English Comprehension PYQs

The correct answer is enzymes.

Key PointsMicrobodies in Plant and Animal Cells

• Microbodies are specialized organelles found within both plant and animal cells, serving various functions depending on their specific types such as peroxisomes, glyoxysomes, and others.
• These organelles are key to various metabolic processes including lipid metabolism, the detoxification of hydrogen peroxide via the enzyme catalase, and other pathways involving enzymes.
• Microbodies contain enzymes that are crucial for the breakdown of fatty acids and the detoxification processes. These enzymes facilitate reactions that would otherwise be harmful to the cell.
• Enzymes within microbodies play a vital role in the conversion of reactive oxygen species into safer molecules, protecting cells from oxidative stress.
• The presence of enzymes in microbodies highlights their role in cellular metabolism and protection.

Hence, the correct statement is that microbodies contain enzymes.

Additional Information

• Peroxisomes are a type of microbody found in virtually all eukaryotic cells, involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids, branched chain fatty acids, D-amino acids, and polyamines.
• Glyoxysomes, found in plant cells, especially in seedlings, play a crucial role in the conversion of fat into carbohydrates during germination.
• The enzyme catalase, which is abundant in peroxisomes, breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen, a critical reaction for cell protection against oxidative damage.
• Microbodies are important for lipid metabolism, playing a role in the biosynthesis of plasmalogens, which are important components of the myelin sheath of nerve cells.
• The study of microbodies and their enzymes has implications for understanding human diseases, such as X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (X-ALD), which involves the accumulation of very long chain fatty acids due to a peroxisome biogenesis disorder.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Cooling Principles
• When attempting to cool something quickly, the effectiveness of heat transfer and the conditions that facilitate it are crucial.
• A combination of conduction (direct contact with cooler substances) and convection (movement of air) will enable faster cooling.
• Best Option: Bowl of Water with Fan
• Keeps the bowl of rice in a bowl of water at room temperature enhances heat transfer due to conduction between the rice and the cooler water.
• Operating a ceiling fan (or table fan) at full speed promotes convection, where moving air helps to carry away the absorbed heat from the water.
• This combination of conducting heat to the cooler water and removing this water's heat through airflow provides the most efficient cooling method among the given options.

Additional Information

• Heat capacity of water: Water has one of the highest specific heat capacities among common substances, which is why it is an excellent medium for cooling. This property allows water to absorb a lot of heat before its temperature rises significantly.
• Conduction vs. Convection:
• Conduction is the process of heat transfer through direct contact between materials at different temperatures. It's very effective in cooling solid foods quickly when immersed in liquids.
• Convection involves the movement of heat through fluids (liquids or gases) caused by molecular motion. While effective in air-cooling systems, its efficiency is highly dependent on the airflow and the surface area exposed to the cool air.
• Food safety: Rapid cooling of cooked foods is crucial in food safety. Bacteria grow most rapidly in the range of temperatures between 40°F and 140°F, doubling in number in as little as 20 minutes. Quick cooling reduces the time food spends in this "danger zone".

The correct answer is Desert climate

Key PointsKöppen Climate Classification

• The Köppen climate classification system categorizes the world's climates into five main groups: A (Tropical), B (Dry), C (Temperate), D (Continental), and E (Polar).
• Under this system, the letter "B" denotes dry climates, and the subsequent letter indicates a more specific climate type.
• "BW" stands for desert climate, characterized by very low precipitation that does not meet the requirements to support most forms of vegetation.
• "BS" signifies steppe climate, which is a semi-arid climate with slightly more precipitation than desert climates, allowing for some grasslands and shrublands to thrive.
• The desert climate (BW) is further divided based on temperature, such as hot deserts (BWh) and cold deserts (BWk).
• Steppe climates (BS), found on the edges of deserts, serve as a transition between the desert climate and more humid climates, showcasing a gradient of vegetation density.
• Köppen’s classification is widely used for its simplicity and effectiveness in depicting climate zones based on vegetation, temperature, and precipitation patterns.

Hence, the correct option is Steppe climate.

Additional Information

• The Köppen climate classification system was first published by the German climatologist Wladimir Köppen in 1884 and has been updated several times to reflect new findings in climatology.
• This classification system is essential for understanding global climate patterns and their influence on the distribution of flora, fauna, and human societies.
• Desert climates (BW) are characterized by evaporation rates that exceed precipitation, leading to sparse water resources and vegetation. These regions include the Sahara Desert in Africa and the Arabian Desert in the Middle East.
• Steppe climates (BS) are often located at the margins of deserts, receiving slightly more rainfall, which supports a broader variety of life. Examples include the Great Plains in North America and the Steppes of Central Asia.
• Understanding these climate zones is crucial for agriculture, urban planning, and managing water resources, especially in regions prone to droughts or desertification.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.**

Key Points

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a significant multilateral organization aimed at fostering cooperation in political, economic, and security matters among its member states.
• One of the primary goals of the SCO is indeed to promote a new democratic, fair, and rational international political and economic order. This objective is aligned with the organization's broader vision to enhance mutual trust, neighborliness, and friendship among member countries.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Iran has officially become a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) during an India-hosted virtual summit of the influential grouping in 2023.
• Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The SCO was established in 2001 in Shanghai by the leaders of China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO in 2017, highlighting the organization's expanding influence and the growing interest of South Asian countries in participating in regional security and economic frameworks.
• The SCO focuses on several key areas, including anti-terrorism, security, economic cooperation, and cultural exchange. These priorities reflect the organization's comprehensive approach to fostering stable and prosperous relations among its members.
• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, is a specialized SCO agency dedicated to promoting cooperation among member states against terrorism, separatism, and extremism.

The correct answer is lysozyme.

Key PointsAntibacterial Enzyme in Saliva and Tears

• Lysozyme is a naturally occurring enzyme found in bodily secretions such as saliva, tears, and milk.
• It plays a crucial role in the body's immune system by protecting against bacterial infection.
• Lysozyme functions by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria, specifically targeting the peptidoglycan layer, leading to the lysis or dissolving of the bacterial cell.
• This enzyme is significant in both innate and adaptive immunity as it is one of the first lines of defense against microbial invasion.
• Its presence in tears and saliva is particularly important for protecting the eyes and oral cavity from bacterial infections.
• Lysozyme's antibacterial properties have been utilized in food preservation, medicine, and veterinary science to combat bacterial infections and preserve the shelf life of perishable goods.

Hence, the correct option is lysozyme.

Additional Information

• Ribozyme is a type of RNA that can catalyze chemical reactions, often involved in the synthesis and modification of RNA itself within the cell.
• Lipase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats into glycerol and free fatty acids, playing a critical role in digestion and lipid metabolism.
• Isomerase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of a molecule from one isomer to another, including structural rearrangements within a molecule.
• The study of enzymes like lysozyme contributes significantly to our understanding of immune system functioning and provides insights into developing new therapeutic approaches for bacterial infections.
• Lysozyme's ability to lyse bacteria without harming human cells makes it an attractive component in creating antibacterial treatments that are less likely to contribute to antibiotic resistance, a growing concern in the medical community.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action was established in 2016, during the COP22 climate conference held in Marrakech, Morocco, to enhance cooperation among parties and non-party stakeholders, including cities, regions, businesses, and investors, in the fight against climate change.
• It is an intergovernmental partnership for global climate action, aiming to strengthen collaboration and ambition to mitigate global warming. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It also encompasses a broader collaboration between governments and other stakeholders, such as cities, businesses, investors, and civil society, recognising the crucial role they play in achieving global climate goals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The partnership's actions and initiatives are in alignment with and guided by the broader international frameworks, including the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and its Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), highlighting the interconnectedness of climate action and sustainable development. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future, which was adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015.
• The Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action plays a critical role in facilitating non-state actors’ engagement in climate action, complementing the nationally determined contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.
• This partnership recognises the need for an inclusive approach to handling the climate crisis, whereby actions from every level of society are necessary to meet the ambitious targets set by the international community to combat climate change and its impacts.
• The approach of the Marrakech Partnership is representative of the shift in climate change governance towards a more 'polycentric' model, where multiple levels of governance, including non-governmental actors, play a crucial role in addressing the complex challenge of climate change.

The correct answer is The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Key PointsThe International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)

• The IUCN is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
• It was established in 1948, making it one of the oldest global environmental organizations.
• The IUCN is best known for compiling and publishing the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.
• This list categorizes species into nine groups, from Least Concern to Extinct, based on their population status, trends, and threats.
• It operates through a network of member organizations which includes governments, NGOs, and scientific institutions from around the world.
• The IUCN's work is vital for informing conservation policies, legislation, and actions at both the global and local levels.

Hence, the statement regarding the IUCN publishing the worldwide list of endangered species is correct.

Additional Information

• The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity. It provides information on the range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.
• The IUCN also plays a significant role in the implementation of global conventions such as the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), and the World Heritage Convention.
• Through its Species Survival Commission (SSC), the IUCN has thousands of volunteers who contribute to its species assessment work.
• The organization’s work extends beyond species assessment to include protected area management, climate change mitigation, and environmental policy development.
• The IUCN's headquarters is located in Gland, Switzerland, but it operates globally through its regional offices and member organizations.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.**

Key PointsThe ICC under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup, 2024

• In the final, Australia defeated India by 79 runs to win their fourth Under-19 Cricket World Cup title. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The 2024 ICC Under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup was an international limited-overs cricket tournament organized by the International Cricket Council (ICC), that was held in South Africa from 19 January to 11 February 2024. It was the fifteenth edition of the Under-19 Cricket World Cup. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The ICC under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup is a pivotal event in the cricket calendar, offering a platform for young talents to showcase their skills on an international stage.
• This tournament has been instrumental in discovering future stars of international cricket.
• South Africa has previously hosted international cricket tournaments, including the ICC under-19 Men's Cricket World Cup, noted for its excellent cricketing infrastructure and history of successfully organizing major sports events.

The correct answer is Potato, onion, garlic.

Key Points

• Underground Stems/Modified Stems
• Potato: It is a tuber, which is a type of underground stem modified for the storage of nutrients.
• Onion: It is a bulb, another type of underground stem where layers of modified leaves (scales) are arranged around a central stem.
• Garlic: Similar to onion, garlic is also a bulb, and it consists of multiple cloves, each of which is a small bulb covered by a papery tunic.

Additional Information

• In the study of botany, underground stems such as tubers, rhizomes, corms, and bulbs play a critical role in asexual reproduction, nutrient storage, and the survival of the plant through unfavourable conditions.
• Tubers are characterized by the presence of eyes or buds, which can grow into new plants. The potato is the most common example, where each eye can give rise to a new plant.
• Rhizomes are also underground stems, running horizontally beneath the soil surface. Ginger and turmeric are examples of plants that have rhizomes.
• Corms are short, vertical, swollen underground plant stems that serve as storage organs to help the plant survive winter and other adverse conditions, examples include crocuses and gladiolus.
• Bulbs, like onions and garlic, are another form of modified stems, consisting of a short stem with fleshy leaves or leaf bases that function as food storage organs during dormancy.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• The Special Marriage Act, 1954 in India provides a legal framework for the marriage of individuals irrespective of their religion or faith. It allows for interreligious marriages without the need for converting to one another's religion.
• This Act lays down the procedures and conditions for a valid marriage, including notice period, age of consent, and others, ensuring legal recognition of such marriages. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Right to marry a person of one's choice is indeed recognized as an integral aspect of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
• The Supreme Court of India has affirmed that choosing a life partner is a person's inviolable freedom under Article 21. This underscores the protection of individual autonomy in personal relationships. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), adopted by the United Nations in 1948, articulates the fundamental rights and freedoms to which all human beings are entitled.
• Article 16 of the UDHR specifically addresses the right to marry and to found a family, stating that men and women of full age have the right to marry and to found a family, without any limitation due to race, nationality, or religion. They are entitled to equal rights as to marriage, during marriage, and at its dissolution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• The Special Marriage Act is particularly significant for couples in interfaith or intercaste marriages, providing a secular form of marriage registration and certification.
• It represents an important recognition of the multicultural and pluralistic society of India, ensuring that marriage, a fundamental social institution, is accessible and equitable for all citizens, regardless of their religious or social backgrounds.
• Article 21 of the Constitution of India is one of the most comprehensive rights, providing the basis for a wide range of rights related to life and personal liberty. This includes the right to privacy, the right to live with human dignity, and the right to environmental protection, among others.
• The Universal Declaration of Human Rights serves as a foundational document for international human rights law.
• It has inspired numerous international treaties, national constitutions, and legal frameworks worldwide, emphasizing the inherent dignity and the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the human family.

The correct answer is The Brahmaputra, Sadiya-Dhubri.

Key PointsNational Waterway No. 2

• National Waterway No. 2 is situated on the Brahmaputra river, stretching from Sadiya in the east of Assam to Dhubri in the west of Assam, covering a distance of about 891 km.
• This waterway plays a crucial role in the transportation of goods and passengers in the North-Eastern region of India, enhancing the connectivity within the region.
• It is strategically important for not just the economic development of the region but also for improving the logistic efficiency and reducing the transportation cost.
• The Brahmaputra river, being one of the major rivers in India, offers a navigable water route which is environmentally friendly and cost-effective.
• Development and maintenance of National Waterway No. 2 is undertaken by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), which aims at facilitating inland water transport.
• The waterway is also seen as a significant step towards leveraging the Act East Policy, promoting trade links with neighboring countries through water transport.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• The concept of National Waterways in India is aimed at developing the inland waterways for the effective transportation of goods and passengers across the country, ensuring minimal environmental impact.
• India has several designated National Waterways, each identified for its potential to enhance the overall logistic network and to promote regional development.
• The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the statutory authority in charge of the waterways in India. Its role includes the development and regulation of the inland waterways for navigation and transport.
• The use of inland waterways is seen as a step towards sustainable development by promoting eco-friendly modes of transportation, which also helps in decongesting road and rail networks.
• Act East Policy of India emphasizes improving economic ties, transportation links, and promoting cultural bonds with East and Southeast Asian countries. The development of National Waterways, including Waterway No. 2, aligns with this policy, facilitating trade and connectivity with countries such as Bangladesh, Myanmar, and beyond.

The correct answer is 2 only.

Key PointsBharat Ratna Award

• The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India.
• It was instituted in the year 1954, not in 1972 as incorrectly mentioned in statement

1. • This award is given in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The award does not carry any monetary grant with it, just a medallion and a citation.
• It is a recognition by the nation of the recipient's exceptional service/contribution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex is eligible for these awards.

Additional Information

• It is interesting to note that the Bharat Ratna and all other civilian awards were suspended from July 1977 to January 1980 and subsequently from August 1992 to December 1995.
• The recommendation for Bharat Ratna is made by the Prime Minister to the President of India, with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year.
• The recipients receive a certificate signed by the President and a medallion. The award does not include any cash allowance or reward.
• Notable recipients include C. Rajagopalachari, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and C.V. Raman who were the first recipients of the Bharat Ratna in 1954.
• The award has been conferred upon a diverse range of individuals, including scientists, politicians, artists, and social workers.
• The criteria for awarding the Bharat Ratna have evolved over the years, and it has been awarded for achievements in the arts, literature, science, and public services, as well as for service of the highest order in any field of human endeavour.
• Posthumous awards have also been made. For example, former Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri was awarded the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1966.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• The weighted average lending rate refers to the average rate of interest that banks charge on loans and advances, adjusted by the relative size of each loan. It is a critical indicator for assessing how changes in policy rates (such as the repo rate set by the central bank) affect lending rates offered to customers.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The weighted average domestic term deposit rate is the average rate that banks offer to depositors for fixed deposits, again weighted by the amount of each deposit. This rate is significant for understanding the transmission of policy rate changes to deposit rates, which in turn can influence savings and investment decisions in the economy.
• Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The 1-year median Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) is a reference rate set by banks below which they cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the central bank. It is designed to more accurately reflect the current cost of funds, making it a crucial measure of the monetary transmission mechanism. However, it is not explicitly mentioned in the context of this question.
• Hence, statement 3 is not highlighted as a correct option.
• The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate is a rate at which the central bank absorbs liquidity without providing collateral. It's a tool for managing excess liquidity in the banking system and influences short-term interest rates, but it is not directly used to observe the monetary transmission mechanism in the context of this question.
• Hence, statement 4 is not highlighted as a correct option.

Additional Information

• The monetary transmission mechanism describes how policy decisions made by the central bank, such as changes in the policy interest rate, are passed on through the banking sector to influence the real economy. This process involves changes in bank rates, asset prices, exchange rates, and ultimately impacts spending and investment decisions by households and firms.
• Policy rates like the repo rate or reverse repo rate are critical tools for central banks to control liquidity and manage inflation. Changes in these rates signal the central bank's stance on monetary policy, influencing economic activity.
• The effectiveness of the monetary transmission mechanism depends on various factors, including the structure of the financial system, the level of development of financial markets, and the degree of financial inclusion among the population.
• In countries like India, where the banking sector plays a significant role in the financial system, indicators such as the weighted average lending rate and the weighted average domestic term deposit rate are particularly important for observing the impact of monetary policy changes.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsThe International Court of Justice (ICJ)

• The ICJ, also known as the World Court, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
• It was established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in 1946.
• The court's role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted by states, and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized agencies.
• The Court consists of 15 judges, elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These two bodies vote simultaneously but independently of each other, and candidates need to obtain an absolute majority in both to be elected.
• No two judges may be nationals of the same country at the time of their election, ensuring the representation of the main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The General Assembly and the Security Council are involved in the election process of the ICJ judges. They proceed independently of one another to elect the members of the Court. This unique voting arrangement was designed to ensure the independence of the judiciary from the political organs of the United Nations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The ICJ is located in the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
• It is the only one of the six principal organs of the United Nations not located in New York City.
• This setting underscores its independence from the political operations of the United Nations.
• Only countries (states) may be parties in cases before the ICJ, which has led to a significant body of case law on issues such as land disputes, maritime boundaries, and diplomatic relations.
• The ICJ's advisory role also plays a critical function in the development and interpretation of international law. Advisory opinions have covered a wide range of legal issues, including the legality of nuclear weapons, the legality of the threat or use of nuclear weapons, and the legal consequences of the construction of a wall in the Occupied Palestinian Territory.

The correct answer is 'Land that has been left fallow for more than five years'

Key Points

• Culturable Wasteland:
• Culturable wasteland refers to land that is not currently being cultivated but can potentially be brought under cultivation.
• This land has been left fallow for a period exceeding five years, which means it has not been tilled, sown, or used for agricultural production during this period.
• Such land can be made productive again through interventions such as soil improvement, irrigation, and other agricultural practices.
• Identifying and rehabilitating culturable wasteland is important for increasing agricultural productivity and ensuring food security.

Additional Information

• Other types of fallow land:
• Land that has been left fallow in the last four years: This does not qualify as culturable wasteland as the period of being left uncultivated is shorter than five years. Such land might still retain fertility and require minimal intervention to return to agricultural use.
• Land left fallow between one and two years: Known as current fallow, this land is often left unused to regain fertility and does not fall into the category of culturable wasteland.
• Land left fallow for less than one year: This land is usually left uncultivated for a short period as part of crop rotation and soil management practices, and is not considered culturable wasteland.

Important Point

• Re​clamation of Culturable Wasteland: Efforts to bring culturable wastelands under cultivation may include measures like soil improvement, irrigation development, and the introduction of sustainable farming practices. These efforts contribute to land conservation and agricultural expansion.
• Government Initiatives: In many countries, including India, government programs aim to identify, reclaim, and develop culturable wastelands to boost agricultural output and support rural livelihoods. These initiatives often involve collaboration between government agencies, local communities, and international organizations.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Addressing the issue of culturable wastelands aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, particularly SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) and SDG 15 (Life on Land), which emphasize sustainable agriculture practices and land use management.
• Technological Interventions: Advances in remote sensing and geographic information systems (GIS) technology have improved the capability to identify, map, and monitor culturable wastelands, facilitating targeted interventions for their reclamation and productive us

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.**

Key Points

• The Global Innovation Index (GII) is an annual ranking that measures the innovation capabilities and performance of countries around the world. It is published by the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO).
• In the Global Innovation Index-2023, India has been placed at 40^th rank. This positioning reflects the country's ongoing efforts to become a hub of innovation, supported by government initiatives and a burgeoning startup ecosystem.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Over the years, India has shown a consistent improvement in its ranking on the Global Innovation Index. From a longer-term perspective, since 2015, India has indeed been on a rising trajectory in terms of its innovation capabilities and output.
• Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The Global Innovation Index is a critical tool for policymakers to understand the innovation ecosystem of their countries and to identify areas of strength and weakness.
• The Index evaluates countries based on various parameters including institutions, human capital and research, infrastructure, market sophistication, business sophistication, knowledge and technology outputs, and creative outputs.
• India's improvement in the GII rankings over the years is a testament to the country's enhanced focus on innovation, primarily driven by improvements in the quality of institutions, higher education, and research, among other factors.
• Key initiatives by the Indian government such as the Start-up India campaign, Atal Innovation Mission, and increased spending on research and development have played a significant role in improving India's innovation ecosystem.
• The rise in India's rank in the Global Innovation Index is also indicative of the growing international recognition of the country's potential to contribute to global innovation and technology development.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate was indeed introduced in April 2022 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). This facility allows banks to park their excess funds with the RBI without the need for providing securities as collateral.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The SDF replaced the Fixed Rate Reverse Repo (FRRR) as the floor of the LAF corridor.
• The SDF rate is set at 25 basis points (bps) below the policy repo rate.
• ​Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate the liquidity and the short-term interest rates in the economy. It consists of two main components:
• Repo rate: The rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks.
• Reverse repo rate: The rate at which the RBI borrows from commercial banks.
• The introduction of the SDF provides the RBI with an additional lever to absorb liquidity without the need for collateral, thereby offering the RBI greater flexibility in its liquidity management operations.
• The policy corridor formed by the difference between the repo rate and the reverse repo rate is crucial for maintaining short-term interest rates within a target range. This corridor helps in controlling inflation and stabilizing the currency.
• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI is responsible for fixing the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to control inflation within a specified target level.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• Bhoonidhi Vista is a forward-looking initiative that embodies the growing trend of utilizing spatial technology and geospatial data for environmental observation and management.
• It is indeed a data visualisation service of Bhoonidhi that empowers users by providing full resolution mosaicked data visualization capability through Web Map Service. This feature significantly enhances the accessibility and utility of remote sensing data, catering to a wide range of applications from academic research to policy-making. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The platform being enabled for ResourceSat-2/2A, Sentinel 1 and 2 satellites is indicative of its comprehensive coverage and flexibility. ResourceSat satellites are known for their utility in resource monitoring, whereas the Sentinel series, part of the European Space Agency's Copernicus program, are pivotal in Earth observation which includes land, ocean, and atmospheric monitoring. The inclusion of data from these satellites allows Bhoonidhi Vista to serve a broad spectrum of environmental and climatic research needs with high-resolution imagery. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Data visualisation services like Bhoonidhi Vista play a critical role in the current era of data-driven decision making. By transforming raw data into graphical or pictorial format, these services make complex data sets understandable and actionable for non-experts, enabling broader participation in environmental stewardship.
• Web Map Service (WMS) is an important standard in the realm of geospatial data sharing and visualization, facilitating the easy online access and manipulation of map images generated from geospatial data.
• The capacity to integrate data from different satellite sources into a single platform like Bhoonidhi Vista not only exemplifies the technological advancements in remote sensing data management but also significantly enhances the scope and accuracy of environmental monitoring and analysis.
• Projects such as Bhoonidhi Vista underscore the importance of geospatial technology in tackling contemporary challenges such as climate change, deforestation, and urban planning, among others, by providing crucial data that informs better decision-making and policy formulation.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsUnderstanding Angular and Linear Velocity

• Angular velocity refers to the rate at which an object rotates or revolves relative to another point, essentially how fast an object spins around its axis. For the Earth, this means how quickly it rotates on its axis.
• The Earth completes one rotation about its axis in approximately 24 hours, making the angular velocity constant for all locations on Earth's surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Linear velocity, on the other hand, indicates the rate at which an object moves along a path. For any point on the Earth's surface, this is determined by the rotational velocity and the distance from the axis of rotation.
• Since the Earth is wider at the equator, points on the equator travel a greater distance in one rotation (24 hours) compared to points near the poles, resulting in higher linear velocities at the equator and lower at the poles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The concept of angular velocity is fundamental in various fields such as astronomy, physics, and engineering, explaining phenomena like day and night cycles, seasonal changes, and the functioning of various mechanical and navigational instruments.
• It is crucial for understanding the dynamics of rotating systems in space, such as galaxies, solar systems, and planets.
• Linear velocity has practical applications in areas like aviation, where it helps in calculating the speed required for aircraft to take off or land depending on their direction of movement relative to the Earth's rotation.
• Equatorial bulge is a phenomenon associated with the Earth’s rotation, where the equator experiences a slight outward bulge due to centrifugal force. This bulge affects the Earth's gravitational field slightly but is significant enough to influence satellite orbits and sea levels.
• The differences in linear velocity across the Earth's surface have implications for phenomena such as the Coriolis effect, which influences weather patterns, ocean currents, and even the flight paths of long-distance projectiles.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key PointsGreen Credit Initiative

• The Green Credit Initiative is designed as a response to the challenge of climate change, aiming to encourage sustainable environmental practices by offering incentives for preserving and expanding green cover.
• It supports actions that mitigate climate change effects, making it a crucial step towards a sustainable future. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This initiative promotes plantations on wasteland and river catchment areas, which are vital for maintaining ecological balance, preventing soil erosion, enhancing water retention, and increasing biodiversity.
• By focusing on these areas, the initiative seeks to rehabilitate degraded lands and improve water quality and availability. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• However, the claim that it is a scheme of the Government of India to replace kerosene oil with solar power used by the rural poor does not directly relate to the Green Credit Initiative.
• This statement seems to confuse the initiative with other government programs aimed at promoting renewable energy sources. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The concept of green credits revolves around the idea of assigning a monetary value to environmental conservation efforts, such as tree planting or restoration of natural habitats.
• These credits can be traded, bought, or sold, providing a financial mechanism to support and incentivize conservation activities.
• Initiatives like the Green Credit Initiative are essential in the context of global climate change mitigation efforts, as they offer tangible incentives for environmental conservation, supporting global targets such as those outlined in the Paris Agreement.
• Such initiatives contribute to the broader goals of reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting sustainable development.
• Wastelands and river catchment areas play a crucial role in the ecosystem.
• Rehabilitating these areas not only contributes to biodiversity conservation but also supports livelihoods by providing ecosystem services such as clean water and fertile soil for agriculture.