Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Mains Memory Based Paper (Held on: 30 November 2019 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

155 questions180 minutes
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Reasoning & Computer Aptitude (45 questions)

Directions: The following question contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read the paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.

A) Throughout history, technology has consistently transformed the way workers across every work culture to do their jobs. From the industrial age to modern-day, technology has improved working conditions. It has streamlined tedious and environmentally wasteful processes and made working from anywhere easier than ever.D) With the aid of Technology, productivity is pacing but wages aren’t keeping up. Expectations to continue to produce at the same pace remain. This can cause employees to feel constantly behind, even while their work is improving with the help of advanced technology.  This has increased more pressure on the employees as the administrative part chase behind their employees to deliver more and more.
B) It was designed so that it can impact work positively, both in manufacturing and in communication, and can increase the rate of production. It was with the aim that it should reduce the pressure on the employees and ease their work.E) Technology has boosted the gig economy, which can be said as another impact of Technology. Technology in the workplace has given the ease of working consistently as a freelancer in what’s known as the gig economy.
C) Technology in the workplace has helped to some extent and workers become more efficient than ever before. Earlier what used to take hours now can take minutes. Communication with colleagues or clients across the world can be done very efficiently.F) Technology is still going on its path of advancement, with new ideology in the future.

Question 1

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following statements deals about the boost in economy and future proposal of Technology?

  1. AOption (a)

    E & F

  2. BOption (b)

    A & F

  3. COption (c)

    A & B

  4. DOption (d)

    B & C

  5. EOption (e)

    D & E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

E & F

Why this answer is correct

Here both points E and F deal about the boost in the economy along with the future aspect of Technology, how Technology has boosted the gig economy, which can be said as another impact of Technology. Technology in the workplace has the opportunity of working to work as a freelancer and impacted the gig economy. There are still researchers going on to improve Technology and bring new advancements in it in the future.

Question 2

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following two statements forms a contradictory statements.

  1. AOption (a)

    B - D

  2. BOption (b)

    F - A

  3. COption (c)

    A - E

  4. DOption (d)

    B - F

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B - D

Why this answer is correct

As we can see that in B) which explains how the Technology was designed and aimed to ease the workload of the employees and have a positive impact on the work culture of the employees and work environment, whereas point D) indicates how it has some negative impact on the employees work environment. Expectations to continue to produce at the same pace remain. This can cause employees to feel constantly behind, even while their work is improving with the help of advanced technology. Thus, B-D seems to be the two contradictory statements.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions

Input: 17 49 22 71 33 35 41 63 78 44

Step I: 17 22 49 71 33 35 41 63 78 44

Step II: 33 35 17 22 49 71 41 63 78 44

Step III: 33 53 71 22 94 17 14 36 87 44

Step IV: 35 33 72 12 91 47 13 46 84 74

As per the rule followed in the above steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input and answer the questions.

Input: 12 46 32 11 19 36 89 41 56 53 75 81

Question 3

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the output of the step II?

  1. AOption (a)

    19 32 11 12 46 36 89 41 56 53 75 81

  2. BOption (b)

    19 32 11 12 36 89 41 56 53 75 81 46

  3. COption (c)

    19 32 11 12 36 89 41 53 75 56 46 81

  4. DOption (d)

    19 32 12 36 89 41 53 75 56 46 81 11

  5. EOption (e)

    19 32 46 36 11 89 41 56 53 75 81 12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

19 32 11 12 46 36 89 41 56 53 75 81

Why this answer is correct

The logic is as follows:

Step I: The first two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step II: The next two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order shifting the previously arranged one inward.

Step III: The digits of all the numbers are interchanged

Step IV: Taking a pair of numbers from the left-most side, the first two digits of the number pair are taken to form a number. Similarly, the second two digits of a number pair are taken to form the next number.

Input: 12  46  32  11  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step I: 11  12 46  32  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81  

Step II: 19  32  11  12  46  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step III: 91  23  11  21  64  63  98  14  65  35  57  18

Step IV: 92  13  12  11  66  43  91  84  63  55  51  78

Thus, Step IV is the last step.

Hence, 19  32  11  12  46  36  89  41  56  53  75  81 is the Step II of the given input.

Question 4

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

which of the following is third to the right of the fifth term from the left in Step III ?

  1. AOption (a)

    23

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    65

  4. DOption (d)

    98

  5. EOption (e)

    57

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

14

Why this answer is correct

The logic is as follows:

Step I: The first two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step II: The next two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order shifting the previously arranged one inward.

Step III: The digits of all the numbers are interchanged

Step IV: Taking a pair of numbers from the left-most side, the first two digits of the number pair are taken to form a number. Similarly, the second two digits of a number pair are taken to form the next number.

Input: 12  46  32  11  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step I: 11  12 46  32  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81  

Step II: 19  32  11  12  46  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step III: 91  23  11  21  64  63  98  14  65  35  57  18

Step IV: 92  13  12  11  66  43  91  84  63  55  51  78

Thus, Step IV is the last step.

Hence, 14 is third to the right of the fifth term from the left in Step III.

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

91 is related to 21 in step III in the same way 11 is related to 32 in the step I then 92 is related to which of the following in step IV in the same way?

  1. AOption (a)

    66

  2. BOption (b)

    84

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    51

  5. EOption (e)

    91

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11

Why this answer is correct

The logic is as follows:

Step I: The first two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step II: The next two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order shifting the previously arranged one inward.

Step III: The digits of all the numbers are interchanged

Step IV: Taking a pair of numbers from the left-most side, the first two digits of the number pair are taken to form a number. Similarly, the second two digits of a number pair are taken to form the next number.

Input: 12  46  32  11  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step I: 11  12 46  32  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81  

Step II: 19  32  11  12  46  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step III: 91  23  11  21  64  63  98  14  65  35  57  18

Step IV: 92  13  12  11  66  43  91  84  63  55  51  78

Thus, Step IV is the last step.

There are two numbers between 91 and 21 in Step III, two numbers between 11 and 32 in Sep I, thus in Step four there are two numbers between 92 and 11 in step IV.

Hence, 11 is the correct answer.

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the sum of the numbers which is fourth from the left end in step II and fourth from the right in the last step?

  1. AOption (a)

    88

  2. BOption (b)

    75

  3. COption (c)

    44

  4. DOption (d)

    31

  5. EOption (e)

    94

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

75

Why this answer is correct

The logic is as follows:

Step I: The first two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order.

Step II: The next two smallest numbers are arranged in ascending order shifting the previously arranged one inward.

Step III: The digits of all the numbers are interchanged

Step IV: Taking a pair of numbers from the left-most side, the first two digits of the number pair are taken to form a number. Similarly, the second two digits of a number pair are taken to form the next number.

Input: 12  46  32  11  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step I: 11  12 46  32  19  36  89  41  56  53  75  81  

Step II: 19  32  11  12  46  36  89  41  56  53  75  81

Step III: 91  23  11  21  64  63  98  14  65  35  57  18

Step IV: 92  13  12  11  66  43  91  84  63  55  51  78

Thus, Step IV is the last step.

The number which is fourth from the left end in step II = 12

The number which is fourth from the right end in step IV = 65

Sum = 12 + 63 = 75

Hence, 75 is the correct answer.

Question 7

A series is given with four words in which few operations are performed:

ABOVE    ACUTE     DRAIN     GAMES

The alphabets in the word are arranged in alphabetical order and assigned the numerical order from 1 to 5 within each word.

Which of the following positions of the alphabets in the word forms the alphabetical series.

  1. AOption (a)

    1st position alphabets

  2. BOption (b)

    2nd position alphabets

  3. COption (c)

    3rd position alphabets

  4. DOption (d)

    4th position alphabets

  5. EOption (e)

    5th position alphabets

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2nd position alphabets

Why this answer is correct

The given series: ABOVE    ACUTE     DRAIN     GAMES

The alphabets in the word are arranged in the alphabetical order and assigned the numerical order from 1 to 5 within each word:

ABEOV   ACETU    ADINR    AEGMS

ABEOVACETUADINRAEGMS
12345123451234512345

Hence, 2nd position alphabets  of the alphabets in the word forms the alphabetical series.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven people are sitting around a circular table facing inside all having different ages viz. 6, 12,15,19, 38, 30 & 13. The person with age as their multiple or factor are not sitting together.

a. B is sitting second to the right of E whose age is a multiple of 3 but less than A.

b. G is sitting opposite to B whose age is 4 more than C.

c. The person whose age is 3 less than C sits immediately right to him.

d. Age of the person sitting opposite to E is half of E.

e. D is sitting second to the right of the person whose age is multiple of 3.

f. The age of G is not 15 years and he is not sitting adjacent to E.

g. The sum of the ages of D and F is a perfect square.

h. F is not an immediate neighbor of E.

i. The person whose age is prime number is sitting second to the right of B.

j. Persons whose ages are prime numbers are not sitting together.

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who is sitting second to the left of F?

  1. AOption (a)

    The person whose age is 19 years.

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    The person whose age is 13 years

  5. EOption (e)

    ​None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

D

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. Seven people are sitting around a circular table facing,

  2. Different ages:  6, 12,15,19, 38, 30 & 13.

3) The person with age as their multiple or factor are not sitting together.

  1. B is sitting second to the right of E whose age is a multiple of 3 but less than A.
  2. G is sitting opposite to B whose age is 4 more than C.

Hence, we have only pair in which any person whose age is 4 less. So age of C is 15 years and Age of B is 19 years.

  1. The age of G is not 15 years and he is not sitting adjacent to E.

Hence there will be one or more than one person between G and E.

  1. Age of the person sitting opposite to E is half of E.

From statements 1 and 4, we can conclude that the age of E is 12 years and person sitting opposite to E is 6 years old.

 

  1. The person whose age is 3 less than C sits immediately right to him.

As we know C is 15 years old and E is 12 years old so E and C are sitting together and C is sitting between E and G.

  1. The person whose age is prime number is sitting second to the right of B.

Hence the person whose age is 13 years is sitting second to the right of B.

 

  1. F is not an immediate neighbor of E.
  2. D is sitting second to right of person whose age is multiple of 3.
  3. The sum of age of D and F is a perfect square.

Hence D is sitting second to the right of C and his age is 30 years and the age of F is 6 years.

Hence only A and G are left so A age will be 13 years and G age will be 38 years.

Hence, the final arrangement will be:

Hence, D sits second to the left of F.

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the age of the person who is sitting immediate right to A?

  1. AOption (a)

    38 years

  2. BOption (b)

    13 years

  3. COption (c)

    19 years

  4. DOption (d)

    30 years

  5. EOption (e)

    12 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

38 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. Seven people are sitting around a circular table facing,

  2. Different ages:  6, 12,15,19, 38, 30 & 13.

3) The person with age as their multiple or factor are not sitting together.

  1. B is sitting second to the right of E whose age is a multiple of 3 but less than A.
  2. G is sitting opposite to B whose age is 4 more than C.

Hence, we have only pair in which any person whose age is 4 less. So age of C is 15 years and Age of B is 19 years.

  1. The age of G is not 15 years and he is not sitting adjacent to E.

Hence there will be one or more than one person between G and E.

  1. Age of the person sitting opposite to E is half of E.

From 1 and 4 statement we can conclude that age of E is 12 years and person sitting opposite to E is 6 years old.

 

  1. The person whose age is 3 less than C sits immediately right to him.

As we know C is 15 years old and E is 12 years old so E and C are sitting together and C is sitting between E and G.

  1. The person whose age is prime number is sitting second to the right of B.

Hence the person whose age is 13 years is sitting second to the right of B.

 

  1. F is not an immediate neighbor of E.
  2. D is sitting second to right of person whose age is multiple of 3.
  3. The sum of age of D and F is a perfect square.

Hence D is sitting second to the right of C and his age is 30 years and the age of F is 6 years.

Hence only A and G are left so A age will be 13 years and G age will be 38 years.

Hence, the final arrangement will be:

Hence, the age of the person who sits immediate right of A is 38 years.

Question 10

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Four of the following forms a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    F

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    E

  5. EOption (e)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

A

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. Seven people are sitting around a circular table facing,

  2. Different ages:  6, 12,15,19, 38, 30 & 13.

3) The person with age as their multiple or factor are not sitting together.

  1. B is sitting second to the right of E whose age is a multiple of 3 but less than A.
  2. G is sitting opposite to B whose age is 4 more than C.

Hence, we have only pair in which any person whose age is 4 less. So age of C is 15 years and Age of B is 19 years.

  1. The age of G is not 15 years and he is not sitting adjacent to E.

Hence there will be one or more than one person between G and E.

  1. Age of the person sitting opposite to E is half of E.

From 1 and 4 statement we can conclude that age of E is 12 years and person sitting opposite to E is 6 years old.

 

  1. The person whose age is 3 less than C sits immediately right to him.

As we know C is 15 years old and E is 12 years old so E and C are sitting together and C is sitting between E and G.

  1. The person whose age is prime number is sitting second to the right of B.

Hence the person whose age is 13 years is sitting second to the right of B.

 

  1. F is not an immediate neighbor of E.
  2. D is sitting second to right of person whose age is multiple of 3.
  3. The sum of age of D and F is a perfect square.

Hence D is sitting second to the right of C and his age is 30 years and the age of F is 6 years.

Hence only A and G are left so A age will be 13 years and G age will be 38 years.

Hence, the final arrangement will be:

 

Hence, only A age is not a multiple of 3 from the group of C, D, E and F)

Question 11

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the age of B?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 years

  2. BOption (b)

    19 years

  3. COption (c)

    15 years

  4. DOption (d)

    13 years

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

19 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. Seven people are sitting around a circular table facing,

  2. Different ages:  6, 12,15,19, 38, 30 & 13.

3) The person with age as their multiple or factor are not sitting together.

  1. B is sitting second to the right of E whose age is a multiple of 3 but less than A.
  2. G is sitting opposite to B whose age is 4 more than C.

Hence, we have only pair in which any person whose age is 4 less. So age of C is 15 years and Age of B is 19 years.

  1. The age of G is not 15 years and he is not sitting adjacent to E.

Hence there will be one or more than one person between G and E.

  1. Age of the person sitting opposite to E is half of E.

From 1 and 4 statement we can conclude that age of E is 12 years and person sitting opposite to E is 6 years old.

 

  1. The person whose age is 3 less than C sits immediately right to him.

As we know C is 15 years old and E is 12 years old so E and C are sitting together and C is sitting between E and G.

  1. The person whose age is prime number is sitting second to the right of B.

Hence the person whose age is 13 years is sitting second to the right of B.

 

  1. F is not an immediate neighbor of E.
  2. D is sitting second to right of person whose age is multiple of 3.
  3. The sum of age of D and F is a perfect square.

Hence D is sitting second to the right of C and his age is 30 years and the age of F is 6 years.

Hence only A and G are left so A age will be 13 years and G age will be 38 years.

Hence, the final arrangement will be:

Hence, age of B is 19 years.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A @ B means A is to the north of B at a distance of either 7 m or 12 m

A # B means A is to the west direction of B at a distance of either 5 m or 14 m

A $ B means A is to the south direction of B at a distance of either 7 m or 12 m

A & B means A is to the east direction of B at a distance of either 5 m or 14 m

A @& B means A is to the north-east of B

A $& B means A is to the south-east direction of B

Statement

A@B, B#C, CD@&A, D#E@F@&C, F@G&C, G&H$C$

Question 12

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In which direction is B with respect to G?

  1. AOption (a)

    North

  2. BOption (b)

    East

  3. COption (c)

    North-East

  4. DOption (d)

    North-West

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

North-West

Why this answer is correct

Statement: A@B, B#C, CD@&A, D#E@F@&C, F@G&C, G&H$C

Hence, B is in North-west to G$.

Question 13

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If distance between B and C is same as the distance between D and E and this distance is less than the distance between A and B then what is the shortest distance between C and E.

  1. AOption (a)

    13 m

  2. BOption (b)

    28 m

  3. COption (c)

    Either a or b

  4. DOption (d)

    5 m

  5. EOption (e)

    14 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

13 m

Why this answer is correct

Statement: A@B, B#C, CD@&A, D#E@F@&C, F@G&C, G&H$C

If the distance between B and C is less than AB than it will be 5m so BC=DE=5m

Hence CE = 13m$.

Question 14

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the total distance between E and G?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 m

  2. BOption (b)

    17 m

  3. COption (c)

    19 m

  4. DOption (d)

    21 m

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

19 m

Why this answer is correct

Statement: A@B, B#C, CD@&A, D#E@F@&C, F@G&C, G&H$C

Hence, the total distance between E and G is 19 m.

Please note: G&H$C means G is to the east of H and H is south of C and the distance is 7 or 12 this won't be possible if the distance between F and G is 7 so it has to be 12.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are 16 floors in a building. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F have to attend a unique function which are organised on different six floors. No two functions are organised on same floor. There are 6 lifts which are faulty (i.e. If button 2 is pressed in the lift then it might stops on 2 or above 2). Each person uses a different lift. Different functions are: Anniversary, Birthday, Meeting, Interview, Orientation and Shooting.

There is a gap of one floor between the floors on which B and F steps down. B uses lift 2 and he steps down on even number floor above F. The difference between the button number which F pressed in the lift and the floor on which he steps down is 11. C steps down on the floor which is pressed by F. Lift 1 stops on floor on which Anniversary is being conducted. Interview is conducted on the floor which is just above the floor on which Anniversary is being held. There is a gap of 3 floor between F and D. F steps down above D. C attends Meeting. The number of gap of floor between A and D is same as between E and C. A steps down on floor which is immediately above the floor on which E steps down and he uses lift 3. Sum of floors on which lift 4 and lift 5 stops is 17 and lift 5 stops on even number floor. D attends Birthday function and is above the floor on which A steps down. Orientation is organised on the floor which is below the floor on which Shooting is held.

Question 15

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following uses lift 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    F

  4. DOption (d)

    C

  5. EOption (e)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

F

Why this answer is correct

People: A, B, C, D, E and F

Lift: 1 to 6

Floor: 1 to 16, Ground floor number 1 and top floor number 16

Function: Anniversary, Birthday, Meeting, Interview, Orientation and Shooting

  1. The difference between the button number which F pressed in the lift and the floor on which he steps down is 11.
  2. C steps down on the floor which is pressed by F.
  3. There is a gap of one floor between the floors on which B and F steps down.
  4. B uses lift 2 and he steps down on even number floor above F.

(Implies that either F pressed button 1 or 3 in the lift which results F to step down on floor number 12 or 14 respectively)

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1C

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3C
2
1

 

  1. There is a gap of 3 floor between F and D. F steps down above D.
  2. C attends Meeting.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8D
7
6
5
4
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10D
9
8
7
6
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. D attends Birthday function and is above the floor on which A steps down.
  2. The number of gap of floor between A and D is same as between E and C.
  3. A steps down on floor which is immediately above the floor on which E steps down and he uses lift 3.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3
4E
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3
6E
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Interview is conducted on the floor which is just above the floor on which Anniversary is being held.
  2. Lift 1 stops on floor on which Anniversary is being conducted.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3Interview
4E1Anniversary
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Sum of floor on which lift 4 and lift 5 stops is 17 and lift 5 stops on even number floor.
  2. Orientation is organised on the floor which is below the floor on which Shooting is held.

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2Shooting
15
14F5Orientation
13
12
11
10D6Birthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3C4Meeting
2
1

 

Case: 1 

Eliminates as the only combination of floors which gives 17 is floor 5 and 12. But on floor 5, A stepped down who used lift 3.

Hence, F uses lift 5.

Question 16

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

B steps down on which floor?

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    16

  5. EOption (e)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16

Why this answer is correct

People: A, B, C, D, E and F

Lift: 1 to 6

Floor: 1 to 16, Ground floor number 1 and top floor number 16

Function: Anniversary, Birthday, Meeting, Interview, Orientation and Shooting

  1. The difference between the button number which F pressed in the lift and the floor on which he steps down is 11.
  2. C steps down on the floor which is pressed by F.
  3. There is a gap of one floor between the floors on which B and F steps down.
  4. B uses lift 2 and he steps down on even number floor above F.

(Implies that either F pressed button 1 or 3 in the lift which results F to step down on floor number 12 or 14 respectively)

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1C

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3C
2
1

 

  1. There is a gap of 3 floor between F and D. F steps down above D.
  2. C attends Meeting.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8D
7
6
5
4
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10D
9
8
7
6
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. D attends Birthday function and is above the floor on which A steps down.
  2. The number of gap of floor between A and D is same as between E and C.
  3. A steps down on floor which is immediately above the floor on which E steps down and he uses lift 3.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3
4E
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3
6E
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Interview is conducted on the floor which is just above the floor on which Anniversary is being held.
  2. Lift 1 stops on floor on which Anniversary is being conducted.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3Interview
4E1Anniversary
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Sum of floor on which lift 4 and lift 5 stops is 17 and lift 5 stops on even number floor.
  2. Orientation is organised on the floor which is below the floor on which Shooting is held.

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2Shooting
15
14F5Orientation
13
12
11
10D6Birthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3C4Meeting
2
1

 

Case: 1 

Eliminates as the only combination of floors which gives 17 is floor 5 and 12. But on floor 5, A stepped down who used lift 3.

Hence, B steps down on floor number 16.

Question 17

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

D uses which of the following lift?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    5

  5. EOption (e)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6

Why this answer is correct

People: A, B, C, D, E and F

Lift: 1 to 6

Floor: 1 to 16, Ground floor number 1 and top floor number 16

Function: Anniversary, Birthday, Meeting, Interview, Orientation and Shooting

  1. The difference between the button number which F pressed in the lift and the floor on which he steps down is 11.
  2. C steps down on the floor which is pressed by F.
  3. There is a gap of one floor between the floors on which B and F steps down.
  4. B uses lift 2 and he steps down on even number floor above F.

(Implies that either F pressed button 1 or 3 in the lift which results F to step down on floor number 12 or 14 respectively)

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1C

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3C
2
1

 

  1. There is a gap of 3 floor between F and D. F steps down above D.
  2. C attends Meeting.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8D
7
6
5
4
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10D
9
8
7
6
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. D attends Birthday function and is above the floor on which A steps down.
  2. The number of gap of floor between A and D is same as between E and C.
  3. A steps down on floor which is immediately above the floor on which E steps down and he uses lift 3.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3
4E
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3
6E
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Interview is conducted on the floor which is just above the floor on which Anniversary is being held.
  2. Lift 1 stops on floor on which Anniversary is being conducted.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3Interview
4E1Anniversary
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Sum of floor on which lift 4 and lift 5 stops is 17 and lift 5 stops on even number floor.
  2. Orientation is organised on the floor which is below the floor on which Shooting is held.

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2Shooting
15
14F5Orientation
13
12
11
10D6Birthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3C4Meeting
2
1

 

Case: 1 

Eliminates as the only combination of floors which gives 17 is floor 5 and 12. But on floor 5, A stepped down who used lift 3.

Hence, D uses lift 6.

Question 18

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following attends Orientation function?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    B

  5. EOption (e)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

F

Why this answer is correct

People: A, B, C, D, E and F

Lift: 1 to 6

Floor: 1 to 16, Ground floor number 1 and top floor number 16

Function: Anniversary, Birthday, Meeting, Interview, Orientation and Shooting

  1. The difference between the button number which F pressed in the lift and the floor on which he steps down is 11.
  2. C steps down on the floor which is pressed by F.
  3. There is a gap of one floor between the floors on which B and F steps down.
  4. B uses lift 2 and he steps down on even number floor above F.

(Implies that either F pressed button 1 or 3 in the lift which results F to step down on floor number 12 or 14 respectively)

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1C

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3C
2
1

 

  1. There is a gap of 3 floor between F and D. F steps down above D.
  2. C attends Meeting.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8D
7
6
5
4
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10D
9
8
7
6
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. D attends Birthday function and is above the floor on which A steps down.
  2. The number of gap of floor between A and D is same as between E and C.
  3. A steps down on floor which is immediately above the floor on which E steps down and he uses lift 3.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3
4E
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3
6E
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Interview is conducted on the floor which is just above the floor on which Anniversary is being held.
  2. Lift 1 stops on floor on which Anniversary is being conducted.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3Interview
4E1Anniversary
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Sum of floor on which lift 4 and lift 5 stops is 17 and lift 5 stops on even number floor.
  2. Orientation is organised on the floor which is below the floor on which Shooting is held.

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2Shooting
15
14F5Orientation
13
12
11
10D6Birthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3C4Meeting
2
1

 

Case: 1 

Eliminates as the only combination of floors which gives 17 is floor 5 and 12. But on floor 5, A stepped down who used lift 3.

Hence, F attends Orientation.

Question 19

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which button does F pressed in the lift?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    12

  5. EOption (e)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3

Why this answer is correct

People: A, B, C, D, E and F

Lift: 1 to 6

Floor: 1 to 16, Ground floor number 1 and top floor number 16

Function: Anniversary, Birthday, Meeting, Interview, Orientation and Shooting

  1. The difference between the button number which F pressed in the lift and the floor on which he steps down is 11.
  2. C steps down on the floor which is pressed by F.
  3. There is a gap of one floor between the floors on which B and F steps down.
  4. B uses lift 2 and he steps down on even number floor above F.

(Implies that either F pressed button 1 or 3 in the lift which results F to step down on floor number 12 or 14 respectively)

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1C

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3C
2
1

 

  1. There is a gap of 3 floor between F and D. F steps down above D.
  2. C attends Meeting.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8D
7
6
5
4
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10D
9
8
7
6
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. D attends Birthday function and is above the floor on which A steps down.
  2. The number of gap of floor between A and D is same as between E and C.
  3. A steps down on floor which is immediately above the floor on which E steps down and he uses lift 3.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3
4E
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3
6E
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Interview is conducted on the floor which is just above the floor on which Anniversary is being held.
  2. Lift 1 stops on floor on which Anniversary is being conducted.

Case: 1

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16
15
14B2
13
12F
11
10
9
8DBirthday
7
6
5A3Interview
4E1Anniversary
3
2
1CMeeting

 

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2
15
14F
13
12
11
10DBirthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3CMeeting
2
1

 

  1. Sum of floor on which lift 4 and lift 5 stops is 17 and lift 5 stops on even number floor.
  2. Orientation is organised on the floor which is below the floor on which Shooting is held.

Case: 2

FloorPersonLiftFunction
16B2Shooting
15
14F5Orientation
13
12
11
10D6Birthday
9
8
7A3Interview
6E1Anniversary
5
4
3C4Meeting
2
1

 

Case: 1 

Eliminates as the only combination of floors which gives 17 is floor 5 and 12. But on floor 5, A stepped down who used lift 3.

As, C steps down on floor 3 which is pressed by F.

Hence, F pressed button 3 in the lift.

Direction: In the following questions, the symbols *, #, %, & and $ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘X * Y’ means ‘X is neither less than nor greater than Y’.

‘X # Y’ means ‘X is either greater than or equal to Y’.

‘X % Y’ means ‘X is less than Y’.

‘X & Y’ means ‘X is neither less than nor equal to Y’.

‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is not greater than Y’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely True?

Question 20

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Statements: 

A % B, C & D, F * E # C, D % A

Conclusions:

I. D % B

II. E & A

III. F & D

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion I is True.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Conclusion II is True.

  3. COption (c)

    Only Conclusion III is True.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Conclusions I and III are True.

  5. EOption (e)

    Both Conclusions II and III are True.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both Conclusions I and III are True.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

X is
Symbol*#%&$
Meaning=≥<>≤
to Y

Given Statements: A % B, C & D, F * E # C, D % A

On converting: A < B, C > D, F = E ≥ C, D < A

On combining: F = E ≥ C > D < A < B

Conclusions:

I. D % B → D < B → True (as D < A < B→ D < B)

II. E & A → E > A → False (as E ≥ C > D < A → E > D < A → thus clear relation between E and A can’t be determined)

III. F & D → F > D → True (as F = E ≥ C > D → F ≥ C > D → F > D)

Hence, both conclusions I and III are true$.

Question 21

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Statements: 

H # T, J % S, X & H, T * S

Conclusions:

I. H & S

II. H # J

III. J % X

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion I is True.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Conclusion II is True.

  3. COption (c)

    Only Conclusion III is True.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Conclusions I and II are True.

  5. EOption (e)

    Both Conclusions I and III are True.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only Conclusion III is True.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

X is
Symbol*#%&$
Meaning=≥<>≤
to Y

 

Statements: H # T, J % S, X & H, T * S

On converting: H ≥ T, J < S, X > H, T = S

On combining: X > H ≥ T = S > J

Conclusions:

I. H & S → H > S → False (as H ≥ T = S → H ≥ S)

II. H # J → H ≥ J → False (as H ≥ T = S → H ≥ S > J → H > J)

III. J % X → J < X → True (as X > H ≥ T = S > J → X > J → J < X)

Hence only conclusion III is True$.

Question 22

Direction: In each group of questions below are two conclusions followed by four statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given conclusions.

Conclusions: 

I. No Door is Table. 

II. Some Chairs are not Doors.

  1. AOption (a)

    Some Doors are Windows. No Window is Table. All Table are Chair.

  2. BOption (b)

    All Doors are Windows. All Window are Table. Some Window are Chair.

  3. COption (c)

    All Doors are Windows. No Window is Table. Some Table are Chair.

  4. DOption (d)

    No Door is Window. Some Window are Table. All Table are Chair.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All Doors are Windows. No Window is Table. Some Table are Chair.

Why this answer is correct

  1. Some Doors are Windows. No Window is Table. All Table are Chair.

Conclusions:

I. No Door is Table ⇒ False.

II. Some Chairs are not Doors ⇒ False.

Hence statement 1) will not result in given conclusion.

  1. All Doors are Windows. All Window are Table. Some Window are Chair.

Conclusions: 

I. No Door is Table ⇒ False.

II. Some Chairs are not Doors ⇒ False.

Hence statement 2) will not result in given conclusion.

  1. All Doors are Windows. No Window is Table. Some Table are Chair.

Conclusions: 

I. No Door is Table ⇒ True.

II. Some Chairs are not Doors ⇒ True.

Hence statement 3) will result in given conclusion.

  1. No Door is Window. Some Window are Table. All Table are Chair.

Conclusions: 

I. No Door is Table ⇒ False.

II. Some Chairs are not Doors ⇒ True.

Hence statement 4) will not result in given conclusion.

Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

There are 10 flats available with different flat numbers from 1 to 10 arranged in different positions, out of which seven are occupied by I, J, K, L, M, N, O not necessarily in the same order and three flats are vacant. All the flats are in North facing directions. The distant details are as given below.

There is one vacant flat to the immediate left of the Flat in which I stay. There are four flats between J and M. There are three flats between M and K. There is one vacant flat to the immediate right of K, who stays in flat no.10. O does not stay in the four rightmost flats. Both M and J stay in an even-numbered flat. N stay in flat no. 2. I do not stay in any of the extreme ends flats. There are three flats in numerical order in which one of the flats is I's flat. The flat number of L is the summation of the flat number of I and N. The flat number of O is half the flat number of K. The flat to the left of O is the lowest odd-number flat. M stay in neither of the three rightmost flats nor in the four leftmost flats. There are 2 flats between N and I. Three persons are sitting in alphabetical order, among whom one is M.  I is not adjacent to L and there are 2 flats between N and I.

Question 23

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who is sitting in the right most corner?

  1. AOption (a)

    J

  2. BOption (b)

    K

  3. COption (c)

    L

  4. DOption (d)

    M

  5. EOption (e)

    N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

J

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

  1. There are 10 flats available, out f which seven are occupied.

  2. People: I, J, K, L, M, N, O

  3. Three flats are vacant and all the flats are in North facing directions.

The further details are as follows:

1) There are four flats between J and M.

2) M stay in neither of the three rightmost flats nor in the four leftmost flats. 

3) There are three flats between M and K.

4) There is one vacant flat to the immediate right of K, who stays in flat no.10.

 

 

5) Three persons are sitting in alphabetical order, among whom one is M.

  1. O does not stay in the four rightmost flats.

7)  Both M and J stay in an even-numbered flat.

 

 

8) There is one vacant floor to the immediate left of the Flat in which I stay. 

9) N stay in flat no. 2. I do not stay in any of the extreme ends flats.

10) There are three flats in numerical order in which one of the flats is I's flat.

  1. The flat number of L is the summation of the flat number of I and N. 

  2. I is not adjacent to L and there are 2 flats between N and I.

  3. The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

12) The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

  1. The flat to the left of O is the lowest odd number flat.

Hence, J is sitting in the rightmost corner.

Question 24

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many vacant flats are there between N and J?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    None

  5. EOption (e)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

  1. There are 10 flats available, out f which seven are occupied.

  2. People: I, J, K, L, M, N, O

  3. Three flats are vacant and all the flats are in North facing directions.

The further details are as follows:

1) There are four flats between J and M.

2) M stay in neither of the three rightmost flats nor in the four leftmost flats. 

3) There are three flats between M and K.

4) There is one vacant flat to the immediate right of K, who stays in flat no.10.

 

 

5) Three persons are sitting in alphabetical order, among whom one is M.

  1. O does not stay in the four rightmost flats.

7)  Both M and J stay in an even-numbered flat.

 

 

8) There is one vacant floor to the immediate left of the Flat in which I stay. 

9) N stay in flat no. 2. I do not stay in any of the extreme ends flats.

10) There are three flats in numerical order in which one of the flat is I's flat.

  1. The flat number of L is the summation of the flat number of I and N. 

  2. I is not adjacent to L and there are 10 flats between N and I.

  3. The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

12) The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

  1. The flat to the left of O is the lowest odd number flat.

Hence, two vacant floor are there between N and J.

Question 25

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In which flat number does O stays?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    4

  5. EOption (e)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

  1. There are 10 flats available, out f which seven are occupied.

  2. People: I, J, K, L, M, N, O

  3. Three flats are vacant and all the flats are in North facing directions.

The further details are as follows:

1) There are four flats between J and M.

2) M stay in neither of the three rightmost flats nor in the four leftmost flats. 

3) There are three flats between M and K.

4) There is one vacant flat to the immediate right of K, who stays in flat no.10.

 

 

5) Three persons are sitting in alphabetical order, among whom one is M.

  1. O does not stay in the four rightmost flats.

7)  Both M and J stay in an even-numbered flat.

 

 

8) There is one vacant floor to the immediate left of the Flat in which I stay. 

9) N stay in flat no. 2. I do not stay in any of the extreme ends flats.

10) There are three flats in numerical order in which one of the flat is I's flat.

  1. The flat number of L is the summation of the flat number of I and N. 

  2. I is not adjacent to L and there are 10 flats between N and I.

  3. The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

12) The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

  1. The flat to the left of O is the lowest odd number flat.

Hence, O stays in flat number 5.

Question 26

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Whose flat is there to the immediate left of M?

  1. AOption (a)

    I

  2. BOption (b)

    K

  3. COption (c)

    L

  4. DOption (d)

    O

  5. EOption (e)

    Vacant flat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

L

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

  1. There are 10 flats available, out f which seven are occupied.

  2. People: I, J, K, L, M, N, O

  3. Three flats are vacant and all the flats are in North facing directions.

The further details are as follows:

1) There are four flats between J and M.

2) M stay in neither of the three rightmost flats nor in the four leftmost flats. 

3) There are three flats between M and K.

4) There is one vacant flat to the immediate right of K, who stays in flat no.10.

 

 

5) Three persons are sitting in alphabetical order, among whom one is M.

  1. O does not stay in the four rightmost flats.

7)  Both M and J stay in an even-numbered flat.

 

 

8) There is one vacant floor to the immediate left of the Flat in which I stay. 

9) N stay in flat no. 2. I do not stay in any of the extreme ends flats.

10) There are three flats in numerical order in which one of the flat is I's flat.

  1. The flat number of L is the summation of the flat number of I and N. 

  2. I is not adjacent to L and there are 10 flats between N and I.

  3. The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

12) The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

  1. The flat to the left of O is the lowest odd number flat.

Hence, L's flat is there to the immediate left of M.

Question 27

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which flat is 3rd to the left of the 7th to the right of O?

  1. AOption (a)

    Flat no. 7

  2. BOption (b)

    Flat no. 4

  3. COption (c)

    Flat no. 9

  4. DOption (d)

    Flat no. 10

  5. EOption (e)

    Vacant flat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Vacant flat

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

  1. There are 10 flats available, out f which seven are occupied.

  2. People: I, J, K, L, M, N, O

  3. Three flats are vacant and all the flats are in North facing directions.

The further details are as follows:

1) There are four flats between J and M.

2) M stay in neither of the three rightmost flats nor in the four leftmost flats. 

3) There are three flats between M and K.

4) There is one vacant flat to the immediate right of K, who stays in flat no.10.

 

 

5) Three persons are sitting in alphabetical order, among whom one is M.

  1. O does not stay in the four rightmost flats.

7)  Both M and J stay in an even-numbered flat.

 

 

8) There is one vacant floor to the immediate left of the Flat in which I stay. 

9) N stay in flat no. 2. I do not stay in any of the extreme ends flats.

10) There are three flats in numerical order in which one of the flat is I's flat.

  1. The flat number of L is the summation of the flat number of I and N. 

  2. I is not adjacent to L and there are 10 flats between N and I.

  3. The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

12) The flat number of O is half the flat number of K.

  1. The flat to the left of O is the lowest odd number flat.

Hence,vacant flat is 3rd to the left of the 7th to the right of O.

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

“A @ B means, A is a daughter of B”, “A & B means, A is a brother in law of B”, “A % B means A is a father of B”, “A # B means A is a wife of B”, “A $ B means A is a son of B’.

Expression is Q @ T # F $ Z # P % X # S & R % Y.

Question 28

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How is Q related to X in the given expression?

  1. AOption (a)

    Niece

  2. BOption (b)

    Grand Niece

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter

  4. DOption (d)

    Daughter in law

  5. EOption (e)

    Grand daughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Niece

Why this answer is correct

Given expression is Q @ T # F $ Z # P % X # S & R % Y

Q @ T means Q is a daughter of T,

T # F means T is a wife of F,

F $ Z means F is a son of Z,

Z # P means Z is a wife of P,

P % X means P is a father of X,

X # S means X is a wife of S,

S & R means S is a brother in law of R,

R % Y means R is a father of Y.

Thus, using the following symbols

We get the following family tree diagram

Hence, Q is a niece of X.

Question 29

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What do symbols ‘+ and *’ mean in the expression ‘P + Y * Q’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father, Cousin

  2. BOption (b)

    Father, Nephew

  3. COption (c)

    Grandfather, Cousin

  4. DOption (d)

    Grandfather in law, Niece

  5. EOption (e)

    Father in law, Wife

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Grandfather, Cousin

Why this answer is correct

Given expression is Q @ T # F $ Z # P % X # S & R % Y

Q @ T means Q is a daughter of T,

T # F means T is a wife of F,

F $ Z means F is a son of Z,

Z # P means Z is a wife of P,

P % X means P is a father of X,

X # S means X is a wife of S,

S & R means S is a brother in law of R,

R % Y means R is a father of Y.

Thus, using the following symbols

We get the following family tree diagram

Since, P is a grandfather of Y and Y is a cousin of Q.

Hence, ‘Grandfather, Cousin’ is the correct answer.

Directions: There are certain books which are having different number of pages in them.

Name of a book is given by a code. Codes are decided according to the number of pages in a particular book.

Number of pagesStep 1Step 2Code of the book
501002575
63214247
69234651
7214436108
87295863
8016040120
9218446138
45153035
22441133
38761957

 

After finding the codes of the books, the codes are arranged in ascending order such that first five codes are categorized in group A and the other 5 are categorized in group B.

Question 30

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following code gives the book which has highest number of pages in group A?

  1. AOption (a)

    47

  2. BOption (b)

    57

  3. COption (c)

    51

  4. DOption (d)

    33

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

51

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

If number is even,

Step 1→ multiply by 2

Step 2→ divide by 4

Step 3 → multiply by 3

Example,

If number is odd,

Step 1 → divide by 3

Step 2→ multiply by 2

Step 3 → add 5

Now separating book codes in the group A and group B.

Group AGroup B
Number of pagesBook codeNumber of pagesBook code
22338763
45355075
634772108
695180120
385792138

 

Book with highest number of pages in group A has 69 pages, and code for that book is “51”.

Hence, 51 is the correct answer.

Question 31

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following code gives the book which have lowest number of pages in group B?

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    63

  3. COption (c)

    138

  4. DOption (d)

    120

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

75

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

If number is even,

Step 1→ multiply by 2

Step 2→ divide by 4

Step 3 → multiply by 3

If number is odd,

Step 1 → divide by 3

Step 2→ multiply by 2

Step 3 → add 5

Now separating book codes in the group A and group B.

Group AGroup B
Number of pagesBook codeNumber of pagesBook code
22338763
45355075
634772108
695180120
385792138

 

Lowest number of pages in group B is 50, code for that book is 75.

Hence, 75 is the correct answer.

Question 32

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the sum of the number of pages of the lowest code of group A and the highest code of group B?

  1. AOption (a)

    107

  2. BOption (b)

    114

  3. COption (c)

    137

  4. DOption (d)

    171

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

114

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

If number is even,

Step 1→ multiply by 2

Step 2→ divide by 4

Step 3 → multiply by 3

Example,

If number is odd,

Step 1 → divide by 3

Step 2→ multiply by 2

Step 3 → add 5

Now separating book codes in the group A and group B.

Group AGroup B
Number of pagesBook codeNumber of pagesBook code
22338763
45355075
634772108
695180120
385792138

 

Lowest code of group A is 33 and number of pages = 22

Highest code of group B is 138 and number of pages = 92

Addition = 22 + 92 = 114

Hence, 114 is the correct answer

Question 33

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If a book is coded as 23 then how many pages are there in that book?

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    42

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

27

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

If number is even,

Step 1→ multiply by 2

Step 2→ divide by 4

Step 3 → multiply by 3

If number is odd,

Step 1 → divide by 3

Step 2→ multiply by 2

Step 3 → add 5

By checking each option:

42 → 42 is a even number so,

Step 1: 42 × 2 = 84, step 2: 84 ÷ 4 = 21, Book code = 21 × 3 = 63

36 → 36 × 2 = 72, 72 ÷ 4 = 18, book code = 18 × 3 = 54

15 → Odd number

Step 1: 15 ÷ 3 = 5, Step 2: 5 × 2 = 10, step 3 : 10 + 5 = 15

27 → odd number

Step 1: 27 ÷ 3 = 9, step 2: 9 × 2 = 18, step 3: 18 + 5 = 23

Hence, 27 is the correct answer.

Question 34

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What can be the code for a book which has 99 pages?

  1. AOption (a)

    143

  2. BOption (b)

    67

  3. COption (c)

    115

  4. DOption (d)

    71

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

71

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

If number is even,

Step 1→ multiply by 2

Step 2→ divide by 4

Step 3 → multiply by 3

If number is odd,

Step 1 → divide by 3

Step 2→ multiply by 2

Step 3 → add 5

99 → odd number

Step 1: 99 ÷ 3 = 33

Step 2: 33 × 2 = 66

Step 3: 66 + 5 = 71

Hence, 71 is the correct answer

Question 35

The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three arguments I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ arguments is/are ‘weak’ arguments and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each question.

Statement:

A row is raging over Australia's warming-damaged Great Barrier Reef, with firms worried that scientists' apocalyptic warnings are scaring visitors out of the water. Every year, more than two million snorkel-wielding tourists head to Australia's famed coral ecosystem, generating revenues of 4.3billion(Aus4.3 billion (Aus5.9 billion) and supporting 64,000 local jobs.

Which of the following arguments weaken the fear of the firms?

Arguments:

I. The Reef and Rainforest Research Centre recently published a markedly report, heralding "significant signs of recovery" at major dive sites around Cairns.

II. Although government data shows that the number of visitors to the broader region has actually increased, those figures are older and don't include coral-viewing activities. 

III. Australians also appear divided on damage done to the reef. Only half of the country thinks that climate change is already causing the destruction of reef.

  1. AOption (a)

    None is strong.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and III are strong.

  3. COption (c)

    Only II and III are strong.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I is strong.

  5. EOption (e)

    All are strong.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only I is strong.

Why this answer is correct

The argument I clearly state that the report published by The Reef and Rainforest Research Centre is optimistic and it talks about the significant signs of recovery. Hence argument I is relevant to the given statements.

The argument II shows that the number of visitors has increased but data about coral visiting activities is not included so argument II weakens the statement.

The argument III is not relevant to the statement so it is neither making statement strong or weak.

Thus, option 4 is true.

Question 36

Directions

The question below is given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or maybe the effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Statements:

I. Deirdre is an environmentalist and has collected many evidences of untreated sewage water being drained into the rivers and oceans to present in her case study.

II. Deirdre has been visiting schools in various cities with her acolytes and giving presentations on sustainable use of freshwater.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements are independent causes.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the statements are effects of independent causes.

  5. EOption (e)

    Both the statements are effects of some common cause.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both statements are independent causes.

Why this answer is correct

Answer: Option 3. Both statements are independent causes.

Both the statements are two distinct causes. In the given statements, Deirdre is focusing on two distinct causes, the first being draining of untreated sewage into rivers, lakes, and oceans which will pollute the water bodies while the second one emphasizes the unsustainable use of freshwater which might lead to water scarcity.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given question:

A word and number arrangement device when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular pattern in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

StatementsStep 1Step 2Step 3Step 4
all boys be homella ysbo be mehomm3 ztc4 c2 n4i42#  3@  1@  2@@@#  #@  #@  @@@
cool variations love warolco nsvariatio velo arw4md4 otw10s1010u1010 w4m4 3sx@2@  5@@@@@  2@@  #2@@@  #@@@@@  @@@  #@
men set other horseenm ets eroth sehor3on 3ut 5s5ui t5i5s#2  #2  #3#  3###@  #@  ###  ###

Question 37

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the step 3 of the given following statement?

Statement- design passion data cat

  1. AOption (a)

    35#  @4#  15#  @3@

  2. BOption (b)

    4##  #4##  5@@  #2

  3. COption (c)

    4@@  #4##  2@@  #2

  4. DOption (d)

    4@#  @@  @#  @3#

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4@@  #4##  2@@  #2

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

In step 1 →

Last two alphabets of every word are placed in front.

Example: all, “ll” will come in front of the word and all will become “lla”.

Step 2 →

Consonants are replaced by the next letter of English alphabetical series.

Vowels are replaced by the number of letters present in that word.

Example:  ysbo, y → z, s → t, b→ c, o→ 4

Step 3 →

In place of alphabets, number of alphabets present in that word are taken.

In place of odd number → #

In place of even number → @

Example: n4i4

ni→ 2, 4→ @, 4→ @

Step 4:

Symbols are kept same, but number are replaced.

Odd number → #

Even number → @

Sentence: design passion data cat.

Applying conditions:

StatementsStep 1Step 2Step 3Step 4
Design passion data catGndesi onpassi tada atcHoe6t6  7oq7tt7  u4e4  3ud4@@  #4##  2@@  #2@@@  #@##  @@@  #@

 

Hence, “4@@  #4##  2@@  #2” is step 3 of the given statement.

Question 38

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the 2nd step of the following statement?

Statement: - cars sold old few

  1. AOption (a)

    Sdt4  me4t  me3  3xg

  2. BOption (b)

    Std4  met4  me3  3xg

  3. COption (c)

    Std4  m4te  m5e  3xe

  4. DOption (d)

    Std6  met4  me5  3ge

  5. EOption (e)

    Sdt4  met4  me3  3xg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Std4  met4  me3  3xg

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

In step 1 →

Last two alphabets of every word are placed in front.

Example: all, “ll” will come in front of the word and all will become “lla”.

Step 2 →

Consonants are replaced by the next letter of English alphabetical series.

Vowels are replaced by the number of letters present in that word.

Example:  ysbo, y → z, s → t, b→ c, o→ 4

Step 3 →

In place of alphabets, number of alphabets present in that word are taken.

In place of odd number → #

In place of even number → @

Example: n4i4

ni→ 2, 4→ @, 4→ @

Step 4:

Symbols are kept same, but number are replaced.

Odd number → #

Even number → @

Sentence: design passion data cat.

Applying conditions:

StatementsStep 1Step 2Step 3Step 4
Cars sold old fewRsca ldso ldo ewfStd4  met4  me3  3xg3@  3@  2#  #2#@  #@  ##  ##

 

Hence, “Std4  met4  me3  3xg” is the 2nd step of the given statement.

Question 39

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is 2nd word of the 1st step of the following statement?

Statement: - mukesh game win month

  1. AOption (a)

    meag

  2. BOption (b)

    egam

  3. COption (c)

    gaem

  4. DOption (d)

    mega

  5. EOption (e)

    gmae

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

mega

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

In step 1 →

Last two alphabets of every word are placed in front.

Example: all, “ll” will come in front of the word and all will become “lla”.

Step 2 →

Consonants are replaced by the next letter of English alphabetical series.

Vowels are replaced by the number of letters present in that word.

Example:  ysbo, y → z, s → t, b→ c, o→ 4

Step 3 →

In place of alphabets, number of alphabets present in that word are taken.

In place of odd number → #

In place of even number → @

Example: n4i4

ni→ 2, 4→ @, 4→ @

Step 4:

Symbols are kept same, but number are replaced.

Odd number → #

Even number → @

Sentence: design passion data cat.

Applying conditions:

StatementsStep 1Step 2Step 3Step 4
Mukesh game win monthShmuke mega inw thmonTin6l6  n4h4  3ox  uin5o4@@  2@@  #2  4#@@@  @@@  @@  @#

 

Hence, mega is the correct answer.

Question 40

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the 2nd word of the 2nd step of the following statement?

Statement: - Injury even dog girl

  1. AOption (a)

    4o4w

  2. BOption (b)

    5o4v

  3. COption (c)

    4wo4

  4. DOption (d)

    54ov

  5. EOption (e)

    v4o5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4o4w

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

In step 1 →

Last two alphabets of every word are placed in front.

Example: all, “ll” will come in front of the word and all will become “lla”.

Step 2 →

Consonants are replaced by the next letter of English alphabetical series.

Vowels are replaced by the number of letters present in that word.

Example:  ysbo, y → z, s → t, b→ c, o→ 4

Step 3 →

In place of alphabets, number of alphabets present in that word are taken.

In place of odd number → #

In place of even number → @

Example:  n4i4

ni→ 2, 4→ @, 4→ @

Step 4:

Symbols are kept same, but number are replaced.

Odd number → #

Even number → @

Sentence: design passion data cat.

Applying conditions:

StatementsStep 1Step 2Step 3Step 4
Injury even dog girlRyinju enev ogd rlgiS66ok6  4o4w  3he smh43@@@  @2@  #2  3@#@@@  @@@  #@  #@

 

Hence, “4o4w” is the correct answer.

Question 41

Directions

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.

Statement - Former cinema superhero Riggan Thomson is mounting his first-ever Broadway production that he hopes will breathe new life into his stagnant career. It's risky, but he hopes that his creative gamble will prove that he's a real artist and not just a washed-up movie star. As opening night approaches, a castmate is injured, forcing Riggan to hire an actor who is guaranteed to shake things up. Meanwhile, Riggan must deal with his girlfriend, 5-year old granddaughter and ex-wife.

Which of the following statements hold true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Riggan Thomson is a well-known movie star who stars in a Broadway production about superheroes

  2. BOption (b)

    Determined to make his play a success, Riggan overcomes obstacle after obstacle in order to ensure it is a success on the stage.

  3. COption (c)

    Now past middle age, Riggan is trying to establish himself as a true artist by producing what is his Broadway debut.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both option 2 and 3

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Now past middle age, Riggan is trying to establish himself as a true artist by producing what is his Broadway debut.

Why this answer is correct

Answer: Option 3 

Solution: Option 1 is false because the paragraph describes Riggan as a former cinema superhero and not as producing one now. Option 2 states that Riggan has overcome several obstacles whereas the statement reads that he hopes to overcome them.

Option 3 is true because the passage states that he is mounting an ambitious Broadway production to prove that he is a real artist and not just a washed-up movie star. Also, Riggan's age can be roughly estimated from the detail given about his family and relationships.

Hence both options 4 and 5 are false.

Directions: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

There are eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W. They are four couples but living in different cities viz. Hyderabad, Delhi and Pune. Not more than 3 person and not less than 2 person are from particular city and They are on different positions in the Punjab National bank viz. Clerk, Assistant Manager, Branch Manager, Chief Manager, Assistant General Manager, Deputy General Manager, General Manager and Managing Director. Managing Director is the topmost position and Clerk is the lowest position.

P does not live in Delhi and not the spouse of W. U is working on the highest position in the Punjab National bank but he is not the husband of V and does not belong to Delhi. R belongs to Delhi and she is on senior position than W in the bank. S is not the husband of V and both of them do not belong to Delhi. T, who is the husband of the person who is Deputy General Manager, is working on the position which is the sixth topmost position in the bank. W and the person who is Managing Director are from the same city but not from Delhi. Not more than two persons belong to Delhi. Q is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad. The person working on the lowermost position in the bank belongs to Pune. T does not belong to Hyderabad also T is not the wife of S who is senior to V. R is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad and the person is working as Assistant Manager. The senior-most person is married to the junior-most person but living in different cities. One of the person working as Branch Manager is the husband of V who does not belong to Hyderabad. P does not belong to the same city in which the wife of T is working. Q is working in the same city in which Deputy General Manager is working. The person who is the chief Manager is married to S but the person is neither P nor R.

Question 42

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the position of W in the bank?

  1. AOption (a)

    Branch Manager

  2. BOption (b)

    Chief Manager

  3. COption (c)

    Assistant General Manager

  4. DOption (d)

    Deputy General Manager 

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Chief Manager

Why this answer is correct

  1. T, who is husband of the person who is Deputy General Manager, is working on the position which is the sixth topmost position in the bank.

Hence, T is branch manager in the bank

  1. One of the person working as Branch Manager is husband of V who does not belongs to Hyderabad.

Hence V is wife of to T; Also V is Deputy General Manager in the bank.

  1. W and the person who is Managing Director are from same city but not from Delhi.
  2. U is working on the highest position in the Punjab National bank but he is not the husband of V and does not belong to Delhi.

Hence, U and W are from same city but not from Delhi.

PersonPositionCity
P
Q
R
S
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorDelhi
VDeputy General ManagerHyderabad
WDelhi
  1. P does not live in Delhi and not the spouse of W.
  2. R belongs to Delhi and she is on senior position than W in the bank.
  3. S is not the husband of V and both of them does not belongs to Delhi.
  4. Not more than two persons belong to Delhi.
  5. Q is working in the same city in which Deputy General Manager is working.

Hence, Q and V not belong to Delhi and Hyderabad.

So both Q and V belong to Pune.

Also it is given that W and U belongs to same city and more than 3 persons cannot belongs to same city so W and U belongs to Hyderabad

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RDelhi
SDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WHyderabad

 

  1. T does not belong to Hyderabad also T is not the wife of S who is senior than V.

Hence, S is General Manager.

  1. The person who is chief Manager is married to S but the person is neither P nor R.

Hence, T, U, P and R not chief Manager and not married to S.3

  1. Q is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad but the person is not S.

Hence, S is married to the only left person W, So W is Chief Manager.

From Statement 6 R is Assistant General Manager.

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

 

 

13. R is the wife of the persons who belongs to Hyderabad and working as Assistant Manager.

Hence R is married to P who is working as Assistant Manager and belongs to Hyderabad.

  1. The person working on the lowermost position in the bank belongs to Pune.
  2. The senior most person is married to the junior most person but living in different cities.

Hence Q is working as Clerk and Married to U.

PersonPositionCity
PAssistant ManagerHyderabad
QClerkPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerPune
TBranch ManagerDelhi
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

This is the final arrangement.

Hence, W is the chief manager.

Question 43

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is not true?

  1. AOption (a)

    P is married to R

  2. BOption (b)

    U is Managing Director

  3. COption (c)

    S belongs to Hyderabad 

  4. DOption (d)

    T belongs to Delhi

  5. EOption (e)

    All are true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

S belongs to Hyderabad 

Why this answer is correct

  1. T, who is husband of the person who is Deputy General Manager, is working on the position which is the sixth topmost position in the bank.

Hence, T is branch manager in the bank

  1. One of the person working as Branch Manager is husband of V who does not belongs to Hyderabad.

Hence V is wife of to T; Also V is Deputy General Manager in the bank.

  1. W and the person who is Managing Director are from same city but not from Delhi.
  2. U is working on the highest position in the Punjab National bank but he is not the husband of V and does not belong to Delhi.

Hence, U and W are from same city but not from Delhi.

PersonPositionCity
P
Q
R
S
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorDelhi
VDeputy General ManagerHyderabad
WDelhi
  1. P does not live in Delhi and not the spouse of W.
  2. R belongs to Delhi and she is on senior position than W in the bank.
  3. S is not the husband of V and both of them does not belongs to Delhi.
  4. Not more than two persons belong to Delhi.
  5. Q is working in the same city in which Deputy General Manager is working.

Hence, Q and V not belong to Delhi and Hyderabad.

So both Q and V belong to Pune.

Also it is given that W and U belongs to same city and more than 3 persons cannot belongs to same city so W and U belongs to Hyderabad

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RDelhi
SDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WHyderabad

 

  1. T does not belong to Hyderabad also T is not the wife of S who is senior than V.

Hence, S is General Manager.

  1. The person who is chief Manager is married to S but the person is neither P nor R.

Hence, T, U, P and R not chief Manager and not married to S.3

  1. Q is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad but the person is not S.

Hence, S is married to the only left person W, So W is Chief Manager.

From Statement 6 R is Assistant General Manager.

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

 

 

13. R is the wife of the persons who belongs to Hyderabad and working as Assistant Manager.

Hence R is married to P who is working as Assistant Manager and belongs to Hyderabad.

  1. The person working on the lowermost position in the bank belongs to Pune.
  2. The senior most person is married to the junior most person but living in different cities.

Hence Q is working as Clerk and Married to U.

PersonPositionCity
PAssistant ManagerHyderabad
QClerkPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerPune
TBranch ManagerDelhi
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

This is the final arrangement.

S belongs to Pune.

Hence, "S belongs to Hyderabad" is not true.

Question 44

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who does not belongs to Pune?

  1. AOption (a)

    Q

  2. BOption (b)

    S

  3. COption (c)

    V

  4. DOption (d)

    T

  5. EOption (e)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

T

Why this answer is correct

  1. T, who is husband of the person who is Deputy General Manager, is working on the position which is the sixth topmost position in the bank.

Hence, T is branch manager in the bank

  1. One of the person working as Branch Manager is husband of V who does not belongs to Hyderabad.

Hence V is wife of to T; Also V is Deputy General Manager in the bank.

  1. W and the person who is Managing Director are from same city but not from Delhi.
  2. U is working on the highest position in the Punjab National bank but he is not the husband of V and does not belong to Delhi.

Hence, U and W are from same city but not from Delhi.

PersonPositionCity
P
Q
R
S
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorDelhi
VDeputy General ManagerHyderabad
WDelhi
  1. P does not live in Delhi and not the spouse of W.
  2. R belongs to Delhi and she is on senior position than W in the bank.
  3. S is not the husband of V and both of them does not belongs to Delhi.
  4. Not more than two persons belong to Delhi.
  5. Q is working in the same city in which Deputy General Manager is working.

Hence, Q and V not belong to Delhi and Hyderabad.

So both Q and V belong to Pune.

Also it is given that W and U belongs to same city and more than 3 persons cannot belongs to same city so W and U belongs to Hyderabad

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RDelhi
SDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WHyderabad

 

  1. T does not belong to Hyderabad also T is not the wife of S who is senior than V.

Hence, S is General Manager.

  1. The person who is chief Manager is married to S but the person is neither P nor R.

Hence, T, U, P and R not chief Manager and not married to S.3

  1. Q is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad but the person is not S.

Hence, S is married to the only left person W, So W is Chief Manager.

From Statement 6 R is Assistant General Manager.

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

 

 

13. R is the wife of the persons who belongs to Hyderabad and working as Assistant Manager.

Hence R is married to P who is working as Assistant Manager and belongs to Hyderabad.

  1. The person working on the lowermost position in the bank belongs to Pune.
  2. The senior most person is married to the junior most person but living in different cities.

Hence Q is working as Clerk and Married to U.

PersonPositionCity
PAssistant ManagerHyderabad
QClerkPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerPune
TBranch ManagerDelhi
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

This is the final arrangement.

T belongs to Delhi. 

Hence, T is the correct answer.

Question 45

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who is working as the Assistant General Manager?

  1. AOption (a)

    Q

  2. BOption (b)

    S

  3. COption (c)

    V

  4. DOption (d)

    P

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

  1. T, who is husband of the person who is Deputy General Manager, is working on the position which is the sixth topmost position in the bank.

Hence, T is branch manager in the bank

  1. One of the person working as Branch Manager is husband of V who does not belongs to Hyderabad.

Hence V is wife of to T; Also V is Deputy General Manager in the bank.

  1. W and the person who is Managing Director are from same city but not from Delhi.
  2. U is working on the highest position in the Punjab National bank but he is not the husband of V and does not belong to Delhi.

Hence, U and W are from same city but not from Delhi.

PersonPositionCity
P
Q
R
S
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorDelhi
VDeputy General ManagerHyderabad
WDelhi
  1. P does not live in Delhi and not the spouse of W.
  2. R belongs to Delhi and she is on senior position than W in the bank.
  3. S is not the husband of V and both of them does not belongs to Delhi.
  4. Not more than two persons belong to Delhi.
  5. Q is working in the same city in which Deputy General Manager is working.

Hence, Q and V not belong to Delhi and Hyderabad.

So both Q and V belong to Pune.

Also it is given that W and U belongs to same city and more than 3 persons cannot belongs to same city so W and U belongs to Hyderabad

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RDelhi
SDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WHyderabad

 

  1. T does not belong to Hyderabad also T is not the wife of S who is senior than V.

Hence, S is General Manager.

  1. The person who is chief Manager is married to S but the person is neither P nor R.

Hence, T, U, P and R not chief Manager and not married to S.3

  1. Q is the wife of the person who belongs to Hyderabad but the person is not S.

Hence, S is married to the only left person W, So W is Chief Manager.

From Statement 6 R is Assistant General Manager.

PersonPositionCity
PDelhi
QPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerDelhi
TBranch ManagerHyderabad
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

 

 

13. R is the wife of the persons who belongs to Hyderabad and working as Assistant Manager.

Hence R is married to P who is working as Assistant Manager and belongs to Hyderabad.

  1. The person working on the lowermost position in the bank belongs to Pune.
  2. The senior most person is married to the junior most person but living in different cities.

Hence Q is working as Clerk and Married to U.

PersonPositionCity
PAssistant ManagerHyderabad
QClerkPune
RAssistant General ManagerDelhi
SGeneral ManagerPune
TBranch ManagerDelhi
UManaging DirectorHyderabad
VDeputy General ManagerPune
WChief ManagerHyderabad

 

This is the final arrangement.

R is working as assistant general manager, but R is not given in options.

Hence, none of these is the correct answer.

General Awareness (40 questions)

Question 46

Bank of Baroda has started a new Fastag service for vehicles passing through an Electronic Toll Collection and collects toll automatically by scanning a QR code located on the wind shield. The technology used by the Bank of Baroda is?

  1. AOption (a)

    RTGs

  2. BOption (b)

    RFID

  3. COption (c)

    SWIFT

  4. DOption (d)

    NEFT

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

RFID

Why this answer is correct

  • The Baroda FASTag is a simple and reusable tag based on Radio-Frequency Identification Technology (RFID) that will be affixed on a vehicle’s windscreen.
  • Each tag is linked to a prepaid account maintained at Bank end to facilitate instant automatic deduction of toll charges.
  • Bank of Baroda issues prepaid RFID tags to customers which can be recharged.
  • Once Tags are affixed on vehicle that vehicle can pass through ETC (Electronic Toll Collection) lane at Toll Plazas without stopping and Toll charges will be automatically deducted from the account linked to Tag.

Question 47

How many digits are there in CIBIL score?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    9

  5. EOption (e)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.

  • Credit Information Bureau Of India Limited (CIBIL) score contains 3 digits.
  • The CIBIL score range from 300-900.
  • CIBIL score estimates the loan repayments behaviour of Individual and business.
  • Banks and financial institutions use CIBIL score for approving the loan and checking the financial behaviour of an individual and business**.**
  • CIBIL score close to 900, more chances of loan approval and implies good financial behaviour.
  • CIBIL score near to 300 means fewer chances of loan approval and implies **poor financial behaviour.**​

​Additional Inforamtion:

  • CIBIL is the repository of information established in the year 2000.
  • CIBIL gets data from all Banks and lending institutions operating in India.
  • Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005, and various Rules and Regulations issued by RBI empowered CIBIL  Ltd to collect the data from various types of credit grantors and then share the same within the group.
  • Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act,2005 enable banks to submit data to CIBIL without obtaining borrower consent this has enabled CIBIL to tracks repayment history of bank customers loans, credit cards and further banking finances.
  • CIBIL prepares Credit Information Report.
  • Credit Information Report (CIR) is a factual record of a borrower's credit payment history compiled from information provided by banks and lending institutions.
  • CIR helps banks and other lending institutions make informed lending decisions.

Question 48

Which state has become the first State in the country to enact a law on contract farming?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Telangana

  3. COption (c)

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

  5. EOption (e)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

  • Tamil Nadu has become the first State in the country to enact a law on contract farming.
  • President Ram Nath Kovind has given assent to the Agricultural Produce and Livestock Contract Farming and Services (Promotion and Facilitation) Act.
  • The law would safeguard interests of farmers during times of bumper harvest or fluctuating market prices.
  • They would be paid at a pre-determined price.

Question 49

A book titled "The Uniquiet River: A biography of the Brahmaputra is written by______. (oct-nov 2019)

  1. AOption (a)

    Arundhati Roy

  2. BOption (b)

    Arupjyoti Saikia

  3. COption (c)

    Amitav Ghosh

  4. DOption (d)

    Jhumpa Lahiri

  5. EOption (e)

    Amish Tripathi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arupjyoti Saikia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Arupjyoti Saikia.

  • Titled “The Unquiet River: A biography of the Brahmaputra”, the book has been written by historian Arupjyoti Saikia, and published by Oxford University Press (OUP).
  • The book claims to combine a range of disciplinary scholarship to unravel the geological forces as well as human endeavour which have shaped the river into what it is today.
  • The Brahmaputra river that has shaped both the landscape of the Assam valley and the livelihoods of its inhabitants, is the subject of a new book.

Question 50

Which state government has spent Rs 3206 Crore on Augmentation of Basic Amenities and Development of Heritage and Architecture (ABADHA) scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha

  2. BOption (b)

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

  5. EOption (e)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Odisha

Why this answer is correct

  • The Odisha government has decided to spend Rs 3208 crore under the Augmentation of Basic Amenities and Development of Heritage and Architecture (ABADHA) scheme in three years to transform Puri into a world heritage city.
  • A proposal in this regard was approved in the meeting of the Cabinet presided by Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik.
  • While Rs 719 crore will be spent under the scheme in 2019-20, the cost of the projects to be taken up under ABADHA will be around Rs 1402 crore and Rs 1087 crore in 2020-21 and 2021-22 respectively.
  • The Cabinet approved a proposal to amend the Odisha Hindu Religious Endowments Act, 1951 by excluding Gobardhan Math, Puri from its purview to vest the management of the Math with Jagadguru Shankaracharya.

Question 51

Which committee was formed to look into the NPA (Non-Performing Assets) and recommended the Inter creditor agreement ?

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Saksham Committee

  2. BOption (b)

    Sashakt Committee

  3. COption (c)

    ​Shakti Committee

  4. DOption (d)

    Shanti Committee

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the Above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sashakt Committee

Why this answer is correct

  • Sunil Mehta, a non-executive chairman of Punjab National Bank , was the head of Sashakt Committee.
  • The government had constituted a committee led by Sunil Mehta to resolve the issue of  NPAs.
  • Sunil Mehta said the new RBI direction making the Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) framework mandatory is a move in the right direction for resolution of non-performing assets (NPAs or bad loans).
  • Sashakt panel has recommended that bad loans of up to Rs 50 crore will be managed at the bank level, with a deadline of 90 days.
  • For bad loans of Rs 50-500 crore, banks will enter into an ICA, authorising the lead bank to implement a resolution plan in 180 days or refer the case to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
  • The Sashkat ICA can be modified to incorporate the requirements of the new framework and serve as the Master Inter-Creditor Agreement for resolution of all stressed asset under BLRA (Bank Led Resolution Approach).

Question 52

Name the sand artist who was awarded the Italian Golden Sand Art Award 2019 held in Rome?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vito Maraschio

  2. BOption (b)

    Sudarshan Patnaik

  3. COption (c)

    Pavel Minilkov

  4. DOption (d)

    ​Reenat Sandhu

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sudarshan Patnaik

Why this answer is correct

  • Sudarsan Pattnaik is a world-renowned Indian sand artist from Odisha. He was awarded the Padma Shri by Government of India in 2014.
  • Sand artist Sudarsan Pattnaik has been conferred the Italian Golden Sand Art Award, 2019 at a ceremony in Rome, becoming the first Indian to win the prestigious award for his contribution to sand art.
  • Representing India at the International Scorrano Sand Nativity event held in Lecce from November 13 to 17, Pattnaik created a 10-foot high sand sculpture of Mahatma Gandhi along with Russian artist Pavel Minilkov.

Question 53

The Economic Survey 2018-19 projects GDP to grow at ________% in 2019-20.

  1. AOption (a)

    6.8

  2. BOption (b)

    6.9

  3. COption (c)

    7.0

  4. DOption (d)

    7.1

  5. EOption (e)

    7.2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7.0

Why this answer is correct

  • Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister Nirmala Sitharaman tabled the Economic Survey 2018-19 in both Houses of Parliament on July 5, 2019.
  • The survey projects GDP to grow at 7% in 2019-20.
  • The Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.8% in 2018-19.
  • The theme of the survey is about enabling shifting of gears to sustained economic growth to achieve a 5 trillion dollar economy by 2025.

Question 54

Which of the following payment bank launched Bharosa savings account scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    India Post Payment Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Airtel Payment Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Paytm Payment Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Aditya Birla Idea Payment Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Airtel Payment Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Airtel Payment Bank.

  • ​Airtel Payments Bank launched "Bharosa" savings account services, designed for deepening the financial inclusion in the country.
  • Along with convenient banking services, Bharosa savings account would offer Rs 5 lakh personal accident insurance on maintaining balance of Rs 500 along with one debit transaction per month.
  • Customers would also be eligible for cashback, if they decided to receive government subsidies in their Bharosa account or if they made cash deposits in it
  • Bharosa savings account customers can also withdraw cash, check their balance or access a mini statement of their account at over 6,50,000 AePS (Aadhaar-enabled payment system) enabled outlets across India.
  • Airtel Payments Bank offers digital banking services through a network of 5,00,000 neighbourhood banking points spread across the the country. ​

Question 55

With which bank has MSTC Ltd signed an agreement for the development of a dedicated e-Auction platform?

  1. AOption (a)

    Axis Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Allahabad Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Bank of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab National Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    UCO Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Allahabad Bank

Why this answer is correct

  • MSTC Ltd has signed an agreement with Allahabad Bank for the development of a dedicated e-Auction platform.
  • The e-Auction platform will be a one-of-a-kind solution, where a bidder once registered, will be able to participate in auctions for all banks.
  • This move will help the banks monetise NPAs through a streamlined process, thereby, increasing revenue generation.

Question 56

SEBI has set up a high-level panel to suggest possible structures and regulations for creating 'social stock exchanges' to facilitate listing and fund-raising by social enterprises as well as voluntary organisations. Who is the head of this committee?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nandan Nilekani

  2. BOption (b)

    Majid Hussain

  3. COption (c)

    Sunil Mehta

  4. DOption (d)

    Ishaat Hussain

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ishaat Hussain

Why this answer is correct

  • SEBI has set up a high-level panel to suggest possible structures and regulations for creating 'social stock exchanges'.
  • It will help to facilitate the listing and fund-raising by social enterprises as well as voluntary organisations.
  • The committee will be headed by Ishaat Hussain (Director at SBI Foundation and former Finance Director at Tata Sons).

Question 57

Karnam Sekar was the CEO of which bank before he was appointed the CEO of Indian Overseas bank ?

  1. AOption (a)

    HDFC Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Dena Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Allahabad Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab National Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    ICICI Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dena Bank

Why this answer is correct

  • Karnam Sekar, CEO and MD of Dena Bank, will become the MD and CEO of Indian Overseas Bank (IOB) effective from July 1, 2019.
  • After superannuation on June 30, 2020, he will join IOB as OSD and whole-time director.
  • Vijaya Bank MD and CEO, R.A. Sankara Narayanan, has been named MD and CEO of Canara Bank.

Question 58

Recently, UNESCO has designated Hyderabad as a member of UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) in the field of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Traditional Art

  2. BOption (b)

    Gastronomy

  3. COption (c)

    Creative Cities Network

  4. DOption (d)

    Natural Art

  5. EOption (e)

    Cultural Heritage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gastronomy

Why this answer is correct

  • UNESCO has designated Mumbai as a member of UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) in the field of film and Hyderabad in the field of Gastronomy.
  • UCCN, created in 2004, is a network of cities which are thriving, active centres of cultural activities in their respective countries.
  • The UNESCO Creative Cities Network now counts a total of 246 cities.

Question 59

With which state Government has the Asian Development Bank signed a 451mnloanagreementtostrengthenpowerconnectivitybetweenthesouthernandnorthernpartsofthestate451 mn loan agreement to strengthen power connectivity between the southern and northern parts of the state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Odisha

  5. EOption (e)

    Telangana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer is option no. (1)

  • The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the GOI signed a $451 mn loans to strengthen power connectivity between the southern and northern parts of the Chennai–Kanyakumari Industrial Corridor in the state of Tamil Nadu.
  • The project will help establish an extra-high-voltage transmission link between Virudhunagar and Coimbatore to transfer the additional generation capacity of 9,000 MW, including 6,000 MW from renewables$.

Question 60

Mother Teresa Award which began in 2004 is a biannual award given by ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Homely Foundation

  2. BOption (b)

    Harmony Foundation

  3. COption (c)

    WHO Foundation

  4. DOption (d)

    Red Cross Foundation

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Harmony Foundation

Why this answer is correct

  • Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice was instituted by Harmony Foundation in 2005.
  • UNHRC was named as the recipient of the Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice, 2017 as an acknowledgement of its exceptional work worldwide.
  • The UNHCR provides humanitarian aid to innumerable people internally displaced by conflicts and helping stateless people all over the world.

Question 61

In which state has the merger of all the co-operative banks been approved by the RBI to form a single bank?

  1. AOption (a)

    Karnataka

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Telangana

  5. EOption (e)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Kerala.

  • RBI approved the merger of district co-operative banks to form Kerala Bank in Kerala.
  • All 13 district co-operative banks (DCBs) operating in Kerala would be amalgamated with Kerala State Co-operative Bank to form the Kerala Bank.
  • After receiving the RBI's nod, Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan expressed hope that the Kerala Bank will help accelerate development of the state.
  • All DCBs, except the one in Malappuram district controlled by the opposition Congress-led UDF, had approved the state government's proposal in their general body meetings.

Question 62

Two new countries Eritrea and Saint Kittis and Nevis have signed the International Solar Alliance's (ISA) Framework Agreement at its second Assembly held in New Delhi. What is the total number of countries who have signed the ISA which is headquartered in Gurugram , India?

  1. AOption (a)

    80

  2. BOption (b)

    81

  3. COption (c)

    82

  4. DOption (d)

    83

  5. EOption (e)

    93

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

83

Why this answer is correct

  • Two new countries Eritrea and Saint Kittis and Nevis have signed the International Solar Alliance's (ISA) Framework Agreement at its second Assembly held in New Delhi.
  • With this 83 countries have so far signed the ISA framework agreement.
  • At the United Nations Climate Action Summit 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi pledged to increase renewable energy capacity to 175 GigaWatt by 2022

Question 63

Where is the head office of the Ujjivan Small Finance Bank?

  1. AOption (a)

    Navi Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    New Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Noida

  4. DOption (d)

    Chennai

  5. EOption (e)

    Bengaluru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Bengaluru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5, i.e. Bengaluru.

  • Ujjivan Financial Services Limited started operations as an NBFC in 2005 with the mission of providing a full range of financial services to the economically active poor who are not adequately served by financial institutions.
  • On October 7, 2015, Ujjivan received in-principle approval from the RBI to set up a Small Finance Bank and floated its wholly-owned subsidiary ‘Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited’.
  • The Company transferred its business to Ujjivan Small Finance Bank which subsequent to the RBI license commenced its banking operations from February 01, 2017.
  • Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Ltd. is also included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
  • Tagline: We believe in your belief.
  • Head office: Bengaluru, Karnataka.

Question 64

In 2019, who has been appointed as the 47th Chief Justice of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Justice N. V. Ramana

  2. BOption (b)

    Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde

  3. COption (c)

    Justice S. Abdul Nazeer

  4. DOption (d)

    Justice Arun Kumar Mishra

  5. EOption (e)

    Justice Jasti Chelameswar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde

Why this answer is correct

  • Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was appointed as the 47th Chief Justice of India.
  • Justice Bobde will take oath as the CJI on November 18, 2019.
  • He will have a tenure of 17 months and would demit office on April 23rd, 2021.
  • Ranjan Gogoi was the 46th CJI.

Question 65

Who unveiled the trophies of the T20 World Cups in Melbourne?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aishwarya Rai

  2. BOption (b)

    Kareena Kapoor

  3. COption (c)

    Katrina Kaif

  4. DOption (d)

    Deepika Padukone

  5. EOption (e)

    Alia Bhatt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kareena Kapoor

Why this answer is correct

  • Bollywood actress Kareena Kapoor Khan unveiled the trophies of the T20 World Cups in Melbourne.
  • The Women’s T20 World Cup will kick-off on February 21, 2020, followed by the Men’s edition, which is slated to begin from October 18 in the same year in Australia.
  • Windies had won the competition in 2016, held in India, after beating England in the final in dramatic fashion.

Question 66

What is the theme of 2019 World Day for Audiovisual Heritage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Archives at risk: protecting the world's identities

  2. BOption (b)

    It's your story – don't lose it

  3. COption (c)

    Engage the Past Through Sound and Images

  4. DOption (d)

    Archives at Risk: Much more to do

  5. EOption (e)

    Saving Our Heritage for the Next Generation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Engage the Past Through Sound and Images

Why this answer is correct

  • World Day for Audiovisual Heritage is observed globally on 27 October. "Engage the Past Through Sound and Images" is the theme of the 2019 year's celebration.
  • The General Conference of UNESCO approved the commemoration of a World Day for Audiovisual Heritage in 2005 as a mechanism to raise general awareness of the need to preserve and safeguard important audiovisual material for future generations.

Question 67

Where is the Headquarters of the Vikram Solar company situated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Chennai

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata

  4. DOption (d)

    Indore

  5. EOption (e)

    Mumbai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kolkata

Why this answer is correct

  • Vikram Solar Limited (formerly known as Vikram Solar Pvt. Ltd.) is a globally recognized leading solar energy solutions provider.
  • They specialize in high-efficiency PV module manufacturing and comprehensive EPC solutions.
  • It is headquartered in Kolkata, West Bengal.
  • With an international presence across 6 continents, they are an active contributor in shaping the solar revolution.

Question 68

In September 2019, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that Public Sector Banks will organise ‘loan melas’ or shamiana melas in 400 districts. The loan is given for which category?

  1. AOption (a)

    MSME

  2. BOption (b)

    STAR

  3. COption (c)

    SUN

  4. DOption (d)

    RAM

  5. EOption (e)

    SME

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RAM

Why this answer is correct

  • Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that Public Sector Banks will organise ‘loan melas’ in 400 districts.
  • The meetings will be organised to provide loans to NBFCs and retail borrowers, including homebuyers and farmers.
  • PSBs will focus on giving loans to the ‘RAM‘ category: retail, agriculture and MSMEs.
  • The open house public meetings will be held in two tranches.

Question 69

An alternative housing finance fund of Rs. 25,000 crore has been sanctioned by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitaram along with SBI and LIC for which purpose?

  1. AOption (a)

    Housing Projects for Poor

  2. BOption (b)

    Smart City Development

  3. COption (c)

    Urban Housing Development

  4. DOption (d)

    Unfinished Projects Completion

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the Above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Unfinished Projects Completion

Why this answer is correct

  • The capital boost of Rs. 25000 crores is given to complete the uncompleted projects that have halted due to insufficient funds.
  • A consortium of banks led by State Bank of India has agreed to provide finance for Nagpur-Mumbai 'Samruddhi Corridor' expressway project.
  • Other lenders include Punjab National Bank, Bank of Baroda, Bank of Maharashtra as well as the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India.
  • SBI has agreed to lend the highest amount, 8,500 crore rupees.

Question 70

Recently, the researchers from ________ have created the first-ever ‘Indian brain atlas’(IBA).

  1. AOption (a)

    IIT Bombay

  2. BOption (b)

    IIT Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    IIT Kanpur

  4. DOption (d)

    IIIT Hyderabad

  5. EOption (e)

    IIT Kharagpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

IIIT Hyderabad

Why this answer is correct

  • Researchers from the Indian Institute of Information Technology Hyderabad (IIIT-H), Telangana have created the first-ever ‘Indian brain atlas’(IBA).
  • The study has revealed that the Indian brain, on an average, is smaller in height, width and volume when compared to Western and other Eastern populations.
  • This will help in early diagnosis of Alzheimer’s and other brain-related ailments.

Question 71

Srei Equipment Finance Limited has partnered with which of the following banks to jointly offer loans under co-lending programme to MSME and retail sector customers? (Oct 2019)

  1. AOption (a)

    Syndicate Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Dena Bank

  3. COption (c)

    United Bank of India

  4. DOption (d)

    HDFC Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    SBI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

United Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

  • Srei Equipment Finance Limited has partnered with United Bank of India to jointly offer loans under co-lending programme to MSME and retail sector customers.
  • It is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Srei Infrastructure Finance Limited.
  • The Finance Minister of India- Nirmala Sitharaman had earlier encouraged banks to organise gatherings across India where banks along with their NBFC partners would offer loans to sectors like MSME and retail and this move is an inspiration from that.
  • The NBFC and the United Bank of India jointly organised Loan Utsavs across 20 cities to proliferate its co-lending initiative.
  • To make credit available to the MSME sector is also in line with Government objective.
  • The Loan Utsavs was attended by leading Equipment manufacturers, dealers and customers who got on the spot approvals for their Equipment needs.
  • Sri Ashok Kumar Pradhan- MD & CEO, United Bank of India
  • Mr Devendra Kumar Vyas - Managing Director, Srei Equipment Finance

Question 72

The ATM,s authorized under the Payment & Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007 by the RBI are operated by Non-banking Finance corporations. Which amoung of these is the ATM?

  1. AOption (a)

    White Label ATMs

  2. BOption (b)

    Brown Label ATM,s

  3. COption (c)

    On Site ATM,s

  4. DOption (d)

    Of Site ATM,s

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the Above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

White Label ATMs

Why this answer is correct

  • WLAs stand for White Label ATMs and are authorized under the Payment & Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007 by the RBI.
  • These are set up owned and operated by non-banking entities.
  • They do not have a bank logo.
  • Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) was the first company authorized by RBI to open White Label ATMs in the country. It opened its outlets by the name Indicash.
  • 100 per cent FDI in White Labelled ATM operations.

Question 73

Electoral Bonds issued by SBI shall be valid for a period of 15 days from the date of issue. The electoral bond is issued under which Section of the Representation of People Act?

  1. AOption (a)

    10A

  2. BOption (b)

    29A

  3. COption (c)

    20A

  4. DOption (d)

    25A

  5. EOption (e)

    30A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

29A

Why this answer is correct

  • Govt has recently notified Electoral Bonds, which may be purchased by a person, who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India.
  • Political Parties registered under Section 29A of Representation of People Act, 1951 shall be eligible to receive Electoral Bonds.
  • Electoral Bonds shall be valid for 15 days from the date of issue & no payment shall be made after the expiry date.

Question 74

Which of the following cities hosted the UN Climate Change Conference (COP 25) in December 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madrid

  2. BOption (b)

    Barcelona

  3. COption (c)

    Paris

  4. DOption (d)

    Rome

  5. EOption (e)

    Venice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Madrid

Why this answer is correct

  • The Spanish capital city of Madrid hosted the UN Climate Change Conference (COP 25) from 2 to 13 December.
  • The decision was taken following Chile's stepping down as host for the event.
  • The United Nations Climate Change Conferences are yearly conferences held in the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

Question 75

The Asian Development Bank and the Govt. of India signed a 200 million loan in September 2019, which will be used to upgrade rural roads to all-weather standards in 34 districts of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Jharkhand

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Telangana

  5. EOption (e)

    Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

  • The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the Government of India signed a $200 million loan on 9 September 2019.
  • It will upgrade rural roads to all-weather standards in 34 districts of Maharashtra State, improve road safety and better connect rural areas with markets and services.
  • The project will improve the condition of about 2,100 kilometres (km) of rural roads to all-weather standards$.

Question 76

Which author has been awarded the 28th Vyas Samman(for the year 2018) of the K.K. Birla Foundation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yogita Yadav

  2. BOption (b)

    Nasira Sharma

  3. COption (c)

    Leeladhar Jagoori

  4. DOption (d)

    Mamta Kalia

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Leeladhar Jagoori

Why this answer is correct

Vyas Samman Award:

  • It recognizes the outstanding literary work in Hindi authored by an Indian citizen and published during the last 10 years.

Note: Nasira Sharma was conferred with Vyas Samman 2019 for her novel Kagaz ki Naav(Paper Boat)

  • In 2017 Vyas Samman was given to Mamta Kalia for her novel Sukkham Dhukkam.
  • In 2018 Vyas Samman was given to Leeladhar Jagoori for her poetry collection Jitne Log Utne Prem​​.
YearWinnerThe novel for which award is given
2017Mamta KaliaSukkham Dhukkam
2018Leeladhar JagooriJitne Log Utne Prem
2019Nasira SharmaKagaz ki Naav(Paper Boat)

Question 77

The RBI has recently increased loan exposure limit of banks to a single NBFC (not including gold loan companies) from 15% to ______ of its capital base for increase in credit supply to the crisis-ridden shadow banking sector.

  1. AOption (a)

    17%

  2. BOption (b)

    21%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    19%

  5. EOption (e)

    22%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20%

Why this answer is correct

  • The RBI has recently increased loan exposure limit of banks to a single NBFC (not including gold loan companies) from 15% to 20% of its capital base for increase in credit supply to the crisis-ridden shadow banking sector.
  • As per extant 'Large Exposures Framework (LEF)', exposure of banks to a single NBFC is restricted to 15% of their available eligible capital base, while general single counter-party exposure limit is 20%, which can be extended to 25% by banks' boards under exceptional circumstances.
  • But now, it has been decided that exposure of bank to a single NBFC (not including gold loan companies) will be restricted to 20% of that bank's eligible capital base.
  • Non-Banking Financial Company is a financial institution that is not supervised by a banking regulatory agency. It also does not have a full banking license . It helps in facilitating bank-related financial services, such as investment,market brokering, etc.
  • RBI HQ- Mumbai
  • RBI Governor- Shaktikanta Das

Question 78

RBI has imposed restrictions on customers of Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank wherein customers would not be able to withdraw more than Rs. 25,000 from their accounts (Sep 2019). How many customers can get their entire deposit refunded?

  1. AOption (a)

    85%

  2. BOption (b)

    80%

  3. COption (c)

    75%

  4. DOption (d)

    70%

  5. EOption (e)

    60%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

70%

Why this answer is correct

  • RBI has imposed restrictions on Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank where customers would not be able to withdraw more than Rs. 25,000 from their accounts.
  • The RBI has increased the withdrawal limit from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 25,000
  • The central bank had enhanced the withdrawal limit of the PMC bank initially from Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 10,000. It gradually increased the withdrawal limit to Rs. 25,000 after reviewing the liquidity position of the Mumbai-based co-operative bank.
  • The RBI said that 70% of the depositors can withdraw their full balance after the current move.
  • The bank would not be able to disburse or agree to disburse any payment whether in the discharge of its liabilities and obligations or otherwise.
  • The banks would not be able to enter into any compromise or arrangement and sell, transfer or otherwise dispose of any of its properties or assets.
  • The imposition on Bank would be in force for six months from September 23, 2019.
  • RBI clarified that this order should not be taken as a cancellation of banking.
  • PMC Bank's Managing Director- Joy Thomas

Question 79

Which of the following has signed an MoU with NTPC Limited to identify, evaluate and set up reference use cases of hydrogen sector-coupling for various upstream and downstream applications?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bosch

  2. BOption (b)

    Beko

  3. COption (c)

    Philips

  4. DOption (d)

    Siemens Limited

  5. EOption (e)

    Honeywell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Siemens Limited

Why this answer is correct

  • Siemens Limited has signed an MoU with NTPC Limited to identify, evaluate and set up reference use cases of hydrogen sector-coupling for various upstream and downstream applications.
  • Siemens Limited has also inked a separate MoU with TERI for collaboration on technologies to support the energy transition in India including sector-coupling.

Question 80

What is the new contactless card service launched by SBI named as?

  1. AOption (a)

    SBI Touch cards

  2. BOption (b)

    SBI Contactfree

  3. COption (c)

    SBI Cardless

  4. DOption (d)

    SBI contactless

  5. EOption (e)

    SBI inTouch cards

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

SBI inTouch cards

Why this answer is correct

State Bank of India joined its private sector rivals to launch contactless credit and debit cards using latest near field technology (NFC).Called the SBI inTouch cards, these contactless debit and credit cards are more secure and hassle-free to use at merchant outlets or ATMs and use the NFC technology which enables users to make payments by waving or tapping the card near the contactless reader instead of swiping or dipping it.

Question 81

Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan dedicated the robotic surgery facility(Nov 2019). The robotic surgery facility has been set up in which of these places? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Apollo Hospital

  2. BOption (b)

    AIIMS Hospital

  3. COption (c)

    Safdarjung Hospital

  4. DOption (d)

    Fortis Hospital

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the Following

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Safdarjung Hospital

Why this answer is correct

  • Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan dedicated the robotic surgery facility in the Safdarjung Hospital in New Delhi.
  • Robotic surgery has the advantage of providing minimally invasive surgery, reducing significantly the morbidity and mortality of critically ill, cancer and kidney failure patients.
  • The operating time also decreases resulting in improvement in the turnover of patients.

Question 82

Which of these banks has launched a fixed deposit scheme called FD Health?

  1. AOption (a)

    ICICI

  2. BOption (b)

    IDBI

  3. COption (c)

    Syndicate

  4. DOption (d)

    HSBC

  5. EOption (e)

    PNB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ICICI

Why this answer is correct

  • ICICI Bank launched a fixed deposit scheme called FD Health, that comes with an in-built critical insurance policy.
  • The FD Health – Critical illness Cover will be provided to only the primary holder of the FD account.
  • Anyone between of 18-50 years, will get complimentary insurance cover for a year on 33 critical illnesses.
  • Free of cost insurance cover will be provided for 1st year.

Question 83

Which institute has formed the Global Alumni endowment fund for Rs. 250 Crores launched by President Ram Nath Kovind in 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    IIT Madras

  2. BOption (b)

    IIIT Hyderabad

  3. COption (c)

    IIT Bombay

  4. DOption (d)

    IIT Delhi

  5. EOption (e)

    IIT Kanpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

IIT Delhi

Why this answer is correct

  • Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi has formally launched its global alumni endowment fund with an initial commitment of Rs. 250 crore .
  • This fund was launched by the president, Ram Nath Kovind.
  • Along with this, the IIT is known for the highest number of startups launched by its alumni among all IITs in the country, also announced the launch of ‘Each One Teach One’ initiative wherein it invites alumni, wealthy individuals and corporates to be a part of this fund.
  • The institute aims to achieve a target corpus of 1billionoveraperiodof7yearsforthenewlylaunchedfundthatwillworktowardsthedevelopmentoftheinstitute,encourageinnovationandentrepreneurialspirit1 billion over a period of 7 years for the newly launched fund that will work towards the development of the institute, encourage innovation and entrepreneurial spirit.

Question 84

Name the operation launched by Indian Railways against ticket touts involved in e-ticketing.

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhanush

  2. BOption (b)

    Goli

  3. COption (c)

    Chor

  4. DOption (d)

    Dhund

  5. EOption (e)

    Ticket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dhanush

Why this answer is correct

  • Indian Railways’ Central Railway zone conducted ‘Operation Dhanush’ recently against ticket touts involved in e-ticketing.
  • The operation was carried out in all the five divisions falling under the Central Railway Zone.
  • The operation was aimed to control touts on e -ticketing in view of Diwali rush of passengers to their native places.
  • The drive yielded arrest of 23 agents.

Question 85

The RBI has recently proposed a minimum equity capital of Rs 200 crore to set up a small finance bank under which License regime to expand the banking services.

  1. AOption (a)

    On tap

  2. BOption (b)

    In Tap

  3. COption (c)

    For tap

  4. DOption (d)

    Of tap

  5. EOption (e)

    From tap

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

On tap

Why this answer is correct

  • The RBI has recently proposed a minimum equity capital of Rs**. 200 crore** to set up a small finance bank under the 'on tap' licence regime to expand the banking services.
  • RBI has released the draft guidelines for 'on tap' licensing of small finance banks in the private sector. It includes that the existing non-banking financial companies, microfinance institutions and local area banks in the private sector, which are controlled by residents, can opt for conversion into small finance banks.
  • RBI will not entertain proposals from public sector entities and large industrial house/business groups and autonomous boards/bodies.
  • A small finance bank is usually set up to undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections, including small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector entities.
  • The draft proposal talks about the objectives of setting up of SBFs is to further financial inclusion and supply of credit "through high technology-low cost operations.
  • The draft also includes that the promoters should hold a minimum of 40 per cent of the paid-up voting equity capital of the bank, which would remain locked in for five years from the date of commencement of the bank's business.
  • RBI HQ- Mumbai
  • RBI Governor- Shaktikant Das

English Language (35 questions)

Direction: In the questions given below, four sentences are given. Each sentence is broken into four parts. The four parts need not necessarily form a coherent sentence. Arrange the parts to form grammatically and contextually correct sentences.

  1. often, pets have a way (a)/ providing comfort to individuals(b)/ by breaking tension and(c)/ of bringing others together. (d)
  2. the workplace as a stressful environment,(a)/ employees likely won't view (b)/ a home away from home(c) / but rather as (d).
  3. in the office is uplifting (a)/ having your pet(b) / and brings a smile to your face (c)/ or a co-worker's pet(d).
  4. healthy pauses from (a)/ which can promote (b) / pets require time and attention,(c)/ assignments and creative breaks(d).

Question 86

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement to form a meaningful sentence in statement 1?

  1. AOption (a)

    adcb

  2. BOption (b)

    cadb

  3. COption (c)

    dacb

  4. DOption (d)

    badc

  5. EOption (e)

    acdb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

adcb

Why this answer is correct

Only option (a) introduces the topic - of pets and thus is the first part.

Logically following (a) pets have a way must be followed by a preposition to indicate way of, thus (d) forms the second part.

Now, to logically follow (d), pets are able to bring others together, must be followed by an apt connector i.e they bring others together by breaking tension.' Thus, (c) form the third part.

Also, now (c) has and in the end and this continuity is maintained by part (b).

Thus, the correct sentence is: Often, pets have a way (a)/of bringing others together/ by breaking the tension and(c)/ (d)  providing comfort to individuals(b) Option 1 is the right answer

Question 87

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement to form a meaningful sentence in statement 2?.

  1. AOption (a)

    bcad

  2. BOption (b)

    dcab

  3. COption (c)

    badc

  4. DOption (d)

    cabd

  5. EOption (e)

    abcd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

badc

Why this answer is correct

Parts (c) and (d) do not introduce the sentence and thus cannot for the first part.

Only part (b) forms the correct first part. 

To maintain continuity with the first part - it conveys that employees won't view a certain thing and that thing can be correctly found in part(a) and not part(c) to form coherence and logic.

Part (a) and (c) are opposite in meanings and so the opposite meaning is correct formed by but at the start of the part (d). Thus (d) forms the third part.

Correct sentence: Employees likely won't view (b)/the workplace as a stressful environment,(a)/  / but rather as (d) / a home away from home(c).

Option 3 is the right answer.

Question 88

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement to form a meaningful sentence in statement 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    acdb

  2. BOption (b)

    badc

  3. COption (c)

    cdab

  4. DOption (d)

    dabc

  5. EOption (e)

    bdac

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

bdac

Why this answer is correct

Parts (d), (a) and (c) cannot start the sentence as they start with having , and and or and a sentence cannot begin with these words.

Thus, part(b) forms the first part of the sentence.

Now, (b) talks about having a pet and this continuity is maintained only in part (d) - or a co-worker's pet. Thus, part (d) forms the second part.

Now, to maintain coherence- part(c) is incorrect as it starts with 'and' signifying a continuity of a previous idea. Thus, part (a) forms the third part as we can have pets in the office.

Correct sentence:Having your pet(b) /  or a co-worker's pet(d) / in the office is uplifting (a)/ and brings a smile to your face (c).

Option 5 is the right answer

Question 89

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement to form a meaningful sentence in statement 4?

  1. AOption (a)

    cdab

  2. BOption (b)

    cbad

  3. COption (c)

    badc

  4. DOption (d)

    dacb

  5. EOption (e)

    abcd

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cbad

Why this answer is correct

Since the overall passage deals with the topic of pets, only part(c) introduces this topic of pets. Thus, part (c) is the first part.

Now, as per the first part (c) - giving time and attention to pets will create an effect among the employees and the continuity of that effect is found in part (b).

that giving time and attention to pets will promote something among the employees. Thus part (b) is the second part.

Also, part (d) has and in it signifying there are more ideas before it and thus cannot be the second part. 

Thus, part (a) forms the third part as it ends with - **from (**promotes healthy pauses from) and this is continued with part (d) i.e assignments and creative breaks.

Correct sentence: Pets require time and attention,(c)/ which can promote (b) / healthy pauses from (a)/  assignments and creative breaks(d).

option 2 is the right answer

Question 90

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentences does not fit in the theme of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Only 4

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 3

  5. EOption (e)

     Only 1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Only 2'.

Key Points

  • All the sentences - except 2 talk exclusively about Pets- Have the mention of the word pets in each and every sentence and having them at the workplace can reduce the stress levels of the employees.
  • On the other hand, sentence 2 has no mentions of pets at all. It talks about a general idea that the employees might not view the workplace as a stressful environment but rather a home away from home- but whether this is due to pets or not cannot be determined considering statement 2 alone.
  • Thus, statement 2 do not fit in the theme of the passage talking exclusively about pets.
  • Hence, option 1 is the right answer.

Question 91

Direction∶ In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both the sentences grammatically correct.

a. India gains (A) to be a global (B) leader in world (C)-recycling: capacity being raised (D) from 5mn GT to 9mn GT.

b. Ship (E) Development Report examines (F) how improving risk management(G) can lead to larger aims(H) in development and poverty reduction.

  1. AOption (a)

    A-H

  2. BOption (b)

    D-E

  3. COption (c)

    Both A-H and C-E

  4. DOption (d)

    A-E

  5. EOption (e)

    C-E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both A-H and C-E

Why this answer is correct

In these Word-Swap questions, it is better

to take help of the options (one option at a time) - and use Process Of Elimination (POE):

  1. First, read both the sentences and try to find out if any word/words has/have been used incorrectly - contextually and grammatically.
  2. Swap the words according to option (Check one option at a time).
  3. Check contextual and grammatical correctness with the swapped words of the option that you are checking.
  4. Eliminate the option if the above condition is not satisfied - Both sentences must become correct with swapped words of the option that you are checking. If not, then,
  5. Move ahead with next option until both sentences become grammatically and contextually correct - Mark that option as correct answer.

In sentence a, India's aspires, not gains (A) to increase its recycling capacity. Also, capacity increase is very specific form 5 mn GT to 9mn GT, this increase cannot be world**(C)**-recycling capacity- rather something specific. Thus, (A) and (C) must be swapped.

In sentence b, A report cannot be of Ship**(E)** development as later it cannot lead to poverty reduction. Also, risk management cannot lead to larger aims**(H)** for poverty reduction. Thus, (E) and (H) must be swapped.

Now using, the POE, Only by swapping words given in option 4, can both the sentences become correct:

Correct sentence a: India aims(H) to be a global (B) leader in Ship (E)-recycling: capacity being raised (D) from 5mn GT to 9mn GT.

Correct sentence b: World (C) Development Report examines (F) how improving risk management(G) can lead to larger gains (A) in development and poverty reduction.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 92

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both the sentences grammatically correct.

a. Immunity(A) has demonstrated clearly that sanctions(B) by the pandemic(C) powers alone cannot make much of a difference(D).

b. A flu western(E) occurs when a virus arises to which the vast majority(F) of people in the world(G) have no natural experience(H).

  1. AOption (a)

    A-H

  2. BOption (b)

    D-E

  3. COption (c)

    A-F

  4. DOption (d)

    Only A-H and C-E

  5. EOption (e)

    C-F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only A-H and C-E

Why this answer is correct

In these Word-Swap questions, it is better

to take help of the options (one option at a time) - and use Process Of Elimination (POE):

  1. First, read both the sentences and try to find out if any word/words has/have been used incorrectly - contextually and grammatically.
  2. Swap the words according to option (Check one option at a time).
  3. Check contextual and grammatical correctness with the swapped words of the option that you are checking.
  4. Eliminate the option if the above condition is not satisfied - Both sentences must become correct with swapped words of the option that you are checking. If not, then,
  5. Move ahead with next option until both sentences become grammatically and contextually correct - Mark that option as correct answer.

In the sentence, a; immunity: the ability of the body to fight infections, sanctions: restrictions imposed by a nation on another, pandemic:(of a disease) prevalent over a whole country or the world.

Immunity(A) cannot demonstrate sanctions, also sanctions cannot be imposed by the pandemic(C) powers. Thus, (A) and (C) must be swapped.

In sentence b, Flu i.e a fever cannot have a quality of being western(E). Also, flu occurs not when people have no natural experience(H) but when they don't have immunity. Thus, (E) and (H) must be swapped.

Now using, the POE, Only by swapping words given in option 4, can both the sentences become correct:

Correct sentence a:  **Experience(H)**has demonstrated clearly that sanctions(B) by the western(E) powers alone cannot make much of a difference(D).

[It means that though various sanctions are imposed by western countries like the USA on Iran, Afghanistan, etc., these sanctions have not made much of a difference to the underlying problems.]

Correct sentence b: A flu pandemic(C) occurs when a virus arises to which the vast majority(F) of people in the world(G) have no natural immunity(A).

[It means that a pandemic flu occurs when there comes a new virus to which we haven't developed a natural immunity against yet.] 

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 93

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both the sentences grammatically correct.

a. The military(A) leadership should move(B) with greater seriousness(C) to find ways of mitigating the stress levels of compromises(D).

b. There has been a great deal(E) of give and take and soldiers(F) in the format(G) of the agreement(H).

  1. AOption (a)

    A-G

  2. BOption (b)

    A-E

  3. COption (c)

    D-E and B-F

  4. DOption (d)

    D-F

  5. EOption (e)

    B-H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

D-F

Why this answer is correct

In these Word-Swap questions, it is better

to take help of the options (one option at a time) - and use Process Of Elimination (POE):

  1. First, read both the sentences and try to find out if any word/words has/have been used incorrectly - contextually and grammatically.
  2. Swap the words according to option (Check one option at a time).
  3. Check contextual and grammatical correctness with the swapped words of the option that you are checking.
  4. Eliminate the option if the above condition is not satisfied - Both sentences must become correct with swapped words of the option that you are checking. If not, then,
  5. Move ahead with next option until both sentences become grammatically and contextually correct - Mark that option as correct answer.

In sentence a, we are talking about the Military and how its leadership must seriously move ahead to combat the stress levels. However, stress levels of compromises(D) is completely incorrect as it makes no sense. Thus, (D) must be swapped.

In sentence b, we are talking about the format of the agreement where a great deal of give and take has taken place. But within the agreement, soldiers(F) cannot be given, taken or included in its format. Thus, (F) must be swapped.

Now using, the POE, Only by swapping words given in option 1, can both the sentences become correct:

Correct sentence a: The military(A) leadership should move(B) with greater seriousness(C) to find ways of mitigating the stress levels of soldiers(F).

Correct sentence b: There has been a great deal(E) of give and take and compromises(D) in the format(G) of the agreement(H). [ It means that the agreement has finally been reached after a lot of gives and takes and compromises between the respective parties.]

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 94

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both the sentences grammatically correct.

a. The public(A) got the undertrials(B) that the situation(C) is out of control and started to panic(D).

b. The fact(E) that there is such a vast(F) population of impression(G) is closely linked to a larger(H) issue.

  1. AOption (a)

    B-G

  2. BOption (b)

    B-E

  3. COption (c)

    C-G

  4. DOption (d)

    D-H

  5. EOption (e)

    Both B-G and D-H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B-G

Why this answer is correct

In these Word-Swap questions, it is better

to take help of the options (one option at a time) - and use Process Of Elimination (POE):

  1. First, read both the sentences and try to find out if any word/words has/have been used incorrectly - contextually and grammatically.
  2. Swap the words according to option (Check one option at a time).
  3. Check contextual and grammatical correctness with the swapped words of the option that you are checking.
  4. Eliminate the option if the above condition is not satisfied - Both sentences must become correct with swapped words of the option that you are checking. If not, then,
  5. Move ahead with next option until both sentences become grammatically and contextually correct - Mark that option as correct answer.

In sentence a, the structure--- public(A) got the undertrials(B) that the situation(C) is making no sense at all. Public getting the undertrials and that the situation getting out of control is incoherent. The use of the article the signifies a singular noun to be used in its place. Thus, (B) must be swapped.

In sentence b, the phrase, --a vast population of impression (G)' makes no sense*.* There cannot be a population of 'impression. Thus, (G) must be swapped.

Now using, the POE, Only by swapping words given in option 1, can both the sentences become correct:

Correct sentence a: The public(A) got the impression(G) that the situation(C) is out of control and started to panic(D).

Correct sentence b: The fact(E) that there is such a vast(F) population of undertrials(B) is closely linked to a larger(H) issue. [It means that a very large number (i.e vast population) of cases still under trial stage (i.e. undertrials) is a serious concern as it signifies a larger underlying problem for such a high number of undertrials still pending.]

Thus**, option 1 is the correct answer.**

Question 95

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both the sentences grammatically correct.

a. It will be a unique(A) chance to see some(B) of the finest atmosphere(C) which are now scattered(D) around the world.

b. It is the right(E) of the people to get(F) a pollution-free paintings(G) and natural calamity(H)-free ecosystem.

  1. AOption (a)

    A-F

  2. BOption (b)

    C-G

  3. COption (c)

    B-H

  4. DOption (d)

    Both D-E and C-G

  5. EOption (e)

    Both C-G and D-H

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

C-G

Why this answer is correct

In these Word-Swap questions, it is better

to take help of the options (one option at a time) - and use Process Of Elimination (POE):

  1. First, read both the sentences and try to find out if any word/words has/have been used incorrectly - contextually and grammatically.
  2. Swap the words according to option (Check one option at a time).
  3. Check contextual and grammatical correctness with the swapped words of the option that you are checking.
  4. Eliminate the option if the above condition is not satisfied - Both sentences must become correct with swapped words of the option that you are checking. If not, then,
  5. Move ahead with next option until both sentences become grammatically and contextually correct - Mark that option as correct answer.

In sentence a, it can be inferred that one cannot see the atmosphere, so the usage of atmosphere(C). Thus, (C) must be swapped.

In sentence b, paintings(G) cannot be pollution-free. Thus, (G) must be swapped.

Now using, the POE, Only by swapping words given in option 2, can both the sentences become correct:

Correct sentence a: It will be a unique(A) chance to see some(B) of the finest paintings(G) which are now scattered(D) around the world.

Correct sentence b: It is the right(E) of the people to get(F) a pollution-free atmosphere(C) and natural calamity(H)-free ecosystem.

Question 96

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not be grammatically correct. Identify the statement/statements that is/are incorrect.

I. Young people in Britain eats more snacks than people of the same age in other European countries.

II. He spends a good deal of money on eating out.

III. Without waiting for the instructions from the Government, some cable operators in the city had block the news.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II.

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    Only I and III.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Only I and III.

Why this answer is correct

  • Statement II is contextually and grammatically correct.

  • In statement I, the usage of the word eats is incorrect.

The subject - young people - is Plural and thus must agree with a Plural verb. Thus, 'eat' will replace eats to rectify the incorrect sentence.

Correct Statement I: Young people in Britain eats / eat more snacks than people of the same age in other European countries.

  • In statement III, the usage of the word block is incorrect.

Correct structutre of sentence with 'had'-Past Perfect Tense: Subject + had + v3 + object + other words.

According to the structure, Had is followed by V3.

But in statement III, Had is followed by 'block' - V1, that should be replaced with blocked'-V3 for making the sentence grammatically correct.

Correct statement III. Without waiting for the instructions from the Government, some cable operators in the city had block / blocked the news.

Thus, Option 5 is the correct answer.

Question 97

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not be grammatically correct. Identify the statement/statements that is/are incorrect.

I. When shall we arrive to our destination?

II. Neither Rohit nor Mohit were there at the restaurant when I went there.

III. Ten kilometres is a long distance to walk.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only I and II

Why this answer is correct

Statement III is contextually and grammatically correct.

In statement I, the usage of word to is incorrect.

at will replace to because –

We usually say that someone arrives at a place vs arrives in a country/city.

e.g: We arrived at the station at 3 o'clock.

       The President arrived in Rome today.

Correct sentence I: When shall we arrive to / at our destination?

In statement II, the usage of the word were is incorrect.

When there are 2 different subjects that are joined by either____or/ neither____nor / not only____but also/ _or_ ,and are different in numbers, the subject closer to the verb decides whether the verb will be singular or plural,

  • For e.g: There is / are either some boys (subject closer to the verb ) or a girl in the class.
  • Neither the ministers nor the King (subject closer to the verb) have / has been arrested.
  • Not only Sapna but also her friends (subject closer to the verb) has / have come. 

Here, the subject closer to the verb 'were' is Mohit and thus the verb ‘were’ will be replaced by was to agree with the Singular subject.

Correct sentence II. Neither Rohit nor Mohit were / was there at the restaurant when I went there. 

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 98

Directions

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not be grammatically or contextually correct. Identify the statement/statements that is/are incorrect.

I. He will pass the driving test if he tries hard enough.

II. Next week I will visit my friend.

III. The plant will die if you look after it.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only III

Why this answer is correct

Statements I and II are contextually and grammatically correct.

As per the context of statement III, if you take care of a plant, it will definitely not die, thus being in complete contradiction to what is given.

Thus, unless will replace if to make the statement contextually and grammatically correct.

  • An if phrase expresses that one action or situation must happen first before the other one will/can happen. The action in the clause following if expresses either: (1) a condition for a singular outcome to occur; or (2) a recurring situation whenever with a predictable outcome (in general).
  • An unless phrase expresses an action or situation will happen if the other one does not happen first or an action or situation won't happen if the other one happens first. Unless expresses except if or if not (See polarity¹, +positive or –negative wording.)

e.g sentence: Unless you study, you will not pass the exam.

                       If you do not study, you will not pass the exam. (Replacing 'Unless' with 'If' to keep the meaning of the above sentence same.)

Correct sentence III.1) The plant will die  if / unless you look after it.

            Alternatively,2) The plant will not die if / unless you look after it.

Both the above sentences have the same meaning emphasizing the subtle differences between the correct usages of if and unless.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 99

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not be grammatically correct. Identify the statement/statements that is/are incorrect.

I.No sooner did I speak, than he left.

II. The patient was accompanied with his friend.

III.Mr. Sharma may be late but I am sure Mr. Kapoor won't be.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Statements I and III are contextually and grammatically correct.

Key Points

In statement II, by will replace with because –

by (Prep.) is used for indicating the agent/object after a Passive Verb in case of Passive Voice.

Agent/Object = his friend & Passive Verb = accompanied

With (Prep.) indicates being in the company of

e.g - His friend stayed with him in the hospital.

        He was knocked down by a bus.

Additional Information

In statement II: the usage of 'No sooner....than' is correct whenever we use 'no sooner' an adverb at the starting of the sentence, use the inversion form of the verb.  

Correct Statement II: The patient was accompanied (Passive verb) with/by his friend (Object). [as the given sentence is in the Passive Voice.]

Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 100

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not be grammatically correct. Identify the statement/statements that is/are incorrect.

I. John is working very hardly as the examinations are fast approaching. 

II. I have seen him a couple of times since May.

III. A short story should not exceed two hundred words.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Only I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I

Why this answer is correct

Statements II and III are contextually and grammatically correct.

In statement I, hard will replace hardly because –

hardly (Adverb): almost no/not/none but

hard (Adjective) : needing/using effort.

e.g: It is a hard problem to solve / It is hard practising meditation as the mind is always wandering.

      There is hardly any tea left.

In our statement, John is working - and to answer the question, how is he working ? the correct answer will be he is working very hard  / not very hardly - which means he is not working at all and negates the intended meaning of the sentence.

Correct statement I: John is working very hardly / hard as the examinations are fast approaching. 

option 1 is the right answer

Question 101

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not contain an error in any part of the sentence.

Identify the statements containing an error and also point out the part containing the error.

I. He was reading (a) /the plays of the Shakespeare (b) /when I met him (c) / in the library the other day(d).

II. You must either (a)/ be regular with your studies (b)/ and study for a longer period (c) / before the examination(d).

III.To die (a) / with honour (b)/ is better than (C)/ to live with dishonour(d).

  1. AOption (a)

    I-a and II-d

  2. BOption (b)

    I-c and III-d

  3. COption (c)

    I-b and II-c

  4. DOption (d)

    I-d and II-a

  5. EOption (e)

    All sentences are correct 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I-b and II-c

Why this answer is correct

Statements III is contextually and grammatically correct.

In part (b) of Statement I, the use of the article the before the word Shakespeare is wrong.

If proper nouns are used in general sense, they do not take any articles with them.

Correct Statement I: He was reading (a) /the plays of the Shakespeare (b) /when I met him (c) / in the library the other day(d).

In part (c) of Statement II, the use of the word and is incorrect. o' will replace and because –

either-or, neither-nor are correct forms of Correlative Conjunctions, used for showing the relationship between two things or two terms that are different from each other.

and (Conj.) is used for showing the relationship between two things/situations that exist together.

e.g: I'm going to buy either a scooter or a motorcycle.

       He came in and took her coat off.

Correct statement II: You must either (a)/ be regular with your studies (b)/ and / or  study for a longer period (c) / before the examination(d).

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 102

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not contain an error in any part of the sentence.

Identify the statements containing an error and also point out the part containing the error.

I. Based on the newspaper reports, (a) / we can conclude that (b) / many accidents are (c) /caused by reckless driving(d).

II. When viewed (a) / with his point of view, (b) / the entire episode assumes (c) / a different colour altogether(d). 

III. The officer (a) / is angry (b) / with the clerk (c) / for not attending to the work(d).

  1. AOption (a)

    I-a and II-c

  2. BOption (b)

    I-a and III-c

  3. COption (c)

    II-c

  4. DOption (d)

    II-c and III-d

  5. EOption (e)

    II-b

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

II-b

Why this answer is correct

Statements I and III are contextually and grammatically correct.

In part (b) of statement II, usage of the word with is incorrect.

from (Prep.) is used for showing somebody’s point of view.

from one’s point of view: as far as one is concerned

e.g - From a financial point of view, the project was a disaster.

Correct statement II: When viewed (a) / with / from his point of view, (b) / the entire episode assumes (c) / a different colour altogether(d). 

Thus, option 5 is the correct answer.

Question 103

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not contain an error in any part of the sentence.

Identify the statements containing an error and also point out the part containing the error.

I. The fifth and final act (a)/ of Macbeth (b)/ contains the (c) / sleepwalking scene.

II. The percentages (a) / of school leavers (b) / who go to university  (c) / is about five per cent.

III. The Finance Minister view (a)/ is that the scheme will ensure (b)/ that millions of farmers will be (c) / lifted out of poverty in the next ten years(d).

  1. AOption (a)

    I-c

  2. BOption (b)

    II-b

  3. COption (c)

    I-a and II-b

  4. DOption (d)

    II-a and III-a

  5. EOption (e)

    II-c and III-d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

II-a and III-a

Why this answer is correct

Statement I is contextually and grammatically correct.

In part (a) of statement II, usage of the word percentages is incorrect. It must be replaced with the percentage.

The usage of the article --The at the start of the sentence signifies that the subject it refers to will be Singular. Thus, percentages plural is incorrect.

Correct statement II: The percentages / percentage (a) / of school leavers (b) / who go to university  (c) / is about five per cent.

In part (a) of statement III, there is an error:

As per the sentence, the view of the Finance Minister is considered, so a sense of possession (using apostrophe 's' i.e 's), must be referred to - 'The Finance Minster's view' is correct.

Correct statement III: The Finance Minister / Minster's view (a)/ is that the scheme will ensure (b)/ that millions of farmers will be (c) / lifted out of poverty in the next ten years(d). 

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 104

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not contain an error in any part of the sentence.

Identify the statements containing an error and also point out the part containing the error.

I. The flight could not land (a)/ as per schedule because the pilot (b) / couldn't see the runaway (c) / due to poor visibility (d).

II.The lions in this area prey on deer (a) / and other wild animals (b)/ and when a lion attacks a herd of animals (c) / it attacks the weakest one in the herd (d). 

III.Custom officers have (a) / the right to check (b) / all luggages (c) / going through customs (d).

  1. AOption (a)

    I-b and III-a

  2. BOption (b)

    I-c and III-c

  3. COption (c)

    II-a and III-d

  4. DOption (d)

    II-d and III-a

  5. EOption (e)

    I-d and II-b

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I-c and III-c

Why this answer is correct

Statement II is contextually and grammatically correct.

In part (c) of statement I, usage of the word runaway is incorrect - It must be replaced with the runway as a flight i.e aeroplanes operate on runways.

Correct sentence I:  The flight could not land (a)/ as per schedule because the pilot (b) / couldn't see the runaway / runway(c) / due to poor visibility (d).

Also, in part (c) of statement III, usage of the word luggages is incorrect - It must be replaced with luggage.

Luggage is an uncountable noun and hence forming its plural form is not possible by adding -s. To make a plural, many pieces of luggage is correct.

Correct sentence III: Custom officers have (a) / the right to check (b) / all luggages / luggage (c) / going through customs (d).

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 105

In the question below, three statements are given which may or may not contain an error in any part of the sentence.

Identify the statements containing an error and also point out the part containing the error.

I.According to government estimates, (a) / at least four million tonnes of sugar (b) / will have to be imported (c)/ this year because of a poor monsoon (d).

II.Young school students now-a-day (a) /are subjected to intense pressure from (b) / peers and parents alike (c) / to fetch high marks in public examinations (d).

III.Certain amount of stress (a) / at work is natural (b) /but it is important that (c) / one learns to keep it in the right proportion (d).

  1. AOption (a)

    I-b

  2. BOption (b)

    III-a

  3. COption (c)

    II-a

  4. DOption (d)

    I-c

  5. EOption (e)

    III-d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

II-a

Why this answer is correct

Statements I and III are contextually and grammatically correct.

In part (a) of statement II, now-a-day is incorrect usage.

There’s only one way to spell nowadays—as one word.

e.g - We have a huge range of different clothing brands to choose from nowadays.

Correct sentence II - Young school students now-a-day / nowadays (a) /are subjected to intense pressure from (b) / peers and parents alike (c) / to fetch high marks in public examinations (d).

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The concept of ‘creative society’ refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilized and demand their rights. The upsurge of the peasants and tribal, the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women’s movements in the developing countries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country.

Question 106

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What does the author imply by “creative society”?

  1. A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek incentive.

  2. A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm.

  3. A society where a large number of contradictions are recognized.

  4. A society where the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    4 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

In the first two lines, *'**The concept of creative society refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions **(Statement 3)*become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups (Statement 4)get politically mobilized and demand their rights.

Thus, only statements 3 and 4 are implied by the author in the context of a creative society.

Statement 1 (diverse art forms, literary writings) is nowhere mentioned in the passage.

Also, creative societies encourage the oppressed classes to strive for equality and not the other way around as given in Statement 2. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 107

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements?

  1. Aggressiveness and being incendiary.

  2. Instigation by external forces.

  3. Quest for social equality and individual freedom.

  4. Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

In the second and third lines of the paragraph,

Statement 3 is correct - As per the passage - This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilized and demand their rights.'

From this, it can be inferred that only by organising social movements can it lead to the manifestation of social equality and the fundamental rights of individual freedom to the hitherto oppressed social groups - these oppressed groups are in quest for social equality and individual freedom as these basic rights are still denied to them and only when they get organised in the form of social movements they can achieve these.

Statement 4 is correct - As per the passage - The upsurge of the peasants and tribal, the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women’s movements in the developing countries are signs of the emergence of a creative society in contemporary times

Thus, social movements can organise the disparaged sections of society by bringing above-underlined oppressed classed together so that they can fight and thus social movements can lead to granting privileges and self-respect to these sections which have denied to them till date

Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect as they do not indicate manifestations of social movements and are nowhere mentioned in the passage.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 108

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

With reference to the passage. consider the following statements:

  1. To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements.
  2. To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  5. EOption (e)

    Either 1 or 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

In the first two lines of the paragraph,

*The concept of creative society refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions(Statement 2) become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilized **(Statement 1)*and demand their rights.

Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct and thus option 3 is the correct answer. ​

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

For achieving inclusive growth there is-a critical need to rethink the-role of the State. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.

The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver.

This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, who need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food.

Question 109

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to passage :

  1. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.

  2. Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.

  3. The Government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.

  4. There is a need to change the size of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Statement 1 is correct - In the 2nd Paragraph - The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation.'

Statement 2 is correct - In the 1st Paragraph - The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government.

Statement 3 is incorrect as the complete opposite is stated in the last paragraph - Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference

Also, statement 4 is incorrect complete opposite is stated in the first paragraph -  The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 110

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be effected by focusing on:

  1. AOption (a)

    meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.

  2. BOption (b)

    Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.

  3. COption (c)

    Controlling the distribution of manufacturing goods

  4. DOption (d)

    Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society.

Why this answer is correct

Option 1 is incorrect as the complete opposite is stated in the last paragraph - This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need.

Options 2 and 3 are incorrect as they are nowhere even mentioned in the passage;

Only Option 4 is correct as it is mentioned in the last paragraph that - An Enabling Government steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, who need support and help and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, plays an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 111

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What constitutes an enabling Government?

1. A large bureaucracy.

2. Implementation of welfare programs through representatives.

3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise.

  1. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged.

5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    4 and 5 only

  3. COption (c)

    3, 4 and 5 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

  5. EOption (e)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3, 4 and 5 only

Why this answer is correct

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Enabling government plays a role of an enabler and not a provider of everything because if it does so it will lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption which is undesirable.

Statement 2 is incorrect as there is no mention whatsoever of this anywhere in the passage.

Statements 3,4 and 5 are correct as they are mentioned in the last paragraph.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 112

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage ?

  1. AOption (a)

    The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be remembered.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Government needs to make available more schools and health sevices.

  3. COption (c)

    The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.

  4. DOption (d)

    There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above options is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth.

Why this answer is correct

The author presents criticism on the traditional role of the Government where it provides all the facilities to the general public. However, this traditional role has proved to be harmful as it leads to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption and facilities do not reach the end-user i.e. us. Thus, to imbibe inclusion in its truest sense, the role of the state must be transformed from a traditional provider to a New Enabler - where instead of providing everything, it creates enabling conditions in the economy and market and the citizens and manufacturers automatically balance the market forces without the interference of the government. At the same time, this Enabling Government only provides to the poor and needy who can't take care of themselves. 

Thus, option 4 is the essential message being conveyed by the author. So it is the right answer.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Now India’s children have a right to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether’ it will remain ‘on paper’ or ‘become a reality’. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary – a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child’s right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. if a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India’s history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of feticides. This is “symptomatic of a deeper turmoil” in society which compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.

Question 113

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

1.When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.

2.Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.

3.Female infanticide has not compounded the traditional obstacles to the education of girls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    All 1,2 and 3

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the statements 1,2 and 3 is correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of the statements 1,2 and 3 is correct.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is None of the statements 1,2 and 3 is correct.

Key Points

  • Option 1 is incorrect - as the author presents a view that the RTE is different from other Constitutional laws- in a way that its beneficiary is a six-year child and it is obvious that she/he cannot fight a legal battle if the right is denied to her/him. In such, cases, it is the responsibility of the adult society to act on the behalf of these six-years olds.
  • Option 2 is incorrect - as RTE is enshrined in the Constitution and thus automatically enforced throughout the country by its power.
  • Option 3 is incorrect - as female infanticide (Foeticide) is an additional factor that comes in the way of girls' education.

Thus, option 5 is the correct answer.

Question 114

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, what could be the traditional obstacles to the education of girls?

  1. Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.

  2. The traditional way of thinking about girl’s role in society.

  3. The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.

  4. Improper system of education.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2, 3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

Please note the words Traditional Obstacles. 

On reading and inferring carefully from the last few lines of the paragraph,

Statement 2 can be correctly inferred from lines This may be painfully true for girls because our society (i.e traditional way of thinking) permits them (a girl child) only a short childhood, if at all.- Thus, the traditional society thinks too shallow of a role of a girl child and thus is a major challenge for their education.

Statements 3 and 4 can be correctly inferred from lines, Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.

Statement 1 is not a traditional obstacle to girls education - It emphasises the responsibility of parents - Author presents his point of view that it is the responsibility of adults to fight on the children's behalf if RTE is violated. Thus, this option is incorrect.

Thus, only Statements 2,3 and 4 are correct.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 115

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements:

  1. Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.

  2. For realising the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that of developed countries.

  3. Where a child’s right to education is denied, a compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant.

Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above statements 1,2 and 3 are correct

  5. EOption (e)

    All the statements 1,2 and 3 are correct.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None of the above statements 1,2 and 3 are correct

Why this answer is correct

Statement 1 is incorrect - as RTE is a constitutional and a fundamental right.

Statement 2 is incorrect - this sentence finds no mention at all in the passage.

Statement 3 is incorrect and in direct contradiction to what is mentioned in the passage - In another peculiarity, where a child’s right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant.

Thus, None of the above statements 1,2 and 3 is correct. / option 4 is the right answer.

Question 116

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.

  2. BOption (b)

    Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.

  3. COption (c)

    The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.

  4. DOption (d)

    The system of education should be address the issue of right to education.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above options conveys the key message of the passage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.

Why this answer is correct

The passage starts with discussing that RTE is different from other laws enshrined in the constitution - The difference being that six-years-old cannot fight a legal battle if RTE is denied to them. And, if the child doesn't get educated in his childhood, his childhood is lost and no matter how much compensation is provided later, precious right time of getting educated is lost by the child. To add to this misery, the problem of education is compounded for a girl child because of - female foeticide, society's negative perception of a girl child education where their intellectual potential is not even taken into account and they are denied education.

Thus, there's an urgent need to safeguard RTE so that the helpless children of today, especially girls get educated in time and have a bright future.

Thus, option 3 is correct.

Read the following sections of a passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

A.Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.In most of these books the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm-referenced (NRM) or criterion-referenced (CRM).

B.One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of “test characteristics” and “logistical dimensions.”

C. To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about - NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.

D. CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what per cent they have achieved mastery of the taught or learned material.

E. Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.

F. Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.

Question 117

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following can be inferred for NRM measurement strategy ?

  1. AOption (a)

    NRM methodology can be used for measuring expertise in any particular subject by all the students.  

  2. BOption (b)

    NRM methodology is utilized for measuring aptitude of students based on measuring what perecentage they have attained in the tests.

  3. COption (c)

    NRM methodology measures absolute performance of students and is based on per-centile system.

  4. DOption (d)

    NRM methodology is generally not preferred for admissions into institutions.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above can be inferred.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of the above can be inferred.

Why this answer is correct

ObjectivesNRMCRM
Test TypeGeneral TestsMore Subject Specific Tests
Purpose Of testsClassify Students according to the performance in general tests.Motivate students - Mastery in Particular subject.
System of MeasurementPercentile SystemPercentage System
What is measuredMeasure aptitude - in general testsAchievement or diagnostic test - in particular subject
Application of testClassify students - based on performance - Admissions/ Placements within a course/program.Mastery of a pre-specified Material to develop expertise in that particular subject.
Kind of performance measuredRelative Performance of all the students giving the test is measured.Absolute performance of an individual student giving subject-specific test is measured - It is not compared with other students.
Comparision CriterionPerformance in test Compared with other students.Performance in test Compared with Learning Objectives.

On knowing the characteristics and differences between the CRM and NRM methodologies,

We can conclude that none can be inferred about the NRM testing methodology.

Thus, option 5 is the correct answer.

Question 118

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In section F, what is the author implying by the phrase 'all students may fail the test' ?

  1. AOption (a)

    CRM methodology is extremely difficult to be understood by the students and hence they are prone to fail.

  2. BOption (b)

    CRM methodology is not a logical test and hence it cannot be understood by the students and thus they may fail the test.

  3. COption (c)

    CRM methodology is an individual student and a subject-specific test and hypothetically all those students who have developed mastery in that particular subject can attain a perfect score or otherwise if none of the students gain mastery, all students may fail the test. 

  4. DOption (d)

    CRM methodology is an aptitude based test which are extremely difficult to pass and thus students may fail.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above can be inferred from the above options

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CRM methodology is an individual student and a subject-specific test and hypothetically all those students who have developed mastery in that particular subject can attain a perfect score or otherwise if none of the students gain mastery, all students may fail the test. 

Why this answer is correct

Options 1 and 2 are nowhere mentioned in the passage and thus it is incorrect.

Option 4 is incorrect as CRM is subject-specific and not aptitude based as given in the option.

Thus, only option 3 can be correctly inferred from the passage where the author presents a hypothetical situation in the phrase in part F of the passage -hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the pre-specified material, or conversely*, all students may fail the test.*

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 119

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is true for CRM measurement strategy:

  1. CRM is an aptitude based test to measure the relative performance of students.

  2. CRM helps students to focus on the subjects they want to master.

  3. CRM measures absolute performance that is compared with all the students.

  4. CRM is a student-specific achievement test that is compared only with learning objectives.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 4

  5. EOption (e)

    Only 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Only 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

ObjectivesNRMCRM
Test TypeGeneral TestsMore Subject Specific Tests
Purpose Of testsClassify Students according to the performance in general tests.Motivate students - Mastery in Particular subject.
System of MeasurementPercentile SystemPercentage System
What is measuredMeasure aptitude - in general testsThe achievement or diagnostic test - in particular, subject
Application of testClassify students - based on performance - Admissions/ Placements within a course/program.Mastery of a pre-specified Material to develop expertise in that particular subject.
Kind of performance measuredRelative Performance of all the students giving the test is measured.Absolute performance of an individual student giving subject-specific test is measured - It is not compared with other students.
Comparision CriterionPerformance in test Compared with other students.Performance in test Compared with Learning Objectives.

On knowing the characteristics and differences between the CRM and NRM methodologies,

Only statements 2 and 4 are correct with reference to CRM measurement methodology.

Thus option 5 is the correct answer.

Question 120

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Considering sections C and E, which of the following reasons can be inferred for using NRM measurement tests for admissions?

  1. NRMs are subject-specific tests and are thus useful for the admission process.

  2. NRMs measures the relative performance of the students and thus it is easier to select them for admission with the help of bell curve distribution.

  3. NRMs measure aptitude and proficiency and thus it is easier to classify students and select them for admission.

  4. NRMs are based on the percentage system to compare various students applying for admissions.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 

  3. COption (c)

    Only 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 4

  5. EOption (e)

    Only 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Only 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

ObjectivesNRMCRM
Test TypeGeneral TestsMore Subject Specific Tests
Purpose Of testsClassify Students according to the performance in general tests.Motivate students - Mastery in Particular subject.
System of MeasurementPercentile SystemPercentage System
What is measuredMeasure aptitude - in general testsThe achievement or diagnostic test - in particular, subject
Application of testClassify students - based on performance - Admissions/ Placements within a course/program.Mastery of a pre-specified Material to develop expertise in that particular subject.
Kind of performance measuredRelative Performance of all the students giving the test is measured.Absolute performance of an individual student giving subject-specific test is measured - It is not compared with other students.
Comparision CriterionPerformance in test Compared with other students.Performance in test Compared with Learning Objectives.

On knowing the characteristics and differences between the CRM and NRM methodologies,

Only statements 2 and 3 can be inferred as to why NRM methodology is suitable for classifying students and thus selecting those who perform the best in these general, aptitude based tests for admissions.

Thus, option 5 is the correct answer.

Data Analysis & Interpretation (35 questions)

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

X female can do a work in 2Y days. 1.5X male can do a work in Y days. 8 males, 8 Females and 8 children together can do the work in 22.5 days. 3X child can do the work in 4Y days.

Question 121

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If 2.5X females can complete the work in 24 days. Then Find the value of Y?

  1. AOption (a)

    35

  2. BOption (b)

    37

  3. COption (c)

    29

  4. DOption (d)

    30

  5. EOption (e)

    28

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30

Why this answer is correct

M = Man, W = Women, C = Child

X women can do a work in 2Y days and 1.5X man can do the work in Y days.

⇒ 2XY W = 1.5XY M

⇒ M/W = 4/3

X women can do a work in 2Y days and 3X child can do the work in 4Y days.

⇒ 2XY W = 12XY C

⇒ W/C = 6/1

∴ M : W : C = 8 : 6 : 1

8 males, 8 females and 8 children together can do the work in 22.5 days.

Total work = 22.5(8 × 8 + 8 × 6 + 8 × 1) = 2700

2.5X females complete the work in 24 days.

2.5X × 24 = 2700

⇒ X = 45

X women can do a work in 2Y days.

⇒ 2XY = 2700

⇒ 2 × 45 Y = 2700

⇒ Y = 30

Shortcut Method:

We can obtain the value of Y as follows:

X × 2Y = 2.5X × 24

⇒ Y = 30

Question 122

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

how many days 16 females complete the whole work.

  1. AOption (a)

    27(5/8)

  2. BOption (b)

    31(7/38)

  3. COption (c)

    31(1/8)

  4. DOption (d)

    28(3/8)

  5. EOption (e)

    28(1/8)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

28(1/8)

Why this answer is correct

M = Man, W = Women, C = Child

X women can do a work in 2Y days and 1.5X man can do the work in Y days.

⇒ 2XY W = 1.5XY M

⇒ M/W = 4/3

X women can do a work in 2Y days and 3X child can do the work in 4Y days.

⇒ 2XY W = 12XY C

⇒ W/C = 6/1

∴ M : W : C = 8 : 6 : 1

8 males, 8 females and 8 children together can do the work in 22.5 days.

Total work = 22.5(8 × 8 + 8 × 6 + 8 × 1) = 2700

Number of days taken by 12 females together to complete the work = 2700/(16 × 6) = 28(1/8)

Question 123

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find in how many days 10 males and 12 females together can complete the same work.

  1. AOption (a)

    19(31/38)

  2. BOption (b)

    17(31/38)

  3. COption (c)

    19(29/38)

  4. DOption (d)

    17(37/38)

  5. EOption (e)

    17(29/38)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

17(29/38)

Why this answer is correct

M = Man, W = Women, C = Child

X women can do a work in 2Y days and 1.5X man can do the work in Y days.

⇒ 2XY W = 1.5XY M

⇒ M/W = 4/3

X women can do a work in 2Y days and 3X child can do the work in 4Y days.

⇒ 2XY W = 12XY C

⇒ W/C = 6/1

∴ M : W : C = 8 : 6 : 1

8 males, 8 females and 8 children together can do the work in 22.5 days.

Total work = 22.5(8 × 8 + 8 × 6 + 8 × 1) = 2700

Number of days taken by 10 males and 12 females together to complete the work = 2700/(10 × 8 + 12 × 6) = 17(29/38)

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions accordingly.

 

Direction: The given pie chart shows the degree of voters who voted in four different types of Zones. Some values are missing in the given diagram.

Additional Information:

Statement I: The difference between the voters in Z4 and the voters in Z2 is 3/4 of Z1 where Z4 > Z2.

Statement II: Total number of Invalid Votes = 10800

Statement III: Number of voters in Z3 = 11250 which is 20.83% of the total population.

(HINT - Consider the nearest multiple of 1000.)

Question 124

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If 30% of the votes in Z2 and 40% of the votes in Z4 declared invalid then find the ratio of the number of valid voters in Z2 to the number of invalid votes in Z4.

  1. AOption (a)

    22 : 35

  2. BOption (b)

    34 : 49

  3. COption (c)

    32 : 47

  4. DOption (d)

    28 : 43

  5. EOption (e)

    24 : 37

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

28 : 43

Why this answer is correct

Total voters = 11250/20.83 × 100 ≈ 54000

(For the ease of calculation, we would consider the resultant as, 54000)

Central angle of Z3 = 20.83% of 360 = 75° 

Central angle of Z2 and Z4 together = 360 - 108 - 75 = 177

Difference between the central angle of Z4 and Z2 = 3/4 × Z1 = 3/4 × 108°

Central angle for Z2 = 48° 

Central angle for Z4 = 129°

Voters in Z2 = 54000/360 × 48 = 7200

Voters in Z4 = 54000/360 × 129 = 19350

Desired ratio = (70/100 × 7200)/(40/100 × 19350) = 28 : 43

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions accordingly.

 

Direction: The given pie chart shows the degree of voters voted in four different types of Zones. Some values are missing in the given diagram.

Additional Information:

Statement I: The difference between the voters in Z4 and the voters in Z2 is 3/4 of Z1

Statement II: Total number of Invalid Votes = 10800

Statement III: Number of voters in Z3 = 11250 which is 20.83% of total population.

Question 125

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

30% of the total voters in Z2 becomes inavlid and total number of invalid votes in Z3 is 10% of the valid voters of Z2. What will be the total number of valid votes in Z3?

  1. AOption (a)

    11270

  2. BOption (b)

    10746

  3. COption (c)

    10530

  4. DOption (d)

    11790

  5. EOption (e)

    10630

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10746

Why this answer is correct

Total voters = 11250/20.83 × 100 ≈ 54000

Central angle of Z3 = 20.83% of 360 = 75° 

Central angle of Z2 and Z4 together = 360 - 108 - 75 = 177

Difference between the central angle of Z4 and Z2 = 3/4 × 108 = 81

Central angle for Z2 = 48° 

Central angle for Z4 = 129°

Voters in Z2 = 54000/360 × 48 = 7200

Voters in Z4 = 54000/360 × 129 = 19350

Valid votes of Z2 = 70/100 × 7200 = 5040

Invalid votes of Z3 = 504

Valid votes of Z3 = 11250 - 504 = 10746

Question 126

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Total number of votes in Z4 is what percent more than the total number of votes in Z3?

  1. AOption (a)

    75%

  2. BOption (b)

    78%

  3. COption (c)

    72%

  4. DOption (d)

    84%

  5. EOption (e)

    76%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

72%

Why this answer is correct

Total voters = 11250/20.83 × 100 ≈ 54000

Central angle of Z3 = 20.83% of 360 = 75° 

Central angle of Z2 and Z4 together = 360 - 108 - 75 = 177

Difference between the central angle of Z4 and Z2 = 3/4 × 108 = 81

Central angle for Z2 = 48° 

Central angle for Z4 = 129°

Voters in Z4 = 54000/360 × 129 = 19350

Desired percentage = (19350 - 11250)/11250 × 100 = 72%

Question 127

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Total number of voters in Z2, Z3 and Z4 together is what percent of the total number of voters voting in all the zones together?

  1. AOption (a)

    80%

  2. BOption (b)

    75%

  3. COption (c)

    82%

  4. DOption (d)

    70%

  5. EOption (e)

    78%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

70%

Why this answer is correct

Given: Central angle for Z1 zone = 108° 

Total central for all zone = 360°

Calculation:

Central angle for zones Z2, Z3 and Z4 together = 360° - 108° = 252° 

∴ Percentage of total voters in zones Z2, Z3 and Z4 together with respect to all zones tegether = 252/360 × 100 = 70%

Question 128

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If 95.2% of the total votes in Z3 is valid and the ratio of total number of invalid votes of Z1 and Z3 is 2 : 3. Then find the total number of valid votes in Z1 and Z3.

  1. AOption (a)

    25650

  2. BOption (b)

    23480

  3. COption (c)

    26550

  4. DOption (d)

    27580

  5. EOption (e)

    24750

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26550

Why this answer is correct

Total voters = 11250/20.83 × 100 ≈ 54000

Central angle of Z3 = 20.83% of 360 = 75° 

Central angle of Z2 and Z4 together = 360 - 108 - 75 = 177

Difference between the central angle of Z4 and Z2 = 3/4 × 108 = 81

Central angle for Z2 = 48° 

Central angle for Z4 = 129°

Total votes of Z1 = 54000/360 × 108 = 16200

Invalid votes of Z3 = 4.8/100 × 11250 = 540

Invalid votes of Z1 = 360

Valid votes of Z1 = 16200 - 360 = 15840

Valid votes of Z3 = 11250 - 540 = 10710

Total number of valid votes of Z1 and Z3 = 15840 + 10710 =26550

Question 129

Examine the following pattern of the series carefully and answer the following question.

Example: Find the wrong number in the following series and following the pattern find the fourth of the series starting with the wrong number.

32, 34, 36, 39, 40, 42

Here, the pattern of the series is the difference of 2.

Here the wrong number in the series is 39

So, Starting with ‘39’ the series will be 39, 41, 43, 45

Therefore, the fourth term is 45.

Similarly, following the above pattern, find the fifth term in the 2nd series.

1, 3, 6, 21, 88, 445, 2676

  1. AOption (a)

    132

  2. BOption (b)

    134

  3. COption (c)

    136

  4. DOption (d)

    138

  5. EOption (e)

    142

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

136

Why this answer is correct

Pattern of the series is

1 × 1 + 1 = 2

2 × 2 + 2 = 6

6 × 3 + 3 = 21

21 × 4 + 4 = 88

88 × 5 + 5 = 445

445 × 6 + 6 = 2676

Therefore wrong number in the series is 3.

So, starting with 3 the series will be 3, 4, 10, 33, 136

Directions: Read the diagram carefully and answer the following questions.

Question 130

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the ratio of the sum of target for Y salesman in 2014 and Z salesman in 2017  together to sum of sales for X salesman in 2015 and Y salesman in 2016 together.

  1. AOption (a)

    31 : 37

  2. BOption (b)

    27 : 41

  3. COption (c)

    29 :  31

  4. DOption (d)

    25 : 23

  5. EOption (e)

    27 : 29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

25 : 23

Why this answer is correct

Given: Target for salesman Y in 2014 = 3000

Target for salesman Z in 2017 = 9500

Sales for salesman X in 2015 = 7000

Sales for salesman Y in 2016 = 4500

Calculation:

Sum of target for salesman Y in 2014 and salesman Z in 2017 together = 3000 + 9500 = 12500

Sum of sales for salesman X in 2015 and salesman Y in 2016 together = 7000 + 4500 = 11500

∴ Required ratio = 12500/11500 = 25/23

Question 131

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find how much percent more or less average yearly target of X in comparison to average yearly sales of Z.

  1. AOption (a)

    3.62%

  2. BOption (b)

    4.26%

  3. COption (c)

    3.26%

  4. DOption (d)

    4.62%

  5. EOption (e)

    5.26%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4.26%

Why this answer is correct

Given: Sum of all yearly target of X = 5000 + 7500 + 3500 + 6500 = 22500

Sum of all yearly sales of Z = 3500 + 3000 + 8000 + 9000 = 23500

Calculation: 

The average yearly target of X  = 22500/4 = 5625

The average yearly sales of Z  = 23500/4 = 5875

Percentage by which average yearly target of X  is less than the average yearly sales of Z = 5875−56255875×100{5875 - 5625 \over 5875} \times 100

⇒ 2505875×100{250 \over 5875} \times 100

⇒ 4.255% ≈ 4.26%

Question 132

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find how much percent sum of target of Y for all years is less than the total sales of X for all years.

  1. AOption (a)

    15%

  2. BOption (b)

    20%

  3. COption (c)

    17%

  4. DOption (d)

    12%

  5. EOption (e)

    19%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

15%

Why this answer is correct

Given: Sum of target of Y for all years = 3000 + 4500 + 4000 + 5500 = Rs. 17000

Sum of sales of X for all years = 4500 + 7000 + 2500 + 6000 = Rs. 20000

Calculation: 

Percentage by which sum of target of Y for all years is less than the sum of target of Y for all years = (20000 - 17000)/20000 × 100 = 15%

Question 133

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the sum of the target for salesman Y in 2017 and for salesmen X in 2015 together and sum of the sales for salesman Z in 2014 and for salesman Y in 2015 together.

  1. AOption (a)

    21500

  2. BOption (b)

    24500

  3. COption (c)

    23500

  4. DOption (d)

    20575

  5. EOption (e)

    20500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

20500

Why this answer is correct

Given: Target for salesman Y in 2017 = 5500

Target for salesman X in 2015 = 7500

Sales for salesman Z in 2014 = 3500

Sales for salesman Y in 2015 = 4000

Calculation: 

Sum of target for salesman Y in 2017 and for salesman X in 2015 = 5500 + 7500 = 13000

Sum of sales for salesman Z in 2014 and for salesman Y in 2015 = 3500 + 4000 = 7500

∴ Required sum = 13000 + 7500 = 20500

Question 134

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the difference between the total sales of salesman Y for all years and total target of salesman Z for all years.

  1. AOption (a)

    6250

  2. BOption (b)

    5500

  3. COption (c)

    6000

  4. DOption (d)

    4500

  5. EOption (e)

    6500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6000

Why this answer is correct

Given:  Total sales of salesman Y for all years = 5000 + 4000 + 4500 + 5000 = 18500

Total target of salesman Z for all years = 4000 + 2500 + 8500 + 9500 = 24500

Calculation: 

Required difference = 24500 - 18500 = 6000

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

There are three types of toys. They can rotate their neck and hand using  chargeable battery installed in the toys.Charging percentage of battery installed in toy B is 76%. Expense for per unit charging of battery installed in toys A is Rs. 29. Energy required for rotating the 7 round of neck for A is 42 unit while for rotating 3 rounds of hand for B is 18 units. Energy required for rotating the 13  round of hand for C is 65 unit while for rotating 19 round of neck for B is 95 unit. Ratio of the percentage charging of B and C is 19 : 17.Total expense for unit charging of all the batteries is Rs. 90.

Question 135

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the percentage charging of A if percentage charging of A is 75% of percentage charging of C.

  1. AOption (a)

    49%

  2. BOption (b)

    51%

  3. COption (c)

    52%

  4. DOption (d)

    67%

  5. EOption (e)

    43%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

51%

Why this answer is correct

Given:  Percentage charging of B = 76%

Ratio of percentage charging of B and C = 19 : 17

Percentage charging of A = 75% of percentage charging of C 

Calculation:

Percentage charging of C = 76/19 × 17 = 68%

Percentage charging of A = 75/100 × 68 = 51%

Question 136

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If expense per unit charging of battery installed in toy B is Rs. 37 then find total expense for 3 round neck for A  and 7 round hand for C and 11 round neck and 5 round hand for B together.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 4509

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 4501

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 4511

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 4507

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 4503

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 4507

Why this answer is correct

Given:  Expense for per unit charging of battery installed in toy A = Rs. 29

Expense for per unit charging of battery installed in toy B = Rs. 37

Total expense for per unit charging of all the batteries = Rs. 90

Energy required for rotating the 7 round of neck for A = 42 unit

Energy required for rotating the 19 round of neck for B = 95 unit

Energy required for rotating the 13 round of hand for C = 65 unit

Calculation:

Expense for per unit charging of battery installed in toy C = 90 - 37 - 29 = Rs. 24

Energy required for rotating the 3 round of neck for A = 42/7 × 3 = 18 unit

Energy required for rotating the 11 round of neck for B = 95/19 × 11 = 55 unit

Energy required for rotating the 5 round of hand for B = 18/3 × 5 = 30 unit

Total Energy required for rotating the 11 round of neck and 5 round of hand for B = 55 + 30 = 85  

Energy required for rotating the 7 round of hand for C = 65/13 × 7 = 35 unit

Expense for 18 unit charging of battery installed in toy A = 29 × 18 = Rs. 522

Expense for 85 unit charging of battery installed in toy B = 37 × 85 = Rs. 3145

Expense for 35 unit charging of battery installed in toy C = 35 × 24 = Rs. 840

Total expense 522 + 3145 + 840 = Rs. 4507

Question 137

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find how much percentage more or less energy required for 23 neck rotation for A compare to 37 hand rotation for C.

  1. AOption (a)

    25.40%

  2. BOption (b)

    26.40%

  3. COption (c)

    24.40%

  4. DOption (d)

    23.04%

  5. EOption (e)

    29.04%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25.40%

Why this answer is correct

Given:  Energy required for rotating the 7 round of neck for A = 42 unit

Energy required for rotating the 13 round of hand for C = 65 unit

Calculation:

Energy required for rotating the 23 round of neck for A = 42/7 × 23 = 138 unit  

Energy required for rotating the 37 round of hand for C = 65/13 × 37 = 185 unit

Percentage by which the energy required for rotating the 23 round of neck for A is less than the energy required for rotating the 37 round of hand for C 

= (185 - 138)/185 × 100 = 25.40%

Question 138

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the difference between the average energy required for unit rotation of hand for all three toys and average energy required for unit neck rotation for all three toys if energy required for 23 round of neck rotation for C is 207 unit while energy required for 17 round of hand rotation for A is 136 unit.

  1. AOption (a)

    0.25

  2. BOption (b)

    0.18

  3. COption (c)

    0.72

  4. DOption (d)

    0.40

  5. EOption (e)

    0.33

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

0.33

Why this answer is correct

Given: Energy required for rotating the 7 round of neck for A = 42 unit

Energy required for rotating the 17 round of hand for A = 136 unit

Energy required for rotating the 19 round of neck for B = 95 unit

Energy required for rotating the 3 round of hand for B = 18 unit

Energy required for rotating the 23 round of neck for C = 207 unit

Energy required for rotating the 13 round of hand for C = 65 unit

Calculation: 

Energy required for unit rotation of neck for A = 6 unit

Energy required for unit rotation of hand for A = 8 unit

Energy required for unit rotation of neck for B = 5 unit

Energy required for unit rotation of hand for B = 6 unit

Energy required for unit rotation of neck for C = 9 unit

Energy required for unit rotation of hand for C = 5 unit

Total energy required for unit rotation of neck for all three toys = 6 + 5 + 9 = 20

Average energy required for unit rotation of neck for all three toys = 20/3 

Total energy required for unit rotation of hand for all three toys = 8 + 6 + 5 = 19 

Average energy required for unit rotation of hand for all three toys = 19/3

∴ Required difference = 20/3 - 19/3 = 1/3 = 0.33

Question 139

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the difference between expense for 37 unit of charging for B and 41 unit of charging for C if per unit charging expense for C is Rs. 29

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 7

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 11

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 5

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 13

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 5

Why this answer is correct

Given: Per unit charging expense for A = Rs. 29

Per unit charging expense for C = Rs. 29

Total per unit charging expense for all batteries = Rs. 90

Calculation:

Per unit charging expense for B = 90 - 29 - 29 = Rs. 32

Expense for 37 unit charging for B = 37 × 32 = Rs. 1184 

Expense for 41 unit charging for C = 41 × 29 = Rs. 1189

Difference between expense for 41 unit charging for C and expense for 37 unit charging for B = 1189 -1184 = Rs. 5

Directions: Read the diagram carefully and answer the following questions.

The following diagram shows the percentage of the number of orders and the percentage of delivery after the cancellation of orders by 5 delivery partners. Some values are missing in the diagram.

 

 

The table shows the number of delivered items by 5 delivery partners.

 

Delivery PartnersDelivered after cancellation
A-
B45
C15
D-
E-

Question 140

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the total number of cancelled and delivered orders of C is the same and the number of cancelled orders of C and E is in the ratio of 5 : 6. Then what will be the total number of orders placed in E?

  1. AOption (a)

    120

  2. BOption (b)

    180

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    72

  5. EOption (e)

    45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

90

Why this answer is correct

Given: Number of delivered orders after cancellation of C = 15

Ratio of cancelled orders of C and E  = 5 : 6

Total number of cancelled orders for C = Total number of delivered orders for C 

Percentage of delivered orders of E = 80%

Calculation: 

Number of cancelled order of C = 15

Number of cancelled order of E = 15/5 × 6 = 18

Percentage of cancelled orders of E = 20%

Total number of orders of E = 18/20 × 100 = 90

Question 141

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The total number of orders in B is 40% less than the total number of orders in D. then what will be the number of delivered orders after cancellation of orders in D?

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    75

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    45

  5. EOption (e)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

30

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Percentage of delivered orders of B  = 100%

Number of delivered orders after cancellation in B = 45

Percentage of delivered orders of D  = 40%

Total number of orders of B = 60% of total numbers of D

Calculation: 

Total numbers of orders of B = 45

Let total number of orders of D be x.

⇒ Total number of orders of B = 45 = 60% of x.

x = 75

∴ Number of delivered orders after cancellation in  D = 40% of 75 = 30

Question 142

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If total number of ordered items in C is 2 times of the orders delivered after cancellation. Then find the total number of placed items in A.

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    60

  5. EOption (e)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

60

Why this answer is correct

Given: Number of orders delivered after cancellation of C = 15

Total Number of orders of C = 2 ×  Number of orders delivered after cancellation of C 

Percentage of total orders of C = 10%

Percentage of total orders of A = 20%

Calculation:

Total Number of orders of C = 2 × 15 = 30

Total Number of orders of A = 30/10 × 20 = 60

Question 143

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If 40% of the total ordered placed in A is cancelled and the number of Delivered items in A, B and D are the same. Then find the total number of orders placed in D is what percent of the total number of orders placed in A.

  1. AOption (a)

    80

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    150

  5. EOption (e)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

150

Why this answer is correct

Given: Number of delivered orders of B = 45

Number of delivered orders of A = Number of delivered orders of D = Number of delivered orders of D = 45

Percentage of total orders of A = 20%

Percentage of cancelled orders of A = 40%

Percentage of delivered  orders of D = 40%

Calculation: 

Total number of orders of A = 45/60 × 100 = 75

Total number of orders of D = 45/40 × 100 = 112.5

Percentage of total number of orders of D with respect to total number of orders of A = 112.5/75 × 100 = 150%

Question 144

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Total number of cancelled orders in E is 40% of the total number of delivered orders in B and the number of orders delivered in A is 33.33% less than the total number of delivered orders in E. then find the average number of delivered orders in A and E.

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    80

  4. DOption (d)

    70

  5. EOption (e)

    75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60

Why this answer is correct

Given: Number of delivered orders after cancellation of B = 45

Percentage of delivered orders after cancellation of E = 80%

Total number of cancelled orders of E = 40% of total number of delivered orders of B

Total number of orders of A = 33.33% less than the total number of delivered orders after cancellation of E

Calculation: 

Total number of cancelled orders of E = 40/100 × 45 = 18

Number of delivered orders after cancellation of E = 18/20 × 80 = 72

Total number of delivered orders of A = (1- 1/3) ×  number of delivered orders after cancellation of E = 2/3 × 72 = 48

Average number of delivered orders of A and E = (48 + 72)/2 = 60

Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In village A, there are 40% females. The number of males in Village B is double of the number of males in village A. The number of males and females in village B is equal.

Question 145

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of male graduates in village B is 1200 and the number of male graduates in village A is equal to the number of male graduates in village B. Ratio of male graduates and male population of village A is 2 : 3 then find out the number of total graduate males is what percent of the total population of both the village ?

  1. AOption (a)

    25%

  2. BOption (b)

    33.33%

  3. COption (c)

    23.53%

  4. DOption (d)

    50%

  5. EOption (e)

    30%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

23.53%

Why this answer is correct

Given: Number of male graduates in village B = 1200

Number of male graduates in village A = Number of male graduates in village B = 1200

Percentage of male in village A = 60%

Percentage of female in village A = 40%

Number of male in village B = 2 × Number of male in village A

Number of female in village B = Number of male in village B   

Ratio of male graduates and male population of A = 2 : 3

Calculation:  

Number of male in village A = 1200/2 × 3 = 1800

Number of female in village A = 1200

Total population of village A = 1800 + 1200 = 3000

Number of male in village B = 2 × 1800 = 3600

Number of female in village B = 3600

Total population of village B = 3600 + 3600 = 7200

Total population of both village = 3000 + 7200 = 10200

Total number of male graduates in both village  = 1200 + 1200 = 2400

Percentage of male graduates in both village with respect to total population of both village = 2400/10200 × 100 = 23.53%

Question 146

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The total number of female graduates in village A is three times the total number of female graduates in village B and the total number of female graduates in village B is half of the male graduates in the same village. If the total number of male graduates in village B is 1200. Then find the total number of female graduates in both the villages.

  1. AOption (a)

    2800

  2. BOption (b)

    2400

  3. COption (c)

    3600

  4. DOption (d)

    3200

  5. EOption (e)

    2000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2400

Why this answer is correct

Given: Number of male graduates in village B = 1200

Number of female graduates in village B = 1/2 × Number of male graduates in village B

Number of female graduates in village A = 3 × Number of female graduates in village B

Calculation: 

Number of female graduates in village B = 1/2 × 1200 = 600

Number of female graduates in village A = 3 × 600 = 1800

Total number of female graduates in both village 600 + 1800 = 2400

Question 147

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The difference between the total number of male and female population of village A is 500. Then find the total number of female population of both the villages.

  1. AOption (a)

    4500

  2. BOption (b)

    1800

  3. COption (c)

    3500

  4. DOption (d)

    4000

  5. EOption (e)

    3000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4000

Why this answer is correct

Given: Difference between male and female population of village A = 500 

Percentage of male in village A = 60%

Percentage of female in village A = 40%

Number of male in village B = 2 × Number of male in village A

Number of female in village B = Number of male in village B   

Calculation:  

Difference between male and female population of village A =  20% of total population of village A  = 500

Number of male in village A = 500/20 × 60 = 1500

Number of female in village A = 500/20 × 40 = 1000

Number of male in village B = 2 × 1500 = 3000

Number of female in village B = 3000

Total number of female in both village = 1000 + 3000 = 4000

Question 148

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The total number of male population in both villages is what percent more or less than the total number of female population in both villages?

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    12.5%

  3. COption (c)

    15%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

  5. EOption (e)

    10%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12.5%

Why this answer is correct

Given: Percentage of male in village A = 60%

Percentage of female in village A = 40%

Number of male in village B = 2 × Number of male in village A

Number of female in village B = Number of male in village B   

Calculation:  

Let total population of village A be x.

Number of male in village A = 60% of x = 0.6x

Number of female in village A = 40% of x = 0.4x

Number of male in village B = 2 × 0.6x = 1.2x

Number of female in village B = 1.2x

Total number of male population of both village = 0.6x + 1.2x = 1.8x

Total number of female population of both village = 0.4x + 1.2x = 1.6x

∴ Desired percentage = (1.8x - 1.6x)/1.6x × 100 = 12.5%

Directions: In march, there are two offices (P and Q) in same building. Office P contains six males and four female candidates. Office Q contains four males and six female candidates. In April, some males and some females were joined in office P such that the probability of selecting males is increased by 416%4\frac{1}{6}\% .

Question 149

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In April, If some males and some females were joined in office P such that the probability of choosing females is increased by 416%4\frac{1}{6}\% . Now, one candidate is selected at random and a selected candidate is a male,find the probability that it is selected from office P.

  1. AOption (a)

    7/12

  2. BOption (b)

    26/69

  3. COption (c)

    35/59

  4. DOption (d)

    43/79

  5. EOption (e)

    13/17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

35/59

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial Office P female probability = 4/10 = 40%.

New female probability = 40% + (4(1/6)% of 40%) = 40% + 1.66% = 41.66% → 5/12.

New Ratio in P (M:F) = (12 − 5) : 5 = 7 : 5. Scaling to 24 total candidates → 14 Males, 10 Females.

Using Baye's Theorem logic: P(P|Male) = P(Male in P) ÷ [P(Male in P) + P(Male in Q)]

⇒ P = (14/24) ÷ (14/24 + 4/10) = (7/12) ÷ (7/12 + 2/5) = (35/60) ÷ [(35+24)/60] = 35/59.

∴ The correct answer is 35/59.

Alternate Method

Given: Office P (Initially): 6 Males, 4 Females. Office Q: 4 Males, 6 Females. Female probability in P increases by 4(1/6)%.

Formula Used: P(A|B) = [P(A) × P(B|A)] / [P(A) × P(B|A) + P(B) × P(B|B)]

⇒ Initial P(Female in P) = 4/10 = 2/5

⇒ Percentage Increase = 25/6 %

⇒ New P(Female in P) = 2/5 × (1 + 25/600) = 2/5 × (625/600) = 2/5 × 25/24 = 5/12

⇒ In Office P: Females = 5 units, Total = 12 units. Since Males + Females joined, let Total = 24. Then Females = 10, Males = 14.

⇒ Let E1 = Picking Office P, E2 = Picking Office Q, M = Picking a Male.

⇒ P(E1) = 1/2, P(E2) = 1/2

⇒ P(M|E1) = 14/24 = 7/12

⇒ P(M|E2) = 4/10 = 2/5

⇒ P(E1|M) = [(1/2) × (7/12)] / [(1/2) × (7/12) + (1/2) × (2/5)]

⇒ P(E1|M) = (7/12) / (7/12 + 2/5) = (7/12) / (59/60) = (7/12) × (60/59) = 35/59

∴ The correct answer is 35/59.

Additional Information

Baye's Theorem

It describes the probability of an event based on prior knowledge of conditions that might be related to the event. P(A|B) = [P(B|A)P(A)] / P(B).

Percentage Increase in Probability

When a probability 'p' increases by k%, the new probability is p × (1 + k/100). Ensure the final value does not exceed 1.

Total Probability Rule

The denominator in Baye's theorem represents the total probability of the observed event occurring across all possible mutually exclusive scenarios.

Question 150

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In march, One person is choose random from office P and placed in office Q. Then one person is transferred at random from office Q to office P. If one person is now choosen at random from office P, find the probability that he was male.

  1. AOption (a)

    32/65

  2. BOption (b)

    22/57

  3. COption (c)

    23/55

  4. DOption (d)

    56/65

  5. EOption (e)

    32/55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

32/55

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total cases for Office P transition: (M→M, M→F, F→M, F→F).

P(M) = [P(Mout)×P(Min)×P(Mfinal)] + [P(Mout)×P(Fin)×P(Mfinal)] + [P(Fout)×P(Min)×P(Mfinal)] + [P(Fout)×P(Fin)×P(Mfinal)]

P(M) = [(6/10×5/11×6/10) + (6/10×6/11×5/10) + (4/10×4/11×7/10) + (4/10×7/11×6/10)]

P(M) = (180 + 180 + 112 + 168) / 1100 = 640 / 1100 = 32/55.

∴ The correct answer is 32/55.

Alternate Method

Given:

Office P: 6 Males, 4 Females (Total = 10)

Office Q: 4 Males, 6 Females (Total = 10)

Let Emm be Male from P to Q, then Male from Q to P.

Let Emf be Male from P to Q, then Female from Q to P.

Let Efm be Female from P to Q, then Male from Q to P.

Let Eff be Female from P to Q, then Female from Q to P.

Calculations:

⇒ P(Emm) = (6/10) × (5/11) = 30/110

⇒ P(Emf) = (6/10) × (6/11) = 36/110

⇒ P(Efm) = (4/10) × (4/11) = 16/110

⇒ P(Eff) = (4/10) × (7/11) = 28/110

Probability of selecting Male from P after these cases:

⇒ P(X/Emm) = 6/10 (Composition stays 6M, 4F)

⇒ P(X/Emf) = 5/10 (Composition becomes 5M, 5F)

⇒ P(X/Efm) = 7/10 (Composition becomes 7M, 3F)

⇒ P(X/Eff) = 6/10 (Composition stays 6M, 4F)

⇒ Total P(X) = (30/110 × 6/10) + (36/110 × 5/10) + (16/110 × 7/10) + (28/110 × 6/10)

⇒ P(X) = (180 + 180 + 112 + 168) / 1100 = 640 / 1100 = 32/55

∴ The correct answer is 32/55.

Additional Information

Law of Total Probability

It relates marginal probabilities to conditional probabilities. P(A) = Σ P(A|Bi)P(Bi) for a partition Bi.

Independent Events

Two events are independent if the occurrence of one does not affect the probability of the other: P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B).

Baye's Theorem

Determines the probability of an event based on prior knowledge: P(A|B) = [P(B|A)P(A)] / P(B).

Direction: The table given below shows the number of applicants who have applied for the exam at various centers as a percentage of the total number of applicants. The table shows the percentage of present applicants as well as qualified applicants as a percentage of present applicants of each center. The total number of applicants is 1500000.

Exam centerTotal ApplicantsPresent ApplicantPass Applicants
A24%55%22%
B16%40%15%
C25%62%23%
D20%43%33%
E15%45%18%

Question 151

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ratio of total applicants at exam center D and absent applicants at exam center E?

  1. AOption (a)

    33 ∶ 80

  2. BOption (b)

    80 ∶ 33

  3. COption (c)

    81 ∶ 32

  4. DOption (d)

    32 ∶ 81

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

80 ∶ 33

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. (80 ∶ 33).

Total applicants at exam center D = 1500000 × 20/100 = 300000

Absent applicants at exam center E =1500000×15100×55100=123750= 1500000 \times \frac{{15}}{{100}} \times \frac{{55}}{{100}} = 123750

The ratio of total applicants at exam center D and absent applicants at exam center E = 300000 ∶ 123750

⇒ 80 ∶ 33

∴ The ratio of total applicants at exam center C and absent applicants at exam center E is (80 ∶ 33).

Short Method:

Total applicants at exam center D : absent applicants at exam center E

⇒1500000×20100:1500000×15100×55100\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{20}}{{100}}:1500000 \times \frac{{15}}{{100}} \times \frac{{55}}{{100}}

⇒ 80 : 33

Question 152

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the total number of absent applicants at exam centers B, C and D?

  1. AOption (a)

    457300

  2. BOption (b)

    457400

  3. COption (c)

    457500

  4. DOption (d)

    457600

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

457500

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 457500.

Absent applicants at exam center B = (100% - 40%) of total applicants at exam center B

⇒1500000×16100×60100=144000\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{16}}{{100}} \times \frac{{60}}{{100}} = 144000

Absent applicants at exam center C = (100% - 62%) of total applicants at exam center C

⇒1500000×25100×38100=142500\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{25}}{{100}} \times \frac{{38}}{{100}} = 142500

Absent applicants at exam center D = (100% - 43%) of total applicants at exam center D

⇒1500000×20100×57100=171000\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{20}}{{100}} \times \frac{{57}}{{100}} = 171000

The total number of absent applicants at exam center B, C and D = 144000 + 142500 + 171000 = 457500

∴ The total number of absent applicants at exam center B, C and D are 457500.

Question 153

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ratio of absent applicants at exam center A and passed applicants at exam center B?

  1. AOption (a)

    23 : 2

  2. BOption (b)

    11 ∶ 2

  3. COption (c)

    16 ∶ 5

  4. DOption (d)

    45 : 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

45 : 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. (45 : 4).

Absent applicants at exam center A = (100% - 55%) of the total applicants at exam center A

⇒1500000×45100×24100=162000\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{45}}{{100}} \times \frac{{24}}{{100}} = 162000

Passed applicants at exam center B =1500000×16100×40100×15100=14400= 1500000 \times \frac{{16}}{{100}} \times \frac{{40}}{{100}} \times \frac{{15}}{{100}}= 14400

The ratio of absent applicants at exam center A and passed applicants at exam center B = 162000 ∶ 14400

⇒ 45 : 4

∴ The ratio of absent applicants at exam center A and passed applicants at exam center B is (45 : 4).

Short Method:

absent applicant at exam center A : Passed applicants at exam center B

⇒ 1500000×45100×24100:1500000×16100×40100×151001500000 \times \frac{{45}}{{100}} \times \frac{{24}}{{100}}:1500000 \times \frac{{16}}{{100}} \times \frac{{40}}{{100}} \times \frac{{15}}{{100}}

⇒ 45 : 4

Question 154

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the total number of failed applicants at exam centers A, C and E.

  1. AOption (a)

    445320

  2. BOption (b)

    416490

  3. COption (c)

    413560

  4. DOption (d)

    423580

  5. EOption (e)

    435690

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

416490

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 416490.

Failed applicants at exam center A = (100 % – 22%) of total applicants at exam center A

⇒1500000×24100×78100×55100=154440\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{24}}{{100}} \times \frac{78}{100}\times \frac{55}{100} = 154440

Failed applicants at exam center C = (100 % – 23%) of total applicants at exam center C

⇒1500000×25100×77100×62100=179025\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{25}}{{100}} \times \frac{{77}}{{100}}\times\frac{62}{100} = 179025

Failed applicants at exam center E = (100 % – 18%) of total applicants at exam center E

⇒1500000×15100×82100×45100=83025\Rightarrow 1500000 \times \frac{{15}}{{100}} \times \frac{{82}}{{100}}\times \frac{45}{100} = 83025

The total number of failed applicants at exam center A, C and E = 154440 + 179025 + 83025 = 416490

∴ The total number of failed applicants at exam center A, C and E are 416490.

Question 155

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the ratio of present applicants at exam center A and the passed applicants at exam center B and E together?

  1. AOption (a)

    21 ∶ 44

  2. BOption (b)

    44 ∶ 21

  3. COption (c)

    176 : 29

  4. DOption (d)

    17 ∶ 44

  5. EOption (e)

    33:23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

176 : 29

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Present applicants at exam center A = 1500000 × 24% × 55%

⇒ 198,000

Passed applicants at exam center B = 1500000 × 16% × 40% × 15%

⇒ 14,400

Passed applicants at exam center E = 1500000 × 15% × 45% × 18%

⇒ 18,225

Passed applicants at exam center B and E together = 14400 + 18225

⇒ 32,625

Required ratio = 198000 ∶ 32625

⇒ 176 : 29 

∴ Required ratio is 176 : 29

155 questions in the full paper