NDA General Ability Test 4 Sep 2022 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is "dislike."

Key Points

• Let us understanding the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Craving" means a strong desire for something.
• Synonyms: Yearning or Desire.
• Example: She had a craving for some chocolate.
• "Dislike" means to think that somebody/something is unpleasant.
• Synonyms: Detest or Despise.
• Example: There are very few foods that I actively dislike.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that "dislike" is opposite in meaning to the word "craving."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• Like means to find somebody/something pleasant.
• Discomfort means a slight feeling of pain or a feeling of embarrassment.
• Complacency means a feeling of calm satisfaction with your own feelings or situation.

The correct answer is "obvious."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Obscure" means not well known, not easy to see or understand.
• Synonyms: Vague, ambiguous, confusing.
• Example: The smog was so thick yesterday that tall buildings were obscured.
• "Obvious" means clear or easily seen or understood.
• Synonyms: Clear, evident, apparent.
• Example: The problem was immediately obvious to everyone in the room.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "obvious" is opposite in meaning to the word "obscure."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Murky" means dark and gloomy, especially due to thick mist.
• "Vague" means something not clear or definite.
• "Uncertain" means not sure, not able to decide.

The correct answer is "unimpressive."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Monumental" means something great in importance, extent or size.
• Synonyms: Huge, great, enormous.
• Example: It was a monumental moment for me because it gave me hope.
• "Unimpressive" means something ordinary, not special in any way.
• Synonyms: Humble, unremarkable, average.
• Example: The team gave an unimpressive performance.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "unimpressive" is opposite in meaning to the word "monumental."

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Enormous" means something very big or great.
• "Memorable" means something worth remembering or easy to remember.
• "Striking" means very noticeable, making a strong impression.

The correct answer is "sturdy."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Frail" means weak or not healthy.
• Synonyms: Infirm, weak, feeble.
• Example: I last saw him just last week and thought how old and frail he looked.
• "Sturdy" means strong and healthy, that will not break easily.
• Synonyms: Strong, hefty, solid.
• Example: The camera was mounted on a sturdy tripod.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "sturdy" is opposite in meaning to the word "frail."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Weak" means having little strength or energy, not strong.
• "Delicate" means something easy to damage or break.
• "Big" means large, not small.

The correct answer is "fortunate."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Hapless" means unlucky, unhappy or unfortunate.
• Synonyms: Luckless, ill-fated, jinxed.
• Example: Many children are hapless victims of this war.
• "Fortunate" means favored by or involving good luck, lucky.
• Synonyms: Lucky, favored, blessed.
• Example: She was so fortunate to have such a wonderful family.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "fortunate" is opposite in meaning to the word "hapless."

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Wretched" means very unhappy or used for expressing anger.
• "Miserable" means something unpleasant or which makes you feel unhappy.
• "Rural" means a place connected with a country and not town.

The correct answer is "normal."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Eccentric" means (used about people or their behavior) strange or unusual.
• Synonyms: Unconventional, uncommon, peculiar.
• Example: The eccentric old man never ate anything other than cat food.
• "Normal" means something conforming to the standard or the common type.
• Synonyms: Usual, standard, common, ordinary.
• Example: His mind was not in a normal state.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "normal" is opposite in meaning to the word "eccentric."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Special" means not usual or ordinary; important for some particular reason.
• "Strange" means unusual and unexpected, or difficult to understand.
• "Local" means from, existing in, serving, or responsible for a small area, especially of a country.

The correct answer is "wet."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Parched" means dried out because of too much heat and not enough rain.
• Synonyms: Dry, sun- baked, dehydrated.
• Example: The clouds gathered and showers poured down upon the parched earth.
• "Wet" means something covered in water or another quickly.
• Synonyms: Damp, moist, drenched.
• Example: My shoes got wet when I stepped in the puddle.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "wet" is opposite in meaning to the word "parched."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Dry" means without liquid in it or on it; not wet.
• "Desiccated" is used about food dried in order to keep it for a long time.
• "Scorched" means to burn something so that its color changes but it is not destroyed.

The correct answer is "rutted."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Smooth" means something having a completely flat surface with no lumps or holes or rough surface.
• Synonyms: Even, slippery, unruffled, glazed.
• Example: The river rocks had been worn smooth by the water.
• "Rutted" means a  road or track is very uneven because it has long, deep, narrow marks in it made by the wheels of vehicles.
• Synonyms: Uneven or corrugated.
• Example: She was standing on a deeply rutted dirt road in dense woods.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "rutted" is opposite in meaning to the word "smooth."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Dangerous" means something likely to cause damage or injury.
• "Winding" means something with bends and curves in it.
• "Silken" means something soft or lustrous like silk.

The correct answer is "insufficiency."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Plenitude" means the quality or state of being full.
• Synonyms: Abundance, affluence.
• Example: Unfortunately the king was bent upon still further emphasizing the plenitude of his power.
• "Insufficiency" deficiency in amount, force, power, competence, or fitness; inadequacy.​
• Synonyms: lack, inadequacy, shortage.
• Example: Finally obtaining the research conclusion and pointing out the insufficiency.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "insufficiency" is the word opposite in meaning to the word "plentitude."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Abundance" means a very large quantity of something.
• "Ample" means enough or more than enough.
• "Plethora" means a very large amount of something, usually more than is needed or can be used.

The correct answer is "questionable."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Irrefutable" means (used about a statement, argument, idea etc.) that cannot be proved wrong and must be accepted.
• Synonyms: Indisputable, undeniable.
• Example: There is irrefutable evidence that he committed these crimes.
• "Questionable" means that you have doubts about; not certain.
• Synonyms: Doubtful, arguable.
• Example: They acquired the money through questionable means.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "questionable" is opposite in meaning to the word "irrefutable."

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Overwhelming" means something extremely great or strong.
• "Undeniable" means clear, true or certain.
• "Certain" means completely sure, without any doubts.

The correct answer is "slander."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Malign" means to say or write bad things about somebody/something publicly especially in a unfair manner or something causing harm.
• Synonyms: harmful, defame, destructive.
• Example: You are malignin a respectable body of men.
• "Slander" means a false, spoken statement about someone which damages that person's reputation.
• Synonyms: Calumny, defamation.
• Example: We've heard countless unsupported slanders about her.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "slander" is nearest in meaning to the word "malign."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Benign" means not dangerous, kind or gentle.
• "Praise" means to say that somebody/something is good and should be admired.
• "Greet" means to welcome somebody when you meet him/her; to say hello to somebody.

The correct answer is "displeases."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Vexed" means something difficult to deal with and causing a lot of disagreement and argument.
• Synonyms: Disputed, debated, annoyed, furious.
• Example: I was vexed when the doctor arrived for my appointment over an hour late.
• "Displeases" means to annoy somebody or to make somebody angry or upset.
• Synonyms: Discontented, annoyed.
• Example: The book, received with great favor by the people, was displeasing to the authorities.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "displeases" is nearest in meaning to the word "vexed."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Clear" means something easy to see, hear or understand.
• "Calm" means not excited, worried or angry, quiet.
• "Uncomplicated" means simple or straightforward.

The correct answer is "notion."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Preconception" means an idea or opinion that you have formed about somebody/something before you have enough information or experience.
• Synonyms: Presumption, inclination, bias.
• Example: The experiences gained by the Americans in the Civil War helped to confirm this preconception.
• "Notion" means something that you have in your mind; an idea.
• Synonyms: Presumption, idea, belief, conception.
• Example: She was prepossessed with the notion of her own superiority.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "notion" is nearest in meaning to the word "preconception."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Experiment" means to do tests to see if something works or to try to improve it.
• "Conceit" means too much pride in yourself and your abilities and importance.

The correct answer is "temporal."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Mortal" means something, someone that cannot live forever and must die.
• Synonyms: Perishable, impermanent, corporal.
• Example: Her father's death reminded her that she was mortal.
• "Temporal" means of limited time, transient, passing, not perpetual.
• Synonyms: Transient, passing.
• Example: Things are temporal, the ideas perpetual, God eternal.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "temporal" is nearest in meaning to the word "mortal."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Immortal" means something living and lasting forever.
• "Divinely" means addressed, appropriated, or devoted to God or a god; religious; sacred.

The correct answer is "schedule."

Key Points 

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Itinerary" means a plan of a journey, including the route and the places that you will visit.
• Synonyms: Travel plan, agenda, guidebook.
• Example: Our itinerary included stops at several famous cathedrals.
• "Schedule" means a plan of things that will happen or of work that must be done.
• Synonyms: Plan, program, time table.
• Example: Sorting the mail is part of her daily schedule.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "schedule" is nearest in meaning to the word "itinerary"

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information 

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Invitation" means a written or spoken request to go somewhere or do something.
• "Information" means knowledge communicated or received concerning a particular fact or circumstance; news.
• "Names" means words by which someone/ something is known.

The correct answer is "control."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Harness" means to control the energy of something in order to produce power or to achieve something.
• Synonyms: Tackle, utilize, exploit.
• Example: Engineers are finding new ways to harness the sun's energy to heat homes.
• "Control" means the ability or power to decide or strongly influence the particular way in which something will happen or someone will behave.
• Synonyms: Administer, comply, regulate.
• Example: She hired an accountant to take control of her money.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that "control" is the word nearest in meaning to the word "harness."

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Abuse" means to use something in a bad or dishonest way.
• "Benefit" means an advantage or useful effect that something has.
• "Apply" means to concern or involve somebody/ something Or to ask for something in writing.

The correct answer is "vacillating."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Fickle" means always changing your mind or your feelings so you cannot be trusted.
• Synonyms: Capricious, changeable, variable.
• Example: Radha's moods were varied and fickle, never lasting too long.
• "Vacillating" means to keep changing your ideas or opinions about something, especially in a way that annoys other people.
• Synonyms: Dither, waver, fluctuate.
• Example: He was weak, vacillating and ineffective as a politician.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "vacillating" is nearest in meaning to the word "fickle."

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Consistent" means always having the same opinions, standard, behavior, etc.; not changing
• "Strong" means used (about a person) physically powerful; able to lift or carry heavy things; (about things) which cannot be easily damaged.
• "Wily" means clever at getting what you want

The correct answer is "catastrophic."

 Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Calamitous" means something causing great damage or suffering.
• Synonyms: Disastrous, devastating, ruinous.
• Example: The bank went bust, with calamitous consequences for global markets.
• "Catastrophic" means something causing sudden and very great harm or destruction.
• Synonyms: Destructive, fatal, crippling.
• Example: The water shortage in this country is potentially catastrophic.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "catastrophic" is nearest in meaning to the word "calamitous."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information 

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Abundance" means a very large quantity of something.
• "Encouraging" means to help someone to feel confident and able to do something.
• "Welcome" means to be friendly to somebody when he/she arrives somewhere.

The correct answer is "unpaid."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Honorary" means an honorary position in an organization is one for which no payment is made.
• Synonyms: Titular, unpaid, unofficial.
• Example: He was also an honorary member of most of the learned societies of Europe.
• "Unpaid" means not receiving payment for the work done.
• Synonyms: Unsettled, outstanding.
• Example: I have a pile of unpaid bills sitting on my desk.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "unpaid" is nearest in meaning to the word "honorary."

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Paid" means to do with the money a worker receives from his or her employer.
• "Invite" means to ask somebody to come somewhere or to do something.
• "Accept" means to agree to take something that somebody offers you.

The correct answer is "expel."

Key Points

• Let us understand the meaning of the given and the marked words:
• "Excommunicate" means to refuse to allow someone to be a member of the church.
• ​Synonyms: Eject, evict, exclude.
• Example: In 1323, along with all his family, he was excommunicated with the charge of heresy.
• "Expel" means to force somebody to leave a country, school, club, etc. Or to send something out by force.
• Synonyms: Debar, throw out, remove.
• Example: The heart muscles contract to expel the blood.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that the word "expel" is nearest in meaning to the word "excommunicate."

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Let us understand the meaning of the other given options:
• "Admit" means to allow somebody/something to enter; to take somebody into a place
• "Reward" means something that you are given because you have done something good, worked hard, etc.
• "Promote" means to encourage something; to help something to happen or develop.

The correct answer is "SQPR."

Key Points

• In the given jumbled sentence, a question will be formed using the verb "have" at the beginning.
• Thus, the part S will come at the beginning of the sentence.
• Thus the question will start with "have you ever considered" (but what?)
• Hence, part Q will follow the part S.
• The actual question to be asked is "to be successful as a human being."
• Thus, part Q will be followed by part P and then part R.
• The correct sentence will be: Have you ever considered what it is to be successful as a human being?

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is "SQPR."

Key Points

• In the given jumbled sentence:
• Part S introduces the subject of the sentence. Thus, it will come at the beginning of the sentence.
• At the end of part S, "to" is used which expresses the relation between the noun and the thing which the people are willing to do.
• The thing the people are willing to do is mentioned in part Q of the sentence.
• "that" used in part Q is used to introduce a subordinate clause.
• Thus, part P will follow part Q.
• The part R in the sentence has a conclusive tone to it. Thus it will be used at the end of the sentence.
• The correct sentence is : Many people today are willing to surrender to the idea that there is in all instance a single, authoritative truth to be discovered and defended.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is "QPSR."

Key Points

• In the given jumbled sentence:
• In part Q, "If" is used to introduce a conditional statement, thus it will be at the beginning of the sentence.
• In part P, the conditional statement introduced in part Q has been completed.
• The sentence in part S introduces the result of the condition introduced.
• Part R has a concluding tone to it. Thus it will come at the end of the sentence.
• The correct sentence will be: If you do not reflect and understand for yourself the implications of death, you will go endlessly from one preacher to another.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is "QPSR."

Key Points

• In the given jumbled sentence:
• The part Q should be the opening part as it introduces the subject i.e. "A language."
• Part P will follow the opening sentence because it explains more about the subject in a grammatically correct manner.
• Part R starts with the coordinating conjunction "and" used to connect two clauses.
• The clause which will be connected using the conjunction "and" will be part S.
• Thus, the correct sentence will be: A language represents a way of understanding the world, differentiating between things and relating them to one another.

Hence, the correct answer will be option 4.

The correct answer is "SQRP."

Key Points

• In the given jumbled sentence, 
• Parts P and R start with "for" and "will" which indicates that they cannot be at the beginning of the sentence.
• Part S ends with the word "that" which is used to introduce the defining relative clause.
• Part Q will follow the part S as it introduces the subject which is being discussed "Mathematics and mathematical thinking."
• Part Q will be followed by part R.
• Part P has a conclusive tone to it, thus it will be the last part of the sentence.
• Thus, the correct sentence will be: It is recognized that mathematics and mathematical thinking will be very important for India's future.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'SPRQ.'

Key Points 

• Let's look at the sequence of the sentence.
• ​Statement S is the opening of the sentence as it introduces the subject and the theme of the sentence which is "the preparation of professionals".
• Statement P is the second statement of the sentence as it adds the information in which field the preparation of professionals is started.
• Statement R is the third statement of the sentence as it tells us that the preparation of professionals in agriculture and veterinary sciences is done by the programmes integrated with general education.
• Statement Q is the last statement of the sentence and it adds information by telling us that the programmes integrated with general education will be enhanced sharply.

Hence, the correct sequence is 'SPRQ'.

Correct Order

• S. The preparation of professionals
• P. in agriculture and veterinary sciences through
• R. programmes integrated with general education
• Q. will be enhanced sharply.

Complete Sentence

The preparation of professionals in agriculture and veterinary sciences through programmes integrated with general education will be enhanced sharply.

The correct answer is 'SQPR.'

Key Points 

• Let's look at the sequence of the sentence.
• ​Statement S is the opening of the sentence as it introduces the theme of the sentence which is "the issues raised by feminists and multiculturalists".
• ​Statement Q is the second statement of the sentence as it is having the plural verb "are" for the plural noun "issues" which tells the issues raised are certainly very important.
• Statement P is the third statement of the sentence as it adds the information using "and" which tells that issues raised should shift the way.
• Statement R is the last statement of the sentence and it adds information by telling us issues raised should shift the way we think about politics.​

Hence, the correct sequence is 'SQPR'.

Correct Order

• S. The issues raised by feminists and multiculturalists
• Q. are certainly very important,
• P. and should shift the way
• *R. we think about politics.*​

Complete Sentence

The issues raised by feminists and multiculturalists are certainly very important, and should shift the way we think about politics.

The correct answer is 'SPRQ.'

Key Points 

• Let's look at the sequence of the sentence.
• ​Statement S is the opening of the sentence as it introduces the subject of the sentence which is "genetic modification".
• Statement P is the second statement of the sentence as it adds the information about the genetic modification that it is the science by which the genetic material of a plant is altered.
• Statement R is the third statement of the sentence as it further adds more information that genetic modification that makes plant more resistant.
• Statement Q is the last statement of the sentence and tells us that genetic modification makes plants resistant to pests and increased plant's nutritional value.

Hence, the correct sequence is 'SPRQ'.

Correct Order

• S. Genetic modification (GM) is the science
• P. by which the genetic material of a plant is altered,
• R. perhaps to make it more resistant to
• Q. pests and enhance its nutritional value.

Complete Sentence

Genetic modification (GM) is the science by which the genetic material of a plant is altered, perhaps to make it more resistant to pests and enhance its nutritional value.

The correct answer is 'QSRP.'

Key Points 

• Let's look at the sequence of the sentence.
• ​Statement Q is the opening of the sentence as it introduces the subject of the sentence which is "the editors".
• ​Statement S is the second statement of the sentence as it is having the plural verb "argue" for the plural noun "editors" which tells the editors of the present work argue the need to understand.
• Statement R is the third statement of the sentence as it tells what need to understand that is said by the editors which is the history of social reforms.
• Statement P is the last statement of the sentence which adds more information by telling us that we need to understand the history of social reforms from a much wider array of perspectives.

Hence, the correct sequence is 'QSRP'.

Correct Order

• Q. The editors of the present work
• S. argue the need to understand
• R. the history of social reforms from
• P. a much wider array of perspectives.

Complete Sentence

The editors of the present work argue the need to understand the history of social reforms from a much wider array of perspectives.

The correct answer is 'RSQP.'

Key Points 

• Let's look at the sequence of the sentence.
• ​Statement R is the opening of the sentence as it introduces the subject of the sentence which is "Pandita Ramabai".
• Statement S is the second statement of the sentence as it adds more information that why Pandita Ramabai is remarkable by telling us that she was remarkable as pioneer in the women's education.
• Statement Q is the third statement of the sentence as it adds more information by telling us that she was also remarkable as a champion of women's rights.
• Statement P is the last statement of the sentence as it tells that she fought till the end for the women's education and women's rights.

Hence, the correct sequence is 'RSQP'.

Correct Order

• R. Pandita Ramabai was truly remarkable
• S. as a pioneer in women’s education and
• Q.** as a champion of women’s rights,**
• P. for which she fought till the end.

Complete Sentence

Pandita Ramabai was truly remarkable as a pioneer in women’s education and as a champion of women’s rights,* for which she fought till the end*.

The correct answer is '(c) raising every time we fall.'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 3 (c) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "rising" in place of "raising" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• "Our greatest glory is not in never falling but in rising every time we fall" is an inspirational quote that reminds us to be not afraid of risks; the journey that we all go through in life to succeed.
• We can't change the word of an idiom/ phrase/ proverb or any quote.
• Raising means 'to increase the level of something or to make something better or stronger (किसी वस्‍तु के स्‍तर में वृद्धि करना या उसे बेहतर या अधिक सशक्त करना)'.
• Example: Raising the minimum wage would ratchet up real incomes in general.
• Raising means 'advancing to maturity or high standing (परिपक्वता या उच्च स्तर पर आगे बढ़ना)'.
• Example: India is rising to become a world power in the next 25 years.
• In the given sentence, "raising" is contextually incorrect as per the meaning of the quote.
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 3 (c) is the correct option.

Correct Sentence: Our greatest glory is (a) / not in never falling but in (b) / rising every time we fall. (c) / No error (d)

The correct answer is 'a.'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 1 (a) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "those" in place of "that" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• 'One of' refers to a single entity of a group or subject. A noun or pronoun or subject of such phrase will be in the plural form and the verb in such cases will always be singular as it refers to only a single subject.
• The rule for such sentences. 
• One/ Every/ Each/ Neither/ Either + of/ of the + Noun/ Pronoun (Plural) + Verb (Singular).

1. Example: One of the best students in the class is Manish.
2. Example: Jerry is one of those insufferable people.

• ​In the given sentence, as "one of" is given so we need the plural pronoun "those" in place of the singular pronoun "that".
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 1 (a) is the correct answer.

Correct Sentence: Rahim was one of those (a) / selected for (b) / the award. (c) No error (d)

Additional Information 

• If relative pronouns (who/ which/ that) will be there then it will take the verb as per the antecedents if plural noun then the verb will be plural and vice versa.
• Example-
• Incorrect: One of the meetings which was discussed earlier was raised by Neelam.
• Correct: One of the meetings which were discussed earlier was raised by Neelam.
• Antecedent here is 'meetings' (Plural noun) and for that we use were (Plural verb) instead of a singular verb (was).

The correct answer is '(a).'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 1 (a) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "had" in place of "has" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• Past tense: A tense expressing an action that has happened or a state that previously existed or already happened and past habits. We use past tense with yesterday, last night, last week, last year, the other day, the other morning, etc.
• Example: Nilima never made this type of mistake.
• Past perfect: The past perfect refers to a time earlier than before now. It is used to make it clear that one event happened before another event in the past.
• Example: Deepa had taken the dinner before the doctor reached.
• So, when we are talking about the two events then the event which happened first we use past perfect with it, and for the event which is after that, we use past tense.
• Example: The train had left before the doctor came.
• In the example "the doctor came" it happened after the "train left". So, we use past perfect with the clause associated with "the train" and past tense with the clause associated with "the doctor".
• In the given sentence "has" is wrong which we have to replace it with "had" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 1 (a) is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: Sujini had met her old friend (a) / Guru before she shifted (b) / to Hyderabad two years ago. (c) / No error (d)

The correct answer is '(b).'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 2 (b) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "monuments" in place of "monument" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• 'One of' refers to a single entity of a group or subject. A noun or pronoun or subject of such phrase will be in the plural form and the verb in such cases will always be singular as it refers to only a single subject.
• The rule for such sentences. 
• One/ Every/ Each/ Neither/ Either + of/ of the + Noun/ Pronoun (Plural) + Verb (Singular).
• Example: Each of the guavas is riped well.
• ​In the given sentence, as "one of" is given so we need the plural noun "monuments" in place of singular noun "monument".
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 2 (b) is the correct answer.

Correct Sentence: This monument happens (a) / to be one of the old monuments (b) / in the city. (c) / No error (d)

Additional Information 

• If relative pronouns (who/ which/ that) will be there then it will take the verb as per the antecedents if plural noun then the verb will be plural and vice versa.
• Example-
• Incorrect: One of the questions which was discussed earlier was raised by Shreya.
• Correct: One of the questions which were discussed earlier was raised by Shreya.
• Antecedent here is 'questions' (Plural noun) and for that we use were (Plural verb) instead of a singular verb (was).

The correct answer is '(a).'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 1 (a) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "told" in place of "told to" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• Indirect Speech: In indirect speech, we convey the message of the speaker in our own words to another person.
• Example:
• Indirect - He said that the scheme would be announced the next day.
• In the given indirect sentence, "told to" is wrong because we can write "said to" in direct speech but in indirect speech "told" is used in place of it but we cannot use "told to" in direct and indirect speech.
• We omit the use of "to" with "told".
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 1 (a) is the correct answer.

Correct Sentence: Amit told Divya (a) / that he would come (b) / with a reward for her. (c)/  No error (d)

Additional Information 

• To change sentence into an indirect form, we have to follow the following steps:

1. Said to changes into told. If said is given then it will remain as it is.
2. Inverted commas are removed.
3. If the reporting speech is in past tense then the sentence will change as per the rules other wise the sentence will not change. Only "that" will be added.
4. "That" is added after removing the inverted commas.
5. The first person of the reported speech changes according to the subject of reporting speech, the second person of the reported speech changes according to the object of reporting speech, and the third person of the reported speech doesn't change.

• Example:
• Direct - He said, "He is hungry"
• Indirect - He said that he was hungry.

The correct answer is '(a).'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 1 (a) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "had" in place of "have" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• Third conditional sentences are used to explain that present circumstances would be different if something different had happened in the past. When using the third conditional, we use the past perfect (i.e. had + past participle) in the if-clause.
• The modal auxiliary (would) + have + past participle in the main clause expresses the theoretical situation that could have happened.
• In the third conditional sentence, the structure of the sentence is:
• If + Subject + had + V3 + Object, Subject + Would + Have + V3.
• Or Had + Subject + V3 + Object, Subject + Would Have + V3.
• ​Example: If Rita had told me about the meeting, I would have come.
• The given sentence is according to the third conditional sentence.
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 1 (a) is the correct answer.

Correct Sentence: If you had asked me (a) / for the truth I would have told (b) / you at that time. (c) / No error (d)

The correct answer is '(a).'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 1 (a) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "were" in place of "will be" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• "I were" is called the subjunctive mood, and is used when we're are talking about something that isn't true or when we wish something will true or some condition.
• Example: If I were you I would have told the director to keep her mouth shut.
• As the sentence is in subjective mood means wish or condition then we use "I were".
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 1 (a) is the correct answer.

Correct Sentence: If I were the millionaire (a) / I would eradicate (b) / poverty from the country. (c) / No error (d)

Additional Information 

• If not a subjunctive one then we use "I was" instead of "I were".
• ​Example: I was stunned, says Admiral.

The correct answer is '(b).'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 2 (b) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "worth" in place of "better than" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• "A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush" is a proverb that means the things we currently have are worth a lot more than the things we have a chance of getting.
• A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush: It's better to be content with what you have than to risk losing everything by seeking to get more (आपके पास जो कुछ है उससे संतुष्ट रहना बेहतर है कि अधिक पाने के लिए सब कुछ खोने का जोखिम उठाया जाए)'.
• ​Example: You may not like your job, but don’t quit merely in the hope of finding a better one.
• ​ It is an example of a bird in the hand is worth two in the bush.
• We can't change the word of an idiom/ phrase/ proverb or any quote.
• In the given sentence, "better than" is wrong for a proverb **"**A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush".
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 2 (b) is correct option.

Correct Sentence: A bird in hand (a) / is worth (b) / two in the bush. (c) / No error (d)

The correct answer is '(b).'

Key Points 

• The error lies in option 2 (b) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "an" in place of "a" to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• Article: An article is used to modify a noun, which is a person, place, object, or idea.
• Example: A man, a car, a girl.
• An article: When the indefinite article comes before a word beginning with a vowel sound.
• ​Example: An idea, an apple.
• In the given sentence, "honest" is a word beginning with a vowel sound.
• So, we use "an" instead of "a" to make the sentence correct.
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 2 (b) is the correct answer.

Correct Sentence: The opportunity to attain foundational literacy (a) / and pursue an honest livelihood (b) / must be viewed as the basic right of every citizen. (c) / No error (d)

Additional Information 

• Definite articles (The): The definite article "the" is used before the singular and plural nouns when the noun is specific or particular.
• Example: Gurmeet gets on the bus.
• Indefinite articles (A and An):
• 'A' article: When the indefinite article comes before a word beginning with a consonant sound.
• Example: A book, a car.

The correct answer is '(b).'

Key Points

• The error lies in option 2 (b) of the sentence.
• Here, we use "in" in place of "for" to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• In: In is used for the community or the local area and the preposition. We use "in" to talk about something or someone in relation to a larger area around someone or something. 'In' is used to indicate a location that is inside of something like- space, small vehicles, water, neighborhood, city, and country.

1. ​Example: Saniya has left her keys in the car.
2. Example: Dinkar lives in a city near San Francisco.

• The phrase 'Progress in something' means "to move forward in place or time; to move toward a higher, better, or more advanced stage (स्थान या समय में आगे बढ़ना; एक उच्च, बेहतर, या अधिक उन्नत अवस्था की ओर बढ़ने के लिए)".
• ​Example: The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.​
• ​In the given sentence, "progress for" is the wrong phrase.
• So, we have to use the right phrase "progress in" to show where progress is advancing or going on to make the sentence contextually correct.
• All the other options are correct.

Hence, option 2 (b) is the correct option.

Correct Sentence: Though there is progress (a) / in different directions, (b) / why is there no brotherhood? (c) / No error (d)

Additional Information 

• For: We use 'for' to talk about a purpose or a reason for something. We use 'for' with a period of time in the past, present, or future.
• ​Example: Rishabh has waited at the station for nine hours.

The correct answer is "A strange person".

Key Points

• The idiom "A queer fish" means a person whose behaviour seems strange or unusual.
• For example: Everyone could tell he was a queer fish as soon as he walked into the party with his mismatched clothing.
• From the above explanation it is clear that 'A strange person' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

• A fish out of water means a person who feels awkward or unhappy because they are in a situation that is not familiar or because they are different from the people around them:
• For example: He felt like a fish out of water at his new school.

The correct answer is "Eat very little".

Key Points

• The idiom "Eat like a bird" means to always eat a small amount of food.
• For example: Girls always eat like a bird in order to keep a slender figure.
• From the above explanation of the idiom it is clear that 'Eat very little' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• The idiom "eat like a horse" means to frequently eat a large amount of food
• For example: Her daughter is super skinny but you'd never believe she eats like a horse.

The correct answer is "Argue about something".

Key Points

• The Idiom "Lock horns" means to begin to argue or fight.
• For example, The mayor and deputy mayor locked horns over plans for the new road.
• From the above explanation, it is clear that 'argue about something' is the correct meaning of the given word.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is "First arrival".

Key Points

• The idiom "Early bird" means  a person who gets up or arrives early, or who does something before other people do.
• For example: She isn't an early bird by nature, but she's been up before dawn every day for the past month
• From the above explanation it is clear that "First arrival" is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Additional Information

• The idiom bird's-eye view means a view from a high angle as if seen by a bird in flight or an overall or cursory look at something.
• For example: Climb to the top of the Eiffel Tower if you want a bird's eye view of Paris.

The correct answer is "To be very healthy".

Key Points

• Be in the pink means to be in very good health.
• For example: Ranjan is happy to be in the pink again after her hospital stay.
• From the above explanation it is clear that 'to be very healthy' is the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is "In a good position to win ".

Key Points

• Idiom "Be in the running" means to have a good chance of getting a job or winning a prize.
• From the above explanation of the idiom it is clear that "In a good position to win" will be the correct answer of this idiom.
• For example: He is in the running to win a car.

Hence the correct answer "Option 3".

The correct answer is "A complete change".

Key Points

• Idiom "A sea change" means  a complete change in someone's attitudes or behaviour.
• From the above meaning it is clear that "A complete change" will be the correct answer of given idiom.
• For example: Since last year, there has been a sea change in international relations.

Hence, the correct answer is "A complete change".

The correct answer is "An important piece of advice".

Key Points

• Idiom "A pearl of wisdom" means a wise saying or piece of advice.
• From the above meaning of the idiom it is clear that "An important piece of advice" will be the right answer of the given idiom.
• For example: He offered some pearls of wisdom about raising children.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is "To be extremely happy". 

Key Points

• Idiom "Be in seventh heaven" means very happy; ecstatic.
• From the above meaning of the given idiom it is clear that "To be extremely happy" will be the right answer of the question.
• For example: Since they got married, they've been in seventh heaven.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is "To owe money to a bank".

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom -
• If a person or company is in the red, it implies they have spent more money than they have in their account and therefore owe money to the bank. OR spending and owing more money than is being earned. (जितना पैसा कमाया जा रहा है उससे अधिक खर्च करना और देना।)
• For eg  - The company has been in the red for quite a while, and now they are struggling to pay staff wages.
• Therefore, based on the above points, 'To owe money to a bank' is the correct answer.

Thus, Option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Prayaga Prashasti of samudragupta.

Key Points

• Harishena was the court poet of the Gupta Emperor, Samudragupta.
• Allahabad Pillar inscription, also known as Prayag Prashasti consists of 33 lines composed by Harishena.
• Prayag Prashasti is one of the important epigraphic sources to know about the political history of the Gupta dynasty.
• Samudragupta was a patron of many poets and scholars, one of whom was Harishena.
• Samudragupta was the son and successor of Chandragupta I and was the greatest ruler of the Gupta dynasty.

Important Points

• Nashik Inscription of Gautami Balashri:
• The Nashik inscription dated to the 18th year of Gautamiputra's reign states that he reaffirmed a grant of land to Buddhist monks living at the Triraśmi peak.
• Nashik prashasti (eulogy) inscription of his mother Gautami Balashri, credits him with extensive military conquests.
• Historical evidence suggests that Gautamiputra revived the Satavahana power after a decline caused by Shaka invasions.
• Deopara Prashasti of Vijayasena:
• Vijayasena (c 1097-1160 AD) was the founder of the sena dynasty of Bengal, which ruled for more than 100 years.
• It is beyond any doubt that Vijayasena established independent power in Bengal immediately after the demise of Ramapala.
• The Deopara prashasti records that he defeated Nanya, Vira, Raghava and Vardhana.
• Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela:
• Kharavela, the then Emperor of Kalinga,  inscribed the Hathigumpha (Elephant Cave) inscription in Udayagiri Hills, Odisha during 2nd century BCE.
• The Hathigumpha inscription situated near Bhubaneswar gives information about year-wise achievements of Kharavela.
• The inscription starts with a version of the auspicious Jain Namokar Mantra.
• The Inscription consists of seventeen lines in deep-cut Brahmi script.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

National Planning Committee:

• It was set up in 1938.
• Congress president in the year 1938 was Subhash Chandra Bose.
• The chairman of the National Planning Committee was Jawaharlal Nehru.

Planning Commission:

• The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution of the Government of India in March 1950 in pursuance of declared objectives of the Government to promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community.

National Development Council: 

• ​It was set up in the year 1952.
• It is an apex body for decision-making and deliberations on development matters, presided over by the Prime Minister of India and comprising Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of all the States and UTs,  Administrators of Union Territories, and Members of the Planning Commission.
• It is the apex body to take decisions on matters related to the approval of five-year plans of the country​

Five-Year Plans:

• The first Indian prime minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, presented the First Five-Year Plan to the Parliament of India.
• The First Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 which mainly focused on the development of the primary sector.
• The First Five-Year Plan was based on the Harrod–Domar model with few modifications.
• The National Development Council (NDC) was formed in 1952 and was tasked mainly with the approval of five-year plans.

Mistake Points

• The first five-year plan is the only five-year plan adopted without the consent of the NDC.
• It was adopted later on after the review by the NDC.

The correct answer is Battle of Plassey.

Key Points

• Battle of Plassey:
• It was fought in 1757 in the Plassey region of West Bengal, on the east of the Bhagirathi river.
• Troops of the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, came up against the forces of Siraj-ud-Daulah, the last independent Nawab of Bengal, and his French allies.
• The victory of the British East India Company in the Battle of Plassey is one of the important landmarks in India History.
• The Battle of Plassey paved the way for the beginning of the British empire in India.
• The British enjoyed the tax benefits, had to compete with no rival foreign merchants, and began to use the revenue of Bengal for protecting their military and trade interests.
• So much wealth was drained from Bengal that the economy was completely shattered. This is known as the Plassey Plunder.
• With the wealth of Bengal, the British secured their business and political supremacy.

Additional Information

• ​The Third Battle of Panipat took place on 14 January 1761 at Panipat, between the force of the Maratha Empire and invading forces of the King of Afghanistan, Ahmad Shah Abdali.
• The Battle of Buxar was fought between the forces under the command of the British East India Company, led by Hector Munro, and the combined armies of Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal; Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Awadh; and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II in 1764.
• The Indian Mutiny of 1857-59 was a widespread but unsuccessful rebellion against the rule of the British East India Company in India which functioned as a sovereign power on behalf of the British crown.

The correct answer is Madraspatnam.

Key Points

• The East India Company was formed in 1599 through the royal charter from Queen Elizabeth I on December 31, 1600 AD authorizing it to trade in the East.
• In 1639 AD, the East India Company obtained the lease of the city of Madras from the local king where it built Fort St. George to protect its factory. Later Madras was made the South Indian headquarters of the Company.
• In 1639, when the British East India Company sought to set up a factory, Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka, who was in charge of Madras, gave the British a piece of land.
• What was given to the British was essentially a wasteland. They also built a factory and a warehouse required for trading purposes.

​ Additional Information

• ​In 1608 AD, the East India Company sent Captain William Hawkins to the court of the Mughal emperor Jahangir to secure royal patronage.
• Then in 1615 AD, Sir Thomas Roe was sent by Emperor James I of England to Jahangir’s court, with a plea for more concession for the Company.
• Roe was very diplomatic and thus successfully secured a royal charter giving the Company freedom to trade in the whole of the Mughal territory.
• It was Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar who in 1717 AD, issued royal Farman (charter) granting the company important trading facilities in Bengal which included the permission to export and import British goods in Bengal without paying taxes.
• Under the Farman, the company was authorized to issue Dastaks (passes) for the transportation of goods.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The Dutch East India Company was established in 1602 CE under the name Vereenigde Oost Indische Compagnie (VOC). 
• In 1605, the Dutch established the first factory in India which was located at Masulipatnam.
• British rule over India started as a trading unit, when East India Company received a Royal Charter from Queen Elizabeth I on 31 December 1600.
• Within a time period of nearly three centuries, the British turned from a trading power to one of the most powerful countries in the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Arrival of the British and the establishment of the East India Company was the outcome of the Portuguese traders who earn enormous profits by selling their merchandise in India.
• Vasco da Gama arrived in 1498 on the Western sea coast of India at Kozhikode (Calicut), Kerala.
• This was the first time that a European had arrived in India via sea route.
• Thus, da Gama is credited with the discovery of the sea route to India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is fallow other than current fallow.

Key Points

• Culturable Waste-Land: Land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is included in this category.
• It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through reclamation practices.
• Current Fallow: This is the land that is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year.
• Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.
• Fallow other than Current Fallow: This is also a cultivable land that is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years.
• If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorized as a culturable wasteland.
• Barren and Wastelands: The land which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology

Important PointsThe land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows:

• Land put to Non-agricultural Uses:
• ​Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc. are included in this category.
• An expansion in secondary and tertiary activities would lead to an increase in this category of land use.
• Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands:
• Most of this type of land is owned by the village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government.
• Only a small proportion of this land is privately owned.
• The land owned by the village panchayat comes under Common Property Resources.
• Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves(Not included is Net sown Area):
• The land under orchards and fruit trees are included in this category.
• Much of this land is privately owned.
• Net Area Sown:
• The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as the net sown area.

The correct answer is Queensland.

Key Points

• The Great Artesian Basin is one of the largest underground freshwater resources in the world.
• It is Australia’s largest groundwater basin.
• It lies beneath parts of the Northern Territory, Queensland, South Australia, and New South Wales.
• It includes the Eromanga, Surat, and Carpentaria geological basins.
• The Basin spans almost 1.7 million square kilometers (over one-fifth of the Australian continent) and has a storage capacity of 64,900 million ML. It connects with the Murray–Darling Basin and the Lake Eyre Basin.

Additional Information

• ​Groundwater from the GAB is a vital resource for pastoral, agricultural, and extractive industries as well as for many town water supplies, supporting at least $12.8 billion in economic activity annually.
• The GAB also supports significant Indigenous cultural values and sustains a range of groundwater-dependent ecosystems (GDEs), including iconic mound springs across central Australia.

The correct answer is **option 3.**​

Key Points

• Inland waterway is a network of rivers, canals, backwaters, and creeks that can be utilized for transportation instead of or in addition to roads and rails.
• India has nearly 14,500 km of navigable waterways and it moves about 44 million tonnes of cargo annually through these waterways using mechanized vessels and country boats in an organized manner in the waterways of Goa, West Bengal, Assam, and Kerala.
• However, inland water transport (IWT) accounts for less than 1% of its freight traffic, compared to 35% in Bangladesh and 20% in Germany. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Under the National Waterways Act, 2016, a total of 111 waterways have been declared as National Waterways (NWs). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It allows the Central Government to regulate these waterways for development with respect to shipping, navigation, and transport by means of mechanically propelled vessels.​
• The **total cargo moved by inland waterways was just 0.1 % of the total inland traffic in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.**​

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2.

Key Points 

• | Railway Zone | Zonal Headquarters | | --- | --- | | Central Railway | Mumbai | | Eastern Railway | Kolkata | | East Central Railway | Hajipur | | East Coast Railway | Bhubaneshwar | | Northern Railway | Baroda House, New Delhi | | North Central  Railway | Allahabad | | North Eastern Railway | Gorakhpur | | North East Frontier Railway | Maligaon, Guwahati | | North Western Railway | Jaipur | | Southern Railway | Chennai | | South Central Railway | Secunderabad | | South Eastern Railway | Garden Reach, Kolkata | | South East Central Railway | Bilaspur | | South Western Railway | Hubli | | Western Railway | Mumbai CST | | West Central Railway | Jabalpur | | South Coast Railway | Visakhapatnam |

• Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Indian Railway:
• Lord Dalhousie is known as the father of Indian Railways.
• The first railway minister of India was John Mathai.
• The first railway on the Indian sub-continent ran over a stretch of 21 miles from Bombay to Thane.
• The idea of a railway to connect Bombay with Thane, Kalyan, and with the Thal and Bhore Ghats inclines first occurred to Mr. George Clark, the Chief Engineer of the Bombay Government, during a visit to Bhandup in 1843.
• The first formal inauguration ceremony was performed in 1853.
• In the South, the first line was opened in 1856.

The statement 4 is not correct.

Key Points

Seismic Wav  es (Earthquake Waves)

• Seismic waves are waves of energy caused by earthquakes or an explosion. They are the energy that travels through the earth and is recorded on seismographs.
• Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves.
• Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions traveling through the body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves.
• There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves.
• P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• These are also called ‘primary waves’.
• The P-waves are similar to sound waves.
• They travel through gaseous, liquid, and solid materials. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• P-waves are also called the longitudinal waves.
• The seismographs located beyond 145° from epicenters; record the arrival of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• P-waves create density differences in the material leading to stretching (rarefaction) and squeezing (compression) of the material.
• S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves.
• An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials.

Important Points

• There exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’.
• A zone between 105° and 145° from the epicenter was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves.
• The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves.
• The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 percent of the earth's surface. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.

Concept:

Electric energy is defined as the movement of charged particles or electrons from one point to another through a medium (like a wire).

• The basic unit of electrical energy is the joule or Watt-second.
• 1 Watt = 1 Joule
• An electrical energy is said to be one joule when one ampere of current flows through the circuit for a second when the potential difference of one volt is applied across it
• The commercial unit of electrical energy is the kilowatt-hour (kWh)
• One kilowatt = 1000 Watt
• 1 hour = 60 × 60 = 3600 second

Calculation:

1kilowatt-hour (kWh) =1000 × 60 × 60 Watt-second or joule

⇒ 3.6 × 10⁶ joule

Additional Information

SI unit of work and energy is Joule

1 N-m = 1 Joule

Concept:

A solenoid is a wire wound closely in the form of a helix

• when a soft iron rod is inserted inside a magnetic field it magnetizes the iron rod.
• A current-carrying solenoid produces a similar pattern of the magnetic field as a bar magnet.
• The magnet field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines.

Explanation:

• A current carrying solenoid produces its own magnetic field inside and outside the solenoid
• So, when a soft iron rod is placed inside a solenoid then due to the magnetic field of the solenoid iron rod gets magnetized that's why it increases the magnetic field inside the solenoid

 Additional Information

The magnetic field inside a solenoid, B = μ₀ni

$n= \frac{N}{L}$

Where, μo is the permeability constant = 1.26 × 10⁻⁶ T/m,

N is the number of turns in the solenoid,

I is the current passing through the coil,

L is the coil length.

Concept:

• Density is defined as the mass per unit volume.
• $ρ = \frac{m}v$
• Where ρ = density, m = mass, v = volume
• The average density of objects = $\frac{total\space mass}{total\space volume}$
• SI unit of density is kg/m³

Calculation:

Given data for the first part density = ρ₀ and for the second part density = 2ρ₀, and volume is the same for both parts = v

Mass of First part = m₁ = ρ₀ × v ----- (1)

Mass of second part = m₂ = 2ρ₀ × v -------- (2)

Total volume = v + v = 2v -----------(3)

The average density of objects = $\frac{total\space mass}{total\space volume}$

From equation 1, 2, and 3 

⇒ $\rho = \frac{\rho_0 \times v +2\rho_0 \times v}{2v}$

⇒ $\rho =\frac{3}{2}\rho_0$

Concept:

Ideal gas equation - PV = nRT

Where, P = Pressure of the gas, V = Volume of the gas, n = Amount of substance, R = ideal gas constant, T = Temperature

• For a constant volume, P ∝ T

​Explanation:

• The volume of the cooker is constant
• Due to the increase in temperature, the pressure inside the cooker also increases causing an increase in the boiling point of the water
• In a pressure cooker, the steam formed from the boiling water is not allowed to escape.
• The steam so formed increases the pressure inside the pressure cooker and so the water boils at a higher temperature.
• The time required to cook the food is greatly reduced.
• The water is made to boil at a higher temperature (upto 120°C) than its boiling point (100°C)

Concept:

• The spectrum is a continuous range of electromagnetic radiation waves.
• It ranges from the longest radio waves to the shortest X-rays and gamma rays.

Explanation:

• X-Rays or X-radiation as a form of electromagnetic radiation.
• They are powerful waves of electromagnetic energy.
• Most X− rays have a wavelength ranging from 0.01 to 10 nm

Additional Information Properties of X-ray

• X-Rays are pure energy having no mass and they transfer energy from one place to another in the form of photons.
• They travel in straight lines with the velocity of light.
• They are used to capture the human skeleton defects.
• They are capable of traveling in a vacuum.
• X-rays are not affected by the electromagnetic field.

Concept:

Electric Power - 

• Electric power is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred by an electric circuit.
• The SI unit of Power is the Watt or One Joule per second.
• P = V × I
• where, p = power, I = current, V = voltage

Calculation:

Given data, Voltage = 220 V, Current = 600mA = 0.6A

Power, P = V × I = 220 × 0.6 = 132 W

Concept: 

Sound waves are longitudinal waves. Sound is energy that travels as a vibration through molecules of matter (usually air).

• pitch is that characteristic of sound that distinguishes a sharp (or shrill) sound from a grave (dull or flat) sound.
• Pitch depends upon Frequency.
• Higher the frequency, the higher will be the pitch and the shriller will be the sound.
• Lower the frequency, lower will be the pitch and grave will be the sound.

Explanation:

When the pitch of sound increases, its frequency will be increased.

Additional Information

• Wavelength: The wavelength of a sound is the measurable distance between two waves.
• Frequency: The number of waves that pass by a certain point (receiver) over a certain amount of time. When the wavelength of the wave is shorter, the frequency is higher.
• Amplitude: The height of a sound wave measured from the rest position to the crest of the wave is called amplitude. The taller a sound wave is, the louder the sound is heard.

​

The correct answer is option 1

Key Points

Reactivity Series:

• The reactivity series of metals, also known as the activity series, refers to the arrangement of metals in the descending order of their reactivities.
• To determine if a metal can displace another metal in a single displacement reaction, the information offered by the reactivity series can be used.
• It can also be used to find out how reactive metals are to acids and water.

Series in Decreasing order:

• Hence, the correct answer is Zinc > Iron > Lead > Copper.

​Features: 

• The metals at the top of the reactivity series are powerful reducing agents since they are easily oxidized. These metals tarnish/corrode very easily.
• The reducing ability of the metals grows weaker while traversing down the series.
• The electro-positivity of the elements also reduces while moving down the reactivity series of metals.
• All metals that are found above hydrogen in the activity series liberate H₂ gas upon reacting with dilute HCl or dilute H₂SO_4.
• Metals that are placed higher on the reactivity series have the ability to displace metals that are placed lower from their salt solutions.
• Higher-ranking metals require greater amounts of energy for their isolation from ores and other compounds.

The correct answer is Calcium.

Key Points

• Metals react with water and produce metal oxide and hydrogen gas.
• Metal oxides that are soluble in water dissolve in it to further form metal hydroxide. But all metals do not react with water.
• Metal + Water → Metal oxide + Hydrogen
• Metal oxide + Water → Metal hydroxide
• The reaction of calcium with water is less violent.
• The heat evolved is not sufficient for the hydrogen to catch fire.
• Ca(s) + 2H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂ (aq) + H₂ (g)
• Calcium starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of the metal.

Important Points

• Magnesium does not react with cold water.
• It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen.
• It also starts floating due to the bubbles of hydrogen gas sticking to its surface.
• Metals like potassium and sodium react violently with cold water.
• In the case of sodium and potassium, the reaction is so violent and exothermic that the evolved hydrogen immediately catches fire.
• Metals like aluminum, iron, and zinc do not react either with cold or hot water.
• But they react with steam to form a metal oxide and hydrogen.
• Metals such as lead, copper, silver, and gold do not react with water at all.

The correct answer is Sugar.

Key Points

• When ions, which serve as charge carriers, are present in a solution, it can conduct electricity.
• When sugar is added to water, it does not produce ions to facilitate electrical conductivity. Hence it is not capable of conducting electricity.
• On the other hand, a salt solution has ions to conduct electricity. Therefore, compared to a salt solution, a sugar solution is a poor conductor.

Additional Information

• Copper sulphate
• When an electric current is passed through the copper sulphate solution, copper sulphate dissociates into copper and sulphate.
• The free copper gets drawn to the electrode connected to the negative terminal of the battery and gets deposited on it.
• The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called electroplating.
• Sodium chloride
• When salt is dissolved in distilled water, we obtain salt solution. This is a conductor of electricity.
• The water that we get from sources such as taps, hand pumps, wells and ponds is not pure.
• Small amounts of mineral salts are naturally present in it. This water is thus a good conductor of electricity.
• On the other hand, distilled water is free of salts and is a poor conductor.
• Sodium Hydroxide
• The ions are free to circulate inside the dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide solution.
• Since ions can freely move in the solution, they can conduct electricity.
• Thus, a solution of caustic soda in water or when fused conducts an electric current.

The correct answer is Helium.

Key Points

• Scuba divers cope with high concentrations of dissolved gases while breathing air at high pressure underwater.
• Increased pressure increases the solubility of atmospheric gases in the blood.
• When the divers come toward the surface, the pressure gradually decreases.
• This releases the dissolved gases and leads to the formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood.
• This blocks capillaries and creates a medical condition known as bends, which are painful and lethal.
• To avoid bends, as well as, the toxic effects of high concentrations of nitrogen in the blood, the tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air diluted with helium (11.7% helium, 56.2% nitrogen, and 32.1% oxygen).

Mistake Points

• Air itself contains a large amount of Nitrogen i.e. 77%, therefore the tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air diluted with helium (11.7%). This is done to lessen the quantity of Nitrogen.

Important Points

• To increase the solubility of CO₂ in soft drinks and soda water, the bottle is sealed under high pressure.
• At high altitudes, the partial pressure of oxygen is less than that at the ground level.
• This leads to low concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitudes or climbers.
• Low blood oxygen causes climbers to become weak and unable to think clearly, symptoms of a condition known as anoxia.

The correct answer is Silver oxide.

Key Points

• A chemical reaction that results in the breakdown of one reactant into two or more products is known as a decomposition reaction.
• Ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO₄, 7H₂O) lose water when heated and the colour of the crystals changes.
• It then decomposes to ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃), sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and sulphur trioxide (SO₃).
• When a decomposition reaction is carried out by heating, it is called thermal decomposition.
• ​Decomposition of Silver Oxide:
• Black silver oxide is heated in a test tube to give metallic silver and oxygen gas. The gas is captured in a balloon.
• ​The decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide on heating is an important decomposition reaction used in various industries.

Additional Information

• Zinc oxide is white in colour, when it is heated at a high temperature, it changes colour from white to yellow but does not decompose.
• When magnesium burns with a dazzling white flame it changes into a white powder. This powder is magnesium oxide.
• It is formed due to the reaction between magnesium and oxygen present in the air.

The correct answer is sodium and potassium.

Key Points

Conduction of Nerve Impulse:

• A nerve impulse is an electric signal that passes along the dendrites to generate a nerve impulse or an action potential.
• An action potential is due to the movement of ions in and out of the cell.
• It specifically involves sodium and potassium ions.
• ​Sodium is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells.
• The sodium-potassium pump triggers an electrical impulse that travels from one nerve cell to the next transmitting messages between the brain, spinal cord, and the rest of the body.
• They are moved in and out of the cell through sodium and potassium channels and the sodium-potassium pump.
• Conduction of nerve impulse occurs due to the presence of active and electronic potentials along the conductors.
• Transmission of signals internally between the cells is achieved through a synapse.
• Nerve conductors comprise relatively higher membrane resistance and low axial resistance.
• The electrical synapse has its application in escape reflexes, the heart and in the retina of vertebrates.

The correct answer is silver sulphide.

• When silver articles are kept in open or direct contact with air, then a layer of silver Sulfide is formed on the surface of the articles.

Key Points

• After a while, it will form silver sulphide after coming in contact with oxygen and Hydrogen sulphide present in the atmospheric air.
• The phenomenon is known as corrosion. It is called silver tarnishing, particularly for silver.
• The black substance obtained is known as the silver sulphide.
• The reaction that happens is:
• 4Ag + O₂ + 2H₂S → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O
• Silver sulphide is useful as a photosensitizer in photography. It constitutes the tarnish that forms over time on silverware and other silver objects.

Concept:

• Accommodation of the human eye is the process of adjusting the lens to focus on objects at various distances, thereby allowing clear vision
• Far-sightedness, also known as long-sightedness, hypermetropia, or hyperopia, is a condition of the eye where distant objects are seen clearly but near objects appear blurred.
• This issue can be overcome with the help of a converging lens.
• Nearsightedness is an eye condition in which you can see nearby objects clearly, but faraway objects appear fuzzy or blurry. It’s also called myopia
• This issue can be overcome with the help of a diverging lens.

Explanation:

The human eye can see objects at different distances with contrasting illuminations. This is due to the accommodation of the eye.

The correct answer is Adrenaline.

Key Points

• Adrenaline hormone is secreted by the adrenal gland.
• Adrenaline prepares our bodies to face such a type of crisis.
• Adrenaline is secreted in response to the stress of any kind and during emergency situations and is called emergency hormones or hormones of Fight Fright and Flight (Triple F hormone).
• Key actions of adrenaline include:
• Controlling the heart rate.
• Increasing blood pressure.
• Expanding the air passages of the lungs.
• Enlarging the pupil in the eye.
• Redistributing blood to the muscles, and altering the body's metabolism, so as to maximize blood glucose levels (primarily for the brain).

Important Points

The correct answer is Bile and Lipase.

Key Points

Digestion of fat in the Human Body:

• The enzyme involved in fat digestion is lipase.
• Fats are first broken down into micelles with the help of bile secreted from the liver.
• Thus the micelles formed and broken down into triglycerides with the help of pancreatic lipase present in the intestinal juices along with other enzymes.
• These triglycerides are again broken down into glycerols and fatty acids by the same enzyme, lipase.
• Now, these fatty acids and glycerols are absorbed by the intestinal mucosa and then carried to the tissue through the lymphatic system.

Important Points

Bile:

• It helps in the digestion and absorption of fats, vitamins, and cholesterol. It is produced in the liver.
• Bile is responsible for the absorption of vitamin K. If bile is not produced, clotting factors will not be produced.
• Bile helps in the digestion of proteins.

Lipase:

• Lipase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.
• In most of living organisms, lipase enzymes are essential for the digestion and transportation of lipids.
• Lipases are essential for various biological processes. The main function of lipases is the breakdown and transport of dietary lipids.
• Various types of lipases are involved in diverse processes such as fat metabolism, transportation, cell signalling, inflammation, etc.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Comparison between Plant Cell and Animal Cell:

• Hence, Animal cells have only cell membrane not cell wall, but plant cells have both.

The correct answer is plasma. 

Key Points

• Lymph is a fluid similar in composition to blood plasma.
• It is derived from blood plasma as fluids pass through capillary walls at the arterial end.
• As the interstitial fluid begins to accumulate, it is picked up and removed by tiny lymphatic vessels and returned to the blood.
• As soon as the interstitial fluid enters the lymph capillaries, it is called lymph.
• Returning the fluid to the blood prevents edema and helps to maintain normal blood volume and pressure.

Important Points

• Lymph is present in vascular tissue.
• Vascular tissue is comprised of the xylem and the phloem, the main transport systems of plants.
• Vascular system
• It is made up of the vessels that carry blood and lymph throughout the body.
• The arteries and veins carry blood throughout the body, delivering oxygen and nutrients to the body tissues and taking away tissue waste matter.

The correct answer is pyruvate and energy.

Key Points

Glycolysis:

• Glycolysis is the process in which glucose is broken down to produce energy.
• It produces two molecules of pyruvate, ATP, NADH, and water.
• The process takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell and does not require oxygen.
• It occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic organisms.
• Glycolysis is the primary step of cellular respiration, which occurs in all organisms.
• The process takes place in the cytoplasm of both plant and animal cells.
• Six enzymes are involved in the process.
• Glycolysis is followed by the Krebs cycle during aerobic respiration.
• In the absence of oxygen, the cells make small amounts of ATP as glycolysis is followed by fermentation.

The correct answer is Casper Ruud.

Key Points 

• Spaniard Rafael Nadal on 5 June 2022 won the 14th singles title of the French open beating Casper Ruud of Norway 6-3, 6-3, 6-0 in the final.
• With this victory, 36-year-old Nadal has become the oldest champion of the French Open.
• It is his 22nd Grand Slam title.
• In women's singles, World Number One Iga Swiatek of Poland won the 2022 title by beating Coco Gauf in Paris on 4 June 2022.

Additional Information

• ​The French Open, also known as Roland-Garros, is a major tennis tournament.
• It is held over two weeks at the Stade Roland Garros in Paris, France, beginning in late May each year.
• The tournament and venue are named after the French aviator Roland Garros.
• ​The French Open:
• Founded: 1891
• Location: Paris, France
• Surface: Clay – outdoors (1908–present); Sand – outdoors (1891–1907)
• Japan's Ena Shibahara and Wesley Koolhof of the Netherlands won the French Open mixed doubles title on 2 June 2022.

The correct answer is Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission.

Key Points

• The National Health Authority (NHA) recently announced the successful integration of eSanjeevani with its flagship scheme – Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
• This integration allows the existing users of eSanjeevani, the telemedicine service of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) to easily create their Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) and use it to link and manage their existing health records like prescriptions, lab reports, etc.
• The users would also be able to share their health records with doctors on eSanjeevani which will help in better clinical decision-making and ensuring the continuum of care.

Important Points

• eSanjeevani, the national Telemedicine Service of the Government of India, is a technological intervention conceptualized by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
• It was designed, implemented, and operationalized by C-DAC which leverages Information Technology to enable remote doctor consultations.
• eSanjeevani service is available in two variants.
• The first one is eSanjeevani Ayushman Bharat-Health and Wellness Centre (AB-HWC) – the Doctor-to-Doctor telemedicine service through which the beneficiaries visiting an HWC can virtually connect to doctors/ specialists in the Hub that could be at tertiary healthcare facility/hospital/medical college.
• The second variant, eSanjeevani OPD is serving patients across the country, connecting them directly to doctors from the comforts of their homes.
• ​Both versions – eSanjeevani AB-HWC and eSanjeevani OPD have been integrated with the ABDM platform.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) has been formulated with the objective to provide quality education and opportunities for even the poorest Scheduled Caste students.
• The SHRESHTA scheme has been conceived to provide access to high-quality residential education to the meritorious poor students from Scheduled Caste communities, whose parental annual income is up to Rs. 2.5 Lakh per annum, free of cost from class 9th to class 12th.

Additional Information

• ​Under this, each year a specified number of meritorious SC students (Approx 3000) in States / UTs are selected through a transparent mechanism of a National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA(NETS), conducted by the National Testing Agency ( NTA ).
• Selected students are admitted to the Best Private Residential Schools, affiliated with CBSE, in classes 9th and 11th for completion of education till 12th standard.
• Thereafter, the students may be connected to the Post Metric Scholarship Scheme or Top-Class Education Scheme of the Ministry to continue their further studies with adequate financial aid from the Government of India.
• Entire cost of school fee and hostel fee including food charges shall be borne by the Government of India.
• The Students under the Scheme may select any school across the country for their academics.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points 

• ​On June 3, a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court heard a PIL that sought to protect forest lands in the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu but was later expanded to cover the entire country.
• In its judgment, the court while referring to the 2011 guidelines as “reasonable”, directed all states to have a mandatory 1-km ESZ from the demarcated boundaries of every protected forest land, national park, and wildlife sanctuary.
• As per the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016), issued by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, land within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is to be notified as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ).

Important Points 

• ​According to the guidelines issued by the Environment Ministry on February 9, 2011, ESZs are created as “shock absorbers” for protected areas.
• It aims to minimize the negative impact on the “fragile ecosystems” by certain human activities taking place nearby.
• Furthermore, these areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection to those requiring lesser protection.
• To do so, the guidelines list the activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, sawmills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like the felling of trees.
• Lastly, there are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, and organic farming, among others.

The correct answer is Geetanjali Shree.

Key Points

• Geetanjali Shree’s ‘Tomb of Sand‘ has become the first Hindi novel to be awarded the prestigious 2022 International Booker Prize.
• Originally published as ‘Ret Samadhi‘, the book has been translated into English by Daisy Rockwell.
• It narrates the story of an 80-year-old woman who is depressed after her husband's death.

Additional Information

• Geetanjali Shree is a Hindi novelist and short story writer, who was born in 1957.
• Her novel ‘Mai‘ (2000) was shortlisted for Crossword Book Award in 2001, and it was translated into English by Nita Kumar and published by Niyogi Books in 2017.
• Her first story was ‘Bel Patra‘ (1987), which was published in the literary magazine Hans.
• Ret Samadhi (2018) is her fifth and latest novel.
• She has also been the recipient of the Indu Sharma Katha Samman award.