Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) · Topic Collection

Social Studies PYQs

Social studies content and pedagogy — history, geography, polity, and economics as asked in upper-primary social science teacher papers.

3840 Total Questions64 Official PapersYears: 2012–2026Search in Social Studies
Showing questions 521–540 of 3840Page 27 of 100
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 521

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following questions assess the evaluation aspect of cognitive process ?

(A) What can be done to promote fair trade amongst the countries?

(B) Green Revolution has made India selfsufficient in food grains. Explain.

(C) Would you hold Aurangzeb responsible for the downfall of the Mughal empire?

(D) What changes did Turks introduce in the art of constructing building ?

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    (B), (C) and (D)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (C) and (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A), (B) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(B), (C) and (D)

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains. Explain also assesses the evaluation aspect of the cognitive process. In this question, students are asked to explain the claim that the Green Revolution made India self-sufficient in food grains. To provide a thorough explanation, they need to critically evaluate the impact of the Green Revolution on agriculture in India. They must analyze the evidence and assess whether the claim is supported by data and facts.
  • Would you hold Aurangzeb responsible for the downfall of the Mughal empire? This question prompts students to critically analyze historical events and consider different factors that contributed to the downfall of the Mughal empire. They need to evaluate the actions and decisions of Aurangzeb and assess whether he played a significant role in the empire's decline, supported by evidence and reasoning.
  • What changes did Turks introduce in the art of constructing building? This question requires students to evaluate the architectural advancements introduced by the Turks. They need to assess the impact and influence of Turkish architectural techniques on building construction, comparing and contrasting them with previous styles.

Thus, it is concluded that (B), (C) and (D) is the correct answer.

CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 522

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following should be considered while developing evaluation procedures as per the Right of Children to free and Compulsory Education Act 2009?

(A) Help Students to develop understanding of knowledge based on continuous and comprehensive evaluation

(B) enable student to apply knowledge they acquired through continuous and comprehensive evaluation

(C) Adhere to the guidelines provided by the Examination Boards regarding board level examinations

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (A)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (A) and (B)

  3. COption (c)

    (A), (B) and (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (A) and (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(A), (B) and (C)

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Help students to develop an understanding of knowledge based on continuous and comprehensive evaluation: This means that evaluation should not be limited to just exams or tests but should involve various assessment methods that focus on understanding and application of knowledge over time.
  • Enable students to apply knowledge they acquired through continuous and comprehensive evaluation: The evaluation process should encourage students to apply their knowledge and skills in real-life situations and not just assess their ability to memorize information.
  • Adhere to the guidelines provided by the Examination Boards regarding board level examinations: The evaluation procedures should align with the guidelines set by the Examination Boards for board-level examinations, ensuring fairness and standardization in the evaluation process.

Thus, it is concluded that (A), (B) and (C) is the correct answer.

CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 523

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following questions provide opportunities to assess students, analytical abilities in social sciences? 

(A) Which region is known as 'Garden of the world ' and why ?

(B) Which state is known as 'Valley of flowers'?

(C) Which state rank first in spices production in India? What are the geographical conditions favourable for production of spices?

(D) Which states are situated in tropic of cancer in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    (A), (B) and (C)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (A)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (A) and (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (C)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only (A) and (C)

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • **Which region is known as the 'Garden of the world' and why?**This question requires students to analyze and apply their knowledge of geography and historical context. They need to identify the specific region that is known as the 'Garden of the world'. To answer the second part of the question, students must provide reasons why this region has earned the title 'Garden of the world.' This requires them to analyze various factors such as the climate, fertile soil, irrigation systems, agricultural practices, historical significance, and the role it plays in supplying food or resources to other parts of the world.
  • Which state ranks first in spice production in India? What are the geographical conditions favorable for the production of spices? This question requires students to analyze data related to spice production in India. They need to identify the state that ranks first in spice production. This might involve examining statistical data, maps, or other relevant information about spice production in different states. To answer the second part of the question, students must analyze the geographical conditions that make the identified state favorable for spice production.

Thus, it is concluded that Both questions (A) and (C) require students to think critically and apply their knowledge to provide well-reasoned explanations.

CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 524

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following questions assess only the remembering aspect of cognitive process ? 

(A) What are act passed by the Government of India for the protection of children's right?

(B) What is galaxy? Which galaxy is nearest to our galaxy?

(C) Do you think right to freedom of religion in India works properly ? Does it make India a secular state? 

(D) What problems may crop up when State government and the Union government are run by different political parties?

  1. AOption (a)

    (A) and (B) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (A), (B) and (C)

  3. COption (c)

    (B), (C) and (D)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) and (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(A) and (B) 

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • What are the acts passed by the Government of India for the protection of children's rights? This question requires students to recall and list the names of the acts passed by the Government of India for the protection of children's rights. It assesses their ability to remember specific information.
  • What is a galaxy? Which galaxy is nearest to our galaxy? This question also primarily assesses the remembering aspect. Students need to recall the definition of a galaxy and then remember the name of the galaxy that is nearest to our own (which is the Andromeda galaxy). While there is a small element of understanding in identifying the nearest galaxy, the primary focus is on recalling factual information.

Thus, it is concluded that (A) and (B) is the correct answer.

CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 525

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following questions provide opportunities to develop or make use of multiple perspectives?

(A) What are the factors that determine the climate of a region?

(B) What are the harmful impacts of deforestation ?

(C) What are the main physical divisions of South America?

(D) What are the merits and demerits of multi party system?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (A) and (B)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (A), (B) and (C)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (C)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (D)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only (A) and (B)

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • What are the factors that determine the climate of a region?:- This question requires students to consider various factors that influence the climate of a region, such as latitude, altitude, distance from the sea, prevailing winds, and topography. Different regions have different climate characteristics based on these factors, allowing for multiple perspectives and discussions.
  • What are the harmful impacts of deforestation?:- This question prompts students to explore the negative effects of deforestation on the environment, wildlife, climate, and communities. There can be diverse perspectives on the consequences of deforestation, allowing for discussions and analyses from different viewpoints.

Thus, it is concluded that Only (A) and (B) is the correct answer.

CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 526

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    C. Rajagopalachari

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Explanation:

Here is a brief note on the President of the Constituent Assembly of India:

    • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of the Constituent Assembly of India.
    • The Constituent Assembly was formed on 9th December 1946 and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as its President.
    • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was an eminent lawyer and Congress leader.
    • He played a crucial role in the constitution-making process.
    • After signing the final draft constitution on 26th November 1949, he resigned as the President of the Constituent Assembly.
    • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as the first President of India.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 527

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Who among the following was the only Indian Governor–General of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

  2. BOption (b)

    B. Parrabhi Sitaramayya

  3. COption (c)

    T.T. Krishnamachari

  4. DOption (d)

    C. Rajagopalachari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

C. Rajagopalachari

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is C Rajagopalachari.

Explanation:

  • C. Rajagopalachari, popularly known as Rajaji, was the only Indian to hold the office of the Governor General of India.
  • He served as the Governor General from 1948 to 1950, during the transition of India from British rule to an independent republic.
  • Rajaji was a veteran independence activist and leader of the Indian National Congress.
  • He was the last Governor General appointed by the British Crown.
  • As Governor General, Rajaji oversaw the birth of the republic and the adoption of the Indian constitution.
  • He played a key role in the integration of princely states into the Indian union.
  • After India became a republic in 1950, the office of Governor General was replaced by the Indian President.
  • Rajaji was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award in 1954.
  • To date, he remains the only Indian to have held the post of the Governor General of India.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 528

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

When was the Constitution of India adopted?

  1. AOption (a)

    August 15, 1947

  2. BOption (b)

    November 26, 1947

  3. COption (c)

    November 26, 1949

  4. DOption (d)

    January 26, 1950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

November 26, 1949

Why this answer is correct

The constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949.

Explanation:

  • The drafting of the Indian constitution took almost 3 years.
  • The Constituent Assembly was formed in December 1946 under the leadership of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
  • The Drafting Committee submitted a draft constitution in November 1949.
  • The Constituent Assembly debated and discussed the draft clause by clause for over 2 months.
  • Several amendments were made to the original draft during these deliberations.
  • On 26th November 1949, the final draft was signed and adopted by the Assembly.
  • The adopted constitution came into full effect on 26th January 1950 which was celebrated as India's first Republic Day.
  • 26th January was chosen as it was on this day in 1930 that the Declaration of Indian Independence was proclaimed by the Indian National Congress.
  • The handwritten Constitution of India is the longest in the world with 395 Articles and 22 Parts.
  • Currently, it has a total of 448 Articles after amendments over the years.
  • The constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly after almost 3 years of deliberation.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 529

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Who among the following played a decisive role in integrating the Princely States of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  2. BOption (b)

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

  4. DOption (d)

    C. Rajagopalachri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Explanation:

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played the most decisive role in integrating the Princely States into the Indian union after independence.

  • As India's first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister, Patel was given the monumental task of merging over 500 Princely States with the Indian republic.
  • Through diplomacy, negotiation and tact, Patel secured the accession of the vast majority of Princely States peacefully.
  • In some recalcitrant cases like Junagadh, Hyderabad and Kashmir, Patel authorized military action when talks failed.
  • The speed and strategic brilliance of Patel's 'iron fist in a velvet glove' approach ensured that India remained united.
  • Historians have credited Patel's iron will and leadership for the integration of the Princely States under a federal structure.
  • Patel is referred to as the 'Bismarck of India' for his crucial role in unifying the nation and consolidating its territorial integrity.
  • Without Patel's tireless efforts, modern India may have looked very fragmented and different.
  • He is thus recognized as the key architect of a united India.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 530

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which of the following deal with the matters in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Union Government and State Governments

  2. BOption (b)

    State Governments and Local Governments Bodies

  3. COption (c)

    Union Territories

  4. DOption (d)

    Local Government Bodies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Union Government and State Governments

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Union Government and State Government.

Explanation:

The Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which both the central and state governments can legislate. Some of the key matters in the Concurrent List are:

  • Education
  • Forests
  • Trade unions
  • Economic and social planning
  • Drugs and poisons
  • Factories
  • Price control
  • Adulteration of foodstuffs
  • Social security and social insurance
  • Vagrancy and beggary
  • Prevention of cruelty to animals
  • Population control and family planning
  • Electricity
  • Books and newspapers
  • Stamp duties

The Concurrent List enables both the Union and the States to frame laws on these subjects. However, in case of a conflict between central and state laws on the same matter in the Concurrent List, the central law prevails. The Concurrent List facilitates a greater degree of Centre-State cooperation in legislating on important socio-economic issues.

CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 531

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    C. Rajagopalachari

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dr. B.R.Ambdekar

Explanation:

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly on 29th August 1947.
  • He was a prominent lawyer, economist and social reformer who had served as India's first Law Minister.
  • Ambedkar was chosen to draft the Constitution because of his expertise in constitutional law and his leadership of oppressed classes.
  • Under Ambedkar's stewardship, the Drafting Committee produced a comprehensive draft constitution for independent India.
  • The draft incorporated many progressive and unique constitutional principles and provisions.
  • Ambedkar is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution for his pivotal role in its framing.
  • Although the Constituent Assembly had multiple committees, Ambedkar as Chairman of the Drafting Committee played the most vital part.
  • He piloted the draft Constitution through the Assembly and defended it clause-by-clause against amendments.
  • Ambedkar strived to provide a constitutional framework for securing social justice and equality for all Indians.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 532

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

In the 18th century, under whom did Bengal gradually break away from the Mughal control?

  1. AOption (a)

    Murshid Quli Khan

  2. BOption (b)

    Nadir Shah

  3. COption (c)

    Slivardi Khan

  4. DOption (d)

    Burhan–ul–Mulk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Murshid Quli Khan

Why this answer is correct

In the 18th century under Murshid Quli Khan Bengal gradually break away from the Mughal control.

 Key Points

  • Murshid Quli Khan was a powerful regional figure who served as the diwan, or revenue minister, of Bengal under the Mughal Empire.
  • Recognizing his administrative abilities, Emperor Aurangzeb appointed him as the naib, or deputy, to the governor of the province.
  • This appointment gave Murshid Quli Khan significant power and autonomy in ruling Bengal.
  • Under Murshid Quli Khan's leadership, Bengal gradually started asserting its independence from Mughal control.
  • He implemented various administrative and economic reforms that strengthened Bengal's position.
  • Murshid Quli Khan focused on efficient revenue collection, agricultural development, and trade promotion.
  • He encouraged local industries and trade, which boosted the economy of Bengal.
  • His policies also aimed at reducing corruption and improving governance.
  • Over time, Murshid Quli Khan consolidated his power and established a strong administrative system in Bengal.
  • In 1717, Murshid Quli Khan declared himself the Nawab of Bengal.
  • He shifted his capital from Dhaka to Murshidabad.
  • This marked the beginning of an independent Bengal Subah (province) that lasted until the British East India Company took control in the 18th century.
  • The success of Murshid Quli Khan's administration in Bengal set an example for other regions to challenge Mughal authority.
  • It also paved the way for the establishment of regional powers and the decline of the Mughal Empire in India.
  • Bengal's economic prosperity under Murshid Quli Khan attracted the attention of European powers, particularly the British, who eventually became dominant in the region.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 533

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Who among the following Governor–Generals decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal emperor and after his death, none of the descendants would be recognized as a ruler?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Delhousie

  2. BOption (b)

    William Bentinck

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Canning

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Cornwallis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lord Canning

Why this answer is correct

Lord Canning decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal emperor and after his death, none of the descendants would be recognized as a ruler.

 Key Points

  • Lord Canning, the Governor-General of India, made this decision in 1858, after the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
  • The rebellion was a major uprising against British rule in India, and Bahadur Shah Zafar was accused of being its leader.
  • He was convicted of treason and exiled to Rangoon, Burma (now Myanmar).
  • Canning's decision to end the Mughal dynasty was a symbolic gesture that marked the end of the Mughal Empire.
  • The Mughals had ruled India for over 300 years, but they had been in decline for centuries.
  • The rebellion of 1857 was the final blow to their power.
  • Canning's decision was also a political one.
  • He wanted to ensure that there would be no further challenges to British rule in India.
  • By ending the Mughal dynasty, he removed the last vestige of a native Indian power that could potentially challenge the British.
  • Canning's decision was not without controversy.
  • Some people argued that it was unfair to punish Bahadur Shah Zafar for the actions of others.
  • Others argued that it was wrong to end the Mughal dynasty, which had a long and rich history.
  • However, Canning's decision stood.
  • The Mughal dynasty came to an end with the death of Bahadur Shah Zafar in 1862.
  • None of his descendants were ever recognized as rulers of India.
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Question 534

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which Governor–General declared that Awadh was being misgoverned and British rule was needed to ensure proper administration?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Ripon

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Canning

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Dalhousie

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Mountbatten

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lord Dalhousie

Why this answer is correct

Lord Dalhousie declared that Awadh was being misgoverned and British rule was needed to ensure proper administration.

 Key Points

  • Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, declared that Awadh was being misgoverned and that British rule was needed to ensure proper administration.
  • He annexed Awadh in 1856, using the Doctrine of Lapse as his justification.
  • The Doctrine of Lapse stated that if a prince died without a male heir, his territory would be annexed by the British.
  • The British had used this doctrine before, but the annexation of Awadh was the most controversial.
  • The Nawab of Awadh, Wajid Ali Shah, was a popular ruler, and many people in Awadh were opposed to the annexation.
  • The annexation of Awadh was one of the factors that led to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
  • The rebels saw the annexation as a sign that the British were not interested in ruling India in a benevolent way.
  • They also saw it as a violation of the terms of the Subsidiary Alliance, which had been signed between the British and Awadh in 1801.
  • The annexation of Awadh is a complex issue with a long history.
  • There is no doubt that the Nawab of Awadh was a weak and ineffective ruler.
  • However, the British decision to annex Awadh was also motivated by a desire to expand their empire.
  • The annexation was a major turning point in the history of British rule in India.
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Question 535

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which ruler of Kanpur called himself 'Peshwa'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nana Saheb

  2. BOption (b)

    Bajirao I

  3. COption (c)

    Bajirao II

  4. DOption (d)

    Bahadur Shah Zafar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nana Saheb

Why this answer is correct

Nana Saheb called himself 'Peshwa'.

Key Points

  • Nana Saheb, the adopted son of the last Peshwa, Baji Rao II, called himself Peshwa after the death of his father in 1852.
  • This was a controversial move, as the Peshwaship had been abolished by the British East India Company in 1818.
  • However, Nana Saheb argued that he was the rightful heir to the Peshwaship and that the British had no right to take it away from him.
  • Nana Saheb's use of the title Peshwa was a symbolic gesture, as it represented his claim to be the legitimate ruler of the Maratha Empire.
  • It also gave him a degree of legitimacy in the eyes of the Indian people, who still respected the Peshwaship as a symbol of Maratha's power.
  • Nana Saheb's use of the title Peshwa was also a political move.
  • He hoped that by calling himself Peshwa, he would be able to rally the Indian people to his cause and lead them in a rebellion against the British.
  • However, his plans were ultimately unsuccessful, and he was forced to flee India in 1859.
  • The title Peshwa is still used today by some people as a way to honour Nana Saheb and his legacy.
  • However, it is no longer a recognized political title.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 536

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

The best methodology to teach the theme 'Factory' would be–

  1. AOption (a)

    to narrate a story

  2. BOption (b)

    to invite a resource person

  3. COption (c)

    to organize a visit to an industrial plant

  4. DOption (d)

    to screen a documentary film

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

to organize a visit to an industrial plant

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Organizing a visit to an industrial plant provides students with a practical and hands-on learning experience.
  • It allows them to see a real factory in operation, observe various processes, and understand how products are manufactured.
  • This direct experience enables students to make meaningful connections between the concepts they learn in the classroom and their real-life applications.
  • It also fosters curiosity, critical thinking, and a deeper understanding of the theme.

Thus, it is concluded that the best methodology to teach the theme 'Factory' would be to organize a visit to an industrial plant.

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Question 537

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

What is EDUSAT?

  1. AOption (a)

    The rocket that carries man–made satellites to be placed in the orbit around the sun

  2. BOption (b)

    A newly discovered planet in the solar system

  3. COption (c)

    An asteroid found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter

  4. DOption (d)

    A man–made Indian satellite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A man–made Indian satellite

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'A man–made Indian satellite'

Key Points  

  • EDUSAT was launched by ISRO on September 20, 2004, using a Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
  • It was India's first dedicated satellite for educational purposes and was designed to bridge the education gap between urban and rural areas by providing quality educational content to remote and less accessible regions of the country.
  • Key features and objectives of EDUSAT:
  • Educational Content Delivery: EDUSAT was equipped with Ku-band transponders that allowed for high-quality transmission of multimedia educational content, including video lectures, virtual classrooms, and other interactive learning materials.
  • Tele-Education: The satellite facilitated tele-education programs, allowing students in remote areas to access lectures and educational resources from expert teachers and educators located elsewhere. This was particularly beneficial for subjects where skilled teachers were scarce.
  • Tele-Medicine: In addition to education, EDUSAT also supported telemedicine applications, enabling medical professionals in remote areas to receive guidance and consultations from experts at distant medical centers.
  • Village Resource Centers (VRCs): To enhance the reach of educational services, EDUSAT was used to establish Village Resource Centers, where people could gather to access educational and health-related content through the satellite link.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 538

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

The verses and ideas of which one of the following personalities have been preserved in 'Panchvani' and 'Bihak'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mirabai

  2. BOption (b)

    Kabir

  3. COption (c)

    Guru Nanak

  4. DOption (d)

    Ravidas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kabir

Why this answer is correct

The verses and ideas of Kabir have been preserved in 'Panchvani' and 'Bihak'.

Key Points

  • The verses and ideas of Kabir, a 15th-century Indian mystic poet, have been preserved in two major texts: Panchvani and Bijak.
  • Panchvani (literally, "the words of the five") is a collection of Kabir's poems and songs, compiled by his followers in the 16th century.
  • It is divided into five sections, each of which is dedicated to a different aspect of Kabir's teachings.
  • Bijak (literally, "seed") is a collection of Kabir's spiritual sayings, compiled in the 17th century.
  • It is a more esoteric text than Panchvani, and it deals with topics such as the nature of reality, the soul, and the path to liberation.
  • Both Panchvani and Bijak are important texts in the Kabir Panth, a religious tradition that was founded by Kabir's followers.
  • They are also valuable sources for understanding Kabir's teachings, which are a blend of Hindu and Islamic ideas.
  • In addition to Panchvani and Bijak, Kabir's verses have also been preserved in other texts, such as the Bhatiavani and the Anand Sagar.
  • These texts provide a more complete picture of Kabir's life and teachings, and they help to show how his ideas have influenced the development of Indian thought.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 539

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

The moral painting from Ellora Caves which shows Vishnu as Narasimha, the man–lion, is a work of which period?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gurjara–Pratihara period

  2. BOption (b)

    Rashtrakuta period

  3. COption (c)

    Chalukya period

  4. DOption (d)

    Gupta period

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rashtrakuta period

Why this answer is correct

The moral painting from Ellora Caves which shows Vishnu as Narasimha, the man–lion, is a work of the Rashtrakuta period.

 Key Points

  • The mural painting from Ellora Caves which shows Vishnu as Narasimha, the man-lion, is a work of the Rashtrakuta period.
  • The Rashtrakutas were a dynasty that ruled over the Deccan region of India from the 7th to the 10th centuries.
  • They were patrons of the arts, and their reign saw a flowering of Hindu art and architecture.
  • The mural painting in Cave 15 of Ellora is a fine example of this art.
  • It depicts the story of Narasimha, one of the avatars of Vishnu.
  • Narasimha is a fearsome form of Vishnu, and he is depicted in the painting as a half-man, half-lion creature.
  • He is shown slaying the demon Hiranyakashipu, who had been terrorizing the world.
  • The painting is a powerful depiction of the triumph of good over evil.
  • The Rashtrakutas were also patrons of Jainism and Buddhism, and there are many Jain and Buddhist caves at Ellora.
  • However, the Hindu caves are the most numerous, and they include some of the most impressive examples of Hindu art and architecture in India.
  • The mural painting in Cave 15 is a highlight of the Hindu caves at Ellora, and it is a testament to the artistic and religious achievements of the Rashtrakutas.
CTET Paper 2 Social Science 30th Jan 2023 (English-Hindi) (Previous Year Paper)·Social Studies
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Question 540

Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) 2023• Social Studies• Social Studies

Which one of the following organizations believes in Upanishads?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brahmo Samaj

  2. BOption (b)

    Ramakrishna Mission

  3. COption (c)

    Satyashodhak Samaj

  4. DOption (d)

    Seva Samaj

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Brahmo Samaj

Why this answer is correct

Brahmo Samaj believes in the Upanishads.

Key Points

  • The Brahmo Samaj is a religious reform movement founded in India in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
  • The Samaj's beliefs are based on the Upanishads, which are ancient Hindu texts that explore the nature of reality and the relationship between the individual and the divine.
  • The Samaj believes in a form of monotheism, and it rejects the caste system, idol worship, and other traditional Hindu practices.
  • The Upanishads are a collection of philosophical texts that were written between 800 and 500 BCE.
  • They are considered to be some of the most important texts in Hinduism, and they have influenced many other religions, including Buddhism and Jainism.
  • The Upanishads explore a wide range of topics, including the nature of reality, the soul, and the relationship between the individual and the divine.
  • The Brahmo Samaj's belief in the Upanishads is reflected in its emphasis on the importance of reason, introspection, and personal experience.
  • The Samaj believes that each individual can find their own path to truth through these means.
  • The Brahmo Samaj has had a significant impact on Indian society.
  • It has helped to promote religious reform, social justice, and women's rights.
  • The Samaj's work has inspired other religious reform movements in India, and it has helped to shape the modern face of Hinduism.

How should I prepare for Social Studies in Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.