Social Studies PYQs

The correct answer is Common Era.

Key Points

• CE stands for Common Era and is used as an alternative to AD (Anno Domini) to denote the years after the birth of Jesus Christ.
• Common Era is the most widely accepted and secular way to refer to the years after the birth of Jesus Christ

Additional Information

• Christian Era is also used to refer to the same period of time but is less commonly used in modern times as it carries a religious connotation.
• Contemporary Era is a term used to refer to the present time and is not related to the years after the birth of Jesus Christ.
• Continuity Era is not a commonly used term and does not have any relation to the years after the birth of Jesus Christ.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) facilitated the process of (A).  

Key Points

• The rulers of Mahajanapadas did build huge forts and maintain big armies by accumulating large resources through a regular system of taxes, with the most important tax being the taxes on crops.
• The growing use of iron ploughshares and paddy transplantation did lead to increased production.
• Hence, Both (A) and (B) are true, and statement (B) facilitated the process of (A) as the increased production allowed for more resources to be accumulated through taxes, which in turn allowed for the building of bigger armies and forts.

Additional Information

• Mahajanapadas:-
• These were ancient Indian kingdoms that existed from the 6^th century BCE to the 4^th century BCE.
• Iron ploughshares replaced the earlier wooden ploughs and allowed for deeper and faster ploughing, leading to increased productivity.
• Paddy transplantation allowed for the cultivation of more than one crop per year, further increasing production.

The correct answer is Statement I is true but II is false.  

Key Points

• Minhaj-i-Siraj:-
• He was a 13^th-century historian and chronicler who wrote about the reign of multiple sultans.
• Minhaj-i-Siraj believed that a woman ruling went against the social order of the time.
• Raziya Sulthan:-
• She was the first woman to rule the Delhi Sultanate.
• Raziya al-Din embraced her identity as a female ruler and used her given name on official documents and inscriptions. She openly took on the responsibilities of ruling and leading the Delhi Sultanate, defying the gender norms of her time.

Hence, Statement I is true but II is false.​

The correct answer is (A) is true but (B) is false 

 Key Points

• Wajid Ali Shah was a patron of Kathak, which means he supported and promoted this art form.
• Kathak, like several other cultural practices, was viewed with disfavour by most British administrators in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.
• However, it survived and continued to be performed by courtesans, and was recognised as one of the six “classical” forms of dance in the country after independence.

Additional Information

• Kathak:-
• It is a classical dance form that originated in northern India.
• It is characterized by intricate footwork, hand gestures, facial expressions, and body movements.
• Wajid Ali Shah:-
• He was the last Nawab of Awadh, a region in present-day Uttar Pradesh, India.
• He was a patron of the arts and supported various forms of music and dance, including Kathak.

The correct answer is Chaupais and Shabads.

Key Points

• Chaupais:-
• These are a form of poetry that originated in North India and are typically sung in praise of Hindu deities.
• Shabad:-
• "Shabad" is a term commonly used in Sikhism to refer to sacred hymns or verses from the Guru Granth Sahib, the central religious scripture of Sikhism.
• Hence, In order to teach about regional cultures in the Indian subcontinent, a teacher could provide information cards on Chaupais and Shabads.

Additional Information

• Ain-i-Akbari:-
• It is a historical document that was written during the Mughal era and provides a detailed account of the administration, culture, and geography of India.
• While it is a valuable resource for understanding the region, it may not be as accessible or engaging for students as poetry and music. -
• Tawarikh:-
• It is a term that refers to historical chronicles from the Islamic tradition.
• While these texts can also provide valuable insights into the history and culture of the region, they may not be as relevant to the study of regional cultures as poetry and music. -
• Atlas Nouveau:-
• It is a French-language atlas that was published in the 18^th century and provides detailed maps of the world.
• While it may be interesting to study in its own right, it is not directly relevant to the study of regional cultures in the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is Both statement I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of L.

Key Points

• Statement I is true because after the 13^th century, there was an increase in the number and variety of written documents. This was due to factors such as the growth of universities, the development of legal systems, and the spread of literacy.
• Statement II is also true because paper did become cheaper and more widely available over time. This was due to improvements in papermaking technology, the growth of paper mills, and increased trade in paper.
• Both statements I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of L.

Additional Information

• Textual records:-
• It refers to written documents, such as letters, legal documents, and manuscripts.
• Paper was invented in China during the Han dynasty (206 BCE - 220 CE) and gradually spread to the rest of the world.
• Before the widespread use of paper, people wrote on materials like papyrus, parchment, and vellum.

The correct answer is (A) and (C).

Key Points The main systems of indigo cultivation in colonial India were the Nij system and the Ryoti system.

Here's a bit about each:

• Nij System: Under the Nij system, the planters produced indigo directly by employing hired laborers. The production took place in lands either owned or rented by the planters.
• Ryoti System: In the Ryoti system, cultivators were compelled to grow indigo on a portion of their land as tenants of the planters. These tenants often had to endure subpar compensation and harsh contracts, which led to many crises and sparked the famous Indigo Revolutions.

Additional Information

• Mahalwari system, which was one of the land revenue systems in colonial India, was not specifically involved with the cultivation of indigo

The correct answer is Landlords and zamindars were protected by giving them rights over their lands.

Key Points

• The Revolt of 1857, also known as the First War of Indian Independence, was a rebellion against British rule in India.
• The British East India Company had been ruling India since the mid-18^th century, and the Revolt of 1857 was a major challenge to their authority.
• The British did introduce various land reforms after the Revolt of 1857 to protect the rights of landlords and zamindars. Hence Option 4 is correct.
• The rebellion was eventually suppressed by the British, who then took direct control of India and introduced various changes to consolidate their power.

Additional InformationOther Important movements during British-India rule:

• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922):
• The non-cooperation movement was launched by Gandhi as a protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the Rowlatt Act.
• Gandhi pushed for total self-reliance and asked people to boycott all British goods and institutions.
• The movement was suspended by Gandhi after the violent Chauri Chaura incident in 1922.
• The movement managed to bring millions of Indians into the freedom struggle and marked the transition from a constitutional struggle to one of mass civil disobedience.
• Salt March/Dandi March (1930):
• The Salt march was initiated by Gandhi as a direct action campaign of non-violent protest against the British salt monopoly in colonial India.
• The march started from Sabarmati Ashram and ended in the coastal village of Dandi, where Gandhi broke the salt laws by making salt from seawater.
• It led to the arrest of Gandhi and over 60,000 people for defying the salt laws.
• The Salt March was a significant event that received international attention and put pressure on British colonial authorities.
• Quit India Movement (1942):
• It was a civil disobedience movement launched by Gandhi in response to British refusal to grant India independence during the Second World War.
• Gandhi gave the famous "Do or Die" speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai, calling for determined, but passive resistance, stating that "We shall either free India or die in the attempt."
• The movement was marked by widespread strikes and protests across India.
• It ultimately accelerated the process of decolonization, causing Britain to promise to leave India at the end of the war.

The correct answer is Pandita Ramabai.

Key Points

• Pandita Ramabai was a social reformer who worked for the upliftment of women and oppressed classes in India.
• She was also conferred with the title of ‘Saraswati’ owing to her knowledge and interpretations of the various Sanskrit texts.
• She started the ‘Sharada Sadan’ or the 'Home of Learning' in Bombay with 2 students.
• She founded the Mukti Mission for the education of child widows.
• Many accused her of using these organizations as a front for conversions.
• The British government presented her with the Kaiser-i-Hind medal in 1919.

Additional Information

• Jyotirao Phule, also a social reformer, founded Satyashodhak Samaj and worked for the education of women and Dalits.
• Veerasalingam Pantulu was a social reformer from Andhra Pradesh who worked for the education of women and the abolition of child marriage.
• Tarabai Shinde was a feminist writer and activist who wrote the book Stri Purush Tulana, which critiqued the patriarchal society.

Hence, the statement is correct that Pandita Ramabai founded the Widows Home at Poona.

The correct answer is (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i).

Key Points

• The Satnami Movement was led by Ghasidas, who was a social reformer and a saint from Chhattisgarh.
• The movement aimed at removing caste-based discrimination and promoting equality among all people.
• The Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotirao Phule, who was a social reformer from Maharashtra.
• The movement aimed at fighting against caste-based discrimination and promoting education among the lower castes.
• The Temple Entry Movement was led by B.R. Ambedkar, who was a social reformer and the architect of the Indian Constitution.
• The movement aimed at fighting against the ban on the entry of lower castes into Hindu temples.
• The Self Respect Movement was led by Periyar, who was a social reformer from Tamil Nadu.
• The movement aimed at promoting self-respect among the lower castes and fighting against the dominance of Brahmins in the society.

The correct answer is (A) and (B).

Key Points

• Both A and B statements accurately capture the motivations of social reformers in nineteenth-century India.
• Social reformers of that time were driven by a strong desire to address and change unjust practices that were deeply ingrained in Indian society.
• They recognized the necessity of bringing about reforms to uplift marginalized sections of society and to create a more just and equitable social order.
• These reformers played a crucial role in advocating for changes that would improve the lives of individuals and communities affected by oppressive traditions and customs.

Additional Information

• Social reform movements in nineteenth century India were driven by a desire to address issues such as caste discrimination, child marriage, and the mistreatment of women.
• Some of the key figures in the social reform movements included Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, and Jyotirao Phule.
• British colonialism had a significant impact on Indian society, but social reform movements were not solely a response to British rule.
• Many social reformers were also motivated by a desire to revive and reform traditional Indian practices and customs.
• Overall, social reform movements played an important role in shaping modern India and laying the groundwork for future social and political change.

The correct answer is Bipin Chandra Pal.

Key Points

• Bipin Chandra Pal was one of the leading figures of the Indian Nationalist Movement and a staunch advocate of self-reliance and self-help for Indians.
• He believed that people should not depend on the government for their welfare and should instead strive towards self-sufficiency and self-governance.
• This position was the basis of action during the National Movement, which sought to empower Indians and free them from British colonial rule.

 

Additional Information 

Other options mentioned in the question are as follows:

• W.C. Bonnerji was a prominent Indian lawyer and politician who served as the first Indian president of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• Dadabhai Naoroji was a Parsi intellectual, educator, and political leader who was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament.
• Badruddin Tyabji was a Muslim lawyer and politician who served as the third Indian president of the Indian National Congress in 1887.
• However, none of these individuals are associated with the specific position mentioned in the question, which was advocated by Bipin Chandra Pal.

The correct answer is (B) and (C).

Key Points

• (B) All India Muslim League supported the partition of Bengal - True. The All India Muslim League, which was established in 1906, did support the partition of Bengal since it was seen as a move to create a separate province where Muslims would be a majority.
• (C) The Swadeshi movement sought the boycott of British institutions and goods - True. The Swadeshi Movement, which began as a direct response to the partition of Bengal, promoted the use of Indian-made goods and the boycott of British goods and institutions. It was a significant phase in the Indian independence movement.

Additional Information

• Partition of Bengal: Declared by the then Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon, on 16 October 1905, the province of Bengal was divided into two parts: Eastern Bengal and Assam, with a predominantly Muslim population, and the rest of Bengal with a majority Hindu population. The official reasoning given for this measure was apparently administrative convenience due to the large size of Bengal. However, underlying motivations of trying to 'divide and rule' and weaken the large Bengali nationalist movement were widely suspected and criticized.
• Reaction to the Partition: The partition stirred strong reactions throughout India, not only in Bengal. Both the moderate and extremist sections of the Indian National Congress strongly opposed this divide.
• Swadeshi Movement Initiation: The partition led to the start of the Swadeshi movement. The term "Swadeshi" originates from two Sanskrit words 'Swa' meaning 'self' or 'own' and 'desh' meaning 'country'. It was a major part of the Indian National Movement and was a direct result of the British decision to partition Bengal.
• Swadeshi Movement Influence: The Swadeshi movement led to the boycott of British goods and services, resulting in an upsurge of nationalism among Indians. The participants in the movement encouraged the use of items and services produced within the country. The aim was to damage the British economy in India and put pressure on them to roll back the partition of Bengal.
• Key Leaders: Some of the key leaders of the Swadeshi movement were Aurobindo Ghosh, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lajpat Rai, Babu Genu, V. O. Chidambaram Pillai, Ashwini Kumar Datta, and Rabindranath Tagore.
• Boycott and National Education: The boycott movement was not only limited to clothes; it extended to boycott of British schools, colleges, courts, and offices as well. The patriotic spirit of the era expressed itself in the establishment of various national schools and colleges across India.
• Unification and its Aftermath: Although the initial purpose of the movement was to protest the partition of Bengal, the economic boycott led to the broader aim of achieving independence. While the partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911, the Swadeshi movement continues to be remembered as a key stepping stone in India's struggle for independence.
• Role of Muslim League: The All India Muslim League, formed in 1906, agreed with the partition of Bengal as they believed it would result in a separate province where Muslims were in the majority.

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C).

Key Points

• Following its independence in 1947, India faced multifaceted challenges which greatly affected its development path. The three scenarios posed clearly highlight significant factors India had to grapple with in its attempt to grow and stabilize as a nation.
• (A) Promoting job-creating industries: Post-independence, the Indian government adopted a strategy to promote job creating industries to facilitate economic growth and bring down unemployment rates. Industrial policies were framed that sought to foster rapid industrialization, with a significant focus on heavy industries like engineering, naval, and aero industries. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) were also promoted heavily for the generation of employment.
• (B) Increasing the productivity of agriculture: As a predominantly agrarian economy at the time of independence, India struggled with low agricultural productivity due to the lack of technical knowledge, poor irrigation infrastructure, and dependence on monsoon rains. Consequently, strategies to improve agricultural productivity formed a central part of India's development agenda. This was seen in initiatives such as the "Green Revolution" in the 1960s, which involved the adoption of modern methods and technology in agriculture.
• (C) Addressing issues of violence and conflicts: The aftermath of partition brought along with it deep-seated communal tensions and inter-religious violence which were among the biggest challenges faced by India post-independence. Reconciliation, rehabilitation, and maintaining communal harmony became key focal points of India's policy approach. The Constitution of India, adopted in 1950, aimed to address these issues by emphasizing secularism, inclusiveness, and non-discrimination.

Hence (A), (B) and (C) formed a part of India's development strategy post-independence, and attempts to address them were woven into the fabric of India's nation-building journey.

The correct answer is Mars and Jupiter.

Key Points

• The majority of asteroids are indeed found within the asteroid belt, a region of space located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
• This space "highway" is home to numerous irregularly shaped bodies – leftover fragments from the early solar system – collectively referred to as asteroids.

Additional Information 

• The asteroid belt is a region located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
• The asteroid belt is home to numerous irregularly shaped bodies called asteroids, which are also known as minor planets.
• Asteroids are remnants from the early solar system, leftover after the formation of the planets.
• The sizes of asteroids vary significantly - they can be as small as dust particles or as large as hundreds of kilometers in diameter.
• Asteroids are primarily made up of rock and metal.
• While there are millions of asteroids in the asteroid belt, their combined mass is less than that of Earth's Moon.
• Some asteroids have even been found to have moons of their own.
• Ceres, the largest object in the asteroid belt and its only designated dwarf planet, comprises about one-third of the belt's total mass.
• The study of asteroids provides valuable insights into the processes that led to the formation of planets and the condition of the early solar system.
• Despite popular depiction, the asteroid belt is not densely populated and spacecraft can pass through without significant risk of impact.

The correct answer is Only (A) and (B) are correct.

Key Points

• (A) It passes through the middle of the Pacific Ocean: The International Date Line (IDL) largely passes through the middle of the Pacific Ocean, despite some deviations. This portion of the globe was chosen for the IDL because it is the least populous and the least busy in terms of global maritime activity, which minimizes the impact of changing dates.
• (B) It roughly follows the 180° longitude: The 180° line of longitude, opposite the Prime Meridian (the zero degrees longitude), was chosen as an ideal rough guide for the International Date Line because it lies roughly in the middle of the Pacific Ocean, stretching from the North Pole to the South Pole. However, the actual IDL zigzags around this line, mainly to keep certain national territories all on the same day.

Additional Information

• The International Date Line is an imaginary line that runs from the North Pole to the South Pole and demarcates the change of one calendar day to the next.
• It passes through the middle of the Pacific Ocean and roughly follows the 180° line of longitude but deviates eastward or westward to avoid dividing territories into two different days.

The correct answer is 5 : 30 a.m.

Key Points

• Longitude lines run from the North Pole to the South Pole and their degree measurements go from 0° at the Prime Meridian which passes through Greenwich, England to 180° at the International Date Line in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.
• Every 15° of longitude represents a one-hour difference in time. You need to add an hour for every 15° you go east of the Prime Meridian and subtract an hour for every 15° you go west.
• So, if it's 10:30 a.m. at 75° East longitude, you would subtract 5 hours (because 75 divided by 15 equals 5), leading to a time of 5:30 a.m. at the Greenwich Meridian (0° longitude).

Hence, your answer of 5:30 a.m. at Greenwich when it's 10:30 a.m. at 75° East longitude is correct.

Additional Information

• The Prime Meridian is an imaginary line that passes through the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London, and is used as a reference point for calculating time zones.
• The Earth is divided into 24 time zones, each separated by 15 degrees of longitude, with the International Date Line being the 180^th meridian.

The correct option is Both (B) and (C).

Key Points

• Ports play a crucial role in a country's economy by facilitating international trade and commerce.
• Africa does have significant ports like Durban in South Africa, Rio de Janeiro is not located on the African continent.

The correct answer is Savanna, Campos, Llanos.

Key Points

• Savanna is a tropical grassland found in Africa, South America and Australia.
• Campos is a type of tropical grassland found in Brazil.
• Llanos is a vast tropical grassland found in South America.
• Pampas is a grassland region in South America but it is not a tropical grassland.

Additional Information

• Savanna, Pampas, Llanos:
• ​Savanna and Llanos are tropical grasslands, but Pampas is not a tropical grassland.
• Steppe, Down, Campos:
• ​Steppe and Down, neither of them are tropical grasslands.
• Steppe, Down, Pampas: 
• Pampas is not a tropical grassland.
• Tropical grasslands are characterized by tall grasses and scattered trees or shrubs.
• They are found in warm climates with distinct wet and dry seasons.

The correct answer is Western region of Australia.

Key Points

• The correct answer is the western region of Australia, specifically in the Pilbara Craton.
• The Pilbara Craton is known for having some of the oldest rocks in the world.
• The rocks date back to 3.5 billion years ago.
• Western Australia is Australia's largest state, with a total land area of 2,527,013 square kilometres (975,685 sq mi).

Additional Information

• The Prince Charles Mountains of East Antarctica also have some of the oldest rocks in the world, but they are not as old as the rocks in the Pilbara Craton.
• The Appalachian region of North America and the Caucasus region of France do not have any known rocks that are as old as the ones in the Pilbara Craton or the Prince Charles Mountains of East Antarctica.
• The age of the oldest rocks in the world is important because it provides evidence for the early stages of the Earth's formation and helps scientists understand the geological history of our planet.