RRB Group D · Topic Collection

General Science PYQs

Core physics, chemistry, biology, human health, diseases, environmental science, and everyday scientific observations.

2600 Total Questions104 Official PapersYears: 2018–2026Search in General Science
Showing questions 321–340 of 2600Page 17 of 100
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 321

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

If the value of the Universal Gravitational Constant (G), the mass of the Earth (M), and the radius of the Earth (R) are known, which equation is used to calculate the acceleration due to gravity (g) near the Earth's surface?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( g = GR/M^2 \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( R^2/(GM) \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( g = GM/R \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( g = GM/R^2 \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

\( g = GM/R^2 \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is g = GM/R^2.

Key Points

  • The relationship between acceleration due to gravity (g) and the Universal Gravitational Constant (G) is derived from Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation and Newton’s Second Law of Motion.
  • According to the Law of Universal Gravitation, the force of attraction (F) between the Earth (mass M) and an object (mass m) on its surface is given by F = G(Mm/R^2), where R is the radius of the Earth.
  • According to Newton’s Second Law, the force acting on the object is also its weight, expressed as F = mg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity.
  • By equating the two formulas for force (mg = GMm/R^2), the mass of the object (m) cancels out from both sides, leaving the equation g = GM/R^2. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • This formula shows that the value of g depends only on the mass of the Earth (M) and the radius of the Earth (R), and is independent of the mass of the falling object.
  • The options g = GR/M^2, R^2/(GM), and g = GM/R are mathematically and dimensionally inconsistent with the physical laws of gravitation. Hence, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Universal Gravitational Constant (G): It is a scalar quantity with a constant value of approximately 6.674 x 10^-11 N m^2/kg^2. It was first experimentally determined by Henry Cavendish in 1798.
  • Mass of the Earth (M): The Earth's mass is approximately 5.972 x 10^24 kg. This value, combined with G and R, results in the standard gravity we experience.
  • Radius of the Earth (R): The mean radius of the Earth is about 6,371 kilometers (or 6.4 x 10^6 meters). Because the Earth is an oblate spheroid, the radius is larger at the Equator and smaller at the Poles.
  • Value of g: On the surface of the Earth, the standard value of g is taken as 9.8 m/s^2. However, since g is inversely proportional to R^2, the value of g is maximum at the Poles (smallest radius) and minimum at the Equator (largest radius).
  • Variation with Altitude and Depth: The value of g decreases as we go higher above the Earth's surface (altitude increases R) and also decreases as we go down into the Earth (towards the center), becoming zero at the center of the Earth.

Important Points

  • Difference between G and g: G is a universal constant that remains the same everywhere in the universe, while g is a vector quantity that changes depending on the location (planet, altitude, or latitude).
  • Units and Dimensions: The SI unit of g is m/s^2 (same as acceleration), and its dimensional formula is [M^0 L^1 T^-2].
  • Weight vs. Mass: While mass is the amount of matter in an object and remains constant, weight (W = mg) is a force that changes if the value of g changes (e.g., you would weigh less on the Moon where g is about 1.62 m/s^2).
  • Applications: This equation is fundamental in astrophysics and space science to calculate the escape velocity of a planet and to determine the orbital velocity of satellites.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 322

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The process of transfer of pollen grains from one flower to the stigma of another flower is called ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    gestation

  2. BOption (b)

    pollination

  3. COption (c)

    guttation

  4. DOption (d)

    germination

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

pollination

Why this answer is correct

p data-end="57" data-start="0">The correct answer is pollination.

 

Key Points

  • Pollination is the biological process of transferring pollen grains from the male anther of a flower to the female stigma. This process is essential for the fertilization and production of seeds in angiosperms (flowering plants). Hence, the correct answer is pollination.
  • There are two main types of pollination: Self-pollination, where pollen is transferred within the same flower or to another flower on the same plant, and Cross-pollination, where pollen is transferred to a flower on a different plant of the same species.
  • The transfer of pollen requires various agents known as pollinators. These can be biotic (living) such as bees, butterflies, birds, and bats, or abiotic (non-living) such as wind and water.
  • When pollen lands on a compatible stigma, it begins to grow a pollen tube down the style to reach the ovule, leading to the fusion of male and female gametes.
  • Plants have evolved specific features to attract pollinators, including brightly colored petals, scent, and nectar, which serve as a food source for insects and animals.

Additional Information

  • Germination:
  • It is the process by which a seed develops into a new plant or seedling.
  • This process begins when the seed absorbs water (imbibition), causing the seed coat to burst and the embryo to resume growth.
  • Factors required for successful germination include oxygen, moisture, and an optimum temperature.
  • Guttation:
  • It is the loss of water in the form of liquid droplets from the margins or tips of leaves of some vascular plants.
  • This occurs through specialized pores called hydathodes, usually during the night or early morning when the humidity is high and soil moisture is abundant.
  • It is driven by root pressure rather than transpiration.
  • Gestation:
  • In biology, gestation refers to the period of development of an embryo or fetus inside the mother's uterus (womb).
  • This term is specifically used for viviparous animals, primarily mammals.
  • The gestation period varies by species; for example, it is approximately 280 days (9 months) in humans and about 600-660 days in elephants.

Important Points

  • Pollination Syndromes: Different plants use different methods to attract pollinators. Anemophily refers to wind pollination, while Entomophily refers to pollination by insects.
  • Fertilization: While pollination is the physical transfer of pollen, fertilization is the actual chemical union of the sperm (from pollen) and egg (inside the ovule).
  • Ecological Importance: Pollination is a vital ecosystem service. Over 75% of the world's food crops depend, at least in part, on pollination by animals.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 323

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The principal focus of a spherical mirror is defined as:

  1. AOption (a)

    The point on the principal axis where parallel rays converge (or appear to diverge) after reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    The center of the mirror’s reflecting surface

  3. COption (c)

    The midpoint of the radius of curvature

  4. DOption (d)

    The distance between object and image

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The point on the principal axis where parallel rays converge (or appear to diverge) after reflection

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The point on the principal axis where parallel rays converge (or appear to diverge) after reflection.

Key Points

  • The Principal Focus (represented by F) of a spherical mirror is a specific point on the Principal Axis where light rays that are initially parallel to the axis actually meet or seem to meet after undergoing reflection.
  • In the case of a Concave Mirror, the rays coming from infinity (parallel to the principal axis) actually converge at this point in front of the mirror. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • In the case of a Convex Mirror, the parallel rays diverge after reflection, but they appear to originate from the principal focus located behind the mirror.
  • The center of the mirror’s reflecting surface is known as the Pole (P), not the principal focus. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • While the principal focus is mathematically the midpoint of the Radius of Curvature (distance between the Pole and the Center of Curvature), this describes its position rather than its fundamental definition. Hence, statement 3 is not the primary definition.
  • The distance between the object and the image is a variable quantity depending on the object position and is not related to the definition of the focus. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Pole (P): The geometric center of the spherical reflecting surface of the mirror. It lies on the surface of the mirror and is the origin for all distance measurements in the Cartesian sign convention.
  • Center of Curvature (C): The center of the hollow sphere of glass of which the spherical mirror is a part. For a concave mirror, it is in front, whereas for a convex mirror, it is behind the reflecting surface.
  • Principal Axis: An imaginary straight line passing through the Pole and the Center of Curvature of the mirror. It is normal to the mirror at its pole.
  • Focal Length (f): The distance between the Pole and the Principal Focus. For spherical mirrors with small apertures, the focal length is exactly half of the Radius of Curvature (R), expressed as f = R/2.
  • Aperture: The diameter of the reflecting surface of the spherical mirror, which determines the intensity of the image formed by the amount of light it can intercept.

Important Points

  • Real Focus: A concave mirror has a real focus because light rays actually pass through it after reflection. It can be used to capture a sharp image of a distant object (like the Sun) on a screen.
  • Virtual Focus: A convex mirror has a virtual focus because the light rays only appear to meet there.

No real image can be formed at this point on a screen.

  • Sign Convention: According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the focal length of a concave mirror is taken as negative, while the focal length of a convex mirror is taken as positive.
  • Applications: Concave mirrors are used in solar furnaces to concentrate sunlight at the focus to produce heat. Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles because they provide a wider field of view and always form an erect image.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 324

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

An atom contains 17 electrons and 18 neutrons. Find the number of protons.

  1. AOption (a)

    36

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    35.5

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 17.

Key Points

  • An atom is fundamentally neutral in its ground state. This means the total positive charge provided by the protons must be exactly balanced by the total negative charge provided by the electrons.
  • The number of protons in an atom is known as its Atomic Number (represented by the symbol Z). It defines the identity of the chemical element.
  • In the given question, the atom contains 17 electrons. For the atom to remain electrically neutral, the number of protons must be equal to the number of electrons. Therefore, the number of protons is 17. Hence, the correct answer is 17.
  • The neutrons are subatomic particles found in the nucleus that carry no charge. While they contribute to the mass of the atom, they do not influence the count of protons required for electrical neutrality.
  • The element with Atomic Number 17 is Chlorine (Cl). In this specific case, with 18 neutrons, the atom refers to the most common isotope of Chlorine, which is Chlorine-35.

Additional Information

  • Subatomic Particles:
  • Protons: These were discovered by Ernest Rutherford (though often associated with E. Goldstein). They have a relative charge of +1 and a mass of approximately 1.672 x 10^-27 kg.
  • Electrons: Discovered by J.J. Thomson in 1897 through cathode ray experiments. They have a relative charge of -1 and a negligible mass compared to nucleons.
  • Neutrons: Discovered by James Chadwick in 1932. They are neutral (zero charge) and have a mass slightly greater than that of a proton.
  • Mass Number (A):
  • The Mass Number is the sum of the total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom.
  • For the given atom: Mass Number (A) = Protons (17) + Neutrons (18) = 35.
  • The total number of protons and neutrons are collectively called nucleons.
  • Atomic Notation:
  • Elements are usually represented as AXZ, where X is the chemical symbol, A is the mass number, and Z is the atomic number.
  • The atom in the question would be represented as 35Cl17.

Important Points

  • Isotopes: These are atoms of the same element (same Atomic Number) that have different numbers of neutrons (different Mass Numbers). For example, Chlorine has isotopes like Chlorine-35 and Chlorine-37.
  • Ions: If an atom gains or loses electrons, it becomes an ion. In an ion, the number of protons and electrons are not equal. However, the number of protons (atomic number) never changes during a chemical reaction.
  • Valency: Chlorine has 17 electrons. Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7. Since it requires 1 electron to complete its octet, its valency is 1.
  • Calculations:
  • Number of Protons = Atomic Number (Z).
  • Number of Neutrons = Mass Number (A) - Atomic Number (Z).
  • In a neutral atom: Protons = Electrons.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 325

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In a 250 mL solution, 5 g of solute is dissolved. What is the concentration (mass by volume %) of the solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    5%

  2. BOption (b)

    2%

  3. COption (c)

    0.2%

  4. DOption (d)

    20%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2%.

Key Points

  • The concentration of a solution is the amount of solute present in a given quantity of the solution or solvent. It can be expressed in various ways, including Mass by Volume Percentage.
  • Mass by Volume Percentage (w/v %) is defined as the mass of the solute in grams dissolved in 100 mL of the solution.
  • In this problem, the mass of the solute is given as 5 g.
  • The total volume of the solution is given as 250 mL.
  • The mathematical formula to calculate this concentration is: Concentration = (Mass of Solute / Volume of Solution) x 100.
  • Substituting the given values: (5 / 250) x 100.
  • Performing the calculation: 5 / 250 = 0.02. Then, 0.02 x 100 = 2. Therefore, the concentration is 2%.

Additional Information

  • Solute: This is the component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent and is usually present in a smaller amount. In this example, the 5 g of substance is the solute.
  • Solvent: This is the component of the solution that dissolves the other component and is usually present in a larger amount (often water).
  • Solution: A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. The volume of the solution used in the denominator of the w/v % formula must represent the final volume of the mixture.
  • Other Concentration Expressions:
  • Mass by Mass Percentage (w/w %): Calculated as (Mass of Solute / Mass of Solution) x 100.
  • Volume by Volume Percentage (v/v %): Calculated as (Volume of Solute / Volume of Solution) x 100, typically used for liquid-in-liquid solutions like alcohol in water.
  • Molarity (M): Another vital unit of concentration defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution.

Important Points

  • The units must be consistent when using the percentage formula. For mass by volume %, the standard practice is to use grams (g) for mass and milliliters (mL) for volume.
  • A 2% (w/v) solution means that every 100 mL of that solution contains 2 g of the dissolved solute.
  • In pharmacology and medicine, many intravenous fluids and liquid medications are labeled using this mass by volume percentage system (e.g., 0.9% Normal Saline).
  • If the volume was given in Liters, it must be converted to milliliters (1 L = 1000 mL) before applying the percentage formula.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 326

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A train starts from rest and reaches a velocity of 36 km/hr in 3 minutes with uniform acceleration.

What is the distance covered by the train during this time?

  1. AOption (a)

    750 m

  2. BOption (b)

    900 m

  3. COption (c)

    500 m

  4. DOption (d)

    250 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

900 m

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 900 m.

Key Points

  • The train starts from rest, which means the initial velocity (u) is 0 m/s. When an object begins its motion from a stationary position, its starting speed is always considered zero in kinematic calculations.
  • The final velocity (v) given is 36 km/hr. To perform calculations in SI units, this must be converted to meters per second (m/s). By multiplying 36 by the conversion factor 5/18, we get 10 m/s.
  • The time (t) taken to reach this velocity is 3 minutes. In physics equations, time must be expressed in seconds. Therefore, 3 minutes is multiplied by 60, resulting in 180 seconds.
  • Since the train moves with uniform acceleration (a), we can find the acceleration using the first equation of motion: v = u + at. Substituting the values, 10 = 0 + a(180), which gives a = 10/180 or 1/18 m/s².
  • The distance (s) covered is calculated using the second equation of motion: s = ut + (1/2)at². Substituting the known values: s = (0)(180) + (1/2)(1/18)(180)(180). This simplifies to s = 0 + (1/2)(1/18)(32400), which equals 900 meters.
  • Alternatively, distance can be found using average velocity multiplied by time for uniform acceleration: [(u + v) / 2] x t. Here, [(0 + 10) / 2] x 180 = 5 x 180 = 900 m. Hence, the correct answer is 900 m.

Additional Information

  • Equations of Motion:
  • These equations describe the behavior of a physical system in terms of its motion as a function of time. There are three primary equations for uniform acceleration: v = u + at, s = ut + 1/2 at², and v² = u² + 2as.
  • These were derived based on the work of Sir Isaac Newton and describe linear motion. They are only applicable when acceleration remains constant throughout the duration of the motion.
  • Unit Conversion Logic:
  • Converting km/hr to m/s is a standard procedure in physics. Since 1 kilometer is 1000 meters and 1 hour is 3600 seconds, the ratio 1000/3600 simplifies to 5/18.
  • This conversion is essential to maintain consistency with the International System of Units (SI), where distance is in meters and time is in seconds.
  • Uniform Acceleration:
  • Uniform acceleration occurs when the velocity of an object changes by an equal amount in every equal time interval.
  • On a Velocity-Time (v-t) graph, uniform acceleration is represented by a straight line. The area under the line in a v-t graph represents the total distance covered by the object.

Important Points

  • Scalar vs Vector: Distance is a scalar quantity, meaning it only has magnitude. However, in straight-line motion in a single direction starting from rest, the magnitude of distance and displacement (a vector) are identical.
  • Significance of "Rest": In competitive exams, the phrase "starts from rest" is a crucial data point indicating that u = 0. Conversely, "comes to a stop" or "brakes are applied" usually indicates v = 0.
  • Numerical Accuracy: Always ensure all units are converted to the MKS system (Meter-Kilogram-Second) before applying kinematic formulas to avoid common calculation errors. For this problem, failing to convert 3 minutes to 180 seconds would lead to an incorrect result.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 327

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In plants, how does sexual reproduction leads to better survival in offspring?

  1. AOption (a)

    Offspring show new genetic recombination

  2. BOption (b)

    Offspring do not show any variation

  3. COption (c)

    Offspring are exact clones

  4. DOption (d)

    Offspring are born faster

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Offspring show new genetic recombination

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Offspring show new genetic recombination.

Key Points

  • Sexual reproduction in plants involves the fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote, which eventually develops into a new individual.
  • One of the most significant features of this process is genetic recombination. During the process of meiosis (cell division to produce gametes), crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes during prophase I. This results in offspring having a unique combination of genes different from both parents. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • This genetic variation is the cornerstone of survival in changing environments. It allows a population of plants to adapt to new pathogens, changing climatic conditions, and competition for resources.
  • In contrast, if offspring do not show any variation, they are highly susceptible to being wiped out by a single disease or environmental change. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Offspring produced through sexual reproduction are not clones; they are genetically distinct individuals. Cloning is a characteristic of asexual reproduction or vegetative propagation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Sexual reproduction is generally a slower process compared to asexual reproduction because it involves complex stages like pollination, fertilization, seed formation, and dormancy. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Mechanism of Variation: The two main sources of variation in sexual reproduction are independent assortment of chromosomes and crossing over. In angiosperms (flowering plants), the pollen grain (male gametophyte) and embryo sac (female gametophyte) undergo these processes to ensure diversity.
  • Evolutionary Advantage: Variation is the raw material for natural selection. Plants with favorable genetic traits resulting from recombination are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing those advantageous traits to the next generation.
  • Types of Pollination: Cross-pollination (Allogamy) specifically promotes greater heterozygosity and genetic diversity compared to self-pollination (Autogamy).
  • Adaptability: Recombination allows for the masking of harmful mutations. Since offspring receive sets of genes from two parents, a healthy gene from one parent can often compensate for a defective gene from the other.

Important Points

  • Comparison with Asexual Reproduction: In asexual reproduction, such as budding, fragmentation, or apomixis, the offspring are genetically identical to the parent. While this allows for rapid population growth in stable environments, it lacks the evolutionary flexibility provided by sexual reproduction.
  • Environmental Stress: In unpredictable environments (e.g., fluctuating soil pH, drought, or salinity), the recombinant genotypes produced through sexual reproduction have a higher probability of possessing the necessary physiological traits to withstand abiotic stress.
  • Date and Discovery: The basic principles of heredity and the importance of variation were famously documented by Gregor Mendel in the mid-19th century (around 1865) through his experiments on Pisum sativum (pea plants).
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Question 328

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Complex tissues are made up of:

  1. AOption (a)

    only one cell

  2. BOption (b)

    one type of cells

  3. COption (c)

    more than one type of cells

  4. DOption (d)

    no cells

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

more than one type of cells

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is more than one type of cells.

Key Points

  • Complex tissues are defined as a group of more than one type of cells that have a common origin and work together as a structural and functional unit.
  • Unlike simple permanent tissues, which consist of cells that are morphologically and physiologically similar, complex tissues are heterogeneous.
  • The primary function of these tissues in plants is the transport of water, minerals, and organic nutrients throughout the plant body.
  • The two most well-known types of complex tissues in the plant kingdom are Xylem and Phloem. These are often referred to as vascular tissues.
  • The presence of these complex tissues is a distinctive feature of complex plants, allowing them to survive in terrestrial environments by facilitating long-distance transport. Hence, the correct answer is more than one type of cells.

Additional Information

  • Xylem:
  • It functions as a conducting tissue for water and minerals from the roots to the stems and leaves.
  • It provides mechanical strength to the plant parts.
  • It is composed of four different kinds of elements: Tracheids, Vessels, Xylem parenchyma, and Xylem fibres.
  • In flowering plants, tracheids and vessels are the main water-transporting elements. Most xylem elements are dead cells except for xylem parenchyma.
  • Phloem:
  • It transports food materials, usually from the leaves (source) to other parts of the plant (sink).
  • In angiosperms, phloem is composed of Sieve tube elements, Companion cells, Phloem parenchyma, and Phloem fibres.
  • Unlike xylem, phloem cells are generally living cells, with the exception of phloem fibres (also known as bast fibres) which are dead at maturity.
  • Simple Permanent Tissues:
  • These are made up of only one type of cells which are similar in structure and function.
  • Examples include Parenchyma (involved in storage and photosynthesis), Collenchyma (provides flexibility and mechanical support), and Sclerenchyma (provides rigidity and is often dead at maturity).
  • Meristematic Tissues:
  • These are tissues where cells remain young and undergo continuous cell division.
  • They are found in the growing regions of plants, such as the root tips and shoot tips (apical meristems).

Important Points

  • Origin: Both xylem and phloem in the primary plant body originate from the procambium. During secondary growth, they are produced by the vascular cambium.
  • Vascular Bundles: In the stems and roots, xylem and phloem are organized into distinct groups called vascular bundles.
  • Evolutionary Significance: The development of complex conducting tissues was a major step in the evolution of land plants (Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms), enabling them to grow to great heights.
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Question 329

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements is true regarding the twinkling of the stars?

(i) The stars twinkle as they have light of their own.

(ii) The stars twinkle due to reflection of light.

(iii) There is apparent change in the position of the star during the night time.

(iv) The stars twinkle due to atmospheric refraction.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (i) and (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    Both (ii) and (iii)

  3. COption (c)

    Both (iii) and (iv)

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (i) and (iv)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both (iii) and (iv)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both (iii) and (iv).

Key Points

  • Atmospheric Refraction is the primary physical phenomenon responsible for the twinkling of stars. As starlight enters the Earth's atmosphere, it undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the Earth's surface. ***Hence, statement

(iv) is correct.***

  • The apparent position of a star is slightly different from its actual position because the atmosphere bends starlight toward the normal as it moves from a rarer medium to an optically denser medium. Because the physical conditions of the Earth's atmosphere are not stationary, the apparent position of the star fluctuates slightly. ***Hence, statement

(iii) is correct.***

  • While it is scientifically true that stars are self-luminous bodies (they have light of their own), this characteristic is not the cause of the twinkling effect. Twinkling is an optical illusion created by the medium through which the light travels, not the source of the light itself. ***Hence, statement

(i) is a true fact but not the reason for twinkling.***

  • The twinkling of stars is caused by the refraction (bending) of light, not the reflection of light. Reflection involves light bouncing off a surface, whereas refraction involves light passing through a medium of varying optical density. ***Hence, statement

(ii) is incorrect.***

  • The path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers—the star sometimes appears brighter, and at some other time, fainter, which is the twinkling effect.

Additional Information

  • Point Source vs. Extended Source:
  • Stars are located at a vast distance from the Earth, often measured in light-years. This makes them appear as point-sized sources of light. Even a tiny atmospheric disturbance can significantly shift the path of a single point of light.
  • In contrast, planets are much closer to Earth and are seen as extended sources or a collection of many point-sized sources of light. The total variation in the amount of light entering our eye from all the individual point-sized sources will average out to zero, which is why planets do not twinkle.
  • Refractive Index of Air:
  • The Earth's atmosphere consists of several layers with varying temperatures and densities. Cold air is optically denser than warm air, meaning it has a higher refractive index.
  • As starlight passes through these turbulent layers, the light is constantly bent back and forth. This process is known as stellar scintillation.
  • Position Near Horizon:
  • Stars appear to twinkle more when they are near the horizon compared to when they are directly overhead (at the zenith). This is because the light must travel through a thicker layer of the atmosphere, encountering more turbulence and refraction.
  • Vacuum of Space:
  • If an observer were in outer space (a vacuum), stars would not twinkle. This is why space telescopes like the Hubble Space Telescope or James Webb Space Telescope can capture much clearer images than ground-based telescopes, as they are above the distorting effects of the Earth's atmosphere.

Important Points

  • The speed of light changes as it moves through different optical media, causing the bending effect known as refraction.
  • The Laws of Refraction (Snell's Law) dictate that when light travels from a vacuum into the atmosphere, it slows down and bends toward the normal.
  • The apparent shift in position means a star always appears slightly higher in the sky than its actual position.
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Question 330

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is a characteristic property of ionic compounds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Strong electrostatic forces between ions

  2. BOption (b)

    Low melting point

  3. COption (c)

    Insoluble in water

  4. DOption (d)

    Poor electrical conductivity in molten state

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Strong electrostatic forces between ions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Strong electrostatic forces between ions.

Key Points

  • Ionic compounds are chemical compounds composed of ions held together by electrostatic forces termed ionic bonding. These compounds are formed through the transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal.
  • The most defining characteristic of these compounds is the existence of strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged cations (positively charged) and anions (negatively charged). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Because of these strong inter-ionic attractions, ionic compounds exist as solids and are generally hard. A significant amount of thermal energy is required to overcome these forces, which results in high melting and boiling points. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Ionic compounds are generally soluble in polar solvents like water because the water molecules reduce the electrostatic attraction between the ions, allowing them to disperse. However, they are usually insoluble in non-polar solvents such as benzene, ether, or kerosene. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • In their solid state, ionic compounds are poor conductors of electricity because the ions are fixed in a crystal lattice. However, in the molten state or when dissolved in aqueous solution, the ions become free to move and act as charge carriers, making them good electrical conductors. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Formation of Ionic Bonds:
  • An ionic bond is formed when one atom (typically a metal) loses valence electrons to another atom (typically a non-metal). For example, in Sodium Chloride (NaCl), a sodium atom loses one electron to become Na+, and a chlorine atom gains that electron to become Cl-.
  • The resulting electrostatic attraction between the sodium cation and chloride anion creates the stable compound.
  • Crystal Lattice Structure:
  • Ionic compounds do not exist as single molecules; instead, they form a three-dimensional network called a crystal lattice.
  • This lattice structure is highly organized and contributes to the brittleness of the compound, as applying pressure shifts the ions and causes like-charged ions to repel each other, shattering the crystal.
  • Lattice Energy:
  • Lattice energy is the amount of energy released when gaseous ions combine to form one mole of an ionic solid. It is a measure of the stability and strength of the ionic bond.
  • Higher charge density on ions and smaller ionic radii generally lead to higher lattice energy and higher melting points.

Important Points

  • Physical State: At room temperature, almost all ionic compounds are crystalline solids due to the high bond strength.
  • Non-directional Nature: Unlike covalent bonds, ionic bonds are non-directional because the electrostatic field of an ion acts in all directions around it.
  • Applications: Common examples include Magnesium Oxide (MgO), used as a refractory material due to its extremely high melting point of 2,852 degrees Celsius, and Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3), found in limestone and shells.
  • Electrolysis: The molten state conductivity of ionic compounds is utilized in industrial electrolysis to extract reactive metals like Aluminum and Sodium from their ores.
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Question 331

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What helps in the upward movement of water and minerals in plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Conversion of sunlight into starch

  2. BOption (b)

    Active transport in leaf cells

  3. COption (c)

    Diffusion of gases in stomata

  4. DOption (d)

    Transpiration pull and root pressure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Transpiration pull and root pressure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Transpiration pull and root pressure.

Key Points

  • The upward movement of water and minerals from the roots to the various parts of the plant is known as the ascent of sap. This process is primarily driven by transpiration pull and root pressure.
  • Transpiration pull is a biological process where the evaporation of water from the stomata of leaves creates a suction force (tension). This tension is transmitted down to the roots through a continuous column of water in the xylem vessels, pulling water upwards. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • Root pressure is a positive pressure developed in the xylem of the roots due to the active absorption of mineral ions from the soil. This creates an osmotic gradient that forces water into the root xylem, pushing it up to a certain height. It is more significant during the night or in small herbaceous plants.
  • The conversion of sunlight into starch refers to photosynthesis, which occurs in the chloroplasts to produce food, but it does not directly facilitate the upward transport of water. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • While active transport occurs in leaf cells for the loading of sugars into the phloem, it is not the primary mechanism for the bulk upward movement of water in the xylem. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The diffusion of gases through stomata is essential for respiration and photosynthesis, but the gas exchange itself is not the force that lifts water; rather, it is the loss of water vapor (transpiration) occurring simultaneously that provides the pull. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Xylem Tissue: This is a complex permanent tissue responsible for the conduction of water and minerals. It consists of four types of cells: tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibres. The tracheids and vessels are the main conducting elements that form a continuous system of water-conducting channels.
  • Cohesion-Tension Theory: Proposed by Dixon and Joly in 1894, this theory explains how water can reach the top of tall trees (over 100 meters). It relies on cohesion (attraction between water molecules), adhesion (attraction between water and xylem walls), and surface tension.
  • Transpiration: This is the loss of water in the form of vapor from the aerial parts of the plant. It not only helps in the ascent of sap but also aids in temperature regulation (cooling the plant) and maintaining the turgidity of cells.
  • Factors Affecting Transpiration: The rate of transpiration is influenced by external factors such as temperature, light intensity, humidity, and wind speed. For instance, high humidity reduces the rate of transpiration because the concentration gradient between the leaf and the atmosphere is decreased.
  • Guttation: When root pressure is high and transpiration is low (usually at night), water may be forced out in the form of liquid droplets through specialized openings called hydathodes at the margins of leaves. This phenomenon is distinct from transpiration.

Important Points

  • Direction of Flow: In the xylem, the transport of water and minerals is strictly unidirectional (from roots to leaves). In contrast, the phloem transports food in a bidirectional manner (from source to sink).
  • Energy Requirement: The transpiration pull is a passive process driven by solar energy (evaporation), whereas the initial accumulation of minerals in the root that leads to root pressure often involves active transport (utilizing ATP).
  • Xylem Vessels vs Tracheids: Vessels are more efficient in water conduction than tracheids because they are wider and have perforated end walls, allowing for a more rapid flow of the water column.
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Question 332

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The velocity-time graph of a particle moving with uniform acceleration is a:

  1. AOption (a)

    vertical line

  2. BOption (b)

    curve concave upward

  3. COption (c)

    straight line inclined to time axis

  4. DOption (d)

    horizontal line

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

straight line inclined to time axis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is straight line inclined to time axis.

Key Points

  • Uniform acceleration is defined as a type of motion where the velocity of an object changes by an equal amount in every equal time interval. In other words, the rate of change of velocity remains constant over time.
  • On a velocity-time (v-t) graph, the slope of the line represents the acceleration of the particle. If the acceleration is uniform (constant), the slope must also be constant.
  • A straight line is the geometric representation of a constant slope. Therefore, the graph of an object moving with uniform acceleration is a straight line.
  • The line must be inclined to the time axis (x-axis) to show that velocity is changing. If the acceleration is positive, the line slopes upward; if the acceleration is negative (retardation), the line slopes downward. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • A horizontal line on a velocity-time graph indicates that the slope is zero, meaning the acceleration is 0 and the particle is moving with uniform velocity. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • A curve concave upward indicates that the slope (acceleration) is increasing over time, which represents non-uniform acceleration. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • A vertical line would imply that velocity changes infinitely at a single point in time, resulting in infinite acceleration, which is physically impossible for a particle. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Area under the Graph: The area enclosed by the velocity-time graph and the time axis represents the total displacement of the particle during that time interval.
  • Equations of Motion: For a particle moving with uniform acceleration (a), the relationship between initial velocity (u), final velocity (v), and time (t) is given by the equation v = u + at. This is a linear equation of the form y = mx + c, confirming that the graph is a straight line.
  • Slope Calculation: The slope of the velocity-time graph is calculated as the change in velocity divided by the change in time (rise over run). For uniform acceleration, this ratio is always the same regardless of which two points on the line are chosen.
  • Types of V-T Graphs:
  • Zero Acceleration: A straight line parallel to the time axis.
  • Positive Uniform Acceleration: A straight line with a positive slope starting from the origin (if u=0) or from the y-axis (if u>0).
  • Negative Uniform Acceleration: A straight line with a negative slope (moving towards the time axis).
  • Non-Uniform Acceleration: Any curved line (parabolic, exponential, etc.).

Important Points

  • Position-Time Graph: For a particle with uniform acceleration, the position-time (s-t) graph is a parabola, because displacement is proportional to the square of time (s = ut + 1/2 at^2).
  • Instantaneous Acceleration: In cases of non-uniform acceleration, the acceleration at a specific moment is found by drawing a tangent to the velocity-time curve at that point and finding its slope.
  • Units: The SI unit of acceleration is meters per second squared (m/s^2), while velocity is measured in meters per second (m/s).
  • Kinematics: These graphical interpretations are fundamental in Kinematics, a branch of Physics that describes the motion of points, bodies, and systems without considering the forces that cause the motion.
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Question 333

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In the electrolytic refining of copper, which of the following correctly describes the role of electrodes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both electrodes are made of impure copper

  2. BOption (b)

    Both electrodes are made of pure copper

  3. COption (c)

    Impure copper is used as anode and pure copper as cathode

  4. DOption (d)

    Pure copper is used as anode and impure copper as cathode

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Impure copper is used as anode and pure copper as cathode

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Impure copper is used as anode and pure copper as cathode.

Key Points

  • Electrolytic refining is a process used for the purification of metals like copper, zinc, tin, nickel, silver, and gold. It relies on the principle of electrolysis to transfer metal from an impure source to a pure one.
  • In this setup, the Anode is always made of the impure metal. For copper refining, a thick slab of impure copper (blister copper) is used as the positive electrode. During the process, copper atoms from this slab lose electrons and enter the solution as ions. Hence, the statement that impure copper is used as the anode is correct.
  • The Cathode consists of a thin strip of pure metal. In this context, a pure copper sheet acts as the negative electrode where the copper ions (Cu2+) from the electrolyte gain electrons and deposit as pure metal. Hence, the statement that pure copper is used as the cathode is correct.
  • The Electrolyte used is a water-soluble salt of the metal being refined. For copper, acidified copper sulphate (CuSO4) solution is commonly employed to ensure high electrical conductivity and a steady supply of ions.
  • When electric current is passed through the electrolyte, the net result is the transfer of pure copper from the anode to the cathode, increasing the thickness of the pure cathode over time.

Additional Information

  • Chemical Reactions at Electrodes:
  • At the Anode (Oxidation): The impure copper atoms release electrons: Cu (s) → Cu2+ (aq) + 2e–.
  • At the Cathode (Reduction): The copper ions from the solution accept electrons: Cu2+ (aq) + 2e– → Cu (s).
  • Purity Level: The electrolytic refining process is highly efficient and can produce copper with a purity of 99.95% to 99.99%. This high degree of purity is essential because even small amounts of impurities significantly reduce the electrical conductivity of copper.
  • Applications of Pure Copper: Pure copper obtained through this method is primarily used in the electrical industry for making wires, cables, transformers, and electronic components.
  • Industrial Scale: In industrial refineries, multiple anodes and cathodes are suspended in large tanks filled with acidified electrolyte to maximize the output of pure copper through continuous electrolysis.

Important Points

  • Anode Mud: The insoluble impurities present in the impure copper slab do not dissolve in the electrolyte. Instead, they settle down below the anode at the bottom of the tank. This residue is known as Anode Mud.
  • Recovery of Precious Metals: The anode mud often contains valuable metals such as gold (Au), silver (Ag), platinum (Pt), antimony, and selenium. The recovery of these precious metals often helps offset the overall cost of the refining process.
  • Soluble Impurities: Metals that are more electropositive than copper, such as iron (Fe), nickel (Ni), and zinc (Zn), dissolve into the electrolyte as sulphates but do not deposit at the cathode because they require a higher potential to be reduced compared to copper.
  • Electrolyte Concentration: Throughout the process, the concentration of the copper sulphate electrolyte remains relatively constant because the amount of copper dissolving at the anode is exactly equal to the amount depositing at the cathode.
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Question 334

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In stethoscopes, the sound of the heartbeat is transmitted to the doctor’s ears because:

  1. AOption (a)

    the sound waves are absorbed by the tube walls

  2. BOption (b)

    the sound waves undergo successive refraction in the tube

  3. COption (c)

    the sound waves are amplified by electricity

  4. DOption (d)

    the sound waves are guided by multiple reflections in the tube

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

the sound waves are guided by multiple reflections in the tube

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the sound waves are guided by multiple reflections in the tube.

Key Points

  • A stethoscope is a medical instrument used by doctors for listening to sounds produced within the body, chiefly in the heart or lungs.
  • In stethoscopes, the sound of the patient’s heartbeat reaches the doctor’s ears by multiple reflection of sound waves. The sound travels through the hollow tube of the stethoscope by reflecting off its inner walls repeatedly until it reaches the earpieces. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • The sound waves are not absorbed by the tube walls; instead, the walls are designed to be reflective to ensure the intensity of the sound is maintained over the distance of the tube. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Refraction involves the bending of waves when passing from one medium to another. In a stethoscope, the primary mechanism for guiding sound through the curved tube is reflection, not refraction. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • While electronic stethoscopes exist today that can amplify sound using electricity, the standard acoustic stethoscope works purely on the principle of acoustics and physical reflection without any electrical amplification. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Invention: The stethoscope was invented in France in 1816 by René Laennec. Originally, it was a simple wooden tube used for auscultation (listening to internal sounds).
  • Mechanism of Sound: Sound is a longitudinal mechanical wave that requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel. It travels through the stethoscope tube as a series of compressions and rarefactions.
  • Multiple Reflection: This phenomenon occurs when a wave hits a surface and bounces back. By using a closed tube, the sound energy is confined, preventing the sound from spreading in all directions (spherical divergence), which effectively amplifies the sound heard by the doctor.
  • Components: A modern stethoscope consists of a chest piece (which usually has a diaphragm and a bell), tubing, and earpieces. The diaphragm is used for high-frequency sounds, while the bell is used for low-frequency sounds.
  • Acoustic Impedance: The design of the stethoscope helps in matching the acoustic impedance between the air and the body, allowing more sound energy to be transmitted to the doctor's ears.

Important Points

  • Reflection Law: Sound follows the same laws of reflection as light, where the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
  • Application: Apart from stethoscopes, the principle of multiple reflection is also used in megaphones, horns, and musical instruments like trumpets and shehnais to direct sound in a specific direction.
  • Concert Halls: The ceilings of cinema halls and concert halls are often curved so that sound, after reflection, reaches all corners of the hall uniformly.
  • Sound Absorption: Soft materials like curtains or carpets are used in rooms to absorb sound and prevent reverberation, which is the opposite of what is required inside a stethoscope tube.
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Question 335

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Adding dilute hydrochloric acid to zinc granules produces hydrogen gas. This is an example of which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dissolution

  2. BOption (b)

    Mixture formation

  3. COption (c)

    Physical change

  4. DOption (d)

    Chemical change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chemical change

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chemical change.

Key Points

  • A Chemical change is a process where one or more substances are altered into one or more new and different substances. In the given reaction, Zinc granules react with dilute Hydrochloric acid to produce Zinc chloride and Hydrogen gas.
  • This reaction is characterized by the evolution of a gas, which is one of the primary indicators of a chemical transformation. The formation of Hydrogen bubbles (effervescence) around the zinc metal signifies that the original identity of the reactants has changed.
  • Unlike a physical change, this process involves the breaking and forming of chemical bonds. The Zinc (Zn) atoms displace the Hydrogen (H) atoms from the Hydrochloric acid (HCl), resulting in a completely new chemical arrangement.
  • Chemical changes are typically irreversible by simple physical methods like filtration or evaporation. Once the Zinc chloride salt is formed in the solution and Hydrogen gas is released into the atmosphere, the original Zinc metal cannot be recovered by mere physical cooling or mixing.
  • The reaction is also exothermic in nature, meaning it is accompanied by the release of heat, causing the temperature of the reaction vessel to rise. This change in energy is another hallmark of a Chemical change.

Additional Information

  • Chemical Equation: The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2. This shows that one mole of Zinc reacts with two moles of Hydrochloric acid to yield one mole of Zinc chloride and one mole of Hydrogen gas.
  • Types of Chemical Reactions: This specific reaction is classified as a Single Displacement Reaction. In such reactions, a more reactive element (Zinc) displaces a less reactive element (Hydrogen) from its compound.
  • Physical Change: In contrast, a Physical change involves a change in the physical properties of a substance (like shape, size, or state) without changing its chemical composition. Examples include melting of ice or dissolving sugar in water.
  • Mixture Formation: A Mixture is formed when two or more substances are combined physically but not chemically. In a mixture, each component retains its own chemical identity, such as sand in water or air.
  • Dissolution: While dissolution involves a solute dissolving in a solvent, in this context, the zinc is not merely "dissolving" like salt in water; it is reacting chemically to form a new salt and a gas.

Important Points

  • Test for Hydrogen Gas: The Hydrogen gas produced during this reaction is colorless and odorless. It can be identified using the Pop Sound Test; when a burning splinter is brought near the mouth of the test tube, the gas burns with a characteristic "pop" sound.
  • Reactivity Series: Zinc is placed above Hydrogen in the Reactivity Series of metals, which explains why it can successfully displace hydrogen from dilute acids. Metals like Copper or Silver, which are below hydrogen, would not react with dilute HCl.
  • Safety Precautions: Since Hydrogen gas is highly inflammable and Hydrochloric acid is corrosive, this experiment should be performed with care in a laboratory setting with proper safety gear.
  • History: The reaction of metals with acids was one of the earliest methods used by scientists like Henry Cavendish in 1766 to isolate and study Hydrogen, which he called "inflammable air."
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Question 336

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnetic field lines always emerge from the north pole of a magnet and enter the south pole outside the magnet.

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnetic field lines intersect each other.

  3. COption (c)

    The magnetic field at a point is zero when field lines are dense.

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnetic field lines start from the south pole and end at the north pole.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Magnetic field lines always emerge from the north pole of a magnet and enter the south pole outside the magnet.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magnetic field lines always emerge from the north pole of a magnet and enter the south pole outside the magnet.

Key Points

  • Magnetic field lines are imaginary lines used to represent the magnetic field around a magnet. By convention, outside the magnet, these lines emerge from the North pole and merge at the South pole. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is a fundamental property that magnetic field lines never intersect each other. If they did, it would mean that at the point of intersection, a compass needle would point in two different directions simultaneously, which is physically impossible. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The degree of closeness or density of the field lines indicates the relative strength of the magnetic field. The field is strongest where the lines are most dense (crowded), such as near the poles, and weakest where the lines are far apart. It is never zero when lines are dense. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • While the lines go from North to South outside the magnet, inside the magnet, the direction of the field lines is from the South pole to the North pole. This ensures that magnetic field lines form continuous closed loops. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • The tangent drawn at any point on a magnetic field line gives the direction of the magnetic field (B) at that specific point.

Additional Information

  • Magnetic Field Strength: The intensity of a magnetic field is measured in the SI unit called Tesla (T), named after Nikola Tesla. Another commonly used smaller unit is the Gauss (G), where 1 Tesla = 10,000 Gauss.
  • Nature of Poles: Magnetic poles always exist in pairs (dipoles). It is impossible to isolate a single magnetic monopole; if a magnet is broken in half, two smaller magnets, each with its own North and South pole, are created.
  • Earth's Magnetism: The Earth itself acts like a giant bar magnet. Its magnetic North pole is located near the geographic South pole, and its magnetic South pole is located near the geographic North pole, which is why the North end of a compass needle points toward the geographic North.
  • Electromagnetism: In 1820, the Danish scientist Hans Christian Ørsted discovered that an electric current flowing through a wire creates a magnetic field around it, a principle used in electromagnets and electric motors.

Important Points

  • Magnetic Flux: The total number of magnetic field lines passing through a given area is known as magnetic flux. The SI unit for magnetic flux is the Weber (Wb).
  • Force on a Moving Charge: A magnetic field exerts a force on a moving electric charge. This force is perpendicular to both the velocity of the charge and the magnetic field direction, described by the Lorentz Force equation.
  • Magnetic Materials: Materials respond differently to magnetic fields; they are classified as diamagnetic (weakly repelled), paramagnetic (weakly attracted), or ferromagnetic (strongly attracted, like iron, cobalt, and nickel).
  • Applications: Magnetic fields are vital in modern technology, including MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) machines, hard drives for data storage, maglev trains, and generators.
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Question 337

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of concentrated \( H_{2}SO_{4} \) to form:

  1. AOption (a)

    ethyl ethanoate

  2. BOption (b)

    methanol

  3. COption (c)

    acetone

  4. DOption (d)

    sodium acetate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ethyl ethanoate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ethyl ethanoate.

Key Points

  • The reaction between Ethanoic acid (also known as Acetic acid) and Ethanol in the presence of concentrated Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) is a classic example of an esterification reaction.
  • In this chemical process, the carboxylic acid group (-COOH) reacts with the alcohol group (-OH) to form an ester and water.
  • The chemical equation for this reaction is: CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O.
  • The product formed is Ethyl ethanoate, which belongs to the functional group of esters. Hence, the statement regarding the formation of ethyl ethanoate is correct.
  • Concentrated Sulfuric acid acts as both a catalyst to speed up the reaction and a dehydrating agent to remove the water molecule formed, shifting the equilibrium toward the product side according to Le Chatelier's Principle.

Additional Information

  • Ethanoic Acid (CH3COOH):
  • Commonly known as Acetic acid, it is a colorless liquid with a pungent smell.
  • A 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is known as vinegar, widely used as a preservative in pickles.
  • The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K, often freezing in cold climates, which earned it the name Glacial Acetic Acid.
  • Ethanol (C2H5OH):
  • Commonly referred to as Ethyl alcohol, it is a liquid at room temperature.
  • It is an active ingredient in all alcoholic drinks and is also used as a solvent in medicines like Tincture Iodine, cough syrups, and tonics.
  • Characteristics of Esters:
  • Ethyl ethanoate is a sweet-smelling substance.
  • Because of their pleasant fragrance, esters are extensively used in making perfumes and as flavoring agents in the food industry.
  • They can be converted back into alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid by reacting with an alkali (like NaOH); this reverse process is known as Saponification, used in the manufacture of soaps.

Important Points

  • Other Options Explained:
  • Methanol (CH3OH): This is the simplest alcohol. It is not formed in this reaction; rather, it could be a reactant if one were trying to synthesize Methyl ethanoate.
  • Acetone (CH3COCH3): This is a ketone. It is typically produced by the oxidation of isopropanol and is not a product of the reaction between an acid and an alcohol.
  • Sodium Acetate (CH3COONa): This is a salt formed when Ethanoic acid reacts with a base like Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) or Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), not through esterification with an alcohol.
  • Reaction Conditions: The reaction is usually carried out by heating the mixture. The absence of the acid catalyst would make the reaction extremely slow and inefficient for industrial or laboratory purposes.
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Question 338

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What is formed when ethanol is oxidised using an oxidising agent like alkaline \( KMnO_{4} \)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methane

  2. BOption (b)

    Methanoic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Acetone

  4. DOption (d)

    Ethanoic acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ethanoic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ethanoic acid.

Key Points

  • When ethanol is treated with a strong oxidizing agent like alkaline KMnO4 (potassium permanganate) or acidified K2Cr2O7 (potassium dichromate) and heated, it undergoes complete oxidation to form ethanoic acid.
  • The reaction proceeds as follows: CH3CH2OH (Ethanol) + 2[O] (from alkaline KMnO4 + heat) → CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid) + H2O (Water).
  • An oxidizing agent is a substance that provides oxygen to another substance or removes hydrogen from it. In this reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as a powerful oxidant that converts the alcohol group (-OH) into a carboxylic acid group (-COOH).
  • The oxidation of primary alcohols like ethanol typically passes through an intermediate stage called ethanal (acetaldehyde), but strong oxidizing agents ensure the reaction does not stop there and continues until the carboxylic acid is formed. Hence, the correct answer is Ethanoic acid.

Additional Information

  • Ethanoic Acid (CH3COOH):
  • It is commonly known as acetic acid. A 5-8% solution of ethanoic acid in water is called vinegar, which is widely used as a preservative in pickles.
  • Its melting point is 290 K, and it often freezes during winter in cold climates, leading to the name glacial acetic acid.
  • Ethanol (C2H5OH):
  • Commonly known as ethyl alcohol, it is a liquid at room temperature and is the active ingredient in all alcoholic drinks.
  • Because it is a good solvent, it is also used in medicines like tincture iodine, cough syrups, and many tonics.
  • Other Options Analysis:
  • Methane (CH4): This is the simplest alkane. It is not produced by the oxidation of ethanol; rather, it is a primary component of biogas and CNG.
  • Methanoic acid (HCOOH): Also known as formic acid, it is found in ant stings. It is formed by the oxidation of methanol, not ethanol.
  • Acetone (CH3COCH3): This is the simplest ketone. It is generally formed by the oxidation of secondary alcohols (like propan-2-ol), whereas ethanol is a primary alcohol.

Important Points

  • Role of Heat: The reaction between ethanol and alkaline KMnO4 requires warming/heating to initiate the conversion process efficiently.
  • Identification of Functional Groups: This reaction is a classic example of changing a hydroxyl group (-OH) into a carboxyl group (-COOH), representing an increase in the number of oxygen atoms within the molecule.
  • Neutralization: Since the reaction uses alkaline KMnO4, the ethanoic acid formed initially reacts with the alkali to form a salt (potassium ethanoate), which is later converted to free acid by acidification.
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Question 339

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What happens to the energy of an object just before it hits the ground while falling freely?

  1. AOption (a)

    Its potential energy is at its highest, and its kinetic energy becomes lowest.

  2. BOption (b)

    It has equal amounts of potential and kinetic energy.

  3. COption (c)

    Its kinetic energy becomes highest, and its potential energy becomes lowest.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both its kinetic and potential energy become zero.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Its kinetic energy becomes highest, and its potential energy becomes lowest.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Its kinetic energy becomes highest, and its potential energy becomes lowest.

Key Points

  • According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can only be transformed from one form to another. In a free-falling object, the total mechanical energy (the sum of potential and kinetic energy) remains constant at every point of its motion.
  • Potential Energy (PE) is the energy possessed by an object due to its position or height. It is calculated by the formula PE = mgh, where m is mass, g is acceleration due to gravity, and h is height. As the object falls, its height decreases, causing its potential energy to decrease continuously. Just before hitting the ground, the height is approximately zero, making the potential energy lowest.
  • Kinetic Energy (KE) is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion. It is calculated by the formula KE = 1/2 mv², where v is velocity. During a free fall, the object accelerates downward due to gravity at a rate of approximately 9.8 m/s². This constant acceleration increases the velocity of the object, reaching its maximum value just before impact. Therefore, its kinetic energy becomes highest at this point.
  • As the object falls, there is a continuous transformation of gravitational potential energy into kinetic energy. At the highest point (before release), the energy is entirely potential; just before hitting the ground, it is almost entirely kinetic. Hence, the statement that kinetic energy is highest and potential energy is lowest is correct.

Additional Information

  • Mechanical Energy: This refers to the sum of Kinetic Energy and Potential Energy. In the absence of air resistance, the total mechanical energy of a system is conserved. For a falling body, Total Energy = mgh + 1/2 mv².
  • Acceleration due to Gravity (g): On Earth, this value is approximately 9.8 m/s². It means that for every second an object falls, its velocity increases by 9.8 meters per second. This acceleration is independent of the mass of the object in a vacuum.
  • Free Fall: A state of motion where the only force acting upon an object is gravity. In real-world scenarios, air resistance (drag) eventually balances the force of gravity, leading to a constant speed known as terminal velocity, but in basic physics problems, air resistance is usually neglected.
  • Work-Energy Theorem: This theorem states that the work done by all forces acting on a particle equals the change in its kinetic energy. In this case, the work done by gravity as the object descends increases its kinetic energy.

Important Points

  • At the maximum height, the velocity of the object is zero, which means the kinetic energy is zero and potential energy is at its maximum.
  • At the mid-point of the fall, the potential energy lost is exactly equal to the kinetic energy gained (assuming it started from rest), meaning PE equals KE at this specific height.
  • Immediately after hitting the ground, the kinetic energy is transformed into other forms of energy such as heat energy, sound energy, and potential energy of deformation, following the principle of energy conservation.
  • The mass of the object does not affect the final velocity just before hitting the ground in a vacuum, as seen in the equation v = √(2gh), where mass m cancels out.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 340

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Zinc can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.

Reason (R): Zinc is less reactive than copper.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is true, but R is false.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A is true, but R is false.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A) states that Zinc can displace copper from a copper sulphate solution. This occurs because Zinc is a more chemically active metal than copper, allowing it to substitute the copper ions in the solution. Hence, statement A is correct.
  • Reason (R) claims that Zinc is less reactive than copper. In the electrochemical series or reactivity series, Zinc is positioned well above copper, indicating it has a higher tendency to lose electrons and form cations. Hence, statement R is incorrect.
  • The chemical reaction for this process is: Zn (solid) + CuSO4 (aqueous) → ZnSO4 (aqueous) + Cu (solid).
  • During this reaction, the blue color of the copper sulphate solution gradually fades and eventually becomes colorless as zinc sulphate is formed, while reddish-brown copper metal deposits on the zinc strip.
  • Since the Assertion is a factually correct chemical observation and the Reason is a factually incorrect statement regarding metal activity, the correct choice is that A is true but R is false.

Additional Information

  • Reactivity Series: It is an arrangement of metals in the descending order of their reactivities. Metals like Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are at the top, while noble metals like Gold (Au) and Platinum (Pt) are at the bottom. Zinc (Zn) has an atomic number of 30 and is more reactive than Hydrogen, whereas Copper (Cu) with atomic number 29 is less reactive than Hydrogen.
  • Displacement Reaction: This is a type of reaction where a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound. This can be categorized into single displacement (like the Zn-CuSO4 reaction) and double displacement reactions.
  • Zinc (Zn): It is a transition metal found in Group 12 of the periodic table. It is widely used in galvanization to prevent the rusting of iron because it is more reactive and oxidizes preferentially.
  • Copper (Cu): It is a transition metal in Group 11. It is known for its high electrical conductivity and ductility. In nature, it often exists as sulfide ores like chalcopyrite.
  • Copper Sulphate (CuSO4): Often referred to as blue vitriol, this salt is commonly used as a fungicide and in electroplating. Its pentahydrate form is characteristically bright blue.

Important Points

  • Redox Reaction: The displacement of copper by zinc is also a redox (reduction-oxidation) reaction. Zinc undergoes oxidation (loses electrons to become Zn2+), and Copper ions undergo reduction (gain electrons to become Cu metal).
  • Practical Application: This principle is utilized in Voltaic cells or Daniel cells, where the difference in electrode potential between Zinc and Copper is used to generate electricity.
  • Observation in Laboratory: If a copper wire is placed in a zinc sulphate solution, no reaction occurs because copper cannot displace zinc due to its lower reactivity.
  • Valency: In this reaction, both Zinc and Copper typically exhibit a valency of +2.

How should I prepare for General Science in RRB Group D?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.