General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is AI governance evaluation across countries.

Key Points

• The AGILE Index, which stands for Artificial Intelligence Governance International Landscape Evaluation, was launched in 2025 to provide a standardized framework for assessing how nations manage Artificial Intelligence.
• The primary objective of the index is to quantify and compare the regulatory maturity, ethical frameworks, and policy implementations of different countries regarding AI technologies.
• It evaluates nations based on several pillars, including safety protocols, data privacy protections, algorithmic transparency, and the balance between innovation and risk mitigation.
• By providing a global benchmark, the index helps international organizations and governments identify gaps in AI oversight and promotes the harmonization of global AI standards to prevent fragmented regulatory landscapes.
• The introduction of this index reflects the global shift toward responsible AI, ensuring that the rapid advancement of Generative AI and Autonomous Systems aligns with human rights and societal safety.

 Additional Information

• Global Economic Competitiveness:
• Typically measured by the World Economic Forum (WEF) through the Global Competitiveness Report, focusing on productivity and long-term growth factors.
• Environmental Policy Performance:
• Assessed by the Environmental Performance Index (EPI), produced by Yale and Columbia University, which ranks countries on environmental health and ecosystem vitality.
• Digital Infrastructure Readiness:
• Evaluated by indices such as the Network Readiness Index (NRI) or the ITU Digital Development Index, measuring ICT access, usage, and skills.

The correct answer is Han Kang.

Key Points

• On October 10, 2024, the Swedish Academy awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature to the South Korean author Han Kang.
• The committee cited her for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life.
• She made history as the first South Korean writer and the first Asian woman to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature.
• The award recognizes her significant contribution to modern literature through a body of work that explores the connection between the body and soul.
• Her international breakthrough came with the novel 'The Vegetarian', which earned her the International Booker Prize in 2016.

 Additional Information

• Han Kang:
• Born in 1970 in Gwangju, she began her literary career as a poet before transitioning to fiction.
• Notable works include 'Human Acts', which deals with the 1980 Gwangju Uprising, and 'The White Book', an introspective meditation on grief.
• She is the second South Korean to win a Nobel Prize, following former President Kim Dae-jung (Peace Prize, 2000).
• Haruki Murakami:
• A world-renowned Japanese novelist known for works like 'Kafka on the Shore' and 'Norwegian Wood'. He is a frequent favorite in Nobel speculations but did not win in 2024.
• Can Xue:
• An influential Chinese avant-garde writer recognized for her experimental and surrealist fiction. She was highly favored by bookmakers for the 2024 award.
• Gerald Murnane:
• A prominent Australian author known for his unique, self-reflective style in novels such as 'The Plains'.

The correct answer is (s).

Key Points

• The reaction provided, Na₂SO₄(aq) + BaCl₂(aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl(aq), is a classic example of a double displacement reaction.
• In this chemical process, the sodium (Na⁺) and barium (Ba²⁺) ions exchange their partners (sulfate and chloride ions) to form two new compounds.
• When aqueous solutions of sodium sulfate and barium chloride are mixed, a chemical change occurs that results in the formation of barium sulfate and sodium chloride.
• Barium sulfate (BaSO₄) is highly insoluble in water. As soon as it is formed, it settles out of the solution as a white precipitate.
• In chemical notation, the physical state of a precipitate (a solid that forms from a liquid solution) is denoted by the symbol (s), which stands for solid.
• The other product, sodium chloride (NaCl), remains in the aqueous state (dissolved in water), which is why it is marked as (aq).

 Additional Information

• Precipitation Reactions:
• These occur when two soluble ionic salts are mixed in an aqueous solution to produce an insoluble ionic compound.
• The solubility rules dictate that most sulfates are soluble, but barium sulfate is a notable exception, making it a common precipitate in analytical chemistry.
• Understanding State Symbols:
• (s) - Solid: Used for reactants or products that are in the solid phase, including precipitates.
• (l) - Liquid: Used for pure substances in a liquid state, such as H₂O or molten metals.
• (g) - Gas: Used for substances that exist in the gaseous state at the reaction conditions, like CO₂ or H₂.
• (aq) - Aqueous: Derived from the Latin word aqua, it indicates that the substance is dissolved in water as a solvent.
• Double Displacement Characteristics:
• These reactions often result in the formation of a precipitate, a gas, or a neutral molecular compound like water (in neutralization reactions).

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

• In December 2025, Russia officially extended a high-level proposal to India for the localised production of its Sukhoi Su-57 (NATO reporting name: Felon), which is a fifth-generation stealth multirole fighter.
• The offer was presented as part of a strategic push to deepen bilateral defense cooperation and aligns with India's Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-Reliant India) and Make in India initiatives through a comprehensive Transfer of Technology (ToT).
• The Su-57 is Russia's first aircraft designed with stealth technology, featuring a low radar cross-section (RCS), supercruise capabilities (supersonic flight without afterburners), and highly integrated avionics.
• This development is significant as it follows India's withdrawal from the Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA) program in 2018; the 2025 offer aims to provide a ready-to-produce platform to meet the Indian Air Force's (IAF) modernization requirements.
• The aircraft is equipped with the N036 Byelka AESA radar system and is capable of carrying a wide array of precision-guided munitions, including the BrahMos-NG air-launched cruise missiles.

 Additional Information

• Russia:
• The Su-57 was developed by the Sukhoi Design Bureau to counter top-tier adversaries like the US F-22 Raptor and F-35 Lightning II.
• It features thrust vectoring for super-maneuverability, allowing it to perform complex aerial maneuvers that 4^th-generation jets cannot replicate.
• Other Options Breakdown:
• France: Produces the Dassault Rafale, which is a 4.5-generation fighter. While a reliable partner, France does not currently have a fifth-generation stealth jet available for localized production in India.
• America: The United States offers the F-35 and F-15EX, but has traditionally maintained stricter controls on stealth technology transfers compared to the ToT offered by Russia.
• Japan: Collaborates on the Global Combat Air Programme (GCAP) for a sixth-generation jet but does not export stealth fighter production lines to South Asia.

The correct answer is The President of India.

Key Points

• According to Article 239 of the Constitution of India, every Union Territory shall be administered by the President of India acting through an administrator appointed by him.
• The administrator of a Union Territory is an agent of the President and is not a formal head of state like the Governor of a state; they exercise power only to the extent delegated by the President.
• The President has the authority to specify the designation of the administrator, which varies across different territories as Lieutenant Governor or Administrator.
• Under Article 239(2), the President can also appoint the Governor of an adjoining state as the administrator of a Union Territory, where the Governor exercises their functions independently of their state Council of Ministers.

 Additional Information

• The Parliament of India:
• While the President appoints the administrator, it is the Parliament that holds the power under Article 3 to create a new Union Territory, alter boundaries, or change names through legislation.
• Parliament can also create a Legislature or a Council of Ministers for certain Union Territories like Puducherry under Article 239A.
• Administrative Designations:
• Lieutenant Governors: Appointed for Delhi, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
• Administrators: Appointed for Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, and Lakshadweep.
• Special Provisions:
• Article 239AA provides special provisions for the National Capital Territory of Delhi, outlining the relationship between the Lieutenant Governor and the elected Legislative Assembly.

The correct answer is System program counter.

Key Points

• The Program Counter (PC), also known as the Instruction Pointer, is a dedicated CPU register that holds the memory address of the next instruction scheduled for execution.
• During the Fetch phase of the Instruction Cycle, the Control Unit (CU) refers to the System Program Counter to identify exactly where the upcoming instruction resides in the Main Memory (RAM).
• Once the Central Processing Unit (CPU) successfully retrieves the instruction from that specific address, the Program Counter is automatically incremented or updated to point to the next instruction in the sequence.
• In the event of Branching or Jump instructions, the Program Counter is modified to a non-sequential address, allowing the CPU to manage complex logic and loops within a program.
• This component is essential for maintaining the Execution Flow, ensuring that the processor knows its current position and the next step in the computational task.

 Additional Information

• System Secondary Memory:
• Includes devices like Hard Disk Drives (HDD) and Solid State Drives (SSD) used for long-term storage.
• The CPU cannot fetch instructions directly from secondary storage because it is significantly slower than Primary Memory and is not part of the directly addressable execution space.
• System Input/Output Units:
• The Input Buffer Unit temporarily stores data arriving from external devices like keyboards or mice.
• The Output Register holds processed data intended for display or transmission to external peripherals like monitors or printers.
• Neither of these units participates in the Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle for internal program instructions.
• Instruction Register (IR):
• After the instruction is fetched using the address from the Program Counter, it is stored in the Instruction Register.
• The IR holds the actual opcode and operands while they are being decoded and prepared for execution.

The correct answer is Sun Temple.

Key Points

• The Sun Temple, situated in Konark, Odisha, is globally renowned for its unique architectural design as a massive chariot for the Sun God, Surya.
• Constructed in the mid-13^th century (c. 1250 CE) by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, it is a masterpiece of the Kalinga style of architecture.
• The temple base features 24 stone wheels, each intricately carved and measuring approximately 9 feet 9 inches in diameter, symbolizing the 24 fortnights of the year or the hours in a day.
• The entire structure is designed to be pulled by seven stone horses, which represent the seven days of the week or the seven colors of the white light spectrum.
• Known as the Black Pagoda by early European sailors due to its dark magnetic roof, it was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984.

 Additional Information

• Mukteshvara Temple:
• Located in Bhubaneswar and built in the 10^th century, it is famous for its circular Torana (arched gateway) and is often called the Gem of Odisha Architecture.
• Lingaraja Temple:
• Dating back to the 11^th century, it is the largest temple in Bhubaneswar and is dedicated to Lord Shiva (Harihara), representing the mature stage of Kalinga architecture.
• Jagannath Temple:
• Located in Puri and built in the 12^th century, it is one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites and is famous for its Rath Yatra (Chariot Festival).

The correct answer is boosting manufacturing and job creation.

Key Points

• Launched on September 25, 2014, by the Prime Minister of India, the Make in India initiative is a major national program designed to facilitate investment, foster innovation, and build best-in-class manufacturing infrastructure.
• The primary objective of the initiative is to transform India into a prominent global manufacturing hub by encouraging both domestic and foreign companies to manufacture their products within the country.
• It specifically aims to increase the manufacturing sectors contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to 25% by 2025, up from approximately 16% at the time of launch.
• The program is built on four pillars: New Processes, New Infrastructure, New Sectors, and New Mindset, which collectively aim to improve the Ease of Doing Business in India.
• A critical target of the Make in India campaign is the creation of 100 million additional manufacturing jobs in the economy by 2022 (later extended), focusing on labor-intensive sectors to absorb the growing workforce.

 Additional Information

• Targeted Sectors:
• The initiative initially identified 25 sectors of the economy for rejuvenation, including Automobiles, Aviation, Chemicals, IT & BPM, Pharmaceuticals, Renewable Energy, and Textiles.
• The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) coordinates the program, ensuring that Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policies are liberalized across these sectors.
• Zero Defect Zero Effect:
• This slogan was introduced to ensure that manufactured goods have zero defects (high quality) and zero effect on the environment (sustainability).
• Related Concepts:
• Promoting agricultural exports: While vital for the economy, this falls under the Agriculture Export Policy and the APEDA framework rather than the manufacturing focus of this specific initiative.
• Enhancing tourism: This is addressed through schemes like Swadesh Darshan and PRASHAD, although tourism is a service sector identified for support.
• Improving healthcare facilities: This is the domain of the National Health Mission and Ayushman Bharat, focusing on social infrastructure rather than industrial manufacturing.

The correct answer is Debendra Nath Tagore.

Key Points

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, which was later renamed the Brahmo Samaj, to advocate for monotheism and social reforms like the abolition of Sati.
• Following the death of Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1833 in Bristol, the movement went through a period of decline and lacked a formal leadership structure for nearly a decade.
• Debendranath Tagore, the son of Dwarkanath Tagore, formally joined the Brahmo Samaj in 1842 and is credited with revitalizing the organization and providing it with a definite systematic shape.
• Before joining the Samaj, Debendranath Tagore had founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha in 1839, which focused on the systematic study of India’s past and the propagation of Vedantic ideas.
• He merged the Tattvabodhini Sabha with the Brahmo Samaj and introduced the Brahmo Covenant, a set of solemn vows to ensure a disciplined religious life for its members.
• Under his leadership, the Brahmo Samaj became a powerful force for socio-religious reform in Bengal, supporting education and opposing idol worship.

 Additional Information

• Dwarkanath Tagore:
• He was a prominent industrialist, entrepreneur, and a close associate of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
• While he provided financial and moral support to the Brahmo Samaj after Roy’s death, he did not assume the spiritual leadership of the movement.
• Keshub Chandra Sen:
• He joined the Brahmo Samaj in 1857 under the influence of Debendranath Tagore.
• He later split from the main body in 1866 due to ideological differences regarding radical social reforms, forming the Brahmo Samaj of India.
• Swami Vivekananda:
• Born as Narendranath Datta, he was the chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa.
• He founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 and is famous for his speech at the World Parliament of Religions in Chicago in 1893.

The correct answer is Hibernate, because it saves the entire system state to the hard disk and powers down completely..

Key Points

• Hibernate mode is specifically designed for laptops and mobile devices to preserve the operating state without consuming any electrical power from the battery.
• When a computer enters this state, it takes all the information currently stored in the Random Access Memory (RAM) and writes it into a hidden system file on the Hard Disk Drive (HDD) or Solid State Drive (SSD) known as hiberfil.sys.
• Since the data is stored on non-volatile storage (the disk) rather than volatile memory (RAM), the system can safely power down completely, achieving zero battery consumption over long periods like a weekend.
• Upon restarting the device, the Windows Boot Manager retrieves the saved state from the disk and loads it back into RAM, allowing the user to resume their exact work session with all open applications and files intact.

 Additional Information

• Power Management Modes:
• Sleep (Standby): Keeps the session in RAM and uses a small amount of power. It allows for an almost instant resume, but if the battery dies, any unsaved work is lost.
• Hybrid Sleep: Primarily used for Desktop PCs, it saves the session to both RAM and the hard disk. It uses power to keep the RAM active but provides a backup on the disk in case of a power failure.
• Shut Down: Completely closes all software programs, clears the RAM, and turns off the hardware. It does not save the user session or open files.
• Fast Startup: A feature in Windows 10 and 11 that combines Hibernate and Shut Down to decrease boot time by saving the OS kernel state to the disk while closing user applications.

The correct answer is Low resistivity.

Key Points

• Electrical conductors are substances that facilitate the easy movement of electric charges (primarily electrons) through them when an external electric field is applied.
• The fundamental property that defines a good conductor is low resistivity (represented by the Greek letter ρ), which implies that the material offers minimal opposition to the flow of electric current.
• Resistivity is the intrinsic property of a material that quantifies how strongly it resists electric current; for conductors like Silver, Copper, and Aluminum, this value is extremely small, typically ranging from 10⁻⁸ Ω⋅m to 10⁻⁶ Ω⋅m.
• According to Ohm's Law, the resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its resistivity; therefore, a material with low resistivity will have low resistance, allowing a higher current to flow for a given potential difference.
• The electrical conductivity (σ) is the reciprocal of resistivity (σ = 1/ρ); hence, conductors characterized by low resistivity possess high electrical conductivity.

 Additional Information

• High resistivity:
• This is a characteristic feature of insulators such as glass, rubber, and ebonite.
• These materials have very few free electrons, preventing the flow of charge and resulting in resistivity values often exceeding 10¹² Ω⋅m.
• No resistivity:
• This state is achieved by superconductors when they are cooled below a specific critical temperature.
• In this state, the material exhibits zero electrical resistance and expels magnetic fields (the Meissner effect).
• Factors affecting Resistivity:
• Resistivity is not constant for all conditions; it depends on the nature of the material and its temperature.
• For metallic conductors, resistivity typically increases with an increase in temperature due to increased collisions between electrons and lattice ions.

The correct answer is Odissi.

Key Points

• Aruna Mohanty is a pre-eminent practitioner, choreographer, and teacher of the Odissi classical dance form.
• She was conferred with the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian honor, in the year 2017 for her immense contribution to the field of Art-Dance.
• She has served as the Secretary of the Odisha Sangeet Natak Akademi and has been instrumental in organizing various national and international dance festivals.
• Her artistic style was shaped under the guidance of legendary doyens like Guru Pankaj Charan Das, Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra, and Guru Gangadhar Pradhan.
• In addition to the Padma Shri, she received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2010 and the Mahari Award for her excellence in choreography and performance.
• She is known for incorporating contemporary social themes and historical narratives into the traditional framework of Odissi, making the art form accessible to modern audiences.

 Additional Information

• Odissi:
• Origin: Developed in the temples of Odisha, primarily through the Mahari and Gotipua traditions.
• Features: Characterized by the Tribhanga posture (three-fold bend of the body) and the Chauka (square) stance.
• Bharatanatyam:
• Origin: Traced back to Tamil Nadu and the Sadir dance performed by Devadasis.
• Features: Known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and complex Mudras (hand gestures).
• Manipuri:
• Origin: Hails from the state of Manipur in Northeast India.
• Features: Focuses on the Raaslila of Radha-Krishna and is distinguished by its fluid, gentle movements and the Potloi (barrel-shaped skirt).
• Kathakali:
• Origin: A highly stylized dance-drama that originated in Kerala.
• Features: Famous for its Vesham (elaborate makeup), large costumes, and the use of facial expressions and eye movements to convey stories from Hindu epics.

The correct answer is 10-tonne Vertical Planetary Mixer.

Key Points

• In February 2025, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) commissioned a state-of-the-art 10-tonne Vertical Planetary Mixer at the Solid Propellant Rocket Booster Plant (SPROB) located in SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.
• This facility is a first-of-its-kind indigenous development in India, designed to handle the massive production requirements of solid propellants for heavy-lift launch vehicles.
• The mixer is specifically engineered to process large batches of composite solid propellants, which are the primary fuel source for boosters like the S200 and the human-rated HS200 used in the Gaganyaan mission.
• The induction of this high-capacity mixer significantly enhances ISRO's self-reliance in manufacturing large-scale rocket motors, reducing the time required for propellant casting and ensuring high homogeneity in the fuel mix.

 Additional Information

• Vertical Planetary Mixer Technology:
• This technology utilizes two or more blades that rotate on their own axes while simultaneously orbiting a common center, mimicking a planetary motion.
• This complex movement is essential for mixing high-viscosity materials like HTPB-based propellants (Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene) without creating air bubbles or localized hot spots, which could cause accidental ignition.
• Mission Support:
• The facility is critical for the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3) and the upcoming Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) projects.
• By increasing the batch size to 10 tonnes, ISRO can achieve better consistency across the entire propellant grain of massive boosters, which is vital for the stability and safety of spaceflights.
• Strategic Growth:
• The commissioning of this plant aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, showcasing India's capability to build sophisticated industrial machinery for the aerospace sector.

The correct answer is Ravi river.

Key Points

• The Ravi river originates in the Bara Bhangal region of the Kangra district, specifically in the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh.
• It rises to the west of the Rohtang Pass and flows in a north-westerly direction through the Chamba valley before leaving the mountains at Madhopur.
• Geographically, the river drains the area situated between the Pir Panjal range to the north and the Dhauladhar range to the south.
• The river is historically known as the Iravati or Purushni in Vedic texts and is one of the five major rivers of the Punjab region.
• Its major tributaries in Himachal Pradesh include the Budhil, Nai, Seul, Baira, and Tant Gari, which are fed by perennial glaciers.

 Additional Information

• Chenab river:
• Formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers at Tandi in the Lahaul valley.
• It flows through the Pangi valley in Himachal Pradesh and is the largest river in the state by volume of water.
• Beas river:
• Originates from the Beas Kund near the Rohtang Pass at the southern end of the Pir Panjal range.
• It flows through the Kullu and Kangra valleys and meets the Sutlej river at Harike in Punjab.
• Jhelum river:
• Rises from a deep spring at Verinag, situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the Kashmir Valley.
• It is a major tributary of the Indus system but does not originate in Himachal Pradesh.

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• The Bastar Olympics is a landmark sports initiative launched by the Government of Chhattisgarh to foster peace, development, and athletic excellence in the insurgency-affected regions of the state.
• The event was specifically designed for the youth of the Bastar Division, covering seven key districts: Kanker, Kondagaon, Bastar, Dantewada, Sukma, Narayanpur, and Bijapur.
• Initiated under the leadership of Chief Minister Vishnu Deo Sai, the primary objective of the Bastar Olympics 2025 is to steer the local tribal youth away from the influence of Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) and integrate them into the social mainstream through sports.
• The tournament structure includes competitions at the village, block, and district levels, culminating in a massive divisional-level championship to identify grassroots talent in various sporting disciplines.
• Participants compete in a wide range of sports, including Archery, Athletics, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Volleyball, and Football, highlighting the physical prowess of the tribal community.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Significance:
• The Chhattisgarh Government utilizes these games as a part of its surrender and rehabilitation policy, encouraging youth from sensitive areas to pick up sports equipment instead of weapons.
• The event aims to bridge the trust gap between the tribal population and the state administration by promoting positive engagement and community spirit.
• Bastar Division Facts:
• Geographically, Bastar is one of the most resource-rich yet underdeveloped regions in India due to decades of conflict.
• The region is famous for its 75-day long Bastar Dussehra, the longest festival in the world, reflecting the deep-rooted Adivasi traditions of the state.
• Sports Welfare:
• The Department of Sports and Youth Welfare provides special kits, coaching, and nutrition support to the participants to ensure professional standards are met during the games.

The correct answer is Red Bull Racing.

Key Points

• The United States Grand Prix, held in October 2025 at the Circuit of the Americas (COTA) in Austin, Texas, was a pivotal race in the 2025 FIA Formula One World Championship.
• Max Verstappen, the Dutch racing driver, secured a dominant victory in this race while competing for Oracle Red Bull Racing, continuing his long-standing partnership with the team that began in 2016.
• This victory contributed to Red Bull Racing maintains its status as a top-tier constructor, utilizing the Honda RBPT (Red Bull Powertrains) engine and advanced aerodynamics designed under the technical direction of the team.
• Verstappen's performance in the 2025 season was characterized by high reliability and pace, allowing him to defend his title against strong competition from McLaren and Ferrari drivers.

 Additional Information

• Ferrari
• Headquartered in Maranello, Italy, this team is the most historic and successful in the sport's history.
• In the 2025 season, the team featured a high-profile lineup including Lewis Hamilton and Charles Leclerc, who were the primary challengers to Red Bull in several races.
• McLaren
• A British constructor based in Woking, which experienced a massive resurgence in competitive form during the 2024 and 2025 seasons.
• The team utilized Mercedes-AMG power units and relied on the talented duo of Lando Norris and Oscar Piastri.
• Racing Bulls (RB)
• Formerly known as Scuderia AlphaTauri and Toro Rosso, this Italian-based team serves as the sister outfit to Red Bull Racing.
• Its primary role is to develop young drivers from the Red Bull Junior Team program for potential promotion to the senior team.

The correct answer is Calcutta Cup.

Key Points

• The Calcutta Cup is the oldest international rugby trophy, contested annually during the Six Nations Championship specifically between the national teams of England and Scotland.
• The trophy originated in 1878 after the Calcutta Football Club in India was forced to disband; the members decided to melt down the club's remaining 60,000 silver rupees to create a lasting memorial.
• The silver was crafted into an ornate cup featuring three King Cobra handles and a lid topped with an Indian elephant, which was then gifted to the Rugby Football Union (RFU).
• The inaugural match for the trophy took place on March 10, 1879, at Raeburn Place in Edinburgh, ending in a draw, meaning the trophy was not officially awarded until the following year.
• In the 2025 Six Nations Championship, the two teams will continue this long-standing tradition, which remains one of the most intense rivalries in world rugby.

 Additional Information

• Millennium Trophy:
• This trophy is contested within the Six Nations specifically between England and Ireland.
• It was first presented in 1988 to celebrate the millennium anniversary of the city of Dublin.
• Triple Crown Trophy:
• The Triple Crown is an honor awarded when one of the four Home Nations (England, Scotland, Wales, and Ireland) defeats the other three during a single season.
• While the concept has existed since the 19^th century, a physical silver trophy was commissioned and first awarded in 2006.
• European Nations Trophy:
• Historically, this referred to the Rugby Europe Championship, which serves as the tier below the Six Nations for emerging European rugby nations.

The correct answer is Rekha Gupta.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) secured a majority in the Delhi Legislative Assembly elections held in February 2025, reclaiming governance of the National Capital Territory (NCT).
• This electoral victory marked the BJP’s return to power in Delhi after a 27-year hiatus; the party had last held the administration in 1998 under Chief Ministers such as Madan Lal Khurana, Sahib Singh Verma, and Sushma Swaraj.
• Rekha Gupta, a prominent woman leader of the Delhi BJP and a former three-time councilor from Shalimar Bagh, was elected as the leader of the legislative party and sworn in as the Chief Minister.
• Her elevation was seen as a strategic move to focus on urban infrastructure and local governance, leveraging her extensive experience as a member of the Standing Committee of the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD).
• The election results reflected a significant transition in the political landscape of the capital, ending the decade-long tenure of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).

 Additional Information

• Atishi Marlena:
• A senior leader of the Aam Aadmi Party, she served as a Cabinet Minister in the previous Delhi government, managing critical portfolios like Education, Finance, and Public Works Department (PWD).
• Manish Sisodia:
• The former Deputy Chief Minister of Delhi and a founding member of AAP, he is widely credited with the reforms in the Delhi government school system and served as the MLA for Patparganj.
• Parvesh Verma:
• A high-profile BJP leader and former Member of Parliament from the West Delhi constituency; he is the son of the former Delhi Chief Minister Sahib Singh Verma and played a key role in the 2025 campaign.

The correct answer is Cache Memory.

Key Points

• Cache Memory is a high-speed, volatile SRAM (Static Random Access Memory) buffer located directly on or very close to the Central Processing Unit (CPU) chip to facilitate rapid data retrieval.
• Its primary objective is to bridge the speed gap between the high-speed Processor and the relatively slower Main Memory (DRAM) by storing copies of the most frequently used data and instructions.
• When the CPU requires data, it initiates a Cache Look-up; if the data is present (a Cache Hit), it is processed nearly instantly, whereas a Cache Miss forces the system to fetch data from RAM, which takes significantly more clock cycles.
• Modern systems utilize a Memory Hierarchy consisting of L1 (fastest, smallest, per core), L2 (intermediate speed/size), and L3 (largest, shared across cores) caches to optimize Instruction Throughput and reduce Latency.

 Additional Information

• Address Decoder:
• It is a combinational logic circuit that identifies specific Memory Locations or Registers based on the binary address provided by the CPU.
• While it is crucial for routing data during Read/Write Operations, it does not function as a storage medium or a speed-enhancing buffer.
• Instruction Set:
• Also known as Instruction Set Architecture (ISA), it represents the collection of basic commands (like MOV, ADD, or HLT) that a processor is designed to understand.
• Common architectures include x86 (CISC) and ARM (RISC), defining how software communicates with the hardware.
• CPU Fan:
• An active cooling component that prevents Thermal Throttling by dissipating heat generated by the Transistors.
• It ensures the Processor remains within safe Operating Temperatures but does not interact with the data-loading logic or memory cycles.

The correct answer is P waves.

Key Points

• P waves, also known as Primary waves, are the fastest of all seismic waves and are the first to be recorded by a seismograph after an earthquake occurs.
• These waves are longitudinal or compressional in nature, meaning the particles of the medium vibrate in the same direction as the wave propagation, creating a push-pull effect.
• A defining characteristic of P waves is their ability to travel through all states of matter, including solids, liquids, and gases; this allows them to pass through the Earth's mantle as well as the liquid outer core.
• The velocity of these waves depends on the compressibility and density of the material they pass through, typically traveling at speeds between 1.5 to 8 kilometers per second in the Earth's crust.

 Additional Information

• S waves:
• Also called Secondary waves or shear waves, these are slower than P waves and arrive second at seismic stations.
• They move particles up and down or side-to-side, perpendicular to the direction of wave travel, and can only propagate through solid materials.
• Their inability to travel through the liquid outer core provided the first scientific evidence that the Earth has a liquid layer.
• Surface waves:
• These waves travel strictly along the Earth's surface rather than through its deep interior and are responsible for the most severe structural damage during an earthquake.
• Rayleigh waves are a type of surface wave that moves the ground in an elliptical motion, similar to ocean waves.
• Love waves are another type of surface wave that causes horizontal shifting of the Earth's crust.