Official Paper

Bihar Jeevika (Livelihood Specialist) : (21 Nov 2025, Evening Shift) MBT (Previous Year Paper)

70 questions · 80 minutes · with answers · free

Test (70 questions)

1

Crazy chick disease is caused by deficiency of? 

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin-A

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin-B

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin-E

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin-C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vitamin-E

The correct answer is Vitamin-E

Key Points

  • Crazy chick disease is a neurological disorder in poultry that is caused by a vitamin E deficiency.
  • Vitamin E is an antioxidant that is important for protecting cells from damage.
  • A deficiency in vitamin E can lead to a number of problems in poultry, including:
  • Crazy chick disease
  • Encephalomalacia (soft brain)
  • Exudative diathesis (bloody diarrhoea)
  • Crazy chick disease is characterized by a number of symptoms, including:
  • Ataxia (incoordination)
  • Tremors
  • Seizures
  • Blindness
  • Death
  • The severity of the symptoms of crazy chick disease can vary depending on the severity of the vitamin E deficiency.
  • In some cases, birds may only show mild symptoms, such as a slight tremor.
  • In other cases, birds may show severe symptoms, such as seizures and death.
DiseaseCauseSymptoms
Crazy chick diseaseVitamin E deficiencyAtaxia, tremors, seizures, blindness, death
Encephalomalacia (soft brain)Soft brain, incoordination, seizures, death
Exudative diathesis (bloody diarrhoea)Bloody diarrhoea, weakness, death
2

In which country did the Serum Institute of India and Oxford University launch the new malaria vaccine R21/Matrix-M?

  1. ((a))

    Nigeria

  2. ((b))

    Ghana

  3. ((c))

    Cote d'Ivoire

  4. ((d))

    Burkina Faso

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Cote d'Ivoire

The correct answer is Cote d'Ivoire

In News

  • The Serum Institute of India (SII) has rolled out the R21/Matrix-M malaria vaccine in Côte d'Ivoire, marking its official launch in Africa.

Key Points

  • This vaccine, co-developed with the University of Oxford, received WHO approval last year and is known for its high efficacy and affordability.
  • SII has produced 25 million doses and aims to scale up production to 100 million doses annually, offering the vaccine for less than $4 per dose.
  • The roll-out aims to combat malaria, which still claims four lives a day in Côte d'Ivoire, primarily among small children.
  • R21/Matrix-M is the second malaria vaccine available in Sub-Saharan Africa, following RTS,S, and is expected to save tens of thousands of lives annually.
  • A total of 656,600 doses have been allocated to initially vaccinate 250,000 children aged 0 to 23 months across 16 regions in Côte d'Ivoire.
  • The vaccine has also been authorized for use in Ghana, Nigeria, Burkina Faso, and the Central African Republic, with plans for 15 African countries to introduce malaria vaccines in 2024 with Gavi's support.
3

The Indian National Congress formally took up the Swadeshi call in its Benaras session of 1905 under the presidentship of _________.

  1. ((a))

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  2. ((b))

    Jawahar Lal Nehru

  3. ((c))

    Rajendra Prasad

  4. ((d))

    Motilal Nehru

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Gopal Krishna Gokhale

The correct answer is Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Key Points

  • The Indian National Congress formally adopted the Swadeshi call in its Benaras session of 1905.
  • This session was presided over by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
  • The Swadeshi movement was part of the Indian freedom struggle, advocating for the boycott of British goods and the revival of domestic products and production processes.
  • It aimed to promote self-reliance and reduce dependence on British imports.

Additional Information

  • Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress and a social reformer.
  • He was known for his moderate views and advocacy for constitutional methods of protest against British rule.
  • The Swadeshi movement gained momentum after the partition of Bengal in 1905, which was seen as an attempt to divide and rule by the British.
  • The movement played a crucial role in the economic and cultural awakening of India.
  • It laid the foundation for future movements and the eventual independence of India in 1947.
4

In which of the following years PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) was formally launched?

  1. ((a))

    2019

  2. ((b))

    2015

  3. ((c))

    2014

  4. ((d))

    2017

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2019

The correct answer is 2019.

  • PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) is a central sector scheme under the Government of India that provides income support to farmers and their families.
  • ​Under this scheme, the Center transfers Rs 6,000 per year, in three equal installments, directly to the bank accounts of all landholder farmers, irrespective of the size of their landholdings.
  • It was launched in February 2019.

Key Points

  • The main objectives of the PM-KISAN scheme are given below:
  • The objective of the scheme is to meet the financial nee ds of Small and Marginal Farmers (SMFs) by ensuring proper crop health and proper yields and in procuring various inputs commensurate with the anticipated farm income at the end of each crop cycle.
  • It is a central sector scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India.
  • It is being implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Fa rmers Welfare.​
5

What is the name of the scheme launched to promote e-mobility in India?

  1. ((a))

    Clean Energy Mobility Program

  2. ((b))

    Green Mobility Initiative

  3. ((c))

    Electric Vehicle Fast Adoption Scheme

  4. ((d))

    EV as a Service Program

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

EV as a Service Program

The correct answer is EV as a Service.

In News

  • CESL launched 'EV as a Service' Program to promote E-Mobility

Key Points

  • The 'EV as a Service' program was launched by Union Minister Shri Manohar Lal to promote e-mobility in India.
  • The initiative aims to deploy 5,000 electric cars in government sectors over the next two years.
  • This program aligns with India's goal of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070 by reducing carbon emissions and reliance on fossil fuels.
  • CESL (Convergence Energy Services Limited) is a subsidiary of Energy Efficiency Services Ltd, which is leading the initiative.

Additional Information

  • CESL (Convergence Energy Services Ltd)
  • A subsidiary of Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) focused on providing sustainable energy solutions.
  • Net-zero emissions by 2070
  • India's long-term target to reduce carbon emissions and achieve environmental sustainability by 2070.
  • Electric Vehicles (EV)
  • Vehicles powered by electricity, contributing to the reduction of reliance on fossil fuels and lowering carbon emissions.
6

Under the Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) scheme, _______ is being promoted as an alternative transport fuel.

  1. ((a))

    LPG

  2. ((b))

    CNG

  3. ((c))

    Hydrogen

  4. ((d))

    Compressed Biogas

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Compressed Biogas

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. compressed biogas

  • Union Petroleum Minister launched 'SATAT' initiative to promote Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) as an alternative fuel.
  • The initiative is aimed at providing a Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) as a developmental effort that would benefit both vehicle-users as well as farmers and entrepreneurs.
  • The use of CBG will also help bring down dependency on crude oil imports.
  • Shri Dharmendra Pradhan is the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas & Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
7

To which planet did NASA send Missy Elliott's hip-hop music?

  1. ((a))

    Mars

  2. ((b))

    Jupiter

  3. ((c))

    Saturn

  4. ((d))

    Venus

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Venus

The correct answer is Venus

In News

  • NASA's Deep Space Network successfully transmitted Missy Elliott's hip-hop song "The Rain (Supa Dupa Fly)" to Venus, creating a historic moment in both music and space exploration.

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Key Points

  • This event marked the first time hip-hop music has been sent to space and the second song overall to be broadcasted into space by NASA.
  • The transmission, covering 158 million miles (254 million kilometers), was facilitated by the Deep Space Station 13, nicknamed Venus, and took nearly 14 minutes to reach the planet.
  • Brittany Brown from NASA highlighted the synergy between space exploration and Missy Elliott’s boundary-pushing art, noting Missy's history of space-themed music videos.
  • Missy Elliott expressed her excitement, describing Venus as a symbol of "strength, beauty, and empowerment," making it a fitting recipient of her music.
  • Upcoming NASA missions DAVINCI and VERITAS, along with the European Space Agency’s EnVision mission, aim to explore Venus further, using the Deep Space Network for data relay.
  • The Deep Space Network, established in 1963, includes ground stations in California, Madrid, and Canberra, providing continuous communication with spacecraft exploring deep space.
8

Which sport is associated with "Allan Border Medal"? 

  1. ((a))

    Polo

  2. ((b))

    Cricket

  3. ((c))

    Football

  4. ((d))

    Hockey

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cricket

The correct answer is Cricket.

Key Points

  • Cricket: Governed by the International Cricket Council (ICC), established in 1909, it's the most popular sport globally, especially in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Polo: Ruled by the Federation of International Polo (FIP), its origins trace back to Persia in the 6th century BC, and it's a sport of equestrian skill and strategy.
  • Football: Regulated by FIFA (Fédération Internationale de Football Association), founded in 1904, it's the world's most widely played sport, with billions of fans worldwide.
  • Hockey: Controlled by the International Hockey Federation (FIH), established in 1904, it's a traditional sport with a rich history, particularly popular in Europe and South Asia.
9

Which company was recently awarded 'Navratna' status by the Government of India?

  1. ((a))

    BHEL

  2. ((b))

    NTPC

  3. ((c))

    NHPC

  4. ((d))

    ONGC

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

NHPC

The correct answer is NHPC

In News

  • Railtel Corporation of India, Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam, National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC), and Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) were recently awarded Navratna status, enhancing their financial and operational autonomy.

Key Points

  • The Navratna status allows these companies to invest up to 30% of their net worth, capped at ₹1,000 crore, without requiring government approval, and they can now form joint ventures, alliances, and overseas subsidiaries.
  • The status upgrade reflects the strong financial performance of these companies, including SECI's ₹13,035 crore turnover and NHPC's ₹3,744 crore net profit in FY 2023-24, among others.
  • This recognition brings the total number of Navratna entities to 25, positioning these firms among India's top-tier central public sector enterprises.
10

'Operation Flood' refers to:

  1. ((a))

    Flood Control

  2. ((b))

    Milk production

  3. ((c))

    Control of Soil Erosion

  4. ((d))

    Nuclear War Fair Control

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Milk production

The correct answer is Milk production 

Key Points

  • Operation Flood launched on 13 January 1970
  • It was the world's largest dairy development program and
  • A landmark project of India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)
  • Operation Flood was started by Dr Verghese Kurien in India, to increase milk production and milk products on a large scale.
  • This is also known as the white revolution.
  • Transformed India from a milk deficient nation into the world's largest milk producer.

 

Important Points

​Operation Flood's objectives included:

  • Increase milk production ("a flood of milk")
  • Augment rural incomes
  • Reasonable prices for consumers

 

Operation Flood was implemented in three phases:

 

  • Phase I (1970-1980)
  • Phase II (1981-85)
  • Phase III (1985-1996)
11

Who won his maiden BWF Super 100 title at the Odisha Masters?

  1. ((a))

    Tharun Mannepalli

  2. ((b))

    Lakshya Sen

  3. ((c))

    Rithvik Sanjeevi

  4. ((d))

    Kidambi Srikanth

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Rithvik Sanjeevi

The correct answer is Rithvik Sanjeevi

In News

  • Rithvik Sanjeevi Satish Kumar clinched his maiden BWF Super 100 title by defeating compatriot Tharun Mannepalli in the men's singles final at the Odisha Masters with a score of 21-18, 21-16.

Key Points

  • Rithvik, aged 21, has had an impressive year, winning the Telangana International Challenge last month and finishing as a runner-up at the Sri Lanka International Challenge in February.
  • The final match lasted 43 minutes, with Rithvik demonstrating a strong mindset and skill, overcoming Tharun's attempts to close the gap in both games.
  • Rithvik's past achievements include a gold medal at the Sub-Junior National Championship in 2019 and a silver medal at the Bangladesh International Challenge in 2021.
  • In his post-match remarks, Rithvik highlighted the competitive nature of the matches and credited mindset as the key difference between players.
  • The women’s singles final saw 15-year-old Tanvi Sharma lose to Chinese qualifier Cai Yan Yan with a score of 14-21, 16-21 in a 35-minute match.
  • Tanvi had earlier claimed the Bonn International title this year, showcasing her potential at a young age.
  • Rithvik, ranked 78th in the world, trains at the Hatsun Badminton Center in Tamil Nadu, emphasizing Odisha's growing interest in badminton and the support from enthusiastic spectators.
12

Which report rated RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das as "A+" for the second consecutive year?

  1. ((a))

    Global Finance Economic Report

  2. ((b))

    Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024

  3. ((c))

    International Finance Central Banker Ratings

  4. ((d))

    Global Economic Leadership Report 2024

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024

The correct answer is Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024

In News

  • Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi congratulates RBI Governor Shri Shaktikanta Das on being rated “A+” for the second time in a row in Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024.

Key Points

  • Report Name: Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024
  • Rating: “A+”
  • Achievement: RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das received this rating for the second consecutive year.
  • Other Recipients: Denmark's Christian Kettel Thomsen and Switzerland's Thomas Jordan also received the “A+” rating.
  • Rating Parameters: Success rates in inflation control, economic growth goals, currency stability, and interest rate management.

Important Points

  • Significance: The “A+” rating reflects strong performance in central banking leadership and economic management.
  • Recognition: This rating is a notable acknowledgment of Shaktikanta Das’s effective leadership at the RBI.

Additional Information

  • Context: The rating is given by Global Finance magazine, highlighting leadership in key economic parameters.
  • Other Rated Governors: The report recognizes a few global central bank governors for their exceptional performance.
13

TRAI is a regulatory body associated with which of the following sectors? 

  1. ((a))

    Telecom

  2. ((b))

    Transport

  3. ((c))

    Technical Education

  4. ((d))

    Travel and Tourism

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Telecom

The correct answer is Telecom

Key Points

  • The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing and promoting fair practices in India’s telecommunications sector.
  • Established in 1997, TRAI aims to ensure transparency, maintain healthy competition, and protect the interests of telecom consumers.
  • TRAI sets rules, guidelines, and standards for telecom operators, including mobile, broadband, and broadcasting services, ensuring fair competition and quality service.
  • TRAI works to protect consumer rights, regulating tariffs, addressing grievances, and promoting transparency in billing, network quality, and customer services.
14

Who said, "Drain of wealth is evil of all evils"?

  1. ((a))

    M.G. Ranade

  2. ((b))

    Dada Bhai Naoroji

  3. ((c))

    R.C. Dutt

  4. ((d))

    A.R. Desai

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Dada Bhai Naoroji

The correct answer is: 'Dada Bhai Naoroji'.

Key Points

  • Dada Bhai Naoroji was a prominent Indian nationalist and an early leader of the Indian National Congress.
  • He is often referred to as the "Grand Old Man of India".
  • Naoroji was a key figure in the early phase of the Indian independence movement and played a crucial role in laying the foundation for India's struggle for freedom.
  • The "Drain of Wealth" theory was proposed by Dada Bhai Naoroji.
  • In his work "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India," Naoroji highlighted how the wealth of India was being drained to Britain, leading to impoverishment of the Indian population.
  • He argued that this economic exploitation was the primary reason for widespread poverty in India.

Other Options

  • M.G. Ranade:
  • M.G. Ranade was a distinguished Indian scholar, social reformer, and one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress.
  • He advocated for social reforms such as the upliftment of women, the abolition of child marriage, and the encouragement of widow remarriage.
  • R.C. Dutt:
  • R.C. Dutt was an Indian civil servant, economic historian, and writer who also addressed the economic issues faced by India under British rule.
  • He wrote extensively on the economic history of India and critiqued British economic policies in his work "The Economic History of India".
  • A.R. Desai:
  • A.R. Desai was a renowned Indian sociologist known for his contributions to the study of Indian society and the analysis of social and political movements.
  • His work often focused on the sociological aspects of Indian society, including class structure and social change.

Additional Information

  • Drain of Wealth Theory:
  • The Drain of Wealth theory was a critical argument used by early Indian nationalists to highlight the economic exploitation of India by the British.
  • It emphasized that a significant portion of India's wealth was being transferred to Britain in the form of salaries for British officials, profits of British companies, and other remittances.
  • This theory played a significant role in awakening Indian public opinion against colonial exploitation and laid the groundwork for the economic critique of British rule.
  • Impact of Economic Nationalism:
  • Economic nationalism, as advocated by leaders like Dada Bhai Naoroji, helped in raising awareness about the adverse effects of British policies on India's economy.
  • It encouraged the Indian public to support the Swadeshi movement and boycott British goods, fostering a sense of economic self-reliance and national pride.
15

Rhizobium is a kind of __________.

  1. ((a))

    Symbiotic bacteria

  2. ((b))

    Parasitic bacteria

  3. ((c))

    Photosynthetic bacteria

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Symbiotic bacteria

The correct answer is Symbiotic bacteria.

Key Points

  • Symbiotic Bacteria- 
  • A genus of bacteria called Rhizobium is linked to the development of root nodules on plants.
  • These microorganisms coexist with legumes. They absorb nitrogen from the air and transfer it to the plant, enabling it to grow in nitrogen-deficient soil.

Additional Information 

  • Parasitic Bacteria-
  • A parasite is a living thing that inhabits its host and feeds off of or at the expense of it.
  • Protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasites are the three main groups of parasites that can harm humans.
  • Protozoa are what Entamoeba histolytica is.
  • Photosynthetic Bacteria-
  • Prokaryotes that can do photosynthesis include photosynthetic bacteria.
  • They are extensively dispersed and can be found in soil, lakes, paddy fields, oceans, rivers, and activated sludge, among other environments.
  • Saprophytic Bacteria-
  • Saprophytic bacteria, as their name implies, are microorganisms that digest or breakdown organic material.
  • These organisms in particular are capable of dissolving complex substances, such hemicellulose and lignin, into simpler forms that they can use or that can be utilised by other organisms.
16

Pabna Peasant Movement was related to -

  1. ((a))

    Bengal

  2. ((b))

    Punjab

  3. ((c))

    Bombay

  4. ((d))

    Madras

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bengal

The correct answer is - Bengal

Key Points

  • Pabna Peasant Movement
  • It was an agrarian uprising in the Pabna district of Bengal during the 1870s.
  • The movement was primarily a response to the oppressive practices of the zamindars (landlords).
  • The peasants organized to protest against the increasing rents and the illegal eviction of tenants.
  • The movement led to the formation of the Pabna Agrarian League, which aimed to protect the rights of the tenants and seek redressal of their grievances.
  • The British colonial administration eventually intervened, and a Rent Commission was established to look into the issues raised by the peasants.

Additional Information

  • Punjab
  • During the period of the Pabna Peasant Movement, Punjab was experiencing its own social and economic issues, but it was not directly related to the Pabna Peasant Movement.
  • Punjab was more influenced by different movements, such as the Singh Sabha movement, which focused on Sikh religious and social reforms.
  • Bombay
  • Bombay (now Mumbai) was a major center of commerce and industry during the British colonial period.
  • The city experienced different forms of social and labor movements, particularly among the industrial workers, but it was not connected to the agrarian issues of Bengal.
  • Madras
  • Madras (now Chennai) also had its own set of socio-economic issues and movements, particularly focused on caste discrimination and social reforms.
  • The region did not have a direct connection to the Pabna Peasant Movement.
17

Which campaign was launched by the Women and Child Development Ministry to eliminate child marriages in India?

  1. ((a))

    Beti Bachao Beti Padhao

  2. ((b))

    Shakti Yojana

  3. ((c))

    Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat

  4. ((d))

    Kishori Shakti Abhiyan

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat

The correct answer is Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat.

In News

  • The Women and Child Development Ministry launched the "Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat" campaign to eliminate child marriages.

Key Points

  • The campaign focuses on high-burden states where child marriage rates are significantly above the national average.
  • Approximately 200,000 child marriages were prevented in the past year as part of this initiative.
  • The goal is to reduce child marriage rates to below 5% by 2029.
  • The campaign prioritizes seven states: West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Tripura, Assam, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Nearly 300 districts across India report child marriage rates above the national average.
  • Child marriage impacts one in five girls in India before they reach the legal age of 18.
  • The initiative aims to engage all states and Union Territories to implement targeted action plans.

Additional Information

  • Child Marriage in India:
  • Approximately one in five girls in India is married before the age of 18.
  • Child marriage limits educational, health, and economic opportunities for girls.
  • Legal Measures:
  • The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, prohibits child marriages in India.
  • Various government schemes such as Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana aim to uplift and protect girl children.
18

In an election A got 39% of total votes and B got 15% of the total votes and C got the remaining votes. If the difference between the votes received by A and C was 56000. Find the total number of votes A received?

  1. ((a))

    343000

  2. ((b))

    314000

  3. ((c))

    342000

  4. ((d))

    312000

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

312000

Given: In an election A got 39% of total votes and B got 15% of the total votes and C got the remaining votes. If the difference between the votes received by A and C was 56000.

Formula: If A got a% votes and B got b% votes, difference in the votes = (a - b) % of Total votes

Calculation:

Let total votes be 100x

A get = 39x

B = 15x

So, C gets  46x

As per question,

46x – 39x = 56000

⇒ 7x = 56000

⇒ X = 8000

Hence A gets = 39x = 39 × 8000 = 312000

19

A man can row 7.5 km/h in still water. If the speed of the current is 2.5 km/h, it takes 3 hours more upstream than downstream for the same distance. The distance is:

  1. ((a))

    37.5 km

  2. ((b))

    27 km

  3. ((c))

    35 km

  4. ((d))

    30 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

30 km

Shortcut Trick

Downstream speed = 7.5 + 2.5 = 10 km/h; Upstream speed = 7.5 − 2.5 = 5 km/h.

Ratio of Speeds (Downstream : Upstream) = 10 : 5 = 2 : 1.

Since distance is constant, Time ratio = 1 : 2.

Difference in time units = 2 − 1 = 1 unit → 3 hours.

Distance = Speed × Time = 10 km/h × (1 × 3 h) = 30 km.

∴ The correct answer is 30 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of boat in still water (u) = 7.5 km/h

Speed of current (v) = 2.5 km/h

Time difference (ΔT) = 3 hours

Formula Used:

Distance (D) = [(S1 × S2) ÷ (S1 − S2)] × ΔT

Where S1 is downstream speed and S2 is upstream speed.

⇒ Downstream speed (S1) = u + v = 7.5 + 2.5 = 10 km/h

⇒ Upstream speed (S2) = u − v = 7.5 − 2.5 = 5 km/h

⇒ According to the question, D/5 − D/10 = 3

⇒ (2D − D) ÷ 10 = 3

⇒ D ÷ 10 = 3

⇒ D = 30 km

∴ The correct answer is 30 km.

Additional Information

Downstream and Upstream Speed

When a boat moves with the flow of the river, the speed is u + v (Downstream). Against the flow, it is u − v (Upstream).

Distance when Time Difference is Given

Distance D = (Product of Speeds ÷ Difference of Speeds) × Difference in Time.

Boat and Stream Formulas

Speed of boat in still water = (Downstream + Upstream) ÷ 2. Speed of stream = (Downstream − Upstream) ÷ 2.

20

Kavita has deposited Rs. 4000 with the bank for two years at 6.25% simple interest per annum. What will be the total amount that Kavita will receive at the end of the two-year term?

  1. ((a))

    Rs. 4475

  2. ((b))

    Rs. 4625

  3. ((c))

    Rs. 4400

  4. ((d))

    Rs. 4500

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Rs. 4500

Given:

Principal = Rs. 4000

Rate = 6.25%

Time = 2 years

Formula used:

SI = (P × R × T)/100

A = P + SI

Calculation:

According to the question

SI = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ Rs. (4000 × 6.25 × 2)/100

⇒ Rs. (80 × 6.25)

⇒ Rs. 500

Now,

A = P + SI

⇒ Rs. (4000 + 500)

⇒ Rs. 4500

∴ The total amount that Kavita will receive at the end of the two-year term is Rs. 4500

21

Mr. A travels some distance. He travels (3/4)th of the total distance with a speed of 30 km/h in 2 hours. Find the total distance travelled by Mr. A.

  1. ((a))

    40 km

  2. ((b))

    20 km

  3. ((c))

    80 km

  4. ((d))

    50 km

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

80 km

Given:

**(**3/4)th distance is travelled with speed 30 km/h.

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Let the total distance be x km.

According to question

30 × 2 = 3x/4

⇒ x = 80 km 

∴ The total distance travelled by Mr. A is 80 km.

22

The pie chart shows the angular representation of placement data in five different courses. If the total number of candidates qualified is 1,44,000, then the number of candidates in Q is what percent of candidates in S? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

  1. ((a))

    68.16%

  2. ((b))

    68.12%

  3. ((c))

    68.18%

  4. ((d))

    68.15%

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

68.18%

Calculation:

Value of 360° = 100%

So Q is (75/110) × 100 = 68.18 percent of candidates in S

∴ The correct option is 3

23

The ratio of the father's age to the son’s age is 3 ∶ 1.  The product of their ages is 147. The ratio of their ages after 5 year will be-

  1. ((a))

    13 ∶ 6

  2. ((b))

    12 ∶ 5

  3. ((c))

    14 ∶ 6

  4. ((d))

    3 ∶ 2

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

13 ∶ 6

Given:

The ratio of the father's age to the son’s age is 3 ∶ 1

The product of their ages is 147.

Calculation:

Let the age of father is = 3x

The age of son is = x

According to question, 

3x × x = 147

3x2 = 147

x2 = 147/3 = 49

x = √49

x = 7

So, father's age is = 3 × 7 = 21 years

Son's age = 7 years

The age of father after 5 years = 21 + 5 = 26 years

The age of son after 5 years = 7 + 5 = 12 years

Ratio = 26 ∶ 12 = 13 ∶ 6

Hence, the correct answer is "13 : 6".

24

The average weight of 6 members of a family is 25 kg, If one family member whose weight is 40 kg leave the group, then find the new average weight of remaining family members.

  1. ((a))

    22 kg

  2. ((b))

    25 kg

  3. ((c))

    40 kg

  4. ((d))

    None of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

22 kg

Shortcut TrickThe average weight of n members of a family is w kg, If one family member whose weight is W kg leaves the group,

then the new average weight of remaining family members = y

So,

W = {n × (w - y)} + y

According to the question,

⇒ 40 = 6 × (25 - y) + y

⇒ 40 = 150 - 6y + y

⇒ 40 = 150 - 5y

⇒ 5y = 150 - 40

⇒ 5y = 110

⇒ y = 22 kg

Therefore, '22 kg' is the required answer.

Alternate Method

Given:

The average weight of 6 members of a family is 25 kg,

If one family member whose weight is 40 kg leaves the group,

Formula used:

Sum of n numbers = (Average of n numbers) × n

Calculation:

The average weight of 6 members of a family = 25 kg

The total weight of all 6 members = 25 × 6 = 150 kg

The weight of the member who leaves the group = 40 kg

The remaining weight of remaining 5 members = 150 - 40 = 110 kg

The new average = (\frac{110}{5}) = 22 kg

Therefore, '22 kg' is the required answer.

25

The average age of 14 friends is 14 years. If the age of 15th friend is added, then the average remains same. What is the age of the 15th friend?

  1. ((a))

    15 years

  2. ((b))

    18 years

  3. ((c))

    14 years

  4. ((d))

    12 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

14 years

Given:

Average age of 14 friends = 14 years

Calculation:

The average age of 14 friends is 14 years.

The sum of the ages of all 14 friends = 14 ×  14 = 196 years.

Now, if the age of the 15th friend is added, the average remains the same. 

Let's denote the age of the 15th friend as "x" years.

The sum of ages of all 15 friends (including the 15th friend) would be 196 years + x years.

According to the given condition, the average remains the same. The new average is still 14 years.

We can set up an equation using the concept of averages:

(196 + x) / 15 = 14

Simplifying the equation:

196 + x = 14 ×  15

196 + x = 210

x = 210 - 196

x = 14

Therefore, the age of the 15th friend is 14 years.

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

26

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it. 

The demand for company B is approximately what per cent of the demand for company C?

  1. ((a))

    25%

  2. ((b))

    23%

  3. ((c))

    20%

  4. ((d))

    24%

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

24%

Calculation

The demand for company B = 600

The demand for company C = 2500

= 600/2500 × 100

= 24%

The demand for company B is 24% of the demand for Company C

27

A bag contains 20 P, 25 P, and 50 P coins in the ratio 7 : 6 : 5, amounting to Rs 297. Find the number coins of 25 P?

  1. ((a))

    280

  2. ((b))

    390

  3. ((c))

    250

  4. ((d))

    330

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

330

Given:

The ratio in the coins of 20 P, 25 P and 50P = 7 : 6 : 5

Total amount = Rs. 297

Calculation

As we know that, 20 P = 1/5 Rs. , 25 P = 1/4 Rs. and 50 P = 1/2 Rs.

Bag contains 20 P, so total amount by 20 P coin = (1 ÷ 5) × 7x = 1.40x

Similarly, total amount by 25 P coin = (1 ÷ 4) × 6x = 1.50 x

And, total amount by 50 P coin = (1 ÷ 2) × 5x = 2.50x

According to question,

1.40x + 1.50x + 2.50x = 297

⇒ 5.40x = 297

Then, x = 55

∴ Number of coins of 25 P = 6x

55 × 6 = 330

28

Cost price of 12 pens is equal to the selling price of 8 pens. Find the profit percentage.

  1. ((a))

    50%

  2. ((b))

    48%

  3. ((c))

    45%

  4. ((d))

    60%

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

50%

Given:

Cost price of 12 pens is equal to the selling price of 8 pens.

Formula used:

Profit = selling price - cost price

Profit% = profit/cost price × 100

Calculation:

Let cost price of 1 pen = Rs 1

Cost price of 12 pens = Selling price of 8 pens = Rs 12

Cost price of 8 pens = Rs 8

Profit = Rs (12 - 8) = Rs 4

Profit% = 4/8 × 100

⇒ profit% = 50%

∴ profit% is 50%

29

X, Y and Z invested in the ratio 5 ∶ 7 ∶ 8. They invested for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What would be the ratio of their share of profit after 14 months?

  1. ((a))

    8 ∶ 7 ∶ 7

  2. ((b))

    8 ∶ 4 ∶ 7

  3. ((c))

    5 ∶ 4 ∶ 4

  4. ((d))

    8 ∶ 14 ∶ 7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

5 ∶ 4 ∶ 4

Given:

X, Y and Z invested in the ratio 5 ∶ 7 ∶ 8. They invested for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively.

Concept Used:

Share of profit divided in the ratio of investment

Calculation:

Let, investment of X = 5a

Investment of Y = 7a

Investment of Z = 8a

Weighted ratio of investment of X, Y and Z

⇒ 5a × 14 ∶ 7a × 8 ∶ 8a × 7

⇒ 70a ∶ 56a ∶ 56a

⇒ 5 ∶ 4 ∶ 4 

∴ Ratio of share of profit will be 5 : 4 : 4

30

In the following question, select the related words from the given alternatives.

Cup ∶ Crockery ∶∶ Sharpener ∶ ?

  1. ((a))

    Rubber

  2. ((b))

    Paper

  3. ((c))

    Stationery

  4. ((d))

    Pencil

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Stationery

The logic followed here is:

1st word is "the item" and 2nd word is "collection of those items".

According to the given information:

Cup ∶ Crockery → Cup is a type of Crockery.

Similarly

​Sharpener ∶ Stationery → Sharpener is a type of Stationery.

Hence, the correct answer is "​Sharpener ∶ Stationery".

31

Seven students R, S, T, U, V, W and X, each scored different marks in a test. V scored more than W but less than U. X scored more than S but less than R. T scored more than U but less than S. Who scored the least marks among all?

  1. ((a))

    W

  2. ((b))

    V

  3. ((c))

    T

  4. ((d))

    U

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

W

Seven students: R, S, T, U, V, W and X.

  1. V scored more than W but less than U. 

U > V > W

  1. X scored more than S but less than R.

R > X > S

  1. T scored more than U but less than S. 

S > T > U

Combining all the statements:

R > X > S > T > U > V > W

 W score the least marks in all the students.

Hence, the correct answer is "W".

32

Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Find the odd one out.

  1. ((a))

    WUTR

  2. ((b))

    JMPS

  3. ((c))

    GHIJ

  4. ((d))

    SQOM

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

WUTR

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is ‘WUTR’.

33

In a certain code language, ‘RAJESH’ is written as ‘IUHNFX’, and ‘GARIMA’ is written as ‘BOLVFM’. How will ‘RITIKA’ be written in that language? 

  1. ((a))

    CMLYNX

  2. ((b))

    CMLXNY

  3. ((c))

    BMLXNX

  4. ((d))

    BNMXMY

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

BMLXNX

The position of letters according to the English alphabet series:

‘RAJESH’ is written as ‘IUHNFX’

And,

GARIMA’ is written as ‘BOLVFM’

Similarly,

‘RITIKA’ be written as '?'

Hence, the correct answer is "BMLXNX".

34

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

9, 29, 67, 129, ?, 349

  1. ((a))

    221

  2. ((b))

    185

  3. ((c))

    178

  4. ((d))

    242

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

221

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '221' is the correct answer.

Alternate Method The logic followed here is:

23 + 1 = 9

33 + 2 = 29

43 + 3 = 67

53 + 4 = 129

63 + 5 = 221

73 + 6 = 349

Hence, '221' is the correct answer.

35

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

114 ÷ 85 + 5 × 4 – 33 = 149

  1. ((a))

    ÷ and +

  2. ((b))

    ÷ and –

  3. ((c))
    • and ×
  4. ((d))

    – and +

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

÷ and +

Given Equation: 114 ÷ 85 + 5 × 4 – 33 = 149 

BODMAS Table:

Let's check each option One by One:

Option 1) ÷ and +

Given Equation: 114 ÷ 85 + 5 × 4 – 33 = 149 

After interchanging the signs we get;

New Equation: 114 + 85 ÷ 5 × 4 – 33 = 149 

114 + 85 ÷ 5 × 4 – 33 = 149 

114 + 17 × 4 – 33 = 149 

114 + 68 – 33 = 149 

182 - 33 = 149

149 = 149.

Option 2) ÷ and –

Given Equation: 114 ÷ 85 + 5 × 4 – 33 = 149 

After interchanging the signs we get;

New Equation: 114 - 85 + 5 × 4 ÷ 33 = 149 

114 - 85 + 5 × 4 ÷ 33 = 149

114 - 85 + 5 × 0.12 = 149

114 - 85 + 0.60 = 149

114.60 - 85 = 149

29.60 ≠ 149.

Option 3) + and ×

Given Equation: 114 ÷ 85 + 5 × 4 – 33 = 149 

After interchanging the signs we get;

New Equation: 114 ÷ 85 × 5 + 4 – 33 = 149 

114 ÷ 85 × 5 + 4 – 33 = 149 

1.34 × 5 + 4 – 33 = 149 

6.70 + 4 – 33 = 149

10.70 - 33 = 149

-22.29 ≠ 149. 

Option 4) – and +

Given Equation: 114 ÷ 85 + 5 × 4 – 33 = 149 

After interchanging the signs we get;

New Equation: 114 ÷ 85 - 5 × 4 + 33 = 149

114 ÷ 85 - 5 × 4 + 33 = 149 

1.34 - 5 × 4 + 33 = 149

1.34 - 20 + 33 = 149

34.34 - 20 = 149

14.34 ≠ 149.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

36

Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark(?) in the following series?

CGE, HJI, LPN, SUT, ?

  1. ((a))

    XBZ

  2. ((b))

    YAZ

  3. ((c))

    YCA

  4. ((d))

    XZY

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

YCA

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is YCA.

37

What will come in the place of '?' in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

300 + 242 × 11 - 15 ÷ 9 = ?

  1. ((a))

    324

  2. ((b))

    143

  3. ((c))

    413

  4. ((d))

    341

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

413

Here, we use the BODMAS table given below:

Given:

​⇒ 300 + 242 × 11 - 15 ÷ 9 = ?

After interchanging  '+' and '-' and '×' and '÷' →

​⇒ 300 - 242 ÷ 11 + 15 × 9

Apply BODMAS rule:

​⇒ 300 - 22 + 15 × 9

​⇒​ 300 - 22 + 135​

​⇒ 435 - 22 = 413

​⇒ '300 - 242 ÷ 11 + 15 × 9 = 413'

Here, the value of the equation is '413'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

38

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

21 : 529 ∷ 25 : 729 ∷ 17 : ?

  1. ((a))

    324

  2. ((b))

    361

  3. ((c))

    289

  4. ((d))

    441

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

361

The pattern followed is,

For 21 : 529

21 + 2 = 23

232 = 529

For 25 : 729

25 + 2 = 27

272 = 729

For 17 : ?

17 + 2 = 19

192 = 361

Hence, “361” is the correct answer.

39

Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All T are P.

All C are P.

Some O are C.

Conclusions:

I. Some T are C.

II. Some P are T.

III. Some P are O.

  1. ((a))

    Only conclusion II follows

  2. ((b))

    Both conclusions II and III follow

  3. ((c))

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. ((d))

    Only conclusion I follows

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both conclusions II and III follow

Statements:

All T are P.

All C are P.

Some O are C.

Possible Venn diagram:

Conclusions:

I. Some T are C → False (It is not correct because there is no definite relation between them)

II. Some P are T → True (Since all T are P)

III. Some P are O → True (Since all C are P and some O are C)

Both conclusions II and III follow.

Hence, 'option 2' is the correct answer.

40

Pointing towards a man (Viaan), Manvi said, "I am the only great grand daughter of his father's father's wife." How is that Man (Viaan) related to Manvi?

  1. ((a))

    Brother

  2. ((b))

    Niece

  3. ((c))

    Grandfather

  4. ((d))

    Father

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Father

Preparing the family tree using the following symbol:

According to the given information,

That man (Viaan) is the father of Manvi.

Hence, the answer is Father.

41

________ is the full form of Wi-Fi.

  1. ((a))

    Wireless focus

  2. ((b))

    Wireless fidelity

  3. ((c))

    Wired Fidelity

  4. ((d))

    Wired focus

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Wireless fidelity

The correct answer is Wireless fidelity.

  • Wireless fidelity is the full form of Wi-Fi.
  • Wi-Fi is a wireless local area network.
  • It was introduced in 1997.
  • It allows an electronic device to exchange data wirelessly using radio waves.
  • Wi-Fi provides services in private homes, businesses, as well as in public spaces.
  • Wi-Fi positioning systems use the positions of Wi-Fi hotspots to identify a device's location.
42

Which of the following steps is used to format a cell in an MS Excel Spreadsheet?

  1. ((a))

    View → Select cell → Format

  2. ((b))

    Select cell → Right click → Format cell

  3. ((c))

    Menu → Select cell → Format

  4. ((d))

    Select cell → View → Format cell

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Select cell → Right click → Format cell

The correct answer is Select cell → Right click → Format cell

Key Points

  • To format a cell in an MS Excel Spreadsheet, you need to first select the cell you want to format.
  • After selecting the cell, right-click on the selected cell to open the context menu.
  • From the context menu, choose the "Format Cells..." option to open the Format Cells dialog box.
  • This dialog box allows you to change various cell properties such as number format, alignment, font, border, and fill.
  • Formatting cells can help make your data more readable and visually appealing.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel is a powerful spreadsheet software developed by Microsoft, widely used for data analysis, financial modeling, and data visualization.
  • It offers a range of features including formulas, charts, pivot tables, and conditional formatting to enhance data manipulation and presentation.
  • Excel supports various file formats including .xlsx, .xls, .csv, and more, making it versatile for different types of data work.
  • Users can also use Excel's built-in functions and macros to automate repetitive tasks and improve efficiency.
  • Consistent use of cell formatting helps maintain a professional and organized appearance of your spreadsheets.
43

Integrated Circuits (Ics) are related to which generation of computers? 

  1. ((a))

    First generation

  2. ((b))

    Second generation 

  3. ((c))

    Third generation 

  4. ((d))

    Fourth generation 

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Third generation 

The correct answer is Third Generation.

Key Points

  • The First generation of computer's period was from 1940 to 1956.
  • Vacuum tubes were used in the first generation of computers for circuitry and magnetic drums were used for memory.
  • Computers in this generation were enormous and they use to take entire rooms.
  • Computers were very expensive to operate and used a great deal of electricity which generated a lot of heat which cause malfunctions.
  • Computer relied on machine language to perform operations and so could solve one problem at a time.
  • The UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer) and ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer) are examples of first-generation computing devices.
  • The UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer) was the first commercial computer delivered to a business client, the U.S. Census Bureau in 1951.
  • The second generation of computer's period was from 1956-1963.
  • Transistors were used in second-generation computers.
  • The transistor was invented in 1947 but was used in computers in the late 1950s.
  • The transistors were far superior to the vacuum tube, allowing computers to become smaller, faster, cheaper, more energy-efficient, and more reliable than their first-generation predecessor.
  • Early versions of COBOL (Common Business-Oriented Language) and FORTRAN (Formula Translation) which are high-level programming languages were also being developed at this time.
  • The third generation of computer's period was from 1964-1971.
  • Integrated circuits were used in third-generation computers.
  • These computers carry out instructions in billionths of a second.
  • Computers for the first time became accessible to a mass audience because they were smaller and cheaper than their predecessor.
  • Fourth Generation computer's period was from 1971 to the present.
  • Microprocessors were used in fourth-generation computers.
  • Fourth Generation computers saw the development of the Graphical User Interface (GUI's), the mouse, and handheld devices.
  • Fourth-generation computers were small and more powerful as compared to other generations as a result they could be linked together to form networks and led to the development of the internet.
  • Fifth Generation computers are in the present generation and will see further developments.
  • Artificial Intelligence is used in this generation of computers.
  • Games such as chess and checkers can be played on the computer.
  • The term Artificial intelligence was coined for the first time by John McCarthy in 1956 at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
  • Natural-language processing, Voice recognition, robotics, etc are some of the achievements of this generation of computers.
44

You want to be able to restrict values allowed in a cell and need to create a drop-down list of values from which users can choose. Which feature should you use?

  1. ((a))

    Protect Worksheet

  2. ((b))

    Conditional Formatting

  3. ((c))

    Allow Users to Edit Ranges

  4. ((d))

    Data Validation

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Data Validation

The correct option is (4)

Explanation:-

Restrict data entry:

  1. Select the cells where you want to restrict data entry.
  2. On the Data tab, click Data Validation > Data Validation.
  3. In the Allow box, select the type of data you want to allow and fill in the limiting criteria and values.

 Important Points

Data validation:- It is a feature that restricts (validates) user input to a worksheet. Technically, you create a validation rule that controls what kind of data can be entered into a certain cell.

Additional InformationProtect Worksheet:- Worksheet level protection is not intended as a security feature. It simply prevents users from modifying locked cells within the worksheet.

Conditional Formatting:- It is a tool that allows you to apply formats to a cell or range of cells, and have that formatting change depending on the value of the cell or the value of a formula.

Allow users to Edit Ranges:- Select the worksheet that you want to protect. On the Review tab, in the Changes group, click Allow Users to Edit Ranges. This command is available only when the worksheet is not protected.

45

Which symbol is commonly used to mark an email as important?

  1. ((a))

    At Symbol (@)

  2. ((b))

    Hash Tag (#) 

  3. ((c))

    Asterisk (*)

  4. ((d))

     Exclamation Mark (!)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

 Exclamation Mark (!)

The correct answer is Exclamation Mark (!).

Key Points

  • The Exclamation Mark (!) is commonly used in various email clients to mark an email as important or urgent.
  • When an email is marked with an Exclamation Mark, it signifies to the recipient that the email should be read or acted upon promptly.
  • This feature helps in prioritizing emails in the inbox based on their urgency or importance.

Additional Information

  • At Symbol (@): This symbol is commonly used in email addresses to separate the username from the domain name, for example, [email protected].
  • Hash Tag (#): This symbol is widely used on social media platforms to tag or categorize content, making it easily searchable by other users.
  • Asterisk (*): This symbol is often used in computing and programming to denote multiplication, pointers, or to signify a wildcard character in search functions.
46

Which one of the following statements is not true with respect to the Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

  1. ((a))

    CPU processes data and instructions.

  2. ((b))

    The CPU is a part of the ALU.

  3. ((c))

    CPU also has a set of registers.

  4. ((d))

    It performs arithmetic operations.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The CPU is a part of the ALU.

The correct answer is Option (2).

Key Points

  • A central processing unit (CPU), also called a central processor, main processor, or just processor is the electronic circuitry within a computer that executes instructions that make up a computer program.
  • The CPU performs basic arithmetic, logic, controlling, and input/output (I/O) operations specified by the instructions in the program.
  • The computer industry used the term "central processing unit" as early as 1955.
  • Principal components of a CPU include the arithmetic logic unit (ALU) that performs arithmetic and logic operations, processor registers that supply operands to the ALU and store the results of ALU operations, and a control unit that orchestrates the fetching (from memory) and execution of instructions by directing the coordinated operations of the ALU, registers and other components.
  • The fundamental operation of most CPUs, regardless of the physical form they take, is to execute a sequence of stored instructions that is called a program. The instructions to be executed are kept in some kind of computer memory. Nearly all CPUs follow the fetch, decode and execute steps in their operation, which are collectively known as the instruction cycle.
47

In Windows NT, NT stands for.

  1. ((a))

    New Terminal

  2. ((b))

    Newest Technology

  3. ((c))

    New Technology

  4. ((d))

    Nano Technology

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

New Technology

The correct answer is New Technology.

Key Points-

  • Windows NT is a family of operating systems manufactured by Microsoft, NT stands for 'New Technology' the first version of which was released on July 27, 1993. It is a processor-independent, multiprocessing and multi-user operating system.
48

What is the basic program used as an interface between the operating system and the motherboard?

  1. ((a))

    Dual In-Line Memory Module (DIMM)

  2. ((b))

    Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)

  3. ((c))

    Basic Input Output System (BIOS)

  4. ((d))

    Universal Serial Bus (USB)

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Basic Input Output System (BIOS)

The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Basic Input Output System (BIOS).

Basic Input Output System is a program that is used as an interface between the operating system and the motherboard.

  • It is the program used by the microprocessor and manages data flow between the computer’s operating system and attached devices such as hard disk, keyboard, adaptor, mouse, and printer, etc.

 

ProgramWorking
Dual In-line Memory Module (DIMM)- It consists series of dynamic random access memory integrated circuits. These are mounted on the printed circuit board. - It is made for using personal computers, workstations, and servers. - It is present in the motherboard holding memory chip.
Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)- It is a type of specification for motherboard and power supply configuration developed by Intel in 1995. - It was to improve previous advanced technology designs.
Basic Input Output System (BIOS)- It is a programme embedded on a chip or motherboard that controls various devices and managing data flow between the operating system and other devices.
Universal Serial Bus (USB)- It is an interface between the host controller and personal computer which enables the communication between them. - It also connects other devices like digital camera, mouse, printer, scanner, media devices, and hard drives, etc.
49

The F7 key is commonly used in Microsoft programs such as Microsoft Word, Outlook, etc. for:

  1. ((a))

    renaming files and folders

  2. ((b))

    checking spelling and grammar

  3. ((c))

    opening help

  4. ((d))

    searching content in various apps

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

checking spelling and grammar

The correct answer is checking spelling and grammar.

Key Points

  • Its have no use of the F7 key in Windows.
  • In Microsoft programs such as Microsoft Word, Outlook for checking spellings and grammar, the F7 is commonly used.
  • Other uses- 
  • Shift + F7 = Choose the Thesaurus command.
  • Ctrl + F7 = Choose the move command.
  • Alt + F7 = Find the next misspelling or grammatical error.​

Additional Information

  • Renaming files and folders**- F2 key.**
  • Opening help- Windows Key + F1 key.
  • Searching content in various apps**- Windows Key + Q key.**
50

Which of the following is an input device?

  1. ((a))

    Optical character reader

  2. ((b))

    Inkjet printer 

  3. ((c))

    Headphones

  4. ((d))

    Projector

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Optical character reader

The correct answer is Optical character reader.

Key Points

  • Optical character recognition(OCR) is the electronic or mechanical conversion of images of typed, handwritten, or printed text into machine-encoded text, whether from a scanned document, a photo of a document, a scene photo, or from subtitle text superimposed on an image.

Important Points

Input deviceOutput device
The input device receives data from users.An output device displays data on the screen for users.
It works for translating user-friendly instructions into a machine friendly.It works for translating the machine's instructions to user intelligible.
It accepts data from the user as input and forwards it to the processor for further processing.the output device takes the processed data from the processor.
Its design is more complex.Its design is less complex.
Input device helps the computer to receive instructions from users.The output device helps the computer to produce or display the information to the users.
Eg: Microphone, Joystick, Keyboard, Pointing device, Image Scanner, Graphics tablet,etcEg: Speakers, Printers, Plotters, projectors, monitors, etc.
51

What is the body temperature of Dairy Cow (in °C)?

  1. ((a))

    41.7

  2. ((b))

    44

  3. ((c))

    39.5

  4. ((d))

    38.6

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

38.6

The correct answer is 38.6

Key Points

  • The average body temperature of a cow is 38.6 °C (101.5 ° F).
  • The range is found to be 37.8 °C to 40.0 °C (100 to 104 °F).
  • A cow's body temperature is lower in the morning, due to the rest the body received and higher at night after a day of muscular activity.

Important Points Normal body temperature of different animals

AnimalBody Temperature (°C)
Beef Cow38.3
Dairy Cow38.6
Sheep39.1
Mare37.8
Pig39.2
Chicken41.7
Stallion37.6
52

What are the three components of the empowerment model in SAPAP of SHGs?

  1. ((a))

    Collective empowerment, capital formation, and poverty eradication

  2. ((b))

    Public resource allocation, capacity building, and microfinance

  3. ((c))

    Social mobilisation, capital formation, and capacity building

  4. ((d))

    Social mobilisation, economic development, and education

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Social mobilisation, capital formation, and capacity building

The correct answer is Social mobilisation, capital formation, and capacity building.

Key Points

  • Social mobilisation refers to the process of bringing together all societal sectors to raise awareness, demand, and participation for the empowerment and development of Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
  • Capital formation involves the accumulation of assets and investments to generate income and enhance the financial stability of SHGs.
  • Capacity building focuses on enhancing the skills, knowledge, and abilities of SHG members to improve their organizational and operational efficiency.
  • These three components together aim to strengthen SHGs, enabling them to become self-reliant and sustainable in their economic activities.

Additional Information

  • Self-Help Groups (SHGs):
  • SHGs are small, economically homogeneous affinity groups of rural poor, coming together to save and mutually contribute to a common fund.
  • They provide members with support and resources to improve their living standards and economic conditions.
  • Microfinance:
  • It is a financial service for low-income individuals or those who do not have access to typical banking services.
  • Microfinance includes loans, savings, insurance, and fund transfers to help the underprivileged.
  • Financial Inclusion:
  • It is the process of ensuring access to financial services and timely and adequate credit for vulnerable groups such as weaker sections and low-income groups at an affordable cost.
  • Financial inclusion aims to connect people to the formal banking system to promote economic growth and development.
  • Livelihood Promotion:
  • It involves creating and enhancing opportunities for the poor to improve their income and employment prospects.
  • Livelihood promotion includes training, skill development, and access to markets and financial services.
53

Which bank has been adjudged the Best Performing Bank in SHG Linkage by the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), Ministry of Rural Development?

  1. ((a))

    Yes Bank

  2. ((b))

    ICICI Bank

  3. ((c))

    Axis Bank

  4. ((d))

    HDFC Bank

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

HDFC Bank

The correct answer is HDFC Bank.

Key Points

  • HDFC Bank has been adjudged the Best Performing Bank in SHG Linkage by the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), Ministry of Rural Development.
  • Notably, HDFC Bank was the only private bank to be felicitated for remarkable work in SHGs.
  • As part of NRLM, HDFC Bank provides access to financial services to over 4.5 lakh individuals in unbanked and underbanked sections of society.

Additional Information

  • HDFC Bank:
  • Headquarters - Mumbai.
  • Founded In: August 1994.
54

Which of the following schemes has Shishu, Kishore and Tarun sub-schemes?

  1. ((a))

    Start-up India

  2. ((b))

    Mudra Yojana

  3. ((c))

    DeenDayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana 

  4. ((d))

    Gold Monetisation Scheme

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Mudra Yojana

The correct answer is Mudra Yojana

Key Points

  • The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) announced by the Hon'ble PM Modi on 8th April 2015, envisages providing MUDRA loans, upto Rs.10 lakh, to income-generating micro-enterprises engaged in manufacturing, trading and services sectors.
  • Shishu:- covering loans upto  50,000/-
  • Kishor:- covering loans above  50,000/- and upto 5 lakh
  • Tarun:- covering loans above  5 lakh and upto 10 lakh
  • It is ensured that more focus is given to Shishu Category Units and then Kishore and Tarun categories with an objective to promote entrepreneurship among the new generation aspiring youth.
  • The funding support from MUDRA are of two types:
  • Micro Credit Scheme (MCS) for loans up to 1 lakh finance through MFIs
  • Refinance Scheme for Commercial Banks/Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)/Small Finance Banks/Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).

Additional Information

SchemeObjectiveKey FeaturesImplemented By
Start-Up IndiaPromote entrepreneurship and innovation.Financial support, tax exemptions, and easier compliance norms for start-ups.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya YojanaSkill development and employment for rural youth.Training and placement for rural youth in various sectors.Ministry of Rural Development
Gold Monetisation SchemePromote the use of gold for productive purposes.Encourages gold deposit schemes and conversion of idle gold into productive assets.Ministry of Finance
55

Which Central Cattle Breeding Farm is producing ‘HFxTharparkar Crossbred Bulls’ for breeding purpose in India?

  1. ((a))

    Andeshnagar (U.P)

  2. ((b))

    Dhamrod (Gujarat)

  3. ((c))

    Hassergatha (Karnataka)

  4. ((d))

    Suratgarh (Rajasthan)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Andeshnagar (U.P)

Implementing Agency for Different Breeding Programmes are given below:

Farm NameBreed maintained
Suratgarh (Rajasthan)Tharparkar
Dhamrod (Gujarat)Surti Buffalo
Chiplima (Orissa)Red Sindhi (RS) and RSXJersey
Hessaraghatta (Karnataka)Holstein Friesian
Sunabeda (Orissa)Jersey
Alamadhi (Tamil Nadu)Murrah Buffalo
Andesh Nagar (U.P.)Holstein Friesian X Tharparkar
56

Which state has launched a scheme to provide loans to the women Self Help Groups (SHGs) of the state at zero percent interest?

  1. ((a))

    Kerala

  2. ((b))

    Tamil Nadu

  3. ((c))

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. ((d))

    Odisha

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh YS Jagan Mohan Reddy recently launched a scheme in Amaravati, which seeks to provide loans to the women Self Help Groups (SHGs) of the state, at zero percent interest.
  • The Chief Minister released about ₹1,400 crore for the scheme, which is expected to benefit nearly 8.78 lakh SHGs.
  • The interest component of ₹20,000 to ₹40,000 will be borne by the state government. At present, the SHGs borrow from banks at interest rate of 7 to 13 per cent.
57

A Self Help Group (SHG) in India can be _______.

I. Registered

II. Unregistered

  1. ((a))

    Only।

  2. ((b))

    Both I and II

  3. ((c))

    Neither I nor II

  4. ((d))

    Only II

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both I and II

Self-Aid Groups (SHGs) are a cohesive group of 10-20 people who band together to save and help one another in times of need.  

Important Points

  • In 1972, SHGs in India can be traced back to the foundation of Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA).
  • A Self-Help Group (SHG) is a group of micro entrepreneurs with similar social and economic origins and can be either registered or unregistered.

Hence, A Self Help Group in India can be both Registered and Unregistered.

58

Crazy chick disease is caused by deficiency of? 

  1. ((a))

    Vitamin-A

  2. ((b))

    Vitamin-B

  3. ((c))

    Vitamin-E

  4. ((d))

    Vitamin-C

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Vitamin-E

The correct answer is Vitamin-E

Key Points

  • Crazy chick disease is a neurological disorder in poultry that is caused by a vitamin E deficiency.
  • Vitamin E is an antioxidant that is important for protecting cells from damage.
  • A deficiency in vitamin E can lead to a number of problems in poultry, including:
  • Crazy chick disease
  • Encephalomalacia (soft brain)
  • Exudative diathesis (bloody diarrhoea)
  • Crazy chick disease is characterized by a number of symptoms, including:
  • Ataxia (incoordination)
  • Tremors
  • Seizures
  • Blindness
  • Death
  • The severity of the symptoms of crazy chick disease can vary depending on the severity of the vitamin E deficiency.
  • In some cases, birds may only show mild symptoms, such as a slight tremor.
  • In other cases, birds may show severe symptoms, such as seizures and death.
DiseaseCauseSymptoms
Crazy chick diseaseVitamin E deficiencyAtaxia, tremors, seizures, blindness, death
Encephalomalacia (soft brain)Soft brain, incoordination, seizures, death
Exudative diathesis (bloody diarrhoea)Bloody diarrhoea, weakness, death
59

In which year did Rangrajan Committee for estimating poverty line submit its report? 

  1. ((a))

    2014

  2. ((b))

    2016

  3. ((c))

    2012

  4. ((d))

    2010

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

2014

The correct answer is 2014

Key Points

  • The Rangarajan Committee, appointed by the Government of India, was tasked with estimating the poverty line and suggesting a new methodology to measure poverty.
  • The committee submitted its report in 2014, but it was formed and worked on its analysis starting in 2010.
  • The committee’s approach was a revision to the previous methodology used by the Tendulkar Committee.
  • The report aimed at creating a more accurate and updated framework for identifying the poverty line across the country.
60

What type of bank account can be opened by a Self Help Group?

  1. ((a))

    Fixed Deposit

  2. ((b))

    Current Account

  3. ((c))

    Savings Account

  4. ((d))

    Recurring Deposit Account

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Savings Account

The correct answer is Savings Account.

Savings Account can be opened by a Self Help Group.

Key Points

  • Self Help Group(SHG):
  • They are informal associations of people who voluntarily choose to come together to find ways to improve their living conditions.
  • Self Help Groups promote small savings among their members.
  • The savings collected by the members are kept with the bank in a savings account.
  • The SHGs give small loans to its members from its common fund.
  • Savings account:
  • A savings account is an interest-bearing deposit account kept at a bank or any other financial institution.
  • Savings accounts pay interest.

Additional Information

  • A fixed deposit is an investment scheme that banks and non-banking financing companies provide to their customers.
61

What is the NABARD's pilot project for digitization of SHGs called?

  1. ((a))

    e-Shakthi

  2. ((b))

    e-Samriddhi

  3. ((c))

    e-Shanthi

  4. ((d))

    e-Samraksha

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

e-Shakthi

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has launched a scheme called e-Shakti to digitalize operations of Self Help Groups (SHGs).

E-Shakti:

  • Pilot Project on the digitization of SHGs keeping in view the Govt. of India's mission to "transform India into digitally empowered society and knowledge economy", NABARD has launched a project for the digitization of all SHGs in the country.
  • To begin with, the SHGs in two districts viz. Ramgarh (Jharkhand) and Dhule (Maharashtra) have been covered.
  • The program is being extended to 22 more districts across the country.

Aims and objectives of e-Shakti:

  • Integrating SHG members with the national financial inclusion agenda
  • Improving the quality of the interface between SHG members and banks for efficient and hassle-free delivery of banking services.
  • Facilitate convergence of delivery system with SHGs using Aadhaar linked identity.

Therefore, e-Shakti is the NABARD's pilot project for the digitization of SHGs.

62

The process of parturition in horse is termed as ________

  1. ((a))

    Geld

  2. ((b))

    Foaling

  3. ((c))

    Calf at foot

  4. ((d))

    Spayed

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Foaling

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Foaling.

  • The process of parturition in horse is termed as Foaling.
  • In cattle it is known as calving.
  • In sheep it is known as lambing.
  • In pig it is known as Farrowing.
  • Geld is a castrated male in horse.

Parturition - It is defined as an act of giving birth. 

Some terminologies related to horse - 

YearlingHorse having two years age
FoalHorse having age less than one year
GeldingCastrated horse
ColtMale horse having age under 4 years
FillyFemale horse having age under 4 years
63

The Blue Tongue is a ______ disease of Cattle.

  1. ((a))

    Bacterial

  2. ((b))

    Fungal

  3. ((c))

    Viral

  4. ((d))

    Nutritional disorder

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Viral

The correct answer is Viral

Key Points

  • Bluetongue is a viral disease caused by the bluetongue virus (BTV) from the Reoviridae family.
  • It primarily affects ruminants, including cattle, sheep, goats, and deer.
  • Transmission: Bluetongue is transmitted by biting midges of the Culicoides genus.
  • Symptoms: Symptoms vary depending on the species of ruminant affected. In cattle, symptoms may include fever, lameness, swelling of the face and tongue, and erosion of the muzzle.
  • Mortality: Mortality rates are generally low in cattle, but the disease can cause significant economic losses due to reduced productivity and trade restrictions.
  • Control: There is no specific treatment for bluetongue, but vaccination is available for some virus serotypes. Vector control measures, such as insecticide spraying, can also help reduce the transmission risk.

Bluetongue - WUR

Bluetongue Symptoms in Cattle

64

Self-help group concept was adopted in:

  1. ((a))

    IRDP

  2. ((b))

    IAAP

  3. ((c))

    PMGSY

  4. ((d))

    SGSY

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

SGSY

The correct answer is SGSY

Key PointsThe Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

  • The Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) is a rural development programme launched by the central government in India in the financial year 1999-2000 for the development of rural areas through convergence of central and state schemes and allocating financial funding on a per village basis.
  • The mission aims to assist poor families living below the poverty line in rural areas in taking up self-employment.
  • The scheme is funded by the Central Government and covers all aspects of self-employment such as the organization of the poor into Self Help Groups, training, credit, technology, infrastructure, and marketing.
  • The concept of Self Help Groups (SHGs) was adopted in SGSY to promote self-employment in rural areas.
  • SHGs refer to a group of 10-20 people who come from similar socio-economic backgrounds for various development programmes or to solve common problems. Such groups are recognized by governments and banks and can open bank accounts in the name of the SHG.
  • Users can access information about the special projects under SGSY, guidelines for setting up the Haats, credit-related issues, etc. Detailed information is given on the scheme, its objectives, funding, beneficiaries, etc.

Additional InformationIRDP

  • The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) is a rural development programme launched by the central government in India in the financial year 1999-2000 for the development of rural areas through the convergence of central and state schemes and allocating financial funding on a per village basis.
  • The mission aims to assist poor families living below the poverty line in rural areas in taking up self-employment.
  • The scheme is funded by the Central Government and covers all aspects of self-employment such as the organization of the poor into Self Help Groups, training, credit, technology, infrastructure, and marketing.

IAAP

  • The Intensive Agriculture Area Programme (IAAP) was launched in 1964-65 to develop scientific and progressive agriculture intensively in areas that have high production potential.
  • The program was designed to cover at least 20% of the cultivated area of the country, with a focus on important crops such as wheat, rice, millets, cotton, sugarcane, potato, and pulses.
  • The IAAP paved the way for the Green Revolution in India, which led to a significant increase in food grain production.

PMGSY

  • The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is a nationwide plan in India to provide good all-weather road connectivity to unconnected villages.
  • The program was launched on December 25, 2000, to provide all-weather access to eligible unconnected habitations with a population of up to 500 (Census 2001) in plain areas and 250 and above in special category states (states of North East, Jammu, and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand), desert area as identified by Desert Development Program and 88 selected backward districts as identified by the Ministry of Home Affairs/Planning Commission as a strategy for poverty alleviation.
65

Which of the following is not a branch of forestry?

  1. ((a))

    Mensuration

  2. ((b))

    Utilization

  3. ((c))

    Floriculture

  4. ((d))

    Silviculture

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Floriculture

The correct answer is Floriculture

Key Points

Floriculture is the branch of ornamental horticulture concerned with growing and marketing flowers and ornamental plants as well as with flower arrangement.

Branches of Forestry

Forestry has five different branches:

  1. Silviculture: It refers to certain aspects of theory and practices of raising forests crops, methods of raising tree crops, their growth and after care up to the time of final harvesting.
  2. Mensuration: It deals with the measurement of forest produce ex. Dimension from volume, age and increment of individual trees and forest crop.
  3. Silviculture system: Process by which the crops constituting a forest are tended, removal and replaced by new crops
  4. Management: Practical application of sequence technique and economics to forest estate for the production of certain desired results
  5. Utilization: Branch of forestry which deals with harvesting, marketing conservation and applying the forest produce to a variety of uses eg. Timber, fuel, charcoal, pulp wood, ply wood.
66

How much amount is allocated to each MLA every year for development work under the MLA Local Area Development Program Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    150.00 lakhs

  2. ((b))

    200.00 lakhs

  3. ((c))

    225.00 lakhs

  4. ((d))

    500.00 lakhs

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

225.00 lakhs

The correct answer is 225.00 lakhs.

Key Points

  • Under the MLA Local Area Development Program Scheme, each MLA is allocated 225.00 lakhs annually for development work in their respective constituencies.
  • This allocation aims to ensure that MLAs can undertake small-scale development projects that directly benefit the local population.
  • The funds are utilized for creating durable assets such as roads, school buildings, drinking water facilities, and health care infrastructure.
  • The scheme is designed to provide a direct mechanism for MLAs to address the developmental needs of their constituencies in a more targeted and effective manner.

Additional Information

  • MLA Local Area Development Program Scheme:
  • It is a scheme implemented at the state level in India to empower MLAs to recommend developmental work in their constituencies.
  • The scheme is analogous to the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) but operates at the state level for state legislators.
  • MLAs can recommend works based on the locally felt needs, with a focus on creating lasting community assets.
  • Projects recommended under this scheme must adhere to the guidelines set by the respective state governments.
  • Fund Utilization:
  • The funds are strictly monitored to ensure they are used for the intended purposes and not misused.
  • MLAs need to submit utilization certificates and progress reports to the concerned authorities periodically.
  • Accountability and Transparency:
  • To ensure transparency, many states have provisions for auditing the projects funded through this scheme.
  • Public access to the details of projects and funds utilization is often provided through state government portals.
  • Impact on Local Development:
  • The scheme has significantly contributed to the development of rural and urban areas by addressing specific local issues.
  • It has empowered local representatives to directly impact the quality of life in their constituencies.
67

The process by which hair is collected from a sheep’s body is called _______.

  1. ((a))

    shearing

  2. ((b))

    weaving

  3. ((c))

    spinning

  4. ((d))

    ginning

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

shearing

Concept:

  • Wool is obtained from the fleece of animals.
  • This wool is in form of thin fibres which are then woven to make clothes.
  • Fabrics are made up of yarns and yarns are further made up of fibres.
  • Clothes are made out of fabrics.

Explanation:

Spinning:

  • The process of making yarn from fibres is called spinning.
  • In this process, fibres from a mass of cotton wool are drawn out and twisted.
  • This brings the fibres together to form a yarn.
  • A simple device used for spinning is charkha.

Shearing:

  • Wool is obtained from the hair of sheep or yak.
  • Shearing is the process by which hairs are removed from the bodies of wool yielding animals.
  • This hair is then processed to make wool.​

Weaving:

  • The process of arranging two sets of yarns together to make a fabric is called weaving.
  • The weaving of fabric is done on looms.
  • The looms are either hand-operated or power-operated.

Ginning:

  • Fibres of the cotton ball are separated from the seeds by combing.
  • This process is called ginning of cotton.
  • Ginning was traditionally done by hand.
  • These days, machines are also used for ginning.

∴  The process by which hair is collected from sheep's body to collect wool is called shearing.

68

Which of the following is not draught-purpose cattle?

  1. ((a))

    Amritmahal 

  2. ((b))

    Malvi 

  3. ((c))

    Kangayam 

  4. ((d))

    Sahiwal

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Sahiwal

The correct answer is Sahiwal 

Key Points

 Sahiwal is the milch breed. 

Native: Montgomery (Pakistan) 

Milk Yield: 1100-3100 (liters/lactation)

Highest and sweetest milk-producing cow breed in India.

 

Additional Information 

Draught purpose Breeds:

Breed name: Malvi 

Native: Malwa (MP) 

Breed name: Amritmahal  

Native: Mysore (Karnataka)

<br>

Breed name: Nagori 

Native: Nagaur and Jodhpur  (Rajasthan)

<br>

Breed name: Kangayam

Native: Tamil Nadu

69

Which disease of fish is caused by a virus?

  1. ((a))

    Gill rot

  2. ((b))

    Abdominal dropsy

  3. ((c))

    Haemorrhagic septicaemia

  4. ((d))

    Ectoparasite infection

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Haemorrhagic septicaemia

The correct answer is Haemorrhagic septicaemia.

Key Points

  • Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia (VHS) is a disease caused by a virus.
  • This viral disease affects a wide range of fish species, particularly in temperate freshwater and marine environments.
  • VHS is characterized by hemorrhaging in the internal organs, muscles, and skin.
  • The disease can lead to significant mortality in fish populations, especially in aquaculture settings.

Important Points

  • VHS is a notifiable disease, meaning outbreaks must be reported to appropriate authorities.
  • Control measures include quarantine, disinfection, and destruction of infected stocks to prevent spread.

Additional Information

  • Abdominal dropsy: Usually caused by bacterial infections, leading to swollen abdomen in fish.
  • Furunculosis: A bacterial disease that causes boils or ulcers on the fish.
  • Gill rot: Typically caused by fungal or bacterial infections affecting the gills.
  • Ectoparasite infection: Caused by external parasites such as lice and flukes on fish.
70

Which sub-schemes are not included under the Panchdhara Scheme?

  1. ((a))

    Gramya

  2. ((b))

    Kalpavriksha

  3. ((c))

    Prosperity

  4. ((d))

    Affection

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Prosperity

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The Panchdhara Scheme includes sub-schemes such as Gramya, Kalpavriksha, and Affection, but Prosperity is not a part of this scheme. Hence, option 3 is correct.

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