English Comprehension PYQs

The correct answer is  Both 1 and 2.

Key PointsUses of X-rays

• X-rays are a type of electromagnetic radiation with very high energy and very short wavelengths.
• They are extensively used in medical imaging to view the inside of the human body.
• However, the applications of X-rays extend beyond just medical imaging.

**Analyzing the given

Statements:

**

• Statement 1: X-rays can be used to inspect welded joints between two metal parts of a machine.
• X-rays are frequently used in industrial radiography to inspect the integrity of welded joints.
• They help in detecting internal flaws such as cracks, voids, and inclusions that are not visible externally.
• This is a common practice in industries such as aerospace, automotive, and manufacturing where the quality of welds is critical.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Statement 2: X-rays can be used to study the structure of crystals.
• X-rays are used in a technique called X-ray crystallography to determine the atomic and molecular structure of a crystal.
• When X-rays are directed at a crystal, they are diffracted in specific directions. By measuring the angles and intensities of these diffracted beams, a three-dimensional picture of the density of electrons within the crystal can be produced.
• This technique has been fundamental in the fields of chemistry, biology, and material science for understanding the structure of complex molecules like proteins and DNA.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Industrial Radiography:
• This technique is used to inspect materials and structures for flaws without causing damage.
• It is widely used in construction, manufacturing, and maintenance of critical infrastructure such as bridges, pipelines, and aircraft.
• X-ray Crystallography:
• This method has been pivotal in the discovery of the double-helix structure of DNA by Watson and Crick.
• It has also been crucial in the development of many pharmaceutical drugs by revealing the structure of target molecules.
• Safety Measures:
• Due to the high energy of X-rays, safety measures such as protective gear and controlled environments are essential to protect against radiation exposure.
• Regulatory bodies such as the International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP) provide guidelines for the safe use of X-rays.

The correct answer is  Boiling water in a pot on a gas stove.

Key PointsExplanation of Heat Transfer by Convection

• Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases).
• In the process of convection, heat energy is transferred by the mass motion of molecules within the fluid.
• As the fluid is heated, it becomes less dense and rises, while the cooler fluid sinks, creating a convection current.
• When boiling water in a pot on a gas stove, the water at the bottom of the pot is heated first.
• This heated water becomes less dense and rises to the top, while the cooler water descends to the bottom to be heated again, forming a continuous convection cycle.
• This movement of water molecules from hotter to cooler regions and vice versa exemplifies the process of convection. Hence, this statement is correct.

Analysis of Other Options

• Heating of food in a microwave oven:
• Microwave ovens heat food using microwave radiation, which excites water molecules in the food, causing them to vibrate and generate heat.
• This is an example of radiation, not convection. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Feeling the warmth in sun:
• The warmth from the sun reaches us through radiation, as the heat travels through the vacuum of space in the form of electromagnetic waves.
• This is not an example of convection, as there is no fluid medium involved in the transfer. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Heating a brass rod at one end and observing the temperature rise at the other end:
• In this scenario, heat is transferred through the rod via conduction, where heat energy is passed from one molecule to the next through direct contact.
• Conduction is different from convection, which involves fluid motion. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Heat Transfer Mechanisms:
• Conduction: This is the transfer of heat through a solid material from one molecule to the next. It requires direct contact and is common in metals.
• Convection: This involves the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases). It is characterized by the formation of convection currents.
• Radiation: This is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves without the need for a physical medium. The sun's heat reaching Earth is a prime example.
• Convection Currents:
• Convection currents are created when a fluid is heated, becomes less dense, and rises. Cooler, denser fluid then moves in to take its place, setting up a cycle.
• These currents are essential in various natural and man-made processes, such as ocean currents, atmospheric circulation, and heating systems.
• Applications of Convection:
• Weather Systems: Convection currents in the atmosphere drive weather patterns and phenomena such as thunderstorms and sea breezes.
• Geothermal Energy: Convection within the Earth's mantle plays a crucial role in the movement of tectonic plates.
• Engineering: Convection is utilized in heating and cooling systems, including radiators and air conditioning units.

The correct answer is  both refraction and internal reflection of sunlight.

Key PointsRainbow Formation by Water Droplets

• Refraction: When sunlight enters a water droplet, it slows down and bends. This bending of light is called refraction. The light is refracted at the surface of the droplet.
• Internal Reflection: After refraction, the light reflects off the inside surface of the water droplet. This internal reflection is crucial to the formation of a rainbow.
• Second Refraction: The light undergoes a second refraction as it exits the droplet, bending again as it moves from water to air.
• Dispersion: During these processes, the light is dispersed into its constituent colors (spectrum) due to different wavelengths of light bending by different amounts.
• The combination of these processes - refraction, internal reflection, and dispersion - results in the formation of a rainbow.

Additional Information

• Refraction: This is the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another. The amount of bending depends on the indices of refraction of the two media and the wavelength of the light.
• Internal Reflection: Occurs when light hits the boundary of a medium and is reflected back into the medium instead of passing through. This is essential for the formation of a rainbow.
• Dispersion: The process in which white light separates into its constituent colors (spectrum) due to different degrees of bending for different wavelengths. This is why rainbows display a spectrum of colors.
• Rainbow Colors: The colors of a rainbow typically include Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, and Violet (ROYGBIV), arranged in this order from the outer to the inner edge of the rainbow.
• Viewing Angle: A rainbow is typically seen when the sun is low in the sky and the observer has their back to the sun. The angle of view is approximately 42 degrees relative to the direction opposite to the sunlight.

The correct answer is  the Antarctic caused mainly by CFC gases.

Key PointsOzone Hole and Its Causes

• Ozone Layer: The ozone layer is a region of Earth's stratosphere that contains a high concentration of ozone (O₃) molecules. It absorbs most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.
• Location: The ozone hole primarily occurs over the Antarctic region.
• Causes: The primary cause of the ozone hole is the emission of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances. These compounds release chlorine and bromine atoms upon exposure to ultraviolet light, which then catalytically destroy ozone molecules.
• Mechanism: During the winter, polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs) form in the cold stratosphere over Antarctica. These clouds provide a surface for chemical reactions that produce chlorine and bromine gases. When sunlight returns to the region in the spring, these gases rapidly deplete the ozone layer.
• Environmental Impact: The depletion of the ozone layer leads to increased UV radiation reaching the Earth's surface, which can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and other health issues, as well as negatively impact ecosystems and wildlife.

Additional Information

• Montreal Protocol: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances, including CFCs. It was signed in 1987 and has been successful in reducing the emissions of these harmful chemicals.
• Recovery: Thanks to international efforts and regulations, the ozone layer is showing signs of recovery. Scientists predict that the ozone layer will return to its pre-1980 levels by the middle of the 21^st century.
• Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs): These clouds play a crucial role in the formation of the ozone hole. PSCs form at very low temperatures and provide a surface for chemical reactions that release chlorine and bromine atoms, which then deplete ozone.
• Health and Environmental Effects: Increased UV radiation due to ozone depletion can lead to higher incidences of skin cancer and cataracts in humans. It can also affect marine ecosystems, particularly plankton, and disrupt the food chain.
• Climate Change: While CFCs are potent greenhouse gases, their phase-out under the Montreal Protocol has also contributed to mitigating climate change. However, other greenhouse gases continue to drive global warming.

The correct answer is  1 and 2 only.

Key PointsMajor Missions of Indian Space Research Organization in 2023

• Chandrayaan-3: This is the third lunar exploration mission developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). It aims to demonstrate the ability to perform a soft landing on the Moon, following the partial success of Chandrayaan-2.
• Solar Mission Aditya-L1: This mission is India's first dedicated mission to study the Sun. The Aditya-L1 satellite will be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, about 1.5 million km from Earth, to continuously observe the sun without any occultation/eclipses.
• Liquid fuel powered rockets: While ISRO has developed and utilizes liquid-fueled rockets, this is not a major mission by itself but rather a technology used in various missions.
• Solar powered rockets: Currently, ISRO does not have missions involving solar-powered rockets. Solar power is mainly used for satellite operations and not for propulsion.

Explanation of Statements

• Chandrayaan-3: This mission is a key project for ISRO in 2023. After the partial success of Chandrayaan-2, ISRO aims to achieve a successful soft landing on the Moon with Chandrayaan-3. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Solar Mission Aditya-L1: Aditya-L1 is a significant mission for ISRO as it will help in understanding solar activities and their impact on climate and space weather. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Liquid fuel powered rockets: Although ISRO uses liquid fuel technology in its rockets, this is not considered a major mission on its own. It is a technology that supports various missions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Solar powered rockets: ISRO does not have any missions involving solar-powered rockets. Solar power is used for satellite operations but not for propulsion. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Chandrayaan Missions: The Chandrayaan missions are part of India's lunar exploration program. Chandrayaan-1 discovered water molecules on the moon, while Chandrayaan-2 aimed to explore the south pole of the moon. Chandrayaan-3 aims to achieve a successful soft landing.
• Aditya-L1 Mission: The Aditya-L1 mission is crucial for studying the solar corona, solar emissions, and their impact on space weather. It will help in understanding the dynamics of the Sun and its influence on the Earth's climate.
• ISRO's Rocket Technology: ISRO uses various types of rocket propulsion technologies, including solid, liquid, and cryogenic engines. Liquid-fueled rockets like the PSLV and GSLV are crucial for launching satellites into different orbits.
• Solar Power in Space Missions: Solar power is extensively used in space missions for powering satellites and space stations. It is a reliable and sustainable energy source for long-duration missions. However, solar power is not used for rocket propulsion.

The correct answer is  For preventing sparks while they land on the ground.

Key PointsConducting Tyres on Aircraft

• Purpose of Conducting Tyres: Conducting tyres are primarily used to prevent sparks when the aircraft lands. This is because the friction between the tyres and the runway can generate static electricity.
• Static Electricity Discharge: As the aircraft lands, the conducting tyres help to dissipate any static charge safely into the ground, preventing the build-up of static electricity which could cause sparks.
• Safety Measures: The prevention of sparks is crucial for safety reasons, especially considering the presence of flammable substances such as aviation fuel.
• Grounding Aircraft: Conducting tyres ensure that the aircraft is properly grounded upon landing, which is essential for both safety and the proper functioning of onboard electrical systems.
• Misconceptions Addressed: While it's true that aircraft accumulate charges through various means, the primary reason for conducting tyres is to prevent sparks during landing rather than to address charges from other sources like lightning or air particle friction.

Additional Information

• Static Electricity in Aircraft: Static electricity can accumulate on aircraft due to various factors such as friction with air particles, lightning strikes, and the operation of onboard electrical equipment. However, the primary concern addressed by conducting tyres is the static charge generated during landing.
• Aircraft Safety Standards: Aviation authorities, such as the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), have stringent regulations and standards to ensure the safety of aircraft operations, including measures to manage static electricity.
• Conductive Materials: Conducting tyres are made from materials that have conductive properties, allowing them to dissipate static electricity effectively. These materials are integrated into the tyre construction to ensure durability and effectiveness.
• Grounding Procedures: Apart from conducting tyres, aircraft are also equipped with grounding points and static discharge wicks to safely dissipate static electricity during flight and on the ground.
• Historical Incidents: There have been incidents in aviation history where static electricity has caused sparks and fires during refueling or landing operations. These incidents have led to the implementation of conducting tyres and other safety measures to prevent such occurrences.

The correct answer is  2 and 3.

Key PointsPresbyopia

• Presbyopia is a common vision condition that occurs with aging, typically starting after the age of 40.
• It is characterized by the gradual loss of the eye's ability to focus on nearby objects.
• This condition is a normal part of the aging process and is due to the hardening of the lens inside the eye.
• People with presbyopia often need corrective lenses such as reading glasses, bifocal lenses, or progressive lenses.

Analysis of Statements

• Statement 1: They cannot distinguish colours.
• This statement is incorrect. Presbyopia affects the ability to focus on close objects and does not impact color vision.
• Color vision issues are more related to conditions like color blindness or other retinal disorders.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Statement 2: It usually develops with ageing.
• This statement is correct. Presbyopia is primarily an age-related condition that affects most individuals as they get older, particularly after the age of 40.
• The lens of the eye becomes less flexible over time, making it harder to focus on close objects.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Statement 3: They wear either bi-focal lenses consisting of both concave and convex lenses or progressive lenses.
• This statement is correct. People with presbyopia often use bifocal or progressive lenses to correct their vision.
• Bifocal lenses have two distinct optical powers for distance and close-up vision, while progressive lenses provide a gradual change in lens power for a more natural visual experience.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Corrective Lenses for Presbyopia:
• Reading Glasses: These are single-vision lenses for reading and other close-up tasks.
• Bifocal Lenses: These lenses have two sections – the upper part for distance vision and the lower part for close-up tasks.
• Progressive Lenses: These lenses provide a smooth transition between different focal lengths, without visible lines.
• Symptoms of Presbyopia:
• Difficulty reading small print
• Needing to hold reading material at arm's length
• Headaches or eye strain after reading or doing close-up work
• Diagnosis and Treatment:
• A comprehensive eye examination by an optometrist or ophthalmologist can diagnose presbyopia.
• Treatment options include prescription glasses, contact lenses, and in some cases, surgery.

The correct answer is 0.5 s.

Key PointsExplanation of the Time Calculation

• The given problem involves a sound wave with a frequency of 300 Hz traveling in an unknown medium. The wave travels a distance equal to 150 times its wavelength in time t.
• To solve this problem, we need to use the relationship between the speed of the wave (v), wavelength (λ), and frequency (f).
• The formula linking these quantities is: v = f * λ
• Given:
• Frequency, f = 300 Hz
• Distance traveled, d = 150 λ
• The speed of the wave can also be expressed as: v = d / t
• By substituting the value of d in the speed equation, we get: v = 150 λ / t
• Since v = f * λ, we can set the two expressions for v equal to each other: 300 λ = 150 λ / t
• By simplifying, we find: t = (150 λ) / (300 λ) = 150 / 300 = 0.5 s

Additional Information

• Sound Waves: Sound waves are mechanical waves that require a medium to travel through. They propagate through the vibration of particles in the medium, such as air, water, or solids.
• Frequency: The frequency of a wave is the number of oscillations or cycles that occur in one second. It is measured in Hertz (Hz).
• Wavelength (λ): The wavelength is the distance between consecutive points of the wave that are in phase, such as the distance between two consecutive crests or troughs.
• Speed of Sound: The speed of sound varies depending on the medium it travels through. For example, sound travels faster in solids than in liquids and faster in liquids than in gases.
• Wave Equation: The relationship between the speed of the wave (v), its frequency (f), and its wavelength (λ) is given by the equation: v = f * λ. This fundamental equation is used to solve various problems related to wave phenomena.

The correct answer is  Use of rocket to destroy an orbiting satellite.

Key PointsMission Shakti (DRDO)

• Mission Shakti is a joint program of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• It aims to develop and demonstrate anti-satellite (ASAT) technology.
• The mission involves using a ballistic missile interceptor to destroy an orbiting satellite.
• This capability is crucial for ensuring the security of India's space assets and deterring potential threats from adversaries.
• On March 27, 2019, India successfully conducted the test, making it the fourth country in the world to possess such technology, after the United States, Russia, and China.
• The test was conducted using a modified anti-ballistic missile interceptor from the Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) program.
• This successful test demonstrated India's capability to safeguard its space assets and contribute to the deterrence strategy.

Additional Information

• Anti-Satellite Weapons (ASAT) are designed to incapacitate or destroy satellites for strategic military purposes.
• These weapons can be launched from land, sea, air, or space.
• The first successful ASAT test was conducted by the United States in 1959.
• China conducted its first successful ASAT test in 2007, creating a large amount of space debris.
• ASAT capabilities are seen as a way to enhance national security by denying adversaries the use of their satellites.
• However, the use of ASAT weapons raises concerns about the creation of space debris, which can pose a threat to other satellites and space missions.
• India's ASAT test was conducted in the low Earth orbit (LEO) to minimize space debris.
• The United Nations has called for the development of international norms and regulations to prevent the weaponization of space.

The correct answer is an equilateral triangle

Key PointsSun-Earth System and Lagrange Points

• The Sun-Earth system consists of the Sun, the Earth, and several points in space where the gravitational forces of the Sun and Earth create a stable environment for objects to reside.
• Lagrange points are positions where the gravitational pull of two large bodies, like the Earth and the Sun, precisely equals the centripetal force felt by a smaller object.
• In the Sun-Earth system, there are five Lagrange points, namely L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5.
• The L4 and L5 points form an equilateral triangle with the two large bodies, which in this case are the Sun and the Earth.
• These points are located at a 60-degree angle ahead of and behind the Earth in its orbit around the Sun.
• L4 and L5 are considered stable because objects located there tend to stay put, making them ideal for space missions and satellites.

Explanation of the Correct Answer

• The Sun, the Earth, and the Lagrange point L4 form an equilateral triangle. This is due to the stable gravitational environment created by the Sun and Earth's combined gravitational forces.
• An equilateral triangle has all three sides of equal length and all three angles equal to 60 degrees. This geometric configuration ensures that the gravitational forces and the centripetal force are balanced.
• In the context of the Sun-Earth system, the L4 point is located at a point where the gravitational pull from both the Sun and the Earth creates a stable environment for objects to reside.
• The configuration of the L4 point forming an equilateral triangle with the Sun and the Earth is a direct consequence of the gravitational equilibrium achieved at this point.
• Hence, the correct answer is an equilateral triangle.

Additional Information

• Lagrange Points:
• Named after the Italian-French mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange, who discovered them in 1772.
• These points are solutions to the restricted three-body problem, where two large bodies influence a third, much smaller body.
• Applications of Lagrange Points:
• The L1 point is used for solar observation satellites like the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO).
• The L2 point is ideal for space telescopes, such as the James Webb Space Telescope, due to its stable environment and minimal shadowing from the Earth and Moon.
• The L4 and L5 points are considered for potential space habitats or as locations for space colonies due to their stability.
• Gravitational Equilibrium:
• Objects at Lagrange points are in a state of gravitational equilibrium, meaning the forces acting on them are balanced.
• This equilibrium allows for minimal fuel consumption for station-keeping, making these points advantageous for long-term space missions.

The correct answer is  A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3.

Key Points

• National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes and Narcotics is located in Palasamudram. This academy is responsible for training officers in customs, central excise, service tax, and narcotics.
• LBS National Academy of Administration is situated in Mussoorie. This prestigious institution trains civil servants of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and other civil services.
• National Academy of Audit and Accounts is located in Shimla. It provides training to officers of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IA&AS).
• All India Institute of Local Self Government is based in Mumbai. It focuses on training and research in urban governance and administration.

Additional Information

• National Academy of Customs, Indirect Taxes and Narcotics (NACIN): Located in Palasamudram, Andhra Pradesh, NACIN is the apex institution of the Government of India for capacity building in the field of indirect taxation.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA): Situated in Mussoorie, Uttarakhand, LBSNAA is the premier training institution for civil servants in India. It was established in 1959 and named after India's second Prime Minister, Lal Bahadur Shastri.
• National Academy of Audit and Accounts (NAAA): Located in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh, NAAA is responsible for training officers of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IA&AS). It was established in 1950.
• All India Institute of Local Self Government (AIILSG): Based in Mumbai, Maharashtra, AIILSG was established in 1926. It is an autonomous institution that provides training, research, and consultancy services in the field of urban governance and administration.

The correct answer is  Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Statement 1: The Flag Code of India superseded the 'Flag Code-India'.
• The Flag Code of India was introduced in 2002 to bring together all laws, conventions, practices, and instructions for the display of the National Flag of India.
• It replaced all previous guidelines, including the 'Flag Code-India', ensuring a unified set of rules for the usage of the national flag.
• The Flag Code of India, 2002, is divided into three parts covering general description, display rules, and rules for governmental and public organizations.
• Statement 2: The state emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.
• The State Emblem of India is indeed an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.
• The emblem features four Asiatic lions standing back to back, symbolizing power, courage, pride, and confidence.
• The emblem was adopted on 26 January 1950, the day India became a republic.
• Below the lions is a horse and a bull, and in the center is a wheel (Dharma Chakra).

Additional Information

• Flag Code of India, 2002:
• The Flag Code of India, 2002, is a set of laws that governs the usage, display, and hoisting of the Indian national flag.
• It consolidates all previous laws and conventions regarding the national flag and aims to instill respect and dignity for the flag.
• The code allows citizens to hoist the national flag on all days and occasions, consistent with the dignity of the flag.
• Lion Capital of Ashoka:
• The Lion Capital of Ashoka is a sculpture of four lions standing back to back, originally erected atop the Ashoka pillar at Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh.
• It was commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in around 250 BCE to mark the spot where Buddha first taught the Dharma.
• The capital is currently preserved in the Sarnath Museum and has been adopted as the national emblem of India.

The correct answer is Rural Planning, Green cover and Biodiversity.

Key Points

• The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
• It aims to make cities sustainable through improvements in energy efficiency in buildings, management of solid waste, and a shift to public transport.
• The thematic areas of the mission include:
• Energy and Green Building: This focuses on promoting energy efficiency in the building sector and encouraging the adoption of green building practices.
• Mobility and Air Quality: This area emphasizes the development of sustainable urban transport systems and improving air quality in cities.
• Waste Management: This involves the effective management of solid waste, including recycling and waste-to-energy initiatives.
• Rural Planning, Green cover and Biodiversity is not among the thematic areas of the National Mission on Sustainable Habitat. This area is more relevant to other missions like the National Mission for a Green India and the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture.

Additional Information

• The National Mission on Sustainable Habitat aims to promote sustainable development practices in urban areas, focusing on reducing the negative impacts of urbanization on the environment.
• National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched by the Government of India in 2008 to address the challenges of climate change through a series of targeted missions.
• The National Mission for a Green India focuses on enhancing the green cover and biodiversity in the country, aiming to restore ecosystems and increase forest cover.
• The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture aims to promote sustainable agricultural practices that are resilient to climate change, ensuring food security and enhancing the livelihood of farmers.
• These missions collectively aim to address various aspects of climate change and environmental sustainability, ensuring a holistic approach to sustainable development in India.

The correct answer is  1, 2 and 3 only.

Key PointsComponents of the Indian Legal System

• Basic values and principles enshrined in the Constitution: The Constitution of India is the supreme law of the land. It lays down the basic framework of governance, delineates the powers and functions of the different organs of the government, and enshrines the fundamental rights of citizens. These values and principles form the cornerstone of the Indian Legal System. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Rights and obligations conferred by ordinary statutes: In addition to the Constitution, there are numerous ordinary statutes (laws) enacted by the Parliament and State Legislatures that confer rights and impose obligations on individuals and institutions. These statutes play a crucial role in the functioning of the Indian Legal System. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Organizational set-up to enforce rights and obligations within the constitutional norms: The Indian Legal System comprises various institutions and bodies, including courts, tribunals, and law enforcement agencies, that are responsible for enforcing rights and obligations as per the constitutional norms. This organizational set-up ensures the implementation and protection of legal rights. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Legal and judicial persons: While legal and judicial persons (such as lawyers, judges, and legal entities) are integral to the functioning of the legal system, they are not considered as separate components of the system itself. Instead, they operate within the framework established by the Constitution, statutes, and organizational structures. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Constitution of India: Adopted on 26^th January 1950, it is the longest written constitution of any country in the world. It includes provisions for Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35), Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36-51), and Fundamental Duties (Article 51A).
• Ordinary statutes: These are laws enacted by the legislative bodies at the central and state levels. Examples include the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Consumer Protection Act, and Right to Information Act.
• Judicial System: India's judicial system is hierarchical, with the Supreme Court at the apex, followed by High Courts at the state level, and various subordinate courts including District Courts. The judiciary is independent and plays a critical role in interpreting laws and ensuring justice.
• Law Enforcement Agencies: These include the police, Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), and other agencies responsible for maintaining law and order and investigating crimes.
• Legal Education and Profession: Institutions like the Bar Council of India regulate legal education and the legal profession. Lawyers and judges are essential for the administration of justice, representing clients, and adjudicating disputes.

The correct answer is  It is a Centrally sponsored scheme.

Key PointsObjectives of Vibrant Village Programme

• The Vibrant Village Programme is a Centrally sponsored scheme aimed at the comprehensive development of villages in India, particularly those located in remote and border areas.
• The programme's primary objective is to ensure holistic development including infrastructure development, improvement in quality of life, and promotion of sustainable livelihoods.
• The scheme also focuses on enhancing connectivity and providing basic amenities like water supply, electricity, and sanitation.
• It seeks to promote tourism and cultural heritage to generate employment and boost the local economy.
• The programme is designed to address the unique challenges faced by villages in border areas and aims to integrate them into the national mainstream.

Additional Information

• Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS)
• Centrally Sponsored Schemes are schemes funded by the central government where a certain percentage of funding is provided by the state governments.
• These schemes are implemented by state governments but are monitored and funded by the central government to ensure uniformity and standardization across the nation.
• Border Area Development Programme (BADP)
• The Border Area Development Programme is another initiative aimed at the development of border areas, focusing on infrastructure, connectivity, and quality of life improvements in these regions.
• The BADP aims to meet the special developmental needs of the people living in remote and inaccessible areas situated near the international border.
• Importance of Village Development
• Development of villages is crucial for the overall socio-economic development of the country.
• Improving infrastructure, connectivity, and basic amenities in villages can significantly enhance the quality of life and reduce migration to urban areas.
• Village development also plays a vital role in national security, especially in border areas, by integrating these regions more closely with the rest of the country.

The correct answer is  UNESCO.

Key PointsUN Organizations and Nobel Prizes

• WFP (World Food Programme) - The World Food Programme is the food assistance branch of the United Nations and the world's largest humanitarian organization addressing hunger and promoting food security. It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger, contribute to peace in conflict-affected areas, and prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict.
• ILO (International Labour Organization) - The International Labour Organization is a United Nations agency dealing with labour issues, particularly international labour standards and decent work for all. It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for promoting peace among classes, pursuing decent work and justice for workers, and providing technical assistance to other developing nations.
• UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) - UNESCO aims to build peace through international cooperation in education, the sciences, and culture. Unlike some other UN agencies, UNESCO has not been awarded the Nobel Prize. It focuses on promoting education, scientific advances, and cultural preservation and cooperation.
• UNHCR (United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees) - The UNHCR is a United Nations agency mandated to aid and protect refugees, forcibly displaced communities, and stateless people, and to assist in their voluntary repatriation, local integration, or resettlement to a third country. It has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and 1981, for its humanitarian work.

Additional Information

• Nobel Peace Prize - The Nobel Peace Prize is one of the five Nobel Prizes established by the will of Alfred Nobel, the inventor of dynamite. It is awarded to those who have "done the most or the best work for fraternity between nations, for the abolition or reduction of standing armies and for the holding and promotion of peace congresses".
• UNESCO's Mission - UNESCO seeks to build peace through international cooperation in education, the sciences, and culture. Its programs contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals defined in Agenda 2030, adopted by the UN General Assembly in 2015.
• UNHCR's Achievements - The UNHCR has been instrumental in providing assistance to millions of refugees and displaced persons around the world. Its efforts in protecting human rights and providing humanitarian aid have been recognized globally, leading to its Nobel Peace Prizes.
• WFP's Impact - The World Food Programme's efforts in addressing hunger and food security have been crucial in conflict zones and disaster-stricken areas. Its Nobel Peace Prize in 2020 highlighted its significant role in promoting peace and stability through food assistance.
• ILO's Contributions - The International Labour Organization has been pivotal in advocating for workers' rights, improving working conditions, and promoting social justice. Its Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 underscored its impact on global labor standards and peace.

The correct answer is  The Sixth Schedule Areas.

Key PointsExemption from the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019

• The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) was enacted by the Indian Parliament in December 2019.
• The CAA provides a path to Indian citizenship for Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities who fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan before December 31, 2014.
• However, certain regions are exempted from the purview of the CAA to protect their unique cultural and social fabric.
• The Sixth Schedule Areas are one such exempted region. These areas are located in the North-Eastern states of India and include the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in these states through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), which have the power to make laws on certain specified subjects.
• The exemption is intended to protect the rights and interests of the indigenous tribal communities in these areas.
• By exempting these areas, the government aims to maintain the demographic balance and cultural integrity of the tribal regions.

Additional Information

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was included to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in the north-eastern states.
• It provides for the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in these tribal areas, which have legislative, executive, and judicial powers.
• The ADCs can make laws on land, forest, water resources, agriculture, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage, and divorce among others.
• This special provision helps in preserving the traditional and customary practices of the tribal communities.
• The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in other parts of India, but it does not provide for the same level of autonomy as the Sixth Schedule.
• The Sixth Schedule Areas are characterized by their unique cultural heritage, and the exemption from the CAA ensures that their demographic structure is not disturbed by the influx of new citizens.
• The CAA has been a subject of significant debate and controversy, with supporters arguing that it provides necessary protection to persecuted minorities, while opponents claim it discriminates on the basis of religion and violates the secular principles of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is  Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar.

Key PointsA Just Society and Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, also known as Babasaheb Ambedkar, was a prominent Indian jurist, economist, politician, and social reformer.
• He was the principal architect of the Indian Constitution and played a vital role in advocating for the rights of the marginalized sections of the society, especially the Dalits.
• Ambedkar's vision of a just society was rooted in the principles of equality, liberty, and fraternity.
• The statement, "A just society is that society in which ascending sense of reverence and descending sense of contempt is dissolved into the creation of a compassionate society," emphasizes the eradication of social hierarchies and the establishment of a society based on mutual respect and compassion.
• This vision aligns with Ambedkar's lifelong struggle against the caste system and his efforts to promote social justice and human dignity.

Additional Information

• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891 in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh, India.
• He earned doctorates in economics from both Columbia University and the London School of Economics, gaining a reputation as a scholar for his research in law, economics, and political science.
• Ambedkar was a key figure in the Dalit Buddhist movement and converted to Buddhism along with thousands of his followers in 1956.
• He was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee for the Indian Constitution on 29 August 1947.
• Ambedkar's work led to the inclusion of significant provisions for the protection of civil liberties, including the abolition of untouchability and the establishment of equality before law.
• He also served as India's first Law and Justice Minister from 1947 to 1951.
• Ambedkar's contributions to social justice, his fight against caste discrimination, and his role in shaping modern India make him a pivotal figure in Indian history.

The correct answer is  2 only.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Criminal law is exclusively a subject under the State List of the Constitution of India.
• This statement is incorrect. Criminal law is not exclusively a subject under the State List. In fact, it falls under the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. This means both the Centre and States can legislate on this subject, but in case of any conflict, the law made by the Centre prevails.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Statement 2: Code of Civil Procedure falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India.
• This statement is correct. The Code of Civil Procedure, which outlines the procedures to be followed in civil courts, is indeed listed under the Concurrent List (Entry 13 of List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. This allows both the Centre and States to make laws on this subject.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Concurrent List:
• The Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which both the Central and State governments can legislate. However, in case of any conflict between Central and State laws on the same subject, the law made by the Central Government prevails.
• Some key subjects under the Concurrent List include criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, and education.
• Criminal Law:
• Criminal law in India is governed by several statutes, including the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and various special laws enacted by Parliament and State Legislatures.
• Since it is under the Concurrent List, both the Central and State governments can enact laws related to criminal procedures and penalties.
• Code of Civil Procedure (CPC):
• The Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) is a procedural law related to the administration of civil proceedings in India.It was enacted in 1908 and provides the framework for civil courts to follow while adjudicating civil disputes.
• It is listed under the Concurrent List, allowing both Central and State governments to make amendments or enact laws related to civil procedures.

The correct answer is  2, 1, 3, 4.

Key PointsAgreements Between India and Pakistan

• Indus Water Treaty (1960)
• The Indus Water Treaty was signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan, with the World Bank as a third-party mediator.
• It is one of the most successful water-sharing endeavors in the world.
• Tashkent Declaration (1966)
• The Tashkent Declaration was signed on January 10, 1966, following the India-Pakistan war of 1965.
• The agreement aimed to restore economic and diplomatic relations between the two nations.
• Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other's Nuclear Installations and Facilities (1988)
• This agreement was signed on December 31, 1988, and it came into effect on January 27, 1991.
• It aims to prohibit attacks on nuclear installations and facilities of each other.
• Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons (2007)
• This agreement was signed on February 21, 2007.
• It aims to reduce the risk of nuclear accidents and to ensure communication between the two countries in case of nuclear emergencies.

Additional Information

• Indus Water Treaty
• The treaty allocates the use of water from the Indus River and its tributaries between the two countries.
• India has control over the eastern rivers (Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi), while Pakistan has control over the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab).
• Tashkent Declaration
• It was mediated by the Soviet Premier Alexei Kosygin.
• Both countries agreed to withdraw all armed forces to positions held before August 5, 1965, and to restore diplomatic relations.
• Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other's Nuclear Installations and Facilities
• Under this agreement, both countries exchange lists of their nuclear installations and facilities on January 1 of every year.
• Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons
• This agreement is part of confidence-building measures to reduce the risk of nuclear conflict and enhance strategic stability.