General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is
Dual-frequency (L & S) SAR with 12m reflector.

Key Points

• NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, which is a joint Earth-observation mission between the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) of the United States and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The primary imaging payload of the mission is a Dual-frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) system that operates in both the L-band (provided by NASA) and the S-band (provided by ISRO).
• It features a massive 12-meter deployable mesh reflector antenna, which is designed to provide high-resolution data over a wide swath of the Earth's surface.
• The L-band radar (wavelength ≈ 24 cm) is capable of penetrating dense forest canopies to study biomass, while the S-band radar (wavelength ≈ 12 cm) is sensitive to light vegetation and surface roughness.
• SAR is an active sensing technology that can produce high-resolution images regardless of weather conditions (clouds, fog) or the time of day (darkness).
• The mission aims to measure Earth's changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses, providing insights into climate change and natural hazards.

Additional Information

• NASA's Contribution: NASA provides the L-band SAR, the 12m deployable mesh reflector, a high-rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers, and a solid-state recorder.
• ISRO's Contribution: ISRO provides the S-band SAR, the spacecraft bus, the GSLV Mark II launch vehicle, and the launch operations.
• Comparison with Optical Sensors: Unlike multispectral optical imagers (mentioned in other options), which depend on reflected sunlight and are blocked by clouds, NISAR's radar can 'see' through atmospheric obstructions to monitor changes continuously.
• Applications: The data will be used to track crustal deformation from earthquakes or volcanoes, monitor groundwater levels, and observe the flow rates of glaciers and ice sheets.

The correct answer is Flesh.

Key Points

• David Szalay, a Canadian-British author known for his intricate character studies and fragmented narratives, was awarded the 2025 Booker Prize for his novel titled Flesh.
• The novel was recognized by the judging panel for its unflinching exploration of the biological reality of human life, focusing on the physicality and vulnerability of the body in the modern era.
• Winning the Booker Prize, the most prestigious award for English-language fiction published in the United Kingdom and Ireland, grants the author a £50,000 prize and significant international acclaim.
• Szalay's victory in 2025 follows his previous recognition in the literary world, most notably his 2016 shortlisting for All That Man Is, cementing his status as a leading voice in contemporary realist fiction.
• The narrative structure of Flesh continues Szalay's trademark style of connecting disparate lives through shared existential themes, this time focusing on mortality and the material nature of existence.

 Additional Information

• Orbital:
• Written by Samantha Harvey, this space-set novella was the winner of the 2024 Booker Prize.
• It was noted for being one of the shortest novels to ever win the award, focusing on a single day aboard the International Space Station.
• Prophet Song:
• Authored by Paul Lynch, this novel won the 2023 Booker Prize.
• It is a dystopian fiction set in a near-future Ireland that has descended into totalitarianism and civil unrest.
• The Safekeep:
• A debut novel by Yael van der Wouden which was shortlisted for the 2024 Booker Prize.
• The story is set in the post-WWII Netherlands and explores themes of guilt, desire, and historical trauma.

The correct answer is Human smuggling networks.

Key Points

• Jason De León is a prominent anthropologist, MacArthur Fellow, and professor at UCLA who specializes in the study of clandestine migration and border politics.
• His book, 'Soldiers and Kings: Survival and Hope in the World of Human Smuggling' (2024), is a longitudinal ethnography that spent nearly eight years documenting the lives of those involved in the illicit migration industry.
• The investigation focuses on coyotes, the individuals who facilitate the movement of undocumented migrants across international borders, specifically from Central America through Mexico and into the United States.
• De León provides an intimate look at the socio-economic motivations, daily struggles, and the violent hierarchies that define these human smuggling networks, moving beyond traditional stereotypes to show the human complexity of the actors involved.
• The work highlights how militarized border enforcement and restrictive immigration policies have created a lucrative market for professional smugglers, often pushing migrants into the hands of organized crime.

 Additional Information

• Contextual Background:
• The Land of Open Graves: Before 'Soldiers and Kings', De León authored this critically acclaimed book which analyzed the United States' policy of 'Prevention Through Deterrence' and its impact on migrant deaths in the Sonoran Desert.
• Undocumented Migration Project: This is a long-term archaeological and anthropological study founded by De León to research the material culture of migration along the U.S.-Mexico border.
• Awards and Recognition: 'Soldiers and Kings' was a finalist for the 2024 National Book Award for Nonfiction, cementing its status as a definitive academic and literary work on the global migration crisis.
• Northern Triangle: Much of the human movement discussed in De León's work originates from Honduras, Guatemala, and El Salvador, driven by extreme poverty and gang violence.

The correct answer is The Paradise of Food.

Key Points

• The novel The Paradise of Food, authored by Khalid Jawed, was awarded the JCB Prize for Literature in 2022.
• Originally written in Urdu under the title Ne'mat Khana in 2014, it was translated into English by Baran Farooqi.
• The book is a profound saga spanning fifty years, chronicling the life of a protagonist named Hafeez and his complex relationship with his family, framed through the setting of a kitchen.
• It made history by becoming the first Urdu language work to win this prestigious award since its inception in 2018.
• The jury praised the book for its unique use of food as a metaphor to explore themes of hunger, mortality, and the human condition within a middle-class household.
• The JCB Prize includes a cash reward of Rs 25 lakh for the author and an additional Rs 10 lakh for the translator.

 Additional Information

• Tomb of Sand:
• Written by Geetanjali Shree and translated by Daisy Rockwell, this novel (originally Ret Samadhi) won the International Booker Prize in 2022.
• It was the first book in any Indian language to win the International Booker Prize.
• The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida:
• A supernatural satire written by Sri Lankan author Shehan Karunatilaka.
• It was awarded the Booker Prize in 2022 for its vivid portrayal of the Sri Lankan Civil War through a ghost's perspective.
• Spirit Nights:
• Written by Easterine Kire, this novel was part of the shortlist for the JCB Prize for Literature in 2022 alongside Khalid Jawed’s winning entry.

The correct answer is To control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company.

Key Points

• The Regulating Act of 1773 was a landmark legislation passed by the British Parliament intended to manage and monitor the activities of the East India Company (EIC), which had acquired vast territorial powers in India.
• It was the first major step taken by the British Government to exercise control over the Company's administration and recognized, for the first time, its political and administrative functions beyond mere commerce.
• The act aimed to address the financial mismanagement of the Company and the widespread corruption among its officials, which had led the EIC to the brink of bankruptcy despite its territorial gains.
• It laid the foundations of a centralized administration in India by making the Presidencies of Bombay and Madras subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal in certain matters of war and peace.

 Additional Information

• Structural and Judicial Reforms:
• The act renamed the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal and appointed Lord Warren Hastings as the first incumbent.
• An Executive Council consisting of four members was established to assist the Governor-General, who had no power to veto the majority decision.
• A Supreme Court of Judicature was established at Fort William, Calcutta, in 1774, comprising one Chief Justice (Sir Elijah Impey) and three other judges.
• The Court of Directors was required to submit all reports regarding the civil, military, and revenue affairs of India to the British Treasury and Secretary of State.
• The act strictly prohibited Company servants from participating in any private trade or accepting presents and bribes from the Indian population to ensure administrative integrity.

The correct answer is Property Cards.

Key Points

• The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
• It aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India by demarcating inhabited (Abadi) land parcels using modern Drone technology.
• The primary outcome of this scheme is the issuance of Property Cards (also known as Svamitva Cards or Title Deeds) to every property owner in rural areas, which serves as an official Record of Rights.
• As of recent implementation phases, the scheme targets mapping approximately 6.62 lakh villages across the country between 2020 and 2025.
• The issuance of these cards enables rural citizens to use their property as a financial asset for obtaining bank loans and other financial benefits, thereby promoting economic stability.

 Additional Information

• Gram Sabha Resolution:
• This refers to a formal decision or collective agreement made by the members of the Gram Sabha regarding village developmental activities or administrative matters.
• While it is a powerful tool for local self-governance, it does not serve as a legal individual property ownership document under the SVAMITVA framework.
• Agricultural Land Passbook:
• These are traditional documents used primarily for agricultural land records to track landholdings, crop details, and khasra numbers.
• The SVAMITVA scheme specifically addresses the residential (Abadi) areas of the village, which were historically not surveyed or documented in many states.
• Scheme Launch and Technology:
• The scheme was launched on April 24, 2020, coinciding with National Panchayati Raj Day.
• It utilizes Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS) networks to provide centimeter-level accuracy in Geo-referencing and land mapping.

The correct answer is Javo khir Sindarov.

Key Points

• The 2025 FIDE Chess World Cup was the 11^th edition of the tournament, held from 31 October to 27 November 2025 in Goa, India.
• Uzbek grandmaster Javokhir Sindarov (spelled in the options as Javo khir Sindarov) emerged victorious, claiming the championship after defeating the Chinese grandmaster Wei Yi in the finals.
• At just 19 years of age, Sindarov made chess history by becoming the youngest player ever to win the FIDE World Cup.
• The high-stakes final ended in classical draws, forcing the players into rapid tiebreaks, where Sindarov triumphed with a 1.5−0.5 score to secure the title and the $120,000 first prize.
• This historical win qualified Javokhir Sindarov directly for the 2026 FIDE Candidates Tournament.

 Additional Information

• Wei Yi:
• He is a prominent grandmaster from China who finished as the runner-up of the 2025 FIDE World Cup.
• By reaching the finals, he also earned direct qualification for the prestigious 2026 Candidates Tournament.
• Andrey Esipenko:
• He competed under the FIDE flag and secured the third-place finish in the tournament.
• Esipenko defeated Nodirbek Yakubboev with a 2−0 score in the classical matches of the third-place playoff, capturing the final qualification spot for the 2026 Candidates Tournament.
• Nodirbek Yakubboev:
• He is an elite Uzbek grandmaster who reached the semi-finals of the 2025 FIDE World Cup.
• He finished in fourth place after losing the third-place match to Andrey Esipenko$.

The correct answer is Uzbekistan.

Key Points

• Javokhir Sindarov is a world-renowned chess Grandmaster who represents the nation of Uzbekistan in international tournaments.
• He achieved the prestigious Grandmaster (GM) title in October 2018 at the remarkably young age of 12 years, 10 months, and 5 days.
• Upon earning his title, he was recognized as the second-youngest person in history at that time to become a Grandmaster, surpassed only by Sergey Karjakin.
• Sindarov played a pivotal role as a member of the Uzbekistan National Team during the 44^th Chess Olympiad held in Chennai, India, in 2022.
• During this Olympiad, he helped lead Uzbekistan to a historic Gold Medal finish in the Open section, marking a major milestone for Central Asian chess.
• He is a key figure in what is often called the Golden Generation of Uzbek chess, characterized by a group of highly talented young prodigies competing at the highest FIDE levels.

 Additional Information

• Uzbekistan Chess Federation and Achievements:
• The country has seen a massive surge in chess popularity, following the success of players like Rustam Kasimdzhanov, a former FIDE World Champion.
• In addition to Sindarov, the Uzbekistan team features Nodirbek Abdusattorov, who became the youngest World Rapid Chess Champion in 2021.
• The 2022 Olympiad victory was particularly notable as the Uzbek team remained undefeated throughout the entire tournament, facing top-tier teams from India, USA, and Armenia.
• The Grandmaster title is awarded by FIDE (Federation Internationale des Echecs) to players who achieve three title norms and a FIDE Elo rating of at least 2500.

The correct answer is ¡GOT-Karmayogi.

Key Points

• The National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), also known as Mission Karmayogi, was approved by the Union Cabinet on September 2, 2020.
• The ¡GOT-Karmayogi platform serves as the digital backbone of the mission, acting as an online marketplace where various departments and training institutions can provide high-quality capacity-building content.
• It is designed to transition the Indian civil service from a rules-based to a roles-based human resource management system, focusing on matching an official's competencies to the requirements of their post.
• The platform targets approximately 4.6 million central government employees and is expected to eventually cover state-level officials, providing anytime-anywhere-any-device learning.
• The governance of the platform is managed by Karmayogi Bharat, a government-owned Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) established under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013, specifically for this purpose.

 Additional Information

• DIKSHA Platform:
• Stands for Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing; it is a national platform for school education under the Ministry of Education.
• It provides e-content for teachers and students across various Indian languages and curriculum frameworks like NCERT.
• Digital India Learning Hub:
• This is a portal associated with NeGD (National e-Governance Division) and MeitY, providing certification and courses focused on Information Technology and digital literacy.
• e-Governance Portal:
• A generic term for platforms like India.gov.in or specific state portals that facilitate Government-to-Citizen (G2C) and Government-to-Business (G2B) service delivery.

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana- National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India, in June 2011 to promote poverty reduction through building strong institutions for the poor.
• The mission aims at mobilizing all rural poor households into Self Help Groups (SHGs) to provide them with sustainable livelihood opportunities and improved access to financial services.
• As per the official guidelines of DAY-NRLM, a typical Self Help Group (SHG) should consist of a group of 10 to 20 members, primarily women from rural poor households.
• The core philosophy is based on the premise that the poor have innate capabilities and a strong desire to come out of poverty, which can be harnessed through social mobilization and institutional building.
• The requirement of 10 members ensures that the group is large enough to be viable for internal lending and collective activities, yet small enough to maintain close bonding and mutual trust. Therefore, Option 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Program Evolution:
• The program was originally launched as Aajeevika - NRLM and was later renamed Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana (DAY-NRLM) in November 2015.
• It replaced the earlier Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) to shift from a target-driven to a demand-driven strategy.
• Special Relaxations:
• In difficult areas such as hills, deserts, and sparsely populated tribal tracts, or for groups comprising Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), the minimum number of members can be relaxed to 5.
• Financial Support:
• Revolving Fund (RF): A sum of Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 15,000 is provided to SHGs that have practiced Panchasutras (Regular meetings, Regular savings, Regular inter-loaning, Regular timely repayment, and Regular bookkeeping).
• Community Investment Fund (CIF): A corpus is provided to federations to provide loans to members for diverse livelihood needs.

The correct answer is 38^th.

Key Points

• India has secured the 38^th rank in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2025, marking a significant milestone in its journey toward becoming a global innovation hub.
• The country has shown consistent improvement, rising from the 39^th position in 2024 and the 40^th position in 2023, reflecting a robust growth trajectory in the science and technology sectors.
• India continues to lead the Central and Southern Asia region, maintaining its dominance for over a decade due to its high performance in innovation outputs.
• The Global Innovation Index is an annual ranking published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), evaluating 133 economies based on their innovation capabilities and results.
• India also holds the 1^st rank among lower-middle-income group economies, showcasing that its innovation performance is significantly higher than its expected level of economic development.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Rank:
• India’s rise has been meteoric, climbing from the 81^st rank in 2015 to the 38^th rank in 2025.
• This progress is attributed to government initiatives such as Startup India, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and the National Education Policy 2020.
• GII Framework:
• The index uses 80 indicators divided into Innovation Inputs (Institutions, Human Capital and Research, Infrastructure, Market Sophistication, and Business Sophistication) and Innovation Outputs (Knowledge and Technology Outputs, and Creative Outputs).
• India excels specifically in ICT services exports, venture capital receipt, and the number of science and engineering graduates.
• WIPO:
• Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, WIPO is a specialized agency of the United Nations that promotes the protection of intellectual property worldwide.

The correct answer is World Intellectual Property Organization.

Key Points

• The acronym WIPO stands for the World Intellectual Property Organization, which is one of the 15 specialized agencies of the United Nations (UN).
• It was established on July 14, 1967, following the entry into force of the WIPO Convention, with the mandate to promote the protection of intellectual property (IP) throughout the world.
• The organization acts as a global forum for intellectual property services, policy, information, and cooperation, ensuring that the rights of creators and owners are protected internationally.
• It succeeded the BIRPI (United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property), which had been established in 1893 to administer the Paris Convention and the Berne Convention.

 Additional Information

• Organizational Structure and Governance:
• Headquarters: The organization is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• Membership: As of the current period, WIPO has 193 member states, making it a nearly universal international body.
• Leadership: The organization is led by a Director General, currently Daren Tang, who took office in 2020.
• Core Functions and Treaties:
• Treaty Administration: It administers 26 international treaties that deal with various aspects of intellectual property protection.
• Global IP Services: WIPO manages the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) for patents, the Madrid System for trademarks, and the Hague System for industrial designs, allowing users to seek protection in multiple countries through a single application.
• Development Agenda: It provides technical assistance to developing countries to help them build their IP legal frameworks and infrastructure to encourage local innovation.

The correct answer is Vulnerable.

Key Points

• The Dugong (Dugong dugon), commonly referred to as the sea cow, is a large marine mammal and the only strictly herbivorous marine mammal in existence.
• According to the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) Red List, the global conservation status of the Dugong is categorized as Vulnerable.
• This status is attributed to a declining population trend caused by the widespread loss and degradation of seagrass meadows, which serve as their primary food source.
• Other significant anthropogenic threats include bycatch in fishing nets, coastal development, marine pollution, and illegal hunting in certain regions.
• Dugongs have a low reproductive rate, often producing only one calf every three to seven years, which makes their population recovery extremely slow after any decline.

 Additional Information

• Distribution and Habitat:
• They are found in the warm coastal waters of the Indo-West Pacific, spanning approximately 40 countries from East Africa to Vanuatu.
• The largest remaining populations are currently found in the coastal waters of Northern Australia and the Arabian Gulf.
• Conservation in India:
• In India, Dugongs are found in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The species is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides the highest level of legal protection in the country.
• India notified its first Dugong Conservation Reserve in the Palk Bay region of Tamil Nadu in 2021 to prevent the extinction of the species in Indian waters.
• Morphology:
• Dugongs are distinguished from manatees by their fluked, dolphin-like tail and their downward-turned snout adapted for grazing on the seabed.

The correct answer is Services Sports Control Board.

Key Points

• The 38^th edition of the National Games was hosted by the state of Uttarakhand in 2025, featuring athletes from all states, union territories, and the Services Sports Control Board (SSCB).
• The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) secured the top position in the final medal tally, continuing its historical dominance in the multi-sport event.
• By finishing at the top of the standings, SSCB was awarded the prestigious Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy, which is presented to the overall champions of the National Games.
• The contingent, representing the Indian Armed Forces, excelled primarily in disciplines such as Boxing, Rowing, Archery, and Athletics, outperforming major sporting states like Maharashtra and Haryana.
• The 38^th National Games involved events across various cities in Uttarakhand, including Dehradun, Haldwani, and Rishikesh, highlighting the infrastructure development in the Himalayan state.

 Additional Information

• Services Sports Control Board (SSCB):
• It is a sports board run by the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force).
• It was established in 1919 as the Army Sports Control Board and later reconstituted.
• The board has a legacy of producing Olympians and Asian Games medalists for India due to its rigorous training programs and world-class facilities.
• Maharashtra and Haryana:
• Maharashtra, which topped the 37^th National Games (Goa 2023), remained a top contender in 2025, particularly in Swimming and Gymnastics.
• Haryana maintained its reputation as a powerhouse in Wrestling and Kabaddi, consistently finishing in the top three of the overall medal tally.

The correct answer is Women's 4x100 metre relay.

Key Points

• The 2025 Asian Athletics Championships, which marked the 26^th edition of this premier track and field event, was hosted from 27 to 31 May 2025 in Gumi, South Korea.
• The Indian women's sprinting contingent secured a prestigious silver medal in the highly competitive Women's 4x100 metre relay event.
• The squad, comprising Srabani Nanda, Abinaya Rajarajan, S.S. Sneha, and Nithya Gandhe, clocked a commendable finishing time of 43.86 seconds.
• The Chinese team clinched the gold medal with a time of 43.28 seconds, while Thailand claimed the bronze medal in the same event.

 Additional Information

• Men's 1500 metre race:
• Indian army middle-distance runner Yoonus Shah clinched the bronze medal with a timing of 3:43.03 seconds.
• Women's 400 metre hurdles:
• Indian athlete Vithya Ramraj won the bronze medal in this challenging technical race, crossing the finish line with a strong performance.
• Men's 4x100 metre relay:
• A premier sprint relay event where four runners each sprint a distance of 100 metres; India did not win a medal in this category at this edition of the championships.

The correct answer is Indian Army.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra, India's premier Javelin Thrower and Olympic Gold Medalist, is a serving personnel in the Indian Army.
• He was initially enrolled into the 4 Rajputana Rifles as a Naib Subedar in 2016 under the sports quota, recognizing his immense potential in athletics.
• Following his historic achievement of winning the Gold Medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, he was honored for his contribution to Indian sports within the military hierarchy.
• While he serves as a Junior Commissioned Officer (JCO) and was promoted to the rank of Subedar Major in 2024, the Indian Army frequently confers honorary ranks and promotions to its sports icons to celebrate international success.
• The Indian Army has a rich tradition of nurturing athletes through its Mission Olympic Wing, providing world-class training facilities and career security to athletes like Chopra.
• He is the first Indian track and field athlete to win an Olympic Gold and a World Athletics Championship Gold, bringing immense pride to the Indian Armed Forces.
• Therefore, the correct choice is the Indian Army as the force with which Neeraj Chopra is officially affiliated.

 Additional Information

• Indian Air Force:
• The Indian Air Force (IAF) has conferred honorary ranks on legendary sports personalities, most notably Sachin Tendulkar, who holds the rank of Group Captain.
• Indian Navy:
• The Indian Navy also recruits and honors athletes; however, Neeraj Chopra is not associated with this branch.
• Rajputana Rifles:
• It is the oldest Rifle Regiment of the Indian Army, known for its bravery and numerous gallantry awards, and is the regiment to which Neeraj Chopra belongs.
• Honorary Ranks in Territorial Army:
• Other icons like Mahendra Singh Dhoni and Abhinav Bindra were conferred the honorary rank of Lieutenant Colonel in the Territorial Army, which is a part of the Indian Army.

The correct answer is Kanad Das.

Key Points

• Dr. Kanad Das took charge as the 13^th Director of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in September 2025, succeeding Dr. A. A. Mao.
• He achieved a historical milestone by becoming the first mycologist (a specialist in the study of fungi) to head the 135-year-old premier research organization since its establishment.
• Prior to his appointment as Director, he served as a senior scientist at the BSI headquarters in Kolkata, where he specialized in the taxonomy and phylogeny of macrofungi.
• Dr. Das is widely recognized for his extensive field explorations in the Himalayan regions and the Western Ghats, having discovered and described numerous new species of mushrooms and truffles previously unknown to science.
• His appointment signifies a broadening of the institute’s focus toward cryptogamic botany, specifically addressing the vast and often overlooked fungal diversity of the Indian subcontinent.

 Additional Information

• Botanical Survey of India (BSI):
• Founded on February 13, 1890, it functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• It is headquartered in Kolkata and is responsible for surveying and documenting the plant resources of India, maintaining various herbariums and botanical gardens.
• Other Candidates and Entities:
• A. A. Mao: A distinguished scientist specializing in Plant Tissue Culture and Orchidology, who served as the 12^th Director of the BSI before retiring in 2025.
• Rakesh Sharma: A former Indian Air Force pilot who became the first Indian citizen to travel into space in 1984 aboard the Soviet Soyuz T-11 mission.
• Shubhanshu Shukla: A Wing Commander in the IAF selected as the primary astronaut for the Axiom-4 mission to the International Space Station (ISS), part of the ISRO-NASA joint spaceflight collaboration.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.

The correct answer is Vandana Gupta.

Key Points

• Vandana Gupta, a senior officer of the Indian P&T Accounts and Finance Service (IP&TAFS), officially took over the charge of the Controller General of Communication Accounts (CGCA) in September 2025.
• The CGCA functions as the apex authority for the accounting and financial management of the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the Department of Posts under the Ministry of Communications.
• In this capacity, she oversees the collection and verification of massive non-tax revenues, specifically License Fees and Spectrum Usage Charges (SUC), which contribute significantly to the Consolidated Fund of India.
• The role is critical for the implementation of the SAMPANN (System for Accounting and Management of Pension) software, which ensures direct and timely pension disbursement to DoT and Postal retirees across the nation.
• Her appointment involves leading the nationwide network of Controllers of Communication Accounts (CCA) offices, ensuring financial discipline and regulatory compliance within the rapidly evolving telecom sector.

 Additional Information

• Controller General of Communication Accounts (CGCA):
• Organizational Structure: It is an attached office of the Department of Telecommunications located at NICF Campus, New Delhi.
• Revenue Oversight: It monitors revenue from Telecom Service Providers (TSPs) and manages the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) to facilitate rural connectivity.
• Pension Management: Operates as the central nodal agency for settlement of retirement benefits for nearly 4.5 lakh pensioners.
• Relevant Entities in Options:
• IP&TAFS: An organized Group A Civil Service responsible for the financial administration of India's communications infrastructure.
• A. A. Mao: Known primarily as the Director of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), specializing in plant taxonomy and conservation.
• Anant Goenka: A prominent figure in the Indian corporate sector, specifically associated with CEAT Limited and the RPG Group.

The correct answer is The State Legislative Assembly.

Key Points

• According to Article 164(2) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.
• The principle of Collective Responsibility implies that the entire ministry functions as a cohesive unit; if the State Legislative Assembly passes a No-Confidence Motion against the Council, the entire ministry, including the Chief Minister, must resign.
• This provision ensures the Executive remains subservient to the Legislature, specifically the popular house whose members are directly elected by the citizens of that state.
• The accountability is specific to the Lower House (Vidhan Sabha); even if a minister is a member of the State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad), they remain collectively accountable to the Assembly.

 Additional Information

• Article 163: Mandates a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head to aid and advise the Governor, except in matters where the Governor acts in his discretion.
• Individual Responsibility:
• Under Article 164(1), ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. This means the Governor can dismiss a minister on the advice of the Chief Minister, representing individual accountability.
• Comparison with the Union:
• The state structure mirrors the Parliamentary System at the Center, where Article 75(3) makes the Union Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
• The Governor: While the Governor is the Constitutional Head of the state and appoints the ministers, the cabinet does not answer to him for its policy decisions and legislative actions.

The correct answer is 6 years or until age 65.

Key Points

• The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an independent authority established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India.
• The tenure of the CAG is governed by the Comptroller and Auditor-General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.
• According to the statutory provisions, the CAG shall hold office for a term of 6 years from the date on which he assumes charge.
• However, there is an upper age limit; the CAG must vacate the office upon reaching the age of 65 years, whichever occurs earlier.
• This fixed tenure is designed to ensure the independence of the audit mechanism from executive interference, allowing the CAG to function without fear or favor.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Provisions and Independence:
• Article 148: Specifies that the CAG is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
• Removal: The CAG can only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• Post-Retirement: The individual is ineligible for further office under the Government of India or any State Government after retirement to maintain impartiality.
• Financial Independence: The administrative expenses of the office, including all salaries and allowances, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are non-votable.
• Role and Functions:
• Often described as the Guardian of the Public Purse, the CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, the Consolidated Fund of each State, and each Union Territory.
• The reports of the CAG are submitted to the President or Governor and are scrutinized by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of Parliament.