General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is IEEE 802.3.

Key Points

• IEEE 802.3 is the globally recognized standard for Ethernet, which is the foundational technology used for wired Local Area Networks (LANs).
• It defines the specifications for the Physical Layer and the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model.
• First standardized in 1983 by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE), it manages how data frames are transmitted over physical media like twisted-pair cables or fiber optics.
• The standard utilizes the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) protocol to regulate data traffic and resolve transmission conflicts between devices on the same network segment.
• Modern versions of 802.3 support a wide range of speeds, including 10 Mbps (Standard Ethernet), 100 Mbps (Fast Ethernet), 1 Gbps (Gigabit Ethernet), and up to 400 Gbps for high-capacity data centers.
• It serves as the primary infrastructure for connecting hardware such as routers, switches, and workstations in corporate and home office environments.

 Additional Information

• IEEE 802.11:
• This standard defines the protocols for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs), commonly known as Wi-Fi.
• It enables wireless communication over radio frequencies, typically in the 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, or 6 GHz bands.
• IEEE 802.15:
• Specifies standards for Wireless Personal Area Networks (WPANs), focusing on short-range communication.
• Key sub-standards include 802.15.1 (Bluetooth) for peripheral connectivity and 802.15.4 (Zigbee) for low-power sensor networks.
• IEEE 802.16:
• Known as WiMAX (Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access), it is designed for Wireless Metropolitan Area Networks (WMANs).
• It provides broadband wireless access over long distances, often used as a last-mile alternative to cable or DSL.

The correct answer is Manages which programs are allowed to start automatically when the user signs in.

Key Points

• The Startup apps tab in the Windows Task Manager is specifically designed to give users control over the software environment that initializes during the boot process. It allows users to toggle applications between Enabled and Disabled states to manage their automatic execution upon user authentication. Hence, the description of managing programs that start automatically is correct.
• Starting with Windows 8 and continuing through Windows 10 and Windows 11, Microsoft migrated these startup management features from the legacy System Configuration (msconfig) utility directly into the Task Manager for easier access.
• A vital feature of this tab is the Startup impact column, which calculates the CPU and disk usage of an application during the login phase, categorizing it as High, Medium, or Low.
• By disabling non-essential items in this tab, users can significantly reduce system boot time and free up Random Access Memory (RAM) and processing power for other tasks immediately after the desktop loads.

 Additional Information

• Other Task Manager Tabs and Functions:
• Performance Tab: Monitors real-time hardware utilization, including CPU, Memory, Disk, Ethernet/Wi-Fi, and GPU metrics.
• Processes Tab: Displays a list of all currently active applications and background processes, allowing users to force-close unresponsive software via the End Task button.
• App History: Provides a historical overview of resource usage for Universal Windows Platform (UWP) apps, showing CPU time and network data consumption over a specific period.
• Users Tab: Shows the resource consumption for each logged-in user account, which is particularly useful on multi-user systems or servers.
• Details Tab: Offers a more technical view of running processes, including Process IDs (PIDs), Session IDs, and the ability to set CPU priority.

The correct answer is dir /s.

Key Points

• The dir command is the fundamental Command Line Interface (CLI) utility used in the Windows operating system and MS-DOS to list the contents of a directory.
• The /s switch is a recursive parameter that instructs the command to display every occurrence of the specified file name or file type within the current directory and all its subdirectories.
• When used together, dir /s allows a user to perform a comprehensive search across the entire file system or a specific drive branch without needing to manually open File Explorer.
• This command is frequently paired with wildcards (such as * or ?) to find files by extension, such as *dir /s .txt, which locates all text files in the directory tree.
• The output generated by this command provides essential file metadata, including the absolute file path, the file size in bytes, and the last modified date and time.

 Additional Information

• Tasklist:
• This utility displays a comprehensive list of all running processes on a local or remote computer, including Process IDs (PIDs) and memory usage, rather than searching for files.
• chkdsk:
• Short for Check Disk, this command-line tool examines the integrity of the NTFS, FAT32, or exFAT file systems and can repair logical errors or locate bad sectors on a drive.
• Ping:
• A networking tool used to verify the connectivity and latency between two devices on an IP network by sending ICMP Echo Request packets.

The correct answer is Baltic Sea.

Key Points

• On January 18, 2025, NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) officially announced a significant surge in its military footprint across the Baltic Sea region. This move was a strategic reaction to a series of hybrid warfare incidents and the suspected sabotage of critical undersea infrastructure, including telecommunication cables and energy pipelines.
• The increased presence includes the deployment of additional Maritime Patrol Aircraft, Unmanned Underwater Vehicles (UUVs), and specialized naval vessels from the Standing NATO Maritime Groups to conduct 24/7 surveillance of the seabed.
• The primary objective of this mission is to enhance the Collective Defense of member states bordering the sea, specifically Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, and Poland, who have reported frequent disruptions to their digital connectivity.
• This announcement followed high-level consultations at NATO Headquarters in Brussels, where officials emphasized that protecting Critical Undersea Infrastructure (CUI) is now a core priority for Transatlantic Security.

 Additional Information

• Baltic Sea Strategic Importance:
• It serves as a vital corridor for Global Internet Traffic, housing cables like C-Lion1 and BCS East-West.
• The sea is often referred to as a NATO Lake following the recent accession of Finland and Sweden into the alliance.
• Other Maritime Regions:
• Black Sea: While highly militarized, current activities there are primarily linked to the Russia-Ukraine Conflict and the protection of Grain Corridors rather than new undersea infrastructure initiatives in early 2025.
• North Sea: Although critical for Offshore Wind Energy and gas, it was not the specific focus of the January 18 announcement.
• Mediterranean Sea: Focuses largely on Operation Sea Guardian and monitoring migration routes and the southern flank.

The correct answer is Osmosis.

Key Points

• Osmosis is a specific type of passive transport where solvent molecules, primarily water, move through a semi-permeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to a region of lower water concentration.
• In the soil-root system, the soil environment typically maintains a high water potential (low solute concentration), while the cytoplasm of the root hair cells has a low water potential due to the presence of dissolved sugars and salts.
• The plasma membrane of the plant cell serves as the selectively permeable barrier, allowing small water molecules to pass through while blocking the free passage of larger molecules or specific ions.
• This movement occurs spontaneously along the osmotic gradient and does not require the expenditure of metabolic energy (ATP), making it a crucial mechanism for maintaining turgor pressure in plant cells.
• The absorption of water via this method is the primary way terrestrial plants acquire the moisture necessary for photosynthesis and transpiration.

 Additional Information

• Diffusion:
• It is the general movement of particles (atoms, ions, or molecules) from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
• Unlike osmosis, it does not require a membrane and applies to gases and solutes as well as solvents.
• Active Transport:
• This process involves moving substances, such as mineral ions, across a cell membrane against a concentration gradient.
• It requires cellular energy and specific carrier proteins to function, allowing roots to accumulate nutrients even when soil concentrations are low.
• Plasmolysis:
• This is the shrinkage of the protoplast away from the cell wall due to the loss of water.
• It occurs when a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, leading to water exiting the cell through exosmosis.

The correct answer is 16%.

Key Points

• According to the World Bank assessment and data derived from the National Sample Survey (NSS), India experienced a significant reduction in poverty during the decade spanning 2004-05 to 2011-12.
• The rural poverty rate in India was estimated at approximately 41.8% in 2004-05 and declined to about 25.7% by 2011-12.
• The absolute reduction in the Poverty Headcount Ratio (PHR) for rural areas during this period reflects a decline of approximately 16.1 percentage points, which is rounded to 16% in various policy impact summaries.
• This decline is attributed to a period of inclusive growth, characterized by a rapid increase in real wages for unskilled labor and the diversification of the rural economy into non-farm sectors like construction.
• The World Bank highlighted that this reduction was faster than in previous decades, driven by better market integration and government-led social protection programs.

 Additional Information

• Inclusive Growth Drivers:
• MGNREGA: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act acted as a critical safety net, providing 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural households.
• Agricultural Growth: Higher minimum support prices (MSPs) and improved agricultural productivity contributed to rising incomes for small-scale farmers.
• Infrastructure Development: Schemes like Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) improved rural-to-urban connectivity, facilitating better access to markets.
• Tendulkar Committee: Most of these statistics are aligned with the Tendulkar Methodology, which moved away from a calorie-based poverty line to one including health and education expenditures.
• Spatial Convergence: The data showed that poorer states like Bihar and Odisha also began to see a faster decline in poverty, reducing the gap with more developed states.

The correct answer is INS Sahyadri.

Key Points

• The 29^th edition of the multilateral naval exercise Malabar 2025 took place from November 10 to 18, 2025, off the coast of Guam in the Western Pacific Ocean.
• The Indian Navy was represented by the indigenously designed and built guided-missile stealth frigate, INS Sahyadri.
• The high-intensity exercise brought together the maritime forces of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad), consisting of India, the United States, Japan, and Australia, to enhance interoperability and regional security in the Indo-Pacific.
• Key operations of the drill included joint anti-submarine warfare, air-defense scenarios, live-fire gunnery serials, and maritime interdiction.

 Additional Information

• INS Shivalik:
• It is the lead ship of the Shivalik-class stealth multi-role frigates built under Project 17 of the Indian Navy.
• Constructed by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai, it was commissioned in April 2010.
• INS Vikrant:
• It is India's first indigenously designed and built aircraft carrier (IAC-1).
• Built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) in Kochi, it was commissioned in September 2022.
• INS Kolkata:
• It is the lead ship of the Kolkata-class stealth guided-missile destroyers built under Project 15A.
• Commissioned in August 2014, it is armed with BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles and Barak-8 long-range surface-to-air missiles.

The correct answer is Creation of networks across economic, social, and geographic boundaries.

Key Points

• Globalisation is a multi-dimensional process that involves the increasing interconnectivity and interdependence of nations, cultures, and economies worldwide.
• A primary feature is the transcendence of national boundaries, where economic activities are no longer confined to a single country but are spread across the globe through global supply chains.
• It facilitates the free movement of capital, goods, and services, often driven by Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and the strategic operations of Multinational Corporations (MNCs).
• Beyond economics, it involves social and cultural integration, where ideas, values, and lifestyle choices are exchanged rapidly, leading to the concept of a Global Village.
• Technological advancements, particularly in Information and Communication Technology (ICT) and rapid transport systems, serve as the backbone for creating these expansive geographic networks.

 Additional Information

• The pillars of modern globalisation include:
• Economic Liberalisation: The removal of government regulations and barriers like tariffs and quotas to encourage international trade.
• Privatisation: Reducing state ownership to allow private players to participate in global markets.
• World Trade Organization (WTO): An international body established in 1995 to oversee and liberalise global trade rules.
• Indian Context: India adopted comprehensive LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation) reforms in 1991 to integrate its economy with the global system, moving away from protectionist policies.
• Dimensions: It encompasses Political Globalisation (international cooperation), Economic Globalisation (market integration), and Cultural Globalisation (homogenization or hybridisation of cultures).

The correct answer is Samaveda.

Key Points

• The Samaveda is revered as the Veda of Melodies or the Veda of Chants. Its name is derived from the Sanskrit word Saman, which signifies a metrical hymn or musical melody.
• It is the foundational text of Indian Classical Music, as it provides the earliest known systematic arrangement of musical notes. The rhythmic and melodic chanting of its verses influenced the development of the Gandharva Veda (the Upaveda of music).
• The Samaveda consists of 1,875 verses, most of which are extracted from the Rigveda. These verses are specifically rearranged and musically adapted for the purpose of being sung during Yajnas (sacrificial rituals).
• During the performance of Vedic sacrifices, particularly the Soma sacrifice, these hymns are chanted by a specialized category of priests known as the Udgatr.
• The text is divided into two primary sections: the Archika, which contains the verse collection, and the Gana, which serves as the songbook providing the musical notations and melodies for the chants.
• The Samaveda introduced the concept of Saptaswara (the seven musical notes: Shadja, Rishabha, Gandhara, Madhyama, Panchama, Dhaivata, and Nishada), which remain the pillar of Indian music today.

 Additional Information

• Rigveda:
• Recognized as the oldest of the four Vedas, dating back to approximately 1500–1200 BCE.
• It is a collection of 1,028 hymns (Suktas) organized into 10 Mandalas (books) dedicated to various Vedic deities.
• Yajurveda:
• Known as the Veda of Rituals, it contains prose mantras and instructions for the performance of religious ceremonies.
• It is divided into the Shukla Yajurveda (White) and the Krishna Yajurveda (Black).
• Atharvaveda:
• Known as the Veda of Magical Formulas, it focuses on the daily life and concerns of the common man.
• It contains spells, charms, and Ayurvedic medicinal information used to cure diseases and ward off evil spirits.

The correct answer is Chausa.

Key Points

• The Battle of Chausa was fought on June 26, 1539, at Chausa, situated on the banks of the Ganges river, near Buxar in present-day Bihar.
• This conflict marked the first major military defeat of the Mughal Emperor Humayun at the hands of the Afghan leader Sher Shah Suri (formerly known as Farid Khan).
• During the confrontation, Sher Shah utilized superior tactical maneuvers and launched a surprise night attack on the Mughal camp after a three-month-long standoff.
• The Mughal army was severely routed, and Humayun barely escaped drowning in the Ganges; he was saved by a water-carrier named Nizam.
• Following this victory, Sher Shah formally assumed the royal title of Sher Shah Sultan-e-Adil and struck coins in his own name, establishing himself as a formidable challenger to Mughal authority.

 Additional Information

• Battle of Kannauj (1540):
• Also known as the Battle of Bilgram, this was the second major encounter between Humayun and Sher Shah.
• Humayun was decisively defeated again, leading to the collapse of the Mughal Empire for 15 years and forcing him into exile in Persia.
• Battle of Panipat:
• The First Battle of Panipat (1526) saw Babur defeat Ibrahim Lodi, marking the start of the Mughal era.
• The Second Battle of Panipat (1556) involved Akbar's forces defeating Hemu to reclaim the Mughal throne.
• Sher Shah Suri:
• He founded the Suri Dynasty and is renowned for administrative brilliance, including the introduction of the Rupia and the extension of the Grand Trunk Road.

The correct answer is Article 243-W.

Key Points

• Article 243-W of the Constitution of India deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities.
• It was inserted into the Constitution by the 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which added a new Part IXA.
• This Article empowers the State Legislature to enact laws that endow Municipalities with the necessary authority to function as institutions of self-government.
• It specifically authorises Municipalities to perform functions and implement schemes related to the matters listed in the Twelfth Schedule.
• The Twelfth Schedule comprises 18 functional items, including Urban Planning, regulation of land use, Water Supply, and Public Health.
• Under this provision, Municipalities are responsible for the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice within their jurisdiction.

 Additional Information

• Article 243-Q:
• Concerns the Constitution of Municipalities.
• It defines three types of municipalities: Nagar Panchayats for transitional areas, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas, and Municipal Corporations for larger urban areas.
• Article 243-ZC:
• Deals with the non-application of Part IXA to certain areas.
• It specifies that the provisions do not automatically apply to Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas referred to in Article 244.
• Article 243-P:
• Serves as the Definitions section for Part IXA.
• It provides legal definitions for terms like Committee, District, Metropolitan area, and Municipal area.

The correct answer is Farwiza Farhan.

Key Points

• Farwiza Farhan is a prominent Indonesian forest conservationist and environmental activist who was named one of the recipients of the 2024 Ramon Magsaysay Award.
• She is the co-founder of Hutan, Alam dan Lingkungan Aceh (HaKA), a non-profit organization based in Aceh province, Sumatra, dedicated to the protection of the Leuser Ecosystem.
• The Leuser Ecosystem is a UNESCO World Heritage site and one of the most ancient and biodiverse rainforests in Southeast Asia, being the only place on Earth where tigers, rhinos, elephants, and orangutans coexist in the wild.
• Farhan is recognized for her leadership in legal advocacy and grassroots mobilization to prevent illegal logging, mining, and palm oil expansion within protected forest areas.
• The Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation honored her for her Emergent Leadership, highlighting her unwavering courage in protecting the environment and the livelihoods of local communities.

 Additional Information

• The other 2024 winners include:
• Karma Phuntsho: A former monk and scholar from Bhutan who founded the Loden Foundation to promote Bhutanese culture and social entrepreneurship.
• Hayao Miyazaki: The legendary Japanese animator and co-founder of Studio Ghibli, recognized for his artistic excellence and themes of environmentalism and humanity.
• Dr. Nguyen Thi Ngoc Phuong: A physician from Vietnam honored for her lifelong dedication to providing medical care and seeking justice for the victims of Agent Orange.
• Rural Doctors Movement: A collective from Thailand recognized for their service in improving healthcare accessibility in rural regions.
• The Ramon Magsaysay Award, established in 1957, is considered the Nobel Prize of Asia and is named after the seventh president of the Philippines.

The correct answer is National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

Key Points

• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has partnered with the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) to spearhead the Earth Summit 2025-26 initiative.
• The primary objective of this collaboration is to foster rural innovation by providing a platform for startups and entrepreneurs to showcase technology-driven solutions for the rural ecosystem.
• The summit focuses on critical sectors such as Agri-Fintech, Climate-tech, and Sustainability, aiming to bridge the digital divide between urban and rural India.
• By leveraging IAMAI’s network of digital companies and NABARD’s deep-rooted presence in the rural financial sector, the initiative seeks to promote the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• The Earth Summit serves as a catalyst for policy advocacy and investment, ensuring that innovative models for resource management and agricultural productivity receive the necessary financial and mentorship support.

 Additional Information

• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
• Established on April 2, 1990, under an Act of the Indian Parliament.
• Acts as the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.
• Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM):
• Established in 1982 under the Export-Import Bank of India Act.
• Functions as a specialized financial institution to coordinate the working of institutions engaged in financing international trade.
• National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM):
• Launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in 2011 (later renamed DAY-NRLM).
• Focused on poverty alleviation through the creation of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and enhancing the livelihood opportunities of the rural poor.

The correct answer is Z-Morh tunnel.

Key Points

• The Z-Morh tunnel is a strategic 6.5 km long road tunnel located in the Ganderbal district of Jammu and Kashmir, designed to provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar and Sonamarg.
• The tunnel is constructed on the Srinagar-Leh Highway (NH-1) and was officially inaugurated in January 2026 to bypass the treacherous Z-Morh (Z-curve) stretch, which remains closed during winters due to heavy snowfall and avalanches.
• Situated at an altitude of approximately 2,637 meters, it ensures that the tourist destination of Sonamarg remains accessible throughout the year, boosting the local economy and tourism sector.
• The project includes a main tunnel and a parallel escape tunnel, featuring advanced Integrated Fire Control systems, automated ventilation, and CCTV monitoring for passenger safety.
• Strategically, the tunnel serves as a vital precursor to the Zojila Tunnel, facilitating smoother movement for defense forces and logistics towards the Ladakh region regardless of weather conditions.

 Additional Information

• Atal Tunnel:
• Located in Himachal Pradesh, it spans 9.02 km and connects Manali to the Lahaul-Spiti valley.
• It is the world's longest highway tunnel above an altitude of 10,000 feet and was inaugurated in October 2020.
• Pir Panjal Tunnel:
• This refers to the 11.2 km long railway tunnel on the Banihal-Qazigund section of the USBRL project.
• It pierces through the Pir Panjal Range and is currently the longest transportation railway tunnel in India.
• Nehru Tunnel (Jawahar Tunnel):
• Constructed in the 1950s, this 2.85 km tunnel connects Banihal and Qazigund across the Banihal Pass.
• It was the primary all-weather link between the Kashmir Valley and the rest of India before the completion of the Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel.

The correct answer is Harsh climate, poor soil, few roads.

Key Points

• Physical factors like Harsh climate (extreme cold or extreme heat) significantly deter human settlement because they make living conditions uncomfortable and increase the cost of survival. Areas like the Sahara Desert or the Himalayas exhibit low density due to these climatic extremes.
• Poor soil fertility, often found in rocky terrains or areas with high acidity/alkalinity, prevents the development of agriculture. Since food production is the primary driver of settlement, regions with infertile soil cannot support large populations, leading to sparse habitation.
• Socio-economic factors such as infrastructure development play a crucial role; the presence of few roads indicates poor connectivity and isolation. Areas lacking transportation networks struggle with the delivery of essential services and trade, making them unattractive for dense population growth.
• The combination of these three factors creates an environment where carrying capacity is extremely low, meaning the land can only support a very limited number of people per square kilometer.

 Additional Information

• Factors Contributing to High Population Density:
• Geographical Factors: River valleys (like the Ganges and Nile) provide fresh water and alluvial soil, which are perfect for intensive farming.
• Topographical Factors: Flat terrain or plains facilitate the construction of buildings, factories, and extensive transportation networks.
• Economic Factors: The availability of urban jobs, industrialization, and educational institutions acts as a pull factor, attracting migrants to cities.
• Social Factors: Access to health clinics, schools, and sanitation systems improves the quality of life, leading to higher concentrations of people in urban centers.
• Population Density: Defined as the ratio between the total population and the total land area, it is a key metric in demography used to analyze the distribution of human life across the globe.

The correct answer is Article 85.

Key Points

• Article 85 of the Indian Constitution provides the legal framework for the sessions of Parliament, including their summoning, prorogation, and dissolution.
• The President of India is vested with the authority to summon each House of Parliament (the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha) to meet at such time and place as they think fit.
• A mandatory constitutional requirement under Article 85(1) is that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting of one session and the date appointed for the first sitting of the next session, ensuring regular legislative functioning.
• Under Article 85(2)(a), the President has the power to prorogue either House, which effectively ends a session of Parliament without dissolving the house itself.
• Under Article 85(2)(b), the President possesses the power to dissolve the House of the People (Lok Sabha), usually on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
• It is important to note that while the Lok Sabha can be dissolved, the Rajya Sabha is a Permanent House and is not subject to dissolution as per the provisions of Article 83.

 Additional Information

• Article 79:
• This article specifies the Constitution of Parliament, declaring that there shall be a Parliament for the Union consisting of the President and two Houses.
• The two houses are the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Article 87:
• This pertains to the Special Address by the President.
• The President must address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each General Election and at the commencement of the first session of each year.
• Article 108:
• Provides for a Joint Sitting of both Houses in certain circumstances, such as when there is a deadlock over the passage of an Ordinary Bill.
• The President summons the Joint Sitting, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is A panel of MPs selected by the House or Speaker.

Key Points

• A Parliamentary Committee is defined under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business as a committee that is appointed or elected by the House (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) or nominated by the Speaker or the Chairman.
• The committee must consist of Members of Parliament (MPs) and functions under the direct authority and direction of the Presiding Officer of the respective House.
• These committees are essential because Parliament has a vast volume of work and limited time; hence, detailed scrutiny of legislation and executive actions is delegated to these smaller bodies.
• A crucial criterion for a body to be recognized as a parliamentary committee is that its Secretariat must be provided by the Lok Sabha Secretariat or the Rajya Sabha Secretariat.
• The committee presents its reports either to the House or to the Speaker/Chairman, ensuring accountability of the executive to the legislature.

 Additional Information

• Types of Parliamentary Committees:
• Standing Committees: Permanent bodies constituted periodically (usually annually) like the Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings.
• Ad Hoc Committees: Temporary committees appointed for a specific task, such as Select Committees or Joint Committees on specific Bills, which dissolve after submitting their report.
• Financial Committees:
• Public Accounts Committee (PAC): Consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha) and examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
• Estimates Committee: The largest committee with 30 members, all exclusively from the Lok Sabha, focusing on efficiency in public expenditure.
• Exclusions:
• A committee formed by the President (like a Commission of Inquiry) is an Executive Committee, not a Parliamentary one.
• Judicial panels or committees of civil servants (departmental committees) do not fall under the legislative oversight framework of Parliament.

The correct answer is Shah Mal.

Key Points

• Shah Mal was a prominent local leader during the Revolt of 1857, hailing from the village of Bijraul in pargana Barout, located in the present-day Baghpat district of Uttar Pradesh.
• He belonged to a large clan of Jat cultivators whose kinship ties extended over a region known as the Chaurasi Des (84 villages).
• During the uprising, he successfully mobilized the villagers of Barout and the surrounding areas to challenge British colonial authority by disrupting their logistics and communications.
• He was instrumental in destroying the bridge over the Yamuna river and digging up metalled roads to prevent the movement of British troops and supplies toward Delhi.
• Shah Mal established a localized administrative system, turning a merchant's bungalow into a 'hall of justice' where he settled disputes and organized the collection and distribution of food for the mutineers in Delhi.
• He died in combat in July 1857 while fighting against British forces led by officer Dunlop; his body was reportedly mutilated by the British to instill fear among the local population.

 Additional Information

• Birjis Qadr:
• The young son of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, he was proclaimed the Nawab of Awadh by the rebels in Lucknow.
• His mother, Begum Hazrat Mahal, managed the affairs of the state and led the resistance against the British in Lucknow until its fall in 1858.
• Nana Sahib:
• The adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, he led the 1857 Revolt in Kanpur after being denied his pension under the Doctrine of Lapse.
• He worked alongside his general Tantia Tope and Azimullah Khan to challenge the British garrison at Kanpur.
• Gonoo:
• A significant tribal leader of the Kol community in Singhbhum (Chotanagpur region) who led a fierce tribal resistance during the 1857 uprising.
• He mobilized the Ho and Kol tribes to fight against the British and their local collaborators.

The correct answer is Recapturing key centres, enacting new laws, and offering rewards to loyal chiefs..

Key Points

• Military Reinforcements and Recapture: To suppress the Revolt of 1857, the British government brought military reinforcements from England. They launched a focused offensive on major rebel hubs, successfully recapturing Delhi in September 1857. The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was subsequently captured, tried, and exiled to Rangoon.
• Legislative Crackdown: The British enacted new laws designed to bypass standard judicial procedures. These laws empowered military officers and administrators to conduct summary trials, making it significantly easier to convict and execute suspected rebels and their sympathizers.
• Incentivizing Loyalty: Recognizing the influence of local elites, the British announced rewards and guarantees for loyal landholders (Zamindars). They were assured that if they had not participated in the killing of British officials, they would be allowed to retain their traditional rights over their lands and estates.

 Additional Information

• Fall of Major Resistance Hubs:
• Lucknow was recaptured by the British in March 1858, effectively breaking the rebel hold in Awadh.
• Jhansi fell in June 1858 following the defeat and death of Rani Lakshmibai, who had become a symbol of resistance.
• End of Company Rule: The failure of the East India Company to prevent the uprising led to the Government of India Act 1858, which transferred administrative power directly to the British Crown.
• Shift in Annexation Policy: To prevent future mutinies among Indian royals, the British abandoned the Doctrine of Lapse and issued a Proclamation ensuring that Indian states would no longer be annexed, provided they accepted the Queen of England as their Sovereign Paramount.

The correct answer is Law of Conservation of Mass.

Key Points

• The Law of Conservation of Mass states that mass in an isolated system is neither created nor destroyed by chemical reactions or physical transformations.
• According to this law, the total mass of the reactants must be equal to the total mass of the products in a chemical reaction.
• The French chemist Antoine Lavoisier formulated this principle in 1789, which is why he is often referred to as the Father of Modern Chemistry.
• At a molecular level, this occurs because atoms are merely rearranged during a chemical reaction; the total number of atoms of each element remains constant, thus preserving the overall mass.
• For example, in the combustion of methane, the sum of the masses of methane and oxygen consumed will exactly equal the sum of the masses of carbon dioxide and water vapor produced.

 Additional Information

• Law of Definite Proportions (also known as Law of Definite Composition):
• Proposed by Joseph Proust in 1799.
• It states that a chemical compound always contains its component elements in a fixed ratio by mass, regardless of the source or method of preparation.
• For instance, pure water will always contain 88.8% oxygen and 11.2% hydrogen by mass.
• Law of Periodicity:
• Refers to the recurring variation in element properties with increasing atomic number.
• This principle is the basis of the Modern Periodic Table, where elements with similar chemical behaviors are placed in the same vertical groups.