Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 10 April 2022 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.**

but perhaps the best way is to agree (P) /  there are many ways of dealing (Q) / with them without excessive argumentation (R) / with intransigent customers (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    QPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    QSPR

  3. COption (c)

    PSQR

  4. DOption (d)

    RSQP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

QSPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'QSPR.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be Q as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • The verb dealing should be followed by 'with.'
  • Therefore, S follows Q.
  • Hence, by looking at the options, QSPR is the correct option.
  • Correct sentence: There are many ways of dealing with intransigent customers but perhaps the best way is to agree with them without excessive argumentation.

Additional Information        

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish      

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, Q होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • Verb, dealing के बाद 'with' होना चाहिए।
  • इसलिए, S, Q का अनुसरण करता है।
  • इसलिए, विकल्पों को देखते हुए, QSPR सही विकल्प है।

Question 2

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

in the years following (P) / India achieved remarkable economic development (Q) / liberalization in the year 1991 (R) / the landmark reforms inaugurated via (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    PQRS

  2. BOption (b)

    PRSQ

  3. COption (c)

    SPRQ

  4. DOption (d)

    QPSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

QPSR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'QPSR.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be Q as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • After this, P will come as it is completing the sentence Q.
  • SR is a pair as the word via is followed by liberalization and provides a complete meaning.
  • Correct sentence: India achieved remarkable economic development in the years following the landmark reforms inaugurated via liberalization in the year 1991.

Additional Information       

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish      

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, Q होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • इसके बाद, P आएगा क्योंकि यह वाक्य Q को पूरा कर रहा है।
  • SR एक जोड़ी है क्योंकि via शब्द के बाद liberalization होता है और एक पूर्ण अर्थ प्रदान करता है।

Question 3

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

was the victory secured by the women's hockey team (P) / in the arena of sport, perhaps (Q) / against Australia in the Tokyo Olympics (R) / the greatest moment in Indian Olympic history (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    SPQR

  2. BOption (b)

    RPQS

  3. COption (c)

    QSPR

  4. DOption (d)

    QRPS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

QSPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'QSPR.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be Q as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • PR is a pair as the word victory is followed by against and provides a complete meaning.
  • Correct sentence: In the arena of sport, perhaps the greatest moment in Indian Olympic history was the victory secured by the women's hockey team against Australia in the Tokyo Olympics.

Additional Information        

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish       

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, Q होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • PR एक जोड़ी है क्योंकि victory शब्द के बाद against होता है और एक पूर्ण अर्थ प्रदान करता है।

Question 4

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

in terms of GDP and GNP, (P) / for gauging the success of a nation (Q) / which are the two major determinants (R) / economic progress is determined (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    SQRP

  2. BOption (b)

    RPQS

  3. COption (c)

    SPRQ

  4. DOption (d)

    QRPS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SPRQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'SPRQ.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be S as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • P follows S because it's adding some more information.
  • R follows P because it's having a relative clause adding R and P.
  • Q is providing a conclusion to the context.
  • Correct sentence: Economic progress is determined in terms of GDP and GNP, which are the two major determinants for gauging the success of a nation.

Additional Information         

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish        

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, S होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • P, S का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि यह कुछ और जानकारी जोड़ रहा है।
  • R, P का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि इसमें R और P को जोड़ने वाला एक relative clause है।
  • Q संदर्भ के लिए एक निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 5

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

with the aplomb of a stage artist, (P) / that they are not men of straw (Q) / they can twist and shake their wobbly heads (R) / mesmerizing the gullible into believing (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    PRQS

  2. BOption (b)

    RPSQ

  3. COption (c)

    SPQR

  4. DOption (d)

    QRPS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

RPSQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'RPSQ.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be R as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • P follows R because it's adding some more information.
  • Q follows S because it's having a relative clause adding S and Q.
  • Q is providing a conclusion to the context.
  • Correct sentence: They can twist and shake their wobbly heads with the aplomb of a stage artist, mesmerizing the gullible into believing that they are not men of straw.

Additional Information          

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish        

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, R होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • P, R का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि यह कुछ और जानकारी जोड़ रहा है।
  • Q, S का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि इसमें S और Q को जोड़ने वाला एक relative clause है।
  • Q संदर्भ के लिए एक निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 6

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

of its rain-soaked verdure (P) / and on the other there are (Q) / on the one hand there is the immense beauty (R) / the artifacts of its visible modernity (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    PRQS

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    SPQR

  4. DOption (d)

    RPQS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RPQS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'RPQS.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be R as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • P follows R because it's adding some more information.
  • Q follows P because of the presence of 'and.'
  • S is providing a conclusion to the context.
  • Correct sentence: On the one hand there is the immense beauty of its rain-soaked verdure and on the other there are the artifacts of its visible modernity.

Additional Information           

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish       

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, R होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • P, R का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि यह कुछ और जानकारी जोड़ रहा है।
  • Q, 'and' की उपस्थिति के कारण P का अनुसरण करता है।
  • S संदर्भ के लिए एक निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 7

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

are often rooted (P) / the causes (Q) / of extreme poverty (R) / in the inequalities of social systems (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    QRPS

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    SRQP

  4. DOption (d)

    SRPQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QRPS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'QRPS.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be Q as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • R follows Q with the help of 'of.'
  • P follows R because of the helping verb 'are.'
  • S is providing a conclusion to the context.
  • Correct sentence: The causes of extreme poverty are often rooted in the inequalities of social systems.

Additional Information            

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish        

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, Q होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • R 'of' की सहायता से Q का अनुसरण करता है।
  • Helping verb 'are.' के कारण P, R का अनुसरण करता है।
  • S संदर्भ के लिए एक निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 8

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.**

a person by the way (P) / he behaves and (Q) / you must judge (R) / not by the way he looks (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    RPQS

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    RSQP

  4. DOption (d)

    QPSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RPQS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'RPQS.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be R as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • The verb judge should be followed by a noun therefore P follows R.
  • S is providing a conclusion to the context.
  • Correct sentence: You must judge a person by the way he behaves and not by the way he looks.

Additional Information             

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish        

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, R होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • Verb judge के बाद Noun होनी चाहिए इसलिए P, R का अनुसरण करता है।
  • S संदर्भ के लिए एक निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 9

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

to the greatest number of people (P) / that causes the least discomfort (Q) / whenever in doubt (R) / always opt for the option (S)

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    RQPS

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    RSQP

  4. DOption (d)

    QPSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

RSQP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'RSQP.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be R as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • S follows R because they are providing a sensible meaning.
  • Q follows S because it is having a relative clause.
  • P is providing a conclusion to the context.
  • Correct sentence: Whenever in doubt always opt for the option that causes the least discomfort to the greatest number of people.

Additional Information              

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish 

        

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, R होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • S, R का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि वे एक समझदार अर्थ प्रदान कर रहे हैं।
  • Q, S का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि इसमें एक सापेक्ष उपवाक्य है।
  • P संदर्भ के लिए एक निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 10

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

brought by bad times (P) / against the despondency (Q) / our greatest defence (R) / faith and belief are (S) 

The correct sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    RQPS

  2. BOption (b)

    SRQP

  3. COption (c)

    RSQP

  4. DOption (d)

    QPRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

SRQP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'SRQP.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the passage given in the options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.  
  • The opener will be S as it introduces the context of the paragraph.
  • R follows S because they are providing a sensible meaning.
  • RQ is a pair as the word defence is followed by against and provides a complete meaning.
  • P is providing a conclusion to the context.
  • Correct sentence: Faith and belief are our greatest defence against the despondency brought by bad times.

Additional Information               

 

  • Steps for solving Para Jumbles:
  • Clues include pronouns, like he, she, it, this, that, these, those; adverbs like formally, really; article a, an and the; definers like actually, finally, another; connectors like but, yet, both, also and neither nor, or, however, nevertheless.
  • Now, with the help of clues, try to find out qualifier and qualified sentences, so that we can make pairs of qualified and qualifier sentences to eliminate the wrong choices given in the question.
  • After making pairs, start eliminating the wrong choices or options given in the question.
  • In case there is more than one choice, try to follow the sequence of sentences according to the occurrence of the events.

Hinglish 

        

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए गद्यांश के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय, हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • Opener, S होगा क्योंकि यह पैराग्राफ के संदर्भ का परिचय देता है।
  • R, S का अनुसरण करता है क्योंकि वे एक समझदार अर्थ प्रदान कर रहे हैं।
  • RQ एक जोड़ी है क्योंकि defence शब्द के बाद against आता है और एक पूर्ण अर्थ प्रदान करता है।
  • P संदर्भ के लिए एक निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 11

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

After a good meal, it is important to pay a compliment to the chef.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tip

  2. BOption (b)

    Praise

  3. COption (c)

    Admonish

  4. DOption (d)

    Revile

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Praise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Praise'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Compliment(noun): a remark that expresses approval, admiration, or respect. (एक टिप्पणी जो अनुमोदन, प्रशंसा या सम्मान व्यक्त करती है।)
  • ​Example: He complained that his husband never paid him any compliments anymore.
  • Praise(verb): to express admiration or approval of the achievements or characteristics of a person or thing. (किसी व्यक्ति या चीज़ की उपलब्धियों या विशेषताओं की प्रशंसा या अनुमोदन व्यक्त करना।)
  • Example: He should be praised for his honesty.

Hence, the word Compliment is the most appropriate synonym for Praise.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Tip(verb):  to (cause to) move so that one side is higher than another side. (करने के लिए (कारण) आगे बढ़ना ताकि एक पक्ष दूसरे पक्ष से ऊंचा हो।)
  • Example: The table tipped, and all our drinks fell on the floor.
  • Admonish(verb): to tell someone that they have done something wrong. (किसी को बताना कि उन्होंने कुछ गलत किया है।)
  • Example: ​His mother admonished him for eating too quickly.
  • Revile(verb): to criticize someone strongly, or say unpleasant things to or about someone. (किसी की कड़ी आलोचना करना, या किसी को या उसके बारे में अप्रिय बातें कहना।)
  • Example: The judge was reviled in the newspapers for his opinions on rape.

Question 12

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

His work is laudable.

  1. AOption (a)

    Praiseworthy

  2. BOption (b)

    Laughable

  3. COption (c)

    Bold

  4. DOption (d)

    Loud

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Praiseworthy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Praiseworthy'

<br>

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • laudable(adjective): (of actions and behaviour) deserving praise, even if there is little or no success. ((कार्यों और व्यवहार के) प्रशंसा के योग्य, भले ही बहुत कम या कोई सफलता न हो।)
  • ​Example: The recycling programme is laudable, but does it save much money?
  • Praiseworthy(adjective):  deserving approval and admiration. (अनुमोदन और प्रशंसा के पात्र।)
  • Example: the government's praiseworthy efforts.

Hence, the word Praiseworthy is the most appropriate synonym for laudable.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • laughable(adjective):  silly and not deserving to be seriously considered. (मूर्खतापूर्ण और गंभीरता से विचार करने के योग्य नहीं।)
  • Example: Privately they thought the idea laughable.
  • Bold(adjective): not frightened of danger. (खतरे से नहीं डरते।)
  • Example: She was a bold and fearless climber.​
  • Loud(adjective): making a lot of noise. (बहुत शोर कर रहे हैं।)
  • Example: I heard a loud bang and then saw black smoke.

Question 13

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

Raj is a competent carpenter.

  1. AOption (a)

    Capable

  2. BOption (b)

    Exceptional

  3. COption (c)

    Inept

  4. DOption (d)

    Clumsy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Capable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Capable'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Competent(adjective): able to do something well. (कुछ अच्छा करने में सक्षम।)
  • ​Example: I wouldn't say he was brilliant but he is competent at his job.​
  • Capable(adjective): able to do things effectively and skilfully, and to achieve results. (चीजों को प्रभावी ढंग से और कुशलता से करने और परिणाम प्राप्त करने में सक्षम।)
  • Example: We need to get an assistant who's capable and efficient.

Hence, the word Capable is the most appropriate synonym for Competent.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Exceptional(adjective): much greater than usual, especially in skill, intelligence, quality, etc. (सामान्य से बहुत अधिक, विशेष रूप से कौशल, बुद्धि, गुणवत्ता आदि में।)
  • Example: The company has shown an exceptional growth over the past two years.​
  • Inept(adjective): not skilled or effective. (कुशल या प्रभावी नहीं।)
  • Example: He was criticized for his inept handling of the situation.
  • Clumsy(adjective): A clumsy person often has accidents because they do not behave in a careful, controlled way. (एक अनाड़ी व्यक्ति के साथ अक्सर दुर्घटनाएं होती हैं क्योंकि वे सावधान, नियंत्रित तरीके से व्यवहार नहीं करते हैं।)
  • Example: That's the third glass you've smashed this week - you're so clumsy!

Question 14

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is diligent in submitting assignments.

  1. AOption (a)

    Dilly-dallying

  2. BOption (b)

    Procrastinating

  3. COption (c)

    Intelligent

  4. DOption (d)

    Conscientious

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Conscientious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Conscientious'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Diligent (adjective): careful and using a lot of effort. (सावधान और बहुत प्रयास का उपयोग करना।)
  • ​Example: Their lawyer was extremely diligent in preparing their case.
  • Conscientious(adjective): putting a lot of effort into your work. (अपने काम में बहुत मेहनत करना।)
  • Example: a conscientious student.

Hence, the word Conscientious is the most appropriate synonym for Diligent.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Dilly-dallying(adjective): waste time through aimless wandering or indecision. (लक्ष्यहीन भटकने या अनिर्णय के माध्यम से समय बर्बाद करें।)
  • Example: don't dilly-dally for too long.
  • Procrastinating(adjective): to keep delaying something that must be done, often because it is unpleasant or boring. (कुछ ऐसा करने में देरी करना जो अक्सर किया जाना चाहिए, क्योंकि यह अप्रिय या उबाऊ है।)
  • Example: I know I've got to deal with the problem at some point - I'm just procrastinating.​
  • Intelligent(adjective): showing intelligence, or able to learn and understand things easily. (बुद्धि दिखाना, या चीजों को आसानी से सीखने और समझने में सक्षम होना।)
  • Example: He is a highly intelligent person who can think outside the box.

Question 15

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He appears to be reticent.

  1. AOption (a)

    Expansive

  2. BOption (b)

    Jolly

  3. COption (c)

    Extrovert

  4. DOption (d)

    Withdrawn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Withdrawn

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Withdrawn'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Reticent(adjective): unwilling to speak about your thoughts or feelings. (अपने विचारों या भावनाओं के बारे में बात करने को तैयार नहीं।)
  • ​Example: Most of the students were reticent about answering questions.
  • Withdrawn(adjective): shy and quiet and preferring to be alone rather than with other people. (शर्मीला और शांत और अन्य लोगों के बजाय अकेले रहना पसंद करते हैं।)
  • Example: Following her son's death, she became quiet and withdrawn and rarely went out.

Hence, the word Withdrawn is the most appropriate synonym for Reticent.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Expansive(adjective):  very happy to talk to people in a friendly way. (लोगों से दोस्ताना तरीके से बात करके बहुत खुशी हुई।)
  • Example: He was in an expansive mood on the night of the party.
  • Jolly(adjective): happy and smiling. (खुश और मुस्कुराते हुए।)
  • Example: She's a very jolly, upbeat sort of a person.​
  • Extrovert: an outgoing, socially confident person.

Question 16

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

He is always jovial.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cheerful

  2. BOption (b)

    Callous

  3. COption (c)

    Garrulous

  4. DOption (d)

    Credulous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cheerful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Cheerful'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Jovial(adjective): showing or feeling good humour; friendly. (अच्छा हास्य दिखाना या महसूस करना; दोस्ताना।)
  • ​Example: He seemed a very jovial guy.
  • Cheerful(adjective):  happy and positive in feeling or attitude. (भावना या दृष्टिकोण में खुश और सकारात्मक।)
  • Example: He was a cheerful man with a kind words for everybody.

Hence, the word Cheerful is the most appropriate synonym for Jovial.

Additional Information  

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Callous(adjective):  unkind, cruel, and without sympathy or feeling for other people. (निर्दयी, क्रूर, और अन्य लोगों के लिए सहानुभूति या भावना के बिना।)
  • Example: It might sound callous, but I don't care if he's homeless. He's not living with me!​
  • Garrulous(adjective): having the habit of talking a lot, especially about things that are not important. (बहुत सारी बातें करने की आदत होना, खासकर उन चीजों के बारे में जो महत्वपूर्ण नहीं हैं।)
  • Example: I had talked too much about myself and felt like a garrulous old fool.
  • Credulous(adjective): too willing to believe what you are told and so easily deceived. (आपको जो कहा जाता है उस पर विश्वास करने के लिए बहुत इच्छुक और इतनी आसानी से धोखा दिया जाता है।)
  • Example: The credulous semantics of an argumentation framework is given by the following definition.

Question 17

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

Mohan remains morose these days.

  1. AOption (a)

    Introspective

  2. BOption (b)

    Generous

  3. COption (c)

    Chirpy

  4. DOption (d)

    Sullen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sullen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Sullen'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Morose(adjective): unhappy, annoyed, and unwilling to speak or smile. (दुखी, नाराज और बोलने या मुस्कुराने को तैयार नहीं।)
  • ​Example: Why are you so morose these days?
  • Sullen(adjective): angry and unwilling to smile or be pleasant to people. (गुस्सा और मुस्कुराने या लोगों के लिए सुखद नहीं होना।)
  • Example: His daughters stared back at him with an expression of sullen resentment.

Hence, the word Sullen is the most appropriate synonym for Morose.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Introspective(adjective): examining and considering your own ideas, thoughts, and feelings, instead of talking to other people about them. (अन्य लोगों से उनके बारे में बात करने के बजाय, अपने स्वयं के विचारों, विचारों और भावनाओं की जांच करना और उन पर विचार करना।)
  • Example: She is famous for her introspective songs about failed relationships.
  • Generous(adjective): willing to give money, help, kindness, etc., especially more than is usual or expected. (पैसा, मदद, दया, आदि देने के लिए तैयार, विशेष रूप से सामान्य या अपेक्षा से अधिक।)
  • Example: She's been very generous with her time.​
  • Chirpy(adjective): happy and active. (खुश और सक्रिय।)
  • Example: She seemed quite chirpy this morning.

Question 18

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He was a reluctant learner.

  1. AOption (a)

    Enthusiastic

  2. BOption (b)

    Eager

  3. COption (c)

    Unwilling

  4. DOption (d)

    Fearful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Unwilling

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Unwilling'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Reluctant (adjective): not willing to do something and therefore slow to do it. (कुछ करने को तैयार नहीं है और इसलिए इसे करने में धीमा है।)
  • ​Example: Many parents feel reluctant to talk openly with their children.
  • Unwilling(adjective):  not wanting to do something. (कुछ नहीं करना चाहते।)
  • Example: The bank was unwilling to lend her money.

Hence, the word Unwilling is the most appropriate synonym for Reluctant.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Enthusiastic(noun):  a feeling of energetic interest in a particular subject or activity and an eagerness to be involved in it. (किसी विशेष विषय या गतिविधि में ऊर्जावान रुचि की भावना और उसमें शामिल होने की उत्सुकता।)
  • Example: One of the good things about teaching young children is their enthusiasm.
  • Eager(adjective): wanting very much to do or have something, especially something interesting or enjoyable. (कुछ करने या करने की बहुत इच्छा होना, विशेष रूप से कुछ दिलचस्प या आनंददायक।)
  • Example: They crowded around the spokesperson, eager for any news.
  • Fearful(adjective): frightened or worried about something. (किसी बात को लेकर भयभीत या चिंतित होना।)
  • Example: He hesitated before calling her, fearful of what she might say.

Question 19

Directions : Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

Amit is optimistic about the prospects of his investments.

  1. AOption (a)

    Pessimistic

  2. BOption (b)

    Uncaring

  3. COption (c)

    Carefree

  4. DOption (d)

    Sanguine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sanguine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Sanguine'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Optimistic (adjective): hoping or believing that good things will happen in the future. (आशा करना या विश्वास करना कि भविष्य में अच्छी चीजें होंगी।)
  • ​Example: She is optimistic about her chances of winning a gold medal.
  • Sanguine(adjective): Optimistic or positive, especially in an apparently bad or difficult situation. (आशावादी या सकारात्मक, विशेष रूप से स्पष्ट रूप से बुरी या कठिन स्थिति में।)
  • Example: They are less sanguine about the prospects for peace.

Hence, the word Sanguine is the most appropriate synonym for Optimistic.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Pessimistic(adjective):  thinking that bad things are more likely to happen or emphasizing the bad part of a situation. (यह सोचना कि बुरी चीजें होने की संभावना अधिक होती है या किसी स्थिति के बुरे हिस्से पर जोर देना।)
  • Example: The tone of the meeting was very pessimistic.
  • Uncaring(adjective): not worrying about other people's troubles or doing anything to help them. (दूसरे लोगों की परेशानियों के बारे मे�� चिंता न करना या उनकी मदद के लिए कुछ भी नहीं करना।)
  • Example: The charity criticized the city for its "callous, uncaring attitude" to the homeless.
  • Carefree(adjective): having no problems or not being worried about anything. (कोई समस्या न होना या किसी बात की चिंता न होना।)
  • Example: I remember my carefree student days.

Question 20

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Sachin is very cooperative by nature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Complaisant

  2. BOption (b)

    Covert

  3. COption (c)

    Complacent

  4. DOption (d)

    Conniving

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Complaisant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'complaisant'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Cooperative(adjective): willing to help or do what people ask. (मदद करने या करने के लिए तैयार जो लोग पूछते हैं।)
  • ​Example: I asked them to turn down their music, but they were not being very cooperative.​
  • Complaisant(adjective):  willing to satisfy others by being polite and fitting in with their plans. (अपनी योजनाओं के साथ विनम्र और फिट रहकर दूसरों को संतुष्ट करने के लिए तैयार।)
  • Example: She carried on passionate love affairs with the consent of her complaisant husband.

Hence, the word Complaisant is the most appropriate synonym for Cooperative.

Additional Information    

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Covert(adjective):  hidden or secret. (छिपा हुआ या गुप्त।)
  • Example: The government was accused of covert military operations against the regime.
  • Complacent(noun): a feeling of calm satisfaction with your own abilities or situation that prevents you from trying harder. (अपनी खुद की क्षमताओं या स्थिति से शांत संतुष्टि की भावना जो आपको कठिन प्रयास करने से रोकती है।)
  • Example: What annoys me about these girls is their complacency - they seem to have no desire to expand their horizons.
  • Conniving(adjective): A conniving person deceives others for their own advantage. (धूर्त व्यक्ति अपने फायदे के लिए दूसरों को धोखा देता है।)
  • Example: He's a conniving bastard!

Question 21

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Counting your chickens

  1. AOption (a)

    confident of success

  2. BOption (b)

    greedily accumulating wealth

  3. COption (c)

    being careful about spending money

  4. DOption (d)

    getting scared because of danger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

confident of success

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'confident of success '

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • Counting your chickens: usually used in negative statements to mean that someone should not depend on something hoped for until he or she knows for certain that it will happen.(आमतौर पर नकारात्मक बयानों में इस्तेमाल किया जाता है, इसका मतलब यह है कि किसी को किसी चीज की आशा पर निर्भर नहीं होना चाहिए जब तक कि वह निश्चित रूप से नहीं जानता कि यह होगा।)
  • Example: *Don't **count your chickens (*before they hatch)—you don't know yet if she will accept your offer.

                           *She wanted to buy a dress in case someone asked her to the dance, but I told her not to count her chickens before they hatched.***​​

​From the above lines, we can say that 'confident of success' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 22

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

The icing on the cake

  1. AOption (a)

    baked food that is delicate and delicious with a topping

  2. BOption (b)

    extra benefit over and above an already good deal

  3. COption (c)

    getting what you asked for

  4. DOption (d)

    more than what is needed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

extra benefit over and above an already good deal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'extra benefit over and above an already good deal '

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • The icing on the cake: something that makes a good situation even better.(कुछ ऐसा जो एक अच्छी स्थिति को और भी बेहतर बना देता है।)
  • Example: I love my job and getting public recognition is merely the icing on the cake*.***

                           *I was just content to see my daughter in such a stable relationship but a grandchild, that really was **the icing on the cake.*​​

​From the above lines, we can say that 'extra benefit over and above an already good deal' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 23

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

A stitch in time

  1. AOption (a)

    tailoring one's efforts efficiently

  2. BOption (b)

    making an effort to succeed

  3. COption (c)

    inability to take timely decision

  4. DOption (d)

    timely action that prevents negative outcome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

timely action that prevents negative outcome

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'timely action that prevents negative outcome'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • A stitch in time:  is said to mean that it is better to deal with a problem in its early stages, in order to prevent it from getting worse.(इसका मतलब यह है कि किसी समस्या को उसके शुरुआती चरणों में ही निपटा देना बेहतर है, ताकि इसे और खराब होने से रोका जा सके।)
  • Example: It seems that something is wrong with my car, it's better to get its check-up as a stitch in time saves nine.

                           *When she points it out to Robert, he encourages her to inflate the tire now because a stitch in time saves nine.***​​

​From the above lines, we can say that 'timely action that prevents negative outcomes' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 24

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

At sixes and sevens

  1. AOption (a)

    on top of the situation

  2. BOption (b)

    state of denial

  3. COption (c)

    state of total confusion

  4. DOption (d)

    well-planned and prepared

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

state of total confusion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'state of total confusion'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • At sixes and sevens: in a confused, badly organized, or difficult situation.(एक भ्रमित, बुरी तरह से संगठित या कठिन स्थिति में।)
  • Example: We've been at sixes and sevens in the office this week.

                          The government is at sixes and sevens over the issue of domestic security.​​

​From the above lines, we can say that 'state of total confusion' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 25

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Talking twenty to the dozen

  1. AOption (a)

    talking hurriedly and rapidly

  2. BOption (b)

    talking too much

  3. COption (c)

    talking without making sense

  4. DOption (d)

    talking out of turn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

talking hurriedly and rapidly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'talking hurriedly and rapidly'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • Talking twenty to the dozen:  to speak rapidly and without stopping.(तेजी से और बिना रुके बोलना।)
  • Example: He showed us around the house while talking nineteen to the dozen.

                           *My aunt can get talking twenty to the dozen if you get her on a topic she's passionate about.***​​

​From the above lines, we can say that 'talking hurriedly and rapidly' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 26

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alterative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Under the weather

  1. AOption (a)

    walking in the rain

  2. BOption (b)

    controlled by the elements

  3. COption (c)

    browbeaten by the heat

  4. DOption (d)

    unwell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

unwell

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'unwell'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • Under the weather: not completely well.(पूरी तरह से ठीक नहीं।)
  • Example: I noticed that the cat was looking a little under the weather.

                           I'm feeling a bit under the weather - I think I'm getting a cold.

​​

​From the above lines, we can say that Under the weather is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 27

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).

To sit on the fence

  1. AOption (a)

    to act promptly

  2. BOption (b)

    to be lazy

  3. COption (c)

    to be undecided

  4. DOption (d)

    to sit without doing anything

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

to be undecided

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'To be undecided'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • To sit on the fence: to delay making a decision or you avoid supporting a particular side in a discussion or argument.(निर्णय लेने में देरी करने के लिए या आप किसी चर्चा या तर्क में किसी विशेष पक्ष का समर्थन करने से बचते हैं।)
  • Example: You can't sit on the fence any longer - you have to decide whose side you're on.

                           *He's not afraid of making decisions and is a man who never sits on the fence. ***​​

​From the above lines, we can say that 'To be undecided' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 28

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).

Once in a blue moon

  1. AOption (a)

    romantic moment

  2. BOption (b)

    occasionally

  3. COption (c)

    rarely

  4. DOption (d)

    often

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

rarely

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'rarely'

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given proverb
  • Once in a blue moon: Not very often/An incident that happens extremely rarely.(बहुत बार नहीं/एक घटना जो बहुत कम होती है।)
  • Example: My sister lives in Alaska, so I only see her once in a blue moon.
  • Once in a blue moon, there's an issue I can't resolve.

​​

​From the above lines, we can say that 'rarely' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 29

Directions

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).

Through thick and thin

  1. AOption (a)

    in genuine friendship

  2. BOption (b)

    through the best of everything

  3. COption (c)

    among people both fat and slim

  4. DOption (d)

    through difficult times

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

through difficult times

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'through difficult times'

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • Through difficult times: If you support or stay with someone through thick and thin, you always support or stay with them, even if there are problems or difficulties.(यदि आप मोटे और पतले किसी का साथ देते हैं या उसके साथ रहते हैं, तो आप हमेशा उसका समर्थन करते हैं या उसके साथ रहते हैं, भले ही समस्याएँ या कठिनाइयाँ हों।)
  • Example: She has stuck with me through thick and thin.

                           *My brother has stuck with me *through thick and thin.​​​

  • From the above lines, we can say that 'through difficult times is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Question 30

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).

Like chalk and cheese

  1. AOption (a)

    very different from each other

  2. BOption (b)

    without any blemish

  3. COption (c)

    pure white in colour

  4. DOption (d)

    very like each other

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

very different from each other

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'very different from each other

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom
  • Like chalk and cheese: If two people are like chalk and cheese, they are completely different from each other. (अगर दो लोग चाक और पनीर की तरह हैं, तो वे एक दूसरे से बिल्कुल अलग हैं।)
  • Example: My brother and I like chalk and cheese.
  • we'll never get on—we're like chalk and cheese.​​
  • ​From the above lines, we can say that the correct meaning of the given idiom is very different from each other.

Question 31

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

A company of five thousand soldiers, (a) / having marched tirelessly for over five days, (b) / have just moved into their cantonment. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'c.'

Key Points

  • The error lies in Part (c) of the sentence.
  • According to the subject-verb agreement, the countable noun 'company' should have a singular verb or helping verb.
  • Example: A company of five people has reached the venue.
  • Therefore, the use of 'have' in Part (c) of the sentence should be replaced by 'has' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Correct sentence: A company of five thousand soldiers, having marched tirelessly for over five days, has just moved into their cantonment.

Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the word 'injure' is 'to hurt or cause physical harm to a person or animal.'
  • Example: A bomb exploded at the embassy, injuring several people.

Hinglish 

  • त्रुटि वाक्य के Part (c) में है।
  • Subject-verb agreement के अनुसार, countable noun 'company' में एकवचन क्रिया या सहायक क्रिया होनी चाहिए।
  • Example: A company of five people has reached the venue.
  • इसलिए वाक्य को व्याकरण की दृष्टि से सही बनाने के लिए, Part (c) में 'have' के प्रयोग को 'has' से प्रतिस्थापित किया जाना चाहिए।

Question 32

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Every person who believes in principles (a) / must stand up to fight (b) / for their convictions. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'c.'

Key Points

  • The error lies in Part (c) of the sentence.
  • Whenever we use every in front of a subject, then it should be followed by a singular verb and singular pronoun.
  • Example: Every person ​knows his truth.
  • Therefore, the use of 'their' in Part (c) of the sentence should be replaced by 'his' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Correct sentence: Every person who believes in principles must stand up to fight for his convictions.

Additional Information 

  • The past indefinite tense, also known as simple past tense, is used to indicate a finished or completed action/task that occurred/happened at a specific point in time in the past. 
  • Structure: Subject + verb in the past form + . . . . . + adverb of time + . . . . .
  • Example: I ate a mango a few minutes ago.

Hinglish 

  • त्रुटि वाक्य के Part (c) में है।
  • जब भी हम किसी विषय के सामने every का प्रयोग करते हैं, तो उसके बाद  singular verb and singular pronoun का प्रयोग करना चाहिए।
  • Example: Every person ​knows his truth.
  • इसलिए वाक्य को व्याकरण की दृष्टि से सही बनाने के लिए, Part (c) में 'their' के प्रयोग को 'his' से प्रतिस्थापित किया जाना चाहिए।

Question 33

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The Olympic Games reflects (a) / the highest spirit of (b) / human endeavour and achievement. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'a.'

Key Points

  • ​​The error lies in part 'a' of the sentence.
  • As the subject 'Olympic Games' is a plural subject, we need a plural verb 'reflect.'
  • Correct sentence*: The Olympic Games reflect the highest spirit of human endeavour and achievement.*

Additional Information    

  

  • Subjects and verbs must AGREE with one another in number (singular or plural).
  • Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular.
  • Example: The dog chases the cat.
  • If a subject is plural, its verb must also be plural.
  • Example: The dogs chase the cat.

Hinglish 

  • ​​त्रुटि वाक्य के भाग 'a' में है।
  • चूंकि  subject 'Olympic Games' एक plural subject है, हमें plural verb 'reflect' की आवश्यकता है।

Question 34

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The principal of the school (a) /  stressed the need for discipline (b) / amongst the students. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'd.'

Key Points

  • ​​The sentence is error-free.
  • The word among is used when talking about people or things that are not distinct and are viewed as a group.
  • Example: There was chaos among the candidates.
  • Amongst is sometimes used as an alternative to among.
  • Example: There was chaos amongst all the students.
  • Correct sentence*: The principal of the school stressed the need for discipline amongst the students.*

Additional Information   

  

  • Subjects and verbs must AGREE with one another in number (singular or plural).
  • Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular.
  • Example: The dog chases the cat.
  • If a subject is a plural, its verb must also be plural.
  • Example: The dogs chase the cat.

Hinglish 

  • वाक्य त्रुटिरहित है।
  • Among शब्द का उपयोग उन लोगों या चीजों के बारे में बात करते समय किया जाता है जो अलग नहीं हैं और एक समूह के रूप में देखे जाते हैं।
  • Example: There was chaos among the candidates.
  • Amongst कभी-कभी Among के विकल्प के रूप में उपयोग किया जाता है।
  • Example: There was chaos amongst all the students.

Question 35

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Failure is the stepping stone to success; (a) / however, successive failures are not (b) / successive stepping stones to success. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'd.'

Key Points

  • ​​The sentence is error-free.

The phrase stepping stone means an event or experience that helps you achieve something else.

  • Example: I see this job just as a stepping stone to better things.
  • Correct sentence: Failure is the stepping stone to success; however, successive failures are not successive stepping stones to success.

Additional Information 

  • Countable nouns, as the term suggests, refer to things that can be counted.
  • They have singular and plural forms.
  • Example: table, tables; month, months; pen, pens.
  • Uncountable nouns cannot be counted.
  • They have a singular form and do not have a plural form.
  • Example: dirt, rice, information, furniture, and hair.

Hinglish 

  • वाक्य त्रुटिरहित है।
  • स्टेपिंग स्टोन वाक्यांश का अर्थ है एक घटना या अनुभव जो आपको कुछ और हासिल करने में मदद करता है।
  • Example: I see this job just as a stepping stone to better things.

Question 36

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

India's strengths are (a) / its diversity of culture and (b) / the spirit of tolerance in it's people.(c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'c'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in Part (c) of the sentence.
  • 'It’s' is a contraction of “it is” or “it has.”
  • 'Its' is a possessive determiner we use to say that something belongs to or refers to something.
  • Example: Its been a year since the last time they met. [Incorrect]

                 It's been a year since the last time they met. [Correct]

  • ​Therefore, the use of 'it's' should be replaced by 'its'​ to make it grammatically correct.
  • ​​Correct sentence: India's strengths are its diversity of culture and the spirit of tolerance in its people.

Additional Information    

  • Subject pronouns are pronouns that replace the subject in the sentence.
  • The subject pronouns are we, you, he, she, it, and they.
  • Object pronouns do not replace the subject.
  • Instead, an object pronoun would replace the object in the sentence.
  • The object is the part of the sentence that is being done to, from or with the action.
  • The object pronouns are me, you, him, her, it, us, and them.

Hinglish   

  

  • त्रुटि वाक्य के Part (c) में है।
  • 'It’s', "it is" या "it has" का संकुचन है।
  • 'Its' एक possessive determiner है जिसका उपयोग हम यह कहने के लिए करते हैं कि कोई चीज किसी चीज से संबंधित है या उसका संदर्भ है।
  • Example: Its been a year since the last time they met. [Incorrect]

                 It's been a year since the last time they met. [Correct]

  • ​इसलिए वाक्य में 'it's' के प्रयोग को  'its'​ से बदल देना चाहिए ताकि वह व्याकरण की दृष्टि से सही हो।​

Question 37

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Once considered ninth planet of the solar system, (a) / Pluto is today listed as the (b) / largest dwarf planet of the solar system. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'a'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in Part (a) of the sentence.
  • The word 'ninth' is an ordinal number.
  • The definite article 'the' is used before ordinal numbers and superlative adjectives:
  • Example:  The 20th century has seen the bloodiest wars in the history of humankind.
  • ​Therefore, the use of 'ninth' should be replaced by 'the ninth'​ to make it grammatically correct.
  • ​​Correct sentence: Once considered the ninth planet of the solar system, Pluto is today listed as the largest dwarf planet of the solar system.

Additional Information    

  • Subject pronouns are pronouns that replace the subject in the sentence.
  • The subject pronouns are we, you, he, she, it, and they.
  • Object pronouns do not replace the subject.
  • Instead, an object pronoun would replace the object in the sentence.
  • The object is the part of the sentence that is being done to, from or with the action.
  • The object pronouns are me, you, him, her, it, us, and them.

Hinglish   

  

  • त्रुटि वाक्य के Part (a) में है।
  • Word 'ninth' एक ordinal number है।
  • Definite article 'the'  का प्रयोग ordinal numbers and superlative adjectives से पहले किया जाता है:
  • Example:  The 20th century has seen the bloodiest wars in the history of humankind.
  • ​इसलिए, व्याकरणिक रूप से सही करने के लिए वाक्य में 'ninth' शब्द को  'the ninth'​ word से बदल देना चाहिए।​

Question 38

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The greatest glory in life (a) / is to be able to realize ones dreams and ambitions (b) / without trampling on those of others. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'b'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in Part (b) of the sentence.
  • The possessive pronoun “one’s” requires an apostrophe before the S, unlike “its,” “hers,” and other personal pronouns.
  • Example: Pull oneself up by one’s own bootstraps.
  • The only times “ones” has no apostrophe are when it is being used to mean “examples” or “people” as in “ripe ones” or “loved ones.”
  • Example:  I don't play video games, except ones [non-specific games] that get left at my apartment by friends.
  • ​Therefore, the use of 'ones' should be replaced by 'one's'​ to make it grammatically correct.
  • ​​Correct sentence: The greatest glory in life is to be able to realize one's dreams and ambitions without trampling on those of others.

Additional Information     

  • Subject pronouns are pronouns that replace the subject in the sentence.
  • The subject pronouns are we, you, he, she, it, and they.
  • Object pronouns do not replace the subject.
  • Instead, an object pronoun would replace the object in the sentence.
  • The object is the part of the sentence that is being done to, from or with the action.
  • The object pronouns are me, you, him, her, it, us, and them.

Hinglish   

  

  • त्रुटि वाक्य के Part (b) में है।
  • Possessive pronoun “one’s” को  “its,” “hers,” and other personal pronouns के विपरीत, s से पहले एक एस्ट्रोफ़े की आवश्यकता होती है।
  • Example: Pull oneself up by one’s own bootstraps.
  • ​केवल  “ones” का apostrophe नहीं होता है, जब इसका उपयोग "उदाहरण" या "लोग" के रूप में "पके हुए" या "प्रियजन" के रूप में किया जाता है।
  • Example:  I don't play video games, except ones [non-specific games] that get left at my apartment by friends.
  • ​इसलिए वाक्य में 'ones' के प्रयोग को  'one's'​ से बदल देना चाहिए ताकि वह व्याकरण की दृष्टि से सही हो।​

Question 39

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

To be able to manage one's (a) / anger is a reflection of an individual's (b) / psychological maturity. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'b'.

Key Points

  • The error lies in Part (b) of the sentence.
  • The possessive pronoun “one’s” requires an apostrophe before the S, unlike “its,” “hers,” and other personal pronouns.
  • Example: Pull oneself up by one’s own bootstraps.
  • Also, we can see that the sentence has 'one's' in the first part so there is no need to introduce other pronouns in the second half.
  • ​Therefore, the use of 'an individual's' should be replaced by 'one's'​ to make it grammatically correct.
  • ​​Correct sentence: To be able to manage one's anger is a reflection of one's psychological maturity.

Additional Information      

  • Subject pronouns are pronouns that replace the subject in the sentence.
  • The subject pronouns are we, you, he, she, it, and they.
  • Object pronouns do not replace the subject.
  • Instead, an object pronoun would replace the object in the sentence.
  • The object is the part of the sentence that is being done to, from or with the action.
  • The object pronouns are me, you, him, her, it, us, and them.

Hinglish   

  

  • त्रुटि वाक्य के Part (b) में है।
  • Possessive pronoun “one’s” को  “its,” “hers,” and other personal pronouns के विपरीत, s से पहले एक एस्ट्रोफ़े की आवश्यकता होती है।
  • Example: Pull oneself up by one’s own bootstraps.
  • साथ ही, हम देख सकते हैं कि वाक्य के पहले भाग में 'one's' है, इसलिए दूसरे भाग में अन्य सर्वनामों को पेश करने की कोई आवश्यकता नहीं है।
  • ​इसलिए वाक्य में 'an individual's' के प्रयोग को  'one's'​ से बदल देना चाहिए ताकि वह व्याकरण की दृष्टि से सही हो।​

Question 40

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c) Read each sentence to determine whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

A honest mistake (a) / is no more than that; (b) / just an honest mistake. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'a.'

Key Points 

  • The error lies in part (a) of the sentence.
  • In the given sentence, an article 'a' is used before a singular noun 'honest' which is wrong.
  • An should be used before honest because it is pronounced as “anest”, that is it starts with a vowel sound.
  • Article A and An are used according to the pronunciation of the word.
  • We use the article 'a' with the words starting with consonants sound and article 'an' with the words that start with vowel sounds.
  • Example: 
  • We are looking for an honest person.
  • Hence, the article 'a' should be replaced by the article 'an' to make the sentence grammatically correct.
  • ​Correct sentence:* An honest mistake is no more than that; just an honest mistake.*

Additional Information 

  • There are three articles: a, an, and the.
  • Articles are used before nouns or noun equivalents and are a type of adjective.
  • Indefinite article 'a': before a singular noun beginning with a consonant sound whose specific identity is not known
  • Indefinite article 'an': before a singular noun beginning with a vowel sound whose specific identity is not known
  • Definite article 'the': before a singular or plural noun whose specific identity is known

Hinglish

  • त्रुटि वाक्य के भाग  (a) में निहित है।
  • दिए गए वाक्य में, singular noun 'honest' के पहले, article 'a' का प्रयोग किया गया है जो कि गलत है।
  • Honest से पहले 'an' का उपयोग किया जाना चाहिए क्योंकि इसे "एनेस्ट" के रूप में उच्चारित किया जाता है, अर्थात यह vowel sound से शुरू होता है।
  • शब्द के उच्चारण के अनुसार article A and An का उपयोग किया जाता है।
  • हम article 'a' का प्रयोग consonant sound से शुरू होने वाले शब्दों के साथ और article an शब्दों के साथ करते हैं जो स्वर ध्वनियोंvowel sounds से शुरू होते हैं।
  • Example: 
  • We are looking for an apartment.
  • इसलिए, वाक्य को व्याकरणिक रूप से सही बनाने के लिए article 'a' को article 'an' द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित किया जाना चाहिए।

Question 41

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

He is essentially a crude person.

  1. AOption (a)

    Coarse

  2. BOption (b)

    Refined

  3. COption (c)

    Eager

  4. DOption (d)

    Balanced

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Refined

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Refined'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Crude(adjective): Simple and not skillfully done or made. (सरल और कुशलता से नहीं किया या बनाया गया।)
  • ​Example: a crude device/weapon.
  • Refined(adjective): A refined substance has been made pure by removing other substances from it. (एक परिष्कृत पदार्थ को उसमें से अन्य पदार्थों को निकालकर शुद्ध किया गया है।)
  • Example: refined foods such as white bread and white sugar*.***

Hence, the word Refined is the most appropriate antonym for Crude.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Coarse(adjective):  rough and not smooth or soft, or not in very small pieces. (खुरदरा और चिकना या मुलायम नहीं, या बहुत छोटे टुकड़ों में नहीं।)
  • Example: Linen is a coarse-grained fabric.
  • Eager(adjective): wanting very much to do or have something, especially something interesting or enjoyable. (कुछ करने या करने की बहुत इच्छा होना, विशेष रूप से कुछ दिलचस्प या आनंददायक।)
  • Example: They crowded around the spokesperson, eager for any news.​
  • Balanced(adjective): considering all sides or opinions equally. (सभी पक्षों या मतों पर समान रूप से विचार करना।)
  • Example: The news programme prided itself on its balanced reporting.

Question 42

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

His confidence is high.

  1. AOption (a)

    Diffidence

  2. BOption (b)

    Eagerness

  3. COption (c)

    Steadfastness

  4. DOption (d)

    Endurance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Diffidence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- ' Diffidence'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Confidence(noun): the quality of being certain of your abilities or of having trust in people, plans, or the future. (अपनी क्षमताओं के बारे में निश्चित होने या लोगों, योजनाओं या भविष्य पर भरोसा करने का गुण।)
  • ​Example: She's completely lacking in confidence.​
  • Diffidence(noun): the quality of being shy and not confident of your abilities. (शर्मीला होने और अपनी क्षमताओं पर भरोसा न करने का गुण।)
  • Example: The biggest difficulty is overcoming natural British diffidence.

Hence, the word Diffidence is the most appropriate antonym for Confidence.

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Eagerness(noun): wanting very much to do or have something, especially something interesting or enjoyable. (कुछ करने या करने की बहुत इच्छा होना, विशेष रूप से कुछ दिलचस्प या आनंददायक।)
  • Example: They crowded around the spokesperson, eager for any news.
  • Steadfastness(noun): the quality of staying the same for a long time and not changing quickly or unexpectedly. (लंबे समय तक एक ही रहने और जल्दी या अप्रत्याशित रूप से न बदलने का गुण।)
  • Example: He was unwavering in his steadfastness and devotion to science.
  • Endurance(noun): the ability to keep doing something difficult, unpleasant, or painful for a long time. (किसी कठिन, अप्रिय या कष्टदायक कार्य को लंबे समय तक करते रहने की क्षमता।)
  • Example: Running a marathon is a test of human endurance.

Question 43

Direction: Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response  accordingly.

His integrity is noticed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Skilfulness

  2. BOption (b)

    Ability

  3. COption (c)

    Dependability

  4. DOption (d)

    Dishonesty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dishonesty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'dishonesty'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Integrity (noun): the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles that you refuse to change. (ईमानदार होने और मजबूत नैतिक सिद्धांत रखने का गुण जिसे आप बदलने से इनकार करते हैं।)
  • ​Example: No one doubted that the president was a man of the highest integrity.
  • Dishonesty(noun): the quality or an act of not being honest. (ईमानदार न होने का गुण या कार्य।)
  • Example: Her dishonesty landed her in prison.

Hence, the word dishonesty is the most appropriate antonym for Integrity .

Additional Information   

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Skilfulness(adjective): Someone who is skillful at something does it very well. (कोई व्यक्ति जो किसी चीज में कुशल होता है, वह बहुत अच्छा करता है।)
  • Example: He is widely regarded as Hungary's most skillful politician.
  • Ability(noun): the physical or mental power or skill needed to do something. (कुछ करने के लिए आवश्यक शारीरिक या मानसिक शक्ति या कौशल।)
  • Example: There's no doubting her ability.
  • Dependability(noun): the quality of being able to be trusted and being very likely to do what people expect. (भरोसेमंद होने में सक्षम होने और लोगों की अपेक्षा करने की बहुत संभावना होने का गुण।)
  • Example: The car offers value for money, comfort, and dependability.

Question 44

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

She is a benevolent individual.

  1. AOption (a)

    Clever

  2. BOption (b)

    Muddled

  3. COption (c)

    Malevolent

  4. DOption (d)

    Ambivalent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Malevolent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is-'Malevolent'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Benevolent (adjective): kind and helpful. (दयालु और मददगार।)
  • ​Example: He was a benevolent old man and wouldn't hurt a fly.
  • Malevolent(adjective):  causing or wanting to cause harm or evil. (नुकसान या बुराई पैदा करना या करना चाहते हैं।)
  • Example: The central character is a malevolent witch out for revenge.

Hence, the word Malevolent is the most appropriate antonym for benevolent.

Additional Information  

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Clever(adjective): having or showing the ability to learn and understand things quickly and easily. (चीजों को जल्दी और आसानी से सीखने और समझने की क्षमता होना या दिखाना।)
  • Example: Judy has never been very clever, but she tries hard.
  • Muddled(adjective): badly organized or confusing. (बुरी तरह से संगठित या भ्रमित करने वाला।)
  • Example: a muddled legal situation.
  • Ambivalent(adjective): having two opposing feelings at the same time, or being uncertain about how you feel. (एक ही समय में दो विरोधी भावनाएँ होना, या आप कैसा महसूस करते हैं, इसके बारे में अनिश्चित होना।)
  • Example: I felt very ambivalent about leaving home.

Question 45

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

His sartorial manner is judged.

  1. AOption (a)

    Unstylish

  2. BOption (b)

    Uncompromising

  3. COption (c)

    Common

  4. DOption (d)

    Crude

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Unstylish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Unstylish'

Key Points 

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Sartorial(adjective): relating to the making of clothes, usually men's clothes, or to a way of dressing. (कपड़े बनाने से संबंधित, आमतौर पर पुरुषों के कपड़े, या कपड़े पहनने के तरीके से।)
  • ​Example: Spirited young noblemen defied tradition and rejected the formal sartorial trappings of their birth.
  • Unstylish(adjective): not elegant or stylish. (सुरुचिपूर्ण या स्टाइलिश नहीं।)
  • Example: Many wear running shoes, but some are barefoot, and almost all have slumped posture and unstylish haircuts.

Hence, the word Unstylish is the most appropriate antonym for Sartorial.

Additional Information 

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Uncompromising(adjective): If people or their beliefs are uncompromising, they are fixed and do not change, especially when faced with opposition. (यदि लोग या उनकी मान्यताएँ अडिग हैं, तो वे स्थिर हैं और नहीं बदलते हैं, खासकर जब विरोध का सामना करना पड़ता है।)
  • Example: The city council has taken an uncompromising stand against the proposals for the new building.
  • Common(adjective): The same in a lot of places or for a lot of people. (वही बहुत सी जगहों पर या बहुत सारे लोगों के लिए।)
  • Example: It's quite common to see couples who dress alike.​
  • Crude(adjective): simple and not skillfully done or made. (सरल और कुशलता से नहीं किया या बनाया गया।)
  • Example: a crude device/weapon.

Question 46

Direction: Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. 

This piece of art is authentic.

  1. AOption (a)

    Genuine

  2. BOption (b)

    Expensive

  3. COption (c)

    Rare

  4. DOption (d)

    Fake

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Fake

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Fake'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Authentic(adjective): If something is authentic, it is real, true, or what people say it is. (अगर कुछ प्रामाणिक है, तो वह वास्तविक है, सत्य है, या लोग जो कहते हैं वह है।)
  • ​Example: He was there and saw what happened, so he is the only authentic account.
  • Fake(noun): an object that is made to look real or valuable in order to deceive people. (एक वस्तु जो लोगों को धोखा देने के लिए वास्तविक या मूल्यवान दिखने के लिए बनाई जाती है)
  • Example: Experts revealed that the painting was a fake.

Hence, the word fake is the most appropriate antonym for Authentic.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Genuine(adjective):  If something is genuine, it is real and exactly what it appears to be. (अगर कुछ वास्तविक है, तो यह वास्तविक है और जैसा दिखता है वैसा ही होता है।)
  • Example: If it is a genuine Michelangelo drawing, it will sell for millions.​
  • Expensive(adjective): costing a lot of money. (बहुत सारे पैसे खर्च करना।)
  • Example: Big houses are expensive to maintain.
  • Rare(adjective): not common or frequent; very unusual. (आम या लगातार नहीं; अत्यंत असामान्य।)
  • Example: The museum is full of rare and precious treasures.

Question 47

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

The deluge affected the population.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cloudburst

  2. BOption (b)

    Drought

  3. COption (c)

    Deforestation

  4. DOption (d)

    Drizzle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Drought

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Drought'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Deluge(noun): a very large amount of rain or water. (बहुत बड़ी मात्रा में बारिश या पानी।)
  • ​Example: This little stream can become a deluge when it rains heavily.
  • Drought(noun): a long period when there is little or no rain. (एक लंबी अवधि जब कम या कोई बारिश नहीं होती है।)
  • Example: This year (a) severe drought has ruined the crops.

Hence, the word Drought is the most appropriate antonym for Deluge.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Cloudburst(noun):  a heavy fall of rain that begins and ends suddenly. (बारिश की एक भारी गिरावट जो अचानक शुरू और समाप्त होती है।)
  • Example: Do you mean that it would prevent the cloudburst?
  • Deforestation(noun): the cutting down of trees in a large area, or the destruction of forests by people. (एक बड़े क्षेत्र में पेड़ों की कटाई, या लोगों द्वारा जंगलों का विनाश।)
  • Example: Deforestation is destroying large areas of the tropical rainforest.
  • Drizzle(noun): rain in very small, light drops. (बहुत कम, हल्की बूंदों में बारिश।)
  • Example: Tomorrow will be cloudy with outbreaks of rain and drizzle.

Question 48

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

His dedication is known to all.

  1. AOption (a)

    Clarity

  2. BOption (b)

    Hostility

  3. COption (c)

    Apathy

  4. DOption (d)

    Anger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Apathy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Apathy'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Dedication(noun): the willingness to give a lot of time and energy to something because it is important. (किसी चीज को बहुत समय और ऊर्जा देने की इच्छा क्योंकि यह महत्वपूर्ण है।)
  • ​Example: He has always shown great dedication to the cause.
  • Apathy(noun): behaviour that shows no interest or energy and shows that someone is unwilling to take action, especially over something important. (व्यवहार जो कोई दिलचस्पी या ऊर्जा नहीं दिखाता है और दिखाता है कि कोई कार्रवाई करने को तैयार नहीं है, खासकर किसी महत्वपूर्ण चीज पर।)
  • Example: widespread apathy among students.

Hence, the word Apathy is the most appropriate antonym for Dedication.

Additional Information 

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Anger(noun):  a strong feeling that makes you want to hurt someone or be unpleasant because of something unfair or unkind that has happened. (एक मजबूत भावना जो आपको किसी अनुचित या निर्दयी होने के कारण किसी को चोट पहुँचाना या अप्रिय होना चाहती है।)
  • Example: There is a danger that anger at the new law may turn into anti-government feelings.
  • Clarity(noun): the quality of being clear and easy to understand. (स्पष्ट और समझने में आसान होने का गुण।)
  • Example: There has been a call for greater clarity in this area of the law.
  • Hostility(noun): an occasion when someone is unfriendly or shows that they do not like something. (ऐसा अवसर जब कोई अमित्र होता है या दिखाता है कि उन्हें कुछ पसंद नहीं है।)
  • Example: They showed open (= obvious) hostility to/towards their new neighbours.

Question 49

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c), and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

His perspicacity was remarkable.

  1. AOption (a)

    smartness

  2. BOption (b)

    dullness

  3. COption (c)

    dedication

  4. DOption (d)

    deviousness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

dullness

Why this answer is correct

The correct  answer is- 'dullness'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Perspicacity(noun): the ability to understand things quickly and make accurate judgments. (चीजों को जल्दी से समझने और सटीक निर्णय लेने की क्षमता।)
  • ​Example: a woman of exceptional perspicacity.
  • Dullness(noun): the fact of not being interesting or exciting, or of not being interested in anything. (दिलचस्प या रोमांचक नहीं होने या किसी भी चीज़ में दिलचस्पी न होने का तथ्य।)
  • Example: She managed to get exquisite material out of the dullness of her hometown.

Hence, the word dullness is the most appropriate antonym for Perspicacity.

Additional Information 

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • smartness(noun):  the quality of being intelligent, or able to think quickly or intelligently in difficult situations. (बुद्धिमान होने का गुण, या कठिन परिस्थितियों में जल्दी या समझदारी से सोचने में सक्षम।)
  • Example: He's always had great maturity and smartness.
  • Dedication(noun): the willingness to give a lot of time and energy to something because it is important. (किसी चीज को बहुत समय और ऊर्जा देने की इच्छा क्योंकि यह महत्वपूर्ण है।)
  • Example: He has always shown great dedication to the cause.
  • Deviousness(noun): the quality of being dishonest or tricking people, but often also being clever and successful. (बेईमान होने या लोगों को बरगलाने का गुण, लेकिन अक्सर चतुर और सफल भी।)
  • Example: This is a movie that explores the deviousness of human nature.

Question 50

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

He has a penchant for spicy food.

  1. AOption (a)

    tendency

  2. BOption (b)

    affinity

  3. COption (c)

    fear

  4. DOption (d)

    dislike

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

dislike

Why this answer is correct

The correct  answer is- 'dislike'

Key Points

  • let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct answer.
  • Penchant(noun): a liking for, enjoyment of, or a habit of doing something, especially something that other people might not like. (पसंद करना, आनंद लेना, या कुछ करने की आदत, विशेष रूप से ऐसा कुछ जो अन्य लोगों को पसंद न हो।)
  • ​Example: Her penchant for disappearing for days at a time worries her family.
  • Dislike(verb): to not like someone or something. (किसी को या कुछ को पसंद नहीं करना।)
  • Example: Why do you dislike her so much? 

Hence, the word dislike is the most appropriate antonym for Penchant.

Additional Information 

  • Let's explore the meaning of other options:
  • Affinity(noun):  a liking or sympathy for someone or something, especially because of shared characteristics. (किसी या किसी चीज़ के लिए पसंद या सहानुभूति, विशेष रूप से साझा विशेषताओं के कारण।)
  • Example: She seems to have a natural affinity for/with water.
  • Fear(noun): an unpleasant emotion or thought that you have when you are frightened or worried by something dangerous, painful, or bad that is happening or might happen. (एक अप्रिय भावना या विचार जो आपके पास तब होता है जब आप किसी खतरनाक, दर्दनाक, या बुरी चीज से भयभीत या चिंतित होते हैं जो हो रही है या हो सकती है।)
  • Example: Trembling with fear, she handed over the money to the gunman.
  • Tendency(noun): If someone has a tendency to do or like something, they will probably do it or like it. (अगर किसी में कुछ करने या पसंद करने की प्रवृत्ति है, तो वे शायद इसे करेंगे या पसंद करेंगे।)
  • Example: His tendency to exaggerate is well known.

Question 51

The forests of Uttarakhand, Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh and Dzukou Valley in Nagaland and Manipur were in the news on account of which one of the following reasons?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deforestation

  2. BOption (b)

    Forest fire

  3. COption (c)

    Poaching of wild animals

  4. DOption (d)

    Illegal mining

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Forest fire

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Forest fire.

Key Points

  • Instances of Forest Fires in 2021:
  • January 2021 saw prolonged fires in Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh (Kullu Valley), and the Nagaland-Manipur border (Dzukou Valley). Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The Simlipal National Park in Odisha saw a major fire between February-end and early March.
  • Recent fires also include those in Bandhavgarh Forest Reserve in Madhya Pradesh, and in sanctuaries for the Asiatic lion and the great Indian bustard in Gujarat.

Important Points

  • Forest Fires:
  • Also called bush or vegetation fire or wildfire, it can be described as any uncontrolled and non-prescribed combustion or burning of plants in a natural setting such as a forest, grassland, brushland, or tundra, which consumes the natural fuels and spreads based on environmental conditions (e.g., wind, topography).
  • Forest Fires can be incited by human actions, such as land clearing, extreme drought, or in rare cases lightning.
  • There are three conditions that need to be present in order for a wildfire to burn: fuel, oxygen, and a heat source.

Additional Information

  • The Total Forest and Tree cover is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The Total Forest cover is 7,13,789 sq km which is 21.71% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The Tree cover is 2.91% of the geographical area of the country.

Question 52

Which one of the following is correct in respect of total number of States and Union Territories in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    28 States and 8 Union Territories

  2. BOption (b)

    27 States and 9 Union Territories

  3. COption (c)

    30 States and 6 Union Territories

  4. DOption (d)

    29 States and 7 Union Territories

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

28 States and 8 Union Territories

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

Key Points

  • India
  • India is a union of states.
  • It is a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic with a Parliamentary system of Government.
  • The President is the constitutional head of the Executive of the Union.
  • In the states, the Governor, as the representative of the President, is the head of the Executive.
  • The system of government in states closely resembles that of the Union.
  • There are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Union Territories are administered by the President through an Administrator appointed by him/her.
  • From the largest to the smallest, each State/UT of India has a unique demography, history, culture, dress, festivals, language, etc.

Important Points

  • India is the most populous country in the world with one-sixth of the world's population.
  • India lies to the north of the equator in Southern Asia
  • Latitude is 8° 4′ to 37° 6′ N
  • Longitude is 68° 7′ to 97° 25′ E
  • Pakistan and Afghanistan share political borders with India on the West while Bangladesh and Myanmar stand adjacent on the Eastern borders.
  • The northern boundary comprises the Sinkiang province of China, Tibet, Nepal, and Bhutan.
  • Sri Lanka is another neighbouring country that is separated by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.

Question 53

Snow, sleet and hail are the forms of

  1. AOption (a)

    precipitation

  2. BOption (b)

    condensation

  3. COption (c)

    transpiration

  4. DOption (d)

    evaporation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

precipitation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Precipitation.

Explanation:

  • Precipitation is the falling of water from the sky in various forms.
  • They are all formed by clouds in the troposphere, which is located between 8 and 16 kilometers (4 and 11 miles) above the ground.
  • Precipitation occurs when water particles of any size fall from the upper atmosphere to the earth's surface.
  • This can happen in either liquid or solid form.
  • The precipitation in the form of water is called rainfall, when the temperature is lower than the 00C, precipitation takes place in the form of fine flakes of snow and is called snowfall.
  • Moisture is released in the form of hexagonal crystals. These crystals form flakes of snow.
  • Besides rain and snow, other forms of precipitation are sleet and hail.
  • Sleet is formed when raindrops freeze as they pass through the air in the atmosphere at subfreezing temperatures.
  • Hail is a type of showery precipitation that comes in the form of pellets or lumps larger than 8mm in size. Hail can fall during severe thunderstorms.

Additional Information

  • Condensation:
  • Condensation is the process by which gas transforms into a liquid.
  • Transpiration:
  • Transpiration is the evaporative loss of water by plants.
  • It occurs mainly through the stomata in the leaves.
  • Evaporation:
  • Evaporation is the process by which a liquid changes into vapours even when it is below its boiling point.

Question 54

Which one of the following is likely to be the most prevalent form of weathering in hot-tropical desert areas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mechanical

  2. BOption (b)

    Chemical

  3. COption (c)

    Biological

  4. DOption (d)

    Leaching

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mechanical

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mechanical.

Key Points

  • Weathering in Deserts
  • Deserts have little soil because moisture is so low and the rate of chemical weathering is slow.
  • Little plant life develops because of a lack of soil and water. Plants tend to hold soil and fine-grained rock fragments in place so, without plants, erosional processes can remove the thin desert soils.
  • Desert soils are usually coloured like the bedrock nearby.  Trace elements in the soils bring out wide colour variations.
  • The desert surface is dominated by mechanical weathering processes. Rock fragments tend to be angular, rather than rounded. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Deserts are dominated by rock falls, rock slides, and the accumulation of coarse-grained material, and generally have steeper slopes.
  • Cliffs of solid rock are common in desert regions. If the rock making up the cliff has numerous vertical joints and they are underlain by more easily eroded rocks like shales, erosion and mechanical weathering will eventually cause rock falls.

Additional Information

  • Mechanical Weathering
  • It is also called physical weathering. It causes rocks to crumble.
  • The change in temperature can also contribute to mechanical weathering in a process called thermal stress.
  • Change in temperature causes the rock to expand with heat and contract with cold. As this happens, again and again, the structure of the rock weakens and after some time, it breaks.
  • Chemical Weathering
  • Chemical Weathering changes the molecular structure of rocks and soil.
  • It involves multiple modes like Solution, Carbonation, Oxidation, and Reduction, etc.
  • Sometimes, It dissolves large portions of limestone or other rock on the surface of the Earth to form a landscape called karst.
  • One of the world’s best examples of karst is the Stone Forest, near Kunming, China.
  • Biological Weathering
  • The weakening and subsequent disintegration of rock by plants, animals, and microbes are known as biological weathering.
  • Plant roots that are growing can put stress or pressure on the rock.
  • Despite the fact that the process is physical, the pressure is applied by a biological process (i.e., growing roots).
  • Chemical weathering can also be caused by biological processes, such as the production of organic acids by plant roots or microorganisms, which aid in the dissolution of minerals.

Question 55

Which one of the following cities was the first to attain the status of a 'megacity'?

  1. AOption (a)

    London

  2. BOption (b)

    Paris

  3. COption (c)

    New York

  4. DOption (d)

    Washington

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

New York

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New York.

Key Points

  • Megacity
  • The term ‘megacity’ refers to metropolitan areas with a total population of more than 10 million people.
  • In 1950, the only megacities were New York-Newark and Tokyo. By 1995 the number had risen to 14. In 2020, there were 34. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • The definition of what constitutes a megacity generally refers to the population of an urban agglomeration, that is, it includes people living in the immediate suburbs outside of the established border of the city.
  • Megacities are a distinctly modern phenomenon, the proliferation of which has spread with the large-scale urbanization that has occurred in many countries around the world. Whereas only 3% of the global population lived in cities in 1800, by the end of the 20th century that figure had risen to 47%.
  • This figure is predicted to rise to more than 70% by the second half of the 21st century, a number made even more startling by the fact that the human population is expected to have increased by two billion by that point.
  • Historically, the growth of big cities first occurred during the industrial revolution, when large numbers of people moved to cities in order to find work - a trend broadly associated with developed nations.
  • In contrast, contemporary megacity development is predominantly focused on areas of the world that are the least developed, such as Mumbai.

Question 56

In India, rigid and stable elevated lands, denuded rocks and series of scarps are the features of which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Northern mountains

  2. BOption (b)

    Peninsular plateau

  3. COption (c)

    Northern plains

  4. DOption (d)

    Coastal plains

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Peninsular plateau

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Peninsular plateau. 

Key Points

  • Peninsular plateau 
  • The land of India is characterized by great diversity in its physical features.
  • The north has a vast expanse of rugged topography consisting of a series of mountain ranges with varied peaks, beautiful valleys, and deep gorges.
  • The south consists of stable tableland with highly dissected plateaus, denuded rocks, and developed series of scarps. In between these two lies the vast north Indian plain. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The Peninsular plateau is a tableland made up of crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks. It was produced by the breakup and drifting of the Gondwana continent, making it the oldest landmass on the planet. Tors, block mountains, rift valleys, spurs, bare rocky formations, series of hummocky hills, and wall-like quartzite dykes are some of the region's key physiographic characteristics, which provide natural water storage sites.
  • It was developed as a result of the breakup and drifting of the Gondwana continent, making it one of the oldest landmasses.
  • The plateau has large and shallow valleys as well as rounded hills.
  • This plateau is divided into two sections: the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.
  • The Central Highlands are the parts of the Peninsular plateau to the north of the Narmada river that cover a large portion of the Malwa plateau.
  • The general height of the plateau is from west to east, as seen by the direction of river flow.
  • This Peninsular plateau has seen recurring periods of uplift and submergence, which have been accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures.
  • The relief of the Peninsular plateau has become more diverse as a result of these spatial variations.

Additional Information

  • Northern mountains
  • The northern mountain complex contains the Himalayas, Trans Himalayas and Purvachal.
  • The Himalayas are in the north, Hindukush and Sulaiman are in the northwest and Purvachal in the east.
  • The Himalayas are true mountains. They are formed from the continent-continent plate collision. They have sediments of marine origin. It is not a single range but a series of ranges.
  • The Himalayas have three ranges namely the great Himalayas [Himadri], middle or lesser Himalayas [Himachal] and outer Himalayas [Shiwaliks].
  • Northern Plain
  • Youngest physiographic feature in India. Depositional flood plain created by Himalayan rivers like Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra and Yamuna.
  • Densely populated with 30% of the world's population on 10% of the world's agricultural land.
  • Coastal plains
  • It extends from Rann of Kutch to Sunderbans.
  • It has two parts western coastal plain and the eastern coastal plain.

Question 57

A person had visited a region in India and found trees, such as Khair, Neem, Khejri and Palas. Which one of the following regions is she/he expected to have visited?

  1. AOption (a)

    Malabar Coast

  2. BOption (b)

    Garo Hills

  3. COption (c)

    Sunderban Delta

  4. DOption (d)

    Desert Region

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Desert Region

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Desert Region.

Key Points

  • Tropical Thorn Forests
  • The Thorn Forests are found in the semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana. Tropical thorn forests occur in areas that receive rainfall less than 50 cm.
  • These forests occur in the areas where annual rainfall is between 20 to 70 cm, the dry season is hot and very long.
  • It includes semi-arid areas of southwest Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • The main animals found in Thorn forests are as follows:- Wolf, Rats and Mice, Rabbits, Fox, Tigers and Lions, Wild Ass, Horses, Camels, Spotted Dear, Tibetan Antelope, Wild Sheep, etc.
  • Thorn Forest is a type of desert formation that has scrub-like vegetation.
  • In these forests, plants remain leafless for the most part of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation.
  • Acacias, palms, euphorbias, and cacti are the main plant species. Important species found are babool, ber, wild date palm, Khair, neem, khejri, palm, etc. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • Tussocky grass grows up to a height of 2 m as the undergrowth.
  • They are mostly tropical and subtropical forests having trees and plants with armed thorns and spines.
  • The forests remain leafless for the most part of the year and are sometimes called thorn scrub or scrub jungles.
  • Trees are scattered and have long roots penetrating deep into the soil in order to get moisture.
  • Leaves are modified into spines (thorns) and are small to minimize transpiration.
  • The vegetation found here is often short and small with few tall trees set against the sparse ground where grass lacks.

Important Points

  • The Malabar Coast moist forests is a tropical moist broadleaf forest ecoregion of southwestern India.
  • Garo Hills, physiographic region, western Meghalaya state, northeastern India. It comprises the western margin of the Shillong Plateau and rises to a top elevation of about 4,600 feet (1,400 metres).
  • Sundarban, the world's largest delta, spans 10,200 square kilometres of Mangrove Forest in India and Bangladesh.

Question 58

Consider the following statements :

  1. Rocks do not remain in their original form for long and undergo transformation.
  2. Transformation of rocks is caused by weathering, erosion and metamorphic action.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Rock Cycle
  • Rocks do not remain in their original form for long but may undergo transformation. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • It is a continuous process through which old rocks are transformed into new ones.
  • Igneous rocks are primary rocks and other rocks (sedimentary and metamorphic) form from these primary rocks.
  • Igneous rocks can be changed into metamorphic rocks.
  • The fragments derived from igneous and metamorphic rocks form sedimentary rocks.
  • Sedimentary rocks themselves can turn into fragments and the fragments can be a source for the formation of sedimentary rocks.
  • The crustal rocks (igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary) once formed may be carried down into the mantle (interior of the earth) through the subduction process (parts or whole of crustal plates going down under another plate in zones of plate convergence) and the same meltdown due to increase in temperature in the interior and turn into molten magma, the original source for igneous rocks.
  • The transformation of rocks is caused by weathering, erosion, and metamorphic action. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Question 59

Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and transportation are indicators of which one of the following processes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Denudation

  2. BOption (b)

    Endogenetic process

  3. COption (c)

    Diastrophism

  4. DOption (d)

    Mountain building

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Denudation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Denudation.

Key Points

  • Denudation
  • All the exogenic geomorphic processes are covered under the general term, denudation.
  • The word ‘denude’ means to strip off or to uncover.
  • Weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion, and transportation are included in denudation. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Denudation mainly depends on rock type and its structure including folds, faults, orientation and inclination of beds, presence or absence of joints, bedding planes, hardness or softness of constituent minerals, chemical susceptibility of mineral constituents; permeability, or impermeability, etc.
  • The effects of most of the exogenic geomorphic processes are small and slow but will, in the long run, affect the rocks severely due to continued fatigue.

Additional Information

  • Endogenic forces or endogenetic forces are the pressure that originates inside the earth, therefore also called internal forces. These internal forces lead to vertical and horizontal movements and result in subsidence, land upliftment, volcanism, faulting, folding, earthquakes, etc.
  • Diastrophism is the general term applied to slow bending, folding, warping, and fracturing.
  • A mountain can be defined as an area of land that rises abruptly from the surrounding region and is higher than the hill.
  • The term ‘orogeny was coined by the American geologist, G.K. Gilbert, in 1890 to describe the process of mountain building.
  • The term was originally used by Gilbert to describe the fold mountain belts of the Alps and the Rockies.

Question 60

If you want to observe moraines, eskers and outwash plains, which one of the following Union Territories you may have to visit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  2. BOption (b)

    Lakshadweep

  3. COption (c)

    Puducherry

  4. DOption (d)

    Ladakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ladakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ladakh.

Key Points

  • Glaciers
  • It forms only on land and not on water bodies.
  • Moraines, eskers and outwash plains terms are related to the glacier.
  • Most glaciers on India's map are scattered across Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, and the Union Territory of Ladakh. A few glaciers are also present in Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • Some of these glaciers can be as small as football fields, while others can extend for hundreds of kilometres.
  • The Siachen Glacier is the longest glacier in India in the Himalayas-Karakoram region.

Important Points

  • Moraines
  • Moraines are made up of granite fragments fractured by frost, lodged in glaciers, and carried down the valley.
  • The one that falls on the glacier's sides generates lateral moraines.
  • The interior lateral moraines of two glaciers converge to produce a medial moraine when they meet.
  • When the glacier melts, rock fragments carried beneath the frozen ice are released and scattered across the valley floor as ground moraine.
  • When the glacier reaches the valley's foot, it melts, and the mound of transported debris left behind at the snout is known as terminal moraine or end moraine.
  • Eskers
  • Eskers are sinuous ridges formed by meltwater currents depositing glacial material, primarily sands and gravel, in glacial tunnels.
  • Subglacial meltwater streams were once channelled through glacial tunnels.
  • Their length can sometimes surpass 100 kilometres and their orientation is normally parallel to the path of glacier movement.
  • Outwash plains
  • When a glacier melts at its lowest point, it leaves behind a stratified deposition material consisting of rock debris, clay, sand, gravel, and other materials.
  • Till plain or an outwash plain refers to this stratified surface.

Additional Information

  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  • It is a union territory of India consisting of 572 islands, of which 38 are inhabited, at the junction of the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea.
  • The territory is about 150 km north of Aceh in Indonesia and separated from Thailand and Myanmar by the Andaman Sea.
  • Lakshadweep
  • India’s smallest Union Territory, Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of 36 islands with an area of 32 sq km.
  • It is directly under the control of the Centre through an administrator.
  • Puducherry
  • Puducherry city is the capital of Puducherry UT in southeastern India.
  • UT was formed in 1962 out of the four former colonies of French India:
  • Pondicherry (now Puducherry) and Karaikal along India’s southeastern Coromandel Coast, Yanam, farther north along the eastern coast, and Mahe, lying on the western Malabar Coast, surrounded by Kerala state.

Question 61

Legendary Kathak dancer Pandit Birju Maharaj died recently. He was the doyen of which one of the following Gharanas of Kathak?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jaipur

  2. BOption (b)

    Raigarh

  3. COption (c)

    Lucknow

  4. DOption (d)

    Banaras

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lucknow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lucknow.

Key Points

  • Brij Mohan Nath Mishra
  • He is popularly known as Pandit Birju Maharaj.
  • He was one of India's most famous and favourite artists and belonged to the Kalka-Bindadin Gharana of Lucknow, a classical Kathak dance form. He was born on February 4, 1938, in Lucknow. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Birju Maharaj's father and guru Achhan Maharaj, uncle Shambhu Maharaj and Lachhu Maharaj were also famous Kathak dancers.
  • The artistic personality of Pandit Birju Maharaj has been such, which is considered to be beyond logic.
  • Awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1986, Birju Maharaj also choreographed dance in several Bollywood films, including Umrao Jaan, Dedh Ishqiya, and Bajirao Mastani. Apart from Padma Vibhushan, he has also received Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and Kalidas Samman.
  • In 2012, he was awarded the National Film Award for choreography in the film Vishwaroopam.
  • Apart from this, he received the Filmfare Award in the year 2016 for the choreography of the song 'Mohe Rang Do Laal' by Bajirao Mastani.
  • Along with this, he also received honorary doctorates from Banaras Hindu University and Khairagarh University.

Additional Information

  • Kathak Dance​
  • The word Kathak has been derived from the word Katha which means a story. It is primarily performed in Northern India.
  • It was primarily a temple or village performance wherein the dancers narrated stories from ancient scriptures. It is one of the classical dances of India.
  • Kathak began evolving into a distinct mode of dance in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries with the spread of the Bhakti movement.
  • The legends of Radha-Krishna were enacted in folk plays called Rasa Lila, which combined folk dance with the basic gestures of the kathak storytellers.
  • Under the Mughal emperors and their nobles, Kathak was performed in the court, where it acquired its present features and developed into a form of dance with a distinctive style.
  • Under the patronage of Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, it grew into a major art form.

Question 62

In a first, India is to export BrahMos missile to

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhutan

  2. BOption (b)

    Philippines

  3. COption (c)

    Maldives

  4. DOption (d)

    Nepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Philippines

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Philippines.

Key Points

  • India got its first-ever export order for BrahMos missiles from the Philippines when the Philippines' Defence Ministry signed a $374-million contract with BrahMos Aerospace Private Limited to supply an undisclosed number of missiles. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The Philippines wants to induct this missile amid tensions with China over the disputed islands in the South China Sea.
  • Several countries have shown interest in acquiring the BrahMos missile. For example, discussions are in advanced stages with Indonesia and Thailand.

Additional Information

  • BrahMos
  • It is a joint venture between the Defence Research and Development Organisation of India (DRDO) and the NPOM of Russia.
  • BrahMos is named after the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva.
  • It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in the second) missile.
  • It is a multiplatform missile i.e it can be launched from land, air, and sea, and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions.
  • It operates on the "Fire and Forgets" principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch.
  • Brahmos is one of the fastest cruise missiles currently operationally deployed with the speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly 3 times more than the speed of sound.
  • Recently, an Advance Version of BrahMos (extended range sea-to-sea variant) was test-fired.

Question 63

Who among the following is the Head of the Committee appointed by the Supreme Court of India to enquire into the circumstances that led to the Prime Minister of India’s convoy being stuck for several minutes on a flyover in Punjab recently?

  1. AOption (a)

    Justice Indu Malhotra

  2. BOption (b)

    Justice Ashok Bhushan

  3. COption (c)

    Justice Navin Sinha

  4. DOption (d)

    Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Justice Indu Malhotra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Justice Indu Malhotra.

Key Points

  • Indu Malhotra Committee
  • The Supreme Court has appointed former SC Judge, Indu Malhotra, as the Chairperson to head the inquiry committee, along with other members. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • The inquiry committee will look into the alleged security breach during the Prime Minister’s Punjab visit on 5th January 2022.
  • The committee headed by Justice (Retired) Indu Malhotra will also comprise DG- NIA, DG Security of Punjab, and Registrar General of Punjab and Haryana High Court.
  • The Apex court has passed the order after hearing a petition filed by NGO, Lawyers Voice, seeking appropriate directions and or orders in the alleged security breach of the Prime Minister, who was on his way to Punjab to address a rally.

Additional Information

  • Justice Ashok Bhushan
  • Former Supreme Court judge Justice Ashok Bhushan took over as the chairperson of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal.
  • Justice Navin Sinha 
  • He retired on August 18th 2021.
  • Sinha J studied law at Delhi University, after which he practiced before the courts in Patna.
  • Justice Nariman
  • He pursued his legal studies at the Faculty of Law and ranked 2nd at the University of Delhi.
  • He pursued his master’ in Law from Harvard Law School and his thesis compared affirmative action in India and USA.
  • He is the son of distinguished jurist Fali S. Nariman.

Question 64

Who among the following retired from test cricket by bagging a wicket on the last ball of his career?

  1. AOption (a)

    AB de Villiers

  2. BOption (b)

    Michael Hussey

  3. COption (c)

    Quinton de Kock

  4. DOption (d)

    Ross Taylor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ross Taylor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ross Taylor.

Key Points

  • Ross Taylor
  • He picked up a wicket on the last ball of his career, as the Kiwis steamrolled Bangladesh by an innings and 117 runs to level the series 1-1 in Christchurch. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • Ross Taylor scored 7863 runs with 19 centuries.
  • Taylor also equaled Daniel Vettori as New Zealand’s most-capped Test player with 112 appearances.
  • By finishing with a wicket, Ross Taylor joined cricket greats like fellow countryman Richard Hadlee, Australian Glenn McGrath and Sri Lankan Muttiah Muralitharan to bag a wicket on the last ball of their Test careers.

Additional Information

  • On 19 November 2021, De Villiers announced his retirement from all forms of cricket.
  • Australian veteran Michael Hussey on 29 December 2012 announced that he would retire from Test cricket after playing the final match of the series against Sri Lanka in Sydney starting on 3 January 2013.
  • Former South African captain Quinton de Kock announced sudden retirement from Test cricket on December 30, 2021. The wicket-keeper batsman announced his retirement from Test cricket with immediate effect, citing his intentions to spend more time with his growing family.

Question 65

Who among the following is appointed as the tenth Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) recently?

  1. AOption (a)

    A.S. Kiran Kumar

  2. BOption (b)

    K. Sivan

  3. COption (c)

    K. Radhakrishnan

  4. DOption (d)

    S. Somanath

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

S. Somanath

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is S. Somanath.

Key Points

  • S. Somanath
  • He is an eminent rocket scientist.
  • He has been appointed as the tenth ISRO Chief on 12 January 2022 by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC). Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • He succeeds K Sivan.

Additional Information

  • Mr Alur Seelin Kiran Kumar (2015 to 2018)
  • He was Distinguished Scientist (Apex) and Director, Space Applications Centre, Ahmedabad, assumed the office of the Secretary, Department of Space, Chairman, Space Commission, and Chairman, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on January 14, 2015.
  • He was the 8th chairman of ISRO.
  • Dr K. Sivan (2018 to 2022)
  • He has significantly contributed to end-to-end mission planning, design, integration and analysis.
  • His tenure has been marked by the launch of Chandrayaan-2 and the acceleration of India's manned space program.
  • He was the 9th chairman of ISRO.
  • Dr K. Radhakrishnan (2009-2014)
  • India's first interplanetary mission Mangalyaan was launched under the chairmanship of Mr.K. Radhakrishnan.
  • He was the 7th Chairman of ISRO.

Important Points

  • ISRO
  • It is the pioneer space exploration agency of India, headquartered in Bengaluru.
  • ISRO was formed in 1969 with a vision to develop and harness space technology in national development while pursuing planetary exploration and space science research.
  • ISRO replaced its predecessor, INCOSPAR (Indian National Committee for Space Research), established in 1962 by India’s first Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and scientist Vikram Sarabhai, are considered among the founding fathers of the Indian space program.

Question 66

According to the Forest Survey Report, 2021, area-wise which one of the following States have the largest forest cover in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Chattisgarh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021
  • It is the 17th biennial assessment of India’s forests by the Forest Survey of India, an organisation under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • The ISFR 2021 presents the latest status of the 'Forest cover' and 'Tree cover' of the country, estimates of growing stock, the extent of trees outside forests, mangrove cover, bamboo resources, and assessment of forest carbon stock.
  • In addition to the regular chapters, this time around, a special chapter on “Forest Cover assessment in Tiger reserves and Tiger corridor areas of the country and decadal change in Forest Cover” has also been included.
  • The Total Forest and Tree cover is 24.62% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The Total Forest cover is 7,13,789 sq km which is 21.71% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The Tree cover is 2.91% of the geographical area of the country.
Area-wise Forest CoverMadhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.
Forest cover as a percentage of total geographical areaMizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland.
  • Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Mistake Points

  • Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country(Area-wise).
  • Mizoram has the largest forest cover in the country as a percentage of total geographical area of the State.

Question 67

Who among the following is the Chairperson of the Goods and Services Tax Council?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Prime Minister of India

  2. BOption (b)

    The Union Finance Minister

  3. COption (c)

    The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  4. DOption (d)

    The President of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Union Finance Minister

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Union Finance Minister.

Key Points

  • GST Council
  • It is a constitutional body under Article 279A. It makes recommendations to the Union and State Government on issues related to Goods and Service Tax and was introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016.
  • The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister and other members are the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • It is considered a federal body where both the centre and the states get due representation.
  • Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting, in accordance with the following principles, namely:
  • The vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, and
  • The votes of all the State Governments taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast, in that meeting.

Additional Information

  • Goods and Services Tax
  • It is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services.
  • It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption.
  • It was launched in India on 1 July 2017 as a  comprehensive indirect tax for the entire country.
  • It is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-based tax comprehensive because it has subsumed almost all the indirect taxes except a few state taxes.
  • It is paid by the consumers and is remitted to the government by the businesses selling the goods and services.
  • It is of three types:
  • CGST to be levied by the Centre,
  • SGST to be levied by the States and
  • IGST is a tax levied on all Inter-State supplies of goods and/or services.
  • All these taxes are levied at rates mutually agreed upon by the Centre and the States.
  • The GST Council headed by the Union Finance Minister is the governing and key decision-making body for GST.

Question 68

The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has recently categorized the Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) into

  1. AOption (a)

    deficient category

  2. BOption (b)

    endangered category

  3. COption (c)

    near-threatened category

  4. DOption (d)

    critically endangered category

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

endangered category

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the endangered category.

Key Points

  • Red Sanders (or Red Sandalwood)
  • The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) recently categorized the Red Sanders (or Red Sandalwood) again into the ‘endangered’ category in its Red List. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • It was classified as ‘near threatened’ in 2018.
  • The species, Pterocarpus santalinus, is an Indian endemic tree species, with a restricted geographical range in the Eastern Ghats.
  • The species is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Andhra Pradesh.
  • It usually grows in the rocky, degraded, and fallow lands with Red Soil and a hot and dry climate.
  • Also scheduled in appendix II of the CITES and Wildlife Protection Act
  • The species, Pterocarpus santalinus, is an Indian endemic tree species, with a restricted geographical range in the Eastern Ghats.
  • Found in Tropical Dry Deciduous forest in Andhra Pradesh; usually grow in the rocky, degraded, and fallow lands with Red Soil and hot and dry climate.
  • Known for their rich hue and therapeutic properties, are high in demand across Asia, particularly in China and Japan, for use in cosmetics and medicinal products as well as for making furniture, woodcraft, and musical instruments.

Additional Information

  • IUCN Red List of Threatened Species
  • It was established in 1964, by the IUCN and has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global extinction risk status of animal, fungus, and plant species.
  • The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity.
  • It uses a set of quantitative criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of thousands of species.
  • It provides information about a range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.
  • It is used by government agencies, wildlife departments, conservation-related NGOs, natural resource planners, educational organizations, students, and the business community.
  • The Index is available for five groups: birds, mammals, amphibians, corals, and cycads.

Question 69

The Government of India has decided to observe ‘Veer Baal Diwas’ on

  1. AOption (a)

    6th October

  2. BOption (b)

    26th November

  3. COption (c)

    26th December

  4. DOption (d)

    6th December

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26th December

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 26th December.

Key Points

  • Veer Baal Diwas
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi declared that December 26 shall henceforth be marked as Veer Baal Diwas to pay homage to the courage of the Sahibzades, four sons of Guru Gobind Singh, the last Sikh guru. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • While all four were martyred, the date has been chosen as it was the day observed as the martyrdom day of the Sahibzadas Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh, who was killed at the tender age of six and nine in Sirhind by Mughal forces

Important Points 

  • Sahibzadas Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh:
  • Sahibzada Jorawar Singh and Sahibzada Fateh Singh are among the most revered martyrs in Sikhism.
  • A combination of Mughals soldiers besieged Anandpur Sahib on the orders of emperor Aurangzeb (1704).
  • The two sons of Guru Gobind Singh were captured.
  • They were offered safe passage if they became Muslims.
  • They both refused, and so they were sentenced to death and were bricked alive.
  • These two greats preferred death instead of deviating from the noble principles of Dharma.

Additional Information

  • Guru Gobind Singh:
  • The last of the ten Sikh Gurus, Guru Gobind Singh was born on 22nd December 1666 in Patna, Bihar.
  • His birth anniversary is based on the Nanakshahi calendar.
  • He became the Sikh guru at the age of nine, following the demise of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru.
  • He was assassinated in 1708.

Question 70

On 14th January, 2022, which one of the following ministries has organized a global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Ministry of Culture

  2. BOption (b)

    The Ministry of AYUSH

  3. COption (c)

    The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

  4. DOption (d)

    The Ministry of Tourism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Ministry of AYUSH

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Ministry of AYUSH.

Key Points

  • Global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme
  • The Ministry of AYUSH organized a global Surya Namaskar Demonstration programme on 14 January 2022 on the auspicious occasion of Makar Sakranti to commemorate the journey of the sun to the Northern Hemisphere. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • During the event, Surya Namaskar will be offered as a salutation to the Sun for exhibiting one’s gratitude for its rays because it nurtures all living beings.

Important Points

  • Makar Sankranti
  • Simply known as Sankranti, is one of the most devoted and awaited festivals in India.
  • It is dedicated to Lord Surya (Sun God) and marks the sun’s transit into Makara (Capricorn) and Raashi (zodiac sign).
  • This festival is aligned with the solar cycle and marks the beginning of the harvest season wherein people worship new crops and share them with delight.

Additional Information

  • The Surya Namaskar
  • It is a set of 8 Asanas performed in 12 steps with coordination of the body and mind.
  • It is preferably performed in the early hours of the morning.
  • Since Makar Sakranti is devoted to ‘Mother Nature’ for bestowing health, wealth and happiness, on this day, the ‘Surya Namaskar’ is offered as a salutation to the Sun to exhibit one’s gratitude for each of its rays as it nurtures everything living.
  • The Sun, as the primary source of energy, is critical to maintaining the cycle of the food chain and also energizes the mind and body of human beings.
  • In the language of science, the Surya Namaskar has been known to develop immunity and improve vitality, which are significant factors to keep our health in check, especially in light of the coronavirus pandemic. Exposure to the Sun further provides Vitamin D, which has been widely recommended in all medical branches around the world.

Question 71

Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Commission of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    The National Commission for Scheduled Castes

  2. BOption (b)

    The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

  3. COption (c)

    The National Commission for Backward Classes

  4. DOption (d)

    The National Commission for Women

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The National Commission for Women

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The National Commission for Women.

Key Points

  • National Commission for Women
  • The NCW is the statutory body generally concerned with advising the government on all policy matters affecting women. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • It was established on 31 January 1992 under the provisions of the Indian Constitution as defined in the 1990 National Commission for Women Act.
  • The first head of the commission was Jayanti Patnaik.
  • The Indian Constitution doesn’t contain any provision specifically made to favour women intrinsically.
  • Article 15 (3), Article 14 and Article 21 protect and safeguard women. They are more gender-neutral.

Additional Information

  • National Commission for Scheduled Castes
  • It is a constitutional body that works to safeguard the interests of the scheduled castes (SC) in India.
  • Article 338 of the constitution of India deals with this commission:
  • It provides for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes with duties to investigate and monitor all matters relating to safeguards provided for them, inquire into specific complaints and participate in and advise on the planning process of their socio-economic development etc.
  • National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  • It was set up with effect from 19th February 2004 by amending Article 338 and by inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the 89th Constitution Amendment Act, 2003. Hence, it is a constitutional body.
  • Objective: Article 338A inter-alia gives powers to the NCST to oversee the implementation of various safeguards provided to STs under the Constitution or under any other law for time being in force or under any other order to the Government and to evaluate the working of such safeguards.
  • National Commission for Backward Classes
  • 102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).
  • It has the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.
  • Previously NCBC was a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Question 72

Which Chinese traveller in ancient India wrote the diary called 'Records of the Travels to Middle India'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wang Xuance

  2. BOption (b)

    Xuanzang

  3. COption (c)

    Yijing

  4. DOption (d)

    Li Yibiao

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Xuanzang

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Xuanzang.

Key Points

  • Xuanzang also known as Hiuen Tsang, was a 7th-century Chinese Buddhist monk, scholar, traveler, and translator.
  • He visited India during the reign of Harsha Vardhana.
  • Si-yu-ki or ‘The Records of the Western World’ was written by him.
  • He spent 14 years traveling in India.
  • Xuan Zang, who took the land route back to China through the north-west, and Central Asia carried back with him statues of the Buddha made of gold, silver and sandalwood, and over 600 manuscripts loaded on the backs of 20 horses.
  • Over 50 manuscripts were lost when the boat on which he was crossing the Indus capsized.
  • He spent the rest of his life translating the remaining manuscripts from Sanskrit into Chinese.

Additional Information

  • | Traveller | During reign of | | --- | --- | | Abdur Razzak | Deva Raya ll | | Alberuni | Mahmud Ghazni | | Fa hien | Chandragupta II | | Huien Tsang | Harsha Vardhana | | Ibn Battuta | Mohammed Bin Tughlaq | | Marco Polo | Rudramma Devi |

Question 73

The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2019, constituted the

  1. AOption (a)

    14th Lok Sabha

  2. BOption (b)

    15th Lok Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    16th Lok Sabha

  4. DOption (d)

    17th Lok Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

17th Lok Sabha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 17th Lok Sabha.

Key Points

  • 17th Lok Sabha
  • The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2019, constituted the 17th Lok Sabha. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • Elections were conducted in 7 phases from 11 April 2019 to 19 May 2019 by the Election Commission of India.
  • About 900 million people were eligible to vote and turnout was over 67 per cent – the highest ever as well as the highest participation by women voters.
  • 10 lakh polling stations were set up this time as against about nine lakhs in 2014.
  • The ‘voter-verifiable paper audit trail’ (VVPAT) was used in all polling stations for the first time.
  • The results of EVMs and VVPATs are matched in one polling station per constituency.
  • The Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) and postal ballot papers would for the first time carry the photograph of all the candidates to help voters identify the political leaders in the fray.
  • For the first time in India’s electoral history, in the 2019 Parliamentary elections, the voter turnout for men and women was almost equal.
  • 66.79% of Men voted and 66.68% of women voted in these elections.
  • After Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi, Narendra Modi is the third prime minister of the country who has been able to retain power for a second term with a full majority in Lok Sabha.
  • The BJP's total vote share stood at 37.4 per cent, an increase of over 6 percentage points from 31.34 per cent in 2014.
  • The National Democratic Alliance secured a vote share of 45 per cent, compared to 38 per cent in 2014.

Additional Information

  • | 14th Lok Sabha | 2004-2009 | | --- | --- | | 15th Lok Sabha | 2009-2014 | | 16th Lok Sabha | 2014-2019 |

Question 74

Panchayati Raj Institutions are primarily the institutions of

  1. AOption (a)

    Popular Government

  2. BOption (b)

    Self-Government

  3. COption (c)

    Federal Government

  4. DOption (d)

    Quasi-Government

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Self-Government

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Self-Government.

Key Points

  • Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI)
  • It is a system of rural local self-government in India. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Local Self Government is the management of local affairs by such local bodies that have been elected by the local people.
  • PRIwas constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grassroots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.
  • In its present form and structure, PRI has completed 26 years of existence. However, a lot remains to be done to further decentralization and strengthen democracy at the grass-root level.
  • After the Constitution came into force, Article 40 made a mention of panchayats and Article 246 empowers the state legislature to legislate concerning any subject relating to local self-government.

Important Points

  • 73rd Amendment Act (1992)
  • Local governments were provided constitutional sanction through the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 which was enforced on 24th April 1993.
  • The 11th schedule was added to the constitution through this amendment which contained 29 subject matters of the Panchayats.
  • This act also added Part IX to the Constitution which contained provisions from Articles 243 to 243O.
  • This amendment brought the state governments under constitutional obligation to adopt the new system of Panchayati Raj by the provisions of the act.

Additional Information

  • Popular Government
  • Democracy is the most popular system of government at present in the world.
  • A federal government
  • It is a system of dividing up power between a central national government and local state governments that are connected by the national government.
  • Some areas of public life are under the control of the national government, and some areas are under the control of the local governments.
  • Quasi-Government
  • It is supported by the government but managed privately by a quasi-governmental healthcare agency.

Question 75

Which of the following is/are the right/rights mentioned in the 'American Declaration of Independence'?

  1. Life
  2. Liberty
  3. Pursuit of Happiness
  4. Fraternity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • The United States Declaration of Independence, formally 'The unanimous Declaration of the thirteen united States of America', is the pronouncement adopted by the Second Continental Congress meeting in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, on July 4, 1776.
  • Enacted during the American Revolution, the Declaration explains why the Thirteen Colonies at war with the Kingdom of Great Britain regarded themselves as thirteen independent sovereign states, no longer under British rule.
  • With the Declaration, these new states took a collective first step in forming the United States of America.
  • The Declaration of Independence states three basic ideas:
  • God made all men equal and gave them the rights of life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness
  • The main business of government is to protect these rights
  • If a government tries to withhold these rights, the people are free to revolt and to set up a new government

Mistake Points

  • Fraternity: This refers to a feeling of brotherhood and a sense of belonging with the country among its people.
  • The idea of Fraternity has been taken from the French Revolution.

Important Points

  • French revolution:
  • It was a series of events that happened in France during the 18th century.
  • The French society was divided into three estates, i.e., clergy, nobility, and commoners. There were vast differences in wealth distribution and also inequalities exist deeply.
  • The French revolution happened during Louis XVI's regime.
  • Impact of French revolution:
  • End of social division in French society.
  • Declaration of rights of man.
  • Revolutionary ideas like equality, fraternity, freedom, and good governance find a place in France.
  • End of Monarchy.

Question 76

Who among the following American Presidents described democracy as "Government of the People, for the People and by the People"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abraham Lincoln

  2. BOption (b)

    Thomas Jefferson

  3. COption (c)

    George Washington

  4. DOption (d)

    John F. Kennedy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Abraham Lincoln

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abraham Lincoln.

Key Points

  • Abraham Lincoln
  • He was an American politician and lawyer who served as the 16th President of the United States from March 1861 until his assassination in April 1865.
  • In the context of the Civil War, Lincoln also memorialized the sacrifices of those who gave their lives at Gettysburg and extolled virtues for the listeners (and the nation) to ensure the survival of America's representative democracy: that "government of the people, by the people, for the people, shall not perish from the earth." Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Thomas Jefferson
  • He was a spokesman for democracy.
  • He was an American Founding Father, the principal author of the Declaration of Independence (1776), and the third President of the United States (1801–1809).
  • George Washington
  • He was an American general and commander in chief of the colonial armies in the American Revolution (1775–83) and subsequently the first president of the United States (1789–97).
  • John F. Kennedy
  • He was the 35th President of the United States (1961-1963), the youngest man elected to the office.
  • On November 22, 1963, when he was hardly past his first thousand days in office, JFK was assassinated in Dallas, Texas, becoming also the youngest President to die.

Important Points

  • Democracy
  • In English, the word democracy is called Democracy, which originated from the Greek root word 'Demos' and Crescia Demos means 'common people' and Cressey means 'rule', thus democracy means the rule of people.
  • Democracy is a form of government in which power ultimately comes from the people who are governed, either through direct voting or through elected representatives.
  • To protect the ideas of democracy worldwide and promote its principles, the International Day of Democracy is observed on the 15th of September every year. India is today the largest functioning democracy in the world.

Question 77

Inhabitants are unaware of the speed of rotation of the planet Earth because

  1. the angular velocity is constant for each place on the Earth's surface
  2. the atmosphere rotates with the Earth
  3. there are no nearby objects, either stationary or moving at a rate different from that of the Earth

Which of the above is/are the correct explanation(s)?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • In a rotational motion, if the external Torque is Zero then the angular momentum and hence angular velocity of the rotating body becomes constant.

⇒L⃗=Iω⃗\Rightarrow \vec L = I \vecω

Where L is angular momentum, I is the Moment of Inertia, and ω is angular velocity.

  • Earth while rotating on its own axis does not experience any external Torque.

EXPLANATION:

  • While traveling in a bus or car, we can tell that it is moving either if we look outside or if the speed of the car or bus increases or decreases, and the same is the case for a rotational motion.
  • In space, the earth does not experience any external torque while rotating on its own axis, and hence its angular velocity is always constant.
  • Also, the atmosphere around the earth rotates with the earth because of gravity, friction, and viscosity.
  • There is nothing out there in the space either stationary or moving which we can consider as a reference to notice the rotation of the earth. Hence, all the options are correct.

Question 78

While travelling to a hilly region, you notice a massive boulder, which was loosened by heavy rains and moved downhill. This has resulted due to which of the following processes?

  1. Mass wasting
  2. Erosion
  3. Weathering

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • Mass movements/Mass wasting
  • It is the down-slope movement of Regolith (loose uncemented mixture of soil and rock particles that covers the Earth's surface) by the force of gravity without the aid of a transporting medium such as water, ice, or wind. Still, as we shall see, water plays a key role.
  • Mass movements are part of a continuum of erosional processes between weathering and stream transport. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • Mass movement causes regolith and rock to move down-slope where sooner or later the loose particles will be picked up by another transporting agent and eventually moved to a site of deposition such as an ocean basin or lake bed.
  • Mass movement processes are occurring continuously on all slopes; some act very slowly, others occur very suddenly, often with disastrous results.
  • Weathering and erosion impact the surface of the land in many ways.
  • Much of this relates to the mechanical, chemical, and biological processes breaking down rocks while shaping the landscape, including the formation of soils.
  • Gravity has a large role in moving material downhill by a variety of means called mass wasting.
  • Mass wasting is associated with a variety of serious landslide hazards that are often associated with heavy precipitation.
  • Landslides can take place slowly or rapidly, and intermittently (such as events associated with seasonal storm floods or some that are triggered by earthquakes or human activities).

Additional Information

  • Boulder clay or Glacial till
  • It is an unsorted glacial deposit comprising a range of eroded materials such as boulders, sticky clays & fine rock flour.
  • It is spread out in sheets, not mounds, & forms gently undulating till or drift plains with monotonous landform.
  • The degree of fertility of such glacial plains depends very much on the composition of the depositional materials.

Question 79

Which of the following statements in respect of landslides are correct?

  1. These occur only on gentle slopes during rain.
  2. They generally occur in clay-rich soil.
  3. Earthquakes trigger landslides.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • Landslide
  • It is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope.
  • Landslides are a type of "mass wasting," which denotes any down-slope movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity.
  • The term "landslide" encompasses five modes of slope movement: falls, topples, slides, spreads, and flows. These are further subdivided by the type of geologic material (bedrock, debris, or earth).
  • Landslides are the second biggest natural disaster in Indonesia, occurring mostly in a volcanic area with thick and clay-rich soils. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Debris flows (commonly referred to as mudflows or mudslides) and rockfalls are examples of common landslide types.
  • Almost every landslide has multiple causes. Slope movement occurs when forces acting down-slope (mainly due to gravity) exceed the strength of the earth materials that compose the slope.
  • Causes include factors that increase the effects of down-slope forces and factors that contribute to low or reduced strength.
  • Landslides can be initiated in slopes already on the verge of movement by rainfall, snowmelt, changes in water level, stream erosion, changes in groundwater, earthquakes, volcanic activity, disturbance by human activities, or any combination of these factors. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • Earthquake shaking and other factors can also induce landslides underwater. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • These landslides are called submarine landslides.
  • Submarine landslides sometimes cause tsunamis that damage coastal areas.

Question 80

Consider the following features about a geographical phenomenon :

  1. Torrents of snow and ice roaring down a steep mountainside
  2. It is hazardous to skiers and mountaineers
  3. It involves a mix of falling, rolling, sliding and flowing of materials

Which of the following phenomena can be identified with the above features?

  1. AOption (a)

    Slump and earthflow

  2. BOption (b)

    Avalanche

  3. COption (c)

    Landslide

  4. DOption (d)

    Rockslide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Avalanche

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Avalanche.

Key Points

  • Avalanche
  • It is a mass of material moving rapidly down a slope.
  • An avalanche is typically triggered when the material on a slope breaks loose from its surroundings; this material then quickly collects and carries additional material down the slope.
  • When a mass of snow moves rapidly down a slope of a mountain is known as Avalanche.
  • There are various kinds of avalanches, including rock avalanches (which consist of large segments of shattered rock), ice avalanches (which typically occur in the vicinity of a glacier), and debris avalanches (which contain a variety of unconsolidated materials, such as loose stones and soil).
  • It involves a mix of falling, rolling, sliding and flowing of materials.
  • The size of an avalanche can range from a small shifting of loose snow to the displacement of enormous slabs of snow.
  • In a slab avalanche, the mass of descending snow may reach a speed of 130 km (80 miles) per hour and is capable of destroying forests and small villages in its path.
  • It is hazardous to skiers and mountaineers.
  • Avalanches also have been triggered intentionally in warfare to kill enemy troops.
  • Avalanches contain three main features: the starting zone, the avalanche track, and the runout zone. Avalanches launch from the starting zone. That’s often the most unstable part of the stope and generally higher on the mountain.
  • Once the avalanche starts to slide, it continues down the avalanche track, the natural path it follows downhill. After avalanches, large clearings or missing chutes of trees provide clues to an avalanche’s trajectory.
  • The avalanche finally comes to a stop at the bottom of a slope, in the runout zone, where the snow and debris pile up.
  • Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Slump and earthflow
  • Earth flows are made up of disintegrating soil and weathered rock, which moves by inter-particle or inter-layer shear above a failure plane in the underlying rock.
  • The failure plane may be either planar or curved.
  • Landslide
  • It is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope.
  • Landslides are a type of "mass wasting," which denotes any down-slope movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity.
  • Rockslide
  • It is a type of landslide caused by rock failure in which part of the bedding plane of failure passes through compacted rock and material collapses en masse and not in individual blocks.
  • Note that a rockslide is similar to an avalanche because they are both slides of debris that can bury a piece of land.

Question 81

The real beginning of western education in India can be dated from

  1. AOption (a)

    the Charter Act of 1813

  2. BOption (b)

    the Charter Act of 1793

  3. COption (c)

    the Sarda Act of 1929

  4. DOption (d)

    the Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education, 1835

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

the Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education, 1835

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education, 1835.

Key Points

  • The Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education, 1835
  • Lord Macaulay arrived in India on June 10, 1834, as a law member of the Governor General's Executive Council and was appointed President of the Committee of Public Instruction.
  • In 1835, he was tasked with settling a dispute between orientalists and Anglicists.
  • He presented his famous minutes to the council in February 1835, which Lord Bentik approved, and a resolution was passed in March 1835.
  • The following points were emphasized by him:
  • That the main goal of the British government should be to promote European literature and science among Indians, and that "all funds appropriated for the purpose of education would be best spent on English education alone."
  • All existing professors and students at all institutions under the committee's supervision shall continue to receive stipends, but no stipend shall be given to any students who may subsequently enter any of these institutions.
  • No funds from the government were to be spent on the printing of oriental works.
  • All funds available to the government would be spent in the future on imparting knowledge of English literature and science to Indians.
  • Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Charter act of 1813
  • Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India, the company’s monopoly in trade with China and trade in tea with India was kept intact.
  • The company’s rule was extended to another 20 years.
  • The act granted permission to the persons who wished to go to India for promoting moral and religious improvements. (Christian Missionaries)
  • This act regulated the company’s territorial revenues and commercial profits. It was asked to keep its territorial and commercial accounts separate.
  • The company’s dividend was fixed at 10.5% per annum.
  • There was also a provision that Company should invest Rs. 1 Lakh every year in the education of Indians.
  • It empowered the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons and to punish those who did not pay them.
  • Charter Act 1793
  • The British Parliament passed the Charter Act 1793 or the East India Company Act 1793 aimed at renewing the company’s charter for the next 20 years which was first given by the Regulating Act of 1773.
  • This company’s monopoly in trade with India continued and was given the right to trade with India for the next 20 years.
  • This was further renewed by the Charter Act of 1813.
  • The Sarda Act of 1929
  • The Child Marriage Restraint Act is popularly known as the Sharda Act after Harbilas Sarda.
  • It was a statutory act passed on 28th September 1929 to fix the marriageable age of girls and boys at 14 years and 18 years respectively.

Question 82

The term Industrial Revolution was first used by

  1. AOption (a)

    J. A. Blanqui

  2. BOption (b)

    T. S. Ashton

  3. COption (c)

    Arnold Toynbee

  4. DOption (d)

    R. H. Tawney

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arnold Toynbee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arnold Toynbee.

Key Points

  • Arnold Toynbee:
  • He was an English historian.
  • He used the term Industrial revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820.
  • The term Industrial Revolution was first popularized by the English economic historian Arnold Toynbee (1852–83).

Important Points

  • Industrial Revolution
  • The Industrial Revolution began in Great Britain, and many of the technological innovations were of British origin.
  • ​​Industrial Revolution, in modern history, the process of change from an agrarian and handicraft economy to one dominated by industry and machine manufacturing.
  • In the period 1760 to 1830, the Industrial Revolution was largely confined to Britain.
  • The main features involved in the Industrial Revolution were technological, socioeconomic, and cultural.
  • The Industrial Revolution led to an improvement in Britain’s road network, which was sub-standard before the advent of industrialization.

Additional Information

  • J. A. Blanqui
  • He was a French liberal economist whose History of Political Economy in Europe (1837–38) was the first major study of the history of economic thought.
  • T. S. Ashton
  • He was an English economic historian.
  • He was a professor of economic history at the London School of Economics at the University of London from 1944 until 1954, and Emeritus Professor until his death in 1968.
  • R. H. Tawney
  • He was an English economic historian and one of the most influential social critics and reformers of his time.
  • He was also noted for his scholarly contributions to the economic history of England from 1540 to 1640.

Question 83

The Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of the God) was organized by

  1. AOption (a)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

  3. COption (c)

    M. A. Jinnah

  4. DOption (d)

    M. M. Malaviya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points

  • Khudai Khidmatgar
  • It was a nonviolent resistance movement against the British Raj in India.
  • It was a powerful non-violent movement among the Pashtuns.
  • It is also called "Red Shirts".
  • The movement was established by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • They recruited over 100,000 members and became legendary in opposing the British-controlled police and army.
  • In 1929, the Khudai Khidmatgar organization formally joined the Indian National Congress following the arrest of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and other leaders.
  • The Khudai Khidmatgars faced problems from the new Pakistani government after the partition of India.

Additional Information

  • Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
  • ​He was a Pashtun independence activist against British rule in India.
  • He is popularly called the “Frontier Gandhi”.
  • He strongly opposed the Partition of India and criticized his Congress colleagues for agreeing to the 1947 division.
  • He was awarded the Bharat Ratna Prize in 1987.
  • He was the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna award.
  • Muhammad Ali Jinnah
  • He is the founder of the nation Pakistan.
  • He was the first Governor-General of Pakistan.
  • Mahatma Gandhi
  • He is called the father of the nation.
  • He went to South Africa to practice law in 1893.
  • Madan Mohan Malviya
  • He was an Indian educationist and politician notable for his role in the Indian independence movement.
  • He was four times president of the Indian National Congress.
  • He was respectfully addressed as Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya and also addressed as Mahamana.
  • He was the founder of Banaras Hindu University (BHU).
  • He has been conferred the Bharat Ratna along with former prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee in 2014.
  • Malaviya was born in Allahabad, North-Western Provinces, India on 25 December 1861.

Question 84

The Mahad Satyagraha of 1927 was organized by

  1. AOption (a)

    B. R. Ambedkar

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  3. COption (c)

    S. C. Bose

  4. DOption (d)

    Lokmanya Tilak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B. R. Ambedkar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B. R. Ambedkar.

Key Points

  • Mahad Satyagraha or Chavdar Tale Satyagraha
  • It was a satyagraha led by B. R. Ambedkar on 20 March 1927 to allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad (currently in Raigad district), Maharashtra, India. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • The day (20 March) is observed as Social Empowerment day in India.
  • In 1927, Ambedkar decided to launch a satyagraha (nonviolent resistance) to assert their right to use water in public places.
  • Mahad, a town in Konkan, was selected for the event because it had a nucleus of support from ‘caste Hindus.

Important Points

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  • B. R. Ambedkar was appointed as the first Law Minister of Independent India in 1947
  • B. R. Ambedkar is popularly known as 'Babasaheb' on 14th April 1891 in Indore city in Madhya Pradesh.
  • He was the great leader of the depressed class and an eminent jurist.
  • He is known as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution and the father of the Indian Constitution.
  • He became the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
  • Ambedkar considered the Right to Constitutional Remedy as the "Soul of the Indian Constitution".

Additional Information

  • Mahatma Gandhi
  • Gandhiji is known as the Father of our Nation.
  • He returned to India from South Africa on 9th January 1915 and celebrated it as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (NRI Day).
  • The first satyagraha of Gandhiji is Chamapran Satyagraha (1917) also known as the first civil disobedience movement.
  • The first hunger strike of Gandhiji is Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918).
  • The first non-cooperation movement of Gandhiji is Kheda Satyagraha (1918).
  • He was the president of the INC session in Belgaum (1924).
  • In 1931, Gandhiji participated in the Second Round Table Conference in London.
  • Gandhiji was assassinated on 30 January 1948 by Nathuram Godse and observed as 'Martyrs Day'.
  • Subhas Chandra Bose
  • He was born on 23rd January 1897, in Cuttack, Orissa Division, Bengal Province, to Prabhavati Dutt Bose and Janakinath Bose.
  • His Jayanti is celebrated as 'Parakram Diwas' on 23rd January.
  • In 1919, he had cleared the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination. Bose, however, resigned later.
  • He was highly influenced by Vivekananda's teachings and considered him his spiritual Guru.
  • His political mentor was Chittaranjan Das.
  • He worked as the editor for Das’s newspaper–Forward and later started his own newspaper, Swaraj.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  • He was born on 23rd July 1856 in Ratnagiri, Maharashtra.
  • Freedom fighter and lawyer, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, is also known as Lokmanya Tilak.
  • Founder of the Deccan Education Society (1884) along with his associate Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and others.
  • One of the founders of the Fergusson College (1885) in Pune through the Deccan Education Society.
  • He gave the slogan “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it!”

Question 85

The Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seeking Society) was set up by

  1. AOption (a)

    Vinoba Bhave

  2. BOption (b)

    Jyotiba Phule

  3. COption (c)

    B. R. Ambedkar

  4. DOption (d)

    C. Rajagopalachari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jyotiba Phule

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jyotiba Phule.

Key Points

  • Satyashodhak Samaj
  • Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-seekers' Society) was a social reform society founded by Jyotirao Phule in Pune, Maharashtra, on 24 September 1873. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • It espoused a mission of education and increased social rights and political access for underprivileged groups, focusing especially on women, Shudras, and Dalits, in Maharashtra.
  • Jyotirao's wife Savitribai was the head of the women's section of society.
  • The Samaj disbanded during the 1930s as leaders left to join the Indian National Congress party under Mahatma Gandhi.

Important Points

  • ​Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
  • Jyotirao Govindrao Phule (11 April 1827 – 28 November 1890) was an Indian social activist, thinker, anti-caste social reformer, and writer from Maharashtra.
  • His work extended to many fields, including the eradication of untouchability and the caste system, and women's emancipation.
  • He revolted against the domination of the Brahmins and struggled for the rights of peasants and other low-caste people.
  • Mahatma Jyotiba Phule was also a pioneer for women's education in India and fought for the education of girls throughout his life.
  • He is believed to be the first Hindu to start an orphanage for unfortunate children.

Additional Information

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (1891 - 1956)
  • B. R. Ambedkar was appointed as the first Law Minister of Independent India in 1947
  • B. R. Ambedkar is popularly known as 'Babasaheb' on 14th April 1891 in Indore city in Madhya Pradesh.
  • He is known as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution and the father of the Indian Constitution.
  • He became the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
  • Mahatma Gandhi
  • Gandhiji is known as the Father of our Nation.
  • He returned to India from South Africa on 9th January 1915 and celebrated it as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (NRI Day).
  • The first satyagraha of Gandhiji is Chamapran Satyagraha (1917) also known as the first civil disobedience movement.
  • The first hunger strike of Gandhiji is Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918).
  • The first non-cooperation movement of Gandhiji is Kheda Satyagraha (1918).
  • He was the president of the INC session in Belgaum (1924).
  • Acharya Vinoba Bhave
  • Vinayak Narahari Bhave was born on 11th September 1895, in Gagode, Bombay Presidency (now in Maharashtra).
  • Eldest son of Narahari Shambhu Rao and Rukmini Devi.
  • His mother had a major influence on him. He was inspired by her to read 'The Gita'.
  • One of India’s best-known social reformers and a widely venerated disciple of Mohandas K. (Mahatma) Gandhi. Founder of the Bhoodan Yajna (“Land-Gift Movement”).
  • C Rajagopalachari
  • He is remembered for his contributions to the freedom struggle, and administrative and intellectual prowess.
  • Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, popularly known as Rajaji, was born on December 10th, 1878.
  • He studied law at the Presidency College in Madras (now Chennai) and began practice in Salem in the year 1900.
  • In 1916, he formed the Tamil Scientific Terms Society, an organization that translated scientific terms of chemistry, physics, mathematics, astronomy, and biology into simple Tamil words.
  • He became the chairperson of the municipality of Salem in 1917 and served there for two years.
  • In 1955, he was honoured with India’s highest civilian award Bharat Ratna.
  • He died on 25th December 1972.

Question 86

The 13th Century text Lekhapaddhati gives us information on which one of the following topics?

  1. AOption (a)

    Art of writing

  2. BOption (b)

    Essay writing

  3. COption (c)

    Legal document

  4. DOption (d)

    Epigraphic style

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Legal document

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a Legal document.

Key Points

  • Lekhapaddhati
  • The Lekhapaddhati is a 13th-century document, from the Chalukaya kingdom of Gujarat, which gives insights into the social and political life of the period; most importantly it gives us a great deal of information about female slavery and the ways women were pushed into slavery and their treatment.
  • Interestingly while the Lekhapaddhati tells us extensively about female slavery, it hardly talks about male slavery.
  • Lekhapaddhati also tells us that females gave themselves to slavery voluntarily too, due to poverty and abandonment.
  • Lekhapaddhati, or writing guide, from 15th-century Gujarat, is a manual that gives us a rare insight into document and letter-writing practices in a bygone era.
  • This compilation of documents was a reference book of sorts, most likely meant for state officials and professional letter writers.
  • Composed of a colloquial Sanskrit used for business transactions and practical communications, the Lekhapaddhati also has local Gujarati influences.
  • The earliest specimens included in the Lekhapaddhati are from nearly 1,200 years ago.
  • Even so, what is remarkable is how familiar the contents of many of these communiqués are: deeds for sales and purchases of property, mortgages and debts, certificates, letters of safe passage, correspondence with various family members, marriages, divorces, and love affairs among others. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Whether it was a letter to a business associate or a lover, this was a “must-have” manual of personal and professional correspondence.

Question 87

Nkrumah was one of the five leaders, who comprised the core of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). He was the leader of which country in Africa?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nigeria

  2. BOption (b)

    Kenya

  3. COption (c)

    Uganda

  4. DOption (d)

    Ghana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ghana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ghana.

Key Points

  • The Non-Aligned Movement
  • It was formed during the Cold War as an organization of States that did not seek to formally align themselves with either the United States or the Soviet Union but sought to remain independent or neutral.
  • The basic concept for the group originated in 1955 during discussions that took place at the Asia-Africa Bandung Conference held in Indonesia.
  • The first NAM Summit Conference took place in Belgrade, Yugoslavia, in September 1961.
  • It has 120 members as of April 2018 comprising 53 countries from Africa, 39 from Asia, 26 from Latin America and the Caribbean, and 2 from Europe (Belarus, Azerbaijan).
  • There are 17 countries and 10 international organizations that are Observers at NAM.
  • The Non-Aligned Movement was founded and held its first conference (the Belgrade Conference) in 1961 under the leadership of Josip Broz Tito of Yugoslavia, Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt, Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana, and Sukarno of Indonesia. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • The purpose of the organization was enumerated in the Havana Declaration of 1979 to ensure "the national independence, sovereignty, territorial integrity and security of non-aligned countries" in their struggle against imperialism, colonialism, neo-colonialism, racism, and all forms of foreign subjugation.

Question 88

The idea of Planning in Independent India was drawn from

  1. AOption (a)

    the Bombay Plan

  2. BOption (b)

    the demand made by peasants

  3. COption (c)

    the demand made by workers' unions.

  4. DOption (d)

    the Gandhian vision of India's future

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the Bombay Plan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Bombay Plan.

Key Points

  • Planning in India
  • Economic planning refers to any plans of economic activity which point to achieving specific social and economic outcomes.
  • The term economic planning is used to describe the long-term plans of the government of India to develop and coordinate the economy with the efficient utilization of resources.
  • The planning mechanism should have some general goals as well as specific objectives which are to be achieved within a specified period of time.
  • The philosophy of planning is that only markets and price systems cannot ensure the welfare of citizens. Apart from this, there are economic requirements such as investment in infrastructure, investment in public goods such as transport, and other public utilities which are enjoyed by the society.
  • The concept of planned economic development was taken from the Soviet economic model, which established state control over industries and economic structure.
  • The idea of planning was also endorsed by a group of industrialists who framed the Bombay Plan and believed that the state must play a major role in industrial and other economic investments.
  • The experience of the great depression in Europe where the economic crisis troubled many nations along with Europe proved to be a lesson for the world.
  • The Bombay Plan was where many big industrialists of India decided to set up a planned economy. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

  • The Bombay Plan (1944)
  • In early 1944, several eminent industrialists and economists of Bombay Sir Purshottamdas Thakurdas, Mr. J.R.D. Tata and six others made another attempt and published a development plan, which was called the Bombay plan.
  • Its main purpose was to stimulate the thinking of the people and to lay down the principles on the basis of which a national plan could be formulated and executed.
  • The planners observed that the plan set out in it is neither in any sense a complete scheme nor as comprehensive as that of the National Planning Committee.
  • The central aim of the plan was to raise the national income to such a level that after meeting the minimum requirements of every individual we would be left with enough resources for the enjoyment of life and for cultural activities.”
  • Thus its objective was at doubling the per capita income in the country over a period of 15 years.

Question 89

Nisarga, Gati, Nivar, Tauktae and Yaas are names of

  1. AOption (a)

    new fighter aircrafts

  2. BOption (b)

    tourist places

  3. COption (c)

    weather stations

  4. DOption (d)

    cyclones

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

cyclones

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cyclones.

Key Points:

  Tropical Cyclone

  • A Tropical cyclone is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans and is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain.
  • A characteristic feature of tropical cyclones in the eye is a central region of clear skies, warm temperatures, and low atmospheric pressure.
  • Storms of this type are called hurricanes in the North Atlantic and eastern Pacific and typhoons in Southeast Asia and China. They are called tropical cyclones in the southwest Pacific and the Indian Ocean regions.
  • In the southern hemisphere, storms rotate clockwise and anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere.
  • Cyclones named in past Gati (named by India), Nivar (Iran), Burevi (Maldives), Tauktae (Myanmar), Yaas (Oman), and Nisarga(Bangladesh).

​ Cyclone formation:

  • A cyclone is the formation of a very low-pressure system with very high-speed winds revolving around it.
  • Factors like wind speed, wind direction, temperature, and humidity contribute to the development of cyclones.
  • Before cloud formation, water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change into a vapour. When water vapour changes back to liquid form as raindrops, this heat is released into the atmosphere.
  • The heat released into the atmosphere warms the air around.
  • The air tends to rise and causes a drop in pressure. More air rushes to the centre of the storm. This cycle is repeated.

Question 90

Which one of the following States/UTs was connected with the Indian Railways network in the year 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mizoram

  2. BOption (b)

    Ladakh

  3. COption (c)

    Manipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Sikkim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Manipur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

  • Manipur
  • A passenger train–Rajdhani Express from Assam’s Silchar railway station–reached the Vaingaichunpao railway station for a trail run in Manipur in July 2021.
  • This marks Manipur’s debut on Indian Railway Map, which will serve as major connectivity to the Northeast region. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • The government aims to commence passenger railway services in the states of Manipur, Mizoram, and Nagaland by March 2023.
  • Manipur literally means “A jewelled land” nestle deep within a lush green corner of North East India.
  • Surrounded by blue hills with an oval-shaped valley at the centre, rich in art and tradition and surcharged with nature’s pristine glory. Manipur lies in a melting pot of culture.
  • Mizoram
  • It has an endless variety of landscapes, hilly terrains, meandering streams deep gorges, and a rich wealth of flora and fauna.
  • Mizoram is a mountainous region that became the 23rd State of the Union in February 1987. It was one of the districts of Assam till 1972 when it became Union Territory.
  • Ladakh 
  • It is also known as “the Land of Passes‟ (La-passes, dakh-land) is the largest in the area among the regions viz., Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh with an area of 95,876 km2. The region is administered by India as a union territory.
  • Sikkim
  • It has been given many names. The Lepchas, original inhabitants of the land called it Nye-mae-el paradise’. The Limbus named it Su Khim or new house’ while to the Bhutias it was Beymul Demazong `the hidden valley of rice.
  • The crowning glory of Sikkim is Mt. Khangchendzonga, the third highest mountain in the world. But for the Sikkimese Khangchendzonga is much more than a mountain and is revered as the abode of their guardian deity Dzo-nga.
  • Sikkim shares its border with Nepal in the west and Bhutan in the east, with the Tibetan plateau rising from its northern border. It was once a Himalayan monarchy and part of the fabled Silk Route to China. It merges with India in 1975.

Question 91

Which of the following statements about living and non-living being is/are correct?

  1. While living being can demonstrate growth and repair, non-living being cannot.
  2. While living being demonstrates metabolic processes, non-living being does not.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

  • Many things can be found around us, from oceans and mountains to plants and animals. The earth on which we live is made up of a variety of elements. These "things" can be divided into two categories: living things and non-living things.
  • All living things have the ability to breathe, eat, grow, move, reproduce, and have senses.
  • Non-living things do not have the ability to eat, grow, breathe, move, or reproduce like living things and have no senses.

Difference between Living and Non-living things:

Living thingsNon-living things
They possess life.They do not possess life.
Living things have the ability to give birth to their offspring.Non-living things do not have the ability to reproduce.
Growth and development occur in living organisms.Growth and development do not occur in non-living things.
All living things move from one place to another.Non-living things cannot move on their own
All living things are constantly undergoing metabolic processes.Non-living things have no metabolic processes.
Living things rely on water, air, and food to survive.Non-living things have no such requirements.
Example: Humans, plants, animals.Example: Book, table, buildings.

Question 92

Which one of the following plant plastids stores starch, oil and protein granules?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chloroplast

  2. BOption (b)

    Leucoplast

  3. COption (c)

    Chromoplast

  4. DOption (d)

    Xanthoplast

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Leucoplast

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leucoplast.

Concept:

  • Plastids are present only in plant cells.
  • Plastids are differentiated into three different types on the basis of the colour, i.e., type of pigment found in them.
  1. Leucoplasts
  2. Chromoplast
  3. Chloroplast

Explanation:

Leucoplast

  • Leucoplast are the colorless plastids of varied shapes and sizes with stored nutrients in the form of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.
  • These are as follows:
  • Amyloplasts: are the carbohydrate-containing leucoplasts that store starch, e.g., tuber of potato, grain of rice, and wheat.
  • Elaioplasts: are the leucoplasts that store oils and fats, e.g., rose.
  • Aleuroplasts: They are protein storing leucoplasts, e.g., castor endosperm.

Thus, leucoplast stores starch, oil and protein granules.

Additional Information

  • Chloroplast:
  • These are photosynthetic plastids, which are green in colour and found in the leaves of all green plants.
  • They have lamellae organized in the form of grana.
  • They contain mainly chlorophylls and some amount of carotene and xanthophyll.
  • Chromoplast:  
  • These are non-photosynthetic coloured plastids which synthesize and store carotenoid pigments.
  • They appear orange, red, or yellow in colour.
  • Xanthoplast:
  • Xanthoplasts have yellow pigments i.e. xanthophylls, carotenoids.

Question 93

Which one of the following statements about vacuoles' is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    In plants, there is a large central vacuole that may occupy 90% of total cell volume.

  2. BOption (b)

    In plant cells, vacuoles provide turgidity and rigidity.

  3. COption (c)

    In Amoeba, vacuoles have role in nutrition.

  4. DOption (d)

    Vacuoles are absent in animal cells.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vacuoles are absent in animal cells.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vacuoles are absent in animal cells (incorrect).

Explanation:

Vacuoles are large membrane sacs found in the cytoplasm.

These store substances that are not essentially useful for the cell (like water, sap, excretory product, and other materials).

  • In plants, there is a large central vacuole that may occupy 90% of the total cell volume. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Vacuoles in plant cells are very large and can occupy up to 90% of the volume of the cell.
  • The vacuole is surrounded by a membrane called tonoplast.
  • In-plant cells, vacuoles provide turgidity and rigidity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Plant cells have typically large central vacuoles filled with a watery fluid that gives added support to the cell and also provides turgidity and rigidity to the plant cell.
  • In Amoeba, vacuoles have a role in nutrition. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • A food vacuole is a membrane-enclosed sac that performs digestive functions.
  • They are found in the cells of protozoan protists such as amoeba and plasmodium.
  • They function as an intracellular stomach, digesting the food consumed.
  • Vacuoles are absent in animal cells. Hence statement 4 is not correct.
  • Animal cells have more vacuoles than plant cells, but they are much more prominent in case of plant cells.
  • Vacuoles in animal cells are smaller in size than the vacuoles in plant cells.

Question 94

In aquatic plants, large air sacs give them buoyancy effects. These sacs are surrounded by which one of the following types of tissues?

  1. AOption (a)

    Parenchyma

  2. BOption (b)

    Collenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    Sclerenchyma

  4. DOption (d)

    Complex tissue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Parenchyma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Parenchyma.

Concept:

  • Parenchyma is a living, simple permanent tissue composed of thin-walled cells.
  • Parenchyma is also called primary tissue or ground tissue.
  • It is present in the cortex, pith, palisade, mesophyll, and some other parts of the flower.
  • It is mostly produced by the ground tissue.
  • The parenchyma forms the major part of the plant organs.

Explanation:

  • In aquatic plants, large air sacs give them buoyancy effects. These sacs are surrounded by parenchyma tissues, also known as aerenchyma.
  • Basically, in aquatic plants, aerenchyma is parenchyma tissue.
  • Aerenchyma cells form a network with large air spaces or air cavities for gaseous exchange.
  • These air cavities in aquatic plants allow the plant to be light and buoyant, allowing it to float easily in water.

Additional Information

Collenchyma:

  • Collenchyma is a simple, living mechanical tissue.
  • Its cell is composed of more or less elongated cells with thick, primary non-lignified walls.
  • Intercellular spaces are found to be absent.

Sclerenchyma:

  • The sclerenchyma consists of long, narrow cells with thick and lignified cell walls having a few or numerous pits.
  • These are dead cells and do not perform any metabolic function.

Complex tissue:

  • Complex permanent tissues are a group of more than one type of cells having a common origin and working together as a unit.
  • The main complex tissues in vascular plants are xylem and phloem.
  • Xylem is a complex permanent tissue which conducts water and mineral nutrients upwards from the root to all aerial parts of the plant.
  • Phloem is a food conducting complex permanent tissue.

Question 95

Which one of the following belongs to 'Pisces'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dogfish

  2. BOption (b)

    Jellyfish

  3. COption (c)

    Silverfish

  4. DOption (d)

    Starfish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dogfish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Dogfish.

Explanation:

  • Dogfish belongs to the class Chondrichthyes of Pisces.
  • Pisces belongs to the phylum chordata.
  • Super class - Pisces is considered as true fishes and includes three main classes:
  • Cyclostomata
  • Chondrichthyes
  • Osteichthyes
  • Class - Cyclostomata:
  • Class - Cyclostomata includes the round mouthed fishes.
  • They are also called jawless fishes as they have sucking mouth without jaws.
  • Example: Petromyzon (lamprey), Myxine (hagfish).
  • Class - Chondrichthyes:
  • Class - Chondrichthyes have over 600 species including sharks, rays and skates. They are called cartilaginous fishes due to the presence of a cartilaginous skeleton.
  • Example: Scoliodon (dogfish), Pristis (sawfish), Trygon (sting ray).

Fig: Scoliodon

  • Class- Osteichthyes:
  • Class- Osteichthyes includes bony fishes such as carps, catfishes, sardines, seahorse, etc.
  • They have a bony skeleton.
  • Example: Labeo (rohu), Exocoetus (flying fish), Remora (sucker fish).

Additional Information

Jellyfish belong to the phylum Coelenterata.

Fig:Jellyfish

Silverfish belong to the phylum Arthropoda.

Starfish belong to the phylum Echinodermata.

Fig: Starfish

Question 96

Which one of the following groups is called 'amphibians of plant kingdom'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bryophytes

  2. BOption (b)

    Thallophytes

  3. COption (c)

    Pteridophytes

  4. DOption (d)

    Gymnosperms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bryophytes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bryophytes.

Explanation:

  • Bryophytes include the various mosses and liverworts.
  • These are non-vascular embryophytes, characterized by the presence of an independent gametophyte and parasitic sporophyte.
  • Bryophytes commonly grow in moist, shaded areas in hills.
  • These are called amphibians of the plant Kingdom because, these can live in soil, but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
  • However, their sperms, known as antherozoids, are flagellate and require water to swim and reach the eggs in order to fertilize them. As a result, they require water for sexual reproduction.
  • The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than that of algae.
  • Ecological importance:
  • Some mosses provide food for herbaceous mammals, birds, and other animals.
  • Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonize rocks. Hence, these help in biological succession.
  • Mosses form dense mats on the soil.
  • Marchantia has medicinal properties to cure lungs and liver infections. It also has anti-tumor properties.

Additional Information

  • Thallophytes:
  • Thallophytes, also known as algae, are a primary division of the plant kingdom.
  • They lack stems, roots, leaves, and other vascular plant parts.
  • Pteridophytes:
  • Pteridophytes are primitive seedless vascular plants also called cryptogams.
  • The pteridophytes are found in cool, damp shady places through some may flourish well in sandy-soil conditions.
  • Gymnosperms:
  • Gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after fertilization.
  • These plants are mostly found in colder parts of the northern hemisphere, where they form extensive forests.
  • These are small groups of seed plants.

Question 97

Which one of the following is caused by a bacterial pathogen?

  1. AOption (a)

    AIDS

  2. BOption (b)

    Dengue fever

  3. COption (c)

    COVID-19

  4. DOption (d)

    Typhoid fever

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Typhoid fever

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Typhoid fever.

Concept:

  • Bacteria that can cause disease are known as pathogenic bacteria.
  • Pathogens can spread through the air, skin contact, bodily fluids, etc.

Explanation:

  • AIDS
  • The word AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
  • AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
  • HIV belongs to the group retrovirus.
  • Transmission of HIV occurs through following ways:
  • By sexual contact with the infected person.
  • By transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
  • By sharing infected needles
  • From infected mother to her child through placenta.
  • Dengue fever
  • It is caused by virus Flavivirus.
  • Dengue is transmitted by the bite of a mosquito infected with one of the four dengue virus serotypes.
  • There is no vaccine or any specific medicine to treat dengue. People who have dengue fever should rest and drink plenty of fluids.
  • It is a febrile illness that affects infants, young children and adults with symptoms appearing 3-14 days after the infective bite.
  • COVID-19
  • The COVID-19 pandemic, also known as the coronavirus pandemic, is a global pandemic of coronavirus disease 2019 caused by a coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2) that causes severe acute respiratory syndrome.
  • The majority of people infected with the virus will experience mild to moderate respiratory illness and will recover without the need for special treatment. Some, however, will become critically ill and require medical attention.
  • Typhoid fever
  • It is caused by pathogenic bacterium Salmonella typhi.
  • It is spread by contaminated food and water.
  • It generally enters the small intestine and then migrates to other organs through blood.
  • Typhoid fever can be confirmed by widal test.

Question 98

The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric

  1. AOption (a)

    diffraction of starlight

  2. BOption (b)

    reflection of starlight

  3. COption (c)

    refraction of starlight

  4. DOption (d)

    Scattering of starlight

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

refraction of starlight

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Refraction: The phenomenon by which a ray of light bends its path when it travels from one transparent medium to another is called refraction of light.
  • The bending happens because the speed of light varies in different mediums.
  • Refractive index: The ratio of the speed of light in the air to the speed of light in the medium is called the refractive index.
  • More will be the ratio of refractive index between two mediums more will be the bending of light.
  • Atmospheric Refraction: The different layers of the atmosphere have a different refractive index. 
  • ​The ray of light coming from some outer space changes continuously bends its path while passing through different atmospheric layers.

EXPLANATION:

  • The atmosphere of the earth is made of different layers.
  • It is affected by winds, varying temperatures, and different densities as well.
  • When light from a distant source (a star) passes through our turbulent (moving air) atmosphere, it undergoes refraction many times.
  • When we finally perceive this light from a star, it appears to be twinkling.
  • This is because some of the light rays reach us directly and some bend away from and toward us. It happens so fast that it gives a **twinkling effect.**​
  • So, the correct answer will be option 3.

Important Points

  • This twinkling effect does not happen to the sun or moon because they are very close to the earth and appear big.
  • Stars are very far and appear to us as point size. So, the twinkling effect is visible.

Question 99

A mass M is dragged by a pulley on a horizontal plane by a force anti-parallel to its displacement. The work done in pulling the mass M is

  1. AOption (a)

    zero

  2. BOption (b)

    positive

  3. COption (c)

    infinite

  4. DOption (d)

    negative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

negative

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Work (W) is said to be done by a force when the force acting on it causes the object to displace.
  • Mathematically it is given by:

 ⇒W=F⃗.d⃗=Fd cosθ;;;;;…(1)⇒ W = \vec F .\vec d = Fd\ cos θ ;;;;; \ldots \left( 1 \right) 

Where F = The magnitude of the force vector, d = The magnitude of the displacement vector

EXPLANATION:

Given: The pull force F is applied in the antiparallel direction to the displacement of the mass on the plane.

  • Referring to the diagram,

  • So, the displacement and pulling force vectors will be in the antiparallel direction to each other as the angle between them will be 180°.

∵ θ  = 180°.⇒ cos180° = -1 

  • So, using equation 1,
  • The work done in pulling the mass M  will be negative as the magnitude of the force and displacement vector can not be negative.

So, the correct answer will be option 4.

Question 100

A 5 N force is defined when a mass of 10 kg is accelerated with

  1. AOption (a)

    5.0 cm/s2

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5 m/s2

  3. COption (c)

    0.5 cm/s2

  4. DOption (d)

    5.0 m/s2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.5 m/s2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Force is defined as mass times acceleration.

F = m x a      ...(1)

Where, F = Force, m = Mass of body, a = acceleration

CALCULATION:

Given: m = 1 kg, F = 5 N

  • We have to find the acceleration associated with the force 5N applied on the 10 kg body.
  • Using equation 1,

⇒ 5 = 10 x a

⇒ a = 0.5 m/s2

  • Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration of the object will be 0.5 m/s2

Question 101

A boy of mass 52 kg jumps with a horizontal velocity of 2 m/s onto a stationary cart of mass 3 kg. The cart is fixed with frictionless wheels. Which one of the following would be the speed of the cart?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.15 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    1.89 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    1.51 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    2.51 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1.89 m/s

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • During the jumping of the boy on the cart, there will be no horizontal external force acting on the system (The weight of the boy will be acing in the downward direction) so the linear momentum in the horizontal direction of the motion of the cart will remain conserved.

⇒ Total linear momentum initially in the horizontal direction  = Total linear momentum finally in the horizontal direction 

  • Since after the jumping, both boy and the cart will move together with the same linear velocity.

⇒ MV = (M + m) v      ...(1)

Where, M = Mass of the boy, V = The linear velocity of the boy before landing on the cart, m = Mass of the cart, v = The linear velocity of the system (Boy and the cart)

CALCULATION:

Given: m  = 3 kg, M = 52 kg, V = 2 m/s, v = ?

  • Using equation 1,
  • According to law of conservation of momentum:

⇒ 52 × 2 = (52 + 3) v

⇒ v = 1.89 m/s

So, the correct answer will be option 2.

Question 102

The energy possessed by a body due to its change in position or shape is called 

  1. AOption (a)

    thermal energy

  2. BOption (b)

    potential energy

  3. COption (c)

    kinetic energy

  4. DOption (d)

    electric energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

potential energy

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Potential energy: The energy stored in an object because of its specific shape or position.
  • The potential energy possessed by a body due to its height is called gravitational potential energy. The gravitational potential energy can be calculated as,

P.E. = mgh

  • The potential energy stored in a body due to a change in its shape is called elastic potential energy.
  • ​​Kinetic energy: The energy an object has because of its motion.

K. E. = (½) mv2

  • Nuclear Energy: A huge amount of heat is produced in a very short time when the nuclei of some elements like uranium, thorium, etc. undergo fission. This is used in atomic energy projects.

So, the correct answer is option 1.

EXPLANATION:

  • Referring to the definition of potential energy we can say that the energy possessed by a body due to its change in position or shape is called potential energy.
  • So, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 103

A sound wave has a frequency of 1 kHz and wavelength 50 cm. How long will it take to travel 1 km?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 s

  2. BOption (b)

    4 s

  3. COption (c)

    3 s

  4. DOption (d)

    2 s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 s

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The sound waves propagate through the air in different frequencies, among this human ears can only sense the sound of bandwidth 20 Hz-20 kHz.
  • Sound waves with a frequency greater than audible waves are known as Ultrasonic waves.
  • The wavelength of this wave can be defined as displacement made when a wave completes its one oscillation
  • And the relation between wavelength (λ), frequency (n), and velocity (v) can be given as

v = n × λ      ,,,,(1)

  • Since the frequency (n) of the sound wave will be inverse of the time period (T) so the above equation will become,

⇒T=dv;;;;;…(2)⇒ T=\frac{d}{v};;;;; \ldots \left( 2 \right)

Where, n = Frequency of the sound wave, λ = Wavelength of the sound wave, d = Distance traveled by the sound wave in T time moving with velocity v

CALCULATION:

Given: n =1 kHz, λ = 50 cm = 0.5 m, d = 1 km = 1000 m

  • Using equation 1, the velocity of sound in air,

⇒ v = n × λ = 1000 × 0.5 = 500 m/s

  • Using equation 2,

⇒T=1000500=2 sec⇒ T=\frac{1000}{500}=2 \ sec

⇒ T = 2 sec

So, the correct answer will be option 4.

Question 104

For an element with atomic number 35, which one of the following will be the correct number of electrons in its valence shell based on Bohr's model of an atom?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The atomic number (Z) of an atom is the total number of protons or electrons present in that atom.

  • Niels Bohr proposed an early model of the atom as a Nucleus at the center containing protons and neutrons being orbited by electrons in different shells.

  • Bohr named these shells K (nearest to the Nucleus), L, M, N, and so on as shown in the figure below.

  • These shells contain only a fixed number of electrons like K contains only 2 electrons, L only 8 electrons, M contains 18 electrons, and so on.

  • These states are stable states for any orbit and hence if the last shell (valance shell) of an atom contains these numbers of electrons they are said to be stable atoms. For

  • For example, He, Ne, and Ar contains 2, 8, and 8 electrons in their valance shell and hence are stable.

SOLUTION:

Given Z = 35 

K = 2, L = 8, M = 18, N = 7 (Valance Shell)

Hence, the valance shell of this atom contains 7 electrons.​

Additional Information

Bohr's atomic model.

  • The electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular orbits with discrete energy, i.e, the energy is quantized.
  • The radius of the orbits is also fixed and depends on the principal quantum number n.
  • When electrons are supplied with energy, they jump to higher orbitals.
  • The angular momentum of the electrons is quantized and given by

 mvr=nh2πmvr = \frac{{nh}}{{2\pi }}.

  • The frequency of light ν required to transition of an electron that differs in energy by

ΔE;isequal;to=ΔEh=hν′′−hν′h=ν;;\Delta E;isequal;to = \frac{{\Delta E}}{h} = \frac{{hν '' - hν '}}{h} = ν ;; where hν'' and hν' is the energy of higher and lower orbitals respectively.

  • The Energy of an electron in a stationary orbit is given by:

En=−RHZ2n2E_n = - R_H\frac{{Z^2}}{{n^2}}

Question 105

Which one of the following is not an example of a redox reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    AlCl3 + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + 3HCl

  2. BOption (b)

    2NaH → 2Na + H2

  3. COption (c)

    4Fe +3O2 → 2Fe2O3 

  4. DOption (d)

    CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

AlCl3 + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + 3HCl

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is AlCl3 + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + 3HCl.

Explanation:

  • Redox reactions involve the oxidation and reduction of reacting species simultaneously. Thus, a change in oxidation state determines whether or not a reaction is a redox.
  • An oxidizing agent (also oxidant) is the element or compound that accepts an electron from another species in an oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction. Because the oxidizing agent is gaining electrons (and thus is frequently referred to as an electron acceptor), it is said to be reduced.
  • During a redox reaction, a reductant is a reactant that donates electrons to other reactants.

AlCl3 + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + 3HCl is not an example of a redox reaction because in this reaction oxidation and reduction do not take place.

Additional Information

2NaH → 2Na + H2 

          oxidation-reduction  

4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3

               oxidation reduction

     

CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4

                    reduction  oxidation

Thus, the above 3 reactions are an example of redox reactions because in these reactions oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously.

Question 106

Which one of the following allotropes of carbon is isomorphous with crystalline silicon?

  1. AOption (a)

    Coke

  2. BOption (b)

    Diamond

  3. COption (c)

    Graphite

  4. DOption (d)

    Coal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Diamond

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diamond.

Concept:

  • Allotropy refers to the ability of chemical elements to exist in two or more forms with the same physical state.

Explanation:

  • Diamond and crystalline silicon are isomorphous.
  • Crystals are described as isomorphous in crystallography if their shapes are very similar. Carbon and silicon are both members of the same group.
  • The C atom in diamond and the Si atom in crystalline silicon is coordinated with four other atoms, resulting in a tetrahedral structure that extends over a wide range.
  • Because they both have three-dimensional tetrahedral structures, diamond and crystalline silicon are isomorphous.
  • Diamond has a very distinct and well-defined shape, as well as a well-defined structure. The structure of a diamond is shown below:

 Additional Information

  • While the other two, coke and coal structure is not well defined because they are carbon combustion products obtained through different processes, whereas graphite has a layered structure.
  • Coal is formed naturally through the decay of plants, animals, and fossils, whereas coke is a byproduct of coal combustion.

Question 107

Which one of the following is the colour of hydrogen gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Light yellow

  2. BOption (b)

    Orange

  3. COption (c)

    Black

  4. DOption (d)

    Colourless

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Colourless

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Colourless.

Explanation:

  • Hydrogen is the most abundant gas in the universe.
  • The chemical element hydrogen has the symbol H and the atomic number 1.
  • It is the very first element in the periodic table.
  • The hydrogen nucleus contains one proton but no neutron.
  • It is insoluble in water and lighter than the air.
  • In nature, hydrogen gas is colourless, odourless, non-toxic, and tasteless.
  • It is a combustible gas, but it does not support combustion

Thus, the colour of the hydrogen gas is colourless.

Question 108

Which one of the following is not a pigment?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zinc oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Chalk

  3. COption (c)

    White lead

  4. DOption (d)

    Silica

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Silica

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Silica

Explanation:

A pigment is a coloured substance that is completely or nearly insoluble in water.

Silica

  • Silica makes up a large portion of the earth's crust, it is widely available. Silica, or silicon dioxide, occurs as crystalline Quartz in its purest form.
  • Although silica is not commonly used as a pigment, it can be found in grounds, primers, and wood fillers. Silica is a mineral that is used in the production of glass, water glass, abrasives, ceramics, and enamelware.

Additional Information

Chalk 

  • Chalk is a sedimentary carbonate rock that is soft, white, and porous. It is a type of limestone made up of the mineral calcite that was formed deep beneath the sea by the compression of microscopic plankton that had settled on the sea floor.
  • Whiting is finely ground and purified chalk that is used as a filler, extender, or pigment in a wide range of materials such as ceramics, putty, cosmetics, crayons, plastics, rubber, paper, paints, and linoleum.

Zinc oxide

  • Zinc oxide (zinc white) is a paint pigment that is more opaque than lithopone but less opaque than titanium dioxide.

White lead

  • White lead is a heavy, white substance that is poisonous and insoluble in water. It is widely used as a white pigment and paint base. It is one of the most ancient paint pigments used by humans.

Question 109

Which one of the following statements about fertilizers is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Urea is a phosphorus-containing fertilizer.

  2. BOption (b)

    Application of fertilizer to the soil increases fertility of the soil.

  3. COption (c)

    Urea can be prepared by action of ammonia and carbon dioxide under high pressure and at high temperature.

  4. DOption (d)

    Urea contains more nitrogen than other fertilizers.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Urea is a phosphorus-containing fertilizer.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Fertilizers:

  • Fertilizers are chemical compounds that are used to maintain a good harvest and improve soil fertility.
  • It is used excessively in agricultural processes.
  • Fertilizers increase crop productivity.
  • Example:- granular triple superphosphate, urea, potassium chloride, anhydrous ammonia.

Urea:

  • Urea has a molecular weight of 60.06 g.
  • Urea is rich in nitrogen content. It has approximately 46.6% nitrogen in it.
  • Urea is soluble in water.
  • Urea is the only fertilizer which has the highest nitrogen content.
  • Urea is a non-protein nitrogen compound that is mainly made up of nitrogen.
  • Urea is commercially prepared on large scale by the reaction of liquid ammonia and liquified carbon dioxide.

Question 110

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Most carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity.

  2. BOption (b)

    Bonding in organic compounds is covalent.

  3. COption (c)

    Graphite is used as a lubricant.

  4. DOption (d)

    Diamond is an allotrope of carbon.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Most carbon compounds are good conductors of electricity.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Carbon and its compounds:

  • Carbon is an element with the symbol C and the atomic number 6.
  • It is an element of group 14 on the periodic table.
  • It is nonmetallic and tetravalent in nature.
  • Tetravalency is a character to make 4 covalent bonds for a given carbon in the chain.
  • There are three isotopes of carbon 12C, 13C, and 14C.
  • Compounds that contain carbon as one of their constituents are called carbon compounds.
  • There are two types of carbon compounds- organic and inorganic.
  • Organic carbon compounds can be obtained from living things.
  • Inorganic carbon compounds are obtained from non-living things which have high melting and boiling points.
  • Examples of organic carbon compounds are protein, methane, starch, etc.
  • Examples of inorganic carbon compounds are carbon dioxide, chalk, sodium carbonate, etc.​
  • Carbon is found in the universe in three allotropic forms - diamond, graphite and fullerene.

Important Points

  • Organic carbon compounds have covalent bonds.
  • Graphite is an allotrope of carbon which is the only good conductor of heat and electricity.
  • Graphite is also used as a lubricant in many machines.
  • Diamond is the hardest substance known.
  • Diamond is also an allotropic form of carbon which is used as a precious stone.
  • Diamond is the most commonly used stone in jewellery making.

Question 111

What is the mass of a material, whose specific heat capacity is 400 J/(kg °C) for a rise in temperature from 15°C to 25°C, when heat received is 20 kJ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.1 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    1 kg

  3. COption (c)

    10 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    5 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5 kg

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a substance per unit of mass by one unit.
  • The specific heat capacity of a material is a physical property.
  • It is also an example of an extensive property since its value is proportional to the size of the system being examined.
  • Heat received by the material of  mass m,

Q = mc ΔT      ....(1)

Where, m = Mass, c = Specific heat capacity of the material, ΔT = Temperature raised 

CALCULATION:

Given: ΔT = 25°C  - 15°C, = 10°C, c = 400 J/(kg °C, Q = 20 kJ

  • Using equation 1,

⇒ 20000 = m × 400 × 10 

⇒ m  = 5 kg

So, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 112

The specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of heat needed to change unit mass from

  1. AOption (a)

    liquid to vapour with a change of temperature

  2. BOption (b)

    liquid to vapour without a change of temperature

  3. COption (c)

    vapour to liquid without a change of temperature

  4. DOption (d)

    vapour to liquid with a change of temperature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

liquid to vapour without a change of temperature

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Latent heat of vaporization

  • The latent heat of vaporization is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of the material in its liquid state at its boiling point to 1 kg of the material in its gaseous state.
  • It is also the amount of heat energy released when 1 kg of vapor changes into 1 kg of liquid.
  • For water at its normal boiling point or condensation temperature (100° C ), the latent heat of vaporization (latent heat of steam)
<br>

Latent heat of fusion

  • The latent heat of fusion is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of the material in its solid state at its melting point to 1 kg of the material in its liquid state.
  • It is also the amount of heat energy released when at melting point 1 kg of liquid changes to 1 kg of solid.
  • For water at its normal freezing temperature or melting point (0° C ), the latent heat of fusion (or latent heat of ice) is
<br>

EXPLANATION:

  • Latent heat of vaporization is more than the latent heat of fusion.
  • This is because when a substance gets converted from liquid to vapor, there is a large increase in volume.
  • Hence more amount heat is required But when a solid gets converted to a liquid, then the increase in volume is negligible.
  • Hence very less amount of heat is required. So, the latent heat of vaporization is more than the latent heat of fusion.
  • During the phase change from liquid to vapor there will be no change in the temperature.
  • Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 113

Evaporation from the surface of a given liquid takes place more rapidly when

  1. AOption (a)

    the temperature is high and the surface area of the liquid is large

  2. BOption (b)

    the temperature is low and the surface area of the liquid is large

  3. COption (c)

    the temperature is low and the surface area of the liquid is small

  4. DOption (d)

    the temperature is high and the surface area of the liquid is small

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the temperature is high and the surface area of the liquid is large

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Evaporation: 

  • Evaporation is a type of vaporization that occurs on the surface of a liquid as it changes into the gas phase.
  • In an open vessel, the liquid keeps on evaporating.
  • The particles of liquid absorb energy from the surroundings to regain the energy lost during evaporation.
  • This absorption of energy from the surroundings makes the surroundings cold.​
  • ​Heat transfer from anybody depends upon three quantities; Specific Heat (C), Mass(m), and Change in Temperature(T).

⇒ ΔQ = mCΔT

  • Specific Heat is the amount of heat energy required to increase the temperature of a body by 1°C per unit mass.
  • The S.I. unit of Specific Heat is J Kg-1°C-1 or JKg-1K-1.

EXPLANATION:

  • We see from the formula that heat transfer will be more if the temperature difference between the water and the atmosphere is more.
  • Also, if the surface area of liquid is large, the number of atoms in contact with the atmosphere per unit volume will also be large.
  • Hence, the evaporation rate will be higher when the temperature of the liquid is high and the surface area of the liquid is large. Therefore option 1 is correct.

Question 114

Which of the following statements correctly explains/explain the existence of a positive force between two electric charges?

  1. Both the charges are positive.
  2. Both the charges are negative.
  3. Both the charges are oppositely charged.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Coulomb's law in Electrostatics: It state’s that force of interaction between two stationary point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges, and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them and acts along the straight line joining the two charges.

⇒ F ∝ q1 × q2

⇒F∝;1r2⇒ F \propto ;\frac{1}{{{r^2}}}

⇒F=Kq1;×;q2r2⇒ F = K\frac{{{q_1}; \times ;{q_2}}}{{{r^2}}}

Where K=14πϵoK = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_o}constant is called electrostatic force constant.

  • The value of K depends on the nature of the medium between the two charges and the system of units chosen

EXPLANATION:

Case 1:

Let the magnitude of the first charge (q1) = + q and magnitude of the second charge (q2) = -q

  • The force between two charges will be

⇒F′=Kq1;×;q2r2=K−q;×;qr2=−F⇒ F' = K\frac{{{q_1}; \times ;{q_2}}}{{{r^2}}} = K\frac{{{-q}; \times ;{q}}}{{{r^2}}}=-F

  • Here the force between the charges is negative which means the force is attractive in nature.

Case 2:

Let the magnitude of the first charge (q1) = + q and magnitude of the second charge (q2) = +q

  • The force between two charges will be

⇒F′=Kq1;×;q2r2=Kq;×;qr2=F⇒ F' = K\frac{{{q_1}; \times ;{q_2}}}{{{r^2}}} = K\frac{{{q}; \times ;{q}}}{{{r^2}}}=F

  • Here the force between the charges is positive which means the force is repulsive in nature.

Case 3:

Let the magnitude of the first charge (q1) = - q and the magnitude of the second charge (q2) = -q

  • The force between two charges will be

⇒F′=Kq1;×;q2r2=K−q;×;−qr2=F⇒ F' = K\frac{{{q_1}; \times ;{q_2}}}{{{r^2}}} = K\frac{{{-q}; \times ;{-q}}}{{{r^2}}}=F

  • Here the force between the charges is positive which means the force is repulsive in nature.
  • Therefore, the existence of a positive force between two electric charges can be explained when both the charges are positive or negative. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 115

An electric wire of resistance 50 ohm is cut into five equal wires. These wires are then connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 ohm

  2. BOption (b)

    10 ohm

  3. COption (c)

    0.5 ohm

  4. DOption (d)

    5 ohm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2 ohm

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Series Combination:

  • Two resistors are said to be in series if only one of their endpoints is joined, if the third resister is joined at end of one point only, then all three resistors are in series (figure a).

  • In series, the Current will be the same throughout the circuit.

  • In series, voltage is divided through each of the connected resistors.

  • in Series combination,

Req = R1 + R2 + R3     

Parallel Combination:

  • Two or more resistors are said to be in parallel if one end of all the resistors is joined together and similarly the other ends joined together (figure b).
  • In parallel, the current is divided through each connected resistor.
  • In parallel, Voltage will be the same throughout the circuit.

​

  • in parallel combination,

1Req=1R1+1R2+1R3\frac{1}{{{R_{eq}}}} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} + \frac{1}{R_3}          

Resistance of a wire:

The resistance of a wire is proportional to its length and inversely proportional to the cross-section area as per the formula.

⇒R=ρLA⇒ R = \frac{\rho L}{A}                                             

CALCULATION:

Given: R = 50 ohm 

  • The wire is cut into 5 equal pieces.
  • Using equation 1, the resistance of each part will be R/5
  • Then all 5 wires are connected in parallel. Then the equivalent resistance is,

⇒1Req=1R5+1R5+…;(5;times)\Rightarrow \frac{1}{{{R_{eq}}}} = \frac{1}{{\frac{R}{{5}}}} + \frac{1}{{\frac{R}{{5}}}} + \ldots ;\left( {5;times} \right)

⇒ Req = R/25

⇒ Req = 50/25

⇒ Req = 2 ohm

So, the correct answer is option 1.

Equivalent resistance in parallel is smaller than the smallest resistance of the parallel resistive circuit.

Question 116

The electric field lines from an isolated positively charged conducting sphere are

  1. AOption (a)

    tangential to the conducting surface

  2. BOption (b)

    at right angles to the conducting surface and towards the centre of the sphere

  3. COption (c)

    at any angle to the conducting surface

  4. DOption (d)

    at right angles to the conducting surface and outwards from the centre of the sphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

at right angles to the conducting surface and outwards from the centre of the sphere

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Since for a conducting solid sphere, the charge is only present at the surface, so the electric field intensity inside the conducting solid sphere is zero.
  • This can be proven using Gauss's law.

Gauss's law:

  • According to Gauss law, the total electric flux linked with a closed Gaussian surface called Gaussian surface is 1ϵo\frac{1}{ϵ_o} times the charge enclosed by the closed surface.

EXPLANATION:

  • If we draw a Gaussian sphere inside the conducting sphere for r < R then there is no charge enclosed inside the Gaussian surface.

⇒ ϕ  = 0 

  • No electric flux is involved with the  Gaussian sphere so there will be no electric field lines inside the Gaussian sphere but for the representation purpose, these lines will be perpendicular to the spherical surface and radially outside the surface as the conducting sphere is positively charged (Since the conducting sphere can be treated as an equipotential surface)
  • Hence, option 4 is correct.​

Question 117

Which one of the following is not a solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alloy

  2. BOption (b)

    Milk

  3. COption (c)

    Air

  4. DOption (d)

    Sugar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sugar

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Solution:

  • A liquid mixture that has solute particles dissolved in a solvent medium.
  • The solute is the component that is present in less amount.
  • The solvent is the component of the solution which is present in more quantities.

Important Points Milk:

  • It is a mixture of water, fat, and solids (in the form of milk protein and carbohydrates) that is mixed irrationally.
  • Therefore milk is a mixture, not a pure substance.
  • The main compounds of milk are lactose and casein.​

Air:

  • Air is a mixture of different gases and dust particles.
  • Percentages-wise distribution of different gases is: Nitrogen - 78%, Oxygen - 21%, Argon - 0.9%, and the remaining portion is occupied by various other gases like carbon dioxide, neon, helium, sulfur dioxide, etc.
  • Air also contains water vapour.

Sugar:

  • Sugar is a compound that is formed by a combination of three atoms: carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
  • Since these three atoms are chemically joined with each other thus they form a compound in nature.

Alloy:

  • Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals with non-metals.
  • Alloy is a  chemical compound with some metallic properties.
  • Example- steel, brass, bronze etc.

Question 118

Refining of petroleum is carried out using which one of the following techniques?

  1. AOption (a)

    Evaporation

  2. BOption (b)

    Fractional distillation

  3. COption (c)

    Separating funnel

  4. DOption (d)

    Sublimation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Fractional distillation

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Petrochemicals:

  • Petrochemicals are chemical substances that are derived from petroleum and natural gas.
  • Example- Propylene, Ethylene, Butadiene etc.
  • They are used for medical, household, clothing and other purposes.
  • They are also used in the making of paints and building materials.
  • Petroleum products are used as a fuel for domestic and commercial transport.

Important PointsEvaporation:

  • The process of conversion of liquids into gas is called evaporation.
  • Evaporation is a surface phenomenon and thus depends on the surface area.
  • Evaporation occurs with a change in temperature.
  • Evaporation of oils or petroleum is done by diffusion of the oil layer and the oil surface layer.

Fractional distillation:

  • Fractional distillation is a process of separating miscible liquids which have different boiling points.
  • Fractional distillation uses a fractionating column which collects the vapours of different liquids as they vaporize.
  • Through this process, the oil refineries separate the crude oil to get different hydrocarbon products.

Separating funnel:

  • It is used to separate two or more immiscible liquids which form layers in the given mixture.
  • The denser solvent comes and settles at the bottom layer and the tap is used to diffuse it out.

Sublimation:

  • Sublimation is the process of conversion of solids into gases directly or vice-versa.
  • Example- vaporization of frozen carbon dioxide and burning of camphor.

Question 119

Which one of the following is a chemical change?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dissolving sugar in water

  2. BOption (b)

    Melting of ice

  3. COption (c)

    Crystallization

  4. DOption (d)

    Milk turning sour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Milk turning sour

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Chemical reaction: The chemical reaction is said to be the change that brings new products.

Chemical change:

  • Chemical changes give rise to the formation of new substances.
  • Most of the chemical changes are non- reversible.
  • Chemical changes are product-oriented.
  • Chemical changes follow the law of conservation of mass.

Physical change:

  • Physical changes are reversible.
  • There are no new substances formed in a physical change.
  • Physical changes involve changes in the state of matter.

Important Points

  • Melting of ice gives water which can be easily reversed by freezing the water again thus it is a physical change.
  • Crystallization is a process to change liquids and make them solids which is again a physical change.
  • Turning the milk sour is a chemical change as the new substance is formed that is curd.
  • Dissolving sugar in water is the preparation of a solution that can be said as a mixture.
  • In the mixture of sugar and water, no reaction takes place thus it is a physical change.

Additional Information

Temperature: The degree to measure the amount of hotness and coldness.

Boiling Point: The minimum temperature at which a liquid starts boiling is called its boiling point.

Freezing Point: The minimum temperature at which liquid starts getting frozen or solidified is called its freezing point.

Melting Point: The minimum temperature at which a solid starts melting or converts into liquid is called the melting point.

Question 120

Which one of the following is the correct molecular formula of ammonium carbonate if the valency of ammonium ion is (+1) and carbonate anion is (-2)?

  1. AOption (a)

    (NH4)2CO3

  2. BOption (b)

    NH4(CO3)2

  3. COption (c)

    (NH3)2CO3

  4. DOption (d)

    NH4CO3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(NH4)2CO3

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Ammonium Carbonate:

  • Ammonium carbonate is a white solid crystalline powder with a strong odour of ammonia.
  • It is considered an acidic salt.
  • It has a boiling point of 520°C and a melting point of 58°C.
  • It is used to make baking powder, smelling salt etc.
  • It is found to be soluble in water.
  • It undergoes a neutralization reaction with most of the bases.
  • Ammonium carbonate decomposes when heated into hydrochloric acid and ammonia,
  • It has a symbolic representation of (NH4)CO3.
  • Its molar mass is equal to 96.09 g/mol.

Calculation:

Ammonium carbonate is formed by two sets of ions

Cation of ammonium ion (NH4+)  and anion of carbonate (CO32-)

The charge on ammonium  ion (NH4+) is +1 and that of carbonate (CO32-) is -2, thus

The molecular formula will be (NH4+)  x 2 = +2 and    (CO32-) x 1 = -2

Here, +2 and -2 charges will balance each other to form (NH4)CO3.

Question 121

Which one of the following is a covalent compound?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium nitride

  3. COption (c)

    Silicon carbide

  4. DOption (d)

    Zinc sulphide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Silicon carbide

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Covalent Bonds:

  • Covalent bonds are mostly found in organic compounds.
  • They are non-metallic weaker bonds.
  • Compounds having covalent bonds occur in liquid or gaseous states if in solid, they are soft solids.
  • They are bad conductors of heat and electricity.
  • Compounds having covalent bonds have low melting and boiling points.
  • Covalent compounds are insoluble in water and organic solvents.
  • Covalent bonds are of two types - sigma (strong) and pi (weak).

Important Points

Calcium Oxide:

  • Its formula is CaO
  • It is an ionic compound.
  • It is a white or greyish white solid substance.
  • It can absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere easily,

Sodium Nitride:

  • Its formula is Na3N
  • It is an ionic compound.
  • It has a gap that is usually found in semiconductors.
  • It is formed from metal to non-metal interactions.

Silicon Carbide:

  • Its formula is SiC.
  • Silicon carbide has a strong covalent bond between them.
  • It is also known as the covalent network solid.
  • It has oxidation resistance and thermal shock resistance.

Zinc Sulphide:

  • Its formula is ZnS
  • It is an ionic compound.
  • It is usually black in colour due to various impurities and is thus used as a pigment.
  • It is used as a window in optics.

Question 122

The mass number of argon is 40. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The number of protons in argon is 22.

  2. BOption (b)

    The number of neutrons in argon is 18.

  3. COption (c)

    The number of electrons in argon is 18.

  4. DOption (d)

    The sum of numbers of protons and electrons in argon is 40.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The number of electrons in argon is 18.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • ATOMIC NUMBER: It is defined as the number of protons present in the nucleus. It is denoted by the letter Z.

  • MASS NUMBER: The total number of protons and neutrons present in a nucleus is called the mass number of the element. It is denoted by letter A.

  • For neutral atom,

  1. Number of protons in an atom = Z
  2. Number of electrons in an atom = Z
  3. Number of nucleons in an atom = A
  4. Number of neutrons in an atom = N = A – Z

CALCULATION:​

Given -  Mass number of argon (A) = 40 and atomic number  (Z) = 18

Number of protons in an atom = Z = 18

Number of electrons in an atom = Z = 18

Number of neutrons in an atom (N) = M – Z

⇒ N = 40 - 18 = 22

  • So option 3 is correct.

Question 123

Which one of the following is the correct order of the valencies of elements Ne, Si, N and Mg?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ne < Mg < N < Si

  2. BOption (b)

    Si < N < Mg < Ne

  3. COption (c)

    Ne < N < Si < Mg

  4. DOption (d)

    Mg < Ne < N < Si

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ne < Mg < N < Si

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Valency: It is the combining capacity of an element to form bonds by sharing electron pairs to make stable chemical compounds.

Stability: It is the property of resistance of a molecule or compound to not react with other molecules, elements and compounds

Important Points 

Magnesium:

  • Magnesium is an element with the atomic number 12.
  • It has the symbol Mg.
  • It is a metal and thus its valency is +2.
  • Its melting point is 650°C and its boiling point is 1090°C.
  • Magnesium is the eighth-most abundant element.

Nitrogen:

  • Nitrogen is non-metal with atomic number 7.
  • It occurs in gaseous form as dinitrogen.
  • It has electronic configuration 1s22s22p3.
  • Its valency is either -3 or -5.
  • Its melting point is -210°C and its boiling point are -195.8°C.

Silicon:

  • Silicon has atomic number 14.
  • It is represented with the symbol Si.
  • Its melting point is 1410°C and its boiling point is 3265°C.
  • It shows the valency of -4 or +4.

Neon:

  • Neon is a colourless, odourless and tasteless inert gas.
  • Neon is chemically inactive due to its stable configuration.
  • It is represented by Ne.
  • Its valency is zero.

Order of valencies:

Ne < Mg < N < Si

Question 124

The frequency of an alternating current is 3 Hz. It implies that

  1. AOption (a)

    there are 6 cycles/s

  2. BOption (b)

    there are 3 cycles/s

  3. COption (c)

    there are 2 cycles/s

  4. DOption (d)

    there is only 1 cycle/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

there are 3 cycles/s

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Alternating current: The electric current whose direction changes periodically is called electric current.
  • Frequency (ν): The number of waves that pass a given point per second is called frequency.
  • The unit of frequency is vibration per second or Hertz.
  • Time period (T): The time taken to complete one full oscillation or cycle by the Wave is called time period.
  • The SI unit of the time period is second (s).
  • The relationship between time period and frequency is given as,

T = 1/ν      ....(1)

EXPLANATION:

Given: ν = 3 Hz

  • Using equation 1,

⇒ T = 1/3 sec

  • So the time is taken to complete one oscillation = 1/3 sec

  • Since this time is time for one complete oscillation,

⇒ In 1 sec, the number of oscillations (cycles) that can be completed will be 3.

Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 125

Which one of the following correctly represents the SI unit of resistivity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ω 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ω / m

  3. COption (c)

    Ω cm

  4. DOption (d)

    Ω m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ω m

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The dimensional formula is defined as the expression of the physical quantity in terms of mass, length, time and ampere.

Explanation:

Electrical resistivity (ρ)

It is defined as the resistance of a unit length with a unit area of cross-section of the material of the conductor.

According to ohm’s law,

V = IR,

Where V = Potential difference, I = current and R = Resistance

The resistance of a conductor is proportional to the length of the conductor and inversely proportional to the area of a cross-section of the conductor.

 ⇒R=ρlA\Rightarrow R = \rho\frac{l}{A}

 ⇒ρ=RAl→Ω.m2m→Ωm\Rightarrow \rho = \frac{{RA}}{l}\rightarrow \frac{Ω . m^2}{m}\rightarrow Ω m

Where ρ = The proportional constant which is actually the property of the material and this is called the resistivity of the material., A =The cross-sectional area, l =The length

So, the unit of the resistivity will Ωm.

So, the correct answer will be option 4.

Question 126

What is the current required to light a 60 W incandescent bulb in a domestic supply of 240 V ?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.5 A

  2. BOption (b)

    0.25 A

  3. COption (c)

    1.0 A

  4. DOption (d)

    5.0 A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.25 A

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • We know that the relation between the power,  current, and voltage will be,

P = VI     ----(1)

Where  P = Power, V = Supply voltage, I = Current required 

CALCULATION:

Given: P = 60 W, V = 240 V

  • Using equation 1,

⇒ 60 = 240 × I

⇒ I = 0.25 A  

  • So, the current required to light a 60 W incandescent bulb in a domestic supply of 240 V will be 0.25 A.

So, the correct answer will be option 2.

Question 127

The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying straight wire at a point outside the wire depends

  1. AOption (a)

    inversely on the distance from it

  2. BOption (b)

    directly on the distance from it

  3. COption (c)

    inversely at short distances and directly at large distances from it

  4. DOption (d)

    directly on the distance (at short distances) and inversely on the distance (at long distances) from it

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

inversely on the distance from it

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Magnetic Field is a field in space around a magnet or moving charged particle where another magnet or moving charged particle experiences a Force.
  • A moving charged particle produces a magnetic field.
  • A current-carrying wire contains moving electrons into it, hence generate a magnetic field around it.
  • Magnetic Field generated around the current (I) carrying conductor at a distance R from the wire:

⇒B⃗=μ0I⃗2πR\Rightarrow \vec B = \frac{\mu_0\vec I}{2\pi R}

Where μ02π\frac { \mu_0}{2\pi} has a constant value, I is current, and R is the distance of the point from the wire.

**EXPLANATION:**​

Magnetic field intensity, 

⇒B=μ0I2πr\Rightarrow B = \frac{μ_0I}{2π r} 

⇒B∝1r⇒ B ∝ \frac{1}{r}

  • From the above formula, it is clear that the magnetic field generated is inversely proportional to the distance from the current-carrying wire.

Question 128

What is the dimension of gravitational constant?

  1. AOption (a)

    ML3T-2

  2. BOption (b)

    M-1L3T-2

  3. COption (c)

    M2L-2T-2

  4. DOption (d)

    M2L-1T-2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

M-1L3T-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is M-1L3T-2

Key Points

CONCEPT:

  • Newton's law of gravitation states that any two bodies having masses (m1 and m2) keeping at a distance (r) from each other exerts a Force of attraction on each other.
  • This Force is directly proportional to the masses of bodies and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
  • The dimension of the Force is MLS-2 and the SI unit is Newton (N).

⇒F∝m1.m2r2⇒F=Gm1m2r2\Rightarrow F \propto \frac{m_1.m_2}{r^2}\Rightarrow F= \frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}

Here, G is the proportional Constant and its value is 6.674 x 10-11 m3Kg-1s-2 is a universal constant.

SOLUTION:

  • We can rewrite the above equation as: G=Fr2m1m2G = \frac{F r^2}{m_1m_2}

⇒Dimension,of,G=Kgmsec−2.m2Kg2=m3sec−2Kg\Rightarrow Dimension ,of ,G = \frac{Kg m sec^{-2.}m^2}{Kg^2}= \frac{m^3 sec^{-2}}{Kg}

As we know, the dimension of length (meter) = L

Dimension of time (t) = T

Dimension of mass (kg) = M 

Therefore, the dimension of gravitational constant (G) is

⇒G=[L3T−2][M]=[M−1L3T−2]\Rightarrow G = \frac{[L^3T^{-2}]}{[M]}=[M^{-1}L^3T^{-2}]

Hence, Dimension of Gravitational Constant G = M-1L3T-2.

Question 129

A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 40 m/s. The time taken by the ball to reach the maximum height would be approximately

  1. AOption (a)

    2 s

  2. BOption (b)

    3 s

  3. COption (c)

    4 s

  4. DOption (d)

    5 s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4 s

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

​Equation of Kinematics:

  • These are the various relations between u, v, a, t, and s for the particle moving with uniform acceleration where the notations are used as:
  • Equations of motion can be written as

⇒ v = u + at

⇒s=ut+12at2⇒ s=ut+\frac{1}{2}at^{2}

⇒ v2 = u2+ 2as

where, u = Initial velocity, v = Final velocity, g = Acceleration due to gravity, t = time, and h = height/Distance covered

CALCULATION:

Given: Initial velocity, u = 40m/sec, at maximum height the ball comes at rest hence, final velocity v= 0 m/sec,

Acceleration in this case is the acceleration due to gravity which is working in the opposite direction (downward) of the motion(upward).

Hence, a = -g = -10m/sec2.

Now, Using the first equation of motion: 

⇒ v = u + at

⇒ 0 = 40 + (-10)t

⇒ 10t = 40 

⇒ t = 4 sec

  • Hence, the time taken to reach the maximum height is 4 sec.

Question 130

The time period of a 1 m long pendulum approximates to

  1. AOption (a)

    6 s

  2. BOption (b)

    4 s

  3. COption (c)

    2 s

  4. DOption (d)

    1 s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 s

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • When a body repeats its motion along a fixed path, about a certain axis or point after a definite time period is known as Periodic Motion.
  • It is also known as Vibratory or Oscillatory Motion.
  • For example: Motion of a Pendulum, Motion of Earth around the Sun, etc.
  • Time Period of a Pendulum,

​⇒T=2πLg\Rightarrow T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}

Where L is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

SOLUTION:

Given: L = 1 m, g = 10 m/sec2, Also, π=3.14≈10\pi = 3.14 \approx \sqrt 10

⇒T=2π(110)=210.110=2sec\Rightarrow T = 2\pi \sqrt(\frac{1}{10})= 2 \sqrt10 . \frac{1}{\sqrt10}= 2 sec

  • Hence, the time period of the pendulum approximates 2 sec.

Question 131

Which one of the following reactions is an example of decomposition reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

  2. BOption (b)

    2AgCI(s) →Sunlight\rm \xrightarrow{Sunlight}  2Ag(s) + CI2(g)

  3. COption (c)

    CuO + H2 →Heat\rm \xrightarrow{Heat}  Cu + H2O

  4. DOption (d)

    Fe(s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2AgCI(s) →Sunlight\rm \xrightarrow{Sunlight}  2Ag(s) + CI2(g)

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Decomposition Reaction:

The reaction in which one reactant decomposes or breaks into two or more products is called a Decomposition reaction.

A  → B + C

2AgCI(s) →Sunlight\rm \xrightarrow{Sunlight}  2Ag(s) + CI2(g)

Additional Information

Combination Reaction:

  • The reaction in which two or more substances combine to form one product is called a Combination reaction.
  • Example - CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

Displacement reaction: 

  • The reaction in which cation or anion from the reactant side is displaced to the products is called displacement reaction.
  • A displacement reaction is also known as a metal displacement reaction.
  • Example - CuO + H2 →Heat\rm \xrightarrow{Heat}  Cu + H2O
  • Metals of high reactivity displace the metals of low reactivity from their anions.

Double displacement reaction: 

  • The reaction in which both cation and anion are displaced to the products is called a double displacement reaction.
  • Example - Fe(s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)

Exothermic Reaction:

  • The reaction in which heat is evolved is called an exothermic reaction.
  • Cao + H2O  → Ca(OH) + Heat  .

Endothermic Reaction:

  • The reaction which takes place by absorbing heat energy is called an endothermic reaction.
  • A + B + Heat  → C + D

Question 132

Which one of the following is the mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills?

  1. AOption (a)

    They kill the egg.

  2. BOption (b)

    They kill the sperm.

  3. COption (c)

    They kill the zygote.

  4. DOption (d)

    They inhibit the release of egg.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They inhibit the release of egg.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Contraception:

  • Contraception is a different method to avoid family planning or pregnancy.
  • There are different methods of contraception - condoms, birth control pill, barriers, and operative methods.

Contraceptive pills:

  • Contraceptive pills or tablets are oral pills for birth control.
  • They are used to avoid pregnancy.
  • Birth control pills contain man-made forms of two crucial female hormones estrogen and progestin.
  • Ovulation is the natural process of realising the eggs from the ovaries.
  • The combination of these two hormones prevents the process of ovulation.
  • There are different types of contraceptive pills for males and females.
  • Contraceptive pills inhibit the release of the eggs and thus stop the process of fertilization.

Question 133

Which one of the following plants has unisexual flowers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Papaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Hibiscus

  3. COption (c)

    Mustard

  4. DOption (d)

    Sunflower

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Papaya

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Flower:

  • The Flower is the reproductive part of the plant.
  • Flowers are of two types - unisexual flowers and bisexual flowers.
  • The flower is the only part which takes part in the process of reproduction.

Unisexual Flower:

  • The flower has only one reproductive system.
  • They can have a male reproductive system or a female reproductive system.
  • Pollination is always cross.

Examples: Papaya, watermelon, corn.

Bisexual Flower:

  • Bisexual flowers have both sets of the reproductive system in them.
  • Both male and female reproductive parts are present in this kind of flower.
  • Pollination can be the self type or cross-type.

Examples: Hibiscus, rose, sweet pea, Mustard, Sunflower.

Question 134

A cell is unable to synthesize lipids. Which of its cell organelles might be defective?

  1. AOption (a)

    Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

  2. BOption (b)

    Golgi bodies

  3. COption (c)

    Lysosomes

  4. DOption (d)

    Mitochondria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Cell:

  • The cell is the structural and functional unit of life.
  • It is the smallest basic unit which supports life.
  • The cell was discovered by Robert hook.
  • On the basis of complexity, cells are divided into prokaryotic and eukaryotic.
  • Animal cells and plant cells have different compositions.
  • The constituents of the cell are called cell organelles.
  • Every cell has the primary three components - nucleus, cell membrane and cytoplasm.

Cell organelles:

Endoplasmic Reticulum:

  • ER is a membranous cell organelle.
  • There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum due to the presence of ribosomes it is rough or in its absence it is smooth.
  • It shares its part of the membrane with that of the nucleus.
  • SER produces vital lipids that are required for the body's functioning.
  • RER also helps in the synthesis of fats and lipids.

Lysosomes:

  • Lysosomes are also known as suicide bags.
  • They help in excreting the waste materials and the dead cell organelles from the cell.
  • They can eat themselves out.

Mitochondria:

  • It is the powerhouse of the cell.
  • It converts adenosine triphosphate molecule to adenosine diphosphate and phosphate ion and vice-versa to generate energy.
  • It is also called the energy currency of the cell.

Golgi body:

  • It is composed of a folded body.
  • It searches the protein sequence of amino acids for the special codes in the process of protein synthesis.
  • Golgi body stores proteins as well.

Question 135

All objects experience a buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid. Buoyancy is

  1. AOption (a)

    a downward force

  2. BOption (b)

    a downward pressure

  3. COption (c)

    an upward force

  4. DOption (d)

    an upward pressure

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

an upward force

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • When a body is either wholly or partially immersed in a fluid, a lift is generated due to the net vertical component of hydrostatic pressure forces experienced by the body. This lift is called the buoyant force and the phenomenon is called buoyancy.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Archimedes principle states that the buoyant force on a submerged body is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by the body and acts vertically upward through the centroid of the displaced volume.
  • Thus, the net weight of the submerged body, (the net vertical downward force experienced by it) is reduced from its actual weight by an amount that equals the buoyant force FB.

⇒ FB = Vdisplaced, ρg

⇒ FB = f(Vdisplaced, ρ)

So, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 136

According to Fleming's right-hand rule, if the forefinger indicates the direction of the magnetic field and the thumb shows the direction of motion of the conductor, then the stretched middle finger will predict the direction of

  1. AOption (a)

    force acting on the conductor

  2. BOption (b)

    electric field

  3. COption (c)

    induced current

  4. DOption (d)

    current

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

induced current

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Faraday's Law of electromagnetic induction states that when a conductor moves inside a Magnetic Field, an electric current induces in the conductor.
  • Fleming's right-hand rule:
  • According to Fleming's right-hand rule, the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of the right hand are stretched to be perpendicular to each other and if the thumb represents the direction of the movement of the conductor, the fore-finger represents the direction of the magnetic field, then the middle finger represents the direction of the induced current.
  • It is used used to determine the direction of current in a generator's windings.

 

​

EXPLANATION:

  • From the figure, it is clear that if the forefinger indicates the direction of the magnetic field and the thumb shows the direction of motion of the conductor, then the stretched middle finger will predict the direction of the induced current.

Additional Information

  • Fleming's Left-Hand Rule states that if we keep our Fore Finger in the direction of the Magnetic Field, Middle Finger in the direction of the Current then the thumb directs the direction of the Force experienced by the conductor.

Question 137

Two resistors R1 and R2 arranged in parallel combination in an electrical closed circuit are made of the same material and of the same thickness. If the length of R2 is twice the length of R1, then the total resistance R satisfies

  1. AOption (a)

    3R = 2R1

  2. BOption (b)

    3R = 2R2

  3. COption (c)

    2R = 3R1

  4. DOption (d)

    2R = 3R2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3R = 2R1

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The electric resistance in a wire is the measure of the obstruction faced by the flow of Current.
  • The SI unit of resistance is the ohm (Ω\Omega ) .
  • R=ρlAR = \frac {ρ l}{A}, where ρ is resistivity, l is the length and A is the area of intersection.
  • Hence, for different materials, Resistance (R) depends upon Resistivity (ρ), length of conductor (l), and the area of intersection (A).
  • And for the same material, Resistivity  (ρ) remains constant.
  • For a parallel combination, total resistance R can be calculated as

​⇒1R=1R1+1R2\Rightarrow \frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{R_2}

SOLUTION:

Given: Combination is parallel, material is same ( ρ = constant), thickness is same  (A = Constant), and l2= 2l1.

⇒R1=ρl1A⇒ R_1= \frac{\rho l_1}{A}  and R2=ρl2AR_2=\frac{\rho l_2}{A}

⇒R1R2=ρl1A.Aρl2=l1l2=l12l1=12⇒ \frac{R_1}{R_2}=\frac{\rho l_1}{A}.\frac{A}{\rho l_2}=\frac {l_1}{l_2}=\frac{l_1}{2l_1}=\frac{1}{2}

⇒R2=2R1⇒ R_2= 2R_1

Now, Since the combination is parallel, so total resistance R is:

⇒1R=1R1+12R1=32R1\Rightarrow \frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_1}+\frac{1}{2R_1}=\frac {3}{2R_1}

Hence, 3R = 2R1 is the correct relation.

<br>

Additional Information

  • Ohm's Law states that the current flow between two points is directly proportional to the potential difference between these two points.

⇒ I ∝ V ⇒ V= RI 

Where R is the resistance of the wire.

Question 138

What is the magnification produced by a concave lens of focal length 10 cm, when an image is formed at a distance of 5 cm from the lens?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.0

  2. BOption (b)

    1.0

  3. COption (c)

    0.5

  4. DOption (d)

    0.33

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0.5

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • For a spherical lens,

1f=1v−1u;;;;;…(1)\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u};;;;; \ldots \left( 1 \right)

Where, f = Focal length, v = Image distance optical center, u = Object distance from the optical center

  • The magnification  produced by a concave lens,

m = v/u

  • In the case of a concave lens, if the object is at any position except infinity, the image will always form between the second focus and the optical center.
  • The image formed will always be virtual, erect, and diminished in this case.
  • So while putting the value of v in the above formula, we have to put it with the negative sign (As per the sign convention, the image will be in the opposite direction of the incident ray with respect to the optical center)
  • In a similar manner, f will also be taken as negative for the concave lens.

CALCULATION:

Given: f = -10 cm (Concave lens focus is negative), v = - 5 cm

  • Using equation 1,

⇒1−10=1−5−1u⇒\frac{1}{-10} = \frac{1}{-5}-\frac{1}{u}

⇒ u = - 10 cm

  • The magnification  produced by a concave lens,

⇒ m=−5−10=12m=\frac{-5}{-10}=\frac 12

= 1/2 < 1 (Image is virtual, erect (Upright), small in size)

  • The image is half size of the object.

The correct answer is option 3

Question 139

A wooden box of mass 2 kg and dimensions (30 cm × 15 cm × 10 cm) is placed on a table with sides 30 cm and 10 cm touching the tabletop. Which one of the following is the approximate pressure exerted on the table?

  1. AOption (a)

    111.1 N/m2

  2. BOption (b)

    222.2 N/m2

  3. COption (c)

    333.3 N/m2

  4. DOption (d)

    666.6 N/m2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

666.6 N/m2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Thrust on the top of the table is due to the weight of the wooden block. Now,
  • Weight of the block,

⇒ F = mg      ...(1)

⇒ Pressure (P) = F /  A      ...(2)

Where A = Cross-section of the block touching the surface, m = Mass of the wooden block 

CALCULATION:

Given: m = 2 kg,  A = 30 cm ×10 cm = 0.30 m × 0.10 m = 0.03 m2 , Dimensions of block = 30 cm × 15 cm × 10 cm

  • Using equation 1,

⇒ F = mg = 2 x 10 = 20 N

  • Using equation 2,

⇒ P = 20 / 0.03 = 666.67 N/m2

So the correct answer is option 4.

Question 140

Why are the tyres of aircrafts made of conducting rubber?

  1. So that the charge accumulated on the aircraft in flight, by rubbing the air, can easily be transferred to ground on landing.
  2. So that the charge accumulated due to the operation of various electronic equipments in the aircraft in flight can easily be transferred to ground on landing.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • A conductor is made up of a material that can conduct electricity through it very easily. For Example Copper, Aluminum, etc.
  • There are some properties of the conductor that differentiate it from other materials:  
  • The electrons experience the least resistance in conductors.
  • The electric field of a conductor is zero.
  • The potential difference between a conductor is always zero.
  • Free charges can only exist on the surface of the conductor.

EXPLANATION:

  • When an aircraft runs on the runway to take off or land, a very high friction force is experienced by the tyres of the aircraft.
  • Due to this friction force, a high amount of charge accumulates in the material of the tyre.
  • In case, this material is not conducting the charge may reach inside the tyre and then to the body of the aircraft which ultimately can harm the other electrical equipment of the aircraft.
  • Whereas, if the material of the tyre is conducting in nature, in which the free charge can not reside inside the material, the accumulated charge only exists on the surface of the tyre, is easily transferred to the ground from here and does not reach inside or to the body of the aircraft.
  • Hence, 1 only is the correct answer**.**

Question 141

Arthashastra, the classical work of Indian political thought, focuses primarily on

  1. AOption (a)

    Economy

  2. BOption (b)

    Culture

  3. COption (c)

    Statecraft

  4. DOption (d)

    Monarchy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statecraft

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is statecraft.

Key Points

  • The Arthashastra
  • The Arthashastra is one of the earliest works of political realism to have been written, along with Sun Tzu's The Art of War and Machiavelli's The Prince.
  • Kautilya Arthashastra is a unique treatise on the art of statecraft or governance, wherein every single aspect of human life is subject to the jurisdiction of the state. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • His detailed work clearly laid down an organizational set-up, and there was a clear-cut division of ethics and politics.
  • The 'Arthashastra' is a treasure of Political Philosophy.
  • It is considered the most comprehensive treatise on statecraft of classical times.
  • The first-ever book written on Practice of Management, this treatise is also about foreign policy, administration, economic reforms, policies, and war.
  • It is a primeval Indian discourse on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy.
  • It was written in Sanskrit.
  • Kautilya's Arthasashtra was composed between the 3rd to 2nd Century B.C.
  • It is mainly a work of the art of government.
  • In his view, for the smooth functioning of administration and the welfare of the people, the king had to be acquainted with the four Vedas and four sciences of government (Anvikashaki, Trai, Varta, and Dandniti).

Question 142

When did Charaka Samhita originate?

  1. AOption (a)

    6th Century BCE

  2. BOption (b)

    3rd to 2nd Century BCE

  3. COption (c)

    4th Century BCE

  4. DOption (d)

    5th Century BCE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3rd to 2nd Century BCE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3rd to 2nd Century BCE.

Key Points

  • Charaka Samhita
  • It is also called Caraka-Samhita.
  • It is a detailed text on ancient Indian medicine attributed to Charaka, a practitioner of Ayurveda, India's traditional medical system.
  • Charaka-Samhita, also spelt Caraka-Samhita or Caraka-saṃhita, comprehensive text on ancient Indian medicine credited to Charaka, who was a practitioner of the traditional system of Indian medicine known as Ayurveda.
  • Charaka is thought to have flourished sometime between the 2nd century BCE and the 2nd century CE. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The Charaka-Samhita, in its current form, is believed to have originated in the first century CE.
  • According to ancient Indian medicine studies, the original text was written by Agnivesha, one of six disciples of Ayurvedic scholar Punarvasu Atreya, many centuries ago (the other five disciples were Bhela, Jatukarna, Parashara, Harita, and Ksharapani).
  • Each of the disciples went on to write their own Samhitas, combining both Atreya's ideas and their own understanding of the subject.
  • The Agnivesha-Samhita, written by Agnivesha, was unlike any other in terms of depth and quality.
  • It came to be known as the Charaka-Samhita after Charaka refined and annotated it.
  • The treatise was divided into eight parts, or ashtanga sthanas, by Charaka: sutra, nidana, vimana, sarira, endriya, chikitsa, Kalpa, and Siddha; each section had multiple chapters.

Question 143

Early Buddhist sculptors did not show Buddha in human form. Through which of the following symbols was Buddha's presence shown by the early sculptors?

  1. AOption (a)

    Empty Seat and Stupa only

  2. BOption (b)

    Wheel and Tree only

  3. COption (c)

    Wheel, Tree and Stupa only

  4. DOption (d)

    Empty Seat, Wheel, Tree and Stupa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Empty Seat, Wheel, Tree and Stupa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Empty Seat, Wheel, Tree and Stupa.

Key Points

  • In the Buddhist art of the pre-Christian era, the Buddha was presented through symbols like an empty throne, the bodhi tree, a pair of footprints, and a wheel. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • In the first century B.C., India’s artists, who had worked in the perishable media of brick, wood, thatch, and bamboo, adopted stone on a very wide scale. Stone railings and gateways, covered with relief sculptures, were added to stupas.
  • Favourite themes were events from the historic life of the Buddha, as well as from his previous lives, which were believed to be number 550.
  • The latter tales are called jatakas and often include popular legends adapted to Buddhist teachings.
  • The sixth century B.C. is considered a wonderful century in history.
  • Great thinkers like Buddha, Mahavira, Heraclitus, Zoroaster, Confucius, and Lao Tse lived and preached their ideas in this century. Among them, the most successful were Jainism and Buddhism whose impact on the Indian society was remarkable.

Additional Information

  • Life of Buddha
  • Buddha is also called Sakyamuni or Tathagata. He is considered the founder of Buddhism.
  • He was born as Siddhartha to Suddhodhana, the ruler of the Sakyan republic, and his wife Maya, on Vaisakha Purnima in the Lumbini gardens near Kapilvastu in the 6th century BC.
  • Siddhartha married Yashodhara and had a son Rahula.
  • His luxurious life left him dissatisfied and he was troubled by the signs of sickness, old age, and death that he observed in his worldly life.
  • At the age of 29, he decided to leave the palace in search of peace and understanding of the world’s ills.
  • At the age of 35, again on Vaisakha Purnima, he attained enlightenment at what is now famously known as Bodh Gaya.
  • He gave his first sermon in a deer park at Sarnath before his first disciples.
  • Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at Kusinara.

Question 144

The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of

  1. AOption (a)

    German Parliament

  2. BOption (b)

    British Parliament

  3. COption (c)

    American Congress

  4. DOption (d)

    French Parliament

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

British Parliament

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the British Parliament.

Key Points

  • The Parliament of India
  • On the basis of the relationship between the executives and the legislature, two major systems of democratic government have been developed - The Parliamentary System and the Presidential System.
  • India has adopted the parliamentary form of government in the line with the British Westminster model.
  • The Parliamentary system is also known as the cabinet system Responsible government or Prime Minister Model.
  • The Parliament of India is primarily based on the model of the British Parliament. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • A parliamentary system is a form of government where executives hold the power with the majority support of the legislature (usually the people's elected house).
  • According to the Supreme Court of India, our constitution is modelled on the British Parliamentary system where the executive is deemed to have the primary responsibility for the formation of government policy and its transmission into law by retaining the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 74 and 75 provide the parliamentary system for the centre.
  • Article 163 and 164 provide the parliamentary system for the states.
  • Unlike the Presidential system, in this system, the executives sit in the legislature because they are part of the legislature.
  • Executives can exercise power and stay in the office as long as they have the support of the lower house of the legislature.
  • In India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
  • Collective responsibility means the council of ministers has joint responsibility for their actions towards Lok Sabha.
  • Even if a decision has been taken by a single minister, under the principle of collective responsibility the whole council of ministers has responsibility for it.

Question 145

Who among the following had the shortest span in office as the Prime Minister of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lal Bahadur Shastri

  2. BOption (b)

    Chaudhary Charan Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Chandra Shekhar

  4. DOption (d)

    H. D. Deve Gowda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Chaudhary Charan Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chaudhary Charan Singh.

Key Points

  • | Lal Bahadur Shastri
    (1904–1966) | 9 June 1964 to 11 January 1966
    1 year, 216 days. | He was the pioneer of the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ during the Indo-Pak war in 1965. | | --- | --- | --- | | Charan Singh
    (1902–1987) | 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980
    170 days. | Only PM who never faced the Parliament. | | Chandra Shekhar
    (1927–2007) | 10 Nov 1990 to 21 June 1991
    223 days. | He never worked as a minister in any ministry. | | H. D. Deve Gowda
    (born 1933) | 1 June 1996 to 21 April 1997
    324 days. | He became the
    second PM of South India.

    He is from Karnataka. However, he stayed in the office for less than a year. |

  • Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Question 146

Which one of the following does not fall under the jurisdiction of the apex court of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Original Jurisdiction

  2. BOption (b)

    Appellate Jurisdiction

  3. COption (c)

    Collegiate Jurisdiction

  4. DOption (d)

    Advisory Jurisdiction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Collegiate Jurisdiction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Collegiate Jurisdiction.

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India has Original, Appellate, writ, and Advisory jurisdiction. Therefore, Collegiate Jurisdiction does not fall under the jurisdiction of the apex court of India. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Original Jurisdiction: As per Article 32 Supreme Court is the guardian/protector of fundamental rights and any person whose fundamental rights are violated can directly approach the Supreme Court for a remedy and any matter regarding the enforcement of fundamental rights comes under the original jurisdiction of the supreme court.
  • The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in a matter related to any dispute - 
  • Government of India vs and one or more states
  • Government of India and states on one side and states on another side
  • States vs states
  • Appellate Jurisdiction - 
  • ​Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal of all courts in the territory of India.
  • For example - Article 134: Provides the Supreme Court with appellate jurisdiction in the criminal matters from any judgment, final order, or sentence of the high court.
  • Advisory Jurisdiction - 
  • Article 143 (Power of President to consult supreme court)
  • If the President feels that a question of law or fact has arisen or is likely to arise and the question is of such a nature of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court.
  • The Supreme Court is free to advise the President or not.
  • Such an opinion is not binding on the President.

Question 147

According to the Indian Meteorological Department, which of the following is/are the feature/features of cloudburst? 

  1. Heavy precipitation in short period of time in a limited geographical area
  2. It occurs generally during monsoon period and triggers flash flood and landslides

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Cloudbursts
  • Cloudbursts are short-duration, intense rainfall events over a small area.
  • According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), it is a weather phenomenon with unexpected precipitation exceeding 100mm/h over a geographical region of approximately 20-30 square km. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • In the Indian Subcontinent, it generally occurs when a monsoon cloud drifts northwards, from the Bay of Bengal or the Arabian Sea across the plains than onto the Himalayas and triggers debris flows, flash floods, landslides, and mass movements. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The relative humidity and cloud cover is at the maximum level with low temperature and slow winds because of which a high amount of clouds may get condensed at a very rapid rate and result in a cloudburst.
  • As temperatures increase, the atmosphere can hold more and more moisture and this moisture comes down as a short very intense rainfall for a short duration probably half an hour or one hour resulting in flash floods in the mountainous areas and urban floods in the cities.
  • The results showed that during the cloudburst, the relative humidity and cloud cover was at the maximum level with low temperature and slow winds.
  • It is expected that because of this situation a high amount of clouds may get condensed at a very rapid rate and result in a cloudburst.

Question 148

In a group discussion on shape and size of the Earth, three students stated the following points :

  1. Student 1: The shape of the Earth is basically an oblate spheroid. 2. Student 2: The polar diameter of the Earth is more than the equatorial diameter.
  2. Student 3: Bulge along the equatorial region is due to revolution of the Earth.

Who among the above students is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Student 1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    Student 1 and Student 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Student 2 and Student 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    Student 1, Student 2 Student 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Student 1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Shape and size of the Earth
  • As the earth is slightly flattened at the poles, the linear distance of a degree of latitude at the pole is a little longer than that at the equator.
  • For example at the equator (0°) it is 68.704 miles, at 45° it is 69.054 miles and at the poles, it is 69.407 miles. The average is taken as 69 miles (111km).
  • Earth is not a perfect sphere. Its shape is an oblate spheroid. This just means that it flattens at the poles and widens out at the equator. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The radius of the earth is different at both poles and the equator.
  • The equatorial diameter( twice of radius) is 12756 km but, the polar diameter is 12713 km. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Earth has a rather slight equatorial bulge. it is about 43 km (27 mi) wider at the equator than pole-to-pole, a difference which is close to 1/300 of the diameter.
  • The rotation of the earth also affects the sea level, the imaginary surface that is used to measure altitudes.
  • The Earth is wider at the equator than from pole to pole, mainly because the centrifugal forces of its rotation make it bulge outwards. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
  • Satellites can measure their average shape using gravity and altitude data.

Question 149

While watching news, you hear about a place, of which you had never heard earlier. You want to know more about the place and you want to locate it on the map. Which of the following is/are required for you to be able to locate the place on the map?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only latitude of the place

  2. BOption (b)

    Only longitude of the place

  3. COption (c)

    Both longitude and latitude of the place

  4. DOption (d)

    Latitude, longitude and altitude of the place

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both longitude and latitude of the place

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Latitude and longitude
  • The grid helps people to locate places on the map.
  • On small-scale maps, the grid is often made up of latitude and longitude lines.
  • Latitude lines run east-west around the globe, parallel to the Equator, an imaginary line that circles the middle of the Earth.
  • Longitude lines run north-south, from pole to pole.
  • Latitude and longitude provide an absolute location for a place on the globe.
  • We can locate places on the globe by determining where lines on latitude and longitude cross.
  • Another way to describe the location is to use reference lines to describe coordinates, or absolute position, on the globe.
  • Two types of imaginary reference lines are used to locate positions or points and to make accurate globes and maps.
  • These lines are called parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Latitude is the angular distance of a point on the surface, from the central part of the Earth.
  • While lines joining the North Pole to the South Pole are called longitude lines earth is divided into a total of 360 longitude lines.
  • Longitude and latitude are both measured in degree.

Question 150

Which one of the following statements with respect to Global Positioning System (GPS) is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is based on network of satellites orbiting above the Earth.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is based on the system of triangulation.

  3. COption (c)

    GPS receivers provide location in terms of latitude, longitude and altitude.

  4. DOption (d)

    It provides information exclusively for military operations.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It provides information exclusively for military operations.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Global Positioning System
  • It is a satellite navigation system, used to determine the ground position of an object.
  • It is based on a network of satellites orbiting above the Earth. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • It is based on the system of triangulation. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • It is a U.S.-owned utility that provides users with positioning, navigation, and timing (PNT) services.
  • It is a network of 24 satellites that provides service to civilian and military users.
  • GPS receivers provide location in terms of latitude, longitude, and altitude. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  • The civilian service is freely available to all users on a continuous, worldwide basis. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
  • The military service is available to U.S. and allied armed forces as well as approved Government agencies.
  • GPS is based on time and the known position of GPS specialized satellites i.e distance-based technology.
  • GPS faces the problem of drifting due to continuous changes in the position of satellites, and weak signals due to thick clouds and tall buildings.
  • GPS has a voice system to guide the user.

Additional Information

  • IRNSS
  • Presently, IRNSS consists of eight satellites, three satellites in geostationary orbit and five satellites in geosynchronous orbit.
  • IRNSS-1I is expected to replace IRNSS-1A, which was rendered ineffective after its three rubidium atomic clocks failed.
  • The main objective is to provide reliable position, navigation and timing services over India and its neighbourhood.
  • It works just like the established and popular US Global Positioning System (GPS) but within a 1,500-km radius over the sub-continent.
  • Technically satellite systems with more satellites provide more accurate positioning information.
  • However, compared to GPS (24 satellites) which has a position accuracy of 20-30 metres, the NavIC is able to give a pinpoint location with an estimated accuracy of under 20 metres.
  • It has been certified by the 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP), a global body for coordinating mobile telephony standards.
  • It was recognised by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) as a part of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region in 2020.
  • ISRO is working to build the next generation of IRNSS satellites with indigenous atomic clocks and enhancements to navigation services.

150 questions in the full paper