RRB Group D · Topic Collection

General Science PYQs

Core physics, chemistry, biology, human health, diseases, environmental science, and everyday scientific observations.

2600 Total Questions104 Official PapersYears: 2018–2026Search in General Science
Showing questions 241–260 of 2600Page 13 of 100
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 241

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is a practical application of Archimedes’ Principle in daily life?

  1. AOption (a)

    Design of ships and submarines

  2. BOption (b)

    Using a prism for light dispersion

  3. COption (c)

    Using a thermometer

  4. DOption (d)

    Operating a pendulum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Design of ships and submarines

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Design of ships and submarines.

Key Points

  • Archimedes’ Principle states that when a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force (buoyancy) that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.
  • The design of ships and submarines is the most common practical application of this principle. Ships are designed with a large volume so they can displace an amount of water whose weight is equal to the weight of the ship, allowing them to float. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Submarines use the principle by utilizing ballast tanks. When these tanks are filled with water, the submarine's weight increases, making it denser than water and causing it to sink; when water is pumped out and replaced with compressed air, the submarine becomes lighter and surfaces.
  • Using a prism for light dispersion is based on the phenomenon of refraction, where different wavelengths of light bend at different angles when passing through a medium. It is not related to fluid mechanics or buoyancy. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The working of a thermometer is based on the thermal expansion of liquids like mercury or alcohol. As temperature increases, the liquid expands and moves up the capillary tube. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Operating a pendulum involves Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) and is governed by the laws of gravity and inertia. The time period depends on the length of the string and acceleration due to gravity. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Lactometers: These are instruments used to determine the purity of a milk sample. They work on Archimedes’ Principle by measuring the relative density of milk compared to water.
  • Hydrometers: These devices are used for finding the density of liquids. A hydrometer sinks deeper in low-density liquids and stays higher in high-density liquids, following the laws of buoyancy.
  • Buoyant Force (Upthrust): This is the upward force exerted by a fluid on an object. The magnitude of this force is directly proportional to the density of the fluid and the volume of the displaced fluid.
  • Relative Density: It is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of water at 4 degrees Celsius. It has no units and is often measured using tools designed around Archimedes’ Principle.

Important Points

  • Law of Flotation: An object will float if the weight of the object is equal to or less than the weight of the liquid displaced by its submerged part.
  • Historical Context: The principle was discovered by the Greek mathematician Archimedes of Syracuse in the 3rd Century BC while he was trying to determine the purity of a gold crown for King Hiero II.
  • Applications in Aviation: Hot air balloons and blimps also follow this principle. The hot air inside the balloon is less dense than the surrounding cool air, creating enough upthrust to lift the weight of the balloon.
  • Mathematical Expression: The Buoyant Force (Fb) is calculated as Fb = ρ × V × g, where ρ (rho) is the density of the fluid, V is the displaced volume, and g is the acceleration due to gravity (approx 9.8 m/s²).
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 242

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A tube that grows out of the pollen grain travels through the style to reach which of the following parts of the flower?

  1. AOption (a)

    Petal

  2. BOption (b)

    Ovary

  3. COption (c)

    Filament

  4. DOption (d)

    Sepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ovary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ovary.

Key Points

  • The process of fertilization in flowering plants (angiosperms) begins when a pollen grain lands on the stigma of a compatible flower. This event is known as pollination.
  • Upon landing, the pollen grain absorbs moisture and germinates, producing a specialized structure called a pollen tube.
  • The pollen tube acts as a conduit for the male gametes. It penetrates the tissues of the stigma and grows downward through the elongated, slender part of the carpel known as the style.
  • The primary function of the style is to provide a pathway for the tube to travel toward the basal, swollen part of the pistil, which is the ovary.
  • The ovary contains one or more ovules. The pollen tube eventually enters the ovary and reaches an ovule, typically through a small opening called the micropyle, to deliver the sperm cells for fertilization.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Ovary.

Additional Information

  • Structure of the Carpel (Female Reproductive Part):
  • Stigma: The topmost, often sticky part of the carpel that receives pollen grains during pollination.
  • Style: The stalk-like structure that connects the stigma to the ovary and supports the growth of the pollen tube.
  • Ovary: The enlarged basal portion of the pistil where ovules are produced. After fertilization, the ovary develops into a fruit.
  • Structure of the Stamen (Male Reproductive Part):
  • Anther: The pollen-producing part of the stamen, usually located at the tip.
  • Filament: The thin, thread-like stalk that supports the anther and positions it to facilitate pollen dispersal.
  • Non-Reproductive Parts of a Flower:
  • Petals: Collectively called the corolla, these are often brightly colored to attract pollinators like insects and birds.
  • Sepals: Collectively called the calyx, these are leaf-like structures at the base of the flower that protect the bud during its early development stages.
  • Fertilization Outcomes:
  • In angiosperms, the fusion of a male gamete with the egg cell inside the ovule results in a zygote.
  • The ovule eventually matures into a seed, while the surrounding ovary wall matures into the pericarp of the fruit.

Important Points

  • Double Fertilization: This is a unique feature of flowering plants where one sperm cell fertilizes the egg to form a zygote, and another sperm cell fuses with two polar nuclei to form the triploid endosperm, which provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
  • Chemotropism: The growth of the pollen tube toward the ovary is an example of chemotropism, as the tube is guided by chemical secretions (such as calcium ions and sugars) released by the ovule and synergid cells.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 243

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following are the most reactive and the least reactive metals, respectively, in a reactivity series?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnesium, Gold

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium, Gold

  3. COption (c)

    Magnesium, Silver

  4. DOption (d)

    Potassium, Gold

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Potassium, Gold

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potassium, Gold.

Key Points

  • The Reactivity Series (also known as the activity series) is an arrangement of metals in descending order of their chemical reactivity. It helps in predicting how metals will react with water, acids, and other metal salts.
  • Potassium (K) is placed at the very top of the reactivity series, making it the most reactive metal. Due to its high reactivity, it reacts vigorously with oxygen and water even at room temperature.
  • Gold (Au) is placed at the bottom of the reactivity series, making it the least reactive metal. It is often referred to as a noble metal because it does not react with air, water, or most acids under standard conditions.
  • The general order of the series from high to low reactivity is: Potassium (K) > Sodium (Na) > Calcium (Ca) > Magnesium (Mg) > Aluminium (Al) > Zinc (Zn) > Iron (Fe) > Tin (Sn) > Lead (Pb) > [Hydrogen (H)] > Copper (Cu) > Mercury (Hg) > Silver (Ag) > Gold (Au).
  • Metals like Magnesium and Sodium are also highly reactive but are placed below Potassium. Silver is less reactive than Copper but more reactive than Gold.

Additional Information

  • Potassium (K):
  • It is an Alkali Metal belonging to Group 1 of the periodic table with atomic number 19.
  • Because it reacts explosively with water to produce Hydrogen gas and heat, it must be stored under kerosene or paraffin oil to prevent contact with moisture and air.
  • It has a very low ionization energy, meaning it loses its single valence electron very easily to form K+ ions.
  • Gold (Au):
  • It is a Transition Metal with atomic number 79.
  • It is highly malleable and ductile, and its resistance to corrosion and oxidation makes it ideal for jewelry and electronic components.
  • It is often found in nature in its native state (pure form) because it does not readily form compounds with other elements.
  • Magnesium (Mg) and Silver (Ag):
  • Magnesium (Atomic number 12) reacts with boiling water or steam but is less violent than Potassium.
  • Silver (Atomic number 47) is used in coinage and photography; while it tarnishes in the presence of sulfur, it is still significantly less reactive than base metals.

Important Points

  • Displacement Reactions: A more reactive metal (like Potassium or Zinc) can displace a less reactive metal (like Copper or Silver) from its oxide or salt solution.
  • Hydrogen Reference: Hydrogen is included in the series as a reference point. Metals placed above Hydrogen can displace it from dilute acids to release hydrogen gas, whereas metals below Hydrogen (like Copper, Silver, Gold) cannot.
  • Extraction Methods: The reactivity of a metal determines its extraction method. Highly reactive metals (Potassium, Sodium, Calcium) are extracted via electrolysis of their molten chlorides, while moderately reactive metals (Zinc, Iron) are reduced using carbon (coke).
  • Electropositivity: Reactivity is directly related to electropositivity. Potassium is the most electropositive element in this context, having the strongest tendency to lose electrons and form positive ions.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 244

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

In which device is the heating effect of current used to melt a metal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Electric fuse

  2. BOption (b)

    Electric fan

  3. COption (c)

    Electric bulb

  4. DOption (d)

    Electric bell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Electric fuse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Electric fuse.

Key Points

  • An electric fuse is a crucial safety device used in electrical circuits to protect against excessive current. It operates primarily on the principle of the heating effect of electric current, also known as Joule heating.
  • The primary component of a fuse is a short piece of wire made of a material with a low melting point and high resistance, typically an alloy of tin and lead (often in a 63:37 ratio) or sometimes copper or zinc.
  • When the magnitude of the current flowing through the circuit exceeds the specified safety limit (the fuse rating), the heat generated in the fuse wire ($H = I^2Rt$) increases rapidly.
  • As the temperature reaches the melting point of the metal wire, the wire melts and breaks. This action results in an open circuit, which immediately stops the flow of electricity, thereby preventing damage to expensive electrical appliances and hazards like electrical fires.
  • The fuse is always connected in series with the live wire of the circuit to ensure that all current passing into the household or device must first pass through the fuse wire.

Additional Information

  • Electric Bulb:
  • An electric bulb also utilizes the heating effect of current, but for a different purpose. It contains a filament made of Tungsten, which has a very high melting point of approximately 3422 degrees Celsius.
  • The goal here is for the filament to become white-hot and emit light (incandescence) without melting. Therefore, it is the opposite of a fuse in terms of its material's thermal properties.
  • Electric Fan:
  • An electric fan does not rely on the heating effect to function. Instead, it works on the magnetic effect of electric current.
  • It uses an electric motor that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy (rotational motion) through the interaction of magnetic fields.
  • Electric Bell:
  • The electric bell is another application of the magnetic effect of current.
  • It contains an electromagnet that, when energized, attracts an iron armature to strike a gong. It does not use the melting of metal as a functional mechanism.
  • Short Circuit and Overloading:
  • A short circuit occurs when the live wire and neutral wire come into direct contact, causing a sudden, massive surge in current.
  • Overloading occurs when too many high-power appliances are connected to a single socket, drawing more current than the wires can safely handle. In both cases, the electric fuse is the first line of defense.

Important Points

  • Fuse Ratings: Fuses are classified by their current-carrying capacity. For common domestic use, fuses are typically rated at 5 Amperes for lighting and fans, and 15 Amperes for heavy-duty appliances like air conditioners or refrigerators.
  • Modern Alternatives: In modern electrical installations, Miniature Circuit Breakers (MCBs) are increasingly replacing traditional fuses. Unlike a fuse, which must be replaced once it melts, an MCB is a switch that automatically trips to the OFF position during a fault and can be reset manually.
  • Joule's Law: The amount of heat produced in the wire is directly proportional to the square of the current, the resistance of the wire, and the duration for which the current flows. This mathematical relationship is the fundamental reason why the fuse wire melts specifically when the current becomes too high.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 245

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The motion of a freely falling stone is an example of:

  1. AOption (a)

    non-uniform motion

  2. BOption (b)

    rectilinear motion with constant speed

  3. COption (c)

    motion with zero acceleration

  4. DOption (d)

    uniform motion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

non-uniform motion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is non-uniform motion.

Key Points

  • Non-uniform motion is defined as a type of motion where an object covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time. In the case of a freely falling stone, its velocity increases continuously as it descends due to the pull of gravity. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • A stone falling under the influence of gravity alone (ignoring air resistance) experiences a constant acceleration known as acceleration due to gravity (g), which is approximately 9.8 m/s² on the surface of the Earth.
  • Since the speed of the stone is not constant and increases every second by 9.8 m/s, it cannot be classified as uniform motion or rectilinear motion with constant speed. Hence, options 2 and 4 are incorrect.
  • Because there is a definite force (gravitational force) acting on the stone, it possesses a specific acceleration. Therefore, the motion does not have zero acceleration. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
  • The path of the stone is a straight line, making it a rectilinear motion, but because the magnitude of the velocity changes, it is specifically categorized as uniformly accelerated non-uniform motion.

Additional Information

  • Uniform Motion:
  • An object is said to be in uniform motion if it moves along a straight line and covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, regardless of the duration of the time intervals.
  • In this state, the acceleration of the body is zero and the velocity remains constant throughout the journey.
  • Acceleration due to Gravity (g):
  • It is the acceleration gained by an object due to the gravitational force of a massive body like Earth.
  • The standard value of g is 9.80665 m/s². This value varies slightly depending on latitude, altitude, and the geological structure of the region.
  • It is a vector quantity, always directed towards the center of the planet.
  • Rectilinear Motion:
  • This refers to motion in a straight line. It can be of two types: Uniform Rectilinear Motion (constant velocity) and Non-Uniform Rectilinear Motion (changing velocity/accelerated).
  • A falling stone is an example of Non-Uniform Rectilinear Motion.

Important Points

  • Equations of Motion for Free Fall:
  • When an object is dropped from rest (initial velocity u = 0), the equations of motion simplify to: v = gt, h = 1/2 gt², and v² = 2gh.
  • In these equations, v is the final velocity, t is the time taken, and h is the height or displacement.
  • Mass Independence:
  • In a vacuum (where air resistance is absent), all objects fall with the same acceleration (g) regardless of their mass or shape. This was famously demonstrated by Galileo Galilei.
  • Terminal Velocity:
  • In a real atmosphere, as an object falls, air resistance increases with speed. Eventually, the upward air resistance equals the downward weight, and the object stops accelerating, moving at a constant speed called terminal velocity.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 246

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

When an object is placed between the pole (P) and the focus (F) of a concave mirror, what kind of image is formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Virtual, inverted, and diminished

  2. BOption (b)

    Real, inverted, and enlarged

  3. COption (c)

    Virtual, erect, and enlarged

  4. DOption (d)

    Real, inverted, and diminished

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Virtual, erect, and enlarged

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Virtual, erect, and enlarged.

Key Points

  • A concave mirror is a spherical mirror with a reflecting surface that curves inward, resembling the interior of a bowl. It is also known as a converging mirror because it converges light rays that fall on it.
  • When an object is placed between the pole (P) and the principal focus (F) of a concave mirror, the rays of light originating from the object diverge after reflection.
  • Because the reflected rays are diverging, they never meet on the side of the object. Instead, they appear to meet at a point behind the mirror when traced backward. This results in the formation of a virtual image.
  • The image formed in this specific position is erect (upright) and enlarged (magnified), meaning the size of the image is greater than the size of the object. Hence, the correct answer is Virtual, erect, and enlarged.
  • This is a unique case for a concave mirror because, for all other object positions (such as at F, between C and F, at C, or beyond C), the image formed is real and inverted.

Additional Information

  • Common Uses: Due to its ability to form an enlarged and erect image when the object is close, this property of the concave mirror is utilized in shaving mirrors and makeup mirrors to see a larger view of the face. Dentists also use concave mirrors to see large images of the teeth of patients.
  • Image Formation at Other Positions:
  • At Infinity: The image is formed at the focus (F), and it is real, inverted, and highly diminished (point-sized).
  • Beyond Center of Curvature (C): The image is formed between F and C, and it is real, inverted, and diminished.
  • At Center of Curvature (C): The image is formed at C, and it is real, inverted, and the same size as the object.
  • Between C and F: The image is formed beyond C, and it is real, inverted, and enlarged.
  • At Focus (F): The image is formed at infinity, and it is real, inverted, and highly enlarged.
  • Convex Mirrors: Unlike concave mirrors, convex mirrors always form a virtual, erect, and diminished image, regardless of the object's distance from the mirror. They are widely used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles.

Important Points

  • Mirror Formula: The relationship between object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) is given by 1/f = 1/v + 1/u.
  • Magnification (m): It is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object (m = h'/h). It is also expressed as m = -v/u.
  • In the case of an object between P and F, the magnification is positive and greater than 1.
  • Sign Convention: According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, distances measured in the direction of incident light are positive, while those measured against it are negative. For a concave mirror, the focal length is always negative.
  • Radius of Curvature: The distance between the pole and the center of curvature is called the radius of curvature (R), and it is equal to twice the focal length (R = 2f).
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 247

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The magnification (m) produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of _____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    the object height to the image height

  2. BOption (b)

    the image height to the object height

  3. COption (c)

    the focal length to the object distance

  4. DOption (d)

    the object distance to the image distance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the image height to the object height

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the image height to the object height.

  • Magnification (m) produced by a lens is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
  • It is represented by the letter m. If h is the height of the object and h' is the height of the image, then the magnification is given by m = h' / h.
  • Magnification is also related to the object distance (u) and the image distance (v). This relationship is expressed as m = v / u for lenses.
  • It is a unitless quantity or dimensionless because it is the ratio of two similar lengths.
  • The value of magnification gives information about the size and nature of the image formed by the lens relative to the object.
  • Sign Convention for Magnification:
  • If the magnification has a negative sign, the image is real and inverted.
  • If the magnification has a positive sign, the image is virtual and erect.
  • Magnitude of Magnification:
  • If |m| > 1, the image is enlarged (larger than the object).
  • If |m| < 1, the image is diminished (smaller than the object).
  • If |m| = 1, the image is of the same size as the object.
  • Concave Lens:
  • A concave lens (diverging lens) always produces a virtual, erect, and diminished image for all positions of the object.
  • Therefore, the magnification for a concave lens is always positive and less than 1.
  • Convex Lens:
  • A convex lens (converging lens) can produce real or virtual images depending on the object's position.
  • The magnification can be positive (when the object is between the focus and optical center) or negative (when the object is beyond the focus).
  • The Lens Formula is used to calculate image or object distances and is given by 1/f = 1/v - 1/u, where f is the focal length.
  • According to the Cartesian sign convention, the height of the object is usually taken as positive as it is placed above the principal axis.
  • The height of a virtual image is taken as positive, while the height of a real image is taken as negative.
  • In optical instruments like microscopes and telescopes, magnification is a critical factor for determining the resolving power and viewing capacity of the device.
  • The Power of a lens (P) is the reciprocal of its focal length in meters (P = 1/f), and it is measured in Dioptres (D).
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Question 248

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is true for the plants raised by vegetative propagation?

Statement A: Vegetatively propagated plant can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.

Statement B: Vegetatively propagated plants are genetically dissimilar to the parent plant.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement A and statement B is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both Statement A and statement B is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.

Key Points

  • Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in which new plants are produced from the vegetative parts of the parent plant, such as the root, stem, or leaves, without the involvement of seeds.
  • One of the primary advantages of this method is that plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds. This is because the plant bypasses the long juvenile phase associated with seed germination and early growth. Hence, statement A is correct.
  • In vegetative propagation, since the offspring are produced from a single parent without the fusion of gametes (fertilization), the new plants are genetically similar or identical to the parent plant. These plants are often referred to as clones. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
  • This method is particularly useful for plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds, such as Banana, Orange, Rose, and Jasmine.
  • The offspring maintain the desirable characteristics of the parent plant consistently across generations, which is highly beneficial in agriculture and horticulture for maintaining crop quality.

Additional Information

  • Natural Methods of Vegetative Propagation:
  • By Roots: Some plants like Sweet Potato and Dahlia develop adventitious buds on their roots which grow into new plants.
  • By Stems: Modified stems like Tubers (Potato), Rhizomes (Ginger and Turmeric), and Bulbs (Onion) are common natural storage organs used for propagation.
  • By Leaves: Plants like Bryophyllum produce adventitious buds along their leaf margins; when these leaves fall on moist soil, the buds develop into new plantlets.
  • Artificial Methods of Vegetative Propagation:
  • Cutting: A small part of the stem with nodes is buried in the soil, commonly seen in Rose, Sugarcane, and Grapes.
  • Grafting: Joining two different plants (the scion and the stock) so they grow as a single plant, widely used in Mango and Citrus fruits.
  • Layering: A branch of the plant is bent to the ground and covered with soil to induce root formation while still attached to the parent, used for Jasmine and Lemon.

Important Points

  • Genetic Uniformity: Because there is no genetic recombination (which occurs during meiosis in sexual reproduction), there is no variation. While this preserves good traits, it also means the entire population is equally vulnerable to the same diseases or environmental changes.
  • Tissue Culture (Micropropagation): This is a modern technique where plant cells or tissues are grown in a sterile nutrient medium under controlled conditions. It allows for the rapid production of disease-free plants in a very short time and limited space.
  • Survival Rate: Vegetatively propagated plants often have a higher survival rate compared to seedlings because they are already partially developed and have access to the parent's nutrient reserves during the initial stages of growth.
  • Economic Significance: This method is vital for the commercial production of fruits and flowers where uniformity in size, taste, and appearance is required for the market.
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Question 249

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What is the colour of the precipitate formed when silver nitrate reacts with sodium chloride?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yellow

  2. BOption (b)

    Green

  3. COption (c)

    Blue

  4. DOption (d)

    White

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

White

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is White.

Key Points

  • The reaction between Silver Nitrate (AgNO3) and Sodium Chloride (NaCl) is a classic example of a double displacement reaction, also known as a precipitation reaction.
  • When an aqueous solution of Silver Nitrate is added to an aqueous solution of Sodium Chloride, an exchange of ions occurs to form Silver Chloride (AgCl) and Sodium Nitrate (NaNO3).
  • Silver Chloride is highly insoluble in water and settles out of the solution as a solid mass known as a precipitate.
  • The physical observation of this chemical change is the immediate formation of a curdy white precipitate of Silver Chloride. Hence, the statement regarding the white colour is correct.
  • The chemical equation for the reaction is: AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (s) ↓ + NaNO3 (aq).

Additional Information

  • Silver Halides and Colours:
  • While Silver Chloride forms a white precipitate, other silver halides exhibit different colours.
  • Silver Bromide (AgBr) forms a pale yellow or cream-coloured precipitate.
  • Silver Iodide (AgI) forms a distinct bright yellow precipitate.
  • Double Displacement Reaction: This occurs when the cations and anions of two different compounds switch places, forming two entirely new compounds. One of these products must be a precipitate, a gas, or a molecular compound like water for the reaction to proceed.
  • Solubility Rules: According to general solubility rules, all nitrates (NO3-) are soluble in water, while most silver salts (except silver nitrate and silver chlorate) are insoluble. This explains why AgCl precipitates while NaNO3 remains in the dissolved state.
  • Analytical Chemistry: This specific reaction is widely used as a qualitative test to detect the presence of chloride ions in a given substance. If the addition of silver nitrate produces a white precipitate that is soluble in dilute ammonia, the presence of chloride is confirmed.

Important Points

  • Photolytic Decomposition: Silver Chloride is sensitive to light. When exposed to sunlight, the white precipitate of AgCl decomposes into grey metallic silver and chlorine gas.
  • Equation for Decomposition: 2AgCl (s) → 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g) (in the presence of UV light).
  • Historical Use: Due to its light-sensitive nature, silver chloride was fundamentally important in the development of black-and-white photography during the 19th century.
  • Laboratory Safety: Silver nitrate is a strong oxidizing agent and can cause dark stains on the skin and clothes, which is why it must be handled with care in the chemistry laboratory.
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Question 250

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Soap solution appears cloudy.

Reason (R): The soap micelles are large enough to scatter light.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false, but R is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • Assertion (A) states that a soap solution appears cloudy. This occurs because soap molecules do not form a true solution in water at higher concentrations; instead, they form a colloidal solution. Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.
  • Reason (R) explains that soap micelles are large enough to scatter light. In a soap solution, the clusters of molecules, known as micelles, have dimensions typically ranging from 1 to 1000 nanometers. Hence, Reason (R) is correct.
  • When a beam of light passes through a colloidal soap solution, the micelles scatter the light in all directions. This phenomenon is known as the Tyndall Effect.
  • Because the light is scattered rather than passing directly through (as it would in a clear, true solution like salt water), the solution appears translucent or cloudy to the naked eye.
  • Since the scattering of light by these large particles is the direct cause of the visual cloudiness, Reason (R) provides a scientifically accurate explanation for Assertion (A). Hence, both statements are true and R correctly explains A.

Additional Information

  • Structure of Soap Molecules:
  • Soap is a sodium or potassium salt of long-chain carboxylic acids (fatty acids).
  • Each molecule has two distinct parts: a hydrophilic (water-loving) head which is ionic and a hydrophobic (water-fearing) tail made of a long hydrocarbon chain.
  • Micelle Formation:
  • When soap is added to water, the hydrophobic tails cluster together to stay away from water, while the hydrophilic heads face outward into the water.
  • This unique orientation results in the formation of spherical aggregates called micelles.
  • Colloidal Nature:
  • A colloid is a mixture where one substance consisting of microscopic dispersed particles is suspended throughout another substance.
  • Unlike True Solutions (where particle size is less than 1 nanometer), colloids have particles large enough to interfere with light but small enough not to settle down under gravity.

Important Points

  • Critical Micelle Concentration (CMC): This is the specific concentration of surfactants above which micelles begin to form. Below this concentration, soap acts like a normal electrolyte and the solution may appear clearer.
  • Tyndall Effect: Named after the 19th-century physicist John Tyndall, who first studied the scattering of light by colloidal particles in detail. It is the reason why the path of light becomes visible when passing through milk, fog, or a soap solution.
  • Cleaning Action: The cloudiness of the soap solution is also related to its ability to clean. The hydrophobic center of the micelle traps oil and grease, allowing them to be washed away with water.
  • Solubility: Soap is soluble in water, but the formation of large molecular clusters (micelles) changes the optical properties of the resulting mixture from transparent to opaque/cloudy.
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Question 251

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What are the primary products formed during the complete combustion of most carbon compounds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon monoxide and water

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon dioxide, water, and energy

  3. COption (c)

    Alcohols and carboxylic acids

  4. DOption (d)

    Soot and carbon dioxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Carbon dioxide, water, and energy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide, water, and energy.

Key Points

  • Combustion is a chemical process in which a substance reacts rapidly with oxygen and gives off heat. Most carbon compounds are highly flammable and serve as excellent fuels.
  • When carbon compounds (like hydrocarbons) undergo complete combustion, they react with a sufficient supply of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O).
  • This reaction is highly exothermic, meaning it releases a significant amount of energy in the form of heat and light. Hence, the statement that carbon dioxide, water, and energy are the primary products is correct.
  • Saturated hydrocarbons (alkanes) generally give a clean blue flame during complete combustion because the carbon is fully oxidized.
  • The general chemical equation for the complete combustion of a hydrocarbon can be represented as: Fuel + O2 → CO2 + H2O + Energy. For example, the combustion of Methane (CH4) produces one molecule of carbon dioxide and two molecules of water.

Additional Information

  • Incomplete Combustion:
  • This occurs when there is an insufficient supply of air or oxygen.
  • The products of incomplete combustion include carbon monoxide (CO), which is a highly toxic gas, and soot (unburnt carbon).
  • Unsaturated hydrocarbons (like alkenes and alkynes) often undergo incomplete combustion, producing a sooty yellow flame due to the high carbon percentage.
  • Oxidation of Carbon Compounds:
  • While combustion is a type of oxidation, carbon compounds can also be oxidized using oxidizing agents like alkaline potassium permanganate (KMnO4) or acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7).
  • In such controlled oxidation, alcohols can be converted into carboxylic acids.
  • Characteristics of Fuels:
  • Common carbon-based fuels include Coal, Petroleum, and Natural Gas.
  • The calorific value of a fuel is determined by the amount of heat energy produced during its complete combustion. Methane is the primary component of CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) and is preferred because it undergoes cleaner combustion compared to complex hydrocarbons.

Important Points

  • Environmental Impact: While complete combustion is efficient for energy, the release of carbon dioxide (CO2) is a major contributor to the greenhouse effect and global warming.
  • Safety Note: Incomplete combustion in closed spaces (like using charcoal heaters indoors) is dangerous because carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the blood more effectively than oxygen, leading to asphyxiation.
  • Flame Temperature: The temperature of a blue flame (complete combustion) is significantly higher than that of a yellow flame (incomplete combustion), which is why gas stoves are designed to mix air thoroughly with the fuel.
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Question 252

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is a neutralisation reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( Fe + CuSO_{4} \rightarrow FeSO_{4} + Cu \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( NaOH + HCl \rightarrow NaCl + H_{2}O \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( CaCO_{3} \rightarrow CaO + CO_{2} \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( Zn + HCl \rightarrow ZnCl_{2} + H_{2} \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

\( NaOH + HCl \rightarrow NaCl + H_{2}O \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O.

Key Points

  • A neutralisation reaction is a chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react quantitatively with each other to form water and a salt.
  • The reaction NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O involves Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH), which is a strong base, and Hydrochloric Acid (HCl), which is a strong acid. They react to produce Sodium Chloride (NaCl), a neutral salt, and water (H₂O). Hence, the statement representing this reaction is correct.
  • In the reaction Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu, Iron (Fe) displaces Copper (Cu) from the Copper Sulphate solution because iron is more reactive. This is a single displacement reaction, not neutralisation. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The reaction CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ represents the thermal decomposition of Calcium Carbonate into Calcium Oxide and Carbon Dioxide upon heating. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • In the reaction Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂, Zinc (Zn) reacts with Hydrochloric Acid to produce Zinc Chloride and Hydrogen gas. This is another example of a displacement reaction. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Nature of Neutralisation:
  • Neutralisation reactions are generally exothermic in nature, meaning they release heat energy during the process.
  • The heat of neutralisation is the change in enthalpy when one equivalent of an acid is neutralised by one equivalent of a base.
  • pH Scale and Indicators:
  • In a complete neutralisation of a strong acid and a strong base, the resulting solution has a pH value of 7 at 25 degrees Celsius.
  • Phenolphthalein is a common indicator used in these reactions; it turns pink in basic solutions and becomes colourless when the solution is neutralised or acidic.
  • Practical Applications:
  • Antacids: Magnesium Hydroxide, commonly known as Milk of Magnesia, is used to neutralise excess hydrochloric acid in the stomach to treat acidity.
  • Soil Treatment: If the soil is too acidic, farmers add Quick Lime (Calcium Oxide) or Slaked Lime (Calcium Hydroxide) to neutralise it for better crop growth.
  • Insect Stings: The effect of an ant sting, which contains methanoic acid (formic acid), can be neutralised by rubbing moist baking soda (Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate) or calamine solution.

Important Points

  • Types of Salts Formed:
  • A strong acid reacting with a strong base produces a neutral salt (e.g., NaCl).
  • A strong acid reacting with a weak base produces an acidic salt (e.g., Ammonium Chloride).
  • A weak acid reacting with a strong base produces a basic salt (e.g., Sodium Acetate).
  • Arrhenius Theory: According to the Arrhenius definition, an acid provides Hydrogen ions (H+) and a base provides Hydroxide ions (OH-) in aqueous solutions. During neutralisation, these ions combine to form water (H₂O).
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Question 253

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following does NOT represent a pair of isotopes?

  1. AOption (a)

    \( {}^{35}_{17}Cl \text{ & } {}^{38}_{17}Cl \)

  2. BOption (b)

    \( {}^{35}_{17}Cl \text{ & } {}^{37}_{17}Cl \)

  3. COption (c)

    \( {}^{3}_{1}H \text{ & } {}^{2}_{1}H \)

  4. DOption (d)

    \( {}^{1}_{1}H \text{ & } {}^{2}_{1}H \)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

\( {}^{35}_{17}Cl \text{ & } {}^{38}_{17}Cl \)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3517Cl & 3817Cl.

Key Points

  • Isotopes are defined as atoms of the same element that possess the same atomic number (Z) but have different mass numbers (A). This means they have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons in their nuclei.
  • The chemical properties of isotopes are identical because they have the same number of electrons and the same electronic configuration. However, they exhibit different physical properties due to the difference in their masses.
  • In Statement 1, 3517Cl and 3817Cl share the atomic number 17. However, in standard chemistry, the primary stable isotopes of Chlorine are 35Cl and 37Cl. 38Cl is a short-lived radioisotope with a half-life of approximately 37.2 minutes and is not typically considered a standard pair in this context. Hence, statement 1 is the correct answer as it represents an outlier.
  • In Statement 2, 3517Cl and <sup>3717Cl represent the two naturally occurring isotopes of Chlorine, found in a ratio of approximately 3:1 in nature. Hence, statement 2 is correct.</sup>
  • In Statement 3, 31H and <sup>2}_{1H represent Tritium and Deuterium respectively. Both are well-known isotopes of Hydrogen. Hence, statement 3 is correct.</sup>
  • In Statement 4, 11H and <sup>2}_{1H represent Protium and Deuterium, which are the most common isotopes of Hydrogen found in nature. Hence, statement 4 is correct.</sup>

Additional Information

  • Hydrogen Isotopes: Hydrogen is the only element whose isotopes have unique names. Protium (1H) has 0 neutrons, Deuterium (2H) has 1 neutron, and Tritium (3H) has 2 neutrons.
  • Isobars: These are atoms of different chemical elements that have the same mass number but different atomic numbers. An example includes Argon-40 (4018Ar) and Calcium-40 (4020Ca).
  • Isotones: These are atoms of different elements that have the same number of neutrons. For instance, Carbon-14 (146C) and Oxygen-16 (168O) both contain 8 neutrons.
  • Radioisotopes: Some isotopes are unstable and undergo radioactive decay. Examples include Carbon-14 used for carbon dating and Uranium-235 used as fuel in nuclear reactors.
  • Average Atomic Mass: The atomic mass of an element listed on the Periodic Table is the weighted average of the masses of its naturally occurring isotopes. For Chlorine, this value is approximately 35.5 u.

Important Points

  • The concept of isotopes was first proposed by Frederick Soddy in 1913, for which he received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1921.
  • The number of neutrons in an atom can be calculated by subtracting the atomic number (Z) from the mass number (A): n = A - Z.
  • Stable isotopes do not decay into other elements, whereas unstable isotopes (radioisotopes) emit radiation to reach a more stable state.
  • In heavy water (D2O), the Hydrogen atoms are replaced by Deuterium, which is used as a moderator in nuclear power plants.
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Question 254

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Rabi crops are harvested in which season?

  1. AOption (a)

    Summer

  2. BOption (b)

    Autumn

  3. COption (c)

    Winter

  4. DOption (d)

    Monsoon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Summer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Summer.

Key Points

  • Rabi crops are agricultural crops that are sown in the winter season and harvested in the spring or early summer.
  • The sowing of these crops usually begins at the start of winter, specifically from October to December.
  • The harvesting period for Rabi crops occurs during the summer months, primarily from April to June. Hence, the statement is correct.
  • These crops require a relatively cool climate during the growing period but a warm climate during the germination of their seeds and harvesting.
  • Major examples of crops grown in this season include Wheat, Barley, Peas, Gram, and Mustard.
  • The success of Rabi crops in North and North-western parts of India is greatly aided by the Western Temperate Disturbances, which provide much-needed precipitation during the winter months.

Additional Information

  • Kharif Crops:
  • These crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon in different parts of the country, typically in June or July.
  • They are harvested in autumn, specifically during September and October.
  • Key examples include Paddy (Rice), Maize, Jowar, Bajra, Tur (Arhar), Moong, Urad, Cotton, Jute, Groundnut, and Soybean.
  • These crops require high temperatures and high humidity, along with a significant amount of rainfall.
  • Zaid Crops:
  • In between the Rabi and the Kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months (from March to July) known as the Zaid season.
  • Crops produced during this period include Watermelon, Muskmelon, Cucumber, various Vegetables, and Fodder crops.
  • Sugarcane is also associated with this timing but actually takes almost a full year to grow to maturity.
  • Important Agricultural Facts:
  • India is one of the world's largest producers of Wheat (a Rabi crop) and Rice (a Kharif crop).
  • States like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh became major hubs for Rabi production following the Green Revolution in the 1960s.
  • The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the apex body responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in the country.

Important Points

  • Wheat is the most important Rabi crop in India and is a staple food in the North and North-western parts of the country.
  • Irrigation plays a vital role in Rabi cultivation because the winter months are naturally drier compared to the Monsoon season.
  • The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Rabi crops is usually announced by the Government of India before the sowing season to ensure fair returns for farmers.
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Question 255

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the female reproductive system?

  1. AOption (a)

    The cervix connects the ovaries to the uterus.

  2. BOption (b)

    A girl starts producing eggs only after she reaches puberty.

  3. COption (c)

    The fallopian tubes carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

  4. DOption (d)

    The uterus produces eggs that travel through the vagina.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The fallopian tubes carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The fallopian tubes carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

Key Points

  • Fallopian Tubes (Oviducts) are a pair of tubes through which eggs travel from the ovaries to the uterus. They are approximately 10 to 12 cm long. The lining of these tubes contains cilia, which help propel the egg toward the uterus. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The cervix is the lower, narrow portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina. It acts as a gateway for sperm to enter the uterus and for menstrual blood to leave. It does not connect the ovaries to the uterus. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • A girl is born with a fixed number of immature eggs (approximately 1 to 2 million oocytes) in her ovaries. These eggs do not start being produced at puberty; rather, they begin to mature and are released (ovulation) once puberty is reached. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The ovaries are the primary female reproductive organs that produce eggs (ova) and hormones. The uterus (womb) is the muscular organ where a fertilized egg implants and grows into a fetus during pregnancy. The uterus does not produce eggs. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Ovaries: These are almond-shaped glands located on each side of the pelvic cavity. They produce the female gametes and secrete hormones like estrogen and progesterone, which regulate the menstrual cycle and secondary sexual characteristics.
  • Uterus (Womb): It is an inverted pear-shaped muscular organ. Its inner lining, the endometrium, thickens every month in preparation for a potential pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, this lining is shed during menstruation.
  • Vagina: Often called the birth canal, it is an elastic, muscular tube that connects the cervix to the external genitalia. It receives the penis during intercourse and serves as the exit route for a baby during childbirth.
  • Fertilization: This biological process usually occurs in the ampulla (a specific region) of the fallopian tube. Once the sperm and egg fuse to form a zygote, it travels to the uterus for implantation.

Important Points

  • Menarche: This term refers to the first occurrence of menstruation in a female, usually happening between the ages of 11 and 15. It signifies the onset of reproductive capability.
  • Menopause: This is the stage in a woman's life, typically between the ages of 45 and 55, when menstrual cycles stop permanently and the ovaries cease to release eggs.
  • Hormonal Regulation: The female reproductive system is strictly controlled by the pituitary gland hormones, namely Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH), which trigger the maturation and release of eggs.
  • Gamete Facts: The human egg is one of the largest cells in the human body (about 0.1 mm), visible to the naked eye, whereas the sperm is one of the smallest.
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Question 256

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is a characteristic of liquids?

  1. AOption (a)

    No fixed shape or volume

  2. BOption (b)

    Fixed shape but variable volume

  3. COption (c)

    No fixed shape but fixed volume

  4. DOption (d)

    Fixed shape and volume

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No fixed shape but fixed volume

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is No fixed shape but fixed volume.

Key Points

  • Liquids are a state of matter characterized by their ability to flow and take the shape of the container they occupy, which means they have no fixed shape. Hence, statement 3 is the correct characteristic.
  • Despite changing shape, a liquid maintains a fixed volume because its particles are close together and held by relatively strong intermolecular forces that prevent them from expanding to fill the entire space like a gas.
  • The particles in a liquid have enough kinetic energy to move past one another, which accounts for the property of fluidity.
  • Unlike gases, liquids are almost incompressible even under high pressure due to the minimal intermolecular spaces between the particles.
  • When poured into a container, a liquid will fill the bottom part first and maintain a distinct surface level, unlike solids which retain their own shape or gases which occupy the entire volume.

Additional Information

  • Solids:
  • Matter in the solid state has both a fixed shape and a fixed volume.
  • The particles are packed tightly in a regular lattice structure and can only vibrate about their fixed positions.
  • They have the highest density and strongest intermolecular forces compared to liquids and gases.
  • Gases:
  • Matter in the gaseous state has no fixed shape and no fixed volume.
  • The particles are far apart and move in random motion at high speeds, filling any available space.
  • Gases are highly compressible and have very low density.
  • Properties of Liquids:
  • Viscosity: This refers to the resistance to flow. For instance, honey is more viscous than water.
  • Surface Tension: The cohesive forces between molecules at the surface of a liquid cause it to behave like a stretched membrane.
  • Boiling Point: The temperature at which a liquid turns into a gas at a given pressure.

Important Points

  • Kinetic Molecular Theory: This theory explains that the physical state of matter is determined by the balance between the kinetic energy of the particles and the attractive forces between them.
  • Diffusion: This is the process where particles move from a high concentration to a low concentration. Diffusion occurs in liquids but is much slower than in gases due to the density of the particles.
  • Phase Change: A liquid can change into a solid through freezing (loss of energy) or into a gas through evaporation or boiling (gain of energy).
  • Density: Generally, the density of a substance in its liquid state is slightly lower than in its solid state, with the notable anomaly of water, which is most dense at 4°C.
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Question 257

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

A ball is dropped from rest. What will be the velocity of the ball after falling 20 m?

(Take, g = 10 m/s2)

  1. AOption (a)

    40.0 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    20.0 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    50.0 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    10.0 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

20.0 m/s

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 20.0 m/s.

Key Points

  • The problem can be solved using the equations of motion under constant acceleration. Since the ball is dropped from rest, the initial velocity (u) is 0 m/s.
  • The ball falls through a vertical distance (s) of 20 meters. This represents the displacement of the object.
  • The acceleration (a) acting on the ball is the acceleration due to gravity (g), which is given as 10 m/s^2. Hence, the values for u, s, and g are established.
  • The third equation of motion relates velocity, acceleration, and distance: v^2 = u^2 + 2as. Plugging in the known values, we get v^2 = 0^2 + 2(10)(20).
  • Calculating the product, v^2 = 400. Taking the square root of 400, we find the final velocity (v) to be 20.0 m/s. Hence, the calculated velocity is 20.0 m/s.

Additional Information

  • Equations of Motion:
  • These equations were formulated by Sir Isaac Newton and describe the relationship between velocity, time, acceleration, and displacement for an object moving with uniform acceleration.
  • The three primary equations are: v = u + at, s = ut + 1/2 at^2, and v^2 = u^2 + 2as.
  • In this context, v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration, t is the time, and s is the displacement.
  • Acceleration due to Gravity:
  • On Earth, the average value of g is approximately 9.8 m/s^2, but for simplicity in competitive exams and school calculations, it is often taken as 10 m/s^2.
  • The value of g varies slightly depending on the location (latitude and altitude) on the Earth's surface.
  • This acceleration is always directed downwards towards the center of the Earth.
  • Free Fall Concept:
  • A free-falling object is an object that is falling under the sole influence of gravity.
  • In a vacuum, all objects fall at the same rate regardless of their mass, as demonstrated by Galileo Galilei.

Important Points

  • Units and Dimensions: The SI unit for velocity is meters per second (m/s), and for acceleration, it is meters per second squared (m/s^2). It is essential to ensure units are consistent before applying formulas.
  • Sign Convention: While solving physics problems, defining a direction as positive is crucial. If downward motion is considered positive, then both acceleration (g) and displacement (s) will be positive.
  • Mass Independence: Note that the mass of the ball was not provided and is not required to calculate the final velocity in a free fall scenario, assuming air resistance is negligible.
  • Kinematics Applications: These principles are used in various fields including engineering, ballistics, and aerospace to predict the motion of projectiles and falling bodies.
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Question 258

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which part of Bryophyllum develops new plantlets for vegetative propagation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Root

  2. BOption (b)

    Leaf margin

  3. COption (c)

    Stem

  4. DOption (d)

    Flower

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Leaf margin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leaf margin.

Key Points

  • Bryophyllum (often called the air plant or miracle leaf) is a well-known example of a plant that undergoes vegetative propagation through its leaves.
  • The leaf margins of Bryophyllum possess special notches where adventitious buds develop.
  • These buds have the potential to grow into new plantlets while still attached to the parent leaf or after the leaf falls onto moist soil. Hence, the statement regarding leaf margins is correct.
  • Once these plantlets touch the ground, they develop their own roots and grow into independent plants, allowing the species to spread rapidly without the need for seeds.
  • This process is a form of asexual reproduction, meaning the new plants are genetically identical to the parent plant.

Additional Information

  • Vegetative Propagation:
  • It is a type of asexual reproduction in which new plants are produced from roots, stems, leaves, and buds. Since reproduction is through the vegetative parts of the plant, it is known as vegetative propagation.
  • Plants produced by this method take less time to grow and bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
  • Propagation by Roots:
  • Certain plants like Sweet potato and Dahlia can give rise to new plants from their modified roots. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect in the context of Bryophyllum.
  • Propagation by Stem:
  • Many plants reproduce via underground stems. For example, Potato propagates through "eyes" (axillary buds on the tuber), and Ginger or Turmeric propagates through rhizomes.
  • Cacti produce new plants when their parts (stems) get detached from the main plant body. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect for Bryophyllum.
  • Propagation by Flowers:
  • Flowers are generally the reproductive parts of a plant involved in sexual reproduction (producing seeds), rather than vegetative propagation. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Important Points

  • Natural Vegetative Propagules: These are units of vegetative propagation such as runners, rhizomes, suckers, tubers, offsets, and bulbs.
  • Water Hyacinth: Often called the "Terror of Bengal," it propagates vegetatively at a phenomenal rate through offsets and can spread over a water body in a very short period.
  • Agave: This plant utilizes bulbils (fleshy buds) for vegetative reproduction, which develop on the floral axis.
  • Significance: This method is essential for plants that have lost the capacity to produce viable seeds, such as banana, orange, rose, and jasmine.
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Question 259

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements is true about the potential energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    It cannot be converted into other forms of energy.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is only present when an object is moving.

  3. COption (c)

    It depends on the object’s motion.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is energy stored due to position or condition.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is energy stored due to position or condition.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is energy stored due to position or condition.

Key Points

  • Potential Energy is defined as the energy stored in an object because of its specific position, arrangement, or state. Unlike kinetic energy, it does not require the object to be in motion to exist. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • Potential energy can be transformed into various other forms of energy, such as kinetic energy, thermal energy, or electrical energy. For instance, water stored at a height in a dam has potential energy that converts into kinetic energy as it falls. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • It is not dependent on motion; rather, it is energy "at rest" or "stored." Kinetic energy is the form of energy that is strictly present only when an object is moving. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The magnitude of potential energy depends on the spatial configuration (like height or distance) or internal condition (like tension in a spring) of the object, not its velocity or speed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Types of Potential Energy:
  • Gravitational Potential Energy: This is the energy an object possesses due to its vertical position or height. The formula used to calculate it is PE = mgh, where m is mass, g is acceleration due to gravity (approx 9.8 m/s²), and h is height.
  • Elastic Potential Energy: This is energy stored as a result of deforming an elastic object, such as stretching a rubber band or compressing a spring.
  • Chemical Potential Energy: This energy is stored within the chemical bonds of a substance. Examples include the energy found in food, batteries, and fuels like gasoline.
  • SI Unit: The Standard International unit for measuring potential energy is the Joule (J), named after the English physicist James Prescott Joule.
  • Work-Energy Theorem: In physics, work done on an object to change its position or configuration is stored as potential energy. For example, lifting a 10 kg weight to a height of 2 meters requires work that remains in the object as stored energy.

Important Points

  • Conservation of Mechanical Energy: In an isolated system without friction or air resistance, the sum of Potential Energy and Kinetic Energy remains constant. This is a fundamental principle in classical mechanics.
  • Reference Point: Potential energy is always measured relative to a zero-point or reference level, such as the ground or sea level. If the height is zero at the reference point, the gravitational potential energy is also zero.
  • Real-world Applications:
  • Hydropower: Dams use the gravitational potential energy of water to spin turbines.
  • Archery: A drawn bow stores elastic potential energy which is released to propel the arrow.
  • Construction: A pile driver uses potential energy by lifting a heavy weight to a high position before dropping it.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 05 Feb, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
View full paper

Question 260

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which activity of insects directly causes loss of nutrients in plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Absorption of cell sap

  2. BOption (b)

    Consumes only fallen leaves

  3. COption (c)

    Laying eggs on the plant

  4. DOption (d)

    Drilling into the soil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Absorption of cell sap

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Absorption of cell sap.

Key Points

  • Many insect pests such as aphids, jassids, whiteflies, and scale insects feed by sucking the cell sap from plants.
  • Plant sap contains essential nutrients, sugars, minerals, and water required for plant growth.
  • When insects absorb cell sap, they directly remove these nutrients from the plant.
  • This results in stunted growth, yellowing of leaves, wilting, and reduced crop yield.
  • Therefore, absorption of cell sap directly causes loss of nutrients in plants.

Additional Information

  • Consumes only fallen leaves:
  • Does not directly remove nutrients from living plants.
  • Laying eggs on the plant:
  • May damage the plant indirectly, but does not directly cause nutrient loss.
  • Drilling into the soil:
  • Some insects live in soil, but this activity does not directly remove nutrients from plant tissues.

Important Points

  • Sucking pests: Aphids, Whiteflies, Jassids, Mealybugs.
  • Chewing pests: Caterpillars, Grasshoppers, Beetles.
  • Sucking insects damage plants by removing cell sap and may also transmit plant diseases.
  • Loss of sap leads to reduced photosynthesis and lower crop productivity.

How should I prepare for General Science in RRB Group D?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.