The correct answer is C2H2.

Key Points

• Ethyne, also known as acetylene, is a hydrocarbon and the simplest alkyne with the chemical formula C2H2.
• It consists of two carbon atoms triple-bonded to each other, with each carbon also bonded to one hydrogen atom.
• This compound is widely used in welding and cutting due to its high flame temperature when burned with oxygen.
• Ethyne is a colorless gas with a slight garlic-like odor, detectable at concentrations above 100 ppm.

Additional Information

• Alkynes
• Alkynes are hydrocarbons with at least one carbon-carbon triple bond.
• The general formula for alkynes is CnH2n-2, indicating two fewer hydrogens than alkanes.
• They are unsaturated compounds, making them more reactive than alkanes and alkenes.
• Uses of Ethyne
• Used in oxyacetylene welding and cutting due to its high flame temperature.
• Serves as a precursor for synthesizing various organic chemicals.
• Used in the production of polymers like polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
• Properties of Ethyne
• Colorless gas with a slightly sweet odor.
• Highly flammable and can form explosive mixtures with air.
• Soluble in organic solvents like acetone and benzene.
• Safety Precautions
• Store in a well-ventilated area away from sources of ignition.
• Use appropriate personal protective equipment when handling.
• Ensure proper ventilation when using in confined spaces to avoid accumulation.

Given coded language:

As I E R is common in both coded language.

Thus, code for 'P' is '4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is 20 N.

Key Points

• The change in velocity (Δv) of the box is given by the difference between the final velocity and the initial velocity, which is 10 m/s - 6 m/s = 4 m/s.
• The time duration (t) during which the force acts is 2 seconds.
• Using the formula for acceleration (a) a = Δv / t, we get a = 4 m/s / 2 s = 2 m/s².
• According to Newton's second law of motion, Force (F) is given by F = m * a, where m is the mass of the object.
• Substituting the values, F = 10 kg * 2 m/s² = 20 N.

Additional Information

• Newton's Second Law of Motion:
• This law states that the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of that object times its acceleration (F = m * a).
• It explains how the velocity of an object changes when it is subjected to an external force.
• Acceleration (a):
• It is the rate of change of velocity of an object.
• It is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude and direction.
• Force (F):
• A push or pull acting upon an object as a result of its interaction with another object.
• Measured in Newtons (N) in the International System of Units (SI).
• Velocity (v):
• The speed of something in a given direction.
• It is also a vector quantity, meaning it includes both speed and direction.

The correct answer is Vacuoles.

Key Points

• Meristematic tissues are composed of actively dividing cells that are responsible for the growth of plants.
• Cells in meristematic tissues are characterized by a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm.
• These cells have thin primary cell walls that are flexible to facilitate cell division.
• Vacuoles are generally absent in meristematic cells as they would hinder cell division by occupying space.
• The absence of vacuoles allows these cells to remain small and divide rapidly.

Additional Information

• Meristematic Tissue:
• Meristematic tissues are classified into three types: apical, lateral, and intercalary meristems.
• Apical meristems are found at the tips of roots and shoots and are responsible for primary growth.
• Lateral meristems, such as the vascular cambium and cork cambium, contribute to the secondary growth of plants.
• Intercalary meristems are located at the base of leaves or internodes and help in the elongation of these parts.
• Cell Division:
• Cell division in meristematic tissues occurs through the process of mitosis, ensuring that new cells are identical to the parent cells.
• Mitosis involves several stages, including prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
• Rapid cell division in meristematic tissues is essential for plant growth and the repair of damaged tissues.
• Cell Differentiation:
• As cells in meristematic tissues divide and mature, they undergo differentiation to form specialized tissues.
• Cell differentiation leads to the formation of various plant tissues such as epidermal, ground, and vascular tissues.
• This process is regulated by genetic and environmental factors, ensuring proper development and function of plant organs.

Shortcut Trick

Let Radhika's age be R.

Twice Radhika's age + 20 = Teacher's age

2R + 20 = 60

2R = 40 → R = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Teacher's age = 60 years

Relation: Teacher's age is 20 years older than twice Radhika's age.

Calculations:

Let Radhika's age be x.

⇒ 2x + 20 = 60

⇒ 2x = 60 − 20

⇒ 2x = 40

⇒ x = 40 ÷ 2

⇒ x = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 years.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in One Variable

A mathematical statement where an unknown quantity is represented by a variable and solved using basic arithmetic operations.

Ages Problems

Always define the current age as a variable. Use terms like 'older than' (+) and 'times' (×) to construct the equation based on the given comparison.

Given:

Height (h) = 50 m

Formula used:

Initial speed (u) = 0 (for any object dropped from a height)

Calculation:

Since the object is dropped, its initial speed u = 0 m/s

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Percentage = 1.25%

Amount = Rs. 1600

Formula used:

Value = (Percentage × Total Amount) / 100

Calculations:

Value = 1.25% of 1600

⇒ Value = (1.25 / 100) × 1600

⇒ Value = 1.25 × 16

⇒ Value = (125 / 100) × 16

⇒ Value = (5 / 4) × 16

⇒ Value = 5 × 4

⇒ Value = 20

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Power (P) is calculated using the formula P = V²/R, where V is the voltage and R is the resistance.
• Given V = 10 volts and R = 10 ohms, the power P = (10)² / 10 = 10 watts.
• The amount of heat (H) generated is given by H = P × t, where t is the time in seconds.
• For one minute (60 seconds), H = 10 watts × 60 seconds = 600 joules.

Additional Information

• Ohm's Law
• Ohm's Law states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.
• The formula is given by V = IR, where V is the voltage, I is the current, and R is the resistance.
• Power in Electrical Circuits
• Power in an electrical circuit is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred by an electric circuit.
• It is calculated using P = VI, where P is power, V is voltage, and I is current.
• It can also be calculated using P = I²R or P = V²/R.
• Heat Energy
• Heat energy is a form of energy that is transferred between systems or objects with different temperatures.
• In electrical circuits, heat generated (H) can be calculated using H = P × t.
• The unit of heat energy is the joule (J).
• SI Units
• The International System of Units (SI) is the modern form of the metric system.
• Volt (V) is the unit of electric potential.
• Ohm (Ω) is the unit of electrical resistance.
• Watt (W) is the unit of power.
• Joule (J) is the unit of energy.

For this question, We have to check the given equation as-

25 + 15 - 9 ÷ 10 × 5 = ?

'+' and '-' are interchanged

'×' and '÷' are interchanged

New equation after replacing symbols-

25 - 15 + 9 × 10 ÷ 5  = ?

According to the BODMAS rule-

→ 25 - 15 + 9 × 10 ÷ 5 

→ 25 - 15 + 9 × 2

→ 25 - 15 + 18

→ 25 + 3

→ 28

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Shortcut Trick

Mode is the observation with the highest frequency.

Given Mode = 6. Frequency of 6 is 3 and frequency of 7 is 3.

To make 6 the unique mode, the term 2k + 1 must be equal to 6.

⇒ 2k + 1 = 6 ⇒ 2k = 5 ⇒ k = 2.5

∴ The correct answer is 2.5.

Alternate Method

Given: Data set: 2, 4, 6, 7, 5, 6, 10, 6, 7, 2k + 1, 9, 7, 13. Given Mode = 6.

Frequency distribution of known values:

⇒ Number 6 appears 3 times.

⇒ Number 7 appears 3 times.

⇒ Number 2 appears 1 time, 4 appears 1 time, 5 appears 1 time, 10, 9, 13 appear 1 time each.

⇒ Since the Mode is given as 6, its frequency must be strictly greater than any other observation.

⇒ Frequency of 6 must be 4 to exceed frequency of 7.

⇒ Therefore, the missing term 2k + 1 must be 6.

⇒ 2k + 1 = 6

⇒ 2k = 6 − 1

⇒ 2k = 5

⇒ k = 5 ÷ 2 = 2.5

∴ The correct answer is 2.5.

Additional Information

Definition of Mode

The mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set. A set may be unimodal, bimodal, or multimodal.

Empirical Formula

The relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode is: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Grouped Data Mode

For grouped data, Mode = l + [(f₁ − f₀) / (2f₁ − f₀ − f₂)] × h, where l is the lower limit of the modal class.

The correct answer is Urethra – one pair.

Key Points

• Urethra – one pair: This is incorrect because humans have a single urethra, not a pair.
• Kidneys – a pair: This is correct; humans have two kidneys.
• Ureter – a pair: This is correct; humans have two ureters, one for each kidney.
• Urinary bladder – not paired: This is correct; humans have a single urinary bladder.

Additional InformationExcretory System:

• Function: The primary function is to remove waste products and excess substances from the body, maintaining homeostasis.
• Kidneys: A pair of organs responsible for filtering blood, removing waste, and balancing electrolytes, water, and pH levels.
• Ureters: Two tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
• Urinary Bladder: A single, muscular sac that stores urine until it is excreted from the body.
• Urethra: A single tube through which urine is expelled from the body.
• Nephrons: Functional units in the kidneys that filter blood, reabsorb essential nutrients, and form urine.

Given:

Ginny starts from point A and drives 7 km towards the North.

She takes two simultaneous left turns and drives 3 km and 4 km, respectively.

She then takes a right turn and drives 2 km. She takes a final left turn and drives 3 km to reach point B.

Thus, Ginny has to drive 5 km towards east to reach point A again.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1".

Shortcut Trick

Identify the first and last multiples of 7 within the range 11 to 90.

First multiple (a) = 14; Last multiple (l) = 84.

Number of terms (n) = [(Last − First) ÷ Common Difference] + 1.

n = [(84 − 14) ÷ 7] + 1 = [70 ÷ 7] + 1 = 10 + 1 = 11.

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers between 11 and 90 divisible by 7.

Formula Used: Arithmetic Progression (AP) n^th term: a_n = a + (n − 1)d

⇒ First term (a) = 14

⇒ Common difference (d) = 7

⇒ Last term (a_n) = 84

⇒ 84 = 14 + (n − 1) × 7

⇒ 70 = (n − 1) × 7

⇒ 10 = n − 1

⇒ n = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

A sequence where the difference between consecutive terms is constant. Sum of n terms S_n = (n/2)[2a + (n−1)d].

Divisibility Rule of 7

Double the last digit and subtract it from the remaining number. If the result is divisible by 7, the original number is too.

Quotient Method for Range

Number of multiples of x up to N is floor(N/x). For range [A, B], count is floor(B/x) − floor((A−1)/x).

The logic follow here is:

PU-RN-ST

And

SX-UQ-VW

Only Option 1) follow same logic.

KP-MI-NO

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is 24.

Key Points

• A glucose molecule has the chemical formula C6H12O6.
• This formula indicates that there are 6 carbon atoms, 12 hydrogen atoms, and 6 oxygen atoms.
• Summing up these atoms: 6 (C) + 12 (H) + 6 (O) = 24 atoms in total.
• Glucose is a simple sugar and a key energy source for living organisms.

Additional Information

• Monosaccharides:
• Glucose is classified as a monosaccharide, which is the simplest form of carbohydrates.
• Monosaccharides cannot be hydrolyzed to simpler chemical compounds.
• They are fundamental units of carbohydrates and are important as energy sources.
• Photosynthesis:
• Glucose is produced by plants during photosynthesis.
• It involves converting carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen using sunlight.
• Glucose acts as an energy storage molecule in plants.
• Cellular Respiration:
• In animals and humans, glucose is broken down during cellular respiration to release energy.
• It involves glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain.
• ATP, the energy currency of the cell, is produced in this process.
• Isomers of Glucose:
• Glucose has several isomers, such as galactose and fructose.
• Isomers have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements.
• These structural differences can significantly affect their biological roles and properties.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• A suspension is a type of heterogeneous mixture where the solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended throughout the medium.
• The particles in a suspension are large enough to scatter light, which makes the path of a light beam passing through the suspension visible (Tyndall effect).
• Suspensions are unstable. When left undisturbed, the particles eventually settle down due to gravity.
• Suspensions can be separated into their individual components through filtration, as the particles are large enough to be trapped by the filter paper.

Additional Information

• Colloids:
• Colloids are mixtures where the particle size is intermediate between those in solutions and suspensions.
• The particles in a colloid do not settle down when the mixture is left undisturbed.
• Colloidal particles can scatter light (Tyndall effect), making the path of the light beam visible.
• Solutions:
• Solutions are homogeneous mixtures where the solute is completely dissolved in the solvent.
• The particles in a solution are at the molecular or ionic level and cannot be seen by the naked eye.
• Solutions do not scatter light and are stable, meaning the solute does not settle out over time.
• Filtration:
• Filtration is a physical separation process that separates solid particles from liquids or gases using a filter medium that allows the fluid to pass through but retains the solid particles.
• It is commonly used to separate suspensions into their components.
• Tyndall Effect:
• The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by particles in a colloid or particles in a very fine suspension.
• This effect is used to distinguish between true solutions and colloidal solutions.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Parenchyma cells are known for their thin cell walls and relatively unspecialized functions.
• In aquatic plants, parenchyma cells contain large air cavities that aid in buoyancy, helping the plants float.
• Parenchyma cells are living cells and are usually loosely arranged, which allows for the storage of nutrients and water.
• Unlike collenchyma cells, parenchyma does not provide flexibility and strength to plant parts like tendrils and stems of climbers; this is a function of collenchyma cells.

Additional Information

• Collenchyma Cells
• Collenchyma cells have thicker cell walls compared to parenchyma and are typically found in regions of the plant that require support.
• These cells provide structural support and flexibility to the plant, allowing it to withstand various mechanical stresses.
• Sclerenchyma Cells
• Sclerenchyma cells are known for their extremely thick cell walls and are usually dead at maturity.
• These cells provide the primary structural support in plants, contributing to the hardness of seeds and nuts.
• Functions of Parenchyma Cells
• They are involved in storage, secretion, and photosynthesis in plants.
• Parenchyma cells also play a crucial role in the healing and repair of plant tissues.
• Types of Parenchyma
• Chlorenchyma: Contains chloroplasts and is involved in photosynthesis.
• Aerenchyma: Contains large air spaces to facilitate buoyancy in aquatic plants.

The correct answer is Blood platelets.

Key Points

• Blood platelets, or thrombocytes, are small cell fragments in the blood that are crucial for blood clotting.
• They gather at the site of a blood vessel injury and form a plug by clumping together, which helps to stop bleeding.
• Platelets release chemicals that further help in the coagulation process by converting fibrinogen into fibrin threads, creating a stable blood clot.
• The normal platelet count in a healthy individual ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood.

Additional Information

• Coagulation Cascade:
• The process of blood clotting is known as the coagulation cascade, involving a series of steps where various clotting factors are activated sequentially.
• This cascade is divided into the intrinsic, extrinsic, and common pathways, all leading to the formation of a stable blood clot.
• Fibrinogen:
• Fibrinogen is a soluble plasma protein that is converted into fibrin during blood clot formation.
• Fibrin strands weave through the platelet plug, solidifying the clot and preventing further bleeding.
• Hemostasis:
• Hemostasis is the process that prevents and stops bleeding, or hemorrhage.
• It involves vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and blood coagulation.
• Thrombocytopenia:
• A condition characterized by abnormally low levels of platelets.
• It can lead to excessive bleeding and difficulty in forming blood clots.

Given:

B, C, D, E, F, K. and L are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.

Only two people sit between F and K,  when counted from the right of F.

Only two people sit between K and C.

Only three people sit between F and D

B sits to the immediate left of L.

Thus, L sits third to the left of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is 1 atmosphere.

Key Points

• Solid CO2, commonly known as dry ice, sublimates directly into the gaseous state at atmospheric pressure (1 atmosphere).
• Sublimation of CO2 occurs at a temperature of -78.5°C under 1 atmosphere of pressure.
• At pressures lower than 5.1 atmospheres, CO2 cannot exist in the liquid state and directly converts between solid and gas phases.
• This property of CO2 is utilized in various applications such as refrigeration, where dry ice is used to keep items cold without leaving any residue.

Additional Information

• Sublimation
• Sublimation is the process by which a solid changes directly into a gas without passing through the liquid state.
• This endothermic phase transition occurs under specific temperature and pressure conditions.
• Triple Point of CO2
• The triple point of CO2 is the condition of temperature and pressure at which CO2 can coexist in solid, liquid, and gaseous states.
• For CO2, the triple point is at 5.1 atmospheres and -56.6°C.
• Applications of Dry Ice
• Dry ice is used for refrigeration, especially for shipping perishable goods, as it sublimates without leaving a liquid residue.
• It is also used in theatrical productions to create fog effects and in scientific experiments requiring low temperatures.
• Safety Precautions
• Handling dry ice requires gloves and protective clothing to prevent frostbite, as it is extremely cold.
• Proper ventilation is necessary when using dry ice to avoid the buildup of CO2 gas, which can be hazardous in enclosed spaces.

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Capacity of the cistern = LCM(30, 45) = 90 units.

Efficiency of Tap A = 90 ÷ 30 = +3 units/min (Filling).

Efficiency of Tap B = 90 ÷ 45 = −2 units/min (Emptying).

Combined efficiency = 3 − 2 = 1 unit/min. In 30 minutes, 30 units are filled.

Remaining work = 90 − 30 = 60 units. Only Tap A fills it: 60 ÷ 3 = 20 min.

∴ The correct answer is 20 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Filling time of Tap A = 30 min, Emptying time of Tap B = 45 min. Both open for 30 min.

Formula Used: Total Work = Time × Efficiency.

Calculations:

⇒ Net efficiency when both are open = 3 − 2 = 1 unit/min.

⇒ Amount filled in 30 minutes = 1 × 30 = 30 units.

⇒ Remaining capacity to be filled = 90 − 30 = 60 units.

⇒ Time taken by Tap A alone to fill 60 units = Remaining Work ÷ Efficiency of A.

⇒ Time = 60 ÷ 3 = 20 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 20 min.

Additional Information

Pipes & Cisterns Efficiency

Filling pipes have positive efficiency while emptying pipes (leakage/taps) have negative efficiency.

Net Work Done

If pipe A fills in 'x' hours and pipe B empties in 'y' hours, net work in 1 hour = (1/x − 1/y).

LCM Method

Always take the LCM of time to assume the total capacity of the tank for easier integer calculations.

The pattern follow here is:

10, 18, 38, 74, 150, ?

2 × 10 - 2 = 18

2 × 18 + 2 = 38

2 × 38 - 2 = 74

2 × 74 + 2 = 150

2 × 150 - 2 = 298

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Amylase enzymes.

Key Points

• Amylase enzymes are responsible for breaking down starch into simple sugars, such as maltose and glucose.
• Amylase is present in human saliva and initiates the process of digestion in the mouth.
• The enzyme is also produced by the pancreas and secreted into the small intestine.
• There are two main types of amylase: salivary amylase (produced in the salivary glands) and pancreatic amylase (produced in the pancreas).

Additional Information

• Saliva Composition: Saliva consists of water, electrolytes, mucus, and enzymes like amylase which begin the digestion of carbohydrates.
• Role of Amylase: Amylase breaks down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars which can be easily absorbed by the body.
• Digestion Process: The digestion of food starts in the mouth with the mechanical action of chewing and the chemical action of enzymes such as amylase.
• Pancreatic Amylase: Apart from salivary amylase, the pancreas secretes pancreatic amylase into the small intestine to continue the digestion of carbohydrates.
• Enzyme Specificity: Different enzymes are specific to different macronutrients: amylase for carbohydrates, proteases (like pepsin) for proteins, and lipases for fats.

The correct answer is 3,00,000.

Key Points

• Under 'PM Vishwakarma Yojana,' artisans and craftsmen can avail of financial support.
• A loan amount of Rs. 3,00,000 is provided at a subsidized interest rate of 5%.
• This scheme aims to empower traditional artisans and craftsmen by providing them with the necessary financial assistance.
• Loans under this scheme can be used for business expansion, purchasing equipment, or other business-related needs.
• The scheme is part of a broader initiative to support the traditional crafts sector and enhance the livelihood of skilled craftsmen.

Additional Information

• PM Vishwakarma Yojana
• Launched to support traditional artisans and craftsmen across various sectors.
• Aims to preserve and promote the rich heritage of traditional craftsmanship in India.
• Provides financial assistance, skill development training, and market access to beneficiaries.
• The scheme also focuses on enhancing the quality and productivity of traditional crafts.
• Eligibility Criteria
• Available to traditional artisans and craftsmen.
• Applicants must have a valid identification and proof of their craft.
• The scheme is targeted at individuals who are part of the unorganized sector.
• Implementation
• Implemented through various financial institutions and government agencies.
• Applications can be submitted online or through designated centers.
• Beneficiaries receive training and support in addition to financial assistance.
• Impact
• Aims to improve the socio-economic status of traditional artisans.
• Encourages the younger generation to take up traditional crafts.
• Contributes to the preservation of India's cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Haemoglobin.

Key Points

• Haemoglobin is the iron-containing protein in red blood cells responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body.
• Each haemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules, enabling efficient oxygen transport.
• Haemoglobin also plays a critical role in transporting carbon dioxide from tissues back to the lungs for exhalation.
• The presence of haemoglobin gives red blood cells their characteristic red color.
• Normal haemoglobin levels vary by age and sex, with adult males typically having 13.8 to 17.2 grams per deciliter and females having 12.1 to 15.1 grams per deciliter.

Additional Information

• Red Blood Cells (RBCs)
• RBCs are the most common type of blood cell and the primary means of delivering oxygen to body tissues via blood flow.
• They are produced in the bone marrow and have a lifespan of about 120 days.
• RBCs are biconcave in shape, which increases their surface area for oxygen absorption.
• The average diameter of a human red blood cell is about 6-8 micrometers.
• Oxygen Transport
• Oxygen is carried in the blood bound to haemoglobin within red blood cells.
• Oxygen binds to the iron atoms in haemoglobin molecules in the lungs, forming oxyhaemoglobin.
• This oxygen is then released to tissues throughout the body where it is needed for cellular respiration.
• Carbon Dioxide Transport
• Carbon dioxide produced as a waste product of cellular respiration is transported back to the lungs in several forms.
• About 20-25% of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
• The majority of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) in the blood plasma.
• In the lungs, CO2 is released from haemoglobin and exhaled out of the body.
• Iron in Haemoglobin
• Iron is a critical component of haemoglobin and is necessary for its oxygen-carrying capacity.
• Each haemoglobin molecule contains four iron atoms, each capable of binding one oxygen molecule.
• Iron deficiency can lead to anaemia, a condition characterized by reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

Shortcut Trick

Area of an equilateral triangle in terms of height (h) = h² / √3

Given height h = 6 cm

Area = 6² / √3 = 36 / √3

Area = (12 × 3) / √3 = 12√3 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 12√3 cm².

Alternate Method

Given: Height (h) of the equilateral triangle = 6 cm

Formula Used:

1. Height of an equilateral triangle (h) = (√3 / 2) × side (a)
2. Area of an equilateral triangle = (√3 / 4) × a²

Calculations:

⇒ 6 = (√3 / 2) × a

⇒ a = (6 × 2) / √3

⇒ a = 12 / √3 = 4√3 cm

⇒ Area = (√3 / 4) × (4√3)²

⇒ Area = (√3 / 4) × (16 × 3)

⇒ Area = √3 × 4 × 3

⇒ Area = 12√3 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 12√3 cm².

Additional Information

Equilateral Triangle Properties

All three sides are equal and each interior angle is exactly 60°.

Inradius and Circumradius

Inradius (r) = a / (2√3) and Circumradius (R) = a / √3, where 'a' is the side length.

Perimeter

The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 3 × side (3a).

Shortcut Trick

Put θ = 45° since the expression is independent of θ.

⇒ (1 + cot² 45°)(1 + cos 45°)(1 − cos 45°) − (1 − sin 45°)(1 + sin 45°)(1 + tan² 45°)

⇒ (1 + 1)(1 − cos² 45°) − (1 − sin² 45°)(1 + 1)

⇒ 2 × (1 − 1/2) − (1 − 1/2) × 2 = (2 × 1/2) − (1/2 × 2) = 1 − 1 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Alternate Method

Given: (1 + cot² θ)(1 + cos θ)(1 − cos θ) − (1 − sin θ)(1 + sin θ)(1 + tan² θ)

Formulas Used: 1 + cot² θ = cosec² θ | 1 + tan² θ = sec² θ | (a − b)(a + b) = a² − b²

⇒ (1 + cot² θ)(1 − cos² θ) − (1 − sin² θ)(1 + tan² θ)

⇒ (cosec² θ)(sin² θ) − (cos² θ)(sec² θ)

⇒ (1/sin² θ × sin² θ) − (cos² θ × 1/cos² θ)

⇒ 1 − 1 = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identities

Standard identities: sin² θ + cos² θ = 1, 1 + tan² θ = sec² θ, and 1 + cot² θ = cosec² θ.

Reciprocal Relations

sin θ × cosec θ = 1, cos θ × sec θ = 1, and tan θ × cot θ = 1.

Given series:

(Left) 9 + Ω 6 £ * S 1 & 8 4 7 2 % 5 3 @ # (Right)

Numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by another number.

Symbol → Number → Number

9 + Ω 6 £ * S 1 & 8 4 7 2 % 5 3 @ # 

Thus, there are 2 such pairs(& 8 4, % 5 3)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is 71.

Key Points

• India's overall Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) score for the year 2023-24 is 71 as reported by NITI Aayog.
• The SDG score reflects India's performance in achieving the 17 Sustainable Development Goals set by the United Nations.
• NITI Aayog, the policy think tank of the Government of India, is responsible for monitoring and reporting on the progress of SDGs in the country.
• The score is an aggregate of various metrics, including poverty, hunger, health, education, gender equality, clean water and sanitation, affordable and clean energy, and more.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• SDGs are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015.
• The goals are part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which aims to address global challenges including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.
• The SDGs are interconnected and are designed to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all.
• NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog stands for National Institution for Transforming India.
• It was established in 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
• NITI Aayog's primary role is to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis.
• It also provides relevant strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments.
• SDG India Index:
• The SDG India Index is a tool developed by NITI Aayog to monitor and report the progress of SDGs at the national and state levels.
• The index ranks states and union territories based on their performance in achieving the SDGs.
• It includes a comprehensive set of indicators covering all 17 goals.
• UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN):
• The SDSN was launched in 2012 to mobilize global scientific and technological expertise to promote practical solutions for sustainable development.
• It works closely with UN agencies, multilateral financing institutions, the private sector, and civil society.
• The SDSN supports the implementation of the SDGs and the Paris Climate Agreement.

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Work (LCM of 8, 10, 12) = 120 units.

Efficiencies: A = +15, B = +12, C = −10. Combined (A+B+C) = 15 + 12 − 10 = 17.

Work done in 4 hours = 17 × 4 = 68 units. Remaining work = 120 − 68 = 52 units.

Efficiency of (B+C) = 12 − 10 = 2. Remaining time = 52 ÷ 2 = 26 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 26 hours.

Alternate Method

Given: Filling time for A = 8 hours, B = 10 hours. Emptying time for C = 12 hours. A is closed after 4 hours.

⇒ Combined efficiency of A + B + C = 15 + 12 − 10 = 17 units/hr

⇒ Tank filled in first 4 hours = 17 × 4 = 68 units

⇒ Remaining capacity to be filled = 120 − 68 = 52 units

⇒ Efficiency of B + C = 12 − 10 = 2 units/hr

⇒ Time taken by B and C to fill remaining part = 52 ÷ 2 = 26 hours

∴ The correct answer is 26 hours.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

Inlet pipes add water (positive efficiency) while outlet pipes remove water (negative efficiency) from the tank.

LCM Method for Capacity

Taking the LCM of individual times as total capacity simplifies calculations by providing integer values for efficiency.

Remaining Work formula

Time = (Remaining Capacity) ÷ (Net Efficiency of active pipes).

Given: 'T ÷ U × V + W - X'? 

 

T ÷ U means T is son of U

U × V means U is Mother of V

V + W means V is Sister of W

W - X means W is Husband of X

Thus, T is brother of W.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

A solution contains 20 g of common salt in 280 g of water.

Formula used:

Concentration (mass/mass percentage) =$\dfrac{\text{mass of solute}}{\text{mass of solution}} \times 100$

Calculation:

Mass of solute (common salt) = 20 g

Mass of solvent (water) = 280 g

Mass of solution = Mass of solute + Mass of solvent

⇒ Mass of solution = 20 g + 280 g = 300 g

Concentration (mass/mass percentage) =$\dfrac{20}{300} \times 100$

⇒ $\dfrac{20}{300} \times 100$ = 6.66%

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

For two numbers, if Sum (S) and Difference (D) are given:

Greater Number = (Sum + Difference) ÷ 2

⇒ (58 + 18) ÷ 2

⇒ 76 ÷ 2 = 38

∴ The correct answer is 38.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of two numbers = 58

Difference between numbers = 18

Let the greater number be x and the smaller number be y.

⇒ x + y = 58 --- (i)

⇒ x − y = 18 --- (ii)

Adding equation (i) and (ii):

⇒ (x + y) + (x − y) = 58 + 18

⇒ 2x = 76

⇒ x = 76 ÷ 2

⇒ x = 38

∴ The correct answer is 38.

Additional Information

Finding the Smaller Number

The smaller number can be found using the formula (Sum − Difference) ÷ 2 or by subtracting the difference from the greater number.

Linear Equations in Two Variables

When solving x + y = A and x − y = B, the values are always x = (A+B)/2 and y = (A−B)/2.

The correct answer is Paramesh Sivamani.

Key Points

• Paramesh Sivamani took over as the 26^th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard in 2023.
• He has had a distinguished career in the Indian Coast Guard, holding various key positions.
• Before becoming the Director General, he served as the Additional Director General of the Coast Guard.
• He has been instrumental in enhancing the operational capabilities and modernizing the fleet of the Indian Coast Guard.
• His leadership is expected to further strengthen the maritime security and search and rescue operations along India's coastline.

Additional Information

• Indian Coast Guard
• The Indian Coast Guard was formally established on 18 August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978, of the Parliament of India.
• Its primary role includes search and rescue operations, maritime law enforcement, and environmental protection.
• The Indian Coast Guard operates under the Ministry of Defence.
• The organization operates a wide range of vessels, aircraft, and helicopters to perform its duties effectively.
• Director General of the Indian Coast Guard
• The Director General is the chief of the Indian Coast Guard.
• This position is equivalent to a three-star rank in the Indian Armed Forces.
• The Director General is responsible for the overall command and administration of the Coast Guard.
• The role includes strategic planning, operational readiness, and coordination with other maritime agencies.
• Maritime Security
• Maritime security involves protecting the nation’s maritime interests against threats such as piracy, terrorism, and smuggling.
• The Indian Coast Guard plays a crucial role in ensuring maritime security through regular patrols and surveillance.
• It collaborates with the Indian Navy, Marine Police, and other international maritime agencies.
• Effective maritime security is essential for safeguarding trade routes and national security.

The correct answer is Oestrogen.

Key Points

• Oestrogen is primarily responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics.
• This hormone plays a crucial role in the development of the breasts, endometrium, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and reproductive system maintenance.
• Oestrogen levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle, peaking during the ovulatory phase to prepare the uterus for potential pregnancy.
• It also has significant effects on other tissues, including bone, liver, and the cardiovascular system, contributing to overall female health.

Additional Information

• Menstrual Cycle Phases
• The menstrual cycle is divided into four phases: menstrual, follicular, ovulatory, and luteal phases.
• Oestrogen levels are highest during the follicular and ovulatory phases, facilitating ovulation and preparation of the uterine lining for implantation.
• Progesterone
• Another critical hormone in female reproductive health, it works alongside oestrogen to regulate the menstrual cycle and maintain pregnancy.
• Progesterone levels rise during the luteal phase after ovulation, preparing the uterus for a potential pregnancy.
• Hormonal Imbalances
• Imbalances in oestrogen levels can lead to conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), endometriosis, and other menstrual disorders.
• Treatment for hormonal imbalances may include lifestyle changes, medications, and sometimes hormone replacement therapy.
• Role in Bone Health
• Oestrogen helps maintain bone density by inhibiting bone resorption, reducing the risk of osteoporosis post-menopause.
• Women are more susceptible to osteoporosis due to the drop in oestrogen levels after menopause.

The followed here is:

Thus, 'XNT' will be next in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Shortcut Trick

Relative speed (same direction) = Speed difference

⇒ Relative speed = 5.5 − 5 = 0.5 km/h

⇒ Time required = Distance ÷ Relative speed

⇒ Time = 9.5 ÷ 0.5 = 19 hrs

∴ The correct answer is 19 hrs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of Policeman = 5 km/h

Speed of Thief = 5.5 km/h

Target distance apart = 9.5 km

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (same direction) = Speed₁ − Speed₂

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Policeman (5 km/h)

Thief (5.5 km/h)

0.5 km gap

Relative Speed = 0.5 km/h

Calculations:

⇒ Because they move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference between their speeds.

⇒ Relative speed = 5.5 − 5 = 0.5 km/h

⇒ This means the distance between them increases by 0.5 km every hour.

⇒ Distance to be covered relative to each other = 9.5 km

⇒ Time required = 9.5 ÷ 0.5

⇒ Time required = 19 hrs

∴ The correct answer is 19 hrs.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their individual speeds: S₁ − S₂.

Relative Speed in Opposite Direction

When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: S₁ + S₂.

Average Speed

If equal distances are covered at speeds S₁ and S₂, the average speed is calculated as (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

The least possible venn diagram:

Conclusions:

(I) Some pants are not shirts → False(As, Some shirts are pants. so Some pants are not shirts is a possibility but definite)

(II) Some shirts are coats → False( there is no direct relation between them)

Thus, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Expression = $\frac{5.32 \times 5.32 - 3.64 \times 3.64}{1.68}$

Formula used:

a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b)

Calculations:

Let a = 5.32 and b = 3.64

⇒ $\frac{a^2 - b^2}{1.68}$

⇒ $\frac{(5.32 + 3.64)(5.32 - 3.64)}{1.68}$

⇒ 5.32 − 3.64 = 1.68

⇒ $\frac{8.96 \times 1.68}{1.68}$

⇒ 8.96

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) KUP

Option 2) UZE

Option 3) BGL

Option 4) PUZ

Thus, 'KUP' not follow the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons..

Key Points

• Unsaturated hydrocarbons are organic compounds that contain double or triple bonds between carbon atoms.
• Alkenes are hydrocarbons that contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond (C=C).
• Alkynes are hydrocarbons that contain at least one carbon-carbon triple bond (C≡C).
• Examples of alkenes include ethylene (C2H4) and propylene (C3H6).
• Examples of alkynes include acetylene (C2H2) and propyne (C3H4).

Additional Information

• Saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) only contain single bonds between carbon atoms and are fully saturated with hydrogen atoms.
• Alkenes and alkynes are more reactive than alkanes due to the presence of double and triple bonds, which have higher energy and are more chemically reactive.
• Unsaturated hydrocarbons can undergo addition reactions, where atoms or groups of atoms are added to the carbon atoms involved in the double or triple bonds.
• Hydrogenation is a chemical process where unsaturated hydrocarbons are converted to saturated hydrocarbons by adding hydrogen (H2).
• Unsaturated hydrocarbons play a crucial role in the chemical industry, including the production of polymers, pharmaceuticals, and other organic compounds.

Shortcut Trick

Effective Rate of Interest = 16% × 3 = 48%

Given, 48% of Principal = ₹1,056

Principal (100%) = (1056 ÷ 48) × 100 = 22 × 100

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹1,056

Time (T) = 3 years

Rate (R) = 16% per annum

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 1056 = (P × 16 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ 1056 = (P × 48) ÷ 100

⇒ P = (1056 × 100) ÷ 48

⇒ P = 22 × 100

⇒ P = 2200

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,200.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total Amount (A) at the end of the period is the sum of Principal and Interest: A = P + SI = P[1 + (RT/100)].

Rule of Simple Interest

In Simple Interest, the interest remains constant for every year because it is always calculated on the original Principal.

Effective Rate Method

Effective Rate = R × T. This helps in directly calculating the Interest or Principal using percentage comparison.

The correct answer is radicle.

Key Points

• The radicle is the part of a plant embryo that develops into the primary root.
• It is the first part of the seedling to emerge from the seed during the process of germination.
• The radicle grows downward into the soil, anchoring the plant and absorbing water and nutrients.
• This structure is crucial for the seedling’s early growth and establishment.

Additional Information

• Plumule:
• The plumule is the part of the seed embryo that develops into the shoot bearing the first true leaves of a plant.
• It grows upward, emerging from the soil, and facilitates photosynthesis for the young plant.
• Cotyledon:
• Cotyledons are the first leaves that appear from a germinating seed.
• They are sometimes referred to as seed leaves and can store food for the seedling.
• Seed Germination:
• Germination is the process by which a seed develops into a new plant.
• It typically involves imbibition (water absorption), enzyme activation, and the growth of the radicle and plumule.
• Embryo Structure:
• The seed embryo consists of the radicle, plumule, and cotyledons.
• These structures are critical for the initial growth and development of the plant.

The correct answer is Phototropism - movement towards water.

Key Points

• Phototropism is the growth movement of a plant in response to light. Plants typically grow towards the light source, which is known as positive phototropism.
• It is primarily regulated by the plant hormone auxin, which redistributes towards the shaded side of the plant, causing cell elongation and bending towards the light.
• Phototropism helps plants maximize light absorption for photosynthesis, which is essential for their growth and energy production.
• Unlike hydrotropism, which involves movement towards water, phototropism involves movement towards a light source. Therefore, the statement "Phototropism - movement towards water" is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Hydrotropism
• Hydrotropism is the growth response of plant roots towards water. This allows the plant to maximize water uptake, which is crucial for various physiological processes.
• Unlike phototropism, which is influenced by light, hydrotropism is influenced by moisture gradients in the soil.
• Geotropism
• Geotropism, also known as gravitropism, is the growth response of plants to gravity. Roots typically exhibit positive geotropism (growing downwards), while stems show negative geotropism (growing upwards).
• This response ensures that roots anchor the plant and access water and nutrients, while stems grow towards the light.
• Thigmotropism
• Thigmotropism is the directional growth response of plants to touch or physical contact. It is commonly observed in climbing plants and vines.
• Examples include tendrils of pea plants wrapping around a support structure.
• Chemotropism
• Chemotropism is the growth response of a plant to a chemical stimulus. For example, the growth of pollen tubes towards ovules during fertilization is driven by chemotropic signals.
• This type of tropism ensures that fertilization occurs successfully within flowering plants.

Given series:

(Left) # 1 * £ 5 3 2 9 + % 8 4 6 @ $ 7 & Ω (Right)

Symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another symbol.

Number  → Symbol → Symbol

1 * £ 5 3 2 9 + % 8 4 6 @ $ 7 & Ω

Thus, there are 4 such pair(1 * £, 9 + %, 6 @ $, 7 & Ω).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".$

Given:

Vaibhav ranked 7^th from the top and 32^nd from the bottom in his class.

Total students = Rank from Top + Rank from Bottom − 1

= 7 + 32 − 1

= 39 − 1

= 38

Thus, total 38 students are there in the class.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Hydrogen.

Key Points

• When metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid, they typically release hydrogen gas.
• The reaction can be generalized as: Metal + Dilute Hydrochloric Acid → Metal Chloride + Hydrogen Gas.
• For example, when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, zinc chloride and hydrogen gas are formed: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂.
• Hydrogen gas is typically observed as bubbles forming on the surface of the metal.

Additional Information

• Reactivity Series of Metals
• The reactivity series is a ranking of metals based on their reactivity with acids and water.
• Metals higher in the series, such as potassium and sodium, react more vigorously with acids compared to metals lower in the series, such as gold and platinum.
• Properties of Hydrogen Gas
• Hydrogen is a colorless, odorless, and highly flammable gas.
• It is the lightest element and is used in various industrial applications, including hydrogen fuel cells.
• Safety Precautions
• When conducting reactions that produce hydrogen gas, proper ventilation and safety measures should be in place to prevent accumulation and potential explosions.
• Hydrogen gas should be handled with care due to its flammability.
• Applications of Hydrogen
• Hydrogen is used in the production of ammonia for fertilizers, in refining metals, and as a fuel in hydrogen fuel cells.
• It is also used in the food industry for hydrogenation of fats and oils.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number × 3) + 3 = 2^nd number.

X : 30 :: 12 : Y

Option 2) X = 9, Y = 39

For, X value

X : 30

→ (9 × 3) + 3

→ 27 + 3

→ 30 (equal to 2^nd number).

Now, for Y value

12 : Y

→ (12 × 3) + 3

→ 36 + 3

→ 39 = Y

Thus, value of X is 9 and Y value is 39.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Thu Aug 08 2024 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

• The Readjustment of Representation of Scheduled Tribes in Assembly Constituencies of the State of Goa Bill, 2024, was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 8^th August 2024.
• The bill aims to ensure fair representation of Scheduled Tribes in the assembly constituencies of Goa.
• It addresses the need for redrawing constituency boundaries based on updated demographic data.
• This legislation is part of a broader effort to enhance political inclusion and representation of marginalized communities.
• The introduction of the bill in the Lok Sabha marks the initial step in the legislative process for its enactment.

Additional Information

• Scheduled Tribes (STs)
• Scheduled Tribes are communities recognized by the Constitution of India as socially and economically disadvantaged.
• They are provided with specific measures for their protection and development under various legislative acts.
• Reservation in legislatures, government jobs, and educational institutions are part of these measures.
• The criteria for recognition as an ST include distinct culture, geographic isolation, and backwardness.
• Delimitation
• Delimitation is the process of redrawing the boundaries of electoral constituencies based on the latest census data.
• This process ensures that each constituency has roughly equal population size for fair representation.
• In India, a Delimitation Commission is constituted to carry out this task.
• The last delimitation exercise was based on the 2001 Census, and a new one is expected based on the 2021 Census.
• Lok Sabha
• The Lok Sabha is the lower house of India's bicameral Parliament.
• Members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people of India.
• The Lok Sabha has a maximum strength of 552 members.
• It is responsible for making laws and policies at the national level.
• Legislative Process in India
• The legislative process involves the introduction of a bill in either house of Parliament.
• After introduction, the bill is debated and may be referred to a committee for further scrutiny.
• The bill must be passed by both houses of Parliament and receive the President's assent to become law.
• Important stages include the first reading, second reading, committee stage, and third reading.

The correct answer is 20 W.

Key Points

• The power (P) consumed by an electrical device can be calculated using the formula P = V × I, where V is the voltage and I is the current.
• In this case, the electric bulb is connected to a 200 V generator and it draws a current of 0.1 A.
• By substituting the given values into the formula: P = 200 V × 0.1 A = 20 W.
• Therefore, the power consumed by the bulb is 20 W.

Additional Information

• Power (P)
• Power is the rate at which electrical energy is consumed or converted into another form (like light, heat, etc.).
• It is measured in watts (W).
• Voltage (V)
• Voltage is the electric potential difference between two points and is measured in volts (V).
• It drives the current through a circuit.
• Current (I)
• Current is the flow of electric charge and is measured in amperes (A).
• It is the rate at which charge passes through a point in a circuit.
• Ohm's Law
• Ohm's Law states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.
• The mathematical expression is V = I × R, where R is the resistance.

Given:

$\frac{9}{-16} + \frac{-5}{-12}$

Formula used:

Addition of rational numbers using LCM method.

Calculations:

⇒ $\frac{-9}{16} + \frac{5}{12}$

LCM of 16 and 12 = 48

⇒ $\frac{(-9 \times 3) + (5 \times 4)}{48}$

⇒ $\frac{-27 + 20}{48}$

⇒ $\frac{-7}{48}$

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

The correct answer is repo rate.

Key Points

• The repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds.
• As of October 2024, the RBI kept the repo rate unchanged at 6.5% during its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting.
• Maintaining the repo rate can influence interest rates in the economy, impacting both inflation and economic growth.
• The decision to keep the repo rate unchanged is often based on current economic indicators such as inflation rates, GDP growth, and other macroeconomic factors.
• Repo rate adjustments are a key tool used by the RBI to maintain liquidity and control inflation in the economy.

Additional Information

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
• CRR is the percentage of a bank's total deposits that must be maintained with the RBI in the form of reserves.
• It ensures that banks do not run out of cash to meet the payment demands of their depositors.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
• SLR is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold, or other securities.
• This is a tool used by the RBI to control the expansion of credit.
• Bank Rate
• The bank rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country lends money to domestic banks, often for long-term purposes.
• Changes in the bank rate can impact the overall lending rates in the economy.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
• The MPC is a committee of the RBI responsible for formulating the monetary policy of India.
• It consists of six members, including the RBI Governor as the chairperson.
• The MPC meets bi-monthly to review and decide on key policy rates, including the repo rate.
• Inflation Control
• Inflation control is one of the primary objectives of the RBI's monetary policy.
• By adjusting the repo rate, the RBI aims to control inflation and stabilize the economy.

The correct answer is Thermal decomposition.

Key Points

• Decomposition of limestone (CaCO₃) to quick lime (CaO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) occurs when heated strongly.
• This process is known as thermal decomposition, which involves breaking down a compound by heating.
• Thermal decomposition reactions require energy in the form of heat to break chemical bonds in the reactant.
• In the case of limestone, the reaction can be represented as: CaCO₃ (s) → CaO (s) + CO₂ (g).
• Thermal decomposition is commonly used in various industrial processes, including the production of cement and lime.

Additional Information

• Photochemical decomposition
• It involves the breaking down of a compound by the action of light, typically ultraviolet light.
• Example: Decomposition of silver chloride (AgCl) into silver (Ag) and chlorine (Cl₂) under sunlight.
• Reduction reaction
• A chemical reaction that involves the gain of electrons by a molecule, atom, or ion.
• Reduction is typically accompanied by oxidation, which involves the loss of electrons.
• Oxidation reaction
• A chemical reaction that involves the loss of electrons by a molecule, atom, or ion.
• Oxidation reactions are often paired with reduction reactions in redox processes.
• Industrial uses of quick lime
• Quick lime (CaO) is used in the manufacture of cement and concrete.
• It is also used for soil stabilization, water treatment, and as a flux in steelmaking.

Given:

Total motorcycles sold in India in the year 2021 = 25,00,000

Percentage sale of motorcycles by GTM = 5%

Formula used:

Number of motorcycles sold by GTM = (Total motorcycles sold in India) × (Percentage sale of motorcycles by GTM) / 100

Calculation:

Number of motorcycles sold by GTM = 25,00,000 × 5 / 100

⇒ Number of motorcycles sold by GTM = 25,00,000 × 0.05

⇒ Number of motorcycles sold by GTM = 1,25,000

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 18,600 and Profit = Rs. 600.

Cost Price (CP) = SP − Profit = 18,600 − 600 = Rs. 18,000.

Discount = 25%, so CP is 75% of the Marked Price (MRP).

75% of MRP = 18,000 ⇒ 3/4 × MRP = 18,000.

MRP = 18,000 × 4 ÷ 3 = 6,000 × 4 = Rs. 24,000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 24,000.

Alternate Method

Given: SP = Rs. 18,600, Profit = Rs. 600, Discount % = 25%.

Formulas: CP = SP − Profit | MRP = CP ÷ (1 − Discount%/100)

⇒ Cost Price (CP) of the gadget = Selling Price − Profit

⇒ CP = 18,600 − 600 = 18,000

⇒ Let Marked Price (MRP) be x.

⇒ Discounted price = x − 25% of x = 0.75x

⇒ Since Manish bought it at this price, 0.75x = 18,000

⇒ x = 18,000 ÷ 0.75 = 18,00,000 ÷ 75 = 24,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 24,000.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Discount

The price printed on an item is the Marked Price (MRP). Discount is always calculated on the MRP to arrive at the purchase price for the buyer.

Profit and Loss

Profit occurs when the Selling Price is greater than the Cost Price. Profit = SP − CP. To find the CP when SP and Profit are known, we subtract Profit from SP.

The correct answer is Potential Energy.

Key Points

• A stretched rubber band stores energy due to the deformation caused by stretching, which is categorized as potential energy.
• Potential energy is the energy that is stored in an object due to its position, configuration, or condition.
• In the case of a rubber band, the energy is stored as elastic potential energy, which results from the rubber band being stretched beyond its equilibrium position.
• When the rubber band is released, the stored elastic potential energy is converted into other forms of energy, such as kinetic energy, causing the rubber band to move.
• This type of energy is commonly observed in elastic materials, such as springs, rubber bands, and trampolines.
• The more a rubber band is stretched, the greater the potential energy stored within it.
• This concept is widely applied in various fields, including mechanics, engineering, and everyday devices such as catapults and slingshots.
• Elastic potential energy is mathematically expressed as E = 1/2 k x², where k is the spring constant and x is the displacement from the equilibrium position.

Additional Information

• Light Energy
• Light energy is a type of energy that travels in the form of electromagnetic waves.
• This energy is emitted by sources such as the sun, light bulbs, and lasers.
• It is not relevant to a stretched rubber band, as stretching does not produce any form of light energy.
• Kinetic Energy
• Kinetic energy refers to the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.
• A stretched rubber band does not have kinetic energy unless it is released and starts moving.
• When the rubber band is released, the stored potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.
• Thermal Energy
• Thermal energy is the energy related to the temperature of an object, resulting from the movement of particles within it.
• Stretching a rubber band does not generate a significant amount of thermal energy, though repeated stretching can cause slight warming due to friction.

Given:

Expression = $\rm \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{-1/2}$

Formula used:

(a/b)⁻ⁿ = (b/a)ⁿ

(a^m)ⁿ = a^{m × n}

Calculation:

Let the given expression be x

⇒ x = $\rm \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{-1/2}$

⇒ x = $\rm \left(\frac{4}{1}\right)^{1/2}$

⇒ x = (4)^1/2

⇒ x = (2²)^1/2

⇒ x = 2^{2 × 1/2}

⇒ x = 2¹

⇒ x = 2

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Statement: Even though Town B has a rich history and many ancient landmarks, it is not a popular tourist destination.

Reason (I): The town has poor public transportation and limited accommodation options. → True

It is true because poor public transportation and limited accommodation options can deter tourists from visiting, regardless of the historical value.

Reason (II): Town B is located near a popular beach destination. → False

While being close to a beach destination might attract tourists to the beach, it does not directly explain why Town B itself is unpopular. Town B could still be a popular tourist destination for those interested in history and culture. Being near another attraction does not necessarily make a place unpopular; it might even increase tourism if marketed properly.

Hence, "Only I is a possible reason" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Magnesium (Mg) and manganese (Mn).

Key Points

• Magnesium (Mg) and manganese (Mn) react with very dilute nitric acid to produce hydrogen gas.
• When Mg and Mn are treated with dilute nitric acid, they displace hydrogen from the acid to form magnesium nitrate and manganese nitrate, respectively, while releasing hydrogen gas.
• Other metals like copper (Cu) and cobalt (Co) do not react with dilute nitric acid to produce hydrogen gas.
• The production of hydrogen gas depends on the reactivity series of metals where Mg and Mn are more reactive compared to metals like copper.

Additional Information

• Reactivity Series
• A ranking of metals based on their reactivity with water, acids, and oxygen.
• Highly reactive metals like potassium and sodium can react vigorously with water.
• Moderately reactive metals like magnesium and manganese react with acids to release hydrogen gas.
• Less reactive metals like copper and gold do not react with dilute acids to release hydrogen gas.
• Nitric Acid (HNO3)
• A strong acid commonly used in laboratories and industries.
• Concentrated nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent and can react violently with metals.
• Very dilute nitric acid, however, behaves differently and can produce hydrogen gas with some reactive metals.
• Hydrogen Gas (H2)
• A colorless, odorless, and highly flammable gas.
• Produced in reactions involving acids and reactive metals.
• It is used in various industrial processes including hydrogenation and as a fuel in some applications.

Given coded language:

As, stars and twinkle are common in both coded language.

Thus, code of 'brightly' is 'rkpx'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is The size of the scattering particles.

Key Points

• The Tyndall effect occurs when light is scattered by particles in its path.
• The color of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
• Smaller particles scatter shorter wavelengths of light (blue and violet) more effectively.
• Larger particles scatter longer wavelengths of light (red and orange).
• This is why the sky appears blue during the day and can turn red or orange during sunrise and sunset.

Additional Information

• Tyndall Effect:
• It is the scattering of light by particles in a colloid or in very fine particles in a suspension.
• This effect is named after the 19^th-century scientist John Tyndall, who first studied the phenomenon.
• Rayleigh Scattering:
• A special case of the Tyndall effect where the scattering particles are much smaller than the wavelength of light.
• This explains why the sky appears blue, as shorter wavelengths are scattered more.
• Mie Scattering:
• Occurs when the particles are larger than the wavelength of light.
• It is responsible for the white appearance of clouds, as all wavelengths are scattered equally.
• Applications of Tyndall Effect:
• Used in the study of colloids to determine the size and distribution of particles.
• Helps in the design of optical instruments and in the field of atmospheric science.

Shortcut Trick

Side of the square = √4096 = 64 cm

Length of the rectangle (L) = 64 × 2 = 128 cm

Breadth of the rectangle (B) = 64 − 24 = 40 cm

Required Ratio (B : L) = 40 : 128 = 5 : 16

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 16.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the square = 4096 cm²

Length of the rectangle = 2 × Side of the square

Breadth of the rectangle = Side of the square − 24 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a square = a² (where a is the side of the square)

Side = 64 cm Square Area = 4096

L = 128 cm B = 40 cm Rectangle

Ratio (B : L) = 40 : 128 = 5 : 16

Calculation:

⇒ a² = 4096

⇒ a = √4096 = 64 cm

⇒ Length of the rectangle (L) = 2 × 64 = 128 cm

⇒ Breadth of the rectangle (B) = 64 − 24 = 40 cm

⇒ Ratio of Breadth to Length = 40 : 128

⇒ Dividing both sides of the ratio by their highest common factor (8)

⇒ Ratio = 5 : 16

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 16.

Additional Information

Properties of a Square

All four sides are equal and each angle measures 90°. Formulas: Area = side² and Perimeter = 4 × side.

Properties of a Rectangle

Opposite sides are equal and parallel, with each angle measuring 90°. Formulas: Area = L × B and Perimeter = 2 × (L + B).

Diagonal Formulas

For a square: Diagonal = side × √2. For a rectangle: Diagonal = √(L² + B²).

The correct answer is Emulsion.

Key Points

• Face cream is an example of an emulsion, which is a type of colloid where both the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are liquids.
• An emulsion is formed when two immiscible liquids are mixed together, typically oil and water, with one being dispersed in the form of tiny droplets throughout the other.
• In face creams, the oil phase is usually dispersed within the water phase, creating an oil-in-water (O/W) emulsion.
• Emulsifiers are added to face creams to stabilize the emulsion, preventing the oil and water from separating.
• Common ingredients in face creams that act as emulsifiers include cetyl alcohol, stearic acid, and polysorbates.

Additional Information

• Types of Emulsions
• Oil-in-Water (O/W) Emulsion: Oil droplets are dispersed in water, commonly used in cosmetic creams and lotions.
• Water-in-Oil (W/O) Emulsion: Water droplets are dispersed in oil, typically used in heavy creams and ointments.
• Emulsifiers
• Emulsifiers are substances that stabilize emulsions by reducing surface tension at the interface of the two immiscible liquids.
• They can be natural, like lecithin, or synthetic, like polysorbates.
• Colloid
• A colloid is a mixture where one substance is dispersed evenly throughout another at a microscopic level.
• Examples include gels, foams, sols, and emulsions.
• Properties of Emulsions
• Emulsions are typically opaque or translucent.
• They can be broken down by heating, freezing, or adding an electrolyte.

The correct answer is Increase in height.

Key Points

• Increase in height is not specific to the teenage years. While a growth spurt occurs during puberty, height increase is a continuous physiological process occurring from birth through childhood and is not specific to the teenage years.
• In contrast, the other options listed are typical secondary sexual characteristics that begin specifically during the onset of puberty.
• During puberty, hormonal changes such as increased levels of androgens lead to the development of thicker hair in certain areas like the armpits and pubic region.
• The increase in breast size is a significant change that occurs during the teenage years specifically due to the effects of estrogen.

Additional Information

• Puberty
• Puberty is the period during which adolescents reach sexual maturity and become capable of reproduction.
• This process is driven by hormonal signals from the brain to the gonads (ovaries in girls and testes in boys).
• Physical changes include the development of secondary sexual characteristics, such as breast development in girls and facial hair in boys.
• Hormones Involved in Puberty
• Estrogen and progesterone are the primary hormones in girls, responsible for breast development and menstrual cycles.
• Testosterone is the primary hormone in boys, responsible for the growth of facial and body hair and the deepening of the voice.
• Growth hormone, produced by the pituitary gland, plays a crucial role in the overall growth spurt experienced during puberty.
• Hair Growth Patterns
• Hair growth varies among individuals and is influenced by genetics and hormonal levels.
• During puberty, androgens stimulate the growth of thicker, coarser hair in areas such as the underarms and pubic region.

Shortcut Trick

Total ratio parts = 3 + 2 = 5 units.

Given, 5 units = 10 litres → 1 unit = 2 litres.

Quantity of Water = 2 units × 2 litres = 4 litres.

∴ The correct answer is 4 litres.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total volume of mixture = 10 litres

Ratio of Milk : Water = 3 : 2

Formula:

Quantity of a component = (Component Ratio ÷ Sum of Ratios) × Total Quantity

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 3 + 2 = 5

⇒ Quantity of Water = (2 ÷ 5) × 10

⇒ Quantity of Water = 2 × 2

⇒ Quantity of Water = 4 litres

∴ The correct answer is 4 litres.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion Basics

To divide a quantity X in the ratio a:b, the parts are [a/(a+b)]×X and [b/(a+b)]×X.

Mixture Alligation

The rule of alligation is used to find the ratio in which two ingredients at given prices/concentrations must be mixed to produce a mixture at a specific price/concentration.

Percentage Representation

Water percentage in this mixture = (2 ÷ 5) × 100 = 40%.

The correct answer is Only a and b.

Key Points

• Reduction involves the gain of electrons, which often corresponds to the gain of hydrogen or the loss of oxygen in a chemical reaction.
• Loss of oxygen is a key indicator of a reduction reaction.
• Gain of hydrogen is another common characteristic of reduction.
• Oxidation and reduction reactions always occur simultaneously in what are known as redox reactions.

Additional Information

• Oxidation
• Oxidation is the process where an atom, ion, or molecule loses electrons.
• It is often accompanied by the gain of oxygen or the loss of hydrogen.
• Oxidation reactions release energy and are exothermic.
• Redox Reactions
• Redox reactions involve the simultaneous processes of reduction and oxidation.
• These reactions are vital for energy production in biological systems, such as cellular respiration.
• Electrochemical Cells
• In electrochemical cells, oxidation occurs at the anode, and reduction occurs at the cathode.
• These cells convert chemical energy into electrical energy or vice versa.
• Importance in Industry
• Reduction processes are crucial in metallurgy for extracting metals from their ores.
• They are also used in various chemical manufacturing processes.

The correct answer is Rashtrapati Bhavan's Cultural Centre and Amrit Udyan.

Key Points

• Four sandstone replicas of the iconic Konark wheels from the Konark Temple have been installed at Rashtrapati Bhavan's Cultural Centre and Amrit Udyan.
• The installation aims to showcase the rich cultural heritage of India and the architectural marvels of the Konark Temple.
• These replicas are crafted from sandstone to mirror the original Konark wheels' intricate designs and craftsmanship.
• The Konark Temple, also known as the Sun Temple, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Odisha, India.

Additional Information

• Konark Temple
• Built in the 13^th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
• The temple is dedicated to the Hindu Sun God, Surya.
• Known for its architectural grandeur and intricate carvings, it is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot.
• The temple features 24 intricately carved wheels and is pulled by seven horses, symbolizing the seven days of the week.
• Rashtrapati Bhavan
• The official residence of the President of India, located in New Delhi.
• It was completed in 1929 and designed by British architect Sir Edwin Lutyens.
• The Cultural Centre at Rashtrapati Bhavan hosts various cultural events and exhibitions.
• UNESCO World Heritage Sites
• These sites are designated by UNESCO for their cultural, historical, scientific, or other forms of significance.
• The Konark Temple was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.
• India is home to 40 UNESCO World Heritage Sites as of 2023.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 'BLY' will be the next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Both (i) and (ii).

Key Points

• A spherical mirror that diverges a beam of light is known as a convex mirror.
• Convex mirrors have a positive focal length, which means the focal point is behind the mirror.
• Convex mirrors form virtual images, which cannot be projected on a screen.
• These mirrors are commonly used in applications where a wide field of view is needed, such as in vehicle rearview mirrors.

Additional Information

• Convex Mirror
• A convex mirror is a spherical mirror where the reflective surface bulges outward.
• They are also known as diverging mirrors because they spread out light rays that have been reflected.
• Convex mirrors always form virtual, erect, and diminished images.
• Focal Length
• Focal length is the distance between the mirror's surface and the focal point.
• For convex mirrors, the focal length is positive.
• The focal point is the point where parallel light rays either converge or appear to diverge after reflecting off the mirror.
• Virtual Image
• A virtual image is an image that cannot be obtained on a screen.
• Virtual images are formed when light rays appear to meet at a point behind the mirror.
• Convex mirrors always produce virtual images.
• Applications of Convex Mirrors
• Used in vehicle rearview mirrors to provide a wider field of view.
• Installed in hallways and stores for security purposes to monitor a larger area.
• Utilized in optical instruments like telescopes to direct light.

The correct answer is Copper sulphate.

Key Points

• When iron nails are dipped in a solution of copper sulphate, a chemical reaction takes place where iron displaces copper from the solution.
• The reaction is a type of single displacement reaction where iron (Fe) reacts with copper sulphate (CuSO₄) to form iron sulphate (FeSO₄) and copper (Cu).
• The brownish colour observed on the iron nails is due to the deposition of copper metal on the surface of the iron nails.
• The chemical equation for this reaction is Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu.
• This reaction indicates that iron is more reactive than copper, as it displaces copper from its compound.

Additional Information

• Single Displacement Reaction:
• A chemical reaction where one element displaces another element from its compound.
• It usually occurs between a more reactive metal and a less reactive metal compound.
• Example: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu.
• Reactivity Series of Metals:
• A list of metals arranged in order of their reactivity, from most reactive to least reactive.
• Iron is more reactive than copper, which is why it can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
• Copper Sulphate (CuSO₄):
• A blue crystalline solid used in various chemical reactions and applications.
• Commonly used in laboratories and for agricultural purposes.
• Iron (Fe):
• A common metal known for its strength and magnetic properties.
• Widely used in construction, manufacturing, and various industrial applications.

Given series:

(Left) 5 1 6 6 2 4 9 3 5 3 7 1 8 5 2 7 8 1 8 4 5 1 5 7 6 9 2 9 (Right)

Such Even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit.

Odd → Even → Odd

5 1 6 6 2 4 9 3 5 3 7 1 8 5 2 7 8 1 8 4 5 1 5 7 6 9 2 9

Thus, there are 5 such pairs( 1 8 5, 5 2 7, 7 8 1, 7 6 9, 9 2 9)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

20 + {10 − 5 + (7 − 3)}

Formula used:

BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

Calculations:

20 + {10 − 5 + (7 − 3)}

⇒ 20 + {10 − 5 + 4}

⇒ 20 + {14 − 5}

⇒ 20 + 9

⇒ 29

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

The correct answer is Ohm's law.

Key Points

• Ohm's law states that the current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage (V) applied across it, provided the temperature and other physical conditions remain constant.
• The mathematical expression for Ohm's law is I = V/R, where I is the current, V is the voltage, and R is the resistance.
• Ohm's law was formulated by German physicist Georg Simon Ohm in 1827.
• This fundamental law is widely used in electrical and electronic engineering to analyze electric circuits.

Additional Information

• Resistance (R):
• Resistance is a measure of the opposition to the flow of electric current in a conductor.
• It is measured in ohms (Ω).
• Factors affecting resistance include the material, length, and cross-sectional area of the conductor.
• Voltage (V):
• Voltage, also known as electric potential difference, is the force that drives electric current through a circuit.
• It is measured in volts (V).
• Current (I):
• Current is the flow of electric charge in a circuit.
• It is measured in amperes (A).
• Applications of Ohm's Law:
• Used to determine the values of current, voltage, and resistance in electrical circuits.
• Helps in designing and analyzing electrical and electronic systems.
• Important for understanding the behavior of electrical components such as resistors, capacitors, and inductors.

Given:

Ali, Bob, Carol, Dave, Elma and Frank are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

Ali sits second to the left of Bob.

Carol sits third to the right of Bob.

Dave sits to the immediate left of Carol.

Elma sits to the immediate left of Bob.

Thus, One people sit between Elma and Frank when counted from the right of Elma.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Light.

Key Points

• An electric bulb converts electrical energy into light energy, which is the primary function of the bulb.
• The filament inside the bulb heats up when an electric current passes through it, producing light through incandescence.
• Incandescence is the emission of light from a hot object due to its temperature.
• While the primary energy conversion is to light, a significant amount of energy is also converted to heat.
• This process is relatively inefficient, as traditional incandescent bulbs convert only about 10% of electrical energy into visible light.

Additional Information

• Incandescent Bulbs:
• Invented by Thomas Edison, they have been widely used since the late 19^th century.
• They work by passing an electric current through a tungsten filament, which heats up to produce light.
• Despite their popularity, they are being phased out in many countries due to their inefficiency.
• Energy-Efficient Alternatives:
• Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) and Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are more efficient alternatives.
• LEDs, in particular, convert a higher percentage of electrical energy into light and have a longer lifespan.
• Heat Production:
• In addition to light, incandescent bulbs produce a lot of heat, which is why they are hot to the touch when in use.
• This heat production is a significant energy loss and contributes to their inefficiency.
• Historical Impact:
• The invention of the electric bulb revolutionized indoor lighting and extended productive hours beyond daylight.
• It played a crucial role in the development of modern electrical infrastructure.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of ratio parts = 7 + 5 = 12 units.

Difference of ratio parts = 7 − 5 = 2 units.

Given: 12 units = 360 → 1 unit = 30.

Difference = 2 units × 30 = 60.

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of numbers = 7 : 5, Sum = 360.

Formula: Value = (Specific Ratio ÷ Sum of Ratios) × Total Sum

⇒ Let the numbers be 7x and 5x.

⇒ Sum = 7x + 5x = 12x

⇒ 12x = 360

⇒ x = 360 ÷ 12 = 30

⇒ First number = 7 × 30 = 210

⇒ Second number = 5 × 30 = 150

⇒ Difference = 210 − 150 = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

A ratio compares values. If a : b is given and the sum is S, the individual values are [a/(a+b)] × S and [b/(a+b)] × S.

Difference in Ratios

The difference between two quantities in a ratio a : b can be found directly as |a − b| × (Sum / (a + b)).

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of a : b and c : d is (a × c) : (b × d).

Shortcut Trick

Total subjects = 5, Maximum marks per subject = 105.

Average marks required = 80% of 105 = 84 per subject.

Total target deviation from 84 = 0.

Deviations: Hindi (89−84) = +5, Sanskrit (92−84) = +8, Maths (98−84) = +14, English (81−84) = −3.

Sum of deviations = 5 + 8 + 14 − 3 = +24. Science must be 84 − 24 = 60.

∴ The correct answer is 60 marks.

Alternate Method

Given: Number of subjects = 5, Maximum marks per subject = 105.

Formula: Total Marks Scored = Average % × Total Maximum Marks

⇒ Total maximum marks = 5 × 105 = 525

⇒ Total marks scored by Vandita = 80% of 525 = 0.80 × 525 = 420

⇒ Marks in Hindi + Sanskrit + Maths + English = 89 + 92 + 98 + 81 = 360

⇒ Marks in Science = Total marks − Sum of other 4 subjects

⇒ Marks in Science = 420 − 360 = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60 marks.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When different subjects have different maximum marks, the overall percentage is calculated as (Sum of marks obtained ÷ Sum of maximum marks) × 100.

Percentage to Marks Conversion

To find the absolute score from a percentage, use: Marks = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Maximum Marks.

Net Deviation Method

In any set of observations, the sum of deviations of all values from the actual mean (average) is always zero.

The correct answer is Solid.

Key Points

• Solids have a definite shape and volume, and their particles are closely packed in a fixed arrangement.
• Due to the strong intermolecular forces between particles, solids are highly resistant to deformation under pressure.
• When subjected to pressure, the particles in a solid can only move slightly, resulting in minimal change in shape.
• Compared to liquids, gases, and plasma, solids maintain their structure and exhibit the least compressibility.

Additional Information

• Liquids
• Liquids have a definite volume but no definite shape, taking the shape of their container.
• The intermolecular forces in liquids are weaker than in solids, allowing particles to move past one another.
• Liquids are more compressible than solids but less compressible than gases.
• Gases
• Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume and expand to fill their container.
• The particles in gases are far apart and move freely, resulting in high compressibility.
• Gases experience significant changes in shape and volume under pressure.
• Plasma
• Plasma is an ionized state of matter consisting of free electrons and ions.
• It has properties distinct from solids, liquids, and gases, including high electrical conductivity.
• Plasma can change shape easily and is highly responsive to electromagnetic fields.

The correct answer is Dr. Jaiteerth Raghavendra Joshi.

Key Points

• Dr. Jaiteerth Raghavendra Joshi has been appointed as the new chief of BrahMos Aerospace in November 2024.
• BrahMos Aerospace is a joint venture between India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyenia.
• The BrahMos missile is known for its speed, precision, and versatility, making it one of the world's fastest supersonic cruise missiles.
• Dr. Joshi brings extensive experience in the field of missile technology and has previously held significant positions in defense research organizations.

Additional Information

• BrahMos Missile
• The BrahMos missile is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile that can be launched from submarines, ships, aircraft, or land.
• It is named after the Brahmaputra River in India and the Moskva River in Russia.
• With a speed of Mach 2.8 to 3.0, it is one of the fastest cruise missiles in the world.
• The missile has a range of approximately 300 to 500 kilometers.
• Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
• DRDO is an agency under the Department of Defence Research and Development in the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
• It is responsible for the development of technology for use by the military.
• DRDO operates around 52 laboratories across India.
• Its areas of work include aeronautics, armaments, electronics, land combat engineering, life sciences, materials, missiles, and naval systems.
• NPO Mashinostroyenia
• NPO Mashinostroyenia is a Russian aerospace company that designs and manufactures missiles, spacecraft, and other aerospace equipment.
• It is a key partner in the BrahMos joint venture.
• The company has been involved in several significant space missions and defense projects.
• NPO Mashinostroyenia was founded in 1944 and has its headquarters in Reutov, Russia.
• Supersonic Cruise Missiles
• Supersonic cruise missiles travel faster than the speed of sound, typically at speeds of Mach 2 to 3.
• They are designed to deliver high-precision strikes against surface targets.
• Such missiles can be launched from various platforms including land, sea, and air.
• Supersonic cruise missiles are valued for their speed and ability to evade interception.

The logic follow here is:

Logic: Letter + 3 = Next letter.

Option 1) YBE

Option 2) TWY

Option 3) WZC

Option 4) NQT

Thus, 'TWY' not follow the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Plants have low energy needs and use relatively slow transport systems..

Key Points

• Plants, being autotrophic organisms, produce their own food via photosynthesis, which significantly reduces their overall energy needs compared to animals.
• The transport of water, minerals, and nutrients in plants occurs through xylem and phloem, which are relatively slow compared to the circulatory systems in animals.
• Plants rely on processes such as diffusion, osmosis, and active transport to move substances, which do not require high energy expenditure.
• Due to the stationary nature of plants and their low metabolic rates, the slow transport system suffices to meet their needs.

Additional Information

• Xylem
• Xylem is responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to other parts of the plant.
• It consists of vessels and tracheids, which are long, tube-like structures that facilitate the movement of water.
• The process of water movement in xylem is driven by transpiration pull, root pressure, and capillary action.
• Phloem
• Phloem is responsible for the transport of organic nutrients, particularly sucrose, from the leaves to other parts of the plant.
• It consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma.
• The movement in phloem is bidirectional, allowing nutrients to be transported to growing regions and storage tissues.
• Transpiration
• Transpiration is the process by which water vapor is lost from the aerial parts of plants, primarily through stomata.
• This process creates a negative pressure in the leaf, which helps in pulling water up through the xylem from the roots.
• Photosynthesis
• Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants use sunlight to synthesize nutrients from carbon dioxide and water.
• It primarily occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells and produces glucose and oxygen as by-products.
• The products of photosynthesis are transported through the phloem to various parts of the plant for growth and storage.

The correct answer is 28 per 1000 live births.

Key Points

• India's Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) in 2020 was recorded as 28 per 1000 live births according to the Statistical Appendix of the Economic Survey 2023-24.
• This represents a significant improvement in reducing infant mortality rates over the years.
• The reduction in IMR is attributed to various government health initiatives and increased healthcare access.
• Programs such as the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) and Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) have played a crucial role in this improvement.

Additional Information

• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
• IMR is defined as the number of deaths of infants under one year old per 1,000 live births in a given year.
• It is a crucial indicator of the overall health condition of a population.
• High IMR indicates poor health infrastructure, while a low IMR reflects better health services and maternal care.
• National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
• Launched in 2005, NRHM aims to provide accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to the rural population, especially the vulnerable groups.
• It focuses on strengthening healthcare infrastructure and improving maternal and child health.
• Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
• JSY is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission (NHM).
• It aims to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
• IMR reduction is a part of the broader framework of the SDGs, specifically Goal 3, which aims to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages.
• Targets under Goal 3 include ending preventable deaths of newborns and children under 5 years of age by 2030.

The correct answer is Joshna Chinappa.

Key Points

• Joshna Chinappa is an Indian professional squash player who has achieved significant milestones in her career.
• She became the first Indian to win the British Squash Championship title in 2003 in the under-19 category.
• Joshna has been a prominent figure in Indian squash, winning numerous national and international titles.
• In 2024, she was honored with the Padma Shri award for her outstanding contributions to the sport of squash.

Additional Information

• Padma Shri Award
• It is the fourth highest civilian award in India, instituted in 1954.
• The award is conferred on individuals for their distinguished contributions in various fields including arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
• Recipients of the Padma Shri are announced every year on Republic Day.
• Squash
• Squash is a fast-paced racquet sport played by two players in a four-walled court with a small, hollow rubber ball.
• The game requires agility, strategy, and endurance.
• It is recognized by the International Olympic Committee and has been included in various multi-sport events such as the Commonwealth Games and the Asian Games.
• India's Achievements in Squash
• India has produced several top-ranked squash players like Saurav Ghosal, Dipika Pallikal, and Joshna Chinappa.
• The country has been making significant progress in the sport with players achieving success in international tournaments.
• British Squash Championship
• One of the oldest and most prestigious squash tournaments in the world.
• Winning this championship is considered a major achievement in the sport of squash.