General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Satara district.

Key Points

• Karad, a prominent city in the state of Maharashtra, is located within the Satara district. It has gained significant national attention for its excellence in urban waste management.
• In April 2025, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) officially recognized the city for achieving 100% segregation, collection, and processing of both sanitary and biomedical waste.
• This milestone reflects the city's commitment to the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) 2.0, which emphasizes making cities "Garbage Free" and ensuring the scientific processing of all categories of waste.
• The recognition highlights the successful implementation of decentralized waste processing models, where biomedical waste from hospitals and sanitary waste from households are handled without contaminating regular municipal solid waste. Hence, the correct answer is Satara district.
• The city's administration utilized advanced tracking and specialized collection vehicles to ensure that no hazardous waste reaches the landfills, setting a benchmark for other Grade-C municipal councils in India.

Additional Information

• Geographical Significance:
• Karad is situated at the confluence (Sangam) of the Krishna and Koyna rivers. This confluence is locally known as "Preeti Sangam", which translates to the "Confluence of Love."
• The city is located at an altitude of approximately 566 meters and is a major educational and industrial hub in Western Maharashtra.
• Satara District:
• The district was the seat of the Maratha Empire in the 18^th century and served as the capital under Chhatrapati Shahu I.
• It is home to the famous Kaas Plateau (Valley of Flowers), which is a UNESCO World Natural Heritage Site.
• Biomedical Waste Management:
• Management of such waste is governed by the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016, which require the segregation of waste into color-coded bags (Yellow, Red, White, and Blue) to prevent health risks.
• The achievement in 2025 signifies that Karad has successfully integrated these rules into its daily municipal operations.
• Comparison with other Options:
• Indore district (Madhya Pradesh) is consistently ranked as India's cleanest city in the Swachh Survekshan but is distinct from the specific recognition given to Karad.
• Coimbatore district is located in Tamil Nadu and is known for its textile industry, while Dehradun district is the capital of Uttarakhand.

Important Points

• Swachh Survekshan: It is an annual survey of cleanliness, hygiene, and sanitation in villages, cities, and towns across India, launched as part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in 2016.
• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs: This ministry is the nodal agency for the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) and is headed by a Union Cabinet Minister.
• Waste Segregation: The 100% segregation target involves separating Wet waste (biodegradable), Dry waste (recyclable), and Domestic Hazardous waste (including sanitary napkins and diapers) at the source.
• Environmental Impact: By processing 100% of biomedical waste, Karad prevents the spread of infectious diseases and reduces the soil and groundwater pollution often caused by unscientific disposal.

The correct answer is Sudarsan Pattnaik.

Key Points

• Sudarsan Pattnaik, a world-renowned sand artist from Odisha, created a magnificent sand sculpture at Puri Beach to celebrate and depict the themes of the 2025 Union Budget.
• His art often coincides with major national events, and for the Union Budget 2025, he used approximately 5 tons of sand to create a sculpture that symbolized economic growth and the "Viksit Bharat" (Developed India) vision. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The sculpture typically features the Finance Minister or symbolic representations of the Budget, such as the digital tablet, alongside slogans that highlight the government's fiscal goals for the year 2025.
• Sudarsan Pattnaik is known for using his unique medium of sand art to raise awareness about socio-economic policies, making complex subjects like the Union Budget accessible to the general public.
• The artwork usually incorporates vibrant colors and intricate details to represent various sectors like Agriculture, Infrastructure, and Technology, which are often the focal points of the Budget presentation.

Additional Information

• About Sudarsan Pattnaik:
• He was born in 1977 in Puri, Odisha. He is a self-taught artist who started creating sand art at the age of 7.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, in 2014 for his immense contribution to the field of art.
• He has represented India in more than 60 international sand art championships and has won numerous awards, including the Golden Sand Art Award.
• He also holds a Guinness World Record for creating the world's tallest sandcastle, which stood at 48 feet and 8 inches in 2017.
• Other Sand Artists mentioned:
• Sandip Pal: Another notable sand artist from West Bengal, known for his work in various national exhibitions, though less frequently associated with the major Union Budget sculptures in Puri.
• Manas Kumar Sahoo: A prominent sand artist also hailing from Puri, Odisha, who has participated in reality shows like India's Got Talent and creates sculptures on social issues.
• Biranchi Narayan: An artist involved in the traditional and contemporary art scene of Odisha, contributing to the state's rich cultural heritage.

Important Points

• The Union Budget of India:
• The Union Budget, also referred to as the Annual Financial Statement under Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is presented every year on February 1^st.
• The 2025 Union Budget was presented by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, marking a significant milestone in India's fiscal planning for the 2025-26 financial year.
• The budget process involves the Finance Ministry, the NITI Aayog, and various spending ministries to determine the allocation of funds for the upcoming fiscal year.
• Public celebrations and artistic tributes like those by Pattnaik help in fostering a sense of national participation in the country's economic journey.

The correct answer is 171 million.

Key Points

• According to the World Bank’s 2025 assessment (based on the latest consumption data), India has made significant strides in poverty reduction, with approximately 171 million people moving out of extreme poverty between 2011-12 and 2022-23.
• The assessment utilizes data from the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2022-23 to estimate poverty levels following a long gap since the last official survey in 2011-12.
• The extreme poverty rate in India, measured at the international poverty line of $2.15 per day (2017 PPP), declined from 18.7% in 2011-12 to 4.6% in 2022-23.
• The reduction was particularly pronounced in rural areas, where the poverty headcount ratio dropped from 21.2% to 5.3% over the same period.
• The report indicates that real per capita consumption grew at an average annual rate of 2.9%, contributing significantly to the lifting of millions out of the lowest income bracket.

Additional Information

• International Poverty Line: The World Bank updated the global extreme poverty line to $2.15 per person per day in September 2022, based on 2017 Purchasing Power Parities (PPP). This threshold reflects the average of the national poverty lines of the world’s poorest countries.
• Purchasing Power Parity (PPP): This is a metric used to compare the economic productivity and standards of living between countries by adjusting for the relative cost of local goods and services and the inflation rates of the countries.
• Poverty and Inequality Platform (PIP): This is the World Bank’s interactive tool for reporting on global poverty and inequality statistics, where the updated Indian data for 2022-23 was integrated to provide a more accurate global poverty headcount.
• Government Interventions: Significant contributors to this decline include social welfare schemes such as the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), which provided free foodgrains to approximately 800 million people, and the Jal Jeevan Mission, which improved health outcomes through piped water.
• Urban Poverty Trends: While rural poverty saw a massive decline, urban poverty also decreased from 12.1% in 2011-12 to 2.7% in 2022-23, showing that growth was largely inclusive across different geographical segments.

Important Points

• Data Gap: India did not release an official Consumer Expenditure Survey (CES) between 2011-12 and 2022-23, leading to various independent estimations by economists before the World Bank’s 2025 official update confirmed the 171 million figure.
• HCES 2022-23: The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), conducted this survey with a revised methodology, which the World Bank adjusted to ensure comparability with previous years.
• Gini Index: The data also suggests a slight reduction in consumption inequality. The Gini coefficient for rural India fell from 0.287 to 0.266, indicating a narrowing gap between the rich and the poor in terms of consumption.
• Global Context: India’s successful reduction of extreme poverty is a critical component of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 1, which aims to end poverty in all its forms everywhere by 2030.

The correct answer is Jio World Convention Centre, Mumbai.

Key Points

• The Global Fintech Fest (GFF) is one of the largest fintech conferences in the world, and the 2025 edition is scheduled to be held at the Jio World Convention Centre, Mumbai.
• The event is organized by the Payments Council of India (PCI), the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), and the Fintech Convergence Council (FCC).
• The 2025 edition follows the massive success of the 2024 fest, which took place from August 28 to 30, 2024, at the same venue.
• The primary objective of the fest is to provide a premier global platform for fintech founders, policymakers, regulators, and investors to collaborate and shape the future of the financial ecosystem.
• The Jio World Convention Centre in Mumbai has become the permanent home for this event due to its world-class infrastructure and its location in India’s financial capital.

Additional Information

• Growth of GFF: Since its inception, the Global Fintech Fest has grown significantly, attracting over 1,000+ speakers and 800+ exhibitors from more than 100 countries.
• Significance of Mumbai: As the Financial Capital of India, Mumbai serves as the hub for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), major public and private sector banks, and the headquarters of numerous fintech unicorns.
• Role of NPCI: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), established in 2008, is the backbone of retail payments in India. It is responsible for the revolutionary Unified Payments Interface (UPI), which is a major theme at every GFF.
• Themes and Innovation: The fest focuses on critical themes such as Artificial Intelligence (AI) in finance, Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), sustainable finance, and regulatory technology (RegTech).
• India’s Fintech Adoption: India currently boasts the world’s highest fintech adoption rate at 87%, which is significantly higher than the global average of 64%, making the GFF a central event for the global economy.

Important Points

• Jio World Convention Centre: Located in the Bandra Kurla Complex (BKC), it is an iconic landmark in Mumbai that spans over 1,00,000 square meters, designed to host international summits and cultural events.
• Global Recognition: The Global Fintech Fest has previously seen participation from high-profile leaders, including the Prime Minister of India and the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, highlighting its importance in national policy-making.
• Date of GFF 2025: The 2025 edition is slated to take place between September 3 and September 5, 2025, continuing the tradition of being a landmark annual event.

The correct answer is Tom Watson.

Key Points

• The winning goal for Sunderland AFC in the 2025 EFL Championship playoff final was scored by Tom Watson.
• The match was held at the iconic Wembley Stadium in London, which serves as the traditional venue for the Football League play-off finals.
• Sunderland secured their promotion to the Premier League for the 2025-2026 season following this decisive victory.
• Tom Watson, a highly-rated academy graduate and winger, cemented his status as a club hero by converting the chance that ended the club's stay in the second tier.
• The 2025 final represented a major milestone for the Black Cats, concluding a successful 2024-25 campaign under their technical leadership.
• While Dan Neil was instrumental in the midfield during the final, he was not the final goalscorer. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Tom Watson provided the clinical finish required to secure the 1-0 (or equivalent winning margin) victory. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Jack Clarke, despite being a top performer throughout the year, did not score the winner in this specific fixture. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Eliezer Mayenda played a role in the attacking front but did not record the winning goal in the 2025 final. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• EFL Championship Playoff Final:
• Often described as the "richest game in football," the winner of this match earns promotion to the Premier League, which is estimated to be worth over £170 million in guaranteed revenue over three seasons.
• The final is contested by the teams finishing between 3^rd and 6^th in the Championship league table after the 46-game regular season.
• Tom Watson (The Player):
• Tom Watson is a English professional footballer who progressed through the Sunderland Academy of Light.
• Known for his pace and technical ability, he has represented England at various youth levels, including the U17 and U18 squads.
• His breakthrough into the first team during the 2024-25 season was a key factor in Sunderland's attacking potency.
• Sunderland AFC Context:
• The club is based in the North East of England and plays its home matches at the Stadium of Light, which has a capacity of over 49,000.
• The 2025 promotion marked a return to the top flight, a goal the club had pursued intensely since their previous relegation.

Important Points

• Match Significance: The victory in May 2025 allowed Sunderland to join the elite clubs in the English football pyramid, significantly boosting the local economy in Sunderland.
• Tactical Execution: The winning goal came in the second half of the match, highlighting the team's endurance and the tactical substitutions made by the manager.
• Squad Contributors: Players like Dan Neil (Captain) and Jack Clarke provided the foundation for the season, but the spotlight in the final remained on the winning goalscorer, Tom Watson.
• Historical Context: This win was Sunderland's first successful Championship playoff final victory in several years, breaking a period of playoff heartbreak for the fans.

The correct answer is Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan.

Key Points

• Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan was honored with the inaugural Vigyan Ratna award in 2024 for his monumental contributions to the field of Biological Sciences.
• The Vigyan Ratna is the highest recognition in the newly instituted Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar series, awarded for lifetime achievements and contributions in any field of science and technology.
• Prof. Padmanabhan is a distinguished biochemist and a former Director of the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, where he has spent decades advancing research in molecular biology.
• His research is globally recognized, particularly his work on malaria parasites and the development of biochemical pathways that have led to better understanding and treatment of the disease.
• The awards were officially presented by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, during a ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan on August 23, 2024.
• This was the first edition of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, which aims to acknowledge the high-level collaborative and individual efforts of scientists in India.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP):
• It is the national award for scientists, technologists, and innovators in India, replacing several older individual ministry awards to create a unified and prestigious framework.
• The awards are given in four categories: Vigyan Ratna (Lifetime Achievement), Vigyan Shri (Distinguished Contribution), Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (for young scientists up to 45 years), and Vigyan Team (for 3 or more scientists).
• In 2024, a total of 33 awards were announced across various domains of science and technology.
• Other Awardees in the Options:
• Prof. Jayant Bhalchandra Udgaonkar: He was awarded the Vigyan Shri in the field of Biological Sciences in 2024.
• Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi: He received the Vigyan Shri for his contributions to Atomic Energy.
• Dr. Anandharamakrishnan: He was honored with the Vigyan Shri in the domain of Agricultural Science.
• Selection and Fields:
• The winners were selected by the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Nomination Committee (RVPNC), headed by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
• The awards cover 13 domains, including Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Sciences, Medicine, Engineering Sciences, and Space Science.
• Significance of the Dates:
• The awards were announced on August 7, 2024, and the ceremony was held on August 23, which is celebrated as National Space Day to mark the success of the Chandrayaan-3 mission.

The correct answer is To analyse cancer’s molecular hallmarks for personalised diagnosis and therapy.

Key Points

• The Indian AI tool known as OncoMark was introduced by Indian researchers and computational biologists in November 2025 to address the complexities of cancer treatment.
• The primary purpose of OncoMark is to analyse cancer’s molecular hallmarks, which are the biological signatures that drive tumor growth and resistance to treatment. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• It utilizes Machine Learning (ML) and Artificial Intelligence (AI) to interpret vast amounts of genomic data and proteomic profiles to provide a personalised diagnosis.
• The tool identifies specific genetic mutations and biomarkers, allowing doctors to move away from generic treatments toward personalised therapy tailored to the individual’s unique cancer profile.
• By predicting how a patient will respond to certain drugs, OncoMark helps in selecting the most effective targeted therapy, thereby reducing unnecessary toxicity and improving survival rates.
• While maintaining patient data (option 1) and awareness (option 2) are important, they are not the functional core of this specific diagnostic AI tool.

Additional Information

• Molecular Hallmarks of Cancer:
• These are the functional capabilities acquired by cancer cells during the multi-step development of tumors.
• Key hallmarks include sustaining proliferative signaling, evading growth suppressors, resisting cell death, and enabling replicative immortality.
• OncoMark maps these hallmarks using computational algorithms to determine the aggressiveness of the disease.
• Personalised Medicine (Precision Oncology):
• This is a medical model that proposes the customization of healthcare, with medical decisions and treatments being tailored to a subgroup of patients.
• In the context of India, precision oncology is gaining momentum to treat diverse genetic demographics found across the country.
• The use of tools like OncoMark in 2025 represents a significant milestone in indigenous medical technology.
• AI in Indian Healthcare:
• The Government of India has been promoting AI-driven solutions under initiatives like the National Digital Health Mission (NDHM).
• OncoMark stands as an example of high-tech clinical decision support systems (CDSS) that help oncologists in tertiary care hospitals.
• The tool helps in prognostic analysis, meaning it can predict the likely course and outcome of the disease based on Big Data analysis.

Important Points

• Data Privacy and Ethics: As OncoMark processes sensitive genetic information, it adheres to data protection guidelines to ensure patient confidentiality while facilitating personalised therapy.
• Diagnostic Accuracy: Early reports from November 2025 suggest that AI tools like OncoMark can reduce diagnostic errors by up to 30% compared to traditional pathological methods alone.
• Targeted Therapy: Unlike chemotherapy, which affects all fast-growing cells, targeted therapy identified by OncoMark focuses specifically on the molecular changes that turn normal cells into cancer.

The correct answer is 8-15 May 2025.

Key Points

• The Yonex-Sunrise All India Senior Ranking Badminton Tournament 2025 is a premier domestic badminton event scheduled to be held from 8 May to 15 May 2025.
• The tournament is hosted in Moinabad, located in the Rangareddy district of Telangana, India.
• The specific venue for the matches is the Chetan Anand Badminton Academy (CABA), which is known for its world-class facilities and coaching for elite athletes.
• The event is officially sanctioned and conducted under the aegis of the Badminton Association of India (BAI), the national governing body for the sport.
• The competition features five primary categories: Men’s Singles, Women’s Singles, Men’s Doubles, Women’s Doubles, and Mixed Doubles.
• The tournament serves as a critical platform for senior athletes to earn ranking points that determine their national standing and eligibility for international selections.

Additional Information

• Badminton Association of India (BAI):
• Formed in the year 1934, the BAI is responsible for the promotion and development of badminton across the country.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi and is a member of the Badminton World Federation (BWF) and Badminton Asia.
• The current President of BAI is Dr. Himanta Biswa Sarma.
• Significance of Senior Ranking Tournaments:
• These tournaments are part of a circuit where performance directly impacts a player's National Ranking.
• Points earned in these events are used to decide the seeding of players in the Senior National Badminton Championships.
• They provide exposure to upcoming talent to compete against established international stars from India.
• Yonex-Sunrise Partnership:
• Yonex-Sunrise is the official title sponsor and equipment partner for the majority of BAI sanctioned tournaments in India.
• The partnership helps in providing high-quality shuttlecocks, court mats, and financial support for the smooth conduct of events.
• Telangana as a Badminton Hub:
• The state of Telangana, particularly Hyderabad and its surrounding areas like Moinabad, has become the epicenter of Indian badminton.
• The region is home to several elite training centers, including the Pullela Gopichand Badminton Academy and the Chetan Anand Badminton Academy.

Important Points

• Tournament Format:
• The 8-day schedule typically involves a Qualifying Draw for the first few days (approximately 8-11 May) followed by the Main Draw (approximately 12-15 May).
• The qualifying rounds allow non-ranked or lower-ranked players to earn a spot in the final bracket.
• Prize Money:
• For All India Senior Ranking tournaments, the total prize money pool is usually around INR 5 Lakhs to 10 Lakhs, distributed among the winners, runners-up, and semi-finalists of all five categories.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Players must possess a unique BAI Player ID and be active members of their respective State Badminton Associations to register for the 2025 tournament.
• While labeled as "Senior," players from the U-19 category (Junior) are often permitted to participate to gain experience in the higher circuit.
• Chetan Anand:
• The venue's namesake, Chetan Anand, is a former Commonwealth Games medalist and a recipient of the Arjuna Award. He achieved a career-high world ranking of No. 10 in 2009.

The correct answer is Al Hilal.

Key Points

• The Saudi Arabian club Al Hilal established a new world record for the most consecutive victories in men’s professional top-flight soccer, reaching an unprecedented 34 consecutive wins.
• This historic winning streak began in September 2023 and concluded in April 2024. The record was officially acknowledged by Guinness World Records.
• The streak spanned multiple high-level competitions, including the Saudi Pro League, the King’s Cup, and the AFC Champions League.
• By surpassing the previous benchmarks, Al Hilal cemented its status as a dominant force in global football, maintaining this record well into 2025.
• The 34^th victory was secured in the Saudi Super Cup final against Al-Ittihad in April 2024, which finally capped the record-breaking run before a subsequent defeat in the AFC Champions League.

Additional Information

• Previous Record Holders:
• Prior to Al Hilal, the world record for the longest winning streak in top-flight football was held by The New Saints (Wales), who achieved 27 consecutive wins in the 2016-17 season.
• Before the Welsh side, the legendary Dutch club Ajax held the record with 26 wins set in 1971-72, featuring the iconic Johan Cruyff.
• Al Hilal SFC:
• Based in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, Al Hilal is the most decorated club in Asia, having won multiple AFC Champions League titles.
• During the record-breaking run, the team was managed by Jorge Jesus and featured prominent international stars like Aleksandar Mitrović, Rúben Neves, Sergej Milinković-Savić, and Kalidou Koulibaly.
• European Streaks:
• In the Big Five European leagues, Bayern Munich (Germany) holds a significant record of 23 consecutive wins achieved in 2020.
• Manchester City (England) holds the English record with 21 consecutive wins across all competitions during the 2020-21 season.
• Real Madrid (Spain) achieved a notable streak of 22 wins in 2014 under Carlo Ancelotti.
• League Influence:
• The massive investment in the Saudi Pro League in 2023 and 2024 allowed Al Hilal to assemble a world-class squad, facilitating their record-shattering performance on the Asian and global stage.

The correct answer is Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS).

Key Points

• The Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) is celebrating its centenary year (100^th anniversary) in October 2025.
• To commemorate this historic milestone, the Government of India announced the release of a special postage stamp and a ₹100 commemorative coin.
• The organization was founded on September 27, 1925, on the auspicious day of Vijayadashami, by Dr. Keshav Baliram Hedgewar.
• The primary headquarters of the organization is located in Nagpur, Maharashtra, which serves as the center for its nationwide activities.
• The decision to issue the ₹100 coin and postage stamp is a recognition of the organization's long-standing influence on India's social, cultural, and political landscape over the last century.

Additional Information

• History and Foundation of RSS:
• The RSS was established with the aim of providing character training through Hindu discipline and to unite the Hindu community to form a Hindu Rashtra.
• Dr. Keshav Baliram Hedgewar, the founding Sarsanghchalak, was a physician from Nagpur who sought to create a nationalist volunteer corps.
• Following Dr. Hedgewar, M.S. Golwalkar (popularly known as Guruji) served as the second Sarsanghchalak and significantly expanded the organization's ideological reach.
• Other Organizations Mentioned:
• Indian National Congress (INC): Founded in December 1885 by A.O. Hume, it played a central role in the Indian Independence Movement. Its centenary was celebrated in 1985.
• All India Radio (AIR): Established in 1936 as the national public radio broadcaster of India, it is one of the largest radio networks in the world and is officially known as Akashvani since 1956.
• Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS): Founded on July 23, 1955, by Dattopant Thengadi, it is the largest central trade union organization in India and is an affiliate of the Sangh Parivar.
• Commemorative Coins in India:
• The Ministry of Finance issues commemorative coins to honor prominent personalities, historical events, or organizations on their 75^th, 100^th, or 125^th anniversaries.
• The ₹100 coin for the RSS centenary is a non-circulating legal tender intended for collection and historical documentation.

Important Points

• Structure of RSS: The organization operates through daily gatherings known as Shakhas, where volunteers (Swayamsevaks) participate in physical drills and ideological discussions.
• Sangh Parivar: The RSS is the parent organization of a large family of affiliated bodies known as the Sangh Parivar, which includes the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), Vishwa Hindu Parishad (VHP), and Akhil Bharatiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP).
• Sarsanghchalak: The current Sarsanghchalak (Chief) of the RSS is Mohan Bhagwat, who has held the position since 2009.
• Centenary Goals: As part of the 2025 celebrations, the organization aims to expand its presence to every Mandal (cluster of villages) across India to strengthen its grassroots outreach.

The correct answer is Astana, Kazakhstan.

Key Points

• The Second China–Central Asia Summit was officially scheduled to be held in Astana, the capital city of Kazakhstan, from 16 to 18 June 2025.
• This high-level diplomatic event brought together the President of China and the leaders of the five Central Asian nations: Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan.
• The summit serves as the primary platform for the C+C5 (China plus Central Asia) cooperation mechanism, which was elevated to the heads-of-state level to strengthen regional ties.
• During the inaugural summit in 2023, it was agreed that the hosting of the summit would alternate between China and the Central Asian countries every two years. Hence, the correct answer is Astana, Kazakhstan.

Additional Information

• Historical Context: The First China–Central Asia Summit took place in May 2023 in the city of Xi'an, China. This landmark event resulted in the Xi'an Declaration and established a blueprint for long-term cooperation in trade and security.
• Geopolitical Significance: The C+C5 mechanism is a strategic initiative by Beijing to consolidate its influence in Central Asia, focusing on the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) and providing an alternative to traditional regional structures dominated by other global powers.
• Economic Cooperation: China is currently one of the largest trading partners for the region. Total trade volume between China and the five Central Asian countries exceeded $89 billion in 2023, driven largely by energy exports and infrastructure projects.
• Key Themes: The 2025 Summit in Astana focused on expanding interconnectivity, including the development of the Trans-Caspian International Transport Route (Middle Corridor) and enhancing cooperation in digital economy and green energy.

Important Points

• Permanent Secretariat: To ensure the continuity of the summit's objectives, a China-Central Asia Secretariat was officially inaugurated in March 2024 in Xi'an, China.
• Energy Security: Central Asia remains vital to China's energy needs, specifically through the China–Central Asia Gas Pipeline, which traverses Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Kazakhstan before entering Xinjiang.
• Security Dimensions: Beyond economics, the summits address regional stability, focusing on the "three evils" of terrorism, separatism, and extremism, often coordinating with Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) frameworks.
• Visa-Free Regimes: In the lead-up to and following these summits, China has expanded mutual visa-free travel agreements with countries like Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan to promote people-to-people exchanges and tourism$.

The correct answer is Women-only ride pools.

Key Points

• The Chandigarh administration introduced the Cab Aggregator Rules 2025 to regulate the operations of on-demand transportation services like Uber and Ola within the Union Territory.
• A primary focus of the 2025 guidelines is the enhancement of passenger safety, particularly for women. Under these rules, women riders are specifically permitted to choose Women-only ride pools when opting for shared mobility services. Hence, the correct option is Women-only ride pools.
• This feature allows female passengers to ensure that their co-passengers in a "pool" or shared ride are exclusively female, thereby addressing safety concerns and providing a more comfortable commuting experience in Chandigarh.
• The policy mandates that all aggregators must update their mobile applications to include this functionality, making it easily accessible to users during the booking process.
• The rules were formulated by the State Transport Authority (STA) to bring consistency to the operations of bike taxis, auto-rickshaws, and cabs while prioritizing the security of vulnerable groups.

Additional Information

• Safety Infrastructure: The 2025 rules require every vehicle registered under an aggregator to be equipped with a GPS-based tracking system and a functional Panic Button (SOS). These buttons must be integrated with the Police Control Room (PCR) and the aggregator's 24x7 control center to ensure immediate response during emergencies.
• Electric Vehicle (EV) Transition: In alignment with Chandigarh’s goal to become a Model Solar City and its specific Electric Vehicle Policy, the aggregator rules encourage the shift toward Zero-Emission Vehicles. Aggregators are expected to convert a significant portion of their fleet to EVs by the year 2030.
• Driver Regulations: Drivers must undergo rigorous background verification by the Police before they are allowed to operate on the platform. The policy also limits the working hours of drivers to prevent fatigue-related accidents, typically capping active driving time at 12 hours in a 24-hour period.
• Fare Transparency: The State Transport Authority has set a ceiling for surge pricing to protect consumers from exorbitant rates during peak hours. Aggregators cannot charge more than the maximum fare prescribed by the Administration of the Union Territory.
• Data Management: Aggregators are legally bound to store ride data, including route maps and passenger details, for a minimum period of one year to assist in any legal or criminal investigations if required.

Important Points

• Grievance Redressal: The policy makes it mandatory for aggregators to appoint a Grievance Redressal Officer based in India to handle complaints regarding service quality, behavior, or safety breaches within a stipulated timeframe.
• Licensing Fees: Aggregators must pay a registration fee and an annual security deposit to the Transport Department to maintain their license to operate within the city.
• Bike Taxis: The 2025 rules also provide a legal framework for Bike Taxis in Chandigarh, emphasizing that they must follow the same safety and EV transition guidelines as four-wheeler cabs.
• Compliance: Failure to adhere to the Women-only ride pool provision or other safety mandates can lead to heavy monetary penalties or the cancellation of the aggregator's license by the STA.

The correct answer is Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary.

Key Points

• The Odisha Government has formally moved a proposal to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to upgrade the Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary to a National Park.
• Once the notification is finalized by September 2025, it will officially become the third National Park in the state of Odisha. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Currently, Odisha has only two designated National Parks: Similipal National Park in Mayurbhanj and Bhitarkanika National Park in Kendrapara.
• The sanctuary is spread over an area of approximately 342.91 square kilometers and is located in the Sambalpur district.
• The upgrade is intended to provide higher statutory protection to the habitat, which boasts one of the highest herbivore densities in the country and is a significant Eco-Sensitive Zone.

Additional Information

• Geographical Features:
• Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is situated on the Barapahad hills and serves as a crucial catchment area for the Hirakud Dam, which is one of the longest earthen dams in the world.
• The sanctuary is famous for its "dry deciduous forests" and its proximity to the Mahanadi River, making it a prime spot for ecotourism.
• Flora and Fauna:
• It is home to a significant population of Indian Gaur (Bison), Leopards, and the four-horned antelope (Chousingha).
• The Hirakud Reservoir adjacent to the sanctuary attracts more than 1.5 lakh migratory birds of nearly 50 species during the winter season.
• Historical Significance:
• The sanctuary has historical links to the legendary freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai, who utilized the dense forests of Barapahad as a base for his guerrilla warfare against the British during the 1857 uprising.

Important Points

• Legal Framework:
• A National Park is established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Unlike a sanctuary, no human activity or private land rights are permitted inside a National Park unless specifically authorized.
• The State Government has the power to declare an area a National Park by notification if it is considered to be of adequate ecological, faunal, or floral importance.
• Comparison with Other Options:
• Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary: Part of this sanctuary was declared a National Park in 1998. It is a Ramsar site known for its mangroves and saltwater crocodiles.
• Satkosia Gorge Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Angul district, it was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2007. It is famous for the Gharial conservation program in the Mahanadi River.
• Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary: Situated in the Nuapada district, it is known for the rare wild buffalo and has been proposed as a Tiger Reserve to expand the conservation area for big cats in the central Indian landscape.

The correct answer is 353.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has significantly ramped up its regulatory oversight, leading to the penalization of 353 entities during the financial year 2024-25 (FY25).
• These penalties were imposed on various regulated entities, including Public Sector Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks, Co-operative Banks, and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) for non-compliance with regulatory guidelines.
• The total monetary penalty collected by the central bank during this period amounted to approximately ₹124.63 crore, reflecting a rigorous stance on maintaining financial discipline.
• The RBI exercises these powers under Section 47A(1)(c) read with Section 46(4)(i) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and relevant sections of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The primary reasons for these enforcement actions included lapses in KYC (Know Your Customer) norms, Anti-Money Laundering (AML) standards, cybersecurity frameworks, and interest rate transparency.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• The RBI was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• It was originally established in Calcutta (now Kolkata) but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
• While originally privately owned, the RBI was nationalised in 1949 and is now fully owned by the Government of India.
• The current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is Shaktikanta Das, who has emphasized the "trust but verify" approach toward financial institutions.
• Enforcement Framework:
• The Enforcement Department (ED) of the RBI was set up in April 2017 to separate the process of identifying regulatory violations from the process of imposing penalties.
• The department ensures that the monetary penalties are proportionate to the gravity of the regulatory breach to serve as an effective deterrent.
• A major chunk of the 353 penalties in FY25 was directed toward Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs), which have been under intense scrutiny for governance issues.
• The RBI Annual Report and Trend and Progress of Banking in India report provide detailed breakdowns of these enforcement actions and the health of the Indian banking system.

Important Points

• Key Compliance Areas: The RBI focuses on Credit Information Reporting, Fair Practices Code (FPC), and outsourcing of financial services. Lapses in these areas often trigger high-value penalties.
• Financial Stability: By penalizing 353 entities, the RBI aims to safeguard depositors' interests and ensure the overall stability of the financial ecosystem in India.
• Supervisory Action Framework (SAF): For Co-operative Banks, the RBI uses the SAF to initiate corrective actions, which can include both monetary fines and restrictions on lending or deposit-taking.

The correct answer is 50 times.

Key Points

• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has introduced a new regulatory framework to manage the frequency of non-financial transactions on the UPI platform.
• Effective from 1 August 2025, a daily limit has been set for checking bank balances through a single UPI application.
• According to the new rules, a user is allowed to perform a maximum of 50 times bank balance enquiries per day through one UPI app.
• The primary objective of this move is to reduce the excessive load on the Core Banking Systems (CBS) of member banks, which often face congestion due to frequent balance checks.
• By capping these non-financial requests, the NPCI aims to prioritize actual financial transactions and improve the overall success rate of payments by minimizing Technical Declines (TD).
• This limit is applicable per user, per bank account, across a single UPI third-party application provider (TPAP) like Google Pay, PhonePe, or Paytm.

Additional Information

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI):
• UPI is a real-time payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to facilitate inter-bank transactions through mobile devices.
• It was officially launched in April 2016 by the then RBI Governor Dr. Raghuram Rajan.
• The system powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application, merging several banking features and seamless fund routing.
• National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
• NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
• It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• It was incorporated in December 2008 and is registered as a Section 8 company under the Companies Act 2013.
• Transaction Limits on UPI:
• Standard UPI transactions usually have a daily limit of Rs. 1 lakh, although this can vary depending on the bank and the category of the transaction.
• For specific categories like Capital Markets, Collections, and Insurance, the limit was increased to Rs. 2 lakhs.
• In December 2023, the RBI raised the UPI transaction limit for Hospitals and Educational Institutions to Rs. 5 lakhs per transaction.

Important Points

• Impact on Users: While the 50 times limit is generous for average users, it targets bots or automated scripts that might be stressing the banking infrastructure.
• System Efficiency: High volumes of balance enquiries do not generate revenue for banks but cost them in terms of server maintenance and processing power. Reducing this volume ensures that the Core Banking System (CBS) remains available for critical fund transfers.
• UPI LITE: To further offload the main banking servers, NPCI encourages the use of UPI LITE for small-value transactions (up to Rs. 500), which does not require a PIN and stores the balance on-device.
• Data Security: The NPCI continuously updates its security protocols and guidelines to protect the Digital India ecosystem and ensure consumer trust in digital payments.

The correct answer is Global Technology Summit, 2025.

Key Points

• The Global Technology Summit (GTS) 2025 was held in New Delhi from 10 to 12 April 2025. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The theme of the summit for the year 2025 was “Sambhavna”, which translates to “Possibility”, highlighting the transformative potential of emerging technologies.
• This summit is a premier event that brings together policymakers, industry leaders, and technologists to discuss the geopolitical and economic implications of technology.
• The 2025 edition focused heavily on the regulation and advancement of Artificial Intelligence (AI), Semiconductors, and Quantum Computing.
• The event served as a platform for India to showcase its Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) and its role as a leader in the Global South for technological cooperation.

Additional Information

• Digital India Summit, 2025:
• This summit focuses on the progress of the Digital India program, launched in 2015, which aims to transform the country into a digitally empowered society.
• It focuses on e-governance, broadband connectivity, and digital literacy rather than the broader geopolitical tech themes of “Sambhavna”. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• India Internet Governance Forum (IIGF), 2025:
• The IIGF is a multi-stakeholder platform that discusses public policy issues related to Internet governance.
• It follows the principles of the United Nations Internet Governance Forum and focuses on topics like cybersecurity and net neutrality. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• World Startup Summit, 2025:
• This event is dedicated to the entrepreneurial ecosystem, connecting founders, venture capitalists, and investors.
• Its primary goal is to foster innovation and business scaling rather than diplomatic technology policy. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Geopolitical Context:
• The Global Technology Summit is typically co-hosted by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of India and Carnegie India.
• It has become a vital part of India’s tech-diplomacy, addressing how data sovereignty and critical technologies affect international relations.

Important Points

• Significance of the Theme: The word “Sambhavna” emphasizes a shift from uncertainty to opportunity in the digital age, reflecting India's vision of self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) in high-tech sectors.
• Key Participants: The 2025 summit saw participation from over 50 countries, including G20 members and ASEAN partners, highlighting the global importance of New Delhi as a tech hub.
• Focus on AI Ethics: A major portion of the April 2025 discussions was dedicated to establishing global norms for Responsible AI and mitigating the risks of deepfakes and misinformation.

The correct answer is INS Arnala.

Key Points

• The INS Arnala is the lead ship of the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) project, designed specifically to bolster the Indian Navy's capabilities in coastal waters.
• It was built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata. The contract for eight such vessels was signed between the Ministry of Defence and GRSE in April 2019.
• The vessel is named after the Arnala Island, located off the coast of Vasai, Maharashtra, which holds significant maritime historical importance from the era of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
• The primary role of INS Arnala includes anti-submarine warfare operations in coastal waters, Low Intensity Maritime Operations (LIMO), and mine-laying operations.
• Equipped with advanced sonar and torpedo launchers, the ship is designed to detect and neutralize enemy submarines in shallow waters where larger vessels may struggle to operate efficiently.

Additional Information

• Project ASW SWC:
• This project aims to replace the aging Abhay-class corvettes of the Indian Navy.
• The ships have a displacement of approximately 750 tons and can achieve a maximum speed of 25 knots.
• These crafts are powered by water-jet propulsion, which provides high maneuverability in shallow coastal regions.
• INS Nilgiri:
• It is the lead ship of Project 17A stealth frigates.
• Built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), these ships feature advanced stealth features, weapons, and sensors.
• INS Surat:
• This is the fourth and final ship of the Project 15B (Visakhapatnam-class) guided-missile destroyers.
• It represents one of the most advanced destroyer classes in the Indian Navy, named after the commercial capital of Gujarat.
• INS Vaghsheer:
• It is the sixth and final submarine of the Kalvari-class (Project 75), based on the Scorpene design.
• These are diesel-electric attack submarines designed for various missions including anti-surface warfare and intelligence gathering.

Important Points

• Indigenization: The ASW SWC ships like INS Arnala boast over 80% indigenous content, aligning with the Aatmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) initiative.
• Specifications: The craft has a length of 77 meters and is equipped with lightweight torpedoes and ASW rockets to counter sub-surface threats effectively.
• Strategic Depth: By securing the coastal waters, these shallow-water crafts allow the Indian Navy's larger capital ships, like aircraft carriers and destroyers, to focus on deep-sea blue-water operations.
• Operational Range: The vessel has an endurance of 1,800 nautical miles, ensuring a persistent presence across the Indian coastline.

The correct answer is 100 m.

Key Points

• Gurindervir Singh, a talented sprinter from Punjab, dominated the tracks during the Indian Grand Prix 1 (IGP 1).
• He competed in the 100 m athletic game and clocked an impressive timing of 10.32 seconds.
• The event was held at the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (NSNIS) in Patiala in February 2021.
• His performance in the 100 m sprint was significant as it established him as the fastest man of the meet, showcasing his explosive acceleration and sprinting prowess.
• The 100 m race is a premier track and field event that requires athletes to cover a distance of one hundred meters in the shortest possible time.

Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• The AFI is the apex body for athletics in India, responsible for conducting national championships and selecting athletes for international competitions.
• It was established in 1946 and is headquartered in New Delhi.
• The federation organizes the Indian Grand Prix series to provide athletes with competitive platforms to achieve qualifying marks for the Olympics and World Athletics Championships.
• National Records in Sprinting:
• The senior national record for the men’s 100 m is held by Amiya Kumar Mallick, who recorded a time of 10.26 seconds in 2016.
• Gurindervir Singh has previously held the National Under-20 record in the 100 m, highlighting his consistent growth in the sport.
• In the women’s category, Dutee Chand holds the national record for the 100 m with a timing of 11.17 seconds.
• Significance of the 100 m Event:
• The 100 m sprint is often referred to as the "blue riband" event of track and field, with the winner being dubbed the "fastest man/woman alive."
• Key factors affecting performance include reaction time, stride frequency, and stride length.

Important Points

• The Indian Grand Prix 1 2021 featured several other top athletes, including Hima Das and Dutee Chand, making it a crucial event for the Indian athletics calendar.
• Patiala’s NSNIS is Asia’s largest sports institute and serves as the primary training ground for India’s elite track and field athletes.
• Success in short-distance sprints like the 100 m and 200 m requires specialized training in plyometrics and anaerobic conditioning.
• Gurindervir Singh’s timing of 10.32 seconds was a significant personal achievement, reinforcing the depth of talent in Indian sprinting.

The correct answer is The Order of St Michael and St George.

Key Points

• The Order of St Michael and St George is the premier honour awarded to British nationals and others for outstanding service abroad or internationally, particularly in relation to Foreign and Commonwealth affairs.
• It is traditionally featured in the King’s Birthday Overseas & International Honours List, which recognizes individuals serving the United Kingdom's interests internationally or those performing exceptional charitable or voluntary work abroad.
• Founded in 1818 by the Prince Regent (later King George IV), the order was originally created to commemorate the Ionian Islands becoming a British protectorate and for service in Malta.
• The order consists of three ranks: Knight or Dame Grand Cross (GCMG), Knight or Dame Commander (KCMG or DCMG), and Companion (CMG).
• In the context of the 2025 honours, this specific order is used to reward diplomats, colonial officials, and individuals involved in international relations and global development.

Additional Information

• The Order of the British Empire:
• Established by King George V in 1917, this order recognizes a wide range of service to the United Kingdom across many sectors, including arts, sciences, and public service.
• It includes levels such as GBE, KBE/DBE, CBE, OBE, and MBE. While it can be awarded to people abroad, it is the standard order for national achievement within the UK.
• The Royal Victorian Order:
• Founded by Queen Victoria in 1896, this is a dynastic order of knighthood.
• It is uniquely in the personal gift of the Monarch and is awarded for services rendered specifically to the Sovereign or members of the Royal Family, rather than on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• The King’s Police Medal (KPM):
• This medal is awarded to members of the police forces in the United Kingdom and Commonwealth for distinguished service or gallantry.
• Following the accession of King Charles III, the award was renamed from the Queen's Police Medal.
• Selection Process:
• Honours in the Overseas and International List are recommended by the Foreign, Commonwealth & Development Office (FCDO).
• The 2025 King's Birthday Honours serve as one of two major annual lists (alongside the New Year Honours) that celebrate the contributions of individuals to British society and the world.

Important Points

• Motto and Symbolism: The motto of The Order of St Michael and St George is "Auspicium Melioris Aevi", which translates to "Token of a better age".
• The Chapel: The primary chapel for this order is located within St Paul's Cathedral in London, which serves as a site for official ceremonies related to the order.
• Eligibility: While primarily for British citizens, honorary awards can be made to citizens of countries where the King is not Head of State.
• Rank Distinction: The GCMG is the highest class and is often reserved for very high-ranking officials such as Governors-General or senior ambassadors.

The correct answer is Natural disasters.

Key Points

• The Sachet App is a mobile application developed and launched by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to provide citizens with real-time alerts and warnings specifically regarding natural disasters.
• The application serves as a unified platform under the Integrated Alert System, designed to disseminate critical information about impending emergencies such as floods, cyclones, earthquakes, heatwaves, and landslides.
• It utilizes a geo-targeted mechanism, meaning users receive alerts based on their specific geographical location, ensuring that only relevant and timely information reaches those in the danger zone.
• The app is built upon the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP), a global standard for emergency messaging that ensures consistency across different communication channels like SMS, Radio, and Television.
• In addition to warnings, the app provides "Do’s and Don’ts" for various disaster scenarios, empowering citizens with actionable knowledge to ensure their safety during a natural calamity.

Additional Information

• National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):
• It is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India, established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• The NDMA is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and is responsible for laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management to ensure a timely and effective response.
• Common Alerting Protocol (CAP):
• CAP is a digital format for exchanging emergency alerts and public warnings over various networks.
• It was implemented in India through the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT), enabling a "one-stop" shop for all alert-generating agencies.
• Technical Collaboration:
• The alert system integrates data from various national agencies including the India Meteorological Department (IMD) for weather, the Central Water Commission (CWC) for floods, and the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) for tsunamis.
• The Sachet App supports multi-lingual alerts, allowing users to receive information in several regional Indian languages to overcome linguistic barriers during crises.

Important Points

• Phased Rollout: The CAP-compliant integrated alert system was rolled out in phases across India, starting with high-risk coastal states to mitigate the impact of cyclones.
• Zero Cost: The Sachet App is a free-to-use government service, aimed at reaching the maximum number of citizens, including those in rural and remote areas.
• Disaster Resilience: This initiative is a part of India's broader commitment to the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (2015-2030), which emphasizes the use of technology and early warning systems to save lives.