Previous Year Paper

RRB Technician Grade III Official Paper (Held On: 23 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

100 questions90 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

FRE, HTD, JVC, LXB,?

  1. AOption (a)

    MZA

  2. BOption (b)

    OYA

  3. COption (c)

    NZA

  4. DOption (d)

    MYA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NZA

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 2

If 'A' stands for '+', 'B' stands for "×", "C" stands for '÷' and 'D' stands for "-", what will come in place of the question mark "?" in the following equation?

14 A 2 B 6 D 20 C 5 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    28

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

22

Why this answer is correct

Decoding letters:

LettersABCD
Stands for+×÷-

Given: 14 A 2 B 6 D 20 C 5 = ?

After interchanging the letters,

14 A 2 B 6 D 20 C 5 = ? ⇒ 14 + 2 × 6 - 20 ÷ 5 = ?

⇒ 14 + 2 × 6 - 20 ÷ 5 = ?

⇒ 14 + 2 × 6 - 4 = ?

⇒ 14 + 12 - 4 = ?

⇒ 26 - 4 = ?

⇒ 22 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 3

The mode of the observations 2, 6, 3, 9, 5, 6, 7, 8, 4, 6, 10, 6 and 11 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Mode is the observation that appears most frequently in a data set.

Count the frequency of each number: 2 (1), 6 (4), 3 (1), 9 (1), 5 (1), 7 (1), 8 (1), 4 (1), 10 (1), 11 (1).

Since the number 6 appears 4 times, which is more than any other number, it is the mode.

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Alternate Method

Given: Observations: 2, 6, 3, 9, 5, 6, 7, 8, 4, 6, 10, 6, 11

Formula Used: Mode = Value with highest frequency.

⇒ Arrange in ascending order: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6, 6, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11

⇒ Frequency of 2 = 1

⇒ Frequency of 6 = 4

⇒ Frequency of others = 1

⇒ Highest frequency = 4 (for number 6)

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Mean, Median, and Mode Relation

For a moderately skewed distribution: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Types of Mode

A data set can be Unimodal (one mode), Bimodal (two modes), or Multimodal (more than two modes).

Median for Discrete Data

If n is odd, Median = ((n+1)/2)th term. If n is even, Median = average of (n/2)th and (n/2 + 1)th terms.

Question 4

IEMJ is related to GCKH in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MIQN is related to KGOL. To which of the following options is PLTQ related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    JNOR

  2. BOption (b)

    NJRO

  3. COption (c)

    JNRO

  4. DOption (d)

    NJOR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

NJRO

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

IEMJ is related to GCKH

And,

MIQN is related to KGOL

Similarly,

PLTQ is related to

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 5

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements :

All laptops are speakers.

All speakers are mics.

Conclusions :

(I) At least some speakers are laptops.

(II) All laptops are mics.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both conclusions I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) At least some speakers are laptops → Follow (As all laptops are speakers. As whole laptops comes in speakers, therefore it is true.)

(II) All laptops are mics → Follow (As all laptops are speakers and all speakers are mics. As whole laptops comes in speakers which whole comes in mics, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusions I and II follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Question 6

Which of the following organisms is commonly referred to as bread mould?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yeast

  2. BOption (b)

    Rhizopus

  3. COption (c)

    Planaria

  4. DOption (d)

    Spirogyra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rhizopus

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Rhizopus.

Key Points

  • Rhizopus is a genus of common saprophytic fungi.
  • They are also known as bread moulds because they commonly grow on bread.
  • These fungi belong to the class Zygomycetes and are found in different environments.
  • Rhizopus species can also grow on a variety of other organic materials, including fruits and vegetables.
  • They reproduce through the formation of spores, which are produced in a structure called a sporangium.
  • Rhizopus plays an important role in the decomposition of organic matter.

 Additional Information

  • Yeast
  • Yeast is a type of fungus that is used in baking and brewing.
  • They are single-celled microorganisms that can ferment sugars, producing carbon dioxide and alcohol.
  • Yeasts are not typically referred to as bread moulds, although they are essential for bread making.
  • Planaria
  • Planaria are flatworms belonging to the class Turbellaria.
  • They are known for their ability to regenerate lost body parts.
  • Planaria are not fungi and do not grow on bread.
  • Spirogyra
  • Spirogyra is a genus of filamentous green algae.
  • They are commonly found in freshwater environments such as ponds and streams.
  • Spirogyra is not related to bread moulds and does not grow on bread.

Question 7

What is the value of 1 kWh in Joule(J)?

  1. AOption (a)

    3.6 × 10-5

  2. BOption (b)

    3.6

  3. COption (c)

    3.6 × 105

  4. DOption (d)

    3.6 × 106

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3.6 × 106

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.6 × 106.

Key Points

  • 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of energy commonly used to measure electricity consumption.
  • The kilowatt-hour is a derived unit of energy equal to 3.6 megajoules.
  • It is equivalent to the energy transferred or consumed when using 1 kilowatt of power for 1 hour.
  • In terms of Joules (J), 1 kWh is calculated as: 1 kWh = 1 kW × 1 hour = 1000 watts × 3600 seconds = 3.6 × 106 Joules.
  • This conversion is essential in various fields, including electricity billing, energy management, and scientific calculations.

 Additional Information

  • kWh
  • The kilowatt-hour (kWh) is commonly used by electricity providers to calculate energy consumption.
  • The kWh is also used to express the capacity of batteries in electric vehicles and other electrical storage systems.
  • Understanding the conversion from kWh to Joules is crucial for accurate energy assessments and comparisons.

Question 8

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster does not belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants / vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    DJP

  2. BOption (b)

    SYE

  3. COption (c)

    MUI

  4. DOption (d)

    AGM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

MUI

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) DJP

Option 2) SYE

Option 3) MUI

Option 4) AGM

Thus, out of all the options 'MUI' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 9

Which of the following is equal to 1 Ohm (If V and A are volt and ampere, respectively)?

  1. AOption (a)

    1V/2A

  2. BOption (b)

    1A/1V

  3. COption (c)

    1V/1A

  4. DOption (d)

    1V * 1A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1V/1A

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 1V/1A.

Key Points

  • The Ohm is the unit of electrical resistance in the International System of Units (SI).
  • It is named after Georg Simon Ohm, a German physicist who formulated Ohm's law.
  • Ohm's Law states that the current flowing through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points, provided the temperature remains constant.
  • Mathematically, it is expressed as V = IR, where V is the voltage, I is the current, and R is the resistance.
  • Hence, 1 Ohm is defined as the resistance that allows a current of 1 Ampere (A) to flow when a voltage of 1 Volt (V) is applied.
  • This can be represented as 1 Ohm = 1V/1A.

Question 10

A cylindrical cavity of radius 3 cm and depth 2 cm is made at one end of another solid cylinder of radius 5 cm and height 7 cm. Find the total surface area (in cm2) of the resulting solid.

  1. AOption (a)

    107 π

  2. BOption (b)

    82 π

  3. COption (c)

    132 π

  4. DOption (d)

    126 π

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

132 π

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Boring a cavity removes the top circle area but adds an identical base area at the bottom of the hole, so base areas remain unchanged.

Resulting Total Surface Area (TSA) = (TSA of original solid cylinder) + (Curved Surface Area of the cavity).

Original TSA = 2πR(R + H) = 2π × 5(5 + 7) = 120π cm2.

Curved Surface Area of cavity = 2πrh = 2π × 3 × 2 = 12π cm2.

Total Area = 120π + 12π = 132π cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 132 π cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Radius of solid cylinder (R) = 5 cm

⇒ Height of solid cylinder (H) = 7 cm

⇒ Radius of cavity (r) = 3 cm

⇒ Depth of cavity (h) = 2 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area = (Lateral area of outer cylinder) + (Area of bottom base) + (Area of top ring) + (Lateral area of cavity) + (Area of cavity base)

Calculations:

⇒ TSA = (2 × π × R × H) + (π × R2) + (π × R2 − π × r2) + (2 × π × r × h) + (π × r2)

⇒ TSA = (2 × π × 5 × 7) + (25π) + (25π − 9π) + (2 × π × 3 × 2) + (9π)

⇒ TSA = 70π + 25π + 16π + 12π + 9π

⇒ TSA = 132π cm2

Therefore, 132 π is the correct answer which corresponds to option (3).

∴ The correct answer is 132 π cm2.

Additional Information

Volume of Solid with Cavity

The volume of the resulting solid is obtained by subtracting the cavity volume from the original volume: V = πR2H − πr2h.

Curved Surface Area of Cylinder

The area of the curved part of a cylinder is given by 2πrh, where r is the radius and h is the height.

Total Surface Area of Hollow Cylinder

For a hollow cylinder with outer radius R and inner radius r, TSA = 2π(R + r)(H + R − r).

Question 11

96 is divided into two parts in such a way that a seventh part of the first and a ninth part of the second are equal. Find the larger part.

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    48

  3. COption (c)

    54

  4. DOption (d)

    38

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

54

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of the parts is the inverse of their fractions: Part 1 × (1/7) = Part 2 × (1/9).

⇒ Part 1 : Part 2 = 7 : 9.

Total units = 7 + 9 = 16 units → 96.

1 unit = 96 ÷ 16 = 6.

Larger part (9 units) = 9 × 6 = 54.

∴ The correct answer is 54.

Alternate Method

Given: Total sum = 96. Let the first part be x and the second part be y.

Formula Used: Sum of parts = x + y; Given condition: x/7 = y/9.

⇒ x + y = 96

⇒ x/7 = y/9 ⇒ x = 7y/9

⇒ 7y/9 + y = 96

⇒ (7y + 9y)/9 = 96

⇒ 16y/9 = 96

⇒ 16y = 96 × 9

⇒ y = 6 × 9 = 54

⇒ x = 96 − 54 = 42

∴ The correct answer is 54.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

If a/b = c/d, then the parts are in the ratio of their denominators when the numerators are equal.

Inverse Ratios

If m × A = n × B, then the ratio A : B is equal to n : m.

Question 12

'Project Udbhav is an initiative aimed at rediscovering and integrating ancient Indian military knowledge from texts on statecraft, warfare, diplomacy and grand strategy into modern military practices.' Who launched Project Udbhav?

  1. AOption (a)

    Army Training Command (ARTRAC) and Indian Air Force

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Army and United Service Institution (USI)

  3. COption (c)

    Indian Navy and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Defence and National Defence Academy (NDA)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Indian Army and United Service Institution (USI)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Army and United Service Institution (USI).

Key Points

  • Project Udbhav is an initiative to rediscover and integrate ancient Indian military knowledge into modern military practices.
  • It focuses on texts related to statecraft, warfare, diplomacy, and grand strategy.
  • The project aims to enhance the effectiveness and richness of contemporary military doctrines by drawing from historical Indian knowledge.
  • The Indian Army and the United Service Institution (USI) are the key organizations driving this initiative.
  • The United Service Institution (USI) is a prestigious institution that conducts research and training in defence and security studies.

 Additional Information

  • Army Training Command (ARTRAC) and Indian Air Force
  • The Army Training Command (ARTRAC) is responsible for institutional training in the Indian Army.
  • The Indian Air Force is the air arm of the Indian Armed Forces.
  • Indian Navy and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  • The Indian Navy is the naval branch of the Indian Armed Forces.
  • The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is responsible for the development of technology for use by the military.
  • Ministry of Defence and National Defence Academy (NDA)
  • The Ministry of Defence is charged with coordinating and supervising all agencies and functions of the government relating directly to national security and the armed forces.
  • The National Defence Academy (NDA) is the joint services academy of the Indian Armed Forces, where cadets of the three services, the Army, the Navy, and the Air Force train together before they go on to respective service academies for further pre-commission training.

Question 13

_________ are found in the epidermis of a leaf.

  1. AOption (a)

    Vascular bundle

  2. BOption (b)

    Chlorenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    Aerenchyma

  4. DOption (d)

    Stomata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Stomata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stomata.

Key Points

  • Stomata are small openings found on the surface of leaves.
  • They play a crucial role in gas exchange, allowing plants to take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
  • Stomata are also involved in the process of transpiration, which is the loss of water vapor from plants to the atmosphere.
  • Each stoma is flanked by two specialized cells known as guard cells that control its opening and closing.
  • The opening and closing of stomata help in maintaining water balance and regulating photosynthesis in plants.

 Additional Information

  • Vascular bundle
  • Vascular bundles are part of the plant's transport system.
  • They consist of xylem and phloem tissues, which are responsible for the transport of water, nutrients, and food throughout the plant.
  • Vascular bundles are found in the stem, roots, and leaves of plants but are not specific to the epidermis of a leaf.
  • Chlorenchyma
  • Chlorenchyma is a type of parenchyma tissue in plants that contains chloroplasts.
  • It is involved in the process of photosynthesis and is typically found in the mesophyll of leaves.
  • Aerenchyma
  • Aerenchyma is a type of parenchyma tissue with large air spaces.
  • It helps in providing buoyancy and facilitating the exchange of gases in aquatic plants.

Question 14

If the thrust experienced by an object of area 1000 cm2 is 50 N, then the pressure exerted on the object is:

  1. AOption (a)

    500 Pa

  2. BOption (b)

    20 Pa

  3. COption (c)

    30 Pa

  4. DOption (d)

    5 Pa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

500 Pa

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 500 Pa.

Key Points

  • Pressure is defined as the force exerted per unit area.
  • The formula for pressure (P) is: P = F/A where F is the force applied and A is the area over which the force is applied.
  • In this problem, the given force (F) is 50 N and the area (A) is 1000 cm².
  • First, convert the area from cm² to m² because the standard unit of pressure is the Pascal (Pa), which is N/m². Since 1 m² = 10,000 cm², we convert as follows: 1000 cm² = 1000/10,000 m² = 0.1 m².
  • Using the formula P = F/A, we substitute the given values: P = 50 N / 0.1 m².
  • This calculation yields P = 500 Pa.

 Additional Information

  • Pressure is a crucial concept in physics and engineering, and understanding how to calculate it is essential for solving many practical problems.
  • In real-world applications, pressure calculations are used in areas such as fluid dynamics, meteorology, and material science.
  • SI unit of pressure is the Pascal (Pa), which is equivalent to one Newton per square meter (N/m²).
  • Other units of pressure include the bar, atmosphere (atm), and psi (pounds per square inch).
  • Converting between different units of pressure is a common task in various scientific and engineering disciplines.

Question 15

B, C, D, E, F, G and K are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only two people sit between F and K when counted from the right of F. Only two people sit between K and C. Only three people sit between F and D. B sits to the immediate left of G.

Who sits third to the left of E?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    K

  3. COption (c)

    G

  4. DOption (d)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

G

Why this answer is correct

Given: B, C, D, E, F, G and K are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. 

1) Only two people sit between F and K when counted from the right of F.

2) Only two people sit between K and C.

3) Only three people sit between F and D.

  1. B sits to the immediate left of G.

After positioning B and G only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. E.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, G sits third to the left of E.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 16

Which of the following were found as dominant traits by Mendel in his experiment with pea plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Short plant and round seed

  2. BOption (b)

    Short plant and wrinkled seed 

  3. COption (c)

    Tall plant and wrinkled seed 

  4. DOption (d)

    Tall plant and round seed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tall plant and round seed

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Tall plant and round seed.

Key Points

  • Gregor Mendel is known as the father of genetics.
  • He conducted experiments on pea plants (Pisum sativum) to study the inheritance of traits.
  • Through his experiments, Mendel identified dominant and recessive traits in pea plants.
  • Tall plant (T) is a dominant trait, while short plant (t) is a recessive trait.
  • Round seed (R) is a dominant trait, while wrinkled seed (r) is a recessive trait.
  • Mendel's laws of inheritance include the Law of Segregation and the Law of Independent Assortment.
  • The Law of Segregation states that allele pairs separate during the formation of gametes, ensuring offspring acquire one factor from each parent.
  • The Law of Independent Assortment states that genes for different traits can segregate independently during the formation of gametes.

 Additional Information

  • Short plant
  • Short plant is a recessive trait in Mendel's pea plant experiments.
  • The genotype for short plants is represented as tt.
  • Wrinkled seed
  • Wrinkled seed is a recessive trait in Mendel's pea plant experiments.
  • The genotype for wrinkled seeds is represented as rr.

Question 17

Hydrophobic end and hydrophilic end of soap molecule:

  1. AOption (a)

    interacts with hydrocarbons and interacts with water, respectively

  2. BOption (b)

    interacts with water and interacts with acid, respectively 

  3. COption (c)

    interacts with hydrocarbons and interacts with base, respectively

  4. DOption (d)

    interacts with water and interacts with hydrocarbons, respectively

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

interacts with hydrocarbons and interacts with water, respectively

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is interacts with hydrocarbons and interacts with water, respectively.

Key Points

  • A soap molecule has two ends: a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end.
  • The hydrophobic end is non-polar and interacts with hydrocarbons like oils and grease.
  • The hydrophilic end is polar and interacts with water.
  • This dual nature of soap molecules allows them to act as emulsifying agents, helping to remove oils and dirt by forming micelles.
  • When soap is added to water, the hydrophobic ends of the soap molecules are attracted to the grease, while the hydrophilic ends are attracted to the water, effectively lifting and suspending the grease in the water.

 Additional Information

  • interacts with water and interacts with acid, respectively
  • This option is incorrect because the hydrophilic end of the soap molecule does not specifically interact with acids; it interacts with water.
  • interacts with hydrocarbons and interacts with base, respectively
  • This option is incorrect as the hydrophilic end of the soap molecule interacts with water, not bases.
  • interacts with water and interacts with hydrocarbons, respectively
  • This option is incorrect because it reverses the interactions; the hydrophobic end interacts with hydrocarbons, and the hydrophilic end interacts with water.

Question 18

Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 7 2 1 5 7 6 8 9 7 6 4 9 8 1 6 5 9 5 8 6 2 6 9 5 4 9 6 3 0 3 (Right)

What is the sum of the 1st digit from the left and the 7th digit from the right?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12

Why this answer is correct

Given series: (Left) 7 2 1 5 7 6 8 9 7 6 4 9 8 1 6 5 9 5 8 6 2 6 9 5 4 9 6 3 0 3 (Right)

According to the question, sum of the 1st digit from the left and the 7th digit from the right

(Left) 7 2 1 5 7 6 8 9 7 6 4 9 8 1 6 5 9 5 8 6 2 6 9 5 4 9 6 3 0 3 (Right) → 7 + 5 = 12

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 19

Select the correct IUPAC names for CH3COCH3 and C2H5OH compounds, respectively.

  1. AOption (a)

    Propanone and methanol

  2. BOption (b)

    Propanoic acid and ethanol 

  3. COption (c)

    Propanone and ethanol

  4. DOption (d)

    Ethanol and propanone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Propanone and ethanol

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Propanone and ethanol.

Key Points

  • Propanone is the IUPAC name for the compound with the formula CH3COCH3. It is commonly known as acetone.
  • Propanone is the simplest ketone and has various applications, including its use as a solvent in the laboratory and in the industry.
  • Ethanol is the IUPAC name for C2H5OH. It is also known as ethyl alcohol.
  • Ethanol is widely used as a solvent, in alcoholic beverages, and as a fuel or fuel additive.

 Additional Information

  • Propanone and methanol
  • Methanol is the simplest alcohol with the formula CH3OH. It is also known as methyl alcohol.
  • Methanol is used as a solvent, antifreeze, fuel, and as a denaturant for ethanol.
  • Propanoic acid and ethanol
  • Propanoic acid is a carboxylic acid with the formula CH3CH2COOH. It is used as a preservative and in the production of herbicides.
  • Ethanol and propanone
  • This option is incorrect because the order of the compounds is reversed. The question asked for the IUPAC names of CH3COCH3 first and then C2H5OH.

Question 20

Which of the following statements is/are correct related to eco-system?

(i) Non-biodegradable substance harms the various members of eco-system.

(ii) Non-biodegradable substances break-down by biological processes.

(iii) Non-biodegradable substances never persist in the environment.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (i), (ii) and (iii)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (i) and (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only (i)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only (i).

Key Points

  • Non-biodegradable substances do not break down by biological processes. They remain in the environment for a long time and can cause harm to various members of the ecosystem.
  • Examples of non-biodegradable substances include plastics, metals, and certain chemicals.
  • Biodegradable substances, on the other hand, can be broken down by natural processes involving microorganisms.
  • Biodegradable substances include food waste, paper, and other organic materials.
  • Non-biodegradable substances can accumulate and persist in the environment, leading to pollution and adverse effects on wildlife and human health.

 Additional Information

  • Option (ii)
  • Non-biodegradable substances do not break down through biological processes. This statement is incorrect because non-biodegradable substances resist decomposition and remain in the environment.
  • Option (iii)
  • Non-biodegradable substances do persist in the environment, sometimes for hundreds or thousands of years. Therefore, the statement that they never persist in the environment is incorrect.

Question 21

Find the simple interest on ₹800 at 7% per month in 9 months.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹524

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹514

  3. COption (c)

    ₹504

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹534

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹504

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Direct Calculation of Simple Interest using percentage logic.

Rate × Time ⇒ 7% × 9 = 63%

Interest = 63% of ₹800 ⇒ 0.63 × 800 = ₹504

∴ The correct answer is ₹504.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹800

Rate (R) = 7% per month

Time (T) = 9 months

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = (800 × 7 × 9) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 8 × 7 × 9

⇒ SI = 56 × 9

⇒ SI = ₹504

∴ The correct answer is ₹504.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where P is principal, R is rate of interest, and T is time. Ensure R and T are in the same time unit (both monthly or both annual).

Total Amount

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI). In this case, A = ₹800 + ₹504 = ₹1304.

Rate Conversion

To convert a monthly rate to an annual rate, multiply by 12. 7% per month is equivalent to 84% per annum.

Question 22

A sum when invested at 1212\frac{1}{2}% simple interest per annum amounts to ₹17,500 after 2 years. What is the simple interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹3,450

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹3,650

  3. COption (c)

    ₹3,500

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹3,700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹3,500

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate of 12.5% in fraction is 1/8.

In 2 years, Total Interest = 2 × (1/8) = 1/4 of Principal.

Amount = Principal + Interest = 1 + 1/4 = 5/4 units.

Given 5 units = ₹17,500 → 1 unit = ₹3,500.

Simple Interest (1 unit) = ₹3,500.

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,500.

Alternate Method

Given: Amount (A) = ₹17,500, Rate (R) = 12.5%, Time (T) = 2 years.

Formula Used: Amount = P + (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 17500 = P + (P × 12.5 × 2) / 100

⇒ 17500 = P + (P × 25) / 100

⇒ 17500 = P + P/4 = 5P/4

⇒ P = (17500 × 4) / 5 = 3500 × 4 = ₹14,000

⇒ Simple Interest = Amount − Principal = 17500 − 14000 = ₹3,500

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,500.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

SI = (P × R × T) / 100, where P is Principal, R is Rate per annum, and T is Time in years.

Fractional Conversion

Converting percentage to fractions (like 12.5% = 1/8) simplifies calculations significantly in competitive exams.

Relationship between SI and Amount

Amount = P(1 + RT/100). The interest remains constant every year in Simple Interest.

Question 23

If 2K × 412 = 1611, then the value of K is:

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

Given:

2K × 412 = 1611

Formula used:

(am)n = am × n

am × an = am + n

If am = an, then m = n

Calculations:

Convert all terms to base 2:

4 = 22

16 = 24

⇒ 2K × (22)12 = (24)11

⇒ 2K × 224 = 244

⇒ 2K + 24 = 244

⇒ K + 24 = 44

⇒ K = 44 − 24

⇒ K = 20

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 24

What will come in the place of the question mark "?" in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged '×' and '÷' and are interchanged?

10 × 5 - 13 + 4 ÷ 3 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given: 10 × 5 - 13 + 4 ÷ 3 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

10 × 5 - 13 + 4 ÷ 3 = ? ⇒ 10 ÷ 5 + 13 - 4 × 3 = ?

⇒ 10 ÷ 5 + 13 - 4 × 3 = ?

⇒ 2 + 13 - 4 × 3 = ?

⇒ 2 + 13 - 12 = ?

⇒ 15 - 12 = ?

⇒ 3 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 25

In a certain code language, 'metro city transport' is coded as 'qi de pu' and train national transport' is coded as 'la qi ti'. What is the code for 'transport' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    qi

  2. BOption (b)

    la

  3. COption (c)

    de

  4. DOption (d)

    pu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

qi

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes the code 'qi' is for the word 'transport'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 26

What will be the atomicity of oxygen and phosphorous?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diatomic and monoatomic

  2. BOption (b)

    Diatomic and triatomic

  3. COption (c)

    Diatomic and tetra-atomic

  4. DOption (d)

    Diatomic and diatomic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Diatomic and tetra-atomic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diatomic and tetra-atomic.

Key Points

  • Oxygen (O2) is a diatomic molecule, meaning it consists of two oxygen atoms.
  • The diatomic nature of oxygen is due to its tendency to form a double bond (O=O) with another oxygen atom, creating a stable molecule.
  • Phosphorus (P4), on the other hand, typically exists as a tetra-atomic molecule, meaning it consists of four phosphorus atoms.
  • The most common form of phosphorus in nature is white phosphorus, which has a tetrahedral structure with four phosphorus atoms.
  • The tetra-atomic nature of phosphorus is due to its preference for forming a P4 molecule to achieve stability.

 Additional Information

  • Diatomic
  • A diatomic molecule consists of two atoms of the same element or different elements bonded together.
  • Examples include hydrogen (H2), nitrogen (N2), and chlorine (Cl2).
  • Tetra-atomic
  • A tetra-atomic molecule consists of four atoms, which can be either of the same element or different elements.
  • Examples include white phosphorus (P4), arsenic (As4), and some silicates (SiO4).

Question 27

Chlorination of alkane is an example of:

  1. AOption (a)

    both addition and substitution chain reaction

  2. BOption (b)

    rearrangement reaction

  3. COption (c)

    addition reaction

  4. DOption (d)

    substitution reaction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

substitution reaction

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is substitution reaction.

Key Points

  • Chlorination of alkane is a type of free radical substitution reaction.
  • In this reaction, a hydrogen atom in the alkane is replaced by a chlorine atom.
  • This type of reaction typically occurs in the presence of UV light or heat, which provides the energy necessary to break the chlorine molecule (Cl2) into free radicals.
  • The reaction proceeds through a chain mechanism involving three steps: initiation, propagation, and termination.
  • In the initiation step, UV light causes the homolytic cleavage of chlorine molecules into two chlorine radicals.
  • During the propagation steps, chlorine radicals react with the alkane, producing alkyl radicals and HCl, which then react with more chlorine molecules to continue the chain reaction.
  • Finally, in the termination step, radicals combine to form stable products, thus ending the reaction.

 Additional Information

  • addition reaction
  • In an addition reaction, two or more molecules combine to form a larger molecule.
  • These reactions are common with compounds containing double or triple bonds, such as alkenes and alkynes.
  • An example of an addition reaction is the hydrogenation of ethene to form ethane.
  • rearrangement reaction
  • A rearrangement reaction involves the reorganization of the structure of a molecule.
  • An example is the Wagner-Meerwein rearrangement, where a carbocation undergoes a structural change to form a more stable carbocation.
  • These reactions are typical in organic chemistry where a molecule's skeletal structure is rearranged.

Question 28

If cosec 2θ = sec(θ - 30)°, then find the measure of θ (in degrees).

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    45

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

40

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For complementary angles, if cosec A = sec B, then A + B = 90°.

Here, A = 2θ and B = θ − 30°.

⇒ 2θ + θ − 30° = 90°

⇒ 3θ = 120° ⇒ θ = 40°.

∴ The correct answer is 40°.

Alternate Method

Given: cosec 2θ = sec(θ − 30°)

Formula Used: cosec A = sec(90° − A)

⇒ sec(90° − 2θ) = sec(θ − 30°)

⇒ 90° − 2θ = θ − 30°

⇒ 90° + 30° = θ + 2θ

⇒ 120° = 3θ

⇒ θ = 120° ÷ 3

⇒ θ = 40°

∴ The correct answer is 40°.

Additional Information

Complementary Angle Relations

Trigonometric ratios of complementary angles: sin θ = cos(90°−θ), tan θ = cot(90°−θ), and sec θ = cosec(90°−θ).

Identities for Co-functions

If f(A) = g(B) where f and g are co-functions (like sec and cosec), then A + B = 90° for acute angles.

Question 29

The energy possessed by a ball of mass 5 kg when it is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground is (take g = 10 m/s2):

  1. AOption (a)

    250 J

  2. BOption (b)

    10 J

  3. COption (c)

    2.5 J

  4. DOption (d)

    2 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

250 J

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 250 J.

Key Points

  • The potential energy of an object is given by the formula: PE = mgh.
  • Here, m is the mass of the object, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height above the ground.
  • Given: mass (m) = 5 kg, height (h) = 5 m, and acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s².
  • Using the formula: PE = mgh.
  • Substitute the given values: PE = 5 kg × 10 m/s² × 5 m.
  • Calculate the value: PE = 250 J.
  • Therefore, the energy possessed by the ball is 250 J.

 Additional Information

  • Potential Energy (PE)
  • Potential energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position or height.
  • It is a type of mechanical energy.
  • Potential energy is stored energy and has the potential to do work.
  • Gravitational Potential Energy
  • This is the potential energy an object has due to its position in a gravitational field.
  • It is directly proportional to the mass, height, and the gravitational acceleration.
  • Higher the object is above the ground, the higher its gravitational potential energy.

Question 30

Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only, and all counting is to be done from left to right).

(Left) 4 4 9 6 8 13 9 4 9 8 8 4 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 5 6 9 2 8 4 8 9 5 5 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given series: (Left) 4 4 9 6 8 13 9 4 9 8 8 4 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 5 6 9 2 8 4 8 9 5 5 (Right)

According to the question, such odd digit which are immediately preceded by an even number and is immediately followed by an odd number:

Required condition: Even number - Odd digit - Odd digit

(Left) 4 4 9 6 8 13 9 4 9 8 8 4 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 5 6 9 2 8 4 8 9 5 5 (Right)

Thus, there are four such odd digits which are immediately preceded by an even number and is immediately followed by an odd number.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 31

On __________ December 2023, the National Level Programme on Anganwadi-Cum-Crèche released the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for the scheme in New Delhi.

  1. AOption (a)

    23rd 

  2. BOption (b)

    21st

  3. COption (c)

    27th

  4. DOption (d)

    29th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21st

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21st.

Key Points

  • On 21st December 2023, the National Level Programme on Anganwadi-Cum-Crèche released the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for the scheme in New Delhi.
  • This SOP aims to streamline and standardize the functioning of Anganwadi-Cum-Crèche centers.
  • The Anganwadi-Cum-Crèche scheme is designed to provide integrated child development services including health, nutrition, and early education to children.
  • The release of the SOP is a significant step towards ensuring the effective implementation of the scheme and enhancing the quality of services provided to children and mothers.
  • The event held on 21st December 2023 marks a crucial development in the efforts of the government to improve child care and development services across the country.

 Additional Information

  • Anganwadi-Cum-Crèche: This scheme is part of the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) program, which aims to provide a package of services including supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-ups, and referral services for children under six years of age and their mothers.
  • Standard Operating Procedure (SOP): The SOP provides detailed guidelines and protocols to ensure the smooth and effective functioning of the Anganwadi-Cum-Crèche centers, focusing on aspects such as infrastructure, staffing, health and nutrition services, and early childhood education.
  • New Delhi: As the capital city of India, New Delhi often serves as the venue for significant national-level events and announcements related to government schemes and programs.

Question 32

The difference between two numbers is 46 and they are in the ratio 5 ∶ 3. Find the smaller number.

  1. AOption (a)

    69

  2. BOption (b)

    46

  3. COption (c)

    63

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

69

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of two numbers = 5 : 3

Difference in ratio units = 5 − 3 = 2 units

According to question, 2 units = 46

⇒ 1 unit = 46 ÷ 2 = 23

Smaller number (3 units) = 3 × 23 = 69

∴ The correct answer is 69.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of numbers = 5 : 3

Difference between numbers = 46

⇒ Let the numbers be 5x and 3x.

⇒ 5x − 3x = 46

⇒ 2x = 46

⇒ x = 46 ÷ 2

⇒ x = 23

⇒ Smaller number = 3x = 3 × 23

⇒ Smaller number = 69

∴ The correct answer is 69.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

A ratio compares two quantities by division. If a : b = c : d, then a × d = b × c (Product of extremes = Product of means).

Unitary Method in Ratios

Divide the actual value by the number of ratio units it represents to find the value of 1 unit, then multiply by the required ratio part.

Duplicate and Sub-duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a2 : b2, and the sub-duplicate ratio is √a : √b.

Question 33

A box full of dry fruits weighs 12.650 kg. If the weight of the dry fruits is 9 kg 800 g, the weight of the empty box is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2850 g

  2. BOption (b)

    2750 g

  3. COption (c)

    2725 g

  4. DOption (d)

    2825 g

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2850 g

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert everything to grams for faster subtraction: 1 kg = 1000 g.

Total weight = 12650 g

Dry fruits weight = 9800 g

Box weight = 12650 − 9800 = 2850 g.

∴ The correct answer is 2850 g.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total weight of box + dry fruits = 12.650 kg

Weight of dry fruits only = 9 kg 800 g

Formula Used:

Weight of Empty Box = Total Weight − Weight of Contents

Calculations:

⇒ Total Weight = 12.650 × 1000 = 12650 g

⇒ Dry Fruits Weight = (9 × 1000) + 800 = 9800 g

⇒ Weight of Empty Box = 12650 g − 9800 g

⇒ Weight of Empty Box = 2850 g

∴ The correct answer is 2850 g.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

Standard metric unit for mass is Kilogram (kg). 1 kg = 1000 grams (g) and 1 gram = 1000 milligrams (mg).

Gross vs Net Weight

Gross Weight is the total weight (Box + Content). Net Weight is the weight of the content only. Tare Weight is the weight of the empty container.

Question 34

KPNS is related to QVTY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HMKP is related to NSQV. To which of the following options is DIGL related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    OJMR

  2. BOption (b)

    JOMR

  3. COption (c)

    JORM

  4. DOption (d)

    OJRM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

JOMR

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

KPNS is related to QVTY

And,

HMKP is related to NSQV

Similarly,

DIGL is related to

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 35

In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of action, numbered I and II. You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement :

The Institute has come under scrutiny from the Committee for failing to conduct a dozen regular programmes despite an increase in employees and for failing to create a solid action plan for studies and research.

Courses of Action :

I. To carry out a workable action plan, the institute's overarching objectives need to be redefined.

II. The Institute needs to provide a report on the factors that prevented the planned programmes from being carried out.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only I follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

Given statement: The Institute has come under scrutiny from the Committee for failing to conduct a dozen regular programmes despite an increase in employees and for failing to create a solid action plan for studies and research.

Given courses of Actions:

I. To carry out a workable action plan, the institute's overarching objectives need to be redefined. → Follow

As the institute has been criticized for the lack of a solid plan. If the current objectives are unclear or ineffective, redefining them could help in formulating a more structured approach.

II. The Institute needs to provide a report on the factors that prevented the planned programmes from being carried out. → Follow

As identifying and reporting the reasons for the failures is a logical step to toward improvement. Moreover understanding the obstacles will help in addressing the root causes and devising amore effective plan.

Thus, both I and II follow.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 36

The roots of a plant always grow downwards while the shoots usually grow upwards and away from the earth. This upward and downward growth of shoots and roots is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    hydrotropism

  2. BOption (b)

    geotropism

  3. COption (c)

    chemotropism

  4. DOption (d)

    phototropic movement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

geotropism

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is geotropism.

Key Points

  • Geotropism is the growth of plant roots downward, towards the earth, and the growth of shoots upward, away from the earth.
  • This type of movement is also known as gravitropism, as it is influenced by gravity.
  • Roots exhibit positive geotropism as they grow downward into the soil.
  • Shoots exhibit negative geotropism as they grow upward away from the earth.
  • This growth orientation helps the plant to anchor itself and access water and nutrients from the soil.
  • Geotropism ensures that the plant's leaves are exposed to sunlight for photosynthesis.

 Additional Information

  • Hydrotropism
  • Hydrotropism is the growth movement of a plant in response to water.
  • Roots exhibit positive hydrotropism as they grow towards moisture.
  • This response helps plants to find and absorb water from the soil.
  • Chemotropism
  • Chemotropism is the growth of plants in response to a chemical stimulus.
  • An example is the growth of pollen tubes towards the ovules, guided by chemicals released by the ovules.
  • This is crucial for the process of fertilization in flowering plants.
  • Phototropic Movement
  • Phototropic movement is the growth of a plant in response to light.
  • Shoots generally exhibit positive phototropism by growing towards the light source.
  • This helps the plant to maximize light absorption for photosynthesis.

Question 37

An object with a mass of 10 kg is moving with an initial velocity of 3 m/s and its final velocity becomes 5 m/s. Then the change in its kinetic energy is:

  1. AOption (a)

    160 J

  2. BOption (b)

    40 J

  3. COption (c)

    80 J

  4. DOption (d)

    50 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

80 J

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 80 J.

Key Points

  • The change in kinetic energy is calculated using the relation:

ΔKE = (1/2) m ( vf2 − vi2 )

  • Here, m is the mass, vf the final velocity, and vi the initial velocity.
  • Substituting the given values:

ΔKE = (1/2) × 10 × ( 52 − 32 )

  • This becomes:

ΔKE = (1/2) × 10 × ( 25 − 9 )

  • Simplifying further:

ΔKE = 5 × 16

  • Therefore:

ΔKE = 80 J

  • The change in kinetic energy is 80 joules.

Additional Information

  • Kinetic Energy
  • Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses due to its motion.
  • It is given by KE = (1/2) m v2.
  • The SI unit of kinetic energy is the joule (J).
  • Mass
  • Mass is the measure of the amount of matter in a body and is measured in kilograms (kg).
  • It is a scalar quantity and remains constant irrespective of location.

Question 38

Which of the following statements is true about the free fall of an object under gravitational force? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The acceleration experienced by an object depends on its mass.

  2. BOption (b)

    The velocity of the object remains constant during free fall.

  3. COption (c)

    The acceleration experienced by an object is independent of its mass. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The acceleration experienced by an object is opposite to the direction of motion.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The acceleration experienced by an object is independent of its mass. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The acceleration experienced by an object is independent of its mass.

Key Points

  • The acceleration due to gravity is denoted by the symbol g and has a value of approximately 9.8 m/s² near the surface of the Earth.
  • According to the principle of Galileo's law of falling bodies, all objects fall at the same rate regardless of their mass when only the gravitational force is acting upon them.
  • This means that in a vacuum, where there is no air resistance, a feather and a hammer will fall at the same rate.
  • The concept is also supported by Newton's second law of motion, which states that force equals mass times acceleration (F = ma). When considering only gravitational force, the mass of the object cancels out, leaving the acceleration due to gravity constant.
  • This fundamental principle of physics demonstrates that acceleration due to gravity is a constant and does not depend on the mass of the object.

 Additional Information

  • Acceleration experienced by an object depends on its mass
  • This statement is incorrect because the acceleration due to gravity is a constant and does not vary with the mass of the object.
  • The velocity of the object remains constant during free fall
  • This statement is incorrect because the velocity of an object in free fall continues to increase as it falls due to the constant acceleration of gravity.
  • The acceleration experienced by an object is opposite to the direction of motion
  • This statement is incorrect because the acceleration due to gravity acts in the direction of motion (downward) when an object is in free fall.

Question 39

D, E, F, G, L, M and N are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only one person sits between L and E when counted from the left of E. G sits third to the right of N. M sits third to the left of F. G sits to the immediate right of M. D is not an immediate neighbour of M. How many people sit between D and E when counted from the right of D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Three

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given: D, E, F, G, L, M and N are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1) G sits third to the right of N.

2) G sits to the immediate right of M. 

3) M sits third to the left of F.

  1. D is not an immediate neighbour of M. 

5) Only one person sits between L and E when counted from the left of E.

Thus, according to the final arrangement, three people sit between D and E when counted from the right of D.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 40

Which of the following options does NOT represent a characteristic of solids?

  1. AOption (a)

    Solids have negligible compressibility.

  2. BOption (b)

    Solids have a definite shape.

  3. COption (c)

    Solids have fixed volume.

  4. DOption (d)

    Solids have indistinct boundaries.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Solids have indistinct boundaries.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Solids have indistinct boundaries.

Key Points

  • Solids have a definite shape due to the fixed positions of their particles.
  • They also have a fixed volume because their particles are closely packed and do not easily move.
  • The compressibility of solids is negligible because their particles are already tightly packed.
  • Solids typically have distinct boundaries, meaning their edges or surfaces are well-defined.
  • Because of the fixed arrangement of particles, solids do not easily change their shape or volume under normal conditions.

 Additional Information

  • Solids have negligible compressibility.
  • This characteristic refers to the inability of solids to be compressed or change volume significantly due to the close packing of their particles.
  • Solids have a definite shape.
  • The particles in solids are arranged in a fixed, rigid structure, giving them a definite shape that does not change easily.
  • Solids have fixed volume.
  • Solids maintain a constant volume because their particles are tightly packed and cannot be easily displaced.

Question 41

Who presented the Union Budget 2024-25 in the Parliament on 23 July 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw

  2. BOption (b)

    Shri Bhupender Yadav

  3. COption (c)

    Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman

  4. DOption (d)

    Shri Shaktikanta Das

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman.

Key Points

  • Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman is the current Minister of Finance and Minister of Corporate Affairs of India.
  • She has been serving as the Finance Minister of India since May 2019.
  • Ms. Sitharaman is the first full-time female Finance Minister of India.
  • She presented the Union Budget 2024-25 in the Parliament on 23 July 2024.
  • The Union Budget is an annual financial statement presented by the Government of India, outlining its estimated revenue and expenditure for the upcoming fiscal year.
  • Her tenure has seen significant economic policies and reforms aimed at boosting the Indian economy.

 Additional Information

  • Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw
  • Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw is the Minister of Railways, Communications, and Electronics & Information Technology of India.
  • He has held these positions since July 2021.
  • Shri Bhupender Yadav
  • Shri Bhupender Yadav is the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and Minister of Labour and Employment of India.
  • He has been serving in these roles since July 2021.
  • Shri Shaktikanta Das
  • Shri Shaktikanta Das is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • He has been serving as the RBI Governor since December 2018.

Question 42

The tissue which makes the plant hard and stiff and provides strength to the plant parts is the:

  1. AOption (a)

    sclerenchyma

  2. BOption (b)

    aerenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    chlorenchyma

  4. DOption (d)

    collenchyma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

sclerenchyma

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is sclerenchyma.

Key Points

  • Sclerenchyma is a type of plant tissue that provides mechanical support and strength to the plant.
  • This tissue is composed of cells that have thickened secondary walls that are usually impregnated with lignin, making them hard and rigid.
  • Sclerenchyma cells are often dead at maturity and have no protoplast.
  • There are two types of sclerenchyma cells: fibers and sclereids.
  • Fibers are long and slender, usually occurring in bundles, while sclereids are varied in shape and can be found in various parts of the plant.
  • This tissue is found in regions of the plant that have stopped growing in length, such as the bark, mature stems, and seed coats.

 Additional Information

  • Aerenchyma
  • Aerenchyma is a type of plant tissue that forms spaces or air channels in the leaves, stems, and roots of some plants.
  • It facilitates the exchange of gases between the plant and its environment and helps in buoyancy in aquatic plants.
  • Chlorenchyma
  • Chlorenchyma is a type of parenchyma cell that contains chloroplasts and is involved in photosynthesis.
  • This tissue is primarily found in the mesophyll of leaves.
  • Collenchyma
  • Collenchyma is a type of plant tissue that provides support and flexibility to growing parts of the plant.
  • It consists of living cells with unevenly thickened cell walls.
  • This tissue is often found in stems, leaves, and petioles.

Question 43

Consider a long conducting wire carrying a current. Which of the following statements is NOT true? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The magnetic field will reverse the direction if we reverse the current.

  2. BOption (b)

    We can use Fleming's left-hand rule to determine the direction of magnetic field.

  3. COption (c)

    The magnetic field decreases as we move away from the wire.

  4. DOption (d)

    The strength of the magnetic field increases if we increase the current.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

We can use Fleming's left-hand rule to determine the direction of magnetic field.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is We can use Fleming's left-hand rule to determine the direction of magnetic field..

Key Points

  • Fleming's left-hand rule is used to determine the direction of force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field, not the direction of the magnetic field.
  • The correct rule to determine the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor is the Right-hand thumb rule.
  • According to the Right-hand thumb rule, if you grasp the conductor with your right hand such that the thumb points in the direction of the current, the fingers will curl around the conductor in the direction of the magnetic field lines.
  • Reversing the current in the conductor will reverse the direction of the magnetic field lines around the conductor.
  • The magnetic field strength decreases with increasing distance from the wire, following an inverse proportionality.
  • Increasing the current in the wire will increase the strength of the magnetic field around the wire.

 Additional Information

  • Right-hand thumb rule
  • This rule is specifically used to determine the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor.
  • It is also known as the Maxwell's corkscrew rule.
  • Magnetic field direction reversal
  • When the current in a conductor is reversed, the direction of the magnetic field lines around the conductor also reverses.
  • This follows from the right-hand thumb rule.
  • Magnetic field strength and distance
  • The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor decreases with increasing distance from the conductor.
  • This is described by the equation B ∝ 1/r, where B is the magnetic field strength and r is the distance from the wire.
  • Increasing current and magnetic field strength
  • Increasing the current in the wire will proportionally increase the strength of the magnetic field around the wire.
  • This follows from the Biot-Savart law and Ampere's circuital law.

Question 44

Which of the following statements is/are correct related to eco-system?

(i) UV radiation is not damaging to organisms.

(ii) Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on oxygen molecule.

(iii) The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to drop sharply in 1980.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (i)

  3. COption (c)

    (i), (ii) and (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (i) and (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only (ii) and (iii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only (ii) and (iii).

Key Points

  • UV radiation is indeed damaging to organisms. It can cause skin cancer, eye damage, and can also negatively affect plant life.
  • Ozone at higher levels of the atmosphere, specifically the stratosphere, is produced by UV radiation acting on oxygen molecules, leading to the formation of the ozone layer which protects life on Earth by blocking harmful UV radiation.
  • The amount of ozone in the atmosphere started to drop sharply around 1980 due to the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances, leading to the creation of the ozone hole.

 Additional Information

  • UV radiation
  • UV radiation has both beneficial and harmful effects. While it is crucial for the production of vitamin D in humans, excessive exposure can lead to health issues such as skin cancer, premature aging, and cataracts.
  • It also affects marine ecosystems by impacting the survival rates of phytoplankton, which are the foundation of the marine food web.
  • Ozone Layer Depletion
  • Ozone layer depletion is primarily caused by human-made chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and other related chemicals.
  • These chemicals release chlorine and bromine atoms in the stratosphere, which destroy ozone molecules.
  • The Montreal Protocol, signed in 1987, is an international treaty designed to phase out the production of numerous substances responsible for ozone depletion.

Question 45

A and B can do a piece of work in 6 days and 8 days, respectively. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days and earned ₹3,848. What was the share of C?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹481

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,443

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,693

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹861

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹481

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency ratio is the inverse of time for the same work.

A's work share = 3/6 = 1/2 | B's work share = 3/8

C's work share = 1 − (1/2 + 3/8) = 1 − 7/8 = 1/8

C's share of money = 1/8 × ₹3,848 = ₹481

∴ The correct answer is ₹481.

Alternate Method

Given: A = 6 days, B = 8 days, A + B + C = 3 days, Total Earnings = ₹3,848

Formula: Wages are distributed in the ratio of Efficiency or Work Done.

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A6244
B83
A + B + C38

⇒ Efficiency of C = Efficiency of (A+B+C) − (Efficiency of A + Efficiency of B)

⇒ Efficiency of C = 8 − (4 + 3) = 1

⇒ Ratio of shares A : B : C = 4 : 3 : 1

⇒ Total ratio parts = 4 + 3 + 1 = 8 units

⇒ 8 units = ₹3,848

⇒ 1 unit (C's share) = 3,848 ÷ 8 = ₹481

∴ The correct answer is ₹481.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Rule

Wages are directly proportional to the work done by each individual. If they work for the same duration, wages are proportional to their efficiencies.

Efficiency Calculation

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time Taken. Total work is usually taken as the LCM of individual time periods.

Combined Work Formula

If A and B work together, their combined efficiency is the sum of their individual efficiencies: Etotal = EA + EB.

Question 46

In the digestive system, which of the following releases hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and mucus?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pancreas

  2. BOption (b)

    Gall bladder

  3. COption (c)

    Gastric glands

  4. DOption (d)

    Salivary glands

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gastric glands

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Gastric glands.

Key Points

  • Gastric glands are located in the lining of the stomach.
  • They release hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps in creating an acidic environment in the stomach.
  • Hydrochloric acid is essential for the activation of the enzyme pepsin from its inactive form, pepsinogen.
  • Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides.
  • The gastric glands also secrete mucus to protect the stomach lining from the corrosive effects of hydrochloric acid.

 Additional Information

  • Pancreas
  • The pancreas is a gland located behind the stomach.
  • It produces digestive enzymes such as amylase, lipase, and proteases but does not produce hydrochloric acid.
  • The pancreas also releases insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels.
  • Gall bladder
  • The gall bladder is a small organ located beneath the liver.
  • Its primary function is to store and concentrate bile, which is produced by the liver.
  • Bile aids in the digestion and absorption of fats but does not contain digestive enzymes or hydrochloric acid.
  • Salivary glands
  • The salivary glands are located in and around the mouth.
  • They produce saliva, which contains the enzyme amylase that helps in the digestion of starches.
  • Salivary glands do not produce hydrochloric acid, pepsin, or mucus.

Question 47

The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:

  1. AOption (a)

    neutrons

  2. BOption (b)

    both protons and neutrons

  3. COption (c)

    protons

  4. DOption (d)

    electrons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

protons

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is protons.

Key Points

  • The atomic number of an element is defined by the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
  • Each element has a unique number of protons, which distinguishes it from other elements.
  • The number of protons in the nucleus is also equal to the number of electrons in a neutral atom.
  • The atomic number is a fundamental property that determines an element's chemical behavior.
  • The periodic table of elements is arranged in order of increasing atomic number.

 Additional Information

  • Neutrons
  • Neutrons are neutral particles found in the nucleus of an atom.
  • The number of neutrons can vary in atoms of the same element, leading to different isotopes.
  • Electrons
  • Electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit the nucleus of an atom.
  • The number of electrons in a neutral atom is equal to the number of protons.

Question 48

Study the following pie-chart and answer the question that follows.

The following pie chart shows the breakup of sales of the different products of Company X in the year 2022.

If the total number of items sold by the company was 1000 in 2022, what was the total number of raincoats and jackets sold by the company in the year?

  1. AOption (a)

    200

  2. BOption (b)

    180

  3. COption (c)

    230

  4. DOption (d)

    210

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

210

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total items sold = 1000

Percentage of Raincoats = 13%

Percentage of Jackets = 8%

Formula used:

Number of items sold = Percentage100×Total number of items\dfrac{\text{Percentage}}{100} \times \text{Total number of items}

Calculation:

Number of Raincoats sold = 13100×1000=130\dfrac{13}{100} \times 1000 = 130

Number of Jackets sold = 8100×1000=80\dfrac{8}{100} \times 1000 = 80

Total number of Raincoats and Jackets sold = 130 + 80 = 210

∴ The total number of raincoats and jackets sold by the company is 210.

Question 49

Which of the following is the most reactive metal in the reactivity series?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gold

  2. BOption (b)

    Zinc

  3. COption (c)

    Potassium

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Potassium

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Potassium.

Key Points

  • Potassium is known to be the most reactive metal in the reactivity series.
  • It belongs to the alkali metals group in the periodic table, which is Group 1.
  • Potassium reacts vigorously with water, producing hydrogen gas and heat, which can ignite the hydrogen.
  • Its high reactivity is due to its single valence electron, which it can easily lose to form a positive ion.
  • This metal must be stored in oil or an inert atmosphere to prevent it from reacting with moisture or oxygen in the air.
  • Potassium is used in various applications, including fertilizers and as a critical element in biological processes.

 Additional Information

  • Gold
  • Gold is a less reactive metal and is found in its native form in nature.
  • It is highly valued for its non-reactivity and is used extensively in jewelry and electronics due to its excellent conductivity.
  • Zinc
  • Zinc is a moderately reactive metal.
  • It is commonly used for galvanization to protect iron and steel from corrosion.
  • Sodium
  • Sodium is also highly reactive, similar to potassium, and is part of the alkali metals group.
  • It reacts vigorously with water and oxygen and is used in various industrial processes.

Question 50

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. F is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between F and E. D is kept at one of the positions below F. Only A is kept between E and C. B is kept at one of the positions above E. How many boxes are kept between E and D?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given: Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other.

1) F is kept second from the bottom. 

2) Only three boxes are kept between F and E.

Sr.noBoxes
Top
1
2E
3
4
5
6F
7
Bottom

3) B is kept at one of the positions above E.

4) Only A is kept between E and C.

Sr.noBoxes
Top
1B
2E
3A
4C
5
6F
7
Bottom

5) D is kept at one of the positions below F. 

After positioning D only one position is left which will be occupied by the box left i.e. G.

Sr.noBoxes
Top
1B
2E
3A
4C
5G
6F
7D
Bottom

Thus, according to the final arrangement four boxes can be kept between E and D.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 51

All of the following are signals that sexual maturation is taking place, EXCEPT:

  1. AOption (a)

    increased size and shape of breast or penis

  2. BOption (b)

    blue colour of eyes

  3. COption (c)

    different patterns of hair growth

  4. DOption (d)

    girls begin to menstruate at around this time

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

blue colour of eyes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is blue colour of eyes.

Key Points

  • The blue colour of eyes is not an indicator of sexual maturation.
  • Sexual maturation involves significant physical and hormonal changes.
  • These changes include the development of secondary sexual characteristics such as increased size and shape of breasts or penis.
  • Another sign is the emergence of different patterns of hair growth in areas such as the underarms and pubic region.
  • For girls, the beginning of menstruation is a clear signal of sexual maturation.

 Additional Information

  • Increased size and shape of breast or penis
  • The growth of breasts in females and the enlargement of the penis in males are primary indicators of sexual maturation.
  • These changes are driven by hormonal changes during puberty.
  • Different patterns of hair growth
  • During puberty, both boys and girls develop hair in new areas such as the underarms, pubic region, and sometimes facial hair for boys.
  • This is due to the increase in androgen hormones.
  • Girls begin to menstruate at around this time
  • The onset of menstruation, also known as menarche, typically occurs between the ages of 11 and 14.
  • This signifies that a girl’s body is capable of reproduction.

Question 52

A bought an item for ₹384 and sold it for ₹576. B bought another item for ₹1,254 and sold it for ₹1,672. What is the ratio of the gain percentage of A to the gain percentage of B?

  1. AOption (a)

    53\frac{5}{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    52\frac{5}{2}

  3. COption (c)

    34\frac{3}{4}

  4. DOption (d)

    32\frac{3}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

32\frac{3}{2}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For A: Profit% = (576 − 384) ÷ 384 × 100 = 192 ÷ 384 × 100 = 50%.

For B: Profit% = (1672 − 1254) ÷ 1254 × 100 = 418 ÷ 1254 × 100 = 100 ÷ 3 %.

Ratio = 50 : (100 ÷ 3) = 150 : 100 = 3 : 2.

∴ The correct answer is 3/2.

Alternate Method

Given: CPA = ₹384, SPA = ₹576 | CPB = ₹1,254, SPB = ₹1,672.

Formulas: Profit = SP − CP | Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Gain for A = 576 − 384 = 192.

⇒ Gain% of A = (192 ÷ 384) × 100 = 50%.

⇒ Gain for B = 1672 − 1254 = 418.

⇒ Gain% of B = (418 ÷ 1254) × 100 = (1 ÷ 3) × 100 = 100/3%.

⇒ Ratio = 50% : (100/3)% = 50 × 3 : 100 = 150 : 100 = 3 : 2.

∴ The correct answer is 3/2.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when the Selling Price (SP) is greater than the Cost Price (CP). It is always calculated on the CP unless stated otherwise.

Ratio of Percentages

When finding the ratio of two percentages, ensure they are calculated on their respective bases before comparing.

Question 53

An object A with a mass m and velocity v has a kinetic energy of 100 J. Then the kinetic energy of an object B with a mass of 2 m and velocity v is:

  1. AOption (a)

    300 J

  2. BOption (b)

    200 J

  3. COption (c)

    50 J

  4. DOption (d)

    400 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

200 J

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 200 J.

Key Points

  • The kinetic energy (K.E.) of an object is given by the formula, KE=12mv2KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2 where m is the mass and v is the velocity of the object.
  • Given: Object A has a kinetic energy of 100 J with mass m and velocity v.
  • The kinetic energy of object A is calculated as KEA=12mv2=100JKE_A=\frac{1}{2}mv^2=100J
  • For object B, the mass is 2m and the velocity remains v.
  • Substitute these values into the kinetic energy formula for object B: KEB=12×2m×v2=2KEAKE_B=\frac{1}{2}\times2m\times v^2=2KE_A
  • Thus, KEB=2×100=200JKE_B=2\times100=200J.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 200 J.

 Additional Information

  • Kinetic Energy
  • Kinetic energy is the energy that an object possesses due to its motion.
  • It is directly proportional to the mass of the object and the square of its velocity.
  • The standard unit for measuring kinetic energy is the Joule (J).
  • Mass and Velocity
  • In the given problem, the mass m and velocity v are crucial factors that determine the kinetic energy.
  • Doubling the mass while keeping the velocity constant doubles the kinetic energy.

Question 54

In a certain code language, 'PLATE' is coded as '25693' and 'MASK' is coded as '3417' and 'KEPT' is coded as '4695'. What is the code for 'L' in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

 

Thus, code for 'L' is '2'.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 55

For the first time in the General Elections 2024, which facility has been extended pan - India for only senior citizens and Persons with Disabilities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Early voting

  2. BOption (b)

    Postal voting

  3. COption (c)

    Online voting

  4. DOption (d)

    Home voting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Home voting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Home voting.

Key Points

  • The facility of home voting has been extended pan-India for the first time in the General Elections 2024.
  • This facility is specifically designed for senior citizens (aged 80 years and above) and Persons with Disabilities (PwD).
  • The primary aim is to ensure that these individuals can participate in the voting process without facing the difficulties of traveling to polling stations.
  • Election officials will visit the homes of eligible voters to collect their votes.
  • This initiative is in line with the Election Commission of India’s commitment to making elections more inclusive and accessible.
  • It also highlights the focus on inclusivity and accessibility in the electoral process.

 Additional Information

  • Early voting
  • Early voting allows voters to cast their ballots before the official election day.
  • This is typically available to make voting more convenient for those who may not be able to vote on election day.
  • Postal voting
  • Postal voting is a method where ballots are distributed to voters and returned by post.
  • It is often used by overseas voters and those who are unable to attend polling stations in person.
  • Online voting
  • Online voting allows voters to cast their votes via the internet.
  • It is still in the experimental stages in many countries due to security concerns.

Question 56

In which simple multi-cellular organism does sporangia develop on hyphae and spore formation occurs in sporangia?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rhizopus

  2. BOption (b)

    Leishmania

  3. COption (c)

    Yeast

  4. DOption (d)

    Amoeba

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rhizopus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rhizopus.

Key Points

  • Rhizopus is a genus of common fungi.
  • It is also known as black bread mold due to its appearance and growth on bread.
  • Sporangia are structures that develop on the hyphae of Rhizopus.
  • Spore formation occurs within these sporangia.
  • These spores are then released to reproduce and spread the fungus.
  • Rhizopus species are important in industrial and food processing applications.

 Additional Information

  • Leishmania
  • Leishmania is a genus of protozoan parasites.
  • It is responsible for the disease leishmaniasis, which is transmitted by the bite of infected sandflies.
  • Leishmaniasis affects various parts of the body, including the skin and internal organs.
  • Yeast
  • Yeasts are single-celled fungi.
  • They are used in baking, brewing, and winemaking due to their ability to ferment sugars.
  • The most common type of yeast is Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
  • Amoeba
  • Amoeba is a type of single-celled organism.
  • It moves and feeds using pseudopodia, which are temporary projections of its cell body.
  • Amoebas are found in various water bodies and moist environments.

Question 57

Sometimes, when there is a lack of oxygen in our muscle cells, the pyruvate by anaerobic respiration is converted into:

  1. AOption (a)

    acetic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    lactic acid

  3. COption (c)

    ethyl alcohol

  4. DOption (d)

    methyl alcohol

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

lactic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is lactic acid.

Key Points

  • During anaerobic respiration, which occurs in the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted into lactic acid in the muscle cells.
  • This process is known as lactic acid fermentation and it allows the cells to continue producing ATP (energy) despite the lack of oxygen.
  • The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles can cause muscle fatigue and soreness.
  • This conversion is facilitated by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase.
  • In contrast to aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration produces far less ATP, but it is crucial during intense exercise or when oxygen levels are low.
  • Lactic acid fermentation is a temporary solution to meet the energy demands of the muscle cells under strenuous conditions.

 Additional Information

  • Acetic acid
  • Acetic acid is not a product of anaerobic respiration in muscle cells.
  • It is a key component of vinegar and is produced through the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria.
  • Ethyl alcohol
  • Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) is produced during anaerobic respiration in yeast cells and some types of bacteria, not in muscle cells.
  • This process is known as alcoholic fermentation.
  • Methyl alcohol
  • Methyl alcohol (methanol) is not a product of anaerobic respiration.
  • It is a toxic alcohol that is used industrially as a solvent, antifreeze, and fuel.

Question 58

The chemical reaction Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) represents which type of reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Combustion reaction

  2. BOption (b)

    Displacement reaction

  3. COption (c)

    Combination reaction

  4. DOption (d)

    Double Displacement reaction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Displacement reaction

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Displacement reaction.

Key Points

  • The reaction Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) is an example of a displacement reaction.
  • In a displacement reaction, a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound.
  • Here, iron (Fe) is more reactive than copper (Cu), so iron displaces copper from copper sulfate (CuSO4).
  • This results in the formation of iron sulfate (FeSO4) and copper (Cu).
  • Displacement reactions are also known as single replacement reactions.

 Additional Information

  • Combustion reaction
  • A combustion reaction involves the burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen to produce heat and light.
  • Common examples include the burning of fuels like methane (CH4) in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
  • Combination reaction
  • In a combination reaction, two or more substances combine to form a single product.
  • An example is the reaction between hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2) to form water (H2O).
  • Double Displacement reaction
  • A double displacement reaction involves the exchange of ions between two compounds to form new compounds.
  • An example is the reaction between sodium chloride (NaCl) and silver nitrate (AgNO3) to form sodium nitrate (NaNO3) and silver chloride (AgCl).

Question 59

Who was awarded the Vigyan Ratna - 2024 for contributions in the field of Biological Sciences?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dr. Aditi Sen De

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. Swati Nayak

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. Ramesh Sharma

  4. DOption (d)

    Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan.

Key Points

  • Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan is a renowned Indian biochemist and academician.
  • He has made significant contributions to the field of molecular biology and biotechnology.
  • Prof. Padmanabhan is known for his research on malarial parasite metabolism and the development of recombinant vaccines.
  • He has been associated with the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, where he has served in various capacities including Director.
  • He is a recipient of several prestigious awards including the Padma Shri and the Padma Bhushan.

 Additional Information

  • Dr. Aditi Sen De
  • Dr. Aditi Sen De is a prominent Indian physicist.
  • She is known for her work in the field of quantum information and computation.
  • She is associated with the Harish-Chandra Research Institute (HRI), Allahabad.
  • Dr. Swati Nayak
  • Dr. Swati Nayak is an agricultural scientist known for her work in rice research and development.
  • She works with the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI).
  • Dr. Ramesh Sharma
  • Dr. Ramesh Sharma is a noted Indian oncologist.
  • He has contributed significantly to the field of cancer research and treatment.

Question 60

Which of the following is / are NOT related to the phenomenon of the universal law of gravitation?

(A) The motion of the moon around the earth.

(B) The tides caused by the moon.

(C) The motion of electrons around the nucleus.

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (B)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    (B) and (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only (C)

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Only (C).

Key Points

  • The Universal Law of Gravitation states that every mass attracts every other mass in the universe, and the force between two masses is proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
  • The motion of the moon around the earth is governed by gravitational forces. The earth exerts a gravitational pull on the moon, keeping it in orbit.
  • The tides caused by the moon are a result of the gravitational pull of the moon on the earth's water bodies, causing tidal bulges.
  • The motion of an electron around the nucleus in an atom is governed by electromagnetic forces, not gravitational forces. Hence, it is not related to the phenomenon of the universal law of gravitation.

 Additional Information

  • Motion of the Moon around the Earth
  • The moon is kept in its orbit by the gravitational pull of the earth.
  • This gravitational force is a perfect example of the universal law of gravitation in action.
  • Tides caused by the Moon
  • Tides are caused by the gravitational interaction between the earth and the moon.
  • The moon's gravity pulls on the earth's oceans, causing the water to bulge out in the direction of the moon.
  • Motion of Electron around the Nucleus
  • Electrons are bound to the nucleus by electromagnetic forces, specifically the Coulomb force between the negatively charged electrons and the positively charged protons in the nucleus.
  • This force is much stronger than gravitational forces at the atomic scale.

Question 61

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X ∶ 65 ∶ 15 ∶ Y

  1. AOption (a)

    X = 12, Y = 75

  2. BOption (b)

    X = 19, Y = 80

  3. COption (c)

    X = 19, Y = 85

  4. DOption (d)

    X = 12, Y = 80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

X = 12, Y = 80

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given: X ∶ 65 ∶ 15 ∶ Y

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) X = 12, Y = 75 → 12 ∶ 65 ∶ 15 ∶ 75

12 × 5 + 5 = 65

60 + 5 = 65

65 = 65 (LHS = RHS)

15 × 5 + 5 = 75

75 + 5 = 75

80 ≠ 75 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) X = 19, Y = 80 → 19 ∶ 65 ∶ 15 ∶ 80

19 × 5 + 5 = 65

95 + 5 = 65

100 ≠ 65 (LHS ≠ RHS)

15 × 5 + 5 = 80

75 + 5 = 80

80 = 80 (LHS = RHS)

Option 3) X = 19, Y = 85 → 19 ∶ 65 ∶ 15 ∶ 85

19 × 5 + 5 = 65

95 + 5 = 65

100 ≠ 65 (LHS ≠ RHS)

15 × 5 + 5 = 85

75 + 5 = 85

80 ≠ 85 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) X = 12, Y = 80 → 12 ∶ 65 ∶ 15 ∶ 80

16 × 5 + 5 = 65

60 - 1 = 65

65 = 65 (LHS = RHS)

15 × 5 + 5 = 80

75 + 5 = 80

80 = 80 (LHS = RHS)

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 62

The 38th Maharashtra State Junior Athletics Championships was held in _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nagpur

  2. BOption (b)

    Nashik 

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    Pune

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pune

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pune.

Key Points

  • The 38th Maharashtra State Junior Athletics Championships was held in Pune.
  • Pune is known for hosting a variety of sports events and championships due to its excellent infrastructure and facilities.
  • Pune has a rich history in athletics and sports, making it a suitable choice for hosting state-level competitions.
  • The city is home to Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex, which is a premier venue for many major sporting events in Maharashtra.
  • The event witnessed participation from numerous young athletes from across the state, competing in various athletic disciplines.

 Additional Information

  • Nagpur
  • Nagpur is known as the Orange City due to its famous oranges.
  • Nagpur is also the winter capital of Maharashtra.
  • The city is an important commercial and political center in the Vidarbha region.
  • Nashik
  • Nashik is known for its vineyards and wine production, often referred to as the Wine Capital of India.
  • The city hosts the Kumbh Mela every twelve years, one of the largest religious gatherings in the world.
  • Nashik is located on the banks of the Godavari River.
  • Mumbai
  • Mumbai is the financial capital of India and the most populous city in the country.
  • The city is home to the Bollywood film industry, making it a major cultural hub.
  • Mumbai hosts numerous national and international sports events, including cricket matches at the Wankhede Stadium.

Question 63

Find the fourth proportional of 24, 8 and 9.

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For fourth proportional of a, b, c, the formula is (b × c) ÷ a.

Here, a = 24, b = 8, and c = 9.

⇒ Result = (8 × 9) ÷ 24

⇒ Result = 72 ÷ 24 = 3.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Alternate Method

Given: Three numbers are 24, 8, and 9.

Formula Used: If a, b, c, d are in proportion, then a : b = c : d or a × d = b × c.

Calculations:

Let the fourth proportional be x.

⇒ 24 : 8 = 9 : x

⇒ 24/8 = 9/x

⇒ 3 = 9/x

⇒ 3 × x = 9

⇒ x = 9/3

⇒ x = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Third Proportional

The third proportional of two numbers a and b is defined as c such that a : b = b : c, which gives c = b2/a.

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of a : b and c : d is (a × c) : (b × d).

Question 64

There are dead tissues in the ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    coconut husk

  2. BOption (b)

    guava peel

  3. COption (c)

    orange peel

  4. DOption (d)

    banana peel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

coconut husk

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is coconut husk.

Key Points

  • Coconut husk is the outer part of the coconut, which consists of fibers and hard shell.
  • The husk contains a significant amount of dead tissues which provide structural support and protection to the coconut seed inside.
  • The presence of these dead tissues makes the husk tough and durable.
  • These dead tissues are primarily composed of lignin and cellulose, which are key components in plant cell walls.
  • Due to the presence of these materials, the coconut husk is used in various applications like mulching, making ropes, and as a medium for growing plants.
  • In some regions, coconut husks are also used as a source of biofuel.

 Additional Information

  • Guava peel
  • Guava peel consists of living cells and contains nutrients, which makes it unsuitable for structural support like coconut husk.
  • Orange peel
  • Orange peel is also composed of living cells and is rich in essential oils and vitamins.
  • Banana peel
  • Banana peel contains living tissues and is rich in nutrients like potassium, making it different from the fibrous coconut husk.

Question 65

Which statement is true for solid matter?

  1. AOption (a)

    Solids have a definite shape, distinct boundary and fixed volume.

  2. BOption (b)

    Solids have only definite shape, but not fixed volume.

  3. COption (c)

    Solids have only definite shape, but not distinct boundary.

  4. DOption (d)

    Solids do not have a definite shape, distinct boundary and fixed volume.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Solids have a definite shape, distinct boundary and fixed volume.

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Solids have a definite shape, distinct boundary and fixed volume.

Key Points

  • Solids have a definite shape which means they do not change their shape unless an external force is applied.
  • They have a distinct boundary which clearly separates them from their surroundings.
  • Solids have a fixed volume, meaning the amount of space they occupy does not change under normal conditions.
  • The particles in solids are closely packed and have very little freedom to move, which is why solids maintain their shape and volume.
  • Examples of solids include ice, wood, and metal.
  • The structure and properties of solids are fundamental topics in the study of material science and physics.

 Additional Information

  • Solids have only definite shape, but not fixed volume.
  • This statement is incorrect because if a solid has a definite shape, it must also have a fixed volume.
  • The particles in solids are not free to move about, hence they cannot change their volume.
  • Solids have only definite shape, but not distinct boundary.
  • This statement is incorrect because solids have both a definite shape and a distinct boundary.
  • The distinct boundary is a characteristic feature that separates solids from liquids and gases.
  • Solids do not have a definite shape, distinct boundary and fixed volume.
  • This statement is completely incorrect as it contradicts the fundamental properties of solids.
  • Solids are known for having a definite shape, a distinct boundary, and a fixed volume.

Question 66

Which of the following is divisible by 2, 3, and 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    2240 

  2. BOption (b)

    3150

  3. COption (c)

    14175

  4. DOption (d)

    54332

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3150

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Check for Divisibility by 2, 3, and 5 simultaneously.

A number is divisible by 2 and 5 if it ends in 0 (Option 1 and 2 only).

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of digits is a multiple of 3.

For 3150: 3 + 1 + 5 + 0 = 9 (Divisible by 3).

∴ The correct answer is 3150.

Alternate Method

Given: Divisibility check for numbers 2, 3, and 5.

Formula Used: LCM of (2, 3, 5) = 30. Any number divisible by 2, 3, and 5 must be divisible by 30.

⇒ Divisibility by 2: Last digit must be 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. (Options 1, 2, 4 satisfy)

⇒ Divisibility by 5: Last digit must be 0 or 5. (Options 1, 2, 3 satisfy)

⇒ Common check for 2 and 5: Last digit must be 0. (Options 1 and 2 satisfy)

⇒ Divisibility by 3 for 2240: 2 + 2 + 4 + 0 = 8 (No)

⇒ Divisibility by 3 for 3150: 3 + 1 + 5 + 0 = 9 (Yes)

∴ The correct answer is 3150.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 6

A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 2 and 3.

Divisibility by 10

A number is divisible by 10 if its unit digit is exactly 0.

Divisibility by 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.

Question 67

Ferrous sulphate decomposes to which of the following substances ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide (SO3)

  2. BOption (b)

    Ferric oxide (Fe2O3) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) only

  3. COption (c)

    Ferric oxide (Fe2O3) only

  4. DOption (d)

    Ferric oxide (Fe2O3) and sulphur trioxide (SO3) only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide (SO3)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide (SO3).

Key Points

  • Ferrous sulphate (FeSO4) decomposes upon heating to produce ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulphur dioxide (SO2), and sulphur trioxide (SO3).
  • This decomposition reaction can be represented by the chemical equation: 2 FeSO4 → Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3.
  • The reaction involves the oxidation of iron from the +2 oxidation state in ferrous sulphate to the +3 oxidation state in ferric oxide.
  • During this process, sulphur dioxide (SO2) and sulphur trioxide (SO3) are released as gases.
  • This reaction is an example of a thermal decomposition reaction, which occurs when a compound breaks down into simpler substances upon heating.

 Additional Information

  • Ferric oxide (Fe2O3)
  • Ferric oxide, also known as iron(III) oxide, is a reddish-brown solid.
  • It is commonly found in nature as the mineral hematite and is a major source of iron.
  • It is used in various applications such as pigments, coatings, and magnetic materials.
  • Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
  • Sulphur dioxide is a colorless gas with a pungent odor.
  • It is used in the production of sulfuric acid and as a preservative and antioxidant in the food and beverage industry.
  • SO2 is also a significant air pollutant and contributes to acid rain.
  • Sulphur trioxide (SO3)
  • Sulphur trioxide is a colorless to white crystalline solid or liquid.
  • It is a crucial intermediate in the production of sulfuric acid (H2SO4).
  • SO3 is highly reactive and reacts with water to form sulfuric acid.

Question 68

A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. The number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the filament in 8 mins would be equal to ________.

(Given, charge of electron (e) is equal to 1.6 × 10-19 C)

  1. AOption (a)

    3 × 1021

  2. BOption (b)

    3 × 1022

  3. COption (c)

    3 × 1020

  4. DOption (d)

    3 × 1019

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3 × 1021

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3 × 1021.

Key Points

  • The current (I) is given as 1 A (Ampere).
  • The formula to calculate the number of electrons (n) passing through a cross-section is:

q = ne

  • Where, e is the charge of an electron = 1.6 × 10-19 C, and q is the charge.
  • We know, I = q/t, so q = It
  • Thus, It = ne
  • 1 × 8 × 60 = n × 1.6 × 10-19
  • n = 480 / (1.6 × 10-19) = 300 × 1019 = 3 × 1021
  • n = 3 × 1021

 Additional Information

  • In this context, the other options do not have specific terms that need explanation. However, it is important to remember the following key points for your exams:
  • The current (I) in amperes, the charge of an electron (e), and the time (t) in seconds are critical factors in calculating the number of electrons passing through a conductor.
  • The relation I = n × e × t helps determine the number of electrons when current and time are given.

Question 69

A constant force of 4 N acts on a box of mass 2 kg for a duration of 2 s. If its initial velocity is 2 m/s, then the final velocity of this box will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    2 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    4 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    6 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    3 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6 m/s

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 6 m/s.

Key Points

  • The initial velocity (u) of the box is 2 m/s.
  • A constant force (F) of 4 N is acting on the box.
  • The mass (m) of the box is 2 kg.
  • The duration (t) for which the force is applied is 2 s.
  • The acceleration (a) can be calculated using Newton's second law: a = F/m.
  • Substituting the values: a = 4 N / 2 kg = 2 m/s².
  • Using the formula for final velocity (v): v = u + at.
  • Substituting the values: v = 2 m/s + (2 m/s² * 2 s) = 6 m/s.

 Additional Information

  • Newton's Second Law of Motion
  • It states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting upon it and inversely proportional to its mass.
  • The equation for Newton's second law is F = ma.
  • Final Velocity Formula
  • The formula v = u + at is derived from the equations of motion.
  • It is used to calculate the final velocity of an object when initial velocity, acceleration, and time are known.

Question 70

Evaluate the given expression.

(164)(−1/3)\left(\frac{1}{64}\right)^{(-1 / 3)}

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    2-1

  4. DOption (d)

    4-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expression = ((1/64))(-1/3)

Formula used:

(a/b)-n = (b/a)n

am = (b)p × m (where a = bp)

Calculation:

((1/64))(-1/3)

⇒ (64)(1/3)

⇒ (43)(1/3)

⇒ 43 × (1/3)

⇒ 41

⇒ 4

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 71

The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles gives rise to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Tyndall effect

  2. BOption (b)

    rainbow

  3. COption (c)

    twinkling of stars

  4. DOption (d)

    delay in sunset

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tyndall effect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tyndall effect.

Key Points

  • The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by particles in a colloid or in a very fine suspension.
  • This phenomenon is named after the 19th-century scientist John Tyndall, who first studied it.
  • It is the reason why the sky appears blue during the day and red/orange during sunrise and sunset.
  • The Tyndall effect is used in various scientific applications such as determining particle size in aerosols and emulsions.
  • This effect can be observed when a beam of light passes through a dusty room or a foggy atmosphere.

 Additional Information

  • Rainbow
  • A rainbow is a meteorological phenomenon caused by reflection, refraction, and dispersion of light in water droplets.
  • It results in a spectrum of light appearing in the sky, taking the form of a multicolored circular arc.
  • Twinkling of stars
  • The twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight.
  • As the light from a star passes through the Earth's atmosphere, it is bent multiple times, causing the star to appear to twinkle.
  • Delay in sunset
  • Delay in sunset is an optical phenomenon where the sun appears to set later than its actual time due to atmospheric refraction.
  • The atmosphere bends the light rays coming from the sun, making it visible even when it is below the horizon.

Question 72

Who among the following became India's youngest Olympic medallist by winning a bronze in wrestling at the 2024 Paris Olympics?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sumit Antil

  2. BOption (b)

    Aman Sehrawat

  3. COption (c)

    Vinod Kumar

  4. DOption (d)

    Praveen Kumar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Aman Sehrawat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Aman Sehrawat.

Key Points

  • Aman Sehrawat became India's youngest Olympic medallist by winning a bronze in wrestling at the 2024 Paris Paralympics.
  • His achievement is notable because of his young age and the prestigious platform where he won the medal.
  • Wrestling is a popular sport in India, and winning an Olympic medal is a significant accomplishment.
  • Aman Sehrawat’s victory highlights the potential and talent of young athletes in India.
  • This achievement brings pride and inspiration to aspiring wrestlers and athletes in the country.

 Additional Information

  • Sumit Antil
  • Sumit Antil is a prominent Indian Paralympian who won a gold medal in javelin throw at the 2020 Tokyo Paralympics.
  • He set a new world record in the F64 category with his throw.
  • Vinod Kumar
  • Vinod Kumar is an Indian para-athlete who competes in the discus throw event.
  • He initially won a bronze medal in the F52 event at the 2020 Tokyo Paralympics, which was later disqualified due to classification issues.
  • Praveen Kumar
  • Praveen Kumar is an Indian para high-jumper who won a silver medal in the T64 category at the 2020 Tokyo Paralympics.
  • He set a new Asian record with his jump.

Question 73

In August 2024, who among the following was awarded the M.S. Swaminathan Award for Environment Protection 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sundar Lal Bahuguna

  2. BOption (b)

    Anant Darshan Shankar

  3. COption (c)

    Sunita Narain

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajendra Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Anant Darshan Shankar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anant Darshan Shankar.

Key Points

  • Anant Darshan Shankar is a well-known scholar in the field of environmental protection and sustainable development.
  • He has made significant contributions towards the conservation of biodiversity and promotion of traditional knowledge systems.
  • Shankar has been instrumental in integrating traditional ecological knowledge with modern scientific approaches for sustainable development.
  • His work emphasizes the importance of community participation in environmental conservation.
  • Shankar has received various accolades for his efforts in environmental protection, highlighting his dedication and impact in the field.
  • The M.S. Swaminathan Award for Environment Protection is given to individuals who have made outstanding contributions in the field of environmental conservation and sustainable development.

 Additional Information

  • Sundar Lal Bahuguna
  • Sundar Lal Bahuguna was a noted Indian environmentalist and Chipko movement leader.
  • He was known for his efforts to protect the Himalayan forests and for promoting sustainable development.
  • Bahuguna was also a strong advocate for the preservation of natural resources.
  • Sunita Narain
  • Sunita Narain is an Indian environmentalist and political activist.
  • She is the director general of the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) in New Delhi.
  • Her work focuses on issues such as climate change, water management, and pollution control.
  • Rajendra Singh
  • Rajendra Singh is known as the "Waterman of India" for his work in water conservation and management.
  • He has been awarded the Stockholm Water Prize for his efforts in rejuvenating rivers and promoting water conservation in India.

Question 74

Simplify the following expression:

9994 × 10006

  1. AOption (a)

    91999924

  2. BOption (b)

    99999964

  3. COption (c)

    99999976

  4. DOption (d)

    9999924

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

99999964

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Use the algebraic identity (a − b)(a + b) = a2 − b2.

Identify the base value as 10000.

Expression ⇒ (10000 − 6) × (10000 + 6) = 100002 − 62.

Calculation ⇒ 100000000 − 36 = 99999964.

∴ The correct answer is 99999964.

Alternate Method

Given: 9994 × 10006

Formula Used: (x − y)(x + y) = x2 − y2

⇒ 9994 = (10000 − 6)

⇒ 10006 = (10000 + 6)

⇒ 9994 × 10006 = (10000 − 6) × (10000 + 6)

⇒ (10000)2 − (6)2

⇒ 100,000,000 − 36

⇒ 99,999,964

∴ The correct answer is 99999964.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares

The identity a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b) is highly effective for multiplying numbers equidistant from a power of 10 or any round number.

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the order of operations: Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, and Addition/Subtraction for complex simplifications.

Square of 10n

The square of a number like 10n results in 1 followed by 2n zeros. For example, (104)2 = 108 (1 followed by 8 zeros).

Question 75

Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 3712\frac{1}{2} minutes and 45 minutes, respectively. Both pipes are open. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:

  1. AOption (a)

    9 min

  2. BOption (b)

    10 min

  3. COption (c)

    5 min

  4. DOption (d)

    15 min

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9 min

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the total capacity be LCM(75/2, 45) = 225 units.

Efficiency of Pipe A = 225 ÷ (75/2) = 6 units/min.

Pipe A works for the full 30 minutes → Work done = 30 × 6 = 180 units.

Remaining work (to be done by B) = 225 − 180 = 45 units.

Time for which Pipe B was open = 45 ÷ 5 = 9 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 9 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Time for Pipe A = 75/2 min, Time for Pipe B = 45 min. Total time taken = 30 min.

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
Pipe A75/2 min225 units6
Pipe B45 min5

⇒ Total capacity of cistern = 225 units.

⇒ Since Pipe B is closed after some time, Pipe A remains open for the entire 30 minutes.

⇒ Water filled by Pipe A in 30 min = 30 × 6 = 180 units.

⇒ Remaining capacity to be filled by Pipe B = 225 − 180 = 45 units.

⇒ Time for which Pipe B was open = 45 ÷ 5 = 9 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 9 min.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns Efficiency

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to fill the tank. Total Work = Time × Efficiency.

Inlet vs Outlet Pipes

Inlet pipes have positive efficiency (+), while outlet/leakage pipes have negative efficiency (−).

Fractional Work Method

If Pipe A fills in x min and Pipe B fills in y min, and B is closed after t min: (30/x) + (t/y) = 1.

Question 76

Which of the following is specialised for conducting information via electrical impulses from one part of the body to another?

  1. AOption (a)

    Glomerulus

  2. BOption (b)

    Alveoli

  3. COption (c)

    Neuron

  4. DOption (d)

    Spinal cord

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neuron

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neuron.

Key Points

  • Neurons are specialized cells of the nervous system.
  • They are responsible for conducting information through electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.
  • A neuron consists of three main parts: the cell body (soma), dendrites, and axon.
  • The cell body contains the nucleus and is the metabolic center of the neuron.
  • Dendrites receive signals from other neurons and convey this information to the cell body.
  • The axon transmits electrical impulses away from the cell body to other neurons, muscles, or glands.
  • Neurons communicate with each other at junctions called synapses through neurotransmitters.
  • There are different types of neurons based on their function: sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.

 Additional Information

  • Glomerulus
  • The glomerulus is a network of capillaries located at the beginning of a nephron in the kidney.
  • It is involved in the filtration of blood to form urine.
  • The glomerulus allows for the passage of water and small molecules while retaining larger molecules like proteins and blood cells.
  • Alveoli
  • Alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.
  • They are located at the end of the respiratory tree and are surrounded by a network of capillaries.
  • Spinal cord
  • The spinal cord is a long, thin, tubular structure that extends from the brainstem to the lower back.
  • It is part of the central nervous system and transmits signals between the brain and the rest of the body.
  • The spinal cord is protected by the vertebral column and is composed of both gray and white matter.

Question 77

Plant cells change shape by changing the amount of _________ in them, resulting in swelling or shrinking, and therefore in changing shapes.

  1. AOption (a)

    carbon dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    fat

  3. COption (c)

    chlorophyll

  4. DOption (d)

    water

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

water

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is water.

Key Points

  • Plant cells change shape by altering the amount of water within them.
  • This process involves the movement of water in and out of the cells through the process of osmosis.
  • When plant cells absorb water, they swell and become turgid, which helps maintain the plant's structure and rigidity.
  • If the cells lose water, they become flaccid and the plant may wilt.
  • This ability to regulate water content is crucial for plant survival, especially in varying environmental conditions.
  • The vacuole, a large central organelle in plant cells, plays a key role in storing and regulating water within the cell.

 Additional Information

  • Carbon Dioxide
  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a gas that plants use during the process of photosynthesis to produce glucose and oxygen.
  • It is not involved in changing the shape of plant cells by swelling or shrinking.
  • Fat
  • Fat is a type of lipid and is primarily used by plants for energy storage.
  • It does not play a role in the process of changing the shape of plant cells.
  • Chlorophyll
  • Chlorophyll is a green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plant cells.
  • It is essential for photosynthesis as it helps absorb light energy, but does not contribute to cell shape alteration.

Question 78

What is the unit of refractive index?

  1. AOption (a)

    m3

  2. BOption (b)

    Unitless

  3. COption (c)

    m/s2

  4. DOption (d)

    m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Unitless

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Unitless.

Key Points

  • The refractive index is a dimensionless number, meaning it has no units.
  • It describes how light propagates through different media and is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the medium.
  • The formula for refractive index (n) is n = c/v, where c is the speed of light in vacuum and v is the speed of light in the medium.
  • Since both c and v have the same units (meters per second), they cancel each other out, making the refractive index unitless.
  • The refractive index can vary depending on the wavelength of the light and the medium through which it is passing.
  • For example, the refractive index of water is approximately 1.33, meaning light travels 1.33 times faster in a vacuum than in water.

 Additional Information

  • m3
  • m3 stands for cubic meters, which is a unit of volume.
  • It is used to measure the volume of three-dimensional spaces, such as the capacity of containers or rooms.
  • m/s2
  • m/s2 stands for meters per second squared, which is a unit of acceleration.
  • It is used to measure the rate of change of velocity per unit of time.
  • m/s
  • m/s stands for meters per second, which is a unit of speed or velocity.
  • It is used to measure the distance traveled per unit of time.

Question 79

Which of the following represents the correct formula for calcium oxide?

  1. AOption (a)

    CaO

  2. BOption (b)

    Ca2O

  3. COption (c)

    CaO2

  4. DOption (d)

    Ca2O3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CaO

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CaO.

Key Points

  • Calcium oxide, commonly known as quicklime or burnt lime, is a chemical compound with the formula CaO.
  • It is a white, caustic, alkaline, crystalline solid at room temperature.
  • Calcium oxide is produced by thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) in a lime kiln.
  • It is used in various industries, including steel manufacturing, environmental applications for pH control, and in the production of cement.
  • In water treatment, CaO is used to soften water by removing temporary hardness.
  • It reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2), also known as slaked lime.

 Additional Information

  • Ca2O
  • This formula suggests the combination of two calcium atoms with one oxygen atom, which is incorrect because calcium typically forms a +2 oxidation state and bonds with one oxygen atom.
  • CaO2
  • This formula suggests the presence of one calcium atom and two oxygen atoms, indicating calcium peroxide rather than calcium oxide.
  • Calcium peroxide (CaO2) is used as an oxidizing agent and for oxygen generation in aquaculture.
  • Ca2O3
  • This formula does not correspond to any known stable compound in chemistry. It suggests a non-existent stoichiometric relationship between calcium and oxygen.

Question 80

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which pair does not belong to that group?

(Note : The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    RM-OT

  2. BOption (b)

    SN-PT

  3. COption (c)

    JE-GK

  4. DOption (d)

    LG-IM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RM-OT

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) RM-OT

Option 2) SN-PT

Option 3) JE-GK

Option 4) LG-IM

Thus, out of all the options 'RM-OT' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 81

A right circular cylindrical tunnel of diameter 2 m and length 40 m is to be constructed from a sheet of iron. The area of the iron sheet required in m2, is:

  1. AOption (a)

    40 π 

  2. BOption (b)

    200 π

  3. COption (c)

    80 π

  4. DOption (d)

    160 π

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

80 π

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area of sheet for a cylindrical tunnel = Curved Surface Area of cylinder.

Radius (r) = Diameter ÷ 2 = 2 ÷ 2 = 1 m.

Length/Height (h) = 40 m.

Area = 2 × π × r × h = 2 × π × 1 × 40 = 80π m2.

∴ The correct answer is 80π m2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of the cylindrical tunnel (d) = 2 m

Length of the tunnel (h) = 40 m

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a cylinder = 2πrh

Calculations:

⇒ Radius (r) = Diameter/2 = 2/2 = 1 m

⇒ Required Area of Iron Sheet = Curved Surface Area of the Cylinder

⇒ Area = 2 × π × 1 × 40

⇒ Area = 80π m2

∴ The correct answer is 80π m2.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Cylinder

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the two circular ends: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of Cylinder

The space occupied by the cylinder is given by the formula: Volume = πr2h.

Surface Area of Hollow Cylinder

For a pipe with thickness, the total area = 2πh(R + r) + 2π(R2 − r2), where R is outer and r is inner radius.

Question 82

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

TWP, SVO, RUN, QTM, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    PSL

  2. BOption (b)

    LSP

  3. COption (c)

    PLS

  4. DOption (d)

    LPS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

PSL

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 83

In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Which numbers should replace X and Y so that the pattern followed by the two numbers on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

X : 59 :: 20 : Y

  1. AOption (a)

    X = 15, Y = 79

  2. BOption (b)

    X = 16, Y = 80

  3. COption (c)

    X = 16, Y = 79

  4. DOption (d)

    X = 15, Y = 80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

X = 15, Y = 79

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given: X : 59 :: 20 : Y

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) X = 15, Y = 79 → 15 : 59 :: 20 : 79

15 × 4 - 1 = 59

60 - 1 = 59

59 = 59 (LHS = RHS)

20 × 4 - 1 = 79

80 - 1 = 79

79 = 79 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2) X = 16, Y = 80 → 16 : 59 :: 20 : 80

16 × 4 - 1 = 59

64 - 1 = 59

63 ≠ 59 (LHS ≠ RHS)

20 × 4 - 1 = 80

80 - 1 = 80

79 ≠ 80 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) X = 16, Y = 79 → 16 : 59 :: 20 : 79

16 × 4 - 1 = 59

64 - 1 = 59

63 ≠ 59 (LHS ≠ RHS)

20 × 4 - 1 = 79

80 - 1 = 79

79 = 79 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) X = 15, Y = 80 → 15 : 59 :: 20 : 80

15 × 4 - 1 = 59

60 - 1 = 59

59 = 59 (LHS = RHS)

20 × 4 - 1 = 80

80 - 1 = 80

79 ≠ 80 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 84

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements :

Some files are photos.

All photos are pictures.

Conclusions :

(I) No pictures are files.

(II) Some pictures are files.

  1. AOption (a)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion (I) follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion (II) follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only conclusion (II) follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) No pictures are files → Does not Follow (As some files are photos and all photos are pictures. As no direct relation is given between files and pictures, therefore it is false.)

(II) Some pictures are files → Follow (As some files are photos and all photos are pictures. As some part of files is common with photos which comes in pictures, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion (II) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Question 85

In a certain code language,

'A + B' means 'A is the sister of B',

'A - B' means 'A is the husband of B',

'A × B' means 'A is the mother of B’

and 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the son of B'.

How is M related to P if ‘K ÷ L - M + N × O + P' ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother's sister

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter

  4. DOption (d)

    Sister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mother's sister

Why this answer is correct

Decoding symbols:

A is
Symbol+-×÷
MeaningSisterHusbandMotherSon
to B

Given: K ÷ L - M + N × O + P

K ÷ L → K is the son of L.

L - M → L is the husband of M.

\

M + N → M is the sister of N.

N × O → N is the mother of O.

O + P → O is the sister of P.

\

Thus, M is P's maternal aunt or mother's sister.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Question 86

What price should a shopkeeper mark on an article, which costs him ₹136, to gain 20% after allowing a discount of 15%?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹216

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹162

  3. COption (c)

    ₹192

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹224

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹192

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The relation between Cost Price (CP) and Marked Price (MP) is given by: CP/MP = (100 − Discount%)/(100 + Gain%).

Substituting the values: 136/MP = (100 − 15)/(100 + 20) ⇒ 136/MP = 85/120.

MP = (136 × 120) ÷ 85.

MP = (136 × 24) ÷ 17 ⇒ 8 × 24 = 192.

∴ The correct answer is ₹192.

Alternate Method

Given: CP = ₹136, Gain% = 20%, Discount% = 15%.

Formulas: SP = CP × (100 + Gain%) ÷ 100 | MP = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 − Discount%).

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 136 × (120/100) = ₹163.20.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = (163.20 × 100) ÷ (100 − 15).

⇒ MP = 16320 ÷ 85 = ₹192.

∴ The correct answer is ₹192.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Marked Price is the price printed on the label. Discount is always calculated on the MP to arrive at the Selling Price.

Markup Percentage

Markup% = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100. It shows how much higher the MP is relative to the cost.

Question 87

In July 2024, Charaideo Maidam was included in the UNESCO World Heritage Site list in the cultural category. In which of the following states is it located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar 

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    West Bengal

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Assam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

  • Charaideo Maidam is located in the state of Assam, India.
  • It is historically significant as it is the burial site of the Ahom kings and queens.
  • The site includes several maidams (mound burial sites), which are similar to pyramids and reflect the rich cultural heritage of the Ahom dynasty.
  • The Ahom dynasty ruled Assam for nearly 600 years, and Charaideo was the first capital established by the founder of the dynasty, Chaolung Sukapha.
  • The inclusion of Charaideo Maidam in the UNESCO World Heritage Site list acknowledges its cultural and historical importance.

 Additional Information

  • Bihar
  • Bihar is known for its rich cultural heritage and historical sites such as Mahabodhi Temple in Bodh Gaya, where Buddha attained enlightenment.
  • Odisha
  • Odisha is famous for the Konark Sun Temple and the annual Jagannath Rath Yatra in Puri.
  • West Bengal
  • West Bengal is known for its significant landmarks such as the Victoria Memorial and the Howrah Bridge.

Question 88

In a college entrance test, the average marks obtained by all 30 boys of the class is 5 less than the average marks obtained by all 20 girls of the class. If the average marks of the whole class are 25, then find the ratio of average marks of boys to that of girls.

  1. AOption (a)

    28 ∶ 23

  2. BOption (b)

    41 ∶ 32

  3. COption (c)

    32 ∶ 41

  4. DOption (d)

    23 ∶ 28

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

23 ∶ 28

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let average of girls = x, then average of boys = x − 5.

Total Weighted Average = [ (30 × (x − 5)) + (20 × x) ] ÷ 50 = 25.

⇒ 3(x − 5) + 2x = 125 ⇒ 5x − 15 = 125 ⇒ 5x = 140 ⇒ x = 28.

Average of girls = 28, Average of boys = 28 − 5 = 23.

∴ The correct answer is 23 ∶ 28.

Alternate Method

Given: Number of Boys = 30, Number of Girls = 20, Total Average = 25.

Formula: Total Sum = (Average1 × N1) + (Average2 × N2)

⇒ Let average marks of girls be G. Then average marks of boys = G − 5.

⇒ Total marks = 30(G − 5) + 20G

⇒ Total students = 30 + 20 = 50

⇒ Total marks = Average × Total students = 25 × 50 = 1250

⇒ 30G − 150 + 20G = 1250

⇒ 50G = 1400

⇒ G = 1400 ÷ 50 = 28

⇒ Average marks of boys = 28 − 5 = 23

⇒ Required Ratio = Boys : Girls = 23 : 28

∴ The correct answer is 23 ∶ 28.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

Weighted Average = (n1x1 + n2x2) ÷ (n1 + n2), where n is the quantity and x is the average of each group.

Alligation Rule

The ratio of the quantities is inversely proportional to the deviations of their averages from the mean average: (Quantity 1 ÷ Quantity 2) = (Avg 2 − Mean) ÷ (Mean − Avg 1).

Average Properties

If every observation is increased or decreased by a constant value 'k', the new average will also increase or decrease by 'k'.

Question 89

If A earns 3313\frac{1}{3}% more than B, then B earns less than A by:

  1. AOption (a)

    1623\frac{2}{3}%

  2. BOption (b)

    3313\frac{1}{3}%

  3. COption (c)

    50%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

25%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert the percentage into a fraction: 33 1/3 % = 1/3.

If B earns 3 units, then A earns 3 + 1 = 4 units.

Difference = 1 unit. We need to find how much less B earns compared to A.

Required % = (Difference / A) × 100 = (1/4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given: A earns 33 1/3 % more than B.

Formula Used: Percentage Less = [(Difference) / (Reference Value)] × 100

⇒ Let B earns = ₹300

⇒ A earns = 300 + (33 1/3 % of 300) = 300 + 100 = ₹400

⇒ Difference in earnings = 400 − 300 = ₹100

⇒ Percentage by which B earns less than A = (Difference / A's earnings) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (100 / 400) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = 1/4 × 100 = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Direct Percentage Relation Formula

If A is r% more than B, then B is less than A by [r / (100 + r)] × 100%.

Fraction-Percentage Conversion

1/2 = 50%, 1/3 = 33 1/3 %, 1/4 = 25%, 1/5 = 20%, 1/6 = 16 2/3 %. These are useful for quick comparisons.

Percentage Base Change

When comparing two quantities, the percentage value changes depending on which quantity is taken as the denominator (base).

Question 90

If A, B, C and D, the measures of the four angles of a quadrilateral, are in the ratio 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 4 ∶ 6, then the value of 3A + 2B is:

  1. AOption (a)

    380°

  2. BOption (b)

    360°

  3. COption (c)

    340°

  4. DOption (d)

    330°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

380°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of ratios = 3 + 5 + 4 + 6 = 18 units.

Total sum of angles in a quadrilateral = 360°.

18 units = 360° ⇒ 1 unit = 20°.

Value required = 3A + 2B = 3(3 units) + 2(5 units) = 9 + 10 = 19 units.

Value = 19 × 20° = 380°.

∴ The correct answer is 380°.

Alternate Method

Given Ratio of angles A : B : C : D = 3 : 5 : 4 : 6.

Formula Used: Sum of all internal angles of a quadrilateral is 360°.

Let the angles be 3x, 5x, 4x, and 6x.

⇒ 3x + 5x + 4x + 6x = 360°

⇒ 18x = 360°

⇒ x = 20°

⇒ Angle A = 3 × 20° = 60°

⇒ Angle B = 5 × 20° = 100°

⇒ Required Value = 3A + 2B

⇒ 3(60°) + 2(100°) = 180° + 200° = 380°

∴ The correct answer is 380°.

Additional Information

Sum of Polygon Angles

The sum of interior angles of any polygon is given by (n − 2) × 180°, where n is the number of sides.

Cyclic Quadrilateral

In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of opposite angles is always 180°.

Ratio and Proportion

To find individual parts, divide the total quantity by the sum of ratio parts and multiply by the respective ratio.

Question 91

Gopi starts from Point A and drives 100 km towards East. He then takes a left turn, drives 55 km, turns left and drives 75 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 45 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 25 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(All turns are 90 degree turns only unless otherwise specified.)

  1. AOption (a)

    10 km towards North

  2. BOption (b)

    10 km towards South 

  3. COption (c)

    8 km towards South

  4. DOption (d)

    8 km towards North

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10 km towards South 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Gopi starts from Point A and drives 100 km towards East.

He then takes a left turn, drives 55 km, turns left and drives 75 km.

He then takes a left turn and drives 45 km.

He takes a final right turn, drives 25 km and stops at Point P. 

Thus, Gopi should drive 10 km in the north direction in order to reach Point A again.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 92

Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 2 9 7 2 1 5 9 6 8 6 0 1 1 7 8 4 7 5 0 9 3 3 9 0 2 5 0 7 1 5 (Right)

What is the sum of the 12th digit from the left and the 7th digit from the right?

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given series: (Left) 2 9 7 2 1 5 9 6 8 6 0 1 1 7 8 4 7 5 0 9 3 3 9 0 2 5 0 7 1 5 (Right)

According to the question, sum of the 12th digit from the left and the 7th digit from the right

(Left) 2 9 7 2 1 5 9 6 8 6 0 1 1 7 8 4 7 5 0 9 3 3 9 0 2 5 0 7 1 5 (Right) → 1 + 0 = 1

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 93

Which of the following options should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

351, 380, 413, 450, 491, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    512

  2. BOption (b)

    536

  3. COption (c)

    541

  4. DOption (d)

    530

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

536

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 94

What should be subtracted from −56\frac{-5}{6} to get 1?

  1. AOption (a)

    −16\frac{-1}{6}

  2. BOption (b)

    −116\frac{-11}{6}

  3. COption (c)

    76\frac{7}{6}

  4. DOption (d)

    −76\frac{-7}{6}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

−116\frac{-11}{6}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number = -5/6

Result = 1

Formula used:

Let the number to be subtracted be x.

Equation: (Number) − x = Result

Calculations:

Let the required number be x.

⇒ -5/6 − x = 1

⇒ -5/6 − 1 = x

⇒ x = (-5 − 6)/6

⇒ x = -11/6

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 95

Two people drive towards each other from two places which are 56 km apart. The speed of the first person is 12 km/h and speed of the other is 13 km/h. After how long will they be 6 km apart if they start driving together?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    1 hour

  3. COption (c)

    1 hour 30 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    2 hours 10 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2 hours

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed in opposite direction = 12 + 13 = 25 km/h.

Distance to be covered to be 6 km apart = 56 − 6 = 50 km.

Time required = Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 50 ÷ 25 = 2 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total initial distance = 56 km

Speed of person 1 (s1) = 12 km/h

Speed of person 2 (s2) = 13 km/h

Desired gap = 6 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Relative Speed (opposite direction) = s1 + s2

Calculations:

⇒ Effective distance to be covered = Total distance − Desired gap

⇒ Effective distance = 56 − 6 = 50 km

⇒ Relative Speed = 12 + 13 = 25 km/h

⇒ Time = 50 ÷ 25

⇒ Time = 2 hours

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move toward each other (opposite directions), their speeds are added (s1 + s2). If they move in the same direction, the speeds are subtracted (s1 − s2).

Time of Meeting vs Time of Separation

To find the time to meet, use the total initial distance. To find the time for a specific gap, subtract that gap from the initial distance (if they haven't met yet).

Question 96

In an election between two candidates, one candidate got 38% of the votes and yet lost by 7200 votes. If all the votes polled were valid, then the total number of votes cast in the election was:

  1. AOption (a)

    13,800

  2. BOption (b)

    13,000

  3. COption (c)

    16,200

  4. DOption (d)

    30,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30,000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the total valid votes be 100%.

Losing candidate got 38% → Winning candidate got (100% − 38%) = 62%.

Difference (Margin) = 62% − 38% = 24%.

Given, 24% = 7200 votes.

Total votes (100%) = (7200 ÷ 24) × 100 = 30,000.

∴ The correct answer is 30,000 votes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Votes for Candidate 1 (Losing) = 38%

Winning Margin = 7200 votes

Formula Used:

Total Votes = (Winning Margin ÷ Difference in Percentage Share) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let total votes be V.

⇒ Percentage of votes for winner = 100% − 38% = 62%

⇒ Difference in percentage = 62% − 38% = 24%

⇒ According to question, 24% of V = 7200

⇒ 0.24 × V = 7200

⇒ V = 7200 ÷ 0.24

⇒ V = 720,000 ÷ 24

⇒ V = 30,000

∴ The correct answer is 30,000 votes.

Additional Information

Percentage Change and Base

In election problems, the total valid votes represent the 100% base. Percentage share of all candidates must sum to 100%.

Successive Percentage

If a question involves "invalid votes", subtract them from the total first to find valid votes: Valid = Total × (100 − Invalid%)/100.

Majority Margin

The margin of victory is always the difference between the winner's and the runner-up's vote counts (Winner − Loser).

Question 97

The 8th edition of India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise KAZIND-2024 was held in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Shillong, Meghalaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Pune, Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Auli, Uttarakhand

  4. DOption (d)

    Jaisalmer, Rajasthan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Auli, Uttarakhand

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Auli, Uttarakhand.

Key Points

  • The 8th edition of the India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise KAZIND-2024 was held in Auli, Uttarakhand.
  • This exercise aims to enhance military cooperation between the two countries.
  • Auli is known for its beautiful ski resorts and stunning landscapes.
  • Located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, Auli is a popular destination for skiing and winter sports.
  • The joint military exercise focuses on counter-terrorism operations and mountain warfare training.
  • Such exercises are crucial for strengthening bilateral relations and improving the operational capabilities of the armed forces of both nations.

 Additional Information

  • Shillong, Meghalaya
  • Shillong is the capital of Meghalaya and is known for its scenic beauty and vibrant culture.
  • It is often referred to as the "Scotland of the East" due to its rolling hills and pleasant climate.
  • Pune, Maharashtra
  • Pune is a major city in Maharashtra, known for its educational institutions and IT industry.
  • It is also a significant cultural hub with a rich history.
  • Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
  • Jaisalmer, also known as the "Golden City", is located in the heart of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
  • It is famous for its sand dunes, forts, and palaces.

Question 98

The atomic number of phosphorus atom is:

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 15.

Key Points

  • The atomic number of an element is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom of that element.
  • Phosphorus has an atomic number of 15, which means it has 15 protons in its nucleus.
  • Phosphorus is located in Group 15 of the periodic table, also known as the nitrogen group.
  • It is a non-metal and is represented by the symbol P.
  • Phosphorus is essential for life, as it is a key component of DNA, RNA, and ATP, which are important for genetic information and energy transfer in cells.
  • Phosphorus exists in several allotropic forms, including white, red, and black phosphorus.

 Additional Information

  • Additional Key Points
  • The periodic table is organized by increasing atomic numbers, which helps in predicting the properties of elements.
  • The atomic number is crucial for determining the identity of an element.
  • Elements in the same group of the periodic table often exhibit similar chemical behaviors.
  • Phosphorus is widely used in fertilizers, detergents, and other industrial applications due to its reactivity and importance in biological processes.

Question 99

Which of the following is an example of a mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    Salt (NaCl)

  2. BOption (b)

    Air

  3. COption (c)

    Iron (Fe)

  4. DOption (d)

    Water (H2O)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Air

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Air.

Key Points

  • Air is a mixture of gases, primarily composed of nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other trace gases.
  • It is not a single substance but a combination of several gases, making it a homogeneous mixture.
  • In addition to gases, air also contains water vapor, dust particles, and pollutants, further emphasizing its nature as a mixture.
  • The composition of air can vary depending on the location and environmental conditions.
  • Because it contains multiple components that are not chemically bonded, air perfectly fits the definition of a mixture.

 Additional Information

  • Salt (NaCl)
  • Salt or sodium chloride is a chemical compound consisting of sodium (Na) and chloride (Cl) ions.
  • It is a pure substance and not a mixture.
  • Iron (Fe)
  • Iron is a chemical element with the symbol Fe.
  • It is a pure element and not a mixture.
  • Water (H2O)
  • Water is a chemical compound consisting of hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
  • It is a pure substance and not a mixture.

Question 100

Anu is two years older than Kanu, who is twice as old as Tanu. If the total of their ages is 32, then what is the age of Kanu?

  1. AOption (a)

    14 years

  2. BOption (b)

    7 years

  3. COption (c)

    12 years

  4. DOption (d)

    8 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Tanu age be 1 unit.

Then Kanu age = 2 units and Anu age = 2 units + 2 years.

Sum = 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 5 units + 2 = 32 → 5 units = 30 → 1 unit = 6 years.

Kanu age = 2 × 6 = 12 years.

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total age of Anu, Kanu, and Tanu = 32 years.

Anu age = Kanu age + 2

Kanu age = 2 × Tanu age

Calculations:

Let age of Tanu = x

⇒ Age of Kanu = 2x

⇒ Age of Anu = 2x + 2

⇒ x + 2x + (2x + 2) = 32

⇒ 5x + 2 = 32

⇒ 5x = 30

⇒ x = 6

⇒ Kanu age = 2 × 6 = 12 years.

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Additional Information

Ratio-Based Ages

When ages are given in multiples, always start by assuming the smallest value as x or 1 unit to simplify the linear equation.

Sum of Ages Formula

If the average age of n people is A, then the total sum of their ages = n × A.

Age Difference Property

The difference between the ages of two individuals remains constant regardless of the number of years passed or preceding.

100 questions in the full paper