The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan

In News

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurates ‘Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar Adharit Jankalyan’ (PM-SURAJ) national portal, emphasizing credit support for one lakh entrepreneurs from disadvantaged communities.

Key Points

• PM-SURAJ portal signifies the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment’s commitment to prioritizing underprivileged individuals in development initiatives.
• The event includes interactions with beneficiaries of schemes like NAMASTE, VCF-SC, VCF-BC, and ASIIM, aimed at economic upliftment of Scheduled Castes, backward classes, and Safai Mitras.
• Ministry distributes Ayushman health cards and Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) kits to Safai Mitras under the NAMASTE program, ensuring access to cashless healthcare services and safety for frontline workers.
• The government’s dedication to “Vanchiton Ko Variyata” ensures equitable support for historically underserved communities, aligning with the broader vision of “Viksit Bharat” for inclusive development.

The Correct Answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

In News

• PM Modi inaugurates Chenab Bridge, world’s highest rail arch bridge in J&K.

Key Points

• Chenab Bridge, the world’s highest railway arch bridge (359 m above river), inaugurated by PM Modi in J&K.
• Anji Bridge, India’s first cable-stayed railway bridge, also inaugurated.
• Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) dedicated to the nation; 272 km long, includes 36 tunnels (119 km) and 943 bridges; cost approx ₹43,780 crore.
• These projects reduce travel time between Jammu and Srinagar by 2-3 hours and ensure all-weather connectivity.
• PM Modi flagged off Vande Bharat Express trains between Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra and Srinagar.
• Multiple road projects launched for better connectivity, including widening NH-701 and NH-444 and flyovers at Sangrama and Bemina junctions.
• Foundation stone laid for Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Institute of Medical Excellence in Katra (₹350 crore), first medical college in Reasi district.

The Correct Answer is Food Safety: Science in Action.

In News

• World Food Safety Day: 7 June.

Key Points

• World Food Safety Day is observed on 7 June every year.
• It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in December 2018.
• The first celebration was held on 7 June 2019.
• It is promoted by the FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization) and WHO (World Health Organization).
• The 2025 theme is: “Food Safety: Science in Action.”

The Correct Answer is Hyderabad.

In News

• New Centre of Excellence Launched to Drive Agricultural Transformation through South-South Cooperation.

Key Points

• ICRISAT launched the Centre of Excellence for South-South Cooperation in Agriculture (ISSCA) in Hyderabad.
• Launch held during the conference on Global South and Triangular Cooperation in New Delhi.
• Aim: To accelerate agricultural innovation and collaboration across the Global South.
• A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed between ICRISAT and DAKSHIN, a Government of India initiative.
• DAKSHIN focuses on strengthening South-South cooperation through capacity building and development partnerships.

The correct answer is India and Australia.

Key Points

• The joint military exercise 'AUSTRAHIND' is conducted between the armies of India and Australia.
• The third edition of this exercise focuses on enhancing military cooperation and interoperability between the two nations.
• 'AUSTRAHIND' aims to improve tactical skills, practice joint operations, and increase mutual understanding.
• The exercise includes various drills, counter-terrorism operations, and humanitarian assistance operations.

Additional Information

• ​The Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP) between India and Australia, established in June 2020, further strengthens bilateral defense ties.
• Joint military exercises improve coordination and interoperability between the armed forces of participating nations.
• They provide an opportunity to learn from each other’s best practices and operational experiences.
• The first edition of 'AUSTRAHIND' was conducted in 2016 with the aim of bolstering defense cooperation between India and Australia.

The correct answer is B Srinivasan

Key Points

• B Srinivasan has been appointed as the Director General of the National Security Guard (NSG).
• Srinivasan is a 1992 batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer from the Bihar cadre.
• His appointment will be effective from the date of joining up to August 31, 2027.
• He succeeds Nalin Prabhat, who has been deputed as Jammu and Kashmir's Special Director General of Police.

Additional Information

• Nalin Prabhat: The previous Director General of NSG, who was transferred to a new role as Special Director General of Police for Jammu and Kashmir. His tenure at NSG was curtailed, and he was moved to the AGMUT cadre.
• NSG (National Security Guard):
• A specialized counter-terrorism unit under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The National Security Guard, commonly known as Black Cats, is a counter-terrorism unit of India.
• It was founded on 16 October 1984, following Operation Blue Star against Sikh militants, to combat terrorist activities and protect states against internal disturbances.
• Founded: 22 September 1986.
• Motto: सर्वत्र सर्वोत्तम सुरक्षा / Omnipresent best security.
• Inter-cadre Deputation: Refers to the process where an IPS officer is transferred from one cadre to another for a specified period. Nalin Prabhat was transferred to the AGMUT cadre as part of this process.

The correct answer is ₹289/day

In News

• The Centre has notified a 3-10% increase in the wage rates for MGNREGA workers for the financial year 2024-25, effective from April 1, 2024.

Key Points

• Goa and Karnataka have seen the highest percentage increase at 10.56% and 10.4%, respectively, while Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand will see the lowest increase at 3%.
• The average MGNREGA wage across India will be ₹289 per day for FY 2024-25, up from ₹261 per day in FY 2023-24.
• Wage rates are decided based on changes in the CPI-AL (Consumer Price Index- Agriculture Labor), reflecting rural inflation.
• Haryana will have the highest wage rate at ₹374 per day, while Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland will have the lowest at ₹234 per day.
• Last year's wage increase ranged from 2-10%, and this year's increase comes amidst concerns about inadequate wages and delays in payments highlighted by the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Rural Development.
• The Centre has allocated ₹86,000 crore for MGNREGA in the Union Budget 2024-25, consistent with the revised estimate for the ongoing financial year 2023-24.

The correct answer is Sonepur.

• The cattle fair of Bihar has its root in ancient mythology and folklore.

Key Points

• The Sonepur Cattle Fair is Asia’s largest cattle fair which takes place in the town of Sonepur in Bihar.
• It is held on Kartik Purnima that is the first full moon after the festival of Diwali.
• In this fair, domestic cattle like an elephant, camel, sheep, and birds are brought in from around the country and sold here.
• Apart from this, varied handicrafts and handloom stalls are also put up, along with the magic show and folk dances.
• This fair attracts a large number of foreign tourists each year.

The correct answer is Air-Pravah

In News

• The app was launched on World Environment Day by Shri S Krishnan, Secretary of MeitY. The app is named "Air-Pravah".

Key Points

• The Air-Pravah app provides real-time Air Quality Index (AQI) monitoring.
• It offers quick setup, real-time data visualization, unit conversions, AQI comparison, multi-device support, data analysis tools, remote monitoring, and automatic updates.
• The app works in conjunction with the Indigenous Air Quality Monitoring System (AQ-AIMS).
• The system and app were developed under the ‘Make in India’ initiative, ensuring a cost-effective solution for air quality monitoring.

The correct answer is VVS Laxman.

• A book titled ‘COACHING BEYOND: My Days with the Indian Cricket Team’, authored by R. Kaushik & R. Sridhar, was released in January 2023.

Key Points

• The book reflects on R. Sridhar’s seven-year coaching tenure with the Indian cricket team as its fielding coach.
• R. Kaushik is also the co-author of V.V.S Laxman’s autobiography, 281 And Beyond, as well as, Gundappa Vishwanath’s autobiography, Wrist Assured.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Australia and Papua New Guinea.

Key Points

• The 2026 Rugby League World Cup is set to be co-hosted by Australia and Papua New Guinea.
• Australia has a rich rugby league heritage, being one of the strongest nations in the sport globally.
• Papua New Guinea is the only country where rugby league is the national sport, showcasing its popularity and significance.
• The decision to co-host the event with Papua New Guinea aims to promote the sport further in the Pacific region.
• Rugby League World Cups are held every four years, and the 2026 edition will follow the tournament hosted by France in 2025.

Additional Information

• Rugby League World Cup:
• The Rugby League World Cup is an international tournament first held in 1954, making it one of the oldest competitions in rugby.
• It is organized by the International Rugby League (IRL).
• The tournament features teams from across the globe, including Tier 1 nations and emerging rugby league nations.
• The format includes men's, women's, and wheelchair rugby league competitions.
• Australia’s Rugby League Legacy:
• Australia has won the Rugby League World Cup a record 11 times, solidifying its dominance in the sport.
• The National Rugby League (NRL) in Australia is one of the most competitive rugby league competitions in the world.
• Papua New Guinea and Rugby League:
• Rugby league is the most popular sport in Papua New Guinea, with a significant following at grassroots and professional levels.
• The Papua New Guinea national team, known as the Kumuls, is a competitive force in international rugby league.
• Regional Development of Rugby League:
• The co-hosting decision aims to boost rugby league infrastructure and participation in the Pacific region.
• It reflects the sport's commitment to expanding its reach beyond traditional strongholds.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The second edition of the Khelo India Para Games 2025 will be held in New Delhi.
• The event will take place between March 20-27, 2025 at three venues in New Delhi.
• More than 1300 para-athletes will compete across six sports disciplines in this championship.
• It is organized as part of the Khelo India mission to provide a platform for talented athletes to showcase their skills.

Additional Information

• The Khelo India Para Games is aimed at providing national exposure to para-athletes and fostering sportsmanship.
• The Games will feature six sports disciplines: para-athletics, para archery, para powerlifting, para badminton, para table tennis, and para shooting.
• The first edition of Khelo India Para Games was held in December 2023 in New Delhi, with seven sports disciplines.
• The event is a platform for para-athletes to compete and inspire others through their challenging journey.

The correct answer is Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06.

Key Points

• The National establishment for the reworking Republic of India, conjointly known as NITI Aayog, was fashioned via a resolution of the Union cupboard on Jan one, 2015.
• NITI Aayog is that the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the govt of the Republic of India, providing each directional and policy inputs. Whereas coming up with strategic and long-run policies and programs for the Govt of the Republic of India, NITI Aayog conjointly provides relevant technical recommendations to the Centre and States.
• NITI Aayog Chairperson:  Narendra Modi.
• NITI Aayog Headquarter: New Delhi.

The correct answer is Odisha.

In News

• Odisha is set to launch a unified health insurance scheme combining Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY, Gopabandhu Jan Arogya Yojana, and Ayushman Vayo-Vandana Yojana.

Key Points

• The scheme will cover 352 lakh people from 1.08 crore families in Odisha.
• Provides ₹5 lakh annual health coverage per family, with an additional ₹5 lakh for women members.
• Persons aged 70 and above will be eligible regardless of income under Ayushman Vayo-Vandana Yojana.
• Over 29,000 hospitals will offer free, cashless treatment under the unified scheme.

Additional Information

• Bihar
• Not associated with this integrated scheme launch in April 2025.
• Gujarat
• Runs its own health initiatives but is not launching this particular unified scheme.
• Maharashtra
• Has various health schemes but is not involved in this unified launch.

The correct answer is Article 51A.

Key Points

• Article 51A of the Indian Constitution explicitly deals with the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was added to the Constitution through the 42^nd Amendment Act in 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Initially, there were 10 Fundamental Duties; later, the 86^th Amendment Act in 2002 added the 11^th duty, which emphasizes providing opportunities for education to children aged 6-14 years.
• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts; however, they serve as moral obligations for every citizen to contribute to the nation’s development and uphold its sovereignty.
• The duties include respect for national symbols, promotion of harmony, protection of the environment, safeguarding public property, and striving for excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Additional Information

• Origin and Significance:
• Fundamental Duties were inspired by the Constitution of the Soviet Union.
• They play a crucial role in fostering a sense of responsibility among citizens and ensuring the growth of a democratic society.
• List of Fundamental Duties:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
• To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
• To provide opportunities for education to children between 6-14 years, as per the 86^th Amendment Act.
• Comparison with Fundamental Rights:
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, which are enforceable by courts, Fundamental Duties are non-enforceable.
• While Rights empower citizens, Duties emphasize their responsibilities toward the nation.
• Global Context:
• Countries such as Japan, China, and Russia have provisions similar to Fundamental Duties in their Constitutions.
• In India, these duties aim at strengthening a sense of patriotism and ensuring active participation in the nation's development.

Important Points

• The Fundamental Duties are incorporated under Part IV-A of the Constitution.
• The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties to address the lack of civic responsibility among citizens.
• They are significant in maintaining the integrity, sovereignty, and unity of the nation.
• Though not enforceable, Fundamental Duties can be promoted through legislative measures and awareness campaigns.

The correct answer is Mehrauli iron pillar.

Key Points

• The Mehrauli iron pillar is a historical monument located in Delhi, India.
• This pillar is famous for its rust-resistant composition of metals and dates back to the Gupta period (around the 4^th century AD).
• It is not associated with the Iron Age in India, which primarily spans from around 1500 BC to 200 BC.
• The pillar is believed to have been constructed during the reign of Chandragupta II (375-415 AD).
• The pillar's inscription and construction techniques are distinct from those of the Iron Age, which makes it an exceptional artifact from the Gupta period rather than the Iron Age.

Additional Information

• Iron Age in India
• The Iron Age in India began around 1500 BC and lasted until approximately 200 BC.
• This period is characterized by the widespread use of iron tools and weapons, which significantly enhanced agricultural productivity and warfare.
• Notable cultures from this period include the Painted Grey Ware culture and the Northern Black Polished Ware culture.
• Iron smelting and metallurgy were significant advancements during this time, leading to the development of more durable and efficient tools.
• Painted Grey Ware (PGW)
• PGW is a type of pottery associated with the Vedic period in northern India.
• It dates back to the Iron Age and is characterized by its grey color and painted geometric designs.
• PGW sites are often linked to the early Indo-Aryan settlements in the region.
• Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW)
• NBPW is a type of fine pottery that emerged during the later part of the Iron Age in India, around 700-200 BC.
• This pottery is known for its highly polished black surface and was used by the Mauryan Empire and other contemporary cultures.
• NBPW is considered a hallmark of urbanization and socio-economic development in ancient India.
• Gupta Period
• The Gupta period, spanning from the 4^th to the 6^th century AD, is known as the Golden Age of India.
• This era witnessed significant advancements in science, mathematics, astronomy, religion, and art.
• The Mehrauli iron pillar is an example of the high level of metallurgical skill achieved during this time.

The Correct Answer is 35 balls.

In News

• Vaibhav Suryavanshi becomes youngest centurion in IPL history.

Key Points

• Vaibhav Suryavanshi scored a historic century of 101 runs in 38 balls for Rajasthan Royals.
• Rajasthan Royals registered an eight-wicket victory over Gujarat Titans at the Sawai Mansingh Stadium, Jaipur.
• Gujarat Titans set a target of 210 runs, but Rajasthan Royals chased it successfully, scoring 212 runs for two wickets in 15.5 overs.
• Vaibhav Suryavanshi was declared Player of the Match.
• At the age of 14 years 32 days, he became the youngest centurion in IPL history, surpassing players like Manish Pandey, Rishabh Pant, and Devdutt Padikkal.
• Suryavanshi’s century is the second fastest in IPL history, behind Chris Gayle, who did it in 30 balls.
• His century is also the fastest by an Indian, surpassing Yusuf Pathan's record of 37 balls.

Mistake Points 

Vaibhav Suryavanshi scored a century off 35 balls, which is the fastest by an Indian in IPL history. He ultimately scored 101 runs from 38 balls in that match.

Given:

The average of 23 numbers is 21.

Concept used: 

If a number m is multiplied to each number, the new average will be multiplied by m.

Average = Sum of observation / Number of observations

Calculation:

⇒ New average = 21 x 2 = 42

∴ If each number is multiplied by 2, then 42 will be the new average.

Given:

We have to obtain the third proportional to 9 and 15

Concept Used:

Concept of ratio and proportion

Calculation:

Let, the third proportional be x

Then,

9 : 15 : : 15 : x

⇒ 9/15 = 15/x

⇒ x = (15 × 15) / 9

⇒ x = 25

∴ The required third proportional to 9 and 15 is 25.

Shortcut Trick

Deepak's Salary = Savings × (100 ÷ 48) = 18000 × (100 ÷ 48) = ₹37500

Raju's Salary = Deepak's Salary × (100 ÷ 120) = 37500 × (10 ÷ 12) = ₹31250

∴ The correct answer is ₹31250.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Deepak's savings = ₹18000

⇒ Savings percentage = 48% of Deepak's salary

⇒ Deepak's salary = 120% of Raju's salary

Calculations:

⇒ Let Deepak's salary be D.

⇒ 48% of D = 18000

⇒ D × (48 ÷ 100) = 18000

⇒ D = 18000 × (100 ÷ 48)

⇒ D = ₹37500

⇒ Let Raju's salary be R.

⇒ Since Deepak's salary is 20% more than Raju's salary, D = R × 120%

⇒ R × (120 ÷ 100) = 37500

⇒ R × 1.20 = 37500

⇒ R = 37500 ÷ 1.20

⇒ R = ₹31250

∴ The correct answer is ₹31250.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

Percentage change is calculated as: [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100.

Base Concept in Percentage

When A is x% more than B, B is the base (100%). Therefore, A = B × (100 + x) ÷ 100. Always identify the correct base for percentage calculations.

Successive Percentage

When a value is successively changed by x% and y%, the net percentage change is given by: x + y + (x × y) ÷ 100.

Given:

Total amount which is divided among A, B and C = Rs. 6,300

X : Y = 7 : 5 and Y : Z = 4 : 3

Calculation:

X : Y = 7 : 5     ----(1)

Y : Z = 4 : 3     ----(2)

Multiply by 4 in equation (1) and multiply by 5 in equation (2)

X : Y : Z = 28 : 20 : 15

Ratio of X : Y : Z = 28x : 20x : 15x

According to the question

28x + 20x + 15x = 6,300

⇒ 63x = 6,300

⇒ x = 6,300/63

⇒ x = 100

∴ Share of Y = 20 × 100 = Rs. 2,000

Given:

Profit percentage = 20%

Concept:

If there is a profit of x%, the ratio of selling price to cost price is (100 + x) ∶ 100.

Solution:

The ratio of selling price to cost price = (100 + 20) ∶ 100 = 120 ∶ 100 = 6 ∶ 5

Therefore, the ratio of the selling price to the cost price is $6 \over 5$.

Shortcut Trick

Rate of Interest (R) = 40% ÷ 4 = 10% per annum.

For Compound Interest at 10% for 3 years, the effective rate is 33.1%.

CI = 14000 × 33.1% = 140 × 33.1 = 4634.

∴ The correct answer is Rs 4634.

Alternate Method

Given: Increase in sum = 40%, Time (T₁) = 4 years, Principal (P₂) = Rs 14000, Time (T₂) = 3 years.

Formula Used: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100; CI = P[(1 + R/100)^T − 1]

⇒ Let Principal (P₁) = 100

⇒ SI = 40% of 100 = 40

⇒ 40 = (100 × R × 4) ÷ 100

⇒ R = 40 ÷ 4 = 10%

⇒ For CI: P = 14000, R = 10%, T = 3

⇒ CI = 14000 × [(1 + 10/100)³ − 1]

⇒ CI = 14000 × [(11/10)³ − 1]

⇒ CI = 14000 × [1331/1000 − 1]

⇒ CI = 14000 × [331/1000]

⇒ CI = 14 × 331 = 4634

∴ The correct answer is Rs 4634.

Additional Information

Effective Rate for CI

For 10% rate, effective CI rates are: 2 years = 21%, 3 years = 33.1%, 4 years = 46.41%.

SI vs CI Difference

Difference for 3 years = P(R/100)² × (300 + R)/100.

Shortcut Trick

Let the weights of Ram, Shyam, and Mohan be 7x, 8x, and 5x respectively.

Total weight = 7x + 8x + 5x = 20x.

Since the average weight is 80 kg, total weight = 80 × 3 = 240 kg.

20x = 240 ⇒ x = 12 kg.

Average weight of Ram and Shyam = (7x + 8x) ÷ 2 = 7.5x = 7.5 × 12 = 90 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 90 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of weights of Ram, Shyam, and Mohan = 7 : 8 : 5

Average weight of all three persons = 80 kg

Calculations:

⇒ Total weight of Ram, Shyam, and Mohan = Average weight × Number of persons

⇒ Total weight = 80 × 3 = 240 kg

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 7 + 8 + 5 = 20 parts

⇒ Value of 1 part = 240 ÷ 20 = 12 kg

⇒ Weight of Ram = 7 × 12 = 84 kg

⇒ Weight of Shyam = 8 × 12 = 96 kg

⇒ Total weight of Ram and Shyam = 84 + 96 = 180 kg

⇒ Average weight of Ram and Shyam = 180 ÷ 2 = 90 kg

∴ The correct answer is 90 kg.

Additional Information

Averages

The average provides the central or mean value of a set of quantities. Formula: Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations.

Ratio and Proportion

When a total sum is distributed in a given ratio (a : b : c), the value of any specific share is calculated as: Share = (Ratio part ÷ Sum of all parts) × Total Value.

Weighted Average

Used when combining different groups of different sizes and individual averages into a single overall average. Combined Average = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Calculation:

According to the question,

Total scored marks by Ayush in all subjects = 88 + 80 + 90 + 82 + 85 = 425

Correct Answer: 4) 425

Given:

Speed without stoppage = 60 km/h

Speed with stoppage = 40 km/h

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Distance travel by man with the speed of 60 km/h in one hour,

Distance = speed × Time

⇒ Distance = 60 × 1 = 60 km

Distance travel by man with the speed of 40 km/h in one hour,

Distance = speed × Time

⇒ Distance = 40 × 1 = 40 km

Now, the time is taken to cover the extra 20 km with the speed of 60 km/h

Time = Distance/Speed

⇒ Time = 20/60

⇒ Time = 1/3 hour = (1/3) × 60

⇒ Time = 20 minutes

∴ A man stops for 20 minutes per hour.

Stoppage in min/hr = {(F - S)/F ×  60},

Where,

F is without stoppage,

S is with stippage,

Stoppage in min/hr,

⇒ (60 - 40)/60 × 60

⇒ 20/60 × 60 = 20

∴ A man stops for 20 minutes per hour.

Given:

Boys = 100

Girls = 80

Total boys pass = 48%

Total girls pass = 30%

Concept Used:

Failed percentage = (Total failed students/Total students) × 100

Calculation:

Total number of students = 100 + 80

⇒ 180

According to the question, we have

The number of boys who passed the examination = 100 × (48/100)

⇒ 48

The number of boys who failed the examination = 100 - 48

⇒ 52

The number of girls who passed the examination = 80 × (30/100)

⇒ 24

The number of girls who failed the examination = 80 - 24

⇒ 56

The total number of students who failed the examination = 52 + 56

⇒ 108

Now,

The percentage of students who failed the examination = (108/180) × 100

⇒ 60%

∴ The percentage of students who failed the examination is 60%.

Shortcut Trick 

Boys who fail = 100 × (52/100) = 52

Girls who fail =80 × (70/100) = 56

The percentage of the total who failed = [(52 + 56)/(100 + 80)] × 100

⇒ (108/180) × 100

⇒ 60%

∴ The percentage of students who failed the examination is 60%.

Calculation:

Number of boys in B = 30.

Number of girls in E = 55

According to the question:

⇒ 30/55 × 100 = 54.54 ≈ 55 %

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Shortcut Trick

Let Income = 100, then Savings = 8 and Expenditure = 92.

New Income = 116 (16% increase); Savings remains constant = 8.

New Expenditure = 116 − 8 = 108.

Expenditure increase = 108 − 92 = 16.

% Increase = (16 ÷ 92) × 100 ≈ 17.39%.

∴ The correct answer is 17.3%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Savings = 8% of Income

Income increase = 16%

Savings change = 0% (remains the same)

Formula Used:

Income = Expenditure + Savings

Calculations:

⇒ Let initial Income = 100x

⇒ Initial Savings = 8x

⇒ Initial Expenditure = 100x − 8x = 92x

⇒ New Income = 100x + 16% of 100x = 116x

⇒ New Savings = 8x (given as same)

⇒ New Expenditure = 116x − 8x = 108x

⇒ Increase in Expenditure = 108x − 92x = 16x

⇒ Percentage increase = (16x ÷ 92x) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = (4 ÷ 23) × 100 ≈ 17.39%

∴ The correct answer is 17.3%.

Additional Information

Income Expenditure Relation

The fundamental relation is Income = Expenditure + Savings. Any change in one component must be balanced by the others.

Constant Savings Rule

If savings remain constant, the absolute increase in income is exactly equal to the absolute increase in expenditure (ΔI = ΔE).

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage change = (Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value × 100. Always use the original expenditure as the base for calculating its percentage increase.

The pattern follows here is:

The differences are in the increasing order of consecutive prime numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "99".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is ‘IK13’.

Eight people M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a straight line and all are facing north.

1) Q sits fifth to left of N and Both S and N sits at extreme ends of the line.

2) T is third to right of S.

3) One person sit between T and P.

Case (i) :

Case(ii) :

4) Only two people sit between M and O and T is to one of the right of O.

5) More than four people sit between S and R.

∴ Here, the position 'R' is fifth to right of 'O'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Fifth".

Thus, the correct mirror image is figure B.

Given:

: OLM :: HEF : %

Analysis of Options:

Option 1) # = POP, % = EUC

For # (POP) to OLM : : HEF to % (EUC)

Since the pattern for POP to OLM (-1, -3, -3) is not the same as the pattern for HEF to EUC (-3, +16, -3), Option 1 is incorrect.

Option 2) # = RVP, % = EQZ

For # (RVP) to OLM : :  HEF to % (EQZ)

Option 3) # = RUI, % = ESA

For # (RUI) to OLM : : HEF to % (ESA)

Option 4) # = ROP, % = EBC

For # (ROP) to OLM : : HEF to % (EBC)

Thus, the analogy holds true only for Option 4 where the pattern (-3, -3, -3) is consistent for both pairs.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

Possible tree diagram will be:

Hence, Dev is the maternal uncle of Dolly.

The logic here is as follows,

9² – 6² = 81 – 36 = 45

7² – 4² = 49 – 16 = 33

6² – 4² = 36 – 16 = 20

Similarly,

5² – 3² = 25 – 9 = 16

Thus, the value of 5 × 3 = 16.

The logic here is as follows,

A + 4 = E,

D + 5 = I

Similarly,

K + 4 = O,

X + 5 = C

Thus KX is related to OC.

The pattern followed here is :

Logic:

Consonant = -2, Vowel = Next vowel

Similarly,

Hence, 'JOUL' is the correct answer.

Given series →

(Left) ¥ 1 λ 2 5 $ 2 # 1 & 2 3 € 1 5 6 % ¥ 2 @ 6 (Right)

Symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a number

Symbol → Symbol → Number

 ¥ 1 λ 2 5 $ 2 # 1 & 2 3 € 1 5 6 % ¥ 2 @ 6

The above underlined symbol which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a number.

Hence, the correct answer is "1".

Logic: The positional values of letters are arranged in ascending order.

The pattern followed here is,

Arranging the alphabets in alphabetical orders like as.

OXBRIDGE : BDEGIORX

Similarly,

MOUTHFUL : FHLMOTUU

Hence, "FHLMOTUU" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is protocol.

Key Points

• The first part of a complete URL is the protocol.
• Protocols such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and others define how data is transmitted between the client and the server.
• The protocol specifies the method used for accessing the web resource and ensures that the data is transferred securely and correctly.
• For example, HTTPS stands for HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure, which is an extension of HTTP and provides secure communication over a computer network.

Additional Information

• A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the address used to access web pages and other resources on the internet.
• It typically consists of several parts: the protocol, the domain name, the path, and optionally, the port, query parameters, and fragment identifier.
• The protocol is followed by a colon and two forward slashes (e.g., http:// or https://).
• Correctly specifying the protocol is crucial for ensuring that the client and server can communicate effectively.

The correct answer is Scatter.

Key Points

• Scatter Chart in MS Excel is used to display values for typically two variables for a set of data.
• It shows the relationship between the two variables and is useful for identifying patterns or correlations.
• This chart type is particularly useful for scientific data analysis and research, where you need to plot multiple data points.

Additional Information

• Ellipse: This is not a chart type in MS Excel. An ellipse is a geometric shape, not a chart type.
• Switch: This is not a chart type in MS Excel. A switch is a term used in various contexts such as electronics and programming, but not in Excel chart types.
• Horizon: This is not a chart type in MS Excel. The term horizon is generally used in geography or astronomy, but not in Excel chart types.

The correct answer is -Audio recordings.

Key Points

• The term 'analog media' refers to traditional forms of media that encode information in analog format.
• Audio recordings, especially in their early forms (such as vinyl records or magnetic tape), are classic examples of analog media.
• They capture and store sound waves as physical textures or magnetic variations,
• Which can be played back to reproduce the original sounds.

Additional InformationFolk Performances:

• Folk performances are traditional forms of art and entertainment passed through generations, mostly through oral tradition.

Satellite Communication:

• Satellite communication involves the use of artificial satellites to communicate information across long distances.
• This technology primarily utilizes digital signals, especially in contemporary applications, for more efficient and reliable transmission.

Internet:

• The Internet is a vast network that facilitates digital communication and the exchange of digital data across the world.
• It represents the pinnacle of digital technology, allowing for the storage, transmission, and retrieval of digital information.

The correct answer is Used to deliver data on the World Wide Web.

Key Points

• The HTTP protocol is used to deliver data on the World Wide Web 
• It stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol.
• It is an application layer protocol designed within the framework of the Internet Protocol Suite.
• It is the base of data communication on the World Wide Web.
• It provides a standard for web browsers that facilitates users to exchange information over the internet.
• A typical flow over HTTP involves a client machine requesting a server, which then sends a response message.
• An HTTP request is a way internet communications platforms such as web browsers ask for the information they need to load a website.
• Each HTTP request made across the Internet carries with it a series of encoded data that carries different types of information.

Additional Information

• Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
• It is the protocol where encrypted HTTP data is transferred over a secure connection.
• It ensures data security over the network - mainly public networks like Wi-Fi.
• HTTPS encryption is done bi-directionally, which means that the data is encrypted at both the client and server sides.

The Correct answer is Between LAN and WAN.

 Key Points

• Metropolitan Area Network (MAN):
• ​A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a computer network that links users to computer resources within a geographic area, typically the size of a metropolitan region.
• It involves connecting local area networks (LANs) in a city to create a larger network, enabling efficient connectivity to a wide area network (WAN).
• Additionally, the term MAN is used to depict the linking of multiple LANs in a metropolitan area through point-to-point connections.
• MANs typically span a city or a large campus, connecting multiple LANs within that specific metropolitan area.
• They offer higher data transfer rates compared to WANs and are often used to interconnect various LANs in different buildings or locations within the same city.

Additional Information

• Local Area Network (LAN):
• ​LAN is a network that is limited to a small geographic area, such as a single building or a campus.
• It provides high data transfer rates within a confined area and is typically used for connecting computers, printers, and other devices within an organization.
• Wide Area Network (WAN):
• WAN is a network that spans a large geographic area, such as a country, continent, or even globally.
• WANs use various communication technologies, including leased lines, satellites, and public networks, to connect LANs and MANs across different locations.
• Due to the broader coverage, WANs may experience lower data transfer rates compared to LANs and MANs.

The correct option is (4) Headout Master

Concept:-

The Handout Master option allows us to change the layout, headers, and footers, as well as the background, of presentation handouts.

 Key Points

• Depending on the number of slides per page you want, choose one of the Handout options from the Layout box.
• A slide number is automatically included beneath each slide image in printed handouts of PowerPoint for Microsoft 365 for Mac. Choose Print.
• The formatting for those elements, such as the theme colors, fonts, and effects, is also included in the layouts.
• There are nine layouts available as office themes in the slide layout panel of MS PowerPoint 2007 and later versions.

Additional Information 

• Select the layout you altered in Slide Master View by clicking Layout under the Slides group in the Home menu.
• With the slide sorter, you can drag and drop your slides into the desired order on the screen in order to easily identify them or group them into parts.
• A notes master component may be present in a presentation (zero or one). The backdrop materials and default design of a notes page are chosen by the notes master.

The correct answer is magnetic tape.

Key Points

• In computing, sequential access memory (SAM) is a class of data storage devices that read stored data in a sequence.
• A magnetic tape is a sequential access memory storage device.
• Under SAM, the memory is accessed in a specific linear sequential manner, like accessing in a single Linked List.
• The access time depends on the location of the data.

Additional Information

• Cache memory
• ​It acts as a temporary storage area that the computer's processor can retrieve data from easily.
• It is a chip-based computer component that makes retrieving data from the computer's memory more efficient.
• DVD
• ​It is short of digital versatile disc or digital video disc.
• It is a disc capable of storing a significant amount more data than a standard compact disc.
• These are widely used for storing and viewing movies and other data.
• Blu-ray disk
• ​It is a digital optical disc storage format.
• It is most often used for playback of high-definition (HD) video.
• It represents the third generation of compact disc (CD) technology, after audio CDs and digital video discs (DVDs).

The correct answer is "A network of hijacked computers, that are controlled remotely".

Key Points

A Botnet' is a network of hijacked computers, that are controlled remotely.

• A botnet is a short form of a “robot network” and is a network of computers infected by malware that is used to perform Distributed Denial-of-Service attacks, steal data, send spam, and allow the attacker to access the device and its connection.

Additional Information

• The software used to edit blogs is called a content management system. For example Window Live, BlogJet, MarsEdit

Social networking service(SNS): 

• It is an online platform that people use to build social networks or social relationships with other people who share similar interests, activities, backgrounds, or real-life connections, and sometimes it is called a social networking site. For example; Facebook, Whatsapp, Instagram, Telegram, etc.

Library Management Software:

• Library management software is used to manage all the functions of a library such as circulation, cataloging, serials, member registration, etc. examples of LMS software are KOHA, DSpace, Greenstone, LIB Sys. etc.

The correct answer is SMTP.

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol): is an application layer protocol and used to send emails over the internet. SMTP is a state-full protocol.

Additional Information

• TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol) is the communication protocol is used by the internet and used to interconnect network devices on the internet. Its routing function enables internetworking and essentially establishes the Internet.
• TCP is responsible for the data delivery of a packet and IP is responsible for the logical addressing.
• FTP (File Transfer Protocol):  is an application layer protocol and used to exchange files on the internet and copy large files from a remote computer to the requesters' computer.
• HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol) is an application layer protocol designed to transfer information between networked devices and runs on top of other layers of the network protocol stack. HTTP involves a client machine making a request to a server, which then sends a response message and communication between web browsers and web servers. HTTP is a stateless protocol.
• ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network layer protocol used by network devices to diagnose network communication issues. ICMP is mainly used to determine whether or not data is reaching its intended destination in a timely manner.

The correct answer is Ctrl + F, Ctrl + H.

Key Points

• Ctrl + F is the keyboard shortcut for the 'Find' function in MS Word.
• The 'Find' function allows users to search for specific words or phrases within a document.
• Ctrl + H is the keyboard shortcut for the 'Find and Replace' function in MS Word.
• The 'Find and Replace' function enables users to search for a specific word or phrase and replace it with another word or phrase throughout the document.
• These shortcuts are essential for improving efficiency and productivity while editing documents.

 Additional Information

• Ctrl + N
• Ctrl + N is the keyboard shortcut for creating a new document in MS Word.
• This shortcut opens a blank document, allowing users to start fresh.
• Ctrl + A
• Ctrl + A is the keyboard shortcut for selecting all text and objects within a document.
• This shortcut is useful for applying formatting or copying the entire content of a document.

The correct answer is Saanen

Key Points 

• Saanen is a dairy goat that originated in Switzerland in the Saanen Valley. It is famous for its high production and persistence of yield and is known as the Queen of milk in the goat world.
• Nubian goats are called Anglo-Nubian in British (U.K) breed of domestic goat.
• The Kanni breed known locally as Pullaiadu and Karapuadu. is the tallest goat breed found in Tamil Nadu, India.
• The Kodi goat of southern Tamil Nadu, India, is raised mainly for meat, with skin as an important by-product.
• The Boer or Boerbok is a South African breed of meat goat​

Important Points

The correct answer is 535.78 million

Key Points

• Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying released the 20^th Livestock Census in 2019.

The following are the key results of the 20^th Livestock Census:

• The total Livestock population is 535.78 million in the country showing an increase of 4.6% over Livestock Consus 2012
• The total Bovine population (Cattle, Buffalo, Mithun, and Yak) is 302.79 million in 2019 which shows an increase of about 1% over the previous census.
• The total number of cattle in the country in 2019 is 192.49 million showing an increase of 0.8% over the previous Census.
• The Female Cattle (cows population) is 145.12 million, an increase of 18.0% over the previous census (2012).

The correct answer is Tiger Prawn

Key Points

• Brackish water is water that is saltier than freshwater, but not as salty as seawater.
• Brackish water prawn farming started in a big way in India during 1991-1994, particularly in the coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• Penaeus monodon and Penaeus indicus are the two most commonly considered species for Brackish water prawn farming.
• Among the Penaeus monodon species, Tiger Prawn is the highest priority brackish water fish having a high growth rate and can tolerate fluctuations in temperature.

​

Additional Information

The correct answer is Twenty or more persons are employed.

Key Points

  The Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provision Act 1952 applies to

• Industries employing 20 and more.
• For theatres employing 5 and more.
• And other industries mentioned in Schedule I of the EPF Act.

Important Points

 Important Features of the Act

• Once the act is applied to an establishment it shall remain applicable even if the number of an employed person falls below twenty.
• It applies to all the employees whose Wages (Basic + DA) is less than 15000 per month.
• The act and schemes framed thereunder have been structured as self-applying and the employers are responsible to report the compliance of their own.
• The Schemes framed under it are

1. Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) Scheme 1952.
2. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme 1976.
3. Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS) 1995.

• The aim of these schemes is to inculcate among workers a spirit of saving and encourage employees to save a portion of their present earning for the future.
• EPF Scheme deals with retirement savings.
• EPS Scheme deals with a post-retirement pension.
• And EDLI Scheme deals with relief to family members in case of sudden death.
• Benefits of the Act

1. Tax-free savings with interest rate at 8% plus.
2. If you withdraw you’re PF after 5 years or after maturity then you are not liable for any tax.
3. Postretirement benefits with full EPF and EPF for a minimum of 10 years’ service.
4. In emergencies such as death, marriage, loan you can withdraw your PF fund.
5. In case of loss of income due to unemployment and if you are unable to find a new job for two months then you can withdraw your PF.
6. EDLI scheme provides relief to family members in case of sudden death.
7. With Universal Account Number (UAN) now you can transfer EPF from your old to new employer easily.

• Contribution rates are divided between employee and employer and they are as following

1. An employee contributes 12% to the EPF account.
2. Whereas the Employer contributes 13.15% into EPF, EPS, and EDLI.
3. Also, 0.65% of the 13.15% are charged as EPF admin charges with a minimum of 500 charges. They are paid by the employer
4. When an employee is 58 plus of age then his EPS contribution is moved to EPF.

• There are some businesses where employee contribution rate is 10% instead of 12% and employers contribution is also less, they are

1. They are businesses with voluntary coverage with less than 20 employee strength.
2. Sick businesses.
3. A business where financial year loss is greater than or equal to net worth.
4. Jute, Coir, Brick, Guar gram.

• There is a provision of the Central Board and Central Provident Fund Commissioner is the CEO of the board.
• Dispute settlement for the parties is as provided in the Industrial Dispute Act of 1947.

The correct answer is 4.

Key PointsFloor space requirements:

The correct answer is Powdery mildew.

Key Points

Powdery mildew

• Powdery mildew is a plant disease of worldwide occurrence that causes a powdery growth on the surface of leaves, buds, young shoots, fruits, and flowers.
• Powdery mildew is caused by many specialized races of fungal species in the genera:  Erysiphe, Microsphaera, Phyllactinia, Podosphaera, Sphaerotheca, and Uncinula.
• Hundreds of species of trees, shrubs, vines, flowers, vegetables, fruits, grasses, field crops, and weeds can be affected by powdery mildew.

Important Points

Causes and Symptoms of Powdery mildew:

• The white powdery appearance is due to large numbers of microscopic spores (conidia) borne in chains.
• These wind-borne spores uniquely do not require free water for germination and infection. New conidia can be produced every 3 to 14 days.
• If the disease is severe, the mildewed plant parts may be stunted and distorted. Leaves commonly turn yellow and wither, flowers are distorted or fewer in number, and fruit yield and quality are reduced.
• Mildew is most severe in crowded, shady, poorly aerated locations when nights are cool and days are warm.

Management of Powdery mildew:

• Sulfur dust is effective against many powdery mildews but should not be applied in hot weather.
• A number of other organic treatments, including copper-based fungicides, baking soda solutions, and neem oil, have also proven effective.
• Planting resistant varieties, staking plants to improve air circulation, removing diseased plant parts, and sterilizing contaminated gardening shears can prevent or reduce the spread of the disease.

The correct answer is Euryhaline.

Key Points

Euryhaline

• These organisms are able to adapt to a wide range of salinities.
• Molly is an example of euryhaline fish, it can live in freshwater, brackish water, or salt water.
• The green crab is an example of a euryhaline invertebrate that can live in salt and brackish water.

Important Points

Estuarine:

• It is the scientific study of the characteristic life processes of living organisms found in a semi-enclosed coastal body of water that has a connection with the open sea and within which seawater is measurably diluted with freshwater
• An estuary is an area where a freshwater river or stream meets the ocean.

Oligohaline

• Oligohaline conditions are defined as salt concentrations between 0.5 and 5 ppt,
• These are the organisms that are tolerant of only a moderate range of salinities,
• They prefer brackish water with a salinity of 0.5 to 3.0 (or 5.0) ppt from ocean-derived salts,
• They live in seawater having a salinity of 17 to 30ppt.

Stenohaline

• These are the organisms that can survive within a narrow range of salinity. They are cannot tolerate the rapid changes in salt concentration.
• Examples: Goldfish, sea turtles, haddock, and many other marine organisms

The correct answer is Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana 

Key Points

• Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is an elaborated component of Soil Health Management (SHM) of the major project National Mission of Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
• Launched in 2015
• Under PKVY, Organic farming is promoted through the adoption of the organic village by cluster approach and Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) certification.
• The funding pattern under the scheme is in the ratio of 60:40 by the Central and State Governments respectively.
• In the case of North Eastern and the Himalayan States, Central Assistance is provided in the ratio of 90:10
• Fifty or more farmers will form a cluster having 50-acre land to take up organic farming under the scheme.
• There will be no liability on the farmers for expenditure on certification.
• Every farmer will be provided Rs. 20,000 per acre in three years for the seed harvesting of crops and transporting produce to the market.
• The produce will be pesticide residue free and will contribute to improving the health of the consumer.

Implementation of the programme:

• PKVY is being implemented by the Organic Farming cell of the Integrated Nutrient Management (Division) of the Department of Agriculture; Cooperation and Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW)
• At the State level, the State Department of Agriculture and Cooperation has been implementing the scheme with the involvement of Regional Councils that are registered under the PGS- India Certification Programme
• At the district level, the Regional Councils (RCs) within the district anchor the implementation of PKVY.

The correct answer is Vitamin A.

Key Points

Golden rice

• Golden rice is a genetically modified bio-fortified variety of rice crops.
• It was developed in the late 1990s by German scientists Ingo Potrykus and Peter Beyer.
• It is a new type of rice that contains beta carotene (provitamin A a plant pigment that the body converts into vitamin A).
• Beta carotene compound gives a yellow-orange or golden colour to rice, hence its name “Golden Rice”.
• Beta-carotene is converted into vitamin A when metabolized by the human body.
• It was developed mainly to combat vitamin A deficiency, the leading cause of childhood blindness.

The rules were issued under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. The new regulation states that cattle bought cannot be resold within six months. It also states that young and unfit animals cannot be traded. It demands that anyone buying cattle needs to give an undertaking that animals are bought for agricultural purposes and not slaughter.

The correct answer is Drumstick 

Key PointsClassification of vegetable crops based on the life span:

1. Annuals: The life span of annual plants is a season or a year, eg, brinjal, chili, cabbage cauliflower, cucurbits, tomato, leafy vegetables, etc
2. Biennials: The life span of biennials is of two seasons or two years, eg onion, radish, carrot, etc
3. Perennials: The life span of perennial plants is more than two years, eg drumstick (moringa), asparagus (Shatavari), pointed gourd (parwal), etc

The correct answer is 152 days

Key Points 

Additional Information

• The gestation period is the time in which a fetus develops, beginning with fertilization and ending at birth.
• Estrus or heat is a period during the reproductive cycle when female animals become sexually receptive, signalling they are ready for mating.

The correct answer is 10-12%.

Key Points

• Dry feeds typically have a moisture content of 10-12%.
• These feeds are made from dry ingredients or mixtures of dry and moist ingredients.
• The low moisture content helps in preserving the feed and preventing spoilage.
• Dry feeds are commonly used for their convenience, longer shelf life, and ease of storage.

Important Points

• Dry feeds can include mashes/meals and pellets, which are formulated to meet the nutritional needs of animals.
• The low moisture content in dry feeds contributes to their stability and reduces the risk of mold and microbial growth.

Additional Information

• 45-70%: Moisture content typical of wet feeds made from ingredients like trash fish and slaughterhouse wastes.
• 18-40%: Moisture content range for moist feeds, which are mixtures of wet and dry raw materials.
• 20-30%: Not a standard moisture content range for common animal feeds.
• 50-60%: Moisture content too high for dry feeds, more typical of highly moist or wet feeds.

The correct answer is UAE.

• Banana (Musa acuminata), also known as tree of wisdom, adams fig, apple of paradise.
• Humid tropical herb and day neutral plant.
• India is the leading country in banana production.
• Total production 32% of total fruit production.
• Area: Karnataka > Kerala > Andhra Pradesh.
• Production: Andhra Pradesh > Gujarat > Maharashtra.
• Productivity: Madhya Pradesh > Gujarat > Punjab.
• Export: UAE > Iran > Saudi Arabia.

The correct answer is Haemorrhagic septicaemia.

Key Points

• Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia (VHS) is a disease caused by a virus.
• This viral disease affects a wide range of fish species, particularly in temperate freshwater and marine environments.
• VHS is characterized by hemorrhaging in the internal organs, muscles, and skin.
• The disease can lead to significant mortality in fish populations, especially in aquaculture settings.

Important Points

• VHS is a notifiable disease, meaning outbreaks must be reported to appropriate authorities.
• Control measures include quarantine, disinfection, and destruction of infected stocks to prevent spread.

Additional Information

• Abdominal dropsy: Usually caused by bacterial infections, leading to swollen abdomen in fish.
• Furunculosis: A bacterial disease that causes boils or ulcers on the fish.
• Gill rot: Typically caused by fungal or bacterial infections affecting the gills.
• Ectoparasite infection: Caused by external parasites such as lice and flukes on fish.

The correct answer is Decrease in nutritional quality

Key Points

• The greening of potatoes is caused by the accumulation of chlorophyll due to the exposure of the tubers to sunlight which causes the development of the green pigment called Solanin.
• This green colour indicates an increase in glycoalkaloids.
• Greening can occur at any stage throughout the potato supply chain and reduces the market value due to its poor colour, taste and cooking quality.
• It can be prevented by practising earthing up after every top dressing and by avoiding too much exposure to sunlight.
• The development of solanine in green potatoes results in a decrease in nutritional quality that may upset digestion and cause discomfort.

                                          Greening of Potato

The correct answer is Food Corporation of India

Key Points

 Food Corporation of India (FCI)

• It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution.
• It was set up in 1965 following the enactment of the Food Corporation Act, of 1964 with the objective of fulfilling aspects of the National Food Policy at the time.

Important Points

The Objectives of the FCI:

• Providing proper price support to protect the interests of poor farmers.
• Effective distribution of food grains through a Public Distribution Systems (PDS)
• Maintaining the operational and buffer stocks of food grains, to ensure continued supply of essential food supply.
• Regulation of market price for food grains so that the population can get them at an affordable price.
• Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers by providing them remunerative prices for their food grains and Distribution of food grains all over the country through the PDS.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh

Key Points 

• Uttar Pradesh tops in the production of rice, wheat, maize, Nutri/coarse cereals and pulses.
• Uttar Pradesh is the leading farming state in India, according to significant state-by-state crop production in that country

Important Points

Confusion Points 

• Production is the process of creating, growing, manufacturing, or improving goods and services. It also refers to the quantity produced.
• Productivity is used to measure the efficiency or rate of production. It is the amount of output (e.g. number of goods produced) per unit of input (e.g. labor, equipment, and capital).

Additional Information

• Jharkhand: ranks in lack production 55% of national production.
• Himachal Pradesh: Apple production
• Gujrat: Isabgul production
• Bihar: first in mushroom production. Earlier, Odisha was ranked first in mushroom production.

The correct answer is Magur.

Key Points

• Air-breathing fishes are those that respire using aerial gas exchange instead of, or in addition to, that of the water.
• Air-breathing fishes are equipped with one or more modified respiratory structure to breathe, such as modified air bladders, lungs, skin or gills
• The Asian catfish locally known as Magur fish (Clarias batrachus) is an important air-breathing fish

The correct answer is 1958 

Key Points

 NAFED: National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation

• The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) is an organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce.
• It was established on 2 ^nd October1958 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act.
• It was set up with the aim of promoting cooperative marketing of agricultural produce that would benefit farmers.

Important Points

The objectives of NAFED are as follows:

• To organize, promote, and develop marketing and storage of agricultural and forest produce.
• Assist with technical advice in agricultural production.
• Helps in the facilitation, coordination, and promotion of marketing and trading activities of partners’ associates in the agricultural sector.
• It purchases sells and supply of agricultural, marketing, and processing requirements such as manure, seeds, fertilizers, etc.
• It facilitates the construction of warehouses as per the Warehousing act by constructing its own godowns and storage facilities.
• It acts as an agent of any government or cooperative for the purchase, sale, and storage of agricultural, horticultural, and animal husbandry produce.
• It provides insurance coverage to cover any accidents that may occur.