General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Manohar Malgonkar.

Key Points

• A Bend in the Ganges, published in 1964, is one of the most significant historical novels written by Manohar Malgonkar, capturing the turbulent decades leading up to India's independence.
• The novel explores the ideological conflict between Gandhian non-violence and revolutionary extremism, depicted through the contrasting lives of two protagonists, Gian Talwar and Debi-dayal.
• It provides a vivid historical account of major events, including the Civil Disobedience Movement, the Second World War, and the harrowing communal violence that accompanied the Partition of India in 1947.
• The narrative is noted for its realistic portrayal of the Punjab riots and the psychological impact of displacement and betrayal during the birth of the two nations, India and Pakistan.
• Manohar Malgonkar used his background as a former army officer and big-game hunter to infuse the story with authentic detail regarding military life and the socio-political landscape of the British Raj.

 Additional Information

• Bhabani Bhattacharya:
• An eminent Indian novelist known for So Many Hungers! (1947), which highlights the Bengal Famine of 1943 and the Quit India Movement.
• B. Rajan:
• A diplomat and scholar famous for his novel The Dark Dancer (1958), which explores the themes of cultural identity and the Partition through the eyes of an overseas-educated Indian.
• Shashi Deshpande:
• A contemporary writer known for focusing on the inner world of Indian women and family dynamics; her notable work That Long Silence won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1990.
• Manohar Malgonkar's Other Works:
• His literary repertoire includes Distant Drum (1960), The Princes (1963), and The Devil's Wind (1972), which is a historical novel based on the life of Nana Saheb during the Revolt of 1857.

The correct answer is Nidhi Tiwari.

Key Points

• On March 29, 2025, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), chaired by the Prime Minister, approved the appointment of Nidhi Tiwari as the Private Secretary (PS) to the Prime Minister of India.
• Nidhi Tiwari is a 2014-batch officer of the Indian Foreign Service (IFS). Her appointment marks the continued practice of selecting high-performing diplomats to manage the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) coordination and international outreach.
• She replaced the outgoing officers in the PMO team, taking over responsibilities at the Deputy Secretary level. Her tenure is designated for a period of five years or until further orders, functioning on a co-terminus basis with the Prime Minister.
• The role of the Private Secretary is critical for the management of the Prime Minister’s official engagements, processing of sensitive files, and maintaining a bridge between the PMO and other central ministries and departments.
• The selection process for this position is highly rigorous, conducted by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) and final approval by the ACC, typically drawing from the IAS or IFS cadres.

 Additional Information

• Structure of the Prime Minister's Office (PMO):
• The PMO is a top-tier administrative body that provides secretarial assistance to the Prime Minister and is headed by the Principal Secretary to the PM.
• It includes Advisors, Additional Secretaries, Joint Secretaries, and Private Secretaries who handle specific sectors such as National Security, Foreign Policy, and Economic Affairs.
• The Private Secretary specifically manages the Prime Minister's personal staff, scheduling, and immediate administrative needs.
• The office was originally known as the Prime Minister's Secretariat until 1977, when it was renamed the Prime Minister's Office during the Morarji Desai administration.

The correct answer is Vikrant Pandey.

Key Points

• Vikrant Pandey is a distinguished 2005-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer belonging to the Gujarat cadre.
• In May 2025, he was officially appointed to the critical position of Secretary to the Chief Minister of Gujarat, joining the core administrative team in the Chief Minister's Office (CMO).
• Prior to this high-profile assignment, Pandey served as the Commissioner of Relief and the Director of Census Operations for Gujarat, demonstrating his versatility in both crisis management and data administration.
• He has extensive field experience, having served as the District Collector and District Magistrate of major economic hubs including Ahmedabad, Surat, and Rajkot, where he focused on urban governance and infrastructure development.
• In his capacity as Secretary to the CM, he is responsible for overseeing the implementation of flagship state programs, coordinating with various departments for policy consistency, and managing the Chief Minister's strategic priorities.

 Additional Information

• Other Notable IAS Officers in Gujarat:
• Avantika Aulakh: A 2003-batch IAS officer who has held significant portfolios, including Secretary (Health and Family Welfare) and Secretary (Urban Development). She is recognized for her role in improving public health infrastructure and urban planning across the state.
• K.K. Nirala: A 2005-batch IAS officer who has served as the Commissioner of Higher Education and the Collector of Ahmedabad. He has been instrumental in driving digital transformation in education and land revenue management.
• Administrative Hierarchy in CMO: The Chief Minister's Office typically comprises a hierarchical structure including a Principal Secretary, Additional Chief Secretary, and multiple Secretaries or Joint Secretaries who act as a bridge between the political executive and the bureaucracy to ensure effective governance.

The correct answer is R.A. Chandra Sekhar.

Key Points

• R.A. Chandra Sekhar, a distinguished 1991-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of the Kerala cadre, was appointed to the prestigious post of Secretary (Security) in the Cabinet Secretariat on 14^th June 2025.
• The appointment was approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), which is the highest authority for senior civil service and police appointments in India.
• Prior to this assignment, he served as the Additional Director in the Intelligence Bureau (IB), where he managed critical internal security and intelligence portfolios.
• The Secretary (Security) is the administrative head of the Special Protection Group (SPG), the elite force responsible for providing proximate security to the Prime Minister of India.
• His role involves overseeing the protection of high-risk individuals and maintaining the safety protocols of the Cabinet Secretariat, which reports directly to the Prime Minister.

 Additional Information

• Hari Nath Mishra:
• He is a 1991-batch IPS officer from the Bihar cadre.
• He was appointed as the Secretary of the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS), which advises the Prime Minister on matters of national security and strategic interest.
• Manoj Govil:
• A 1991-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Madhya Pradesh cadre.
• He has served in vital economic roles, including as the Secretary in the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and later in the Department of Expenditure under the Ministry of Finance.
• Parag Jain:
• A senior bureaucrat who has served as Additional Secretary in the Cabinet Secretariat.
• He has been instrumental in coordinating inter-ministerial policies and administrative reforms.

The correct answer is Christopher Luxon.

Key Points

• In March 2025, the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, undertook a high-level state visit to New Zealand to enhance bilateral cooperation and strategic engagement in the Indo-Pacific region.
• Christopher Luxon, who assumed office as the Prime Minister of New Zealand in November 2023, met with the President to discuss a wide array of mutual interests including economic trade, education, and green technology.
• The discussions specifically highlighted the potential for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership, focusing on reducing trade barriers in the agricultural and tech sectors.
• The meeting also addressed maritime security and shared democratic values, reinforcing the diplomatic roadmap established between New Delhi and Wellington.
• Both leaders emphasized the importance of the Indian diaspora, which comprises approximately 5 percent of the New Zealand population, as a vital link for cultural and economic exchange.

 Additional Information

• Jacinda Ardern:
• Served as the 40^th Prime Minister of New Zealand from 2017 to January 2023.
• She resigned before the 2025 visit took place and was succeeded by Chris Hipkins before the 2023 General Election.
• Winston Peters:
• The leader of the New Zealand First party and has served as the Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Foreign Affairs.
• While a key figure in the coalition government, the primary meeting for a visiting Head of State is conducted with the Head of Government (Prime Minister).
• Helen Clark:
• Served as the Prime Minister for nine years (1999–2008) and is a former administrator of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

The correct answer is - Reabsorption

Key Points

• Peritubular Capillaries
• The Peritubular Capillaries are a network of tiny blood vessels that travel alongside the Nephrons in the kidney.
• Their primary function is Reabsorption, which involves taking back useful substances such as Water, Glucose, Amino Acids, and Ions from the renal tubules into the bloodstream.
• This process ensures that essential nutrients and the correct volume of water are retained in the body rather than being excreted in urine.
• They also play a role in Tubular Secretion, where certain waste products like hydrogen ions and potassium are moved from the blood into the tubule to be excreted.

Additional Information

• The Three Processes of Urine Formation
• Glomerular Filtration: This is the first step where blood is filtered under pressure in the Glomerulus. This process creates the filtrate.
• Tubular Reabsorption: As the filtrate moves through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle, and Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT), the Peritubular Capillaries reabsorb about 99% of the water and most solutes.
• Tubular Secretion: This is the final step where additional wastes are added to the filtrate from the peritubular capillaries before it becomes urine.
• Origin and Structure
• Peritubular capillaries arise from the Efferent Arteriole, which carries blood away from the glomerulus.
• In juxtamedullary nephrons, these capillaries form specialized long, straight loops called the Vasa Recta, which descend into the renal medulla to help concentrate urine.
• Terminology
• Filtration: Occurs specifically at the renal corpuscle (Glomerulus + Bowman’s capsule).
• Excretion: The final removal of waste (urine) from the body via the collecting ducts and bladder.
• Assimilation: This is a process related to Digestion, referring to the movement of digested food molecules into the cells of the body.

The correct answer is - Renal pelvis

Key Points

• Renal Pelvis
• The collecting ducts of several nephrons converge and eventually drain urine into the Renal Pelvis via the papillary ducts (Ducts of Bellini) and calyces.
• The renal pelvis is a large funnel-shaped cavity located at the inner core of the kidney.
• Its primary function is to act as a reservoir, collecting urine from the major and minor calyces before it is channeled into the ureter.
• Path of Urine Flow
• Urine passes from the distal convoluted tubule into the collecting duct.
• From the collecting ducts, it flows through the renal pyramids to the renal papillae.
• It then enters the minor calyces, followed by the major calyces, and finally pools in the renal pelvis.

Additional Information

• Nephron Components
• Glomerulus: A network of capillaries where the filtration of blood occurs.
• Bowman's Capsule: A double-walled cup-like structure that surrounds the glomerulus and collects the glomerular filtrate.
• Ureter: A muscular tube that transports urine from the renal pelvis of the kidney to the urinary bladder.
• Function of the Kidney
• The kidney maintains homeostasis by regulating blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and red blood cell production.
• The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney, responsible for removing waste products from the blood.

The correct answer is 1991.

Key Points

• India launched its major New Economic Policy (NEP) in 1991 to address a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, during which the nation's foreign exchange reserves were nearly exhausted.
• The policy was introduced on July 24, 1991, by the government of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, with Dr. Manmohan Singh serving as the Finance Minister.
• The reforms moved the Indian economy from a socialist-inspired, highly regulated License Raj system toward a market-oriented economy known as the LPG Model.
• Liberalization aimed to end state control and open up sectors to private competition by abolishing industrial licensing for most industries.
• Privatization focused on reducing the government's role in business by selling equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and encouraging private ownership.
• Globalization involved integrating India with the world economy through the reduction of import duties, removal of quantitative restrictions on trade, and facilitating Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

 Additional Information

• The 1991 reforms were part of a Structural Adjustment Program mandated by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank in exchange for a $7 billion emergency loan.
• Key impacts of the policy:
• Significant increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rates in the following decades.
• The removal of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act thresholds to allow businesses to expand freely.
• Devaluation of the Indian Rupee to boost exports and stabilize the exchange rate.
• Opening of the Banking Sector and Financial Markets to private and foreign players, leading to modernized financial services.
• Historical context of other dates:
• While 1985 saw early attempts at deregulation under the Rajiv Gandhi administration, it lacked the comprehensive structural overhaul of 1991.
• In 1995, India became a founding member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), cementing the globalization process initiated in 1991$.

The correct answer is Women, SC, and ST categories.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2025-26 introduced a specialized initiative designed to scale up the success of the Stand Up India scheme, specifically focusing on nurturing a new generation of first-time entrepreneurs.
• This initiative is strategically aligned with the government's commitment to financial inclusion and social justice, ensuring that the benefits of the credit ecosystem reach the most marginalized sections of society.
• The scheme targets individuals belonging to the Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), and Women categories, providing them with the necessary institutional credit to start greenfield enterprises.
• By focusing on these specific demographics, the budget aims to bridge the entrepreneurial gap and empower first-generation business owners in the manufacturing, services, and trading sectors.
• The initiative mandates financial institutions to prioritize lending to these categories, mirroring the core pillar of the Stand Up India framework which requires bank branches to support at least one SC/ST and one woman borrower.

 Additional Information

• Stand Up India Scheme:
• Launched in April 2016, it is administered by the Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance.
• It provides bank loans ranging from 10 lakh to 1 crore for setting up new ventures.
• The scheme is a critical component of the Startup India ecosystem, focusing specifically on diversity and gender parity in business ownership.
• Loans under this scheme are extended by Scheduled Commercial Banks and are often covered by the Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Stand-Up India (CGFSI).
• Viksit Bharat Vision:
• The emphasis on Women, SC, and ST entrepreneurship in the 2025-26 Budget is a step toward the Viksit Bharat @2047 goal, promoting "Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas."
• These measures are intended to strengthen the MSME sector, which contributes significantly to India's GDP and employment.

The correct answer is SPM-NIWAS under Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Key Points

• A five-day specialized training programme focusing on the Operation & Management of Rural Water Supply Schemes was conducted in February 2025.
• The training was organized by the Syama Prasad Mookerjee National Institute of Water and Sanitation (SPM-NIWAS), which is an apex autonomous body under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• The venue for this capacity-building exercise was the SPM-NIWAS campus located in Joka, Kolkata, West Bengal.
• The primary objective of the programme was to equip Level-2 officials, such as Executive Engineers and Assistant Engineers from various states, with advanced skills for the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM).
• Key topics discussed included preventive maintenance, water quality monitoring, community-led management, and the sustainability of rural water assets to ensure Har Ghar Jal.

 Additional Information

• SPM-NIWAS:
• It serves as the premier institute for training, education, and research in the Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene (WASH) sector in India.
• The institute plays a vital role in providing technical support for the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS).
• Ministry of Jal Shakti:
• Formed in May 2019, it focuses on integrated water resource management and the provision of safe drinking water.
• The ministry oversees the Jal Jeevan Mission, which aims to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to all rural households by ensuring a supply of 55 litres of water per capita per day.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.

The correct answer is 2 children, up to 25 years.

Key Points

• The Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 (EPS-95) is a social security scheme administered by the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) designed to provide survivors' and retirement benefits to workers in the organized sector.
• Under the provisions of the scheme, the Child Pension is a benefit extended to the surviving children of a deceased member who was either in pensionable service or had already started receiving a pension.
• The scheme mandates that the pension is payable to a maximum of two children simultaneously, starting from the eldest to the youngest.
• The eligibility for receiving this monthly pension continues until the child reaches the age of 25 years, after which the benefit ceases for that individual.
• The monthly rate for the children's pension is generally calculated as 25% of the amount of the Widow/Widower Pension, subject to a minimum monthly amount prescribed by the Government of India.

 Additional Information

• Special Provisions for Disabled Children:
• If a child is suffering from a total and permanent disability, the pension is payable for the entire life of the child, irrespective of the age limit or the number of other children receiving the pension.
• Orphan Pension Details:
• In the event of the death of both the member and the spouse, the children are eligible for an Orphan Pension, which is 75% of the amount of the widow pension.
• Minimum Service Requirement:
• For the family to receive survivor benefits in the event of a member's death while in service, the member must have completed at least one month of contribution to the Employees' Pension Fund.

The correct answer is Venkat Mukhi Swami.

Key Points

• Venkat Mukhi Swami, widely known as Venkatamakhin, is hailed as the grand theorist of Carnatic music for providing the mathematical and logical foundation of the genre.
• He was a 17^th-century polymath and the son of Govinda Dikshita, a renowned minister in the court of the Thanjavur Nayaks in Tamil Nadu.
• His monumental work, the Chaturdandi Prakashika (written around 1660), introduced the revolutionary 72 Melakarta scheme, which classifies parent ragas based on the permutations of the seven musical notes.
• This Melakarta system remains the bedrock of modern South Indian classical music, allowing for the systematic categorization of thousands of derivative (Janya) ragas.
• The term Chaturdandi refers to the four specific pillars of musical performance he codified: Gita, Alapa, Thaya, and Prabandha, which structured the presentation of music during his era.

 Additional Information

• While Venkat Mukhi Swami provided the theory, the Trinity of Carnatic Music (18^th-19^th century) popularized the art through divine compositions:
• Thyagaraja: Famous for his soul-stirring Kritis in Telugu, he is the primary architect of the Ghanaraga Pancharatna and focused on the Bhakti (devotion) toward Lord Rama.
• Muthuswami Dikshitar: Known for his intellectual Sanskrit compositions, he followed the Asampurna Mela tradition, which was a slightly modified version of Venkatamakhin's theoretical framework.
• Shyama Shastri: The oldest of the Trinity, celebrated for his mastery over Laya (rhythm) and his intricate Swarajatis dedicated to Goddess Kamakshi of Kanchipuram.
• The 72 Melakarta system is divided into two sets of 36: the Suddha Madhyama and Prati Madhyama ragas, a distinction that remains fundamental in current Carnatic pedagogy.

The correct answer is Kandla (Deendayal Port).

Key Points

• In 2024, India reached a significant milestone in its energy transition by commissioning its first megawatt-scale, port-based green hydrogen plant at the Deendayal Port in Kandla, Gujarat.
• The project is a collaborative effort aimed at integrating renewable energy with maritime infrastructure to facilitate the production of clean fuels for domestic use and international export.
• The plant utilizes Electrolyzer technology to produce hydrogen using electricity generated from Solar or Wind power, ensuring that the entire lifecycle of the fuel remains carbon-neutral.
• This development aligns with the Harit Sagar guidelines, which focus on Green Port initiatives to reduce the carbon footprint of India's logistics and shipping sectors.
• The Deendayal Port Authority (DPA) has earmarked land and resources to transform the region into a Green Hydrogen Hub, leveraging its strategic location near the Gulf of Kutch.

 Additional Information

• National Green Hydrogen Mission:
• Launched by the Government of India in 2023 with an initial outlay of 19,744 crore.
• Targets the development of a production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per annum by 2030.
• It aims to make India a leading producer and supplier of Green Hydrogen globally, reducing dependency on imported fossil fuels.
• Strategic Hydrogen Hubs:
• Apart from Kandla, the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways has identified Paradip Port in Odisha and V.O. Chidambaranar Port in Tamil Nadu as key locations for hydrogen production.
• JNPT (Mumbai) is another major port focusing on smart port technologies and automation, though Kandla took the lead in the megawatt-scale green hydrogen commissioning.
• Green Hydrogen vs. Other Variants:
• Green Hydrogen is produced via water electrolysis using 100% renewable energy.
• Grey Hydrogen is derived from Natural Gas (methane) through Steam Methane Reforming (SMR), releasing significant CO2.
• Blue Hydrogen involves SMR but incorporates Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) to mitigate environmental impact.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• The Brahmaputra river system is the primary driver of annual flooding in the state of Assam, as it passes through a narrow valley that is roughly 80 kilometers wide and 1,000 kilometers long.
• This river originates from the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailas range near Mansarovar Lake and flows eastward through Tibet as the Yarlung Tsangpo before entering India.
• Upon entering Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang or Dihang, it joins the Dibang and Lohit rivers to form the main Brahmaputra in the plains of Assam.
• The region receives heavy rainfall during the Southwest Monsoon (June to September), causing the river to carry massive volumes of water and sediment, which leads to siltation and frequent bank erosion.
• The Brahmaputra is known as a braided river throughout most of its course in Assam, creating numerous river islands like Majuli, which are highly susceptible to submergence.

 Additional Information

• Ganga:
• It is the largest river basin in India, flowing through states like Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal.
• It does not flow through Assam, but it merges with the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh to form the Padma and finally the Meghna.
• Godavari:
• Known as the Dakshina Ganga or Vriddha Ganga, it is the largest river in Peninsular India.
• It originates at Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flows through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
• Narmada:
• It is a major west-flowing river that originates from the Amarkantak plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
• It flows through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, draining into the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Khambhat.

The correct answer is Dravida.

Key Points

• The Dravida style of architecture is the distinct temple building tradition that originated and flourished in South India, primarily under the patronage of the Pallava, Chola, Pandya, Vijayanagara, and Nayaka dynasties.
• A defining feature of this style is the Vimana, a pyramidal tower consisting of several stories (talas) that decrease in size as they rise, situated directly over the Garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum).
• Unlike Northern styles, Dravidian temples are enclosed within a compound wall, featuring massive, ornate entrance gateways known as Gopurams, which often dominate the temple skyline.
• The Shikhara in Dravida architecture refers specifically to the crowning element at the top of the Vimana, which is typically shaped like a small dome or an octagonal cupola (stupika).
• The Chola period marked the peak of this style, evidenced by the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, which features a 13-story Vimana reaching a height of nearly 66 meters.
• Architectural elements like the Mandapa (pillared hall) and the presence of a temple tank (Kalyani or Pushkarni) are integral components of the temple complex layout.

 Additional Information

• Nagara and Vesara Styles:
• Nagara Style: The architectural style prevalent in North India, characterized by a curvilinear tower called a Shikhara and the absence of large compound walls or Gopurams.
• Vesara Style: A hybrid style that emerged in the Deccan region (under the Chalukyas and Hoysalas), blending the features of both Nagara and Dravida traditions.
• Other Terms:
• Arsha: Refers to the Arsha Vivaha, one of the eight forms of marriage described in the Manusmriti, involving the groom giving a cow and a bull to the bride's father.
• Mandir: A generic Sanskrit word for a Hindu temple, which is used broadly across all regional styles including Nagara and Dravida.
• Purna: Commonly refers to the Purna-Kalasha or Purna-Ghat, an auspicious symbol representing abundance and life, frequently used as a decorative motif in Indian temple pillars.

The correct answer is Bhimbetka.

Key Points

• The Bhimbetka Rock Shelters are an archaeological site located in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh, situated within the foothills of the Vindhya Range.
• It is renowned for housing some of the oldest known prehistoric rock paintings in India, with evidence suggesting continuous human habitation from the Upper Paleolithic through the Mesolithic periods.
• The site comprises more than 700 rock shelters, and approximately 400 of these contain paintings that utilize natural pigments like red and white ochre to depict animals, hunting scenes, and communal dances.
• This site was discovered in 1957 by the famous Indian archaeologist Dr. Vishnu Shridhar Wakankar, who recognized its prehistoric significance.
• Due to its exceptional cultural and historical value as a record of early human life, it was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2003.

 Additional Information

• Ellora:
• Located in Maharashtra, it consists of 34 monasteries and temples carved into Basalt cliffs.
• It features a mix of Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain monuments dating from 600 to 1000 CE.
• Ajanta:
• Situated in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, it contains 30 Buddhist cave monuments.
• Known for its exquisite fresco paintings and sculptures representing Buddhist religious art and Jataka tales.
• Konark:
• Located in Odisha, the Sun Temple was built in the 13^th century by King Narasimhadeva I.
• Designed as a massive ornamental chariot for the Sun God, it is a masterpiece of Kalinga architecture.

The correct answer is Bhagat Singh, Ashfaqullah Khan, Chandra Shekhar Azad.

Key Points

• Durgawati Devi, widely known as Durga Bhabhi, was a towering figure in the Indian armed revolution and an active member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• She exercised a profound influence on Bhagat Singh, particularly after the 1928 assassination of John Saunders. She famously posed as his wife to help him escape from Lahore to Calcutta, evading the massive British police dragnet.
• As the wife of revolutionary Bhagwati Charan Vohra, she served as a bridge between various leaders of the HSRA, including Chandra Shekhar Azad and Ashfaqullah Khan, often coordinating logistics and providing shelter.
• She was a key participant in the planning of several revolutionary acts and was involved in the attempt to assassinate Lord Hailey, the former Governor of Punjab, in 1930.
• Her courage and commitment made her a central figure among the HSRA cadres, earning her the title 'The Agni of India' for her role in the freedom struggle.

 Additional Information

• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA):
• Formed in 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi, the HSRA aimed to establish a federal republic of the United States of India through an armed revolution.
• Key members included Sukhdev, Rajguru, and Batukeshwar Dutt, alongside Bhagat Singh and Azad.
• The Philosophy of the Bomb:
• This famous revolutionary document was authored by Bhagwati Charan Vohra (Durga Bhabhi's husband) as a response to Mahatma Gandhi's article 'The Cult of the Bomb'.
• Lal-Bal-Pal (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal):
• These were extremist leaders of the Indian National Congress who advocated for Swadeshi and Boycott during the early 1900s, distinct from the later socialist-revolutionary phase of Durga Bhabhi.
• Surya Sen and the Bengal Revolutionaries:
• Surya Sen, known as Master Da, led the Chittagong Armoury Raid in 1930 alongside Ganesh Ghosh, representing the revolutionary movement in Bengal.

The correct answer is Afterlives.

Key Points

• Afterlives, published in 2020, is a profound historical novel that examines the brutal legacy of German colonial rule in East Africa, specifically focusing on the early 20^th century in what is now Tanzania.
• The narrative explores the Schutztruppe (colonial troops) and the Askari soldiers, detailing how the violence of the Maji Maji Rebellion and World War I disrupted indigenous societies and personal identities.
• The author, Abdulrazak Gurnah, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2021 for his uncompromising and compassionate penetration of the effects of colonialism and the fate of the refugee in the gulf between cultures and continents.
• The novel highlights themes of displacement, memory, and the enduring psychological trauma inflicted by imperialism on colonized populations across generations.

 Additional Information

• Tomb of Sand
• Author: Written by Geetanjali Shree and translated into English by Daisy Rockwell.
• Achievement: It became the first Hindi novel to win the International Booker Prize in 2022.
• Theme: It deals with an 80-year-old woman's journey to Pakistan, confronting the trauma of the 1947 Partition.
• The Paradise of Food
• Author: Written by Khalid Jawed and translated by Baran Farooqi.
• Achievement: This novel won the JCB Prize for Literature in 2022.
• Context: It is a translation of the Urdu work Ne'mat Khana, following the story of a middle-class Muslim family over fifty years.
• Requiem in Raga Janki
• Author: Written by Neelum Saran Gour.
• Subject: It is a fictionalized biography of Janki Bai Illahabadi, a famous Hindustani classical singer of the early 20^th century.
• Award: The author received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2023 for this work.

The correct answer is Lord Hastings.

Key Points

• Lord Hastings, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1813 to 1823, was known for his relatively liberal stance toward the press compared to his predecessors.
• In 1818, he officially abolished the pre-censorship of newspapers, which had been a mandatory requirement under the Censorship of Press Act, 1799.
• The Censorship of Press Act, 1799, enacted by Lord Wellesley, forced editors to submit all material to the government for scrutiny before publication to prevent the spread of information that could harm British interests during wartime.
• By relaxing these laws, Lord Hastings encouraged the growth of independent journalism, leading to the birth of many influential vernacular newspapers and journals in India.
• Although pre-censorship was removed, the British government still expected editors to follow certain guidelines to avoid sedition or content that undermined the authority of the East India Company.

 Additional Information

• Lord Wellesley:
• He was the Governor-General who introduced the Censorship of Press Act in 1799 to control news during the Napoleonic Wars.
• His regulations were aimed at preventing the French from gaining intelligence and suppressing internal criticism of his administration.
• Charles Metcalfe:
• Known as the ‘Liberator of the Indian Press’, he served as the acting Governor-General in 1835.
• He repealed the Licensing Regulations of 1823 and introduced the Metcalfe Act (Press Act of 1835), which significantly eased restrictions on Indian printers.
• John Adams:
• As the acting Governor-General in 1823, he introduced the draconian Licensing Regulations.
• These regulations required a license for starting a press and were used to suppress Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s journal, Mirat-ul-Akbar.

The correct answer is Government of India Act 1935.

Key Points

• The Government of India Act 1935 provided for the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission for the Federation and a Provincial Public Service Commission for each individual province.
• Under Section 264 of the Act, provision was also made for a Joint Public Service Commission, which could be established to serve the needs of two or more provinces if they agreed to such an arrangement.
• This Act was instrumental in decentralizing the recruitment process and ensuring that administrative services at the provincial level were managed by dedicated autonomous bodies.
• The framework introduced by the 1935 Act served as the primary blueprint for the current administrative setup in the Constitution of India, specifically under Articles 315 to 323.
• The commissions established under this Act were responsible for conducting examinations for appointments to the services of the Federation and the Provinces respectively.

 Additional Information

• Government of India Act 1919:
• Also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, it first introduced the statutory provision for a Public Service Commission under Section 96C.
• This led to the setting up of the Central Public Service Commission in 1926 following the recommendations of the Lee Commission of 1924.
• Indian Councils Act 1909:
• Popularly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, it primarily focused on increasing the involvement of Indians in the legislative councils and introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
• Indian Independence Act 1947:
• Enacted by the British Parliament, this act facilitated the partition of British India and the creation of two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, marking the end of the British Raj.