General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India originally provided for seven Fundamental Rights, but following the 44^th Amendment Act, 1978, the Right to Property (Article 31) was removed from the list.
• Currently, there are six broad categories of Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, covering Articles 12 to 35.
• These rights are categorized as follows:
• Right to Equality: Spans from Article 14 to Article 18, ensuring equal treatment before the law and prohibiting discrimination.
• Right to Freedom: Includes Articles 19 to 22, providing protections regarding speech, expression, assembly, and personal liberty.
• Right against Exploitation: Covered under Articles 23 and 24, prohibiting human trafficking, forced labor, and child labor.
• Right to Freedom of Religion: Encompassed in Articles 25 to 28, guaranteeing the freedom to practice and manage religious affairs.
• Cultural and Educational Rights: Provided in Articles 29 and 30 to protect the interests of minorities and their educational institutions.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies: Detailed in Article 32, allowing citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of these rights.

 Additional Information

• Magna Carta of India:
• Part III of the Indian Constitution is often referred to as the Magna Carta because it contains a long and comprehensive list of justifiable Fundamental Rights.
• The concept of Fundamental Rights in India was heavily influenced by the Bill of Rights of the Constitution of the USA.
• Article 32 and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the soul and heart of the Constitution, as it provides the mechanism for protecting all other rights via Writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, etc.).
• Distinction from Fundamental Duties:
• While there are six Fundamental Rights, there are eleven Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A in Part IV-A, which were added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• Suspension of Rights:
• Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a National Emergency, except for the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21, which safeguard life and personal liberty.

The correct answer is Walnut.

Key Points

• Walnut (scientifically known as Juglans regia) is the primary tree species that sustains the world-renowned wood carving industry of Kashmir.
• The wood is highly valued for its strength, durability, and even grain, which allows artisans to perform highly intricate and delicate carvings without the wood splitting or cracking.
• In India, Walnut trees grow almost exclusively in the Himalayan region at altitudes ranging from 1500 to 3000 meters, specifically in Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand.
• The Kashmiri Walnut Wood Carving is a protected Geographical Indication (GI) craft, producing items such as jewelry boxes, screens, trays, and furniture which are exported globally.
• The wood is typically sourced from trees that are 70 to 100 years old, as the older wood provides the characteristic dark brown hue and rich textures sought by collectors.

 Additional Information

• Deodar (Cedrus deodara):
• It is a coniferous tree and the State Tree of Himachal Pradesh.
• While it is widely used in the construction of Houseboats (Shikaras) and temples due to its rot-resistant properties, it is not the standard wood for fine handicraft carvings.
• Sal (Shorea robusta):
• A Tropical Deciduous species found mainly in the Terai region and Central India.
• It is one of the hardest timbers and is used for heavy construction, railway sleepers, and tool handles, but it does not grow in the high-altitude regions of Kashmir.
• Chir Pine (Pinus roxburghii):
• Found in the lower Himalayan altitudes, this tree is famous for the extraction of Resin and Turpentine.
• The wood is soft and used for packing cases and low-cost construction rather than premium handicraft products.

The correct answer is acceleration.

Key Points

• Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity of an object with respect to time.
• The mathematical formula for acceleration (a) is expressed as the change in velocity (Δv) divided by the time interval (Δt), represented as a = Δv / Δt.
• The SI unit for velocity is meters per second (m/s), and the unit for time is seconds (s). Therefore, the unit for acceleration is calculated as (m/s) / s, which simplifies to m/s² or meters per second squared.
• As a vector quantity, acceleration possesses both magnitude and direction, indicating how fast the velocity changes and in which direction the change occurs.
• According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, acceleration is directly proportional to the net force acting on an object and inversely proportional to its mass (a = F/m).

 Additional Information

• Force:
• It is an influence that can change the state of motion of an object, measured in Newtons (N).
• In base SI units, one Newton is equivalent to 1 kg×m/s².
• Velocity:
• It refers to the rate of change of displacement in a specific direction.
• The standard SI unit for velocity is meters per second (m/s).
• Energy:
• It represents the capacity for doing work and exists in various forms like kinetic and potential energy.
• The SI unit for energy is the Joule (J), which is defined as 1 kg×m²/s².

The correct answer is Nitrogen and phosphorus.

Key Points

• Eutrophication is a natural or anthropogenic process where a water body becomes excessively enriched with minerals and nutrients, leading to the overgrowth of plants and algae.
• Nitrogen (N) and Phosphorus (P) are the primary limiting nutrients in aquatic ecosystems; their availability determines the rate of biological productivity in lakes and ponds.
• The excessive influx of these nutrients, primarily through agricultural runoff (containing NPK fertilizers), untreated domestic sewage, and industrial effluents, triggers rapid Algal Blooms.
• When these large masses of algae die, they are decomposed by aerobic bacteria, a process that consumes vast amounts of Dissolved Oxygen (DO), leading to a condition known as Hypoxia.
• High levels of Nitrogen (in the form of nitrates) and Phosphorus (as phosphates) significantly increase the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD), eventually causing the death of fish and other aerobic aquatic organisms.

 Additional Information

• Nutrient Sources:
• Point Sources: Direct discharge from wastewater treatment plants and factories through pipes.
• Non-point Sources: Diffuse pollution from farmlands where rain washes fertilizers into nearby water bodies.
• Silica:
• Silica is a vital nutrient for Diatoms (a type of algae with glass-like cell walls), but it is generally not the driver of the systemic ecological degradation defined as eutrophication.
• Calcium Carbonate:
• Commonly associated with water hardness and the formation of limescale; it can act as a pH buffer but does not stimulate the rapid biomass production seen with nitrates and phosphates.
• Lake Classification:
• Oligotrophic: Lakes with low nutrient levels, high transparency, and high oxygen content.
• Eutrophic: Lakes with high nutrient levels, low transparency, and frequent oxygen depletion.

The correct answer is Frequent urination.

Key Points

• Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by hyperglycemia, where blood glucose levels remain consistently high due to either insulin deficiency or resistance.
• Frequent urination, medically termed polyuria, occurs when blood sugar levels exceed the renal threshold, which is typically around 180 mg/dL.
• When the kidneys cannot reabsorb all the filtered glucose, the excess sugar is excreted into the urine; this creates an osmotic gradient that pulls large amounts of water from the body tissues, a process known as osmotic diuresis.
• The increased volume of urine leads to significant dehydration, which in turn triggers polydipsia, or extreme thirst, to compensate for the fluid loss.
• This symptom is one of the 'classic three' early indicators of diabetes, alongside polyphagia (excessive hunger) and polydipsia.

 Additional Information

• Clarification of other symptoms and complications:
• Polydipsia: This is the medical term for increased thirst; it is a direct consequence of polyuria as the body seeks to restore homeostasis and fluid balance.
• Hair loss: Rather than increased hair growth, diabetics may experience thinning hair or alopecia due to poor microcirculation and hormonal stress.
• Hearing impairment: While not a primary diagnostic symptom, chronic hyperglycemia can damage the tiny blood vessels and nerves in the inner ear over time.
• Type 1 vs. Type 2: In Type 1 diabetes, the body produces no insulin (autoimmune), while in Type 2, the body becomes resistant to insulin; both result in polyuria as an early sign.
• Ketones: In some cases, high glucose levels lead to the production of ketones, which can be detected in the urine alongside sugar, indicating diabetic ketoacidosis.

The correct answer is 70% and 30%.

Key Points

• The Haj Policy 2025 is formulated by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India, to streamline the pilgrimage process in accordance with the bilateral agreement with the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia (KSA).
• As per the official guidelines, the total quota of seats allocated to India is split between two primary channels: the Haj Committee of India (HCoI) and the Haj Group Organisers (HGOs).
• The policy stipulates that 70% of the total seats are reserved for the Haj Committee of India (HCoI), which is responsible for making arrangements for pilgrims through government-regulated channels.
• The remaining 30% of the total seats are allocated to the Haj Group Organisers (HGOs), providing an alternative for pilgrims who prefer private tour operators for their travel and stay.
• This ratio ensures that the majority of the quota remains accessible through the HCoI, which often offers more standardized and subsidized pricing compared to private entities.
• Selection for the HCoI quota is conducted through a Digitalized Random Selection (e-ballet) process if the number of applicants exceeds the available seats.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Minority Affairs:
• It serves as the nodal agency for all Haj related matters in India, coordinating with the Ministry of External Affairs and the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• The ministry ensures the implementation of the Haj Committee Act, 2002, which governs the administrative structure of the pilgrimage.
• Haj Committee of India (HCoI):
• It is a statutory body that manages logistics such as embarkation points, vaccination, and accommodation in Makkah and Madinah.
• The Haj Suvidha App has been integrated into the 2025 policy to provide digital assistance and transparent grievance redressal for pilgrims.
• Haj Group Organisers (HGOs):
• These are registered private entities categorized based on their experience and service standards to ensure quality control.
• The HGO quota allows for personalized services and premium accommodation options for those choosing to travel outside the government-managed pool.

Therefore, the correct option is (3).

The correct answer is Feeding 1.4 billion people while improving farmers’ incomes.

Key Points

• The National Agricultural Policy (NAP) was announced by the Government of India on July 28, 2000, marking the first time a comprehensive policy framework was established specifically for the agricultural sector to address the challenges of the 21^st century.
• The primary focus of the policy was to achieve food and nutritional security for the country's massive population, which has now grown toward 1.4 billion, by ensuring the sustainable use of natural resources.
• The policy aimed at achieving a growth rate of over 4% per annum in the agriculture sector through a strategy of 'growth with equity', ensuring that the benefits of development reach all regions and all classes of farmers.
• It emphasized improving farmers' incomes by shifting the focus from mere production targets to the economic well-being of the farming community, encouraging value addition and agro-processing.
• The policy sought to provide technological, environmental, and economic support to farmers to help them face the challenges posed by globalization and the World Trade Organization (WTO) regime.

 Additional Information

• Rainbow Revolution:
• The NAP 2000 envisioned a Rainbow Revolution, which is an integrated development of various agricultural sectors including the Green Revolution (Cereals), White Revolution (Milk), Yellow Revolution (Oilseeds), Blue Revolution (Fisheries), and Golden Revolution (Horticulture).
• It aimed at the holistic development of the entire agriculture and allied sectors to ensure diversified income streams for rural households.
• Sustainable Agriculture:
• The policy prioritized the conservation of biodiversity and the sustainable management of land, water, and genetic resources.
• It promoted Integrated Pest Management (IPM) and Integrated Nutrient Management (INM) to reduce the ecological footprint of intensive farming.
• Institutional Reforms:
• Emphasis was placed on strengthening rural credit institutions and the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme to provide timely and adequate credit to farmers.
• It advocated for land reforms, such as the consolidation of holdings and the protection of the rights of tenant farmers and sharecroppers.

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

• The 17^th BRICS Summit was hosted by Brazil in 2025, following the Russian Presidency in 2024. This summit served as a critical platform for formalizing the membership of countries that had previously expressed interest or held Partner Country status.
• Indonesia, the largest economy in Southeast Asia and a key member of ASEAN, officially joined the bloc as a full member during this summit. This move significantly bolstered the Global South’s representation within the group, reflecting Indonesia’s growing geopolitical and economic influence.
• The decision to join was accelerated under the administration of President Prabowo Subianto, who emphasized a 'non-aligned' yet proactive foreign policy. By joining BRICS, Indonesia aimed to diversify its international partnerships and strengthen its voice in global governance reforms.
• The inclusion of Indonesia adds a massive consumer market and a resource-rich economy to the bloc, contributing to BRICS goals of de-dollarization and the use of local currencies in cross-border trade.

 Additional Information

• BRICS Expansion Phases:
• Initial Expansion (2010): South Africa joined the original BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, China) group.
• Second Major Expansion (2024): At the beginning of 2024, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) became full members.
• Partner Country Framework: Introduced during the 16^th Summit in Kazan (2024), this framework allowed nations like Indonesia, Malaysia, and Vietnam to engage with the bloc before full accession.
• Geopolitical Impact:
• Indonesia’s GDP: With a GDP exceeding 1 trillion USD, Indonesia brings substantial economic weight, ranking among the top economies in the world by Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
• Strategic Autonomy: Indonesia’s membership is seen as a balancing act, as the country also pursues membership in the OECD, showcasing its intent to maintain strategic autonomy between different global economic clusters.

The correct answer is Kiran Desai.

Key Points

• Kiran Desai is the celebrated Indian novelist who was shortlisted for the prestigious 2025 Booker Prize for her novel titled The Loneliness of Sonia and Sunny.
• The novel marks a significant literary return for Desai, exploring profound themes of modern companionship, urban isolation, and the evolving nature of personal identity in a globalized landscape.
• The Booker Prize is one of the most distinguished literary awards in the world, specifically honoring the best sustained work of fiction written in English and published in the UK and Ireland.
• Desai previously achieved international acclaim by winning the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for her second novel, The Inheritance of Loss, which also won the National Book Critics Circle Fiction Award.
• Her shortlisting in 2025 reaffirms her status as a leading voice in Indian English Literature and highlights the enduring relevance of her narrative style and thematic depth.

 Additional Information

• Arundhati Roy:
• She was the first Indian citizen to win the Booker Prize in 1997 for her debut novel, The God of Small Things.
• Her literary work is often characterized by its lyrical prose and sharp critique of social hierarchies and caste systems in India.
• Amish Tripathi:
• Known primarily for his mythological fiction, such as the Shiva Trilogy and the Ram Chandra Series.
• His works focus on reimagining Indian legends and deities through a modern, fast-paced narrative lens.
• Vikram Sampath:
• A prominent Indian historian and author, recognized for his exhaustive biographies and non-fiction research.
• He is a Fellow of the Royal Historical Society and has written extensively on figures like V.D. Savarkar and the history of Indian Classical Music.

The correct answer is Participatory g Sabha-based planning.

Key Points

• The People's Plan Campaign (PPC), also known as Sabki Yojana, Sabka Vikas, was launched nationwide on October 2, 2018, to facilitate the systematic preparation of development plans by rural local bodies.
• The core approach is Participatory Planning, which empowers the Gram Sabha (village assembly) to identify local needs, prioritize developmental works, and manage resources effectively for the upcoming financial year.
• It aims to strengthen rural governance by ensuring that the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) is not just an administrative document but a community-led blueprint for social and economic justice.
• The campaign utilizes data from the Mission Antyodaya survey to identify critical gaps in infrastructure and services, ensuring that resource allocation is evidence-based and targets the most deprived households.
• Under this initiative, Gram Sabhas discuss and plan for the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, such as agriculture, health, sanitation, and primary education.
• The process promotes accountability and transparency by involving local stakeholders, Self-Help Groups (SHGs), and front-line workers in the decision-making cycle.

 Additional Information

• Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP):
• The GPDP is a decentralized planning process mandated under the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, allowing Panchayats to function as institutions of self-government.
• It integrates funds from the 15^th Finance Commission, MGNREGA, and other centrally sponsored schemes to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the village level.
• Contrasting Approaches:
• Centralized expenditure control: This refers to a top-down model where financial decisions are made at the state or national level, which is the opposite of the Democratic Decentralization promoted by the PPC.
• Corporate-led rural investments: While private sector involvement exists in infrastructure, the PPC is fundamentally a Public-Led participatory exercise focused on social welfare and community ownership.

The correct answer is Mamluk dynasty.

Key Points

• The Iqta system was a significant administrative and agrarian reform introduced in India by Shams-ud-din Iltutmish, who was the third ruler of the Mamluk dynasty (also known as the Slave dynasty), reigning from 1211 to 1236.
• Under this system, the Delhi Sultanate was divided into various territorial units called Iqtas, which were assigned to military officers and nobles in place of cash salaries for their services to the state.
• The primary objective of introducing this system was to institutionalize the land revenue collection process and to provide a stable financial base for the standing army and the central bureaucracy.
• The holders of these land grants, known as Iqtadars or Muqtis, were tasked with collecting taxes from the peasants, maintaining law and order, and providing a stipulated number of troops to the Sultan during times of war.
• By introducing the Iqta system, Iltutmish successfully centralized the administration and integrated distant provinces into the Delhi Sultanate, effectively curbing the influence of local hereditary chieftains.

 Additional Information

• Khilji dynasty:
• Alauddin Khilji (1296−1316) introduced drastic reforms by converting small Iqtas into Khalisa (crown land) to bring revenue directly to the royal treasury.
• He abolished the intermediary roles of local officials like Khuts and Muqaddams to prevent tax evasion and corruption.
• Tughlaq dynasty:
• Firoz Shah Tughlaq reversed previous centralization efforts by making the Iqta system hereditary, which eventually weakened the central authority of the Delhi Sultanate.
• This period saw the proliferation of land grants to the Ulema and military officers as a means to secure political loyalty.
• Sayyid dynasty:
• Established by Khizr Khan in 1414, this dynasty ruled over a much-diminished territory following the devastation caused by the invasion of Timur in 1398.

The correct answer is Mass communication.

Key Points

• Pragati Maidan is the premier exhibition and convention center of India, located in the capital city of New Delhi, and was inaugurated in 1972 to commemorate the silver jubilee of Indian independence.
• In the classification of human interaction, exhibitions and fairs are considered vital tools of Mass communication because they provide a platform to reach a large, diverse audience simultaneously with specific information, products, or cultural messages.
• The venue is most famous for hosting the India International Trade Fair (IITF), an annual event that serves as a massive medium for publicity, propaganda, and the exchange of commercial information between manufacturers and the general public.
• By providing a physical space where information is disseminated through stalls, displays, and seminars to millions of visitors, Pragati Maidan facilitates non-electronic mass media interaction.
• The center helps in the socialization and informational awareness of the masses, which are core functions of Mass communication systems in any developing economy.

 Additional Information

• Mass Communication:
• It is the process of creating, sending, receiving, and analyzing messages to large audiences via verbal and written media.
• Traditional forms include Newspapers, Radio, Television, and Cinema, while modern forms include Fairs, Exhibitions, and the Internet.
• India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO):
• The managing body of Pragati Maidan, it functions as the nodal agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry for promoting India's external trade.
• It organizes various trade fairs in India and abroad to enhance brand visibility of Indian products.
• Bharat Mandapam:
• The newly developed, world-class International Exhibition-cum-Convention Centre (IECC) complex at Pragati Maidan.
• It gained international recognition for hosting the 18^th G20 Summit in September 2023, showcasing India's capability in hosting global diplomatic communication events.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Bihu is the most significant socio-cultural festival of Assam, deeply intertwined with the state's agricultural calendar and ethnic identity.
• The festival is celebrated thrice a year, marking different stages of the paddy cultivation cycle.
• Bohag Bihu, also known as Rongali Bihu, is celebrated in mid-April. It marks the Assamese New Year and the arrival of the seeding season.
• Magh Bihu, or Bhogali Bihu, is observed in mid-January. It is a harvest festival characterized by community feasts and the burning of Mejis (structures made of bamboo and thatch).
• Kati Bihu, or Kongali Bihu, takes place in mid-October. It is a more solemn occasion involving the lighting of lamps to pray for a good harvest during the sapling growth phase.

 Additional Information

• Cultural Symbols of Assam:
• Bihu Dance: A traditional folk dance performed by both men and women, featuring rapid hand movements and rhythmic swaying of the hips.
• Gamosa: A white rectangular piece of cloth with red borders, gifted during Bihu as a mark of respect and affection.
• Musical Instruments: The celebrations feature the Dhol (drum), Pepa (horn made from buffalo horn), Gogona, and Taal.
• Other States/UTs:
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Known for the Island Tourism Festival and various tribal celebrations.
• Chhattisgarh: Notable for festivals like Bastar Dussehra, Hareli, and Madai.
• Lakshadweep: Major festivals include Eid-ul-Fitr, Bakrid, and Milad-un-Nabi, reflecting its unique cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Coordinating hardware and running core system processes.

Key Points

• System Software refers to the collection of programs that manage and support the computer system's resources and operations, acting as a bridge between the Hardware and Application Software.
• A primary example of system software is the Operating System (OS), which is responsible for Processor Management. It uses scheduling algorithms to allocate CPU time to various tasks, ensuring the system remains responsive.
• Hardware Coordination is achieved through Device Drivers and Firmware, which provide the necessary instructions for the OS to communicate with peripheral devices like Graphics Cards, Hard Drives, and Input/Output devices.
• Core System Processes involve critical background functions such as Memory Management, which monitors RAM usage, and File System Management, which controls how data is stored and retrieved from the disk using structures like NTFS or ext4.
• Unlike application software, which is triggered by user demand, system software usually starts during the Booting Process (via the BIOS/UEFI) and runs continuously to maintain the stability and integrity of the entire computational environment.

 Additional Information

• Application Software:
• These are programs designed to perform specific user-centric tasks. Examples include Media Players (playing audio/video), Word Processors (managing documents), and Spreadsheet Software (designing data sheets).
• They do not have direct access to the Hardware; instead, they make requests to the system software to use system resources.
• Language Translators:
• Considered a type of system software, Compilers, Interpreters, and Assemblers translate high-level programming languages into Machine Code that the Central Processing Unit can execute.
• Utility Software:
• Often bundled with the OS, utilities include Disk Defragmenters, Encryption Tools, and Antivirus Software, which help in the maintenance, optimization, and protection of the computer system.

The correct answer is Nritta.

Key Points

• Nritta is defined in the Natyashastra, an ancient Sanskrit treatise attributed to Sage Bharata, as a form of 'pure dance' that focuses on rhythmic precision and technical virtuosity.
• It is characterized by the absence of Abhinaya (mimetic expression), meaning the dancer does not attempt to convey a specific story, sentiment, or thematic narrative through facial expressions.
• The performance is composed of Karanas (basic dance units) and Angaharas (combinations of Karanas) that emphasize the aesthetic beauty of the human form in motion.
• The movements in Nritta are strictly governed by Tala (rhythmic cycles) and Laya (tempo), utilizing footwork and stylized hand gestures solely for decorative and rhythmic purposes.

 Additional Information

• Nritya:
• Unlike Nritta, Nritya is an expressive dance form that combines rhythmic movement with Abhinaya.
• It aims to evoke Rasa (aesthetic flavor) in the audience by portraying Bhavas (emotions) and specific meanings through hand gestures and facial movements.
• Natya:
• This term refers to the dramatic element or the theatrical aspect of a performance.
• It involves a plot, characters, and often Vachika Abhinaya (speech or dialogue) to enact a full story or play.
• Kuchipudi:
• A classical dance form originating from Andhra Pradesh, which integrates all three elements: Nritta, Nritya, and Natya.
• It is well-known for its Tarangam segment, where the dancer performs while balancing on the edges of a brass plate.

The correct answer is Objectives Resolution.

Key Points

• The Objectives Resolution was a historic document moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946, which provided the ideological basis for the Constitution.
• It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure, envisioning India as an Independent Sovereign Republic where all power and authority are derived from the people.
• The resolution guaranteed to all Indian citizens social, economic, and political justice; equality of status and opportunity; and freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
• It included specific safeguards for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes to ensure inclusive democratic development.
• The Constituent Assembly unanimously adopted the resolution on January 22, 1947, and its essence was subsequently distilled into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution with minor modifications.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights:
• These are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12 − 35).
• They are justiciable in nature and are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy.
• The concept was inspired by the Bill of Rights of the USA.
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
• These are enumerated in Part IV (Articles 36 − 51) and were borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
• They are non-justiciable but are fundamental in the governance of the country, aimed at establishing a welfare state.
• The Preamble:
• It serves as the identity card of the Constitution, reflecting its spirit and objectives.
• It was amended by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, which added three new words: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.

The correct answer is Capture of Calcutta and attack on British factories by Siraj-ud-Daulah.

Key Points

• The confrontation began when Siraj-ud-Daulah, who became the Nawab of Bengal in 1756, ordered the British East India Company to stop the unauthorized fortification of Calcutta.
• The British refusal to comply and their perceived interference in the internal politics of Bengal provoked the Nawab to take military action against them.
• In June 1756, the Nawab's forces launched a successful assault on the British factory at Kassim Bazar and subsequently captured Fort William in Calcutta.
• The fall of Calcutta and the controversial Black Hole Tragedy served as the immediate casus belli, leading the Madras Presidency to dispatch a retaliatory force under Robert Clive and Admiral Watson.
• The military expedition to recover Calcutta escalated into a full-scale conflict, eventually resulting in the decisive Battle of Plassey on June 23, 1757.

 Additional Information

• Abuse of Dastaks:
• This refers to the misuse of duty-free trade permits (dastaks) by British officials for their private trade, which severely impacted the Bengal state treasury.
• While this was a significant long-term grievance that soured relations, it was the military capture of Calcutta that directly triggered the 1757 military confrontation.
• Battle of Plassey (1757):
• The battle saw the defeat of Siraj-ud-Daulah due to the betrayal of his commander, Mir Jafar, who had made a secret pact with Robert Clive.
• This victory established the British East India Company as a major political power in India and marked the beginning of colonial rule in Bengal.
• Treaty of Alinagar:
• Signed in February 1757 after Robert Clive recaptured Calcutta, this treaty briefly restored British privileges but failed to prevent the final showdown at Plassey.

The correct answer is Cristiano Ronaldo.

Key Points

• Cristiano Ronaldo officially became the player with the most wins in international football history, reaching a milestone of 132 victories with the Portugal national team.
• The record-breaking 132^nd win occurred on November 15, 2024, during a UEFA Nations League group stage match where Portugal defeated Poland with a score of 5-1.
• In this specific match, Ronaldo also contributed significantly by scoring two goals, including a spectacular overhead kick, further cementing his status as the all-time leading goalscorer in men's international football.
• By achieving 132 wins, he surpassed the previous world record of 131 wins held by his former Real Madrid teammate and Spanish legendary defender Sergio Ramos.
• The Guinness World Records recognized this feat in 2025, adding to Ronaldo's extensive collection of certifications, which include records for most international goals and being the most-capped male player in football history with over 215 appearances.
• Ronaldo's international career, which began in 2003, has spanned over two decades, during which he led Portugal to victory in UEFA Euro 2016 and the inaugural UEFA Nations League in 2019.

 Additional Information

• Sergio Ramos:
• A legendary defender for Spain, he held the record for the most international wins (131) for several years.
• He was a pivotal part of the Spanish Golden Generation that won the 2010 FIFA World Cup and consecutive European Championships in 2008 and 2012.
• Lionel Messi:
• The Argentine captain has secured over 115 wins in international football, trailing behind Ronaldo and Ramos.
• He led Argentina to the 2022 FIFA World Cup title and back-to-back Copa América triumphs in 2021 and 2024.
• UEFA Nations League:
• An international association football competition contested by the senior men's national teams of the member associations of UEFA, the sport's European governing body.

The correct answer is 19.

Key Points

• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under Article 323A of the Constitution of India, a provision added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, to adjudicate disputes regarding the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants.
• The tribunal functions under the statutory framework of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which grants the Central Government the authority to set up benches across the country for administrative convenience.
• As of the current structural organization, there are a total of 19 benches operating across India. These include the Principal Bench located in New Delhi and 18 regional benches situated in various states.
• The expansion to 19 benches was finalized with the operationalization of the Jammu Bench in June 2020 and the Srinagar Bench in July 2021, ensuring specialized service dispute resolution for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh.
• Apart from the Principal Bench, other locations include Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Bengaluru, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Ernakulam, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jodhpur, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai, Patna, Jammu, and Srinagar.

 Additional Information

• Composition of the Tribunal:
• The CAT is a multi-member body consisting of a Chairperson and several Members. The Chairperson is usually a sitting or retired Judge of a High Court.
• Each bench comprises both Judicial Members and Administrative Members to ensure that legal expertise is combined with a deep understanding of governmental administrative processes.
• Jurisdiction and Powers:
• The tribunal exercises original jurisdiction over all service matters concerning employees of the Central Government, Union Territories, and notified Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) or Autonomous Bodies.
• It is not bound by the technicalities of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by the principles of natural justice, making the process faster and more flexible for employees.
• Appeals against the orders of the CAT can be made before the Division Bench of the respective High Court, as established by the Supreme Court in the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997).

The correct answer is (i) True, (ii) False.

Key Points

• The First Generation of Computers (roughly 1940−1956) relied on Vacuum Tubes for circuitry and Magnetic Drums for memory. These machines, such as the ENIAC and UNIVAC, were physically massive, often occupying entire rooms, and generated extreme amounts of heat, which frequently caused hardware failures. Hence, statement

(i) is correct.

• The Second Generation of Computers (roughly 1956−1963) was characterized by the replacement of vacuum tubes with the Transistor. This technological shift did not make computers larger or slower; rather, it allowed them to become significantly smaller, faster, cheaper, and more energy-efficient than their predecessors. Hence, statement

(ii) is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• First Generation (Vacuum Tubes):
• These computers used Machine Language (binary code) for programming.
• They were extremely expensive to operate and consumed vast amounts of electricity.
• The ENIAC contained approximately 18,000 vacuum tubes and weighed over 30 tons.
• Second Generation (Transistors):
• The Transistor was invented at Bell Labs in 1947 but saw widespread use in computers in the mid-1950s.
• This era saw the development of early high-level programming languages like COBOL and FORTRAN.
• Computers moved from using magnetic drums to magnetic core technology for primary memory.