Combined Defence Services (CDS) · Topic Collection

English Comprehension PYQs

Reading comprehension, vocabulary, synonyms and antonyms, idiom usage, error spotting, sentence improvement, and cloze tests.

4560 Total Questions38 Official PapersYears: 2016–2025Search in English Comprehension
Showing questions 461–480 of 4560Page 24 of 100
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 461

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

If the price index increased from 100 in 2021 to 110 in 2022 to 132 in 2023, then the rate of inflation is:

  1. AOption (a)

    0.1

  2. BOption (b)

    0.32

  3. COption (c)

    0.2

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0.2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Option 3 (0.2).

Key PointsRate of Inflation Calculation

  • To determine the rate of inflation, we need to analyze the change in the price index over the specified period.
  • The price index increased from 100 in 2021 to 110 in 2022 and then to 132 in 2023.
  • We need to calculate the inflation rate for each year first and then determine the average if required.
  • The formula to calculate the inflation rate is:

Inflation Rate = (New Price Index - Old Price Index) / Old Price Index

Additional Information

  • Calculation for 2022:
  • The price index increased from 100 in 2021 to 110 in 2022.
  • Using the formula:

Inflation Rate for 2022 = (110 - 100) / 100 = 0.10 or 10%

  • Hence, the inflation rate for 2022 is 10%.
  • Calculation for 2023:
  • The price index increased from 110 in 2022 to 132 in 2023.
  • Using the formula:

Inflation Rate for 2023 = (132 - 110) / 110 = 0.20 or 20%

  • Hence, the inflation rate for 2023 is 20%.
  • Explanation:
  • The correct answer is determined based on the calculation of the inflation rate between 2022 and 2023.
  • The rate of inflation between 2022 and 2023 is 0.20 or 20%.
  • Option 3 correctly represents the 20% inflation rate for the given period.

Additional Information

  • Inflation is an economic term that describes the rise in prices for goods and services over time.
  • Price Index is a normalized average of price relatives for a given class of goods or services in a given region, during a given interval of time.
  • The commonly used price indices include the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Producer Price Index (PPI).
  • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services.
  • The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output.
  • Understanding inflation is crucial for economic policy-making, as it affects purchasing power, cost of living, and can influence interest rates and wages.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 462

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

The Rangarajan Committee methodology for determining the poverty line incorporated which of the following?

  1. A food component 2. A normative level of expenditure for essential non-food items
  2. A behaviourally determined expenditure for other non-food items

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 3.

Key PointsRangarajan Committee Methodology

  • The Rangarajan Committee was established in 2012 to review the methodology for measuring poverty in India.
  • It aimed to provide a more comprehensive understanding of poverty by including various essential components in the measurement.
  • The committee's methodology incorporates the following elements:
  • A food component:
  • The committee included a food component that ensures a minimum calorie intake necessary for sustaining a healthy life.
  • This calorie intake is based on the recommendations of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
  • The food component ensures that the basic nutritional needs of individuals are met.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • A normative level of expenditure for essential non-food items:
  • This includes the expenditure necessary for essential non-food items such as clothing, shelter, education, and healthcare.
  • It is based on a normative assessment of the requirements for a minimum standard of living.
  • This ensures that the poverty line reflects not only food needs but also essential non-food necessities.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • A behaviourally determined expenditure for other non-food items:
  • The committee also considered the expenditure patterns of the population for other non-food items.
  • This includes items that individuals spend on, based on their behaviour and preferences.
  • This component ensures that the poverty line is realistic and reflects actual expenditure patterns.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • The Rangarajan Committee was chaired by C. Rangarajan, a former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and a noted economist.
  • The committee's report provided a revised approach to measuring poverty, differing significantly from the earlier Tendulkar Committee report.
  • According to the Rangarajan Committee, the new poverty line was set at Rs. 972 per capita per month in rural areas and Rs. 1,407 per capita per month in urban areas for the year 2011-12.
  • The committee's approach was more holistic, considering both food and non-food expenditures, and aimed at providing a more accurate picture of poverty in India.
  • The Rangarajan Committee's recommendations were intended to help policymakers design better-targeted poverty alleviation programs and allocate resources more effectively.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 463

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which one of the following is not a fund managed by NIIFL (National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Master Fund

  2. BOption (b)

    Fund of Funds

  3. COption (c)

    Strategic Opportunities Fund

  4. DOption (d)

    Global Investment Fund

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Global Investment Fund

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Global Investment Fund.

Key PointsFunds Managed by NIIFL

  • National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) is a government-backed entity established to provide long-term capital to the country’s infrastructure sector.
  • NIIFL manages three main funds, each with distinct investment objectives and strategies:
  • Master Fund: This fund focuses on core infrastructure investments, primarily in sectors such as transportation, energy, and urban infrastructure.
  • Fund of Funds: This fund invests in funds managed by renowned fund managers who have a track record of delivering returns in infrastructure and associated sectors.
  • Strategic Opportunities Fund: This fund invests in growth and development-oriented opportunities across various sectors, including greenfield and brownfield projects.
  • There is no fund named Global Investment Fund managed by NIIFL. This option does not exist under the current structure of funds managed by NIIFL.

Additional Information

  • National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF):
  • NIIF was created by the Government of India in 2015 to catalyze capital from both domestic and international investors into infrastructure projects.
  • It is structured as a Category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Regulations.
  • Objectives of NIIF:
  • To provide long-term financing to infrastructure projects in India.
  • To attract international and domestic institutional investors to invest in the infrastructure sector.
  • Investors in NIIF:
  • NIIF has attracted investments from several large institutional investors, including sovereign wealth funds, pension funds, and other global financial institutions.
  • The Government of India has also committed significant capital to NIIF to ensure its success.
  • Importance of Infrastructure Investment:
  • Infrastructure development is crucial for economic growth, job creation, and improving the quality of life for citizens.
  • Investments in infrastructure can help bridge the gap in sectors such as transportation, energy, water supply, and urban development.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 464

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund was established with the view to help which one of the following groups?

  1. AOption (a)

    Medical Practitioners

  2. BOption (b)

    Farmers

  3. COption (c)

    Sportspersons

  4. DOption (d)

    War Widows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sportspersons

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Sportspersons.

Key PointsPandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund

  • Purpose: The fund was established with the primary objective of providing financial assistance and support to sportspersons who have brought laurels to the country and are now facing financial difficulties.
  • Establishment Year: The Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund was set up in the year 2016 by the Government of India.
  • Target Group: The fund specifically targets sportspersons as a group, rather than medical practitioners, farmers, or war widows.
  • Administration: The fund is administered by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
  • Types of Assistance: Assistance provided under this fund includes medical treatment, financial aid for training, and other essential needs to support sportspersons in distress.
  • Eligibility: The eligibility criteria for availing benefits from the fund include being a national or international level sportsperson who has represented India in recognized sports competitions.

Additional Information

  • Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay: He was a prominent Indian politician and thinker who played a significant role in shaping the ideological foundation of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, the forerunner of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
  • National Welfare Schemes: The Government of India has launched various welfare schemes targeting different segments of society, including Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) for farmers, and Ayushman Bharat for healthcare.
  • Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports: This ministry is responsible for the development and promotion of sports and youth affairs in India. It administers various schemes and programs to support sportspersons and promote sports at all levels.
  • Importance of Sports: Sports play a crucial role in national integration, social cohesion, and the overall development of individuals. Recognizing the achievements and supporting sportspersons in need is essential for encouraging future generations to participate in sports.
  • Other Welfare Funds: Similar to the Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay National Welfare Fund, there are other welfare funds like the National Sports Development Fund (NSDF) which also aim to support and develop sports in India.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 465

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which one among the following items comprises the major portion of revenue expenditure of the Union Government of India ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Salaries

  2. BOption (b)

    Interest Payments

  3. COption (c)

    Road Transport and Highways

  4. DOption (d)

    Defence Services

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Interest Payments

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Interest Payments.

Key PointsRevenue Expenditure of the Union Government of India

  • Revenue expenditure refers to the expenditure incurred for the normal functioning of government departments and various services, interest payments on debt, subsidies, etc.
  • The Union Government of India spends a significant portion of its budget on revenue expenditure to maintain and operate the administrative machinery of the country.
  • Among the given options, Interest Payments form the major portion of the revenue expenditure of the Union Government of India.
  • The government borrows funds from both domestic and international sources to finance its deficit. The interest payments on these borrowings constitute a significant part of the revenue expenditure.
  • According to the Union Budget 2022-23, interest payments account for approximately 24% of the total revenue expenditure, making it the largest component.
  • Other components of revenue expenditure include salaries, defense services, and subsidies, but none of these individually account for as large a share as interest payments.

Additional Information

  • Interest Payments:
  • Interest payments are the cost incurred by the government on its borrowings.
  • These payments are mandatory and non-negotiable, meaning the government must prioritize them to maintain its creditworthiness and financial stability.
  • The high level of interest payments is a result of the accumulated debt over the years.
  • Salaries:
  • This component includes the salaries and pensions of government employees.
  • Although significant, salaries do not surpass interest payments in terms of revenue expenditure.
  • Road Transport and Highways:
  • This expenditure is part of the government’s capital expenditure and is aimed at building and improving infrastructure.
  • It does not form a major part of revenue expenditure.
  • Defence Services:
  • Defence expenditure includes both revenue and capital components.
  • While substantial, the revenue component of defense expenditure is still less than the interest payments.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 466

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

India's women's badminton team recently won the Badminton Asia Team Championship, 2024. Who among the following players was not a part of the team?

  1. AOption (a)

    P.V. Sindhu

  2. BOption (b)

    Treesa Jolly

  3. COption (c)

    Anmol Kharb

  4. DOption (d)

    Saina Nehwal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Anmol Kharb

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Anmol Kharb.

Key PointsIndia's Women's Badminton Team at the Badminton Asia Team Championship 2024

  • P.V. Sindhu is one of India’s top badminton players and a crucial member of the national team. She has represented India in various international tournaments, including the Olympics.
  • Treesa Jolly is another prominent Indian badminton player who has been part of the national team in various championships.
  • Anmol Kharb is not a well-known name in the context of India's national badminton team, indicating that she was not part of the team that won the Badminton Asia Team Championship in 2024.
  • Saina Nehwal is a veteran Indian badminton player and has been a crucial part of the national team for many years, contributing significantly to the team’s success.
  • Note: Option 5 is not provided and hence irrelevant to the analysis.

Additional Information

  • The Badminton Asia Team Championship is a prestigious event that brings together the best badminton teams from across Asia to compete for the title.
  • P.V. Sindhu has won numerous accolades, including a silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
  • Saina Nehwal has also been a trailblazer in Indian badminton, winning a bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics and several other international titles.
  • Treesa Jolly is an emerging talent in Indian badminton and has shown promise in various national and international tournaments.
  • The inclusion of experienced players like P.V. Sindhu and Saina Nehwal alongside young talents like Treesa Jolly is crucial for the team’s balanced performance.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 467

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which of the following statements related to Indian medicine system is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Siddha system is a holistic system of medicine.

  2. BOption (b)

    Sowa-Rigpa has been in practice in the Himalayan regions of India.

  3. COption (c)

    Unani system of medicine has been dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush.

  4. DOption (d)

    Sushruta Samhita is a major source of Ayurveda.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Unani system of medicine has been dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Unani system of medicine has been dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush.

Key PointsIndian Medicine System

  • Siddha System:
  • The Siddha system is a holistic system of medicine that emphasizes the body's natural healing ability.
  • It originated in South India and is one of the oldest systems of medicine in the world.
  • The Siddha system uses herbal, mineral, and animal-based medicines to treat various ailments.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Sowa-Rigpa:
  • Sowa-Rigpa is a traditional system of medicine that has been practiced in the Himalayan regions of India, such as Ladakh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Darjeeling.
  • It is also known as the Amchi system of medicine and is closely related to Tibetan medicine.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Unani System:
  • The Unani system of medicine is not dissociated from the Ministry of Ayush.
  • In fact, the Ministry of Ayush governs the Unani system along with Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Siddha, and Homeopathy.
  • The Ministry of Ayush was established in 2014 to promote traditional medicine systems in India.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Sushruta Samhita:
  • The Sushruta Samhita is one of the most important ancient texts of Ayurveda.
  • It is attributed to the sage Sushruta and contains detailed descriptions of surgical techniques and procedures.
  • The text is considered a major source of knowledge in the field of Ayurveda.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Ayush:
  • The Ministry of Ayush was formed on 9th November 2014 to ensure the optimal development and propagation of Ayush systems of healthcare.
  • Ayush stands for Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy.
  • The Ministry aims to promote education and research in these systems of medicine.
  • Siddha Medicine:
  • The Siddha system is based on the principles of Pancha Bhoota (five elements) and Tridosha (three humors).
  • The system emphasizes the use of herbs, minerals, and animal products for treatment.
  • Sowa-Rigpa:
  • Sowa-Rigpa means the "science of healing."
  • The system is based on the principles of Buddhism and incorporates aspects of Ayurveda and Chinese medicine.
  • Unani Medicine:
  • The Unani system is based on the teachings of Hippocrates and Galen.
  • It was introduced to India by the Arabs and Persians and has been practiced in the country for centuries.
  • The system emphasizes the balance of four humors (blood, phlegm, yellow bile, and black bile) for maintaining health.
  • Sushruta Samhita:
  • The Sushruta Samhita is an ancient Sanskrit text on surgery and medicine.
  • It is attributed to the sage Sushruta, who is considered the "father of surgery."
  • The text contains detailed descriptions of various surgical procedures, instruments, and techniques.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 468

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which one of the following statements is correct about NISHTHA, a Government of India initiative?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a training module recently introduced in LBSNAA for civil servants.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is a teacher-training programme. 

  3. COption (c)

    It is a training programme for the new recruits in Delhi Police to inculcate integrity of service among them.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is a workshop for newly elected Members of Parliament organized routinely by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It is a teacher-training programme. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  a teacher-training programme.

Key PointsNISHTHA - National Initiative for School Heads' and Teachers' Holistic Advancement

  • Purpose: NISHTHA is designed as a capacity building programme for improving the quality of school education through integrated teacher training.
  • Target Audience: The programme primarily targets school heads and teachers across the country.
  • Launch Date: It was launched in August 2019 by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education).
  • Scale: It is considered the world’s largest teachers’ training programme of its kind.
  • Training Focus: The training covers various aspects such as learning outcomes, school safety and security, inclusive education, ICT in teaching, and personal-social qualities.
  • Implementation: The training is conducted through face-to-face mode as well as online platforms, leveraging technology to reach a large number of teachers.
  • Impact: The initiative aims to build competencies among teachers and school principals to improve the overall quality of school education.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Education: The Ministry of Human Resource Development was renamed as the Ministry of Education in 2020.
  • Samagra Shiksha: NISHTHA is a part of the Samagra Shiksha scheme, which is an overarching programme for the school education sector extending from pre-school to class 12.
  • Digital Initiatives: The programme includes digital initiatives such as DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) which provides a platform for teachers to access digital resources.
  • Holistic Development: NISHTHA emphasizes the holistic development of students, focusing not only on academic skills but also on life skills, critical thinking, and creativity.
  • Continuous Professional Development: The programme promotes continuous professional development of teachers to keep them updated with the latest educational practices and pedagogies.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 469

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Arrange the BRICS countries in ascending order of their rank in the Human Development Report 2023-24, released by the UNDP:

  1. China
  2. India
  3. Russia
  4. Brazil
  5. South Africa

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    2, 5, 4, 1, 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 4, 5, 3, 1

  3. COption (c)

    5, 4, 2, 3, 1

  4. DOption (d)

    4, 5, 2, 1, 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2, 5, 4, 1, 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  2, 5, 4, 1, 3.

Key PointsHuman Development Report 2023-24

  • The Human Development Report 2023-24 released by the UNDP ranks countries based on their Human Development Index (HDI).
  • The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index measuring average achievement in three basic dimensions of human development: long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living.
  • The BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) have varying ranks in this report.
  • India ranks the lowest among the BRICS countries.
  • South Africa is ranked higher than India but lower than Brazil.
  • Brazil ranks higher than South Africa but lower than China.
  • China ranks higher than Brazil but lower than Russia.
  • Russia ranks the highest among the BRICS countries.

Therefore, the correct ascending order of the BRICS countries based on their ranks in the Human Development Report 2023-24 is:

  • India
  • South Africa
  • Brazil
  • China
  • Russia

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Human Development Index (HDI):
  • The HDI is a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life (measured by life expectancy), being knowledgeable (measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling), and having a decent standard of living (measured by Gross National Income per capita).
  • The HDI was introduced in the first Human Development Report in 1990 as an alternative to conventional measures of national development, such as level of income and the rate of economic growth.
  • United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
  • The UNDP is the United Nations' global development network, advocating for change and connecting countries to knowledge, experience, and resources to help people build a better life.
  • It was founded in 1965 and operates in around 170 countries and territories, helping to achieve the eradication of poverty and the reduction of inequalities and exclusion.
  • BRICS:
  • The term BRICS refers to an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • The grouping was originally known as BRIC before the inclusion of South Africa in 2010.
  • The BRICS members are known for their significant influence on regional affairs; all are members of the G20.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 470

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

India has signed a Trade and Economic Partnership. Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA, which is a regional group consisting of four countries. Which one of the following countries is not a member of this group?

  1. AOption (a)

    Switzerland

  2. BOption (b)

    Norway

  3. COption (c)

    Iceland

  4. DOption (d)

    England

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

England

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  England.

Key PointsIndia and EFTA TEPA Agreement

  • EFTA stands for the European Free Trade Association.
  • The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a regional trade organization and free trade area consisting of four European countries.
  • The four member countries of EFTA are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein.
  • England, however, is not a member of EFTA. Instead, it was part of the European Union (EU) until Brexit, after which it is no longer part of any European free trade association.

Hence, statement that England is not a member of EFTA is correct.

Additional Information

  • The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) was established in 1960 as an alternative for European states that did not wish to join the European Economic Community (EEC), which later became the European Union (EU).
  • The aim of EFTA is to promote free trade and economic integration to the benefit of its Member States.
  • India and EFTA countries have been in discussions to enhance their trade relations through a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA).
  • This agreement aims to boost trade and investment flows between India and EFTA member countries by removing trade barriers and facilitating smoother economic cooperation.
  • Switzerland is known for its strong financial sector, Norway for its oil and gas resources, Iceland for its geothermal energy, and Liechtenstein for its strong industrial sector.
  • Understanding the members of EFTA is crucial for comprehending the dynamics of trade agreements involving these countries.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 471

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which one of the following countries shares the territorial boundary with both Russia and Ukraine?

  1. AOption (a)

    Estonia

  2. BOption (b)

    Latvia

  3. COption (c)

    Belarus

  4. DOption (d)

    Poland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Belarus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Belarus

Key PointsCountries Sharing Borders with Russia and Ukraine

  • Belarus is located in Eastern Europe and shares its borders with both Russia to the northeast and Ukraine to the south.
  • The geographical location of Belarus makes it one of the significant countries in Eastern Europe, acting as a buffer state between Russia and the European Union.
  • Belarus has a lengthy shared border with Russia, stretching over approximately 1,239 km, and a border with Ukraine of about 1,084 km.
  • Estonia and Latvia, although they are located in the same region, do not share a border with Ukraine, only with Russia.
  • Poland shares a border with Ukraine but does not share a border with Russia.

Additional Information

  • Belarus is known for its significant political and economic ties with Russia, often being referred to as a close ally of Russia in the region.
  • The Belarusian-Ukrainian border plays a crucial role in the geopolitics of Eastern Europe, especially considering the ongoing conflicts and political tensions in the region.
  • Belarus is a landlocked country, and its strategic position has historically made it a crossroads for various cultural and political influences from both Europe and Asia.
  • Understanding the borders and geopolitical relationships in Eastern Europe is essential for comprehending the broader political dynamics and conflicts that affect the region.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 472

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

In June 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with USA for supporting Indian Railways to achieve Mission Net Zero Carbon Emission by the year:

  1. AOption (a)

    2030

  2. BOption (b)

    2040

  3. COption (c)

    2050

  4. DOption (d)

    2070

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2030

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  2030.

Key PointsMission Net Zero Carbon Emission by Indian Railways

  • In June 2024, India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the USA for supporting the Indian Railways in achieving its ambitious goal of Net Zero Carbon Emission.
  • The target year set for achieving this goal is 2030.
  • This initiative is a part of India's broader efforts to combat climate change and transition towards sustainable development.
  • The collaboration aims to leverage advanced technologies and best practices from the USA to enhance the efficiency and sustainability of Indian Railways.
  • Achieving Net Zero Carbon Emission means that Indian Railways will balance the amount of carbon dioxide emitted with an equivalent amount of carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere or offset through various measures.
  • This goal aligns with India's commitment under the Paris Agreement to reduce its carbon footprint and promote renewable energy sources.
  • The initiative is expected to involve significant investments in renewable energy, energy efficiency measures, and the adoption of green technologies.

Additional Information

  • Indian Railways is one of the largest railway networks in the world, and its transition to Net Zero Carbon Emission is crucial for India's overall climate goals.
  • The Paris Agreement, signed in 2015, is an international treaty that aims to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, with efforts to limit the increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
  • India has set a target to achieve 450 GW of installed renewable energy capacity by 2030, which includes contributions from the railways sector.
  • The MoU with the USA is expected to facilitate the exchange of technical expertise and innovative solutions to enhance the sustainability of Indian Railways.
  • Investments in solar energy and wind energy are likely to play a significant role in achieving the Net Zero Carbon Emission target.
  • Indian Railways has already initiated several projects to install solar panels on railway stations and trains to harness renewable energy.
  • The collaboration may also include the development of energy-efficient locomotives and the adoption of smart grid technologies to optimize energy use.
  • Achieving Net Zero Carbon Emission by 2030 will not only reduce the environmental impact of Indian Railways but also set an example for other sectors in India and globally.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 473

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which one of the following statements is correct about the PM-JANMAN scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a scheme of the Government of India to impart electoral literacy to voters.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is a scheme of the Government of India for deepening of democracy in the of Panchayati Raj functioning institutions.

  3. COption (c)

    It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting every member of the tribal community from Government schemes.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting migrants workers in the unorganized sector.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting every member of the tribal community from Government schemes.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  a scheme of the Government of India for benefitting every member of the tribal community from Government schemes.

Key PointsPM-JANMAN Scheme

  • PM-JANMAN stands for Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Anusandhan-Manthan.
  • This scheme is an initiative by the Government of India aiming to ensure that every member of the tribal community benefits from various government schemes.
  • The scheme focuses on the holistic development of tribal communities by improving their access to government resources, services, and programs.
  • It aims to address the economic, educational, and health needs of tribal populations.
  • The scheme also seeks to empower tribal communities by creating awareness and providing necessary support for their upliftment.

Additional Information

  • Tribal Communities in India:
  • India is home to a diverse range of tribal communities, each with its unique culture, traditions, and social structures.
  • According to the Census 2011, the tribal population in India is approximately 10.43 crore, constituting about 8.6% of the total population.
  • Tribal communities are primarily concentrated in states like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, and West Bengal.
  • Government Initiatives for Tribal Development:
  • The Ministry of Tribal Affairs was set up in 1999 to ensure a focused approach to the integrated socio-economic development of Scheduled Tribes (STs).
  • Several schemes and programs have been launched, including the Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana, National Fellowship and Scholarship for Higher Education of ST Students, and Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
  • Challenges Faced by Tribal Communities:
  • Socio-economic marginalization due to lack of access to education, healthcare, and economic opportunities.
  • Displacement and loss of traditional lands due to development projects and deforestation.
  • Health issues arising from poor nutrition, lack of healthcare facilities, and prevalence of certain diseases.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 474

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    SAGAR-SETU is a mobile app, which aims to improve the Ease of Doing Business.

  2. BOption (b)

    Harit Sagar aims at achieving Zero Carbon Emission Goal.

  3. COption (c)

    Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production.

  4. DOption (d)

    Costa Serena is the first international cruise liner in India.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production.

Key PointsExplanation of Statements

  • SAGAR-SETU is a mobile app, which aims to improve the Ease of Doing Business.
  • This app is designed to provide better services to the stakeholders involved in the maritime sector.
  • It facilitates real-time tracking of operations and ensures transparency.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Harit Sagar aims at achieving Zero Carbon Emission Goal.
  • The initiative is focused on promoting green and sustainable practices in the maritime sector.
  • It includes measures to reduce carbon footprints and enhance environmental sustainability.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Sagar Manthan is a mission launched by Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India, to increase fish production.
  • This statement is incorrect as Sagar Manthan is actually a real-time performance monitoring dashboard of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  • It is not related to increasing fish production but rather aims at monitoring various projects and initiatives under the ministry.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Costa Serena is the first international cruise liner in India.
  • Costa Serena is indeed one of the international cruise liners that operate in India.
  • It marks the growing popularity of cruise tourism in the country.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • SAGAR-SETU:
  • This app is part of the Digital India initiative aimed at enhancing the maritime sector's efficiency.
  • It provides functionalities like vessel tracking, port services, and other maritime-related information.
  • Harit Sagar:
  • The initiative is part of India's commitment to the Paris Agreement and aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
  • It promotes the use of renewable energy sources and eco-friendly practices in port operations.
  • Sagar Manthan:
  • It is a comprehensive dashboard that tracks the performance of various initiatives under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  • The dashboard helps in ensuring timely completion and efficient management of maritime projects.
  • Costa Serena:
  • The introduction of international cruise liners like Costa Serena is part of India's strategy to boost tourism and hospitality sectors.
  • It offers luxurious and international-standard cruise experiences to Indian tourists.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 475

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

ISRO, in its studies, has revealed that there is a 178% increase in the size of the Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake. In which of the following States/UTs is this lake located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jammu & Kashmir

  2. BOption (b)

    Ladakh

  3. COption (c)

    Himachal Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttarakhand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Himachal Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Himachal Pradesh.

Key PointsLocation of Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake

  • Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake is situated in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India.
  • It is located in the Lahaul-Spiti district, which is known for its rugged terrain and high-altitude lakes.
  • Himachal Pradesh is a state in the northern part of India, bordered by Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Punjab, and Haryana.
  • The region is famous for its Himalayan landscapes and is a popular destination for trekking, mountaineering, and adventure tourism.
  • The increase in the size of the Ghepang Ghat Glacial Lake by 178% as revealed by ISRO's studies indicates significant glacial melting and potential climate change impacts.

Additional Information

  • Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the space agency of the Government of India, headquartered in Bengaluru. It is responsible for space research and the development of space technology.
  • ISRO has been involved in various studies related to glacial lakes and their changes over time due to climate change. The increase in the size of glacial lakes can lead to potential risks such as Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
  • Himachal Pradesh is known for its diverse topography ranging from low hills to high mountain ranges. The state is home to several important glacial lakes and rivers that are crucial for water supply and hydroelectric power generation.
  • The Lahaul-Spiti district is one of the most remote and least populated regions of Himachal Pradesh, characterized by its cold desert environment and significant Buddhist cultural influence.
  • Understanding the changes in glacial lakes is important for disaster management and planning in the region, as well as for climate change adaptation strategies.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 476

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which of the following State/s is/are common to the Bru-Reang Agreement, NLFT (SD) Agreement, and Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tripura

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam and Tripura

  3. COption (c)

    Tripura and Mizoram

  4. DOption (d)

    Manipur and Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tripura

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Tripura.

Key Points

  • The Bru-Reang Agreement involves the rehabilitation and settlement of Bru-Reang refugees, primarily in the state of Tripura. These refugees had fled from Mizoram due to ethnic tensions and were residing in Tripura.
  • The NLFT (SD) Agreement was signed with the National Liberation Front of Tripura (Sabir Debbarma) faction. This agreement aimed to bring peace and development to the state of Tripura by rehabilitating the surrendered militants.
  • The Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA (Tripura Indigenous Progressive Regional Alliance) involves the state of Tripura. This agreement was designed to address the socio-economic and political issues of the indigenous people of Tripura.

Given the involvement of the state of Tripura in all three agreements, it is clear that Tripura is the common state to the Bru-Reang Agreement, NLFT (SD) Agreement, and the Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA. Hence, the correct answer is Tripura.

Additional Information

  • Bru-Reang Agreement:
  • In January 2020, a quadripartite agreement was signed by the representatives of the Bru-Reang community, the state governments of Tripura and Mizoram, and the central government.
  • This agreement allowed for the settlement of over 30,000 Bru-Reang refugees in Tripura, ending their two-decade-long displacement.
  • NLFT (SD) Agreement:
  • The National Liberation Front of Tripura (NLFT) is an insurgent group that has been active in the state of Tripura.
  • In August 2019, a memorandum of settlement was signed between the government and the NLFT (SD) faction, which agreed to abjure violence, join the mainstream, and settle their cadres in Tripura.
  • Tripartite Agreement with TIPRA:
  • The Tripura Indigenous Progressive Regional Alliance (TIPRA) is a political party in Tripura focused on the rights and development of the indigenous people of the state.
  • The agreement aims to address various socio-economic and political issues faced by the indigenous communities in Tripura, ensuring their development and representation.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 477

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which of the following movies won the 96th Academy Award 2024 in the Best Picture category?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anatomy of a Fall

  2. BOption (b)

    Oppenheimer

  3. COption (c)

    Barbie

  4. DOption (d)

    Killers of the Flower Moon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Oppenheimer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Oppenheimer.

Key PointsOppenheimer

  • Director: The movie "Oppenheimer" is directed by Christopher Nolan, known for his work on films like "Inception" and "The Dark Knight."
  • Plot: The film focuses on the life of J. Robert Oppenheimer, the theoretical physicist who played a pivotal role in the development of the atomic bomb during World War II.
  • Cast: The movie features a star-studded cast, including Cillian Murphy as J. Robert Oppenheimer, Emily Blunt, Matt Damon, and Robert Downey Jr.
  • Critical Acclaim: "Oppenheimer" received widespread critical acclaim for its storytelling, direction, and performances, making it a strong contender for the Best Picture category at the Academy Awards.
  • Historical Significance: The film delves into the ethical and moral dilemmas faced by scientists working on the Manhattan Project, adding depth and complexity to its narrative.

Additional Information

  • Christopher Nolan:
  • Christopher Nolan is a highly acclaimed filmmaker known for his complex narratives and innovative storytelling techniques.
  • His previous works include "Inception," "Interstellar," "Dunkirk," and "The Dark Knight Trilogy."
  • He is known for his meticulous attention to detail and preference for practical effects over CGI.
  • J. Robert Oppenheimer:
  • J. Robert Oppenheimer was an American theoretical physicist and the scientific director of the Manhattan Project.
  • He is often referred to as the "father of the atomic bomb."
  • After World War II, he became a chief advisor to the newly-created United States Atomic Energy Commission and advocated for international control of nuclear power.
  • Manhattan Project:
  • The Manhattan Project was a research and development undertaking during World War II that produced the first nuclear weapons.
  • It was led by the United States with the support of the United Kingdom and Canada.
  • The project's success marked the beginning of the nuclear age, with profound implications for international relations and warfare.
  • Academy Awards:
  • The Academy Awards, also known as the Oscars, are awards for artistic and technical merit in the film industry.
  • The awards are an international recognition of excellence in cinematic achievements as assessed by the Academy's voting membership.
  • The Best Picture category is the most prestigious award, recognizing the overall excellence of a film.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 478

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

India's first dedicated OPD for the Transgenders was opened at which one among the following hospitals?

  1. AOption (a)

    AIIMS, New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    PGIMER, Chandigarh

  3. COption (c)

    KGMU, Lucknow

  4. DOption (d)

    RML Hospital, New Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RML Hospital, New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  RML Hospital, New Delhi.

Key PointsIndia's First Dedicated OPD for Transgenders

  • The first dedicated Outpatient Department (OPD) for transgenders in India was inaugurated at RML Hospital, New Delhi.
  • This initiative is part of a broader effort to provide specialized healthcare services to the transgender community, which has long faced discrimination and inadequate access to medical care.
  • The OPD aims to address the unique healthcare needs of transgenders, including hormone therapy, psychological counseling, and gender reassignment surgery consultations.
  • The establishment of this OPD is a significant step towards inclusive healthcare and aligns with the government's commitment to the welfare and rights of the transgender community.
  • RML Hospital, also known as Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Hospital, is a premier healthcare institution in New Delhi, known for its specialized medical services and patient care.

Additional Information

  • Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019
  • This act was enacted to provide for the protection of rights of transgender persons, their welfare, and other related matters.
  • It mandates the establishment of a National Council for Transgender Persons to advise the central government on the formulation of policies, programs, legislation, and projects with respect to transgender persons.
  • Healthcare Initiatives for Transgenders
  • The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched various schemes to provide healthcare facilities and social security for the transgender community.
  • These initiatives include the establishment of exclusive transgender clinics in various government hospitals across the country.
  • Challenges Faced by Transgenders in Healthcare
  • Transgender individuals often face discrimination and stigma in healthcare settings, which can lead to delayed or inadequate medical care.
  • There is a lack of trained healthcare professionals who are sensitive to the specific needs of the transgender community.
  • Importance of Inclusive Healthcare
  • Providing inclusive healthcare services is crucial for the overall well-being of transgender individuals and helps in reducing health disparities.
  • It promotes social inclusion and ensures that transgender persons have access to the same quality of healthcare as the general population.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 479

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which one of the following statements about 'INS Tarmugli' is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is a fast attack craft commissioned by the Indian Navy.

  2. BOption (b)

    It was commissioned at Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam.

  3. COption (c)

    It was given by the Government of India to Sri Lankan Naval Force in 2006 and returned to the Indian Navy in May 2023.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is supposed to be used for coastal surveillance.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It was given by the Government of India to Sri Lankan Naval Force in 2006 and returned to the Indian Navy in May 2023.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  It was given by the Government of India to Sri Lankan Naval Force in 2006 and returned to the Indian Navy in May 2023.

Key PointsAbout INS Tarmugli

  • INS Tarmugli is a fast attack craft commissioned by the Indian Navy. It is designed for quick response and high-speed maneuvers.
  • It was commissioned at the Naval Dockyard in Visakhapatnam, which is a significant naval base of the Indian Navy located on the east coast of India.
  • INS Tarmugli has not been given to the Sri Lankan Naval Force and then returned. This statement is incorrect as there is no historical evidence or record supporting this claim. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The primary role of INS Tarmugli includes coastal surveillance, which involves monitoring and patrolling the coastal areas to ensure maritime security.

Additional Information

  • Fast Attack Craft (FAC): These are small, fast, agile, and offensive warships armed with anti-ship missiles, guns, and torpedoes. They are primarily used for quick strikes and coastal defense.
  • Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam: This is one of the most important naval bases in India, providing critical support and maintenance for the Eastern Naval Command.
  • Coastal Surveillance: Coastal surveillance is crucial for maintaining the security of a nation's maritime borders. It involves monitoring activities within the territorial waters, detecting and preventing illegal activities such as smuggling, illegal fishing, and unauthorized entry.
CDS General Knowledge 1 Sep 2024 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)·English
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Question 480

Combined Defence Services (CDS) 2024• English• English

Which one of the following resolutions in the final agreement reached at COP28 is associated with the target of achieving 'Net Zero by 2050'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fossil fuel phase-out

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane emission cuts

  3. COption (c)

    Global goal on adaptation

  4. DOption (d)

    Climate resilience

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fossil fuel phase-out

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Fossil fuel phase-out.

Key PointsFossil Fuel Phase-Out

  • Fossil fuel phase-out is a critical component in the strategy to achieve 'Net Zero by 2050'. This involves significantly reducing the reliance on fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas, which are major sources of greenhouse gas emissions.
  • The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) has highlighted that reducing fossil fuel consumption is essential to limiting global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels.
  • At COP28, the resolution for fossil fuel phase-out was likely included to align with the goals set by the Paris Agreement, which aims to keep global temperature rise well below 2 degrees Celsius.
  • Phasing out fossil fuels involves transitioning to renewable energy sources such as wind, solar, and hydroelectric power, which have a much lower carbon footprint.
  • Implementation of this resolution requires international cooperation and substantial investment in clean energy technologies, infrastructure, and policies that promote energy efficiency and sustainability.

Additional Information

  • Net Zero by 2050 refers to the goal of completely offsetting the amount of greenhouse gases emitted by human activities by reducing emissions and implementing measures to absorb an equivalent amount of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
  • The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change adopted by 196 Parties at COP21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015. Its goal is to limit global warming to well below 2, preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. It provides policymakers with regular scientific assessments on climate change, its implications, and potential future risks.
  • Methane emission cuts, while important, primarily target specific sectors such as agriculture and waste management, rather than the comprehensive energy system overhaul required for fossil fuel phase-out.
  • Global goal on adaptation focuses on enhancing adaptive capacity, strengthening resilience, and reducing vulnerability to climate change but does not directly address the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Climate resilience involves preparing for and responding to the impacts of climate change, which is crucial but complementary to the primary goal of reducing emissions through fossil fuel phase-out.

How should I prepare for English Comprehension in Combined Defence Services (CDS)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.