water.
  • Both solid and liquid
  • There are colloidal systems where both solid and liquid can be dispersed phases, but butter specifically has liquid as the dispersed phase.
  • An example of a system with both dispersed phases might be a complex colloid with multiple phases, but this is not the case with butter.

Question 33

An object of height 30 cm is placed in front of a concave lens and an image of height 10 cm is formed. The magnification of the lens is:

  1. AOption (a)

    -20

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    1/3

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1/3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1/3.

Key Points

  • Magnification is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
  • Magnification (m) = height of image (h') / height of object (h).
  • In this case, the height of the object (h) is 30 cm and the height of the image (h') is 10 cm.
  • Therefore, m = h' / h = 10 / 30.
  • This simplifies to m = 1 / 3, which is equivalent to 0.33.
  • Since this is a concave lens, the magnification will be negative.
  • Therefore, the magnification is -0.33.

 Additional Information

  • Concave Lens
  • A concave lens is a diverging lens that spreads out light rays that have been refracted through it.
  • It forms a virtual, upright, and diminished image of the object.
  • These lenses are used in eyeglasses for people with myopia (nearsightedness).
  • Magnification
  • Magnification is a measure of how much larger or smaller the image is compared to the object.
  • It is a dimensionless quantity.
  • The formula for magnification in lenses and mirrors is the same: m = h' / h or m = -v / u where v is the image distance and u is the object distance.

Question 34

The motion of a freely falling body is an example of a:

  1. AOption (a)

    uniformly accelerated motion

  2. BOption (b)

    uniform velocity motion

  3. COption (c)

    uniform speed motion

  4. DOption (d)

    non-uniformly accelerated motion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

uniformly accelerated motion

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is uniformly accelerated motion.

Key Points

  • A freely falling body is an object that is moving under the influence of gravity alone.
  • The acceleration due to gravity, denoted by 'g', is approximately 9.8 m/s² near the Earth's surface.
  • This acceleration is constant and acts vertically downwards.
  • As the body falls, its velocity increases uniformly because of this constant acceleration.
  • Thus, the motion of a freely falling body is an example of uniformly accelerated motion.
  • In uniformly accelerated motion, the velocity of the object changes at a constant rate.

 Additional Information

  • Uniform velocity motion
  • Uniform velocity motion refers to motion where an object moves with a constant speed in a straight line.
  • In this type of motion, there is no change in the speed or direction of the object.
  • Uniform speed motion
  • Uniform speed motion occurs when an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, regardless of the direction.
  • This differs from uniformly accelerated motion, where the speed changes due to acceleration.
  • Non-uniformly accelerated motion
  • Non-uniformly accelerated motion refers to motion where the rate of acceleration is not constant.
  • In such motion, the velocity of the object changes at a varying rate over time.

Question 35

Which of the following phenomena is the reason behind wearing cotton clothes in summer?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sublimation

  2. BOption (b)

    Condensation

  3. COption (c)

    Fusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Evaporation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Evaporation

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Evaporation.

Key Points

  • Evaporation is the process where liquid water is converted into water vapor by absorbing heat.
  • In summer, our bodies sweat to cool down, and the sweat evaporates, taking away heat from our body.
  • Cotton clothes are preferred in summer because they are light and breathable, allowing air to circulate and sweat to evaporate more easily.
  • This process of evaporation helps in maintaining the body’s natural temperature and prevents overheating.
  • Cotton being a natural fiber, absorbs sweat and allows it to evaporate quickly, providing a cooling effect.

 Additional Information

  • Sublimation
  • Sublimation is the process where a solid changes directly into a gas without passing through the liquid state.
  • This process is seen in substances like dry ice (solid carbon dioxide).
  • Condensation
  • Condensation is the process where water vapor turns back into liquid water.
  • This process is commonly observed when water droplets form on the outside of a cold glass.
  • Fusion
  • Fusion, also known as melting, is the process where a solid turns into a liquid by absorbing heat.
  • An example of this process is ice melting into water.

Question 36

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which pair does not belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    JN-IM

  2. BOption (b)

    RV-QU

  3. COption (c)

    PT-OS

  4. DOption (d)

    MQ-LO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MQ-LO

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) JN-IM

Option 2) RV-QU

Option 3) PT-OS

Option 4) MQ-LO

Thus, out of all the options 'MQ-LO' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 37

What was the theme of The Climate Conference 2024 held on 12 January 2024 in Mumbai, Maharashtra?

  1. AOption (a)

    "Towards a Greener Future: India's Roadmap"

  2. BOption (b)

    "Decoding the Green Transition for India"

  3. COption (c)

    "Innovating for Sustainable India"

  4. DOption (d)

    "Empowering India’s Climate Action"

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

"Decoding the Green Transition for India"

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is "Decoding the Green Transition for India".

Key Points

  • The theme "Decoding the Green Transition for India" focuses on understanding and implementing the strategies and policies needed for India to transition towards a sustainable and green economy.
  • The conference aimed to address the challenges and opportunities that come with the green transition, including renewable energy, sustainable agriculture, and climate resilience.
  • Experts and policymakers discussed the roadmap for achieving net-zero emissions and the importance of innovation and technology in driving this transition.
  • The event highlighted the need for collaborative efforts from various sectors including government, private sector, and civil society.
  • The focus was also on the importance of public awareness and education in fostering a culture of sustainability.

 Additional Information

  • Towards a Greener Future: India's Roadmap
  • This theme suggests a focus on planning India's journey towards a greener future but lacks the emphasis on decoding and implementing specific strategies.
  • Innovating for Sustainable India
  • While this theme highlights innovation, it does not specifically address the comprehensive approach of decoding the transition necessary for a green future.
  • Empowering India's Climate Action
  • This theme focuses on empowerment but does not cover the detailed aspect of transition strategies for sustainability.

Question 38

Muscles present in our limbs move when we want them to and stop when we so decide. Such muscles are called: 

  1. AOption (a)

    voluntary muscles  

  2. BOption (b)

    involuntary muscles 

  3. COption (c)

    unstriated muscles 

  4. DOption (d)

    cardiac muscles 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

voluntary muscles  

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is voluntary muscles.

Key Points

  • Voluntary muscles are muscles that can be consciously controlled by the individual.
  • These muscles are primarily skeletal muscles, which are attached to bones and are involved in movement.
  • The term "voluntary" refers to the fact that these muscles move when we decide to move them.
  • These muscles work by contracting and relaxing in response to signals from the nervous system.
  • Examples of voluntary muscles include the biceps, triceps, and quadriceps.
  • Voluntary muscles are also characterized by their striated appearance under a microscope.

 Additional Information

  • Involuntary muscles
  • Involuntary muscles are muscles that cannot be controlled consciously. They work automatically.
  • These muscles are primarily found in the internal organs such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels.
  • Involuntary muscles include smooth muscles and cardiac muscles.
  • Unstriated muscles
  • Unstriated muscles are another term for smooth muscles.
  • These muscles lack the striations seen in voluntary muscles and are found in the walls of internal organs.
  • Cardiac muscles
  • Cardiac muscles are found only in the heart.
  • They are involuntary and have a striated appearance similar to skeletal muscles.
  • Cardiac muscles work continuously and rhythmically without conscious control.

Question 39

Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

ID-LG-OQ

LG-OJ-RT

  1. AOption (a)

    MI-QL-TU

  2. BOption (b)

    MI-QK-TV

  3. COption (c)

    NI-QL-TV

  4. DOption (d)

    NI-QK-TU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NI-QL-TV

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given: 

ID-LG-OQ

And,

LG-OJ-RT 

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) MI-QL-TU

Option 2) MI-QK-TV

Option 3) NI-QL-TV

Option 4) NI-QK-TU

Thus, out of all the options 'NI-QL-TV' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 40

Which of the following is an example of reduction reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Conversion of copper into copper oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Conversion of carbon into carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Conversion of copper oxide into copper 

  4. DOption (d)

    Conversion of ethanol into acetic acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Conversion of copper oxide into copper 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Conversion of copper oxide into copper.

Key Points

  • Reduction reaction refers to the process in which a substance gains electrons and decreases its oxidation state.
  • In the conversion of copper oxide (CuO) into copper (Cu), copper oxide is reduced to copper by gaining electrons.
  • This process often involves the removal of oxygen or the addition of hydrogen.
  • Copper oxide (CuO) is an inorganic compound that can be reduced to copper metal (Cu) through a reduction reaction.
  • In this reaction, the oxygen is removed from copper oxide, leaving behind pure copper.

 Additional Information

  • Conversion of copper into copper oxide
  • This is an example of an oxidation reaction where copper (Cu) reacts with oxygen (O2) to form copper oxide (CuO).
  • Oxidation involves the loss of electrons and an increase in the oxidation state of the element.
  • Conversion of carbon into carbon dioxide
  • This is also an oxidation reaction where carbon (C) reacts with oxygen (O2) to form carbon dioxide (CO2).
  • In this reaction, carbon undergoes oxidation by losing electrons and forming carbon dioxide.
  • Conversion of ethanol into acetic acid
  • This is an example of an oxidation reaction where ethanol (C2H5OH) is oxidized to acetic acid (CH3COOH).
  • Oxidation of ethanol involves the loss of hydrogen atoms and the formation of acetic acid.

Question 41

Which of the following options is correct in the relation between mass and inertia? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The data provided here is not adequate to draw any conclusion.

  2. BOption (b)

    Inertia is independent of mass.

  3. COption (c)

    Inertia is inversely proportional to mass.

  4. DOption (d)

    Inertia is proportional to mass.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Inertia is proportional to mass.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Inertia is proportional to mass.

Key Points

  • Inertia refers to the resistance of any physical object to a change in its state of motion or rest.
  • The greater the mass of an object, the greater its inertia. This means it is more difficult to change the motion of an object with a larger mass.
  • Newton's First Law of Motion, also known as the Law of Inertia, states that an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.
  • In practical terms, a heavy object (high mass) like a truck has more inertia compared to a light object like a bicycle.
  • This proportional relationship means that if you double the mass of an object, its inertia will also double.

 Additional Information

  • Inertia is independent of mass
  • This statement is incorrect because inertia is directly related to the mass of an object. A higher mass results in greater inertia.
  • Inertia is inversely proportional to mass
  • This statement is also incorrect. If inertia were inversely proportional to mass, an increase in mass would result in a decrease in inertia, which contradicts the principles of physics.
  • The data provided here is not adequate to draw any conclusion
  • This option is incorrect because the relationship between mass and inertia is well-established in physics and does not require additional data for a conclusion.

Question 42

When you look at the front side of a table spoon, an inverted image of yours is formed. The front side of table spoon works as a:

  1. AOption (a)

    concave lens

  2. BOption (b)

    concave mirror 

  3. COption (c)

    convex mirror

  4. DOption (d)

    plane mirror

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

concave mirror 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is concave mirror.

Key Points

  • The front side of a table spoon has a concave surface, which means it curves inward.
  • When you look at the front side of a table spoon, it acts like a concave mirror.
  • Concave mirrors reflect light from their inwardly curved surface, focusing light to a point.
  • These mirrors form an inverted image when the object is placed beyond the focal point.
  • Concave mirrors are commonly used in applications where focused light is required, such as in telescopes, headlights, and shaving mirrors.

 Additional Information

  • Concave lens
  • A concave lens diverges light rays that pass through it, spreading them apart.
  • It is used in corrective glasses for people with myopia (nearsightedness).
  • Convex mirror
  • A convex mirror has an outwardly curved surface and diverges light rays, spreading them out.
  • It forms a virtual, upright, and diminished image of objects.
  • Convex mirrors are often used in vehicle side mirrors and security mirrors.
  • Plane mirror
  • A plane mirror has a flat reflective surface that forms a virtual, upright, and same-size image of the object.
  • Plane mirrors are commonly used in household mirrors and periscopes.

Question 43

What will come in the place of '?' in the following equation, if '×' and '÷' are interchanged and '-' and '+' are interchanged?

12 × 12 ÷ 12 - 12 + 15 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    69

  3. COption (c)

    99

  4. DOption (d)

    39

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9

Why this answer is correct

Given: 12 × 12 ÷ 12 - 12 + 15 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

12 × 12 ÷ 12 - 12 + 15 = ? ⇒ 12 ÷ 12 × 12 + 12 - 15 = ?

⇒ 12 ÷ 12 × 12 + 12 - 15 = ?

⇒ 1 × 12 + 12 - 15 = ?

⇒ 12 + 12 - 15 = ?

⇒ 24 - 15 = ?

⇒ 9 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 44

Benji starts from Point A and drives 70 km towards South. He then takes a right turn, drives 20 km, turns right and drives 35 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 15 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 35 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(All turns are 90 degree turns only unless otherwise specified.)

  1. AOption (a)

    20 km towards East

  2. BOption (b)

    35 km towards East

  3. COption (c)

    30 km towards East

  4. DOption (d)

    15 km towards East

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

35 km towards East

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Benji starts from Point A and drives 70 km towards South.

He then takes a right turn, drives 20 km, turns right and drives 35 km.

He then takes a left turn and drives 15 km.

He takes a final right turn, drives 35 km and stops at Point P. 

Thus, Benji should drive (20 km + 15 km) 35 km in the east direction in order to reach Point A again.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 45

Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

GL-IF-JM

JO-LI-MP

  1. AOption (a)

    MR-OL-PS

  2. BOption (b)

    KP-MJ-NO

  3. COption (c)

    LQ-NK-OP

  4. DOption (d)

    NS-PM-QR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

MR-OL-PS

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given: 

GL-IF-JM

And,

JO-LI-MP 

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) MR-OL-PS

Option 2) KP-MJ-NO 

Option 3) LQ-NK-OP

Option 4) NS-PM-QR

Thus, out of all the options 'MR-OL-PS' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 46

A fruit vendor bought 800 apples for Rs. 4,800. He spent 800 on transportation. For how much should he sell each apple to get a profit of Rs. 10 on each apple? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 32

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 76

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 17

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 17

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Cost = 4800 + 800 = Rs. 5600.

CP per apple = 5600 ÷ 800 = Rs. 7.

Required Profit per apple = Rs. 10.

Selling Price (SP) per apple = CP + Profit = 7 + 10 = Rs. 17.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 17.

Alternate Method

Given: Total apples = 800, Purchasing Price = Rs. 4800, Overhead expenses = Rs. 800, Desired profit per apple = Rs. 10.

Formulas: Total CP = Purchasing Price + Overhead Expenses | CP per unit = Total CP ÷ Total Quantity | SP per unit = CP per unit + Profit per unit.

⇒ Total Cost Price = 4800 + 800 = Rs. 5600.

⇒ Cost Price (CP) for one apple = 5600 ÷ 800 = Rs. 7.

⇒ Required Selling Price (SP) per apple = CP per apple + Profit per apple.

⇒ SP per apple = 7 + 10 = Rs. 17.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 17.

Additional Information

Effective Cost Price

The Effective CP includes the actual price paid plus any overhead expenses like transportation, labor, or repairs.

Profit Calculation

Profit can be calculated on a per-unit basis or on the total quantity; the ratio between profit and cost remains proportional.

Question 47

The 15th edition of the annual art fair was held in _________, with over 100 exhibitors and an inaugural section on Design Initiatives. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Kolkata

  2. BOption (b)

    Surat

  3. COption (c)

    Chennai 

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

New Delhi 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

  • The 15th edition of the annual art fair took place in New Delhi.
  • This event featured over 100 exhibitors from various parts of the world.
  • A special inaugural section focused on Design Initiatives, highlighting innovative design works.
  • New Delhi is a significant cultural hub in India, often hosting major art and cultural events.
  • The fair attracted a diverse crowd, including artists, collectors, and art enthusiasts.
  • This edition of the art fair included a variety of art forms, such as paintings, sculptures, and digital art.

 Additional Information

  • Kolkata
  • Kolkata is known for its rich cultural heritage and vibrant arts scene.
  • The city hosts many art galleries and cultural festivals throughout the year.
  • Surat
  • Surat is a major commercial hub, especially known for its diamond cutting and textile industries.
  • It is not typically known for hosting major art fairs.
  • Chennai
  • Chennai is famous for its cultural events, particularly in the field of classical music and dance.
  • The city is also home to several important art galleries and museums.

Question 48

Find the circumference of a circle that circumscribes a square of side 7 cm.

(Use π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. AOption (a)

    22 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    44 cm

  3. COption (c)

    22√2 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    44√2 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

22√2 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For a circle circumscribing a square, the diameter of the circle is equal to the diagonal of the square.

Diagonal of square = side × √2 = 7√2 cm.

Circumference = π × diameter = (22/7) × 7√2 = 22√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 22√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Side of square (a) = 7 cm.

Formula Used: Diameter of circumcircle (d) = a√2; Circumference = πd

⇒ Diagonal of the square = √(side2 + side2)

⇒ Diagonal = √(72 + 72) = √(49 + 49) = √98 = 7√2 cm

⇒ Since the square is inscribed, circle diameter (d) = Diagonal = 7√2 cm

⇒ Circumference = π × d

⇒ Circumference = (22/7) × 7√2

⇒ Circumference = 22√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 22√2 cm.

Additional Information

Incircle of a Square

For a circle inscribed inside a square, the diameter of the circle is equal to the side of the square (d = a).

Area of Circumcircle

The area of the circle circumscribing a square is πr2, where r = (a√2)/2. Area = πa2/2.

Ratio of Areas

The ratio of the area of the incircle to the area of the circumcircle of the same square is always 1 : 2.

Question 49

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

All legs are hands.

Some legs are ears.

Conclusions:

(I) Some hands are ears.

(II) Some ears are legs.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both conclusions I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) Some hands are ears → Follow (As all legs are hands and some legs are ears. As some part of ears is common with legs which whole comes in hands, therefore it is true.)

(II) Some ears are legs → Follow (As some legs are ears. As some part of legs is common with ears, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Question 50

Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because sperm formation requires:

  1. AOption (a)

    lower temperature than the normal body temperature

  2. BOption (b)

    higher body temperature

  3. COption (c)

    higher temperature than the normal body temperature

  4. DOption (d)

    normal body temperature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

lower temperature than the normal body temperature

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is lower temperature than the normal body temperature.

Key Points

  • The testes are located in the scrotum outside the abdominal cavity.
  • This location is crucial because sperm formation requires a temperature that is lower than the normal body temperature.
  • The normal body temperature is about 37 degrees Celsius, while the scrotal temperature is around 34 degrees Celsius, which is ideal for spermatogenesis.
  • A lower temperature is necessary to maintain the viability and motility of sperm.
  • The scrotum acts as a natural thermoregulator, ensuring that the testes remain at a temperature conducive to sperm production.

 Additional Information

  • Higher body temperature
  • A higher body temperature would be detrimental to sperm production as it would negatively affect the viability and motility of sperm.
  • Higher temperature than the normal body temperature
  • Similar to higher body temperature, a higher temperature than the normal body temperature would also impair sperm formation.
  • Normal body temperature
  • Sperm formation does not occur optimally at the normal body temperature; it requires a slightly cooler environment.

Question 51

A ball is dropped from the top of a tower. At the midpoint of the motion of the ball, the energy possessed by the ball is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Potential

  2. BOption (b)

    Sound

  3. COption (c)

    Both Potential and Kinetic

  4. DOption (d)

    Kinetic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both Potential and Kinetic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Potential and Kinetic.

Key Points

  • When a ball is dropped from a height, it initially possesses only potential energy.
  • As the ball falls, the potential energy gradually converts into kinetic energy.
  • At the midpoint of the fall, the ball has fallen through half of the total distance.
  • At this point, it has both potential energy (due to the height it is still above the ground) and kinetic energy (due to the velocity it has gained while falling).
  • Specifically, at the midpoint, the energies are distributed such that the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy equals the total initial potential energy.
  • This is a direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy, which states that the total energy in a closed system remains constant.

 Additional Information

  • Potential Energy
  • Potential energy is the energy stored in an object due to its position relative to some zero position.
  • In this case, the zero position is the ground, and the ball has potential energy due to its height above the ground.
  • Kinetic Energy
  • Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses due to its motion.
  • As the ball falls, its velocity increases, and it gains kinetic energy.

Question 52

Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only, and all counting is to be done from left to right).

(Left) 8 3 2 3 8 8 4 7 9 6 2 3 3 8 2 6 6 2 5 6 4 7 9 7 7 6 7 8 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square and immediately followed by an even digit? (Note: I will be considered as a perfect square.)

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0

Why this answer is correct

Given series: (Left) 8 3 2 3 8 8 4 7 9 6 2 3 3 8 2 6 6 2 5 6 4 7 9 7 7 6 7 8 (Right)

According to the question, such odd digits which are immediately preceded by a perfect square and is immediately followed by an even digit:

Required condition: Perfect square - Odd digit - Even digit

(Left) 8 3 2 3 8 8 4 7 9 6 2 3 3 8 2 6 6 2 5 6 4 7 9 7 7 6 7 8 (Right)

Thus, there are no such odd digit which are immediately preceded by a perfect square and is immediately followed by an even digit.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 53

Inside a bar magnet, the direction of magnetic field lines is from its: 

  1. AOption (a)

    always perpendicular to the South pole

  2. BOption (b)

    North pole to its South pole

  3. COption (c)

    South pole to its North pole

  4. DOption (d)

    always perpendicular to the North pole

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South pole to its North pole

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is South pole to its North pole.

Key Points

  • Inside a bar magnet, the direction of magnetic field lines is from its South pole to its North pole.
  • Magnetic field lines are continuous loops that travel from the North pole to the South pole outside the magnet and from the South pole to the North pole inside the magnet.
  • This characteristic of magnetic field lines is a fundamental property of how magnetic fields behave.
  • Understanding the direction of magnetic field lines is crucial in the study of electromagnetism and the functioning of magnetic devices.

 Additional Information

  • always perpendicular to the South pole
  • The magnetic field lines are not always perpendicular to the South pole; they form continuous loops from the North pole to the South pole outside the magnet and vice versa inside.
  • North pole to its South pole
  • Outside a bar magnet, the magnetic field lines indeed travel from the North pole to the South pole.
  • This is opposite to the direction inside the bar magnet.
  • always perpendicular to the North pole
  • The magnetic field lines are not always perpendicular to the North pole; they form continuous loops.

Question 54

Select the INCORRECT pair related to digestive glands and their enzymes. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Liver — bile juice 

  2. BOption (b)

    Gastric gland — pepsin  

  3. COption (c)

    Salivary gland — trypsin 

  4. DOption (d)

    Pancreas — pancreatic juice 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Salivary gland — trypsin 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Salivary gland — trypsin.

Key Points

  • Salivary glands secrete saliva, which contains the enzyme amylase (also known as ptyalin), not trypsin.
  • Trypsin is an enzyme produced in the pancreas and released into the small intestine. It helps in digesting proteins.
  • The main enzymes secreted by the salivary glands are amylase, which begins the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth.
  • Amylase breaks down starches into simpler sugars like maltose and dextrin.

 Additional Information

  • Liver — bile juice
  • The liver produces bile juice, which is stored in the gallbladder.
  • Bile contains bile salts that help in the emulsification of fats, making them easier to digest.
  • Bile also aids in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K.
  • Gastric gland — pepsin
  • Gastric glands in the stomach lining secrete pepsinogen, which is converted to pepsin in the presence of hydrochloric acid (HCl).
  • Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme that breaks down proteins into peptides.
  • The acidic environment in the stomach is essential for the activation and function of pepsin.
  • Pancreas — pancreatic juice
  • The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice, which contains several digestive enzymes.
  • These enzymes include trypsin, chymotrypsin, amylase, and lipase.
  • Pancreatic juice also contains bicarbonate ions that neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach.

Question 55

Plant cells have cell walls because _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    they defend plant cells from a variety of external effects 

  2. BOption (b)

    they are required for photosynthesis 

  3. COption (c)

    they do not have cytoplasm 

  4. DOption (d)

    they do not have proper genetic material 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

they defend plant cells from a variety of external effects 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is they defend plant cells from a variety of external effects.

Key Points

  • Plant cells have a rigid cell wall that provides structural support and protection.
  • The cell wall is composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin.
  • It acts as a barrier against mechanical stress and pathogens.
  • The cell wall helps in maintaining the shape of the cell and prevents excessive water intake.
  • It also plays a role in the transport of substances in and out of the cell.

 Additional Information

  • required for photosynthesis
  • Photosynthesis primarily occurs in the chloroplasts, not the cell wall.
  • do not have cytoplasm
  • Plant cells do have cytoplasm, which is essential for cellular processes.
  • do not have proper genetic material
  • Plant cells contain a nucleus that holds their genetic material.

Question 56

Uma swims in a 60 m long pool. She covers 120 m in one minute by swimming from one end to the other and back along the same straight path. The average velocity of Uma is:

  1. AOption (a)

    0 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    2 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    1 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    3 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0 m/s

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 0 m/s.

Key Points

  • Average velocity is defined as the total displacement divided by the total time taken.
  • In this problem, Uma swims from one end of the pool to the other and back, covering a distance of 120 m in one minute.
  • The displacement refers to the change in position from the initial point to the final point.
  • Since Uma returns to her starting point, the displacement is 0 m.
  • The total time taken is 1 minute (or 60 seconds).
  • The formula for average velocity is: Average velocity = Total displacement / Total time.
  • Given the displacement is 0 m, the average velocity is 0 m/s (0 divided by 60 seconds).

 Additional Information

  • Displacement is a vector quantity that refers to the overall change in position of an object. It is different from distance, which is a scalar quantity and only measures the path length.
  • In cases where the starting and ending points are the same, the displacement is always zero.
  • The concept of average velocity is useful in understanding motion in physics, especially in problems involving circular or repetitive paths.

Question 57

According to the reactivity series, which chemical reaction is possible?

  1. AOption (a)

    3Ag + AlCl3 → 3AgCl + Al

  2. BOption (b)

    3Cu + FeCl3 → 3CuCl2 + Fe

  3. COption (c)

    Cu + ZnCl2 → CuCl2 + Zn

  4. DOption (d)

    Zn + CuCl2 → ZnCl2 + Cu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Zn + CuCl2 → ZnCl2 + Cu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zn + CuCl2 → ZnCl2 + Cu.

Key Points

  • The reactivity series, also known as the activity series, is a list of elements ordered by their ability to displace other elements from compounds.
  • In the reactivity series, zinc (Zn) is more reactive than copper (Cu).
  • This means that zinc can displace copper from its compounds.
  • The chemical reaction Zn + CuCl2 → ZnCl2 + Cu is possible because zinc is more reactive and will replace copper in the compound CuCl2.
  • In this reaction, zinc chloride (ZnCl2) and copper (Cu) are formed.

 Additional Information

  • 3Ag + AlCl3 → 3AgCl + Al
  • In the reactivity series, aluminum (Al) is more reactive than silver (Ag).
  • Therefore, silver cannot displace aluminum from AlCl3.
  • 3Cu + FeCl3 → 3CuCl2 + Fe
  • Iron (Fe) is more reactive than copper (Cu) in the reactivity series.
  • As a result, copper cannot displace iron from FeCl3.
  • Cu + ZnCl2 → CuCl2 + Zn
  • In this case, zinc is more reactive than copper.
  • Hence, copper cannot displace zinc from ZnCl2.

Question 58

Which of the following is correct about fertilisation in plants? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The male germ-cell produced by the ovule fuses with the female gamete present in the pollen tube. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The male germ-cell produced by pollen grain fuses with the female gamete present in the stigma.

  3. COption (c)

    The male germ-cell produced by pollen grain fuses with the female gamete present in the ovule. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The male germ-cell produced by the ovary fuses with the female gamete present in the ovule.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The male germ-cell produced by pollen grain fuses with the female gamete present in the ovule. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The male germ-cell produced by pollen grain fuses with the female gamete present in the ovule..

Key Points

  • Fertilisation in plants is a crucial process that involves the fusion of male and female gametes.
  • The male germ-cell, also known as the sperm cell, is produced by the pollen grain.
  • The pollen grain travels from the anther to the stigma of a flower.
  • Once on the stigma, the pollen grain germinates and forms a pollen tube that grows down the style towards the ovule.
  • Inside the ovule, the male germ-cell fuses with the female gamete (egg cell) to form a zygote.
  • This zygote eventually develops into a seed which can grow into a new plant.

 Additional Information

  • The male germ-cell produced by the ovule fuses with the female gamete present in the pollen tube
  • The ovule does not produce the male germ-cell; it produces the female gamete.
  • The pollen tube carries the male germ-cell to the ovule, not the other way around.
  • The male germ-cell produced by pollen grain fuses with the female gamete present in the stigma
  • The stigma is the receptive surface of a flower where pollen lands but the actual fusion of gametes occurs in the ovule.
  • The male germ-cell produced by the ovary fuses with the female gamete present in the ovule
  • The ovary is the part of the flower that contains the ovules but does not produce the male germ-cell.

Question 59

Seven people, A, B, C, L, X, Y and Z are sitting in a row, facing north. No one sits to the right of Y. Only three people sit between Y and C. Only two people sit between C and Z. B sits third to the left of X. L sits to the immediate right of X.

How many people sit between A and Z?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given: Seven people, A, B, C, L, X, Y and Z are sitting in a row, facing north. 

1) No one sits to the right of Y.

2) Only three people sit between Y and C.

3) Only two people sit between C and Z.

4) B sits third to the left of X.

5) L sits to the immediate right of X.

After positioning B, X and L only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. L.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, three people sit between A and Z.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 60

The product (a + b) (a - b) (a2 - ab + b2) (a2 + ab + b2) is equal to :

  1. AOption (a)

    a3 + b3

  2. BOption (b)

    a6 + b6

  3. COption (c)

    a6 - b6

  4. DOption (d)

    a3 - b3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a6 - b6

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Combine terms using Algebraic Identities: (a + b)(a2 − ab + b2) = a3 + b3 and (a − b)(a2 + ab + b2) = a3 − b3.

Product = (a3 + b3)(a3 − b3).

Applying (x + y)(x − y) = x2 − y2 ⇒ (a3)2 − (b3)2 = a6 − b6.

∴ The correct answer is a6 − b6.

Alternate Method

Given: Expression (a + b)(a − b)(a2 − ab + b2)(a2 + ab + b2)

Formula Used:

  1. x3 + y3 = (x + y)(x2 − xy + y2)

  2. x3 − y3 = (x − y)(x2 + xy + y2)

  3. (x + y)(x − y) = x2 − y2

Calculations:

⇒ Rearranging the terms: [(a + b)(a2 − ab + b2)] × [(a − b)(a2 + ab + b2)]

⇒ Using identities: (a3 + b3) × (a3 − b3)

⇒ Using (x + y)(x − y) property: (a3)2 − (b3)2

⇒ a6 − b6

∴ The correct answer is a6 − b6.

Additional Information

Sum of Cubes Identity

a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 − ab + b2). This is a fundamental factorization identity.

Difference of Cubes Identity

a3 − b3 = (a − b)(a2 + ab + b2). Note the positive middle term in the quadratic factor.

Difference of Squares

(x + y)(x − y) = x2 − y2. It is used to simplify the product of conjugate pairs.

Question 61

Who is the second Indian chess player to breach the 2800 ELO rating barrier in classical chess as on December 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gukesh D

  2. BOption (b)

    Praggnanandhaa Rameshbabu

  3. COption (c)

    Pentala Harikrishna 

  4. DOption (d)

    Arjun Erigaisi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Arjun Erigaisi

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Arjun Erigaisi.

Key Points

  • Arjun Erigaisi is the second Indian chess player to breach the 2800 ELO rating barrier in classical chess as of December 2024.
  • The ELO rating system is a method for calculating the relative skill levels of players in two-player games such as chess.
  • He has achieved significant milestones in his chess career at a young age.
  • Arjun Erigaisi has been recognized for his strategic prowess and consistent performance in various international chess tournaments.
  • His achievement of crossing the 2800 ELO rating is a testament to his dedication and skill in the game of chess.

 Additional Information

  • Gukesh D
  • Gukesh D is a young Indian chess player known for becoming the second-youngest Grandmaster in history.
  • He has shown remarkable talent and potential in the chess world with numerous victories in international competitions.
  • Praggnanandhaa Rameshbabu
  • Praggnanandhaa Rameshbabu is another prodigious Indian chess player who became the youngest International Master at the age of 10.
  • He has also earned a reputation for his strategic gameplay and has competed successfully in various international events.
  • Pentala Harikrishna
  • Pentala Harikrishna is an experienced Indian Grandmaster who has been a prominent figure in the chess community for many years.
  • He has represented India in numerous Chess Olympiads and has a wealth of experience in top-level chess tournaments.

Question 62

The greatest natural number by which the product of three consecutive even natural numbers is always divisible is:

  1. AOption (a)

    48

  2. BOption (b)

    24

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    96

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

48

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Pick the smallest three consecutive even natural numbers: 2, 4, and 6.

Product = 2 × 4 × 6 = 48.

Since this is the smallest possible product, every subsequent product of three consecutive even numbers must be divisible by this value.

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Alternate Method

Given: Three consecutive even natural numbers.

Formula: Let the numbers be 2n, 2n+2, and 2n+4, where n ≥ 1.

⇒ Product (P) = 2n × 2(n+1) × 2(n+2)

⇒ P = 8 × [n × (n+1) × (n+2)]

⇒ The term [n × (n+1) × (n+2)] represents the product of three consecutive integers.

⇒ The product of r consecutive integers is always divisible by r! (factorial r).

⇒ So, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 3! = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6.

⇒ Maximum Divisor = 8 × 6 = 48.

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Additional Information

Divisibility of Consecutive Integers

The product of n consecutive integers is always divisible by n!. For example, the product of 4 consecutive integers is always divisible by 24.

Consecutive Odd Numbers

Unlike even numbers, the product of three consecutive odd natural numbers (e.g., 1×3×5=15) does not have a large fixed divisor other than 3 (if the sequence starts at specific points) or 1.

Sum of Consecutive Even Numbers

The sum of n consecutive even numbers is always divisible by n if n is odd, and follows specific arithmetic progression properties.

Question 63

Given below is a statement followed by two possible reasons numbered I and II. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the two explains the event/observation/information given in the statement.

Statement - Despite having a highly skilled workforce, Company A has not been profitable for the past three years.

I. The company is located in a region where the cost of functioning is extremely high.

II. The CEO of Company A is a well-known philanthropist.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II are possible reasons

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II is a possible reason

  3. COption (c)

    Only I is a possible reason

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II is a possible reason

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only I is a possible reason

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only I is a possible reason.

Key Points

  • Company A has not been profitable despite having a highly skilled workforce.
  • Option I states that the company is located in a region where the cost of functioning is extremely high.
  • High operational costs can impact the profitability of a company, regardless of the skill level of the workforce.
  • High costs can include factors such as rent, wages, taxes, and utility expenses.
  • Thus, the high cost of functioning is a plausible reason for the lack of profitability.

 Additional Information

  • Company Location and Operational Costs
  • Companies in regions with high operational costs need to generate significantly higher revenues to remain profitable.
  • Such regions may have higher costs due to economic factors, regulatory environment, or geographical challenges.
  • Philanthropy and Profitability
  • Option II mentions that the CEO is a well-known philanthropist, which does not necessarily relate to company profitability.
  • Philanthropy may involve donations and charitable activities, but this does not explain the financial performance of a company directly.
  • While philanthropy might impact the allocation of resources, it does not inherently lead to unprofitability.

Question 64

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X : 38 :: 9 : Y

  1. AOption (a)

    X = 15, Y = 48

  2. BOption (b)

    X = 14, Y = 28

  3. COption (c)

    X = 15, Y = 28

  4. DOption (d)

    X = 14, Y = 30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

X = 14, Y = 28

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given: X : 38 :: 9 : Y

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) X = 15, Y = 48 → 15 : 38 :: 9 : 48

15 × 2 + 10 = 40 ≠ 38

9 × 2 + 10 = 28 ≠ 48

Option 2) X = 14, Y = 28 → 14 : 38 :: 9 : 28

14 × 2 + 10 = 38

9 × 2 + 10 = 28

Option 3) X = 15, Y = 28 → 15 : 38 :: 9 : 28

15 × 2 + 10 = 40 ≠ 38

9 × 2 + 10 = 28

Option 4) X = 14, Y = 30 → 14 : 38 :: 9 : 30

14 × 2 + 10 = 38

9 × 2 + 10 = 28 ≠ 30

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 65

Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 6 3 0 4 7 5 5 6 8 3 6 6 9 6 1 1 0 8 7 8 5 0 4 0 3 2 1 3 0 6 (Right)

What is the sum of the 12th digit from the left and the 2nd digit from the right?

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

Given series: (Left) 6 3 0 4 7 5 5 6 8 3 6 6 9 6 1 1 0 8 7 8 5 0 4 0 3 2 1 3 0 6 (Right)

According to the question, sum of the 12th digit from the left and the 2nd digit from the right: (Left) 6 3 0 4 7 5 5 6 8 3 6 6 9 6 1 1 0 8 7 8 5 0 4 0 3 2 1 3 0 6 (Right) → 6 + 0 = 6

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 66

Ramesh has invested Rs. 1,232 at 6% p.a. simple interest in a bank. What amount will he get after 3 years? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1,485.80

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1,448.76

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1,453.76

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1,416.80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 1,453.76

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Simple Interest percentage for 3 years = 6% × 3 = 18%.

Total Amount percentage = 100% + 18% = 118%.

Final Amount = 118% of ₹1,232 = 1.18 × 1,232.

Calculation: 1,232 × 1 + 1,232 × 0.18 = 1,232 + 221.76 = ₹1,453.76.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,453.76.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹1,232

Rate of Interest (R) = 6% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Calculations:

⇒ SI = (1,232 × 6 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (1,232 × 18) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 22,176 ÷ 100 = ₹221.76

⇒ Amount (A) = 1,232 + 221.76

⇒ Amount (A) = ₹1,453.76

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,453.76.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Definition

Simple interest is calculated only on the Principal amount of a loan or investment, ensuring the interest remains constant every year.

Compound Interest Comparison

Unlike SI, Compound Interest is calculated on the principal plus the accumulated interest of previous periods: A = P(1 + R/100)n.

Rule of 72

To find the approximate time needed to double your money at a given interest rate, divide 72 by the annual Interest Rate.

Question 67

Study the following table and answer the question.

The table depicts the number of Apples sold by shops A and B to males and females on Monday

ShopsNumber of apples sold to malesNumber of apples sold to females
A1626
B6473

What is the difference between the number of apples sold by shops A and B to females?

  1. AOption (a)

    47

  2. BOption (b)

    45

  3. COption (c)

    50

  4. DOption (d)

    48

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

47

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of apples sold by Shop A to females = 26

Number of apples sold by Shop B to females = 73

Formula used:

Difference = Number of apples sold by Shop B to females - Number of apples sold by Shop A to females

Calculation:

⇒ Difference = 73 - 26

⇒ Difference = 47

∴ The difference in the number of apples sold by shops A and B to females is 47.

Question 68

Which of the following constant values given in the options is equal to the universal gravitational constant 'G"?

  1. AOption (a)

    9.8 ms-2

  2. BOption (b)

    6.7 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2

  3. COption (c)

    1.6 × 10-19 C

  4. DOption (d)

    9.1 × 10-31 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6.7 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 6.7 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2.

Key Points

  • The universal gravitational constant (G) is a key constant in Newton's law of gravitation.
  • Newton's law of gravitation states that the force of attraction between two masses is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
  • The value of G is 6.7 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2.
  • This constant is crucial for calculations in astrophysics and cosmology, such as determining the gravitational force between celestial bodies.
  • The unit of G, Nm2 kg-2, helps in balancing the equation of gravitational force, ensuring that the force is measured in Newtons (N).

 Additional Information

  • 9.8 ms-2
  • This value represents the acceleration due to gravity (g) on the surface of the Earth.
  • It is the acceleration experienced by an object in free fall within a vacuum near the Earth's surface.
  • 1.6 × 10-19 C
  • This value is the elementary charge (e), which is the magnitude of the electric charge carried by a single proton or electron.
  • It is a fundamental constant in physics and is crucial for calculations in electromagnetism and quantum mechanics.
  • 9.1 × 10-31 kg
  • This value represents the mass of an electron.
  • The mass of an electron is significantly smaller than that of protons and neutrons, which are approximately 1.67 × 10-27 kg.

Question 69

Which of the following parts of the plant is used in vegetative propagation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Leaves and stem

  2. BOption (b)

    Fruits and leaves

  3. COption (c)

    Root and flowers

  4. DOption (d)

    Fruits and flowers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Leaves and stem

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Leaves and stem.

Key Points

  • Vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction in plants where new plants are produced from existing vegetative structures.
  • In this method, parts like leaves, stems, and roots are used to grow new plants.
  • Leaves of certain plants, such as Bryophyllum, can produce new plants from the notches on their margins.
  • Stems can be used in various forms for vegetative propagation, such as runners in strawberries, tubers in potatoes, and rhizomes in ginger.
  • This method is advantageous as it allows the rapid multiplication of plants that maintain the genetic makeup of the parent plant.

 Additional Information

  • Fruits and leaves
  • Fruits are typically involved in sexual reproduction, not vegetative propagation.
  • While leaves can be used in vegetative propagation, the combination of fruits and leaves is incorrect for this purpose.
  • Root and flowers
  • Roots can be used for vegetative propagation, as seen in plants like sweet potatoes and dahlia.
  • Flowers are involved in sexual reproduction and are not used for vegetative propagation.
  • Fruits and flowers
  • Both fruits and flowers are part of the sexual reproduction process in plants and are not used for vegetative propagation.

Question 70

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

CAN, FDP, IGR, LJT, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    LNV

  2. BOption (b)

    OMV

  3. COption (c)

    LMV

  4. DOption (d)

    LNR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

OMV

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 71

Select the option that completes the given sentence correctly.  

The pH scale is used to measure the level of ________ of a solution.

  1. AOption (a)

    acidity or basicity  

  2. BOption (b)

    density 

  3. COption (c)

    pollution 

  4. DOption (d)

    volume 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

acidity or basicity  

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is acidity or basicity.

Key Points

  • The pH scale is a measurement of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.
  • It ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral.
  • A pH value less than 7 indicates acidity, while a pH value greater than 7 indicates basicity.
  • The pH scale is logarithmic, meaning each whole number on the scale represents a tenfold difference in hydrogen ion concentration.
  • pH is an important parameter in various fields such as chemistry, biology, medicine, and environmental science.

 Additional Information

  • Density
  • Density is a measure of the mass per unit volume of a substance.
  • It is typically expressed in units like grams per cubic centimeter (g/cm³) or kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m³).
  • Density is an important property in fields like material science, engineering, and fluid dynamics.
  • Pollution
  • Pollution refers to the introduction of harmful substances or products into the environment.
  • It can affect air, water, and soil quality, posing risks to human health and ecosystems.
  • Common sources of pollution include industrial activity, vehicle emissions, and agricultural runoff.
  • Volume
  • Volume is the amount of three-dimensional space occupied by an object or substance.
  • It is measured in units such as liters (L), cubic meters (m³), and gallons.
  • Volume is a fundamental property in fields like physics, chemistry, and engineering.

Question 72

Seven boxes A, B, C, L, X, Y and Z are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only four boxes are kept between A and Z. Only B is kept above A. Only two boxes are kept between L and Y. C is kept immediately above X. Y is not kept immediately above C.

Which box is kept fourth from the top?

  1. AOption (a)

    L

  2. BOption (b)

    X

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

Given: Seven boxes A, B, C, L, X, Y and Z are kept one over the other.

1) Only B is kept above A.

2) Only four boxes are kept between A and Z.

Sr.noBoxes
Top
1B
2A
3
4
5
6
7Z
Bottom

3) Only two boxes are kept between L and Y.

Sr.noBoxes
Top
1B
2A
3L/Y
4
5
6L/Y
7Z
Bottom

4) C is kept immediately above X.

5) Y is not kept immediately above C.

After positioning B only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. L.

Sr.noBoxes
Top
1B
2A
3L
4C
5X
6Y
7Z
Bottom

Thus, according to the final arrangement C box is kept fourth from the top.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 73

In which of the following life processes is the creation of a DNA copy, a basic event?

  1. AOption (a)

    Respiration

  2. BOption (b)

    Reproduction

  3. COption (c)

    Excretion

  4. DOption (d)

    Circulation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Reproduction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reproduction.

Key Points

  • The creation of a DNA copy is a fundamental event in the process of reproduction.
  • During reproduction, organisms produce new individuals, and this process involves the replication of DNA to ensure that the offspring receive the correct genetic information.
  • The DNA replication process ensures that each new cell or organism has the same genetic information as its parent.
  • This process is critical for the continuity of genetic information from one generation to the next.
  • Both sexual and asexual reproduction involve the creation of a DNA copy, ensuring genetic material is passed on.

 Additional Information

  • Respiration
  • Respiration is the process through which organisms convert oxygen and glucose into energy, carbon dioxide, and water.
  • This process does not involve the creation of DNA copies.
  • Excretion
  • Excretion is the process of removing waste products and toxins from the body.
  • This process involves the kidneys, liver, and skin but does not involve the replication of DNA.
  • Circulation
  • The circulatory system is responsible for transporting blood, nutrients, gases, and wastes to and from the cells of the body.
  • It does not include the process of creating DNA copies.

Question 74

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    BEH

  2. BOption (b)

    RUX

  3. COption (c)

    FIL

  4. DOption (d)

    CEG

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CEG

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) BEH

Option 2) RUX

Option 3) FIL

Option 4) CEG

Thus, out of all the options 'CEG' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 75

Two people drive towards each other from two places which are 56 km apart. The speed of the first person is 13 km/h and speed of the other is 14 km/h. After how long will they be 2 km apart if they start driving together?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 hour

  2. BOption (b)

    2 hours

  3. COption (c)

    1 hour 30 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    2 hours 10 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 hours

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to be covered for the 2 km gap = 56 − 2 = 54 km.

Relative speed in opposite direction = 13 + 14 = 27 kmph.

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 54 ÷ 27 = 2 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total distance = 56 km

Speed 1 (S1) = 13 km/h

Speed 2 (S2) = 14 km/h

Desired remaining distance = 2 km

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = S1 + S2

Time = (Total Distance − Remaining Distance) ÷ Relative Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Relative Speed = 13 + 14 = 27 km/h

⇒ Distance to be covered = 56 − 2 = 54 km

⇒ Time required = 54 ÷ 27

⇒ Time = 2 hours

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: Srel = S1 + S2.

Meeting Point vs Apart Distance

To find the meeting time, use the total distance. To find the time to be 'x' distance apart before meeting, use (Total Distance − x).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Question 76

In a certain code language,travel know places' is coded as 'mh ca lu' and 'travel makes tourist is coded as 'by ai ca'. What is the code for 'travel' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    ca

  2. BOption (b)

    by

  3. COption (c)

    mh

  4. DOption (d)

    lu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ca

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes the code 'ca' is for the word 'travel'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 77

The present ages of the two people are 46 years and 60 years, respectively. If after ‘k’ years, the ratio of their ages is 4 : 5, then the value of ‘k’ is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Current Age Difference = 60 − 46 = 14 years.

Future Ratio is 4 : 5. Difference in ratio units = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

Since the age difference remains constant: 1 unit = 14 years.

Age of younger person after k years = 4 units = 4 × 14 = 56 years.

Value of k = 56 − 46 = 10 years.

∴ The correct answer is 10 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Present ages are 46 and 60. Ratio after k years = 4 : 5.

⇒ (46 + k) ÷ (60 + k) = 4 ÷ 5

⇒ 5 × (46 + k) = 4 × (60 + k)

⇒ 230 + 5k = 240 + 4k

⇒ 5k − 4k = 240 − 230

⇒ k = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10 years.

Additional Information

Constant Difference Property

The difference between the ages of two people remains constant regardless of how many years pass.

Ratio Scaling

When the difference in ratio parts does not match the actual age difference, scale the ratio by multiplying with a constant factor.

Linear Equation Approach

For problems involving "k years ago" or "k years hence", use (Age ± k) and solve the resulting proportion.

Question 78

The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and with the same size as the object. The position of the object is kept:

  1. AOption (a)

    at the focus

  2. BOption (b)

    at the centre of curvature

  3. COption (c)

    between the focus and the centre of curvature

  4. DOption (d)

    far away from the centre of curvature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

at the centre of curvature

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is at the centre of curvature.

Key Points

  • When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object.
  • A concave mirror is a spherical mirror with a reflecting surface that curves inward.
  • In concave mirrors, the centre of curvature (C) is the point on the mirror's principal axis where the radius of the sphere of which the mirror is a part would intersect the axis.
  • This type of image formation occurs because the rays of light reflecting off the mirror converge at the point where the image is formed.
  • Concave mirrors are often used in applications such as telescopes, headlights, and shaving mirrors due to their ability to focus light.

 Additional Information

  • At the focus
  • When an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, the reflected rays are parallel and the image is formed at infinity.
  • The image is highly enlarged, real, and inverted.
  • Between the focus and the centre of curvature
  • When an object is placed between the focus and the centre of curvature, the image is formed beyond the centre of curvature.
  • The image is real, inverted, and enlarged.
  • Far away from the centre of curvature
  • When an object is placed far away from the centre of curvature, the image formed is real, inverted, and diminished.
  • The image is formed between the focus and the centre of curvature.

Question 79

The difference in the measures of two complementary angles is 18°. Find the measure of the smaller angle.

  1. AOption (a)

    35°

  2. BOption (b)

    36°

  3. COption (c)

    34°

  4. DOption (d)

    38°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For two angles whose sum (S) and difference (D) are known:

Smaller angle = (Sum − Difference) ÷ 2

Sum of complementary angles = 90° | Difference = 18°

Smaller angle = (90° − 18°) ÷ 2 = 72° ÷ 2 = 36°.

∴ The correct answer is 36°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Two angles are complementary.

Difference between them = 18°.

Formula Used:

Sum of two complementary angles = 90°.

Let the two angles be x and y, where x is the smaller angle.

⇒ y + x = 90° --- (Equation 1)

⇒ y − x = 18° --- (Equation 2)

Subtract Equation 2 from Equation 1:

⇒ (y + x) − (y − x) = 90° − 18°

⇒ 2x = 72°

⇒ x = 72° ÷ 2

⇒ x = 36°

∴ The correct answer is 36°.

Additional Information

Complementary Angles

Two angles are called complementary if their sum is exactly 90°.

Supplementary Angles

Two angles are called supplementary if their sum is exactly 180°.

Linear Pair

Adjacent angles formed by intersecting lines that sum to 180° are known as a linear pair.

Question 80

What is the name of the phenomenon that causes white light to split into seven colours as it passes through a glass prism?

  1. AOption (a)

    Refraction

  2. BOption (b)

    Diffraction

  3. COption (c)

    Dispersion

  4. DOption (d)

    Scattering

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dispersion

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Dispersion.

Key Points

  • Dispersion is the phenomenon where white light splits into its constituent seven colours when it passes through a glass prism.
  • These seven colours are often remembered by the acronym VIBGYOR, which stands for Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red.
  • The different wavelengths of the various colours of light cause them to bend by different amounts when passing through the prism.
  • This results in the separation of white light into the spectrum of colours.
  • Isaac Newton was the first to demonstrate and explain this phenomenon in the year 1666.

 Additional Information

  • Refraction
  • Refraction is the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another with a different density.
  • This bending occurs due to the change in the speed of light in different mediums.
  • Diffraction
  • Diffraction is the bending and spreading of waves around obstacles and openings.
  • This phenomenon is significant for waves with wavelengths comparable to the size of the obstacles or openings.
  • Scattering
  • Scattering is the process where light or other electromagnetic radiation is forced to deviate from its path due to non-uniformities in the medium through which it passes.
  • Rayleigh scattering of sunlight by the atmosphere is what makes the sky appear blue.

Question 81

Match the following columns I and II.

Column – IColumn - II
A.Placentai.Nutrition
B.Fallopian tubeii.Fertilization
C.Uterusiii.Implantation
  1. AOption (a)

    A - i, B - ii, C - iii

  2. BOption (b)

    A - i, B - iii, C - ii

  3. COption (c)

    A - iii, B - ii, C - i

  4. DOption (d)

    A - ii, B - i, C - iii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - i, B - ii, C - iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Placenta is responsible for the nutrition of the fetus. It is an organ that develops in the uterus during pregnancy.
  • The fallopian tube is the site where fertilization occurs. It connects the ovary to the uterus and is where the sperm meets the egg.
  • The uterus is where the embryo implants and grows during pregnancy. It is a muscular organ located in the female pelvis.

 Additional Information

  • Placenta
  • The placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the growing baby and removes waste products from the baby's blood.
  • It attaches to the wall of the uterus, and the baby's umbilical cord arises from it.
  • It acts as a protective barrier against certain infections and substances.
  • Fallopian Tube
  • The fallopian tube is also known as the oviduct or uterine tube.
  • It plays a crucial role in the reproductive process by transporting the egg from the ovary to the uterus.
  • Blockages or damage to the fallopian tube can lead to infertility or ectopic pregnancy.
  • Uterus
  • The uterus is also known as the womb.
  • During pregnancy, the uterus expands significantly to accommodate the growing fetus.
  • After childbirth, the uterus contracts to help expel the placenta and minimize bleeding.

Question 82

The Defence Budget for the Financial Year 2024-25 constitutes what percentage of the total Union Budget?

  1. AOption (a)

    12.90%

  2. BOption (b)

    11.2%

  3. COption (c)

    14.8%

  4. DOption (d)

    10.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12.90%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 12.90%.

Key Points

  • The Defence Budget for the Financial Year 2024-25 constitutes 12.9% (0.129) of the total Union Budget.
  • This allocation reflects the importance of national security and the modernization of the armed forces.
  • The increase in the defence budget is aimed at enhancing the operational capabilities of the Indian Armed Forces.
  • It ensures adequate funding for the procurement of advanced weaponry, military infrastructure, and research and development in defence technologies.
  • This budget allocation also focuses on the welfare of defence personnel and their families, providing for better facilities and services.

 Additional Information

  • The Union Budget is an annual financial statement presented by the Finance Minister of India, outlining the government's revenue and expenditure for the upcoming financial year.
  • The Defence Budget includes funding for the Army, Navy, Air Force, and other defence-related expenditures.
  • The allocation to the defence sector has a significant impact on the country's strategic capabilities and defence preparedness.
  • The Ministry of Defence is responsible for formulating policies and coordinating activities related to national defence.

Question 83

sec2 A + (cosec2 A - 1) - (1 + tan2 A) + cot2 A = _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    2cot2 A

  4. DOption (d)

    sec2 A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2cot2 A

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Put A = 45° to solve the expression quickly.

⇒ sec2 45° + (cosec2 45° − 1) − (1 + tan2 45°) + cot2 45°

⇒ (√2)2 + [(√2)2 − 1] − (1 + 12) + 12

⇒ 2 + (2 − 1) − (1 + 1) + 1 = 2 + 1 − 2 + 1 = 2

⇒ Checking options for A = 45°: 2cot2 45° = 2(1)2 = 2. This matches.

∴ The correct answer is 2cot2 A.

Alternate Method

Given: sec2 A + (cosec2 A − 1) − (1 + tan2 A) + cot2 A

Formula Used:

⇒ 1 + tan2 A = sec2 A

⇒ 1 + cot2 A = cosec2 A → cosec2 A − 1 = cot2 A

Calculations:

⇒ sec2 A + (cosec2 A − 1) − (1 + tan2 A) + cot2 A

⇒ sec2 A + cot2 A − sec2 A + cot2 A

⇒ (sec2 A − sec2 A) + (cot2 A + cot2 A)

⇒ 0 + 2cot2 A

⇒ 2cot2 A

∴ The correct answer is 2cot2 A.

Additional Information

Fundamental Trigonometric Identities

Standard Pythagorean identities: sin2θ + cos2θ = 1, 1 + tan2θ = sec2θ, and 1 + cot2θ = cosec2θ.

Reciprocal Identities

sec θ = 1/cos θ, cosec θ = 1/sin θ, and cot θ = 1/tan θ.

Value Substitution Method

When simplifying identities, substituting a specific angle (e.g., 45° or 30°) where functions are defined can quickly identify the correct expression.

Question 84

In August 2024, the Mukhyamantri Mahila Samman Yojana was launched by which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha

  2. BOption (b)

    Jharkhand 

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jharkhand 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

  • The Mukhyamantri Mahila Samman Yojana was launched in August 2024 by the state of Jharkhand.
  • This scheme is aimed at empowering women across the state.
  • It focuses on providing financial assistance and support to women to help them achieve self-reliance.
  • The scheme includes various components such as skill development, entrepreneurship training, and financial literacy programs.
  • It also emphasizes on enhancing women's health and education by providing necessary resources and support.

 Additional Information

  • Odisha
  • Odisha is known for its rich cultural heritage and historical landmarks such as the Konark Sun Temple and Jagannath Temple.
  • The state has also implemented several women empowerment schemes like the Mamata Scheme which provides financial assistance to pregnant and lactating women.
  • Bihar
  • Bihar has a rich historical significance, as evidenced by ancient universities like Nalanda and Vikramshila.
  • The state has launched initiatives like the Mukhya Mantri Nari Shakti Yojana for women empowerment and self-employment.

Question 85

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the effects of changes in pressure on the states of matter?

Statement I: Applying pressure and reducing temperature can liquefy gases.

Statement II: Solid carbon dioxide is stored under high pressure.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement I is correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both statements I and II are correct.

  3. COption (c)

    Only statement II is correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither statement I nor II is correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both statements I and II are correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both statements I and II are correct.

Key Points

  • Statement I: Applying pressure and reducing temperature can liquefy gases.
  • Liquefaction of gases is a common process used in various industries, such as the production of liquefied natural gas (LNG).
  • Examples include carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2), which can be liquefied under high pressure and low temperature.
  • Statement II: Solid carbon dioxide is stored under high pressure.
  • Solid carbon dioxide is commonly known as dry ice.
  • Dry ice is used in various applications like preserving perishable items and creating special effects in movies.
  • It sublimates directly from solid to gas at normal atmospheric pressure, hence it is stored under high pressure to maintain its solid state.

 Additional Information

  • Dry Ice
  • Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide (CO2).
  • It is extremely cold, with a temperature of -78.5°C (-109.3°F).
  • Dry ice is used in food industry for shipping perishable products, and in medical field for preserving biological samples.
  • It is also used in entertainment industry for creating fog effects.
  • Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG)
  • LNG is natural gas that has been cooled down to liquid form for ease of storage and transport.
  • It is typically stored at cryogenic temperatures of about -162°C (-260°F).
  • LNG is used primarily for energy production and is a cleaner alternative to other fossil fuels.
  • Countries like Qatar, Australia, and the United States are major producers of LNG.

Question 86

Formation of the mixture is a ________  change whereas formation of a compound is a _______ change, respectively.

  1. AOption (a)

    chemical, physical

  2. BOption (b)

    physical, physical 

  3. COption (c)

    chemical, chemical 

  4. DOption (d)

    physical, chemical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

physical, chemical

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is physical, chemical.

Key Points

  • Formation of a mixture is a physical change because the components of the mixture retain their individual properties and can be separated by physical means.
  • Examples of mixtures include air, salt water, and alloys. These can be separated through physical processes such as filtration, evaporation, and distillation.
  • Formation of a compound is a chemical change because it involves the formation of new substances with different properties from the original substances.
  • In a chemical change, the original substances undergo a chemical reaction and form new substances that cannot be separated by physical means.
  • Examples of compounds include water (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), and sodium chloride (NaCl). These can only be separated into their elements by chemical methods.

 Additional Information

  • Physical Change
  • Physical changes do not alter the chemical composition of a substance.
  • They are usually reversible and do not involve the formation of new substances.
  • Examples include changes in state (melting, freezing, boiling), size (cutting, grinding), and shape.
  • Chemical Change
  • Chemical changes result in the formation of one or more new substances with different chemical properties.
  • They are typically irreversible under normal conditions.
  • Indicators of a chemical change include color change, gas production, formation of a precipitate, and energy change (heat, light).

Question 87

Which of the following is a dominant trait in the experiments done by Mendel on garden pea?

  1. AOption (a)

    Green seeds

  2. BOption (b)

    Wrinkled seeds

  3. COption (c)

    Short plants

  4. DOption (d)

    Round seeds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Round seeds

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Round seeds.

Key Points

  • Round seeds are a dominant trait in the experiments conducted by Gregor Mendel on garden peas.
  • Dominant traits are traits that appear in the F1 generation when two pure lines are crossed.
  • In Mendel’s experiments, the round seed shape was observed to be dominant over the wrinkled seed shape.
  • Mendel’s principles of dominance and segregation explain how the dominant trait (round seeds) masks the recessive trait (wrinkled seeds) in the F1 generation.
  • Mendel's work laid the foundation for the field of genetics, and his experiments with garden peas are considered pioneering.

 Additional Information

  • Green seeds
  • Green seeds are a recessive trait in Mendel’s experiments with garden peas.
  • When crossing plants with green seeds and yellow seeds, the F1 generation predominantly shows the yellow seed color, indicating that yellow is dominant.
  • Wrinkled seeds
  • Wrinkled seeds are another recessive trait observed by Mendel.
  • The trait only appears in the F2 generation when two heterozygous round-seeded plants are crossed.
  • Short plants
  • Short plants are recessive to tall plants in Mendel’s experiments.
  • When crossing tall and short plants, the F1 generation exhibits the tall phenotype, showing that tallness is the dominant trait.

Question 88

Who chairs the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?

  1. AOption (a)

    President Droupadi Murmu

  2. BOption (b)

    Prime Minister Narendra Modi

  3. COption (c)

    Defence Minister Rajnath Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    National Security Advisor Ajit Doval

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Defence Minister Rajnath Singh.

Key Points

  • The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence.
  • The DAC is responsible for the overall guidance of the defence procurement planning process.
  • The council was formed to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces.
  • It is chaired by the Defence Minister of India, who is currently Rajnath Singh.
  • The DAC clears all defence procurement proposals that are above a certain financial threshold.
  • It was constituted in the year 2001, following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers on national security.

 Additional Information

  • President Droupadi Murmu
  • The President of India is the head of state and the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces.
  • The President's role is more ceremonial, and the actual decision-making power in defence matters lies with the Defence Minister.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi
  • The Prime Minister of India is the head of government and plays a crucial role in national security and defence policy.
  • However, the specific responsibility of chairing the Defence Acquisition Council lies with the Defence Minister.
  • National Security Advisor Ajit Doval
  • The National Security Advisor (NSA) is responsible for advising the Prime Minister on national security and strategic interests.
  • The NSA does not chair the Defence Acquisition Council but plays an important role in shaping defence and security policies.

Question 89

In a common salt/sodium chloride (NaCl), ions of which element is positively charged and negatively charged, respectively?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ions of both Na and Cl are positively charged.

  2. BOption (b)

    Ions of both Na and Cl are negatively charged.

  3. COption (c)

    Na ions are positively charged, and Cl ions are negatively charged. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Cl ions are positively charged, and Na ions are negatively charged.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Na ions are positively charged, and Cl ions are negatively charged. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Na ions are positively charged, and Cl ions are negatively charged.

Key Points

  • NaCl, or common salt, consists of sodium (Na) ions and chloride (Cl) ions.
  • In ionic compounds like NaCl, the sodium atom loses one electron to become a positively charged Na+ ion.
  • The chlorine atom gains one electron to become a negatively charged Cl- ion.
  • The resulting electrostatic attraction between Na+ and Cl- ions forms the ionic bond that holds the compound together.
  • This process of electron transfer leads to the formation of a stable ionic structure.
  • NaCl is a crystalline solid at room temperature.
  • It is widely used in various industries and in daily life as table salt.

 Additional Information

  • Ionic compounds
  • Ionic compounds are typically formed between metals and non-metals.
  • They have high melting and boiling points due to the strong electrostatic forces between ions.
  • Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water and other polar solvents.
  • They conduct electricity when dissolved in water or molten.

Question 90

If the price of milk is 15% more than that of water, then the price of water is approximately what percentage less than that of milk?

  1. AOption (a)

    10.50%

  2. BOption (b)

    5%

  3. COption (c)

    7.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    13.04%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

13.04%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the price of water be 100 units.

Since the price of milk is 15% more, the price of milk = 115 units.

Difference in price = 115 − 100 = 15 units.

Percentage by which water is cheaper than milk = (15 ÷ 115) × 100

⇒ (3 ÷ 23) × 100 ≈ 13.04%

∴ The correct answer is 13.04%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price of milk is 15% more than the price of water.

Formula Used:

Percentage Less = (Difference in value ÷ Reference value) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the price of water be x.

⇒ Price of milk = x + 15% of x = 1.15x

⇒ Difference in price = 1.15x − x = 0.15x

⇒ Here, the reference value is the price of milk because we need to find how much water is less than milk.

⇒ Required Percentage = (0.15x ÷ 1.15x) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (15 ÷ 115) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (3 ÷ 23) × 100

⇒ 300 ÷ 23 ≈ 13.04%

∴ The correct answer is 13.04%.

Additional Information

Base of Percentage

When calculating percentage less or more, the value that immediately follows the word 'than' acts as the base (denominator) for the entire calculation.

Direct Formula for Percentage Less

If quantity A is R% more than quantity B, then B is less than A by [(R ÷ (100 + R)) × 100]%. Substituting R = 15 directly yields the required value.

Direct Formula for Percentage More

Conversely, if quantity A is R% less than quantity B, then B is more than A by [(R ÷ (100 − R)) × 100]%.

Question 91

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

EGK, HJN, KMQ, NPT, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    SQW

  2. BOption (b)

    SWQ

  3. COption (c)

    QWS

  4. DOption (d)

    QSW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

QSW

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 92

In a certain code language, 'BEAR' is coded as '7912' and 'EARN' is coded as '1296'. What is the code for 'N' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

'BEAR' is coded as '7912'

'EARN' is coded as '1296'

Thus, code for ‘N’ is '6'.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 93

B, C, D, E, F, K and L are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. F sits second to the left of C. Only E sits between K and F. B sits third to the left of E. D is not an immediate neighbour of B. Who sits fourth to the right of L?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

D

Why this answer is correct

Given: B, C, D, E, F, K and L are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.

1) F sits second to the left of C.

2) Only E sits between K and F.

3) B sits third to the left of E.

4) D is not an immediate neighbour of B.

After positioning D only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. L.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, D sits fourth to the right of L.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 94

The following observations are arranged in ascending order.

29, 32, 48, 50, x, 2x + 3, 72, 78, 84, 95

If the median is 63, then the value of x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    63

  2. BOption (b)

    51

  3. COption (c)

    41

  4. DOption (d)

    62

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

41

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Number of observations (n) = 10 (even).

Median = Average of (n/2)th and (n/2 + 1)th terms.

Median = Average of 5th and 6th terms = (x + 2x + 3) ÷ 2 = 63.

3x + 3 = 126 ⇒ 3x = 123 ⇒ x = 41.

∴ The correct answer is 41.

Alternate Method

Given: Observations = 29, 32, 48, 50, x, 2x + 3, 72, 78, 84, 95 (in ascending order)

Formula Used: For even n, Median = [(n/2)th term + (n/2 + 1)th term] ÷ 2

⇒ Number of observations n = 10

⇒ Median = (5th term + 6th term) ÷ 2

⇒ 63 = [x + (2x + 3)] ÷ 2

⇒ 63 × 2 = 3x + 3

⇒ 126 = 3x + 3

⇒ 3x = 126 − 3

⇒ 3x = 123

⇒ x = 41

∴ The correct answer is 41.

Additional Information

Median for Odd Data

If the number of observations (n) is odd, the median is the exactly middle term, given by [(n+1)/2]th term.

Mean Calculation

Mean is the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations: Mean = (Σxi) ÷ n.

Empirical Formula

The relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode is: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Question 95

Which of the following is an example of an ionic compound?

  1. AOption (a)

    Turmeric

  2. BOption (b)

    Table salt

  3. COption (c)

    Sugar

  4. DOption (d)

    Glucose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Table salt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Table salt.

Key Points

  • Table salt, also known as sodium chloride, is a classic example of an ionic compound.
  • Ionic compounds are formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, resulting in the formation of positive and negative ions.
  • In the case of table salt, sodium (Na) loses one electron to become a positively charged sodium ion (Na+).
  • Chlorine (Cl) gains this electron to become a negatively charged chloride ion (Cl-).
  • The opposite charges of the ions create a strong electrostatic force of attraction, known as an ionic bond.
  • Table salt is highly soluble in water and has a characteristic crystalline structure.
  • Common uses of table salt include seasoning food and as a preservative.

 Additional Information

  • Turmeric
  • Turmeric is a spice derived from the rhizome of the plant Curcuma longa.
  • It contains a compound called curcumin, which has anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties.
  • Turmeric is commonly used in cooking, particularly in Indian cuisine, and in traditional medicine.
  • Sugar
  • Sugar, specifically sucrose, is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose.
  • Sugar is a covalent compound, not an ionic compound.
  • It is widely used as a sweetener in food and beverages.
  • Glucose
  • Glucose is a simple sugar and an important energy source in living organisms.
  • It is a monosaccharide with the molecular formula C6H12O6.
  • Glucose is also a covalent compound, not ionic.

Question 96

In which of the following organisms can individuals change sex, indicating that sex is NOT genetically determined?

  1. AOption (a)

    Snails

  2. BOption (b)

    Lizards

  3. COption (c)

    Frogs

  4. DOption (d)

    Ostriches

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Snails

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Snails.

Key Points

  • Many species of snails exhibit the ability to change sex, a phenomenon known as sequential hermaphroditism.
  • In these species, individuals can function as both males and females at different times in their life cycle.
  • This ability to change sex is not genetically predetermined but is instead influenced by environmental and social factors.
  • The process of sex change in snails can be triggered by factors such as the availability of mates and the presence of certain chemicals in their environment.
  • This adaptation can enhance the reproductive success of snails in varying environmental conditions.

 Additional Information

  • Lizards
  • Most lizard species have sex determined genetically, not environmentally.
  • Some lizards, such as the New Mexico whiptail, reproduce through parthenogenesis, but do not change sex.
  • Frogs
  • Although some frog species can change sex, this is relatively rare and typically a response to specific environmental conditions.
  • This phenomenon is observed in species like the Common reed frog.
  • Ostriches
  • Ostriches are birds with genetically determined sex and do not exhibit sex-changing behavior.
  • They are known for their large size and flightless nature, native to Africa.

Question 97

Which of the following holds for the parallel combination of resistors?

  1. AOption (a)

    The total resistance is equal to the highest resistance.

  2. BOption (b)

    The total resistance is always less than the smallest resistance.

  3. COption (c)

    The total resistance is always greater than the smallest resistance.

  4. DOption (d)

    The total resistance is equal to the smallest resistance.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The total resistance is always less than the smallest resistance.

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is The total resistance is always less than the smallest resistance..

Key Points

  • In a parallel combination of resistors, the total or equivalent resistance is always less than the smallest individual resistance.
  • This is because the overall effect of adding more paths (resistors) for the current to flow through results in a lower total resistance.
  • To calculate the total resistance for two resistors in parallel, you can use the formula:

1 / (1 / R1 + 1 / R2)

Where R1 is the resistance of the first resistor and R2 is the resistance of the second resistor.

For example, if you have two resistors, one with a resistance of 6 ohms and the other with 3 ohms, the calculation would be:

1 / (1 / 6 + 1 / 3)

First, calculate the individual fractions:

1 / 6 = 0.1667

1 / 3 = 0.3333

Now add them together:

0.1667 + 0.3333 = 0.5

Finally, take the reciprocal of the result:

1 / 0.5 = 2

So, the total resistance for the two resistors in parallel is 2 ohms.

 Additional Information

  • The total resistance is equal to the highest resistance.
  • In a parallel combination, this statement is incorrect. The total resistance is never equal to the highest resistance.
  • The total resistance in parallel is always lower than the smallest resistance in the network.
  • The total resistance is always greater than the smallest resistance.
  • This statement is incorrect for parallel combinations. The total resistance is always less than the smallest resistance.
  • The total resistance is equal to the smallest resistance.
  • This statement is incorrect as well. The total resistance in a parallel circuit is always less than the smallest individual resistance.

Question 98

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 20 59 176 ? 1580

  1. AOption (a)

    517

  2. BOption (b)

    510

  3. COption (c)

    557

  4. DOption (d)

    527

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

527

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 99

A, B, and C alone can do a piece of work in 9, 12 and 18 days, respectively. They all started the work together, but A left after 3 days. In how many days, was the total work completed?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    52\frac{5}{2}

  3. COption (c)

    245\frac{24}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    95\frac{9}{5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

245\frac{24}{5}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Work (LCM of 9, 12, 18) = 36 units.

Efficiencies: A = 4, B = 3, C = 2. Total efficiency = 9.

Work done by all in 3 days = 9 × 3 = 27 units.

Remaining work = 36 − 27 = 9 units.

Time taken by B and C for remaining work = 9 ÷ (3 + 2) = 1.8 days.

Total time = 3 + 1.8 = 4.8 days = 24/5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 24/5 days.

Alternate Method

Given: A, B and C can do work in 9, 12 and 18 days.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A9364
B123
C182

⇒ Work done by A, B, and C in 3 days = (4 + 3 + 2) × 3

⇒ Work done = 9 × 3 = 27 units

⇒ Remaining Work = 36 − 27 = 9 units

⇒ Remaining work completed by B and C together

⇒ Time for remaining work = 9 ÷ (3 + 2) = 9/5 days

⇒ Total Time = 3 + 9/5 = (15 + 9) ÷ 5 = 24/5 days

∴ The correct answer is 24/5 days.

Additional Information

LCM Method for Work

Always assume Total Work as the LCM of individual days to avoid working with complex fractions.

Combined Efficiency

When people work together, their efficiencies (work done per day) are added: Etotal = E1 + E2 + ... + En.

Leaving Work Concept

If a person leaves after 'n' days, subtract the work they completed from the total work and divide the remaining work by the efficiency of the remaining people.

Question 100

The sum of the first five prime numbers is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    28

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

28

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

List the first five prime numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7, and 11.

Directly calculate the sum of these values.

Sum = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 = 28.

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Alternate Method

Given: The required numbers are the first five prime numbers.

Method: A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

⇒ 1st Prime number = 2

⇒ 2nd Prime number = 3

⇒ 3rd Prime number = 5

⇒ 4th Prime number = 7

⇒ 5th Prime number = 11

⇒ Required Sum = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11

⇒ Required Sum = 28

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Additional Information

Prime Number Definition

A prime number is a whole number greater than 1 whose only factors are 1 and itself.

Even Prime Number

The number 2 is the smallest prime number and the only even prime number in existence.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are said to be co-prime if their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is 1.

Number 1 Property

The number 1 is neither a prime number nor a composite number.

100 questions in the full paper