UGC NET Paper 2: Public Administration 25 June 2025 (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Piffiner.

Key Points

Piffiner explained the scope of Public Administration by dividing it into two parts-

• **Principles of Public Administration-**deals with the theoretical aspects of administration. These principles are applicable to all organizations, public or private.
• Organization ,Planning ,Coordination, Leadership ,Direction, Control, Decision-making, Personnel management.
• Sphere of Public Administration- deals with practical field or activities means where activities is applied. It involves Government departments, Administrative activities of the executive branch and Implementation of public policies.

Additional Information

• Henri Fayol- The scope of administration consists of five basic functions-Controlling, Organizing, Commanding,  Coordinating, Controlling
• P.M. Queen-"Public administration is concerned with the entire process of carrying out public policy".
• Marshall E. Dimock- He divided scope in two parts what and how of Public administration. What refers to the subject matter of administration and how refers to the process and methods of administration.

The correct answer is Perpendicular coordination.

Key Points

• Perpendicular coordination also called vertical coordination refers to coordination between different levels of authority in an organization.
• It ensures that Policies and orders made at the higher level are properly implemented at lower levels.
• Perpendicular coordination is the coordination between higher and lower levels of authority in an organization to ensure effective implementation of policies.

Additional Information

• External coordination- External coordination refers to the process of maintaining harmonious working relationships between an organization and outside agencies or bodies to achieve common objectives.
• Horizontal coordination- Horizontal coordination refers to coordination between units, departments, or agencies at the same level of authority in an organization.
• Supplementary coordination- Supplementary coordination refers to coordination between two or more units or agencies that perform similar functions or activities.

The correct answer is Politics and Administration(1887-1926)

Key Points

• This is the beginning of evolution of public administration as a discipline. This stage began with the publication of Woodrow Wilson's essay The Study of Administration in the political science quarterly in 1887.
• It advocates for the separation of politics from administration. popularly known as the politics administration dichotomy'.
• Wilson separated administration from politics .Wilson described public administration as a field of business so he called as father of Public Administration.

Additional Information

• Papers on Science of Administration - given by Gulick and Urwick in 1937 in the second stage Principles of Administration (1927-1937).
• The Administrative State - given by Dwight Waldo (1948) in the third stage Era of Challenge (1938-1947).
• Administrative Behaviour - given by Herbert A. Simon (1947)in the third stage  Era of Challenge (1938-1947).

The correct answer is Four Months.

Key Points

• The Foundation Course (FC) is the first formal training programme for candidates who have cleared the UPSC Civil Services Examination and are selected for All India Services ,Indian Foreign Service, Central Services (Group‑A).
• It marks the official beginning of a civil servant’s career and is intended to build foundational understanding before specialized professional training starts.

Additional Information

• Duration of the course is About 15 weeks.
• Objectives of the course is to Orient officer trainees to India’s administrative, political, social, and economic environment , Build awareness of challenges and opportunities in public service and Develop personality traits, including intellectual, moral, physical, and creative abilities.

The correct answer is Traditional Authority.

Key Points

• Traditional Authority According to Weber rests on an Customs, traditions, and long-standing practices .
• There is No written rules; authority is personal.. The persons who obey orders are called ‘followers’.
• They carry out the commands out of personal loyalty to the ruler and pious regard for his time honoured ‘status’.
• People obey the authority because “it has always been that way.”

Additional Information

• Charismatic Authority - The term 'charisma' literally means the gift of grace. Based on Personal qualities and charisma of the leader .A significant feature of the charismatic authority system is that it is unstable, that is, it breaks down when the leader dies or when the charismatic qualities of the leader declines. , Weber suggested the routinization (institutionalization) of the charismatic authority either in the authoritarian or democratic direction.
• Legal-Rational Authority- According to Weber, this authority rests "on a belief in the legality of patterns of normative rules and the right of those elevated to authority under such rules to issue commands. Authority comes from position, not person. Clearly defined rules and offices and Foundation of bureaucracy.
• Theoritic Authority -This is authority based on knowledge, expertise, or recognized competence. People obey or respect someone because they are an expert in a certain field. This is similar to Weber’s legal-rational authority, where obedience is to rules and expertise, not tradition or personal charisma.

The correct answer is Chesler.

Key Points

• Elton Mayo was an Australian-born psychologist and sociologist, best known as the founder of the Human Relations School of Management.
• He is called as father of Human Relation Appraoch. In the experiment of Social organisation 1931-1932 mayo saw three types of changes the one is chesler which means not too little productivity .

Additional Information

• The second change is Squealer which means not tell to supervisor .
• The third change is Rate buster means increase productivity to take bonus.

The correct answer is Organizational Learning.

Key Points

• Argyris is best known as a great psychologist and an organisational theorist.
• He is a leading management thinker who studied organisation from the standpoint of psychology.
• He focuses upon the individuals relationship to the organisation. He has treated extensively the conflict between the individual’s social and psychological needs and the exigencies of the organisation.
• He has been called as father of Organizational Learning beacause of his conceptualisation on organisational behaviour, Argyris has extensively applied research findings in the fields of psychology, social psychology and human relations.

Additional Information

• Participative management is a concept in management where employees at all levels are involved in decision-making, rather than decisions being made solely by top management. Given by Rensis Likert as System 4 – Participative Group” management style.
• Supervisory Styles - Rensis Likert, an American social psychologist and management theorist, introduced the four supervisory/management styles based on his studies of organizational behavior and worker productivity.

The correct answer is Janpada.

Key Points

• There are seven elements of Saptanga Theory of Kautilya . One of them is Janapada.
• In the analysis of Kautilya, citizens are not referred to directly. Their existence is to be understood by implication in the reference to the janapada.
• As regards the population, Kautilya says that it should be prosperous enough to be able to pay taxes, should be loyal and should habitually follow the orders of the king.

Additional Information

• Swamin means Ruler - Kautilya gives extensive powers to the king and attaches an element of divinity. He has to perform Rakshana and Yogakshema functions.
• Mitra or Ally and Friend - Allies are valuable to the ruler in times of need. Allies should be made on a permanent basis and these should be chosen as friends with whom the possibilities of breaking off of relations are the lowest.
• The Durga or the Fortified Capital - The durga is as important as the janapada and is the symbol of the defensive and offensive capacity of the state.

The correct answer is Article 143.

Key Points

• Article 143 of the Indian Constitution deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the President of India in reference to the Supreme Court.
• The Supreme Court then gives its advisory opinion.This is not binding, meaning the President or the government is not legally required to follow it, but it carries high persuasive authority.

Additional Information

• Article 140 of the Indian Constitution deals with the advisory board to the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG).
• Article 141 of the Indian Constitution is a very important provision related to the binding nature of Supreme Court judgments.
• Article 142 of the Indian Constitution deals with the enforcement of Supreme Court judgments and decrees.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• A Joint Public Service Commission is a commission set up by the President of India under Article 315 of the Constitution to conduct recruitment for two or more states or for a state and the Union when needed.
• It serves more than one entity jointly.
• Purpose is To conduct examinations and recruitment for civil services in multiple states or a state and the Union

Additional Information

• Governors appointed the members of state public service commission under Article 315 and Article 316.
• Article 315 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Public Service Commissions -both at the Union and State level.
• Article 316 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and tenure of members of the Union and State Public Service Commissions

The correct answer is Matter related to the national interest.

Key Points

• Article 249 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Parliament’s power to legislate on subjects in the State List in the national interest.
• If the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) declares by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List, Parliament may legislate on that subject for the whole or any part of India.

 Additional Information

• National Emergency -Article 352 specifically deals with National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Article 253 Parliament can make laws to implement treaties, agreements, and conventions with other countries.

The correct answer is Department of Economic Affairs

Key Points

• The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) is a key wing of the Ministry of Finance in India. It plays a central role in formulating and implementing the economic and financial policies of the government.
• It is responsible for the preparation of budget of the Government of India.
• It collects financial data, forecasts revenues, estimates expenditures, and coordinates with various ministries.
• It ensures that the budget aligns with macroeconomic policies, fiscal discipline, and economic priorities of the government.

Additional Information

• Department of Finance - commonly referred to as Department of Economic Affairs in India for budget-related functions.
• Department of Revenue -  It deals mainly with taxation and government revenue collection.
• Department of Expenditure - responsible for managing government spending and financial control.

The correct answer is The President of India provides staff on the request of the State Election Commission for the discharge of the functions.

Key Points

• The State Election Commission (SEC) is a constitutional body in India responsible for conducting free and fair elections to local bodies and state legislatures.
• Article 243K: Provides for State Election Commissions to supervise elections to Panchayati Raj institutions (rural local bodies).
• Article 324: While this primarily deals with Election Commission of India (ECI), SECs function independently for state-level elections.

Additional Information

• The staff for the State Election Commission (SEC) is provided by the State Government.
• Article 243K(2)- “The State Election Commission shall have such staff as the Governor may provide on the request of the State Election Commission to enable it to perform its functions.”

The correct answer is A prior permission from the President of India is required to the Governor, before promulgate every ordinance.

Key Points

• The ordinance-making power of the Governor is a constitutional mechanism that allows the Governor of a State to promulgate laws when the State Legislature is not in session.
• Article 213 of the Indian Constitution “When the Legislative Assembly of a State is not in session, the Governor can promulgate ordinances having the same force as an Act of the Legislature.”

Additional Information

• Conditions for promulgation

1. The State Legislative Assembly must not be in session.
2. The ordinance is needed for immediate action on a matter.
3. It must not contravene the Constitution.

• Duration - Valid for 6 weeks from the date the Legislature reconvenes. If not approved by the Assembly, the ordinance ceases to operate. Can be re-promulgated, but repeated use is discouraged and often challenged in courts.

The correct answer is 1787

Key Points

• The office of District Collector Introduced during British rule, particularly under Lord Cornwallis’ reforms (1793) in the Permanent Settlement era.
• The District Collector (also called Collector or District Magistrate) became the principal officer of the district.

Additional Information

• Under British rule, the District Collector (also called District Magistrate) was the chief officer of the district and held enormous authority, combining revenue, judicial, and administrative powers.
• Purpose was to Centralize administration, improve revenue collection, maintain law and order, and supervise civil administration.

The correct answer is State legislature

Key Points

• The power of the Gram Sabha is decided by the Constitution of India and the State Legislatures.
• Article 243A (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992)
• It states that a Gram Sabha may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the State Legislature may provide by law.

Additional Information

• The Gram Sabha is the basic unit of grassroots democracy in India. It consists of all adult members (18 years and above) registered in the electoral rolls of a village or group of villages.
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to the Gram Sabha through Article 243A, empowering it to exercise such powers and perform such functions as determined by the State Legislature.
• It plays a crucial role in strengthening the Panchayati Raj system by acting as the foundation of rural self-government.

The correct answer is The Science of Public Administration: Three Problems.

Key Points

• Robert Dahl argued that the evolution of science of public administration or development of universal principles of administration) was hindred by three problems-

1. The frequent impossibility of excluding normative considerations from the problems of public administration.
2. The need to study certain aspects of human behaviour limits the potentialities of a science of public administration
3. The unscientitic nature ofprincioles of administration which are based on a few examples drawn from limited nationa and historical settings

Additional Information

1. The theory of Prismatic Society - was written by Fred W. Riggs.
2. Public Administration: A Comparative Approach written by Fred W. Riggs.
3. Towards the Comparative Study of Public Administration was written by Fred W. Riggs.

The correct answer is Degree of differentiation

Key Points

• In his book Prismatic Society Revisited (1973), Riggs revised his prismatic theory.
• In his new formulation, he replaced the 'one dimensional approach' (i.e., differentiation) with 'two dimentional approach' (i.e., differentiation and integration).
• He further sub-divided the two basic diffracted and prismatic societal model into finer types on the basis of degree of integration.
• Thus, he reconceptualised diffracted societies as 'eo-diffracted', "ortho-diffracted' and 'neodiffracted' and prismatic societies as 'eoprismatic', 'ortho-prismatic* and 'neoprismatic

 Additional Information

1. Degree of overlapping - Degree of overlapping refers to the extent to which traditional and modern structures, roles, and norms coexist and interfere with each other in the same society.
2. Degree of formalism - The degree of formalism refers to the extent to which written rules, procedures, and regulations are followed in actual administrative practice in a society.
3. Degree of diffusion - The degree of diffusion refers to the extent to which administrative functions, authority, and responsibilities are dispersed or concentrated in a society.

The correct answer is Edward Weidner

Key Points

• Edward Weidner - defined Development Administration is "action-oriented and goal oriented administration system".
• Edward Wiener is the foremost proponent of development administration. He is also the first to conceptually explain the definition of development administration.

Additional Information

• UL Goswami - The term 'development administration' was first coined by him , an Indian Scholar. He used this term in his article entitled The Structure of Development Administration in India', published in 1955.
• George Gant - an American Scholar, who is regarded as the father of development administration. He too started using the term during the same period. His book Development Administration: Concepts, Goals and Methods was first published in 1979.
• Donald C. Stone -  "Broadly, development administration is concerned with achieving national development. The goals, values and strategies of change may vary but there always are generic processes through which agreement on the goals is reached and plans, policies, programmes and projects (4P's) are formulated and implemented. Development administration, therefore, is concerned primarily with the tasks and processes of formulating and implementing the four P's in respect to whatever mixture of goals and objectives may be political determined " .

The correct answer is  National Personnel Authority

Key Points

• The National Personnel Authority (NPA) is the Central Personnel Agency in the Japan.
• It was established in 1949 under the provisions of the National Public Service Law of 1947. Thus, it is a statutory body and not a constitutional one.
• It is an autonomous body, that is, it functions independently of the Diet and the cabinet.
• It administers the National Public Service Law and thus look after the management of civil service in Japan.

Additional Information

• The NPA is the brain child of the USA. In fact, it is modelled after the Civil Service Commission of the USA (which was abolished and replaced by the Office of Personnel Management in 1978).
• Its counterpart in India lies in a combination of UPSC and Ministry of Personnel.
• In other words, the functions performed by the two Indian agencies are performed in Japan by the NPA alone.

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

FRBM Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003) was enacted to ensure fiscal discipline in India and reduce fiscal deficit. Its main objectives are-

1. Reduce fiscal deficit to a manageable level.
2. Control revenue deficit (difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure).
3. Ensure long-term macroeconomic stability.
4. ​Promote transparency in fiscal operations of the government.

Additional Information

It is significant due to -

1. Helps in maintaining macroeconomic stability.
2. Promotes responsible governance by limiting excessive borrowing.
3. ​Ensures transparency and accountability in public finances.

The correct answer is Civil Expenditure Unit.

Key Points 

• The Civil Expenditure Unit is primarily responsible for examining, monitoring, and controlling civil (non-defense) expenditure of the Government of India.It Evaluates proposals for expenditure from civil ministries and departments.
• Monitors actual spending against budget allocations to avoid overshooting.

Additional Information The Economic Division is one of the key divisions of DEA and is responsible for macroeconomic and fiscal policy matters.

Advises the Government of India on economic strategy and policy measures. Prepares inputs for the Union Budget.

Works with Finance Ministry, RBI, NITI Aayog, and other ministries to ensure coherent economic policy.

The correct answer is 279A.

Key Points

Article 279A – Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council Inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.

Functions of the GST Council -

1. GST Rates on goods and services (Central GST, State GST, Integrated GST)
2. Exemptions from GST
3. Special provisions for certain states or sectors
4. Any other matter related to GST as recommended by the Council

Additional Information

• Article 257 A - Control of Certain Services in Scheduled Areas
• Article 258A – Transfer of Functions Between Union and States
• Article 268A – Goods and Services Tax (GST) Compensation to States.

The correct answer is First Administrative Reforms Commission.

Key Points

• **The system of performance budgeting (earlier called as functional budgeting or activity budgeting) originated in the USA. The term 'performance budget' was coined by the First Hoover Commission (1949).**​
• Finally, the Central Government introduced performance budgeting in 1968 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission.

Additional Information

• In 1968, the performance budgeting was introduced in four ministries of the Government of India. Later in 1977-78, it was extended to about 32 developmental departments.
• Performance budgeting emphasises on the purpose of expenditure rather than the expenditure itself. It presents budget in terms of functions, programmes, activities and projects.

The correct answer is Prime Minister.

Key Points

• NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in India.
• Established under The Disaster Management Act, 2005.
• Responsible for formulating policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management at the national level.
• The Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is Prime Minister and it consisted 9 other member.

Additional Information Responsibilities of Prime Minister as chairperson of NDMA-

1. Approves national policies on disaster management.
2. Oversees preparation and implementation of the National Disaster Management Plan.
3. Coordinates disaster management efforts between central ministries, state governments, and local authorities.
4. Directs mobilization of resources and relief operations at the national level.

The correct answer is Protection of Civil Rights Act.

Key Points.

• The Untouchability (Offences) Act of 1955  to give effect to Article 17 of the Indian Constitution, which abolishes untouchability.
• Aimed at protecting the civil rights of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs)
• Its main objectives are

1. To eradicate untouchability in all forms.
2. To protect social, economic, and civil rights of SC/ST communities.
3. To penalize acts of discrimination, social boycott, or denial of services .

Additional Information Significance of Protection of Civil Rights Act - 

• Provides legal backing to Article 17, which alone abolishes untouchability but doesn’t specify penalties.
• Ensures social equality and integration of SC/ST communities.
• Strengthens constitutional guarantees of equality and non-discrimination (Articles 15, 17, and 46).
• Acts as a deterrent against caste-based discrimination in social, educational, and economic spheres.

The correct answer is 106th Amendment Act.

Key Points

• The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 was passed to restore the powers of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) to examine complaints from all sections of society, including States, Union Territories, and private entities.
• The amendment was made in the context of restoring the powers curtailed by the 104th Amendment Act, 2019, which removed the representation of SCs/STs in Parliament and State Assemblies beyond 10 years and affected some powers of commissions.

Additional Information

• 104th Amendment Act - The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 was enacted to remove the provision for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies after ten years of the Constitution
• 105th Amendment Act - Enacted in 2021, the 105th Amendment Act relates to the reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for the state of Nagaland.
• 102nd Amendment Act - Enacted in 2018, the 102nd Amendment gave constitutional recognition to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY)   is a food security scheme launched by the Government of India to provide free food grains to vulnerable populations.
• Announced on 26 March 2020 during the COVID-19 pandemic as part of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP).
• Implemented under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 framework.​

Additional Information

key features -

1. Covers all NFSA beneficiaries:75% of rural population and 50% of urban population.
2. Food Grain Allocation 5kg grains and 1kg pulses
3. Food grains distributed through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
4. Entire cost borne by Central Government, including procurement, transportation, and distribution.

The correct answer is Branch Method.

Key Points

• Lindblom proposed the “Incremental Model” (also called muddling through).
• proposed the Branching Method as a way to make decisions under complexity and uncertainty.
• It’s also called the successive limited comparison or branching model.
• Focuses on evaluating policy alternatives in branches rather than considering all alternatives at once.

Additional Information key features of Branch method-

1. Evaluates a limited set of alternatives at each step.
2. Reduces decision overload.
3. Handles complexity better than linear incrementalism.

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

• Yehezkal Dror developed the Optimal Decision-Making Model as a critique of pure incrementalism and bounded rationality.
• Dror has adopted a 'normative-optimal' model, which maintains the elements of rationality as prescribed by Simon, however he is practical in understanding the role of tacit knowledge and experience in the process of policy making.
• The main purpose of Dror has been to enhance the rational content of government and build into his model the 'extra rational' dimension of decision making.
• So he has adopted six normative models of policy making.

Additional Information

• His Book 'Public Policy Re-examined' is recognised as a fundamental treatise on Policy Studies.
• Dror has used integrated and multi-disciplinary approach in the field of Policy Sciences.
• He uses Policy Analysis, Behavioural Science and Systems Approach in his model of policy making.

The correct answer is Institutionalized Volunteerism.

Key Points

• Institutionalized volunteerism refers to organized, structured, and officially recognized volunteer work, usually coordinated through governmental or formal institutions.
• Volunteers work under formal institutions or programs rather than informally.
• Often government-sponsored or supported by NGOs.
• Linked to public service objectives like education, health, disaster relief.

Additional Information

• Representative Legalism  is a concept in emphasizing the rule of law and formal legal procedures as the basis for administrative and governmental actions.
• Directed Subsidization refers to the targeted allocation of subsidies or financial support by the government to specific groups, sectors, or activities rather than providing universal benefits.
• Directed Provision refers to the government or institutional provision of goods, services, or facilities to specific groups, regions, or sectors, rather than to the general population.

The correct answer is Non financial incentives.

Key Points Christopher Hood's classification of tools of the government-

1. Nodality – Government acts as information center, often through policy communication, research, or advocacy.
2. Authority – Legal power is used to regulate, control, or restrict behavior, ensuring compliance with policies.
3. Treasure – Financial tools reward desired behavior or penalize undesirable behavior, often used in economic and social policy.
4. Organization – Direct service provision ensures delivery of essential public goods and services, reflecting the administrative machinery in action.

Additional Information

• Non-Financial Incentives are rewards or motivators that do not involve direct monetary compensation but encourage employees, citizens, or stakeholders to perform better.
• Given by the administrative authority or government organization through its hierarchy of management and supervisory structures.

The correct answer is Business and labour organizations.

Key Points

• Corporatism is a political, economic, and administrative theory in which interest groups (corporations, trade unions, professional associations) are formally integrated into the policy-making and governance process.
• The state coordinates with organized groups rather than relying solely on individual citizens or laissez-faire mechanisms.

Additional Information

• There are two types of corporatism societal and state .
• The significance of corporatism is-Reduces Social Conflict, Promotes Consensus Policy-Making and Efficient Governance.

The correct answer is A separation between public and private.

Key Points

• The World Bank identifies poor governance as the weakness or failure of institutions in ensuring accountability, transparency, efficiency, and rule of law in public administration.
• Indicators of poor governance typically include:

1. Corruption – Misuse of public office for private gain.
2. Ineffectiveness / Inefficiency – Poor delivery of public services.
3. Lack of Transparency – Opacity in decision-making and resource allocation.
4. Political Instability / Weak Rule of Law – Unstable policies, arbitrary decisions.
5. Weak Accountability – Officials not answerable to the public.

Additional Information

• The World Bank, beyond providing financial assistance and development programs, plays a key analytical and normative role in identifying “good” and “poor” governance in member countries.
• It links governance quality directly to development outcomes, arguing that weak governance undermines economic growth, poverty reduction, and efficient public service delivery.

The correct answer is Greek verb Kubernan.

Key Points

• The word “governance” is derived from the Greek word kybernan (κυβερνάν), which means:-“To steer” or “To pilot” – like steering a ship.
• Governance thus literally means: the art or process of steering, directing, or guiding an organization, state, or system.
• Initially, governance was largely synonymous with government, meaning the act of governing​
• Over time, especially in public administration and development studies (1980s onwards), the concept evolved to include:

1. Process-oriented approach (not just formal government structures)
2. Participation, accountability, transparency, and rule of law
3. Involvement of state, market, and civil society actors.

The correct answer is Appropriate political institutions.

Key Points

• Economists analyze governance primarily from a resource allocation, efficiency, and institutional performance perspective.
• key factors affecting market reforms

1. Strong Institutions
2. Rule of Law .
3. Control of Corruption
4. Government Effectiveness
5. Political Stability .

Additional Information

• In this approach, governance is linked to economic outcomes, especially development, growth, and poverty reduction.
• This perspective was popularized by organizations like the World Bank in the 1990s, which emphasized good governance as a prerequisite for economic development.

The correct answer is  In-depth interviews.

Key Points

• In-Depth Interviews (IDIs) are a qualitative research method where the researcher conducts detailed, one-on-one interviews to explore the respondent’s opinions, experiences, motivations, and perceptions.
• It's Purpose is To gain a deep understanding of a subject, rather than to produce statistically generalizable results.
• Its major types are Structured IDIs ,Semi-Structured IDIs and Unstructured IDIs.

Additional Information

• Focus Group Interviews are a qualitative research method in which a small group of participants (6–12 people) discuss a topic under the guidance of a moderator.
• Narrative research is a  qualitative research approach that study stories or personal accounts to understand  experiences, meanings, and perspectives.
• Informal talks in research, you might be referring to casual discussions, brainstorming sessions, or non-formal presentations that researchers use to share ideas without the structure of a formal seminar or conference.

The correct answer is Census.

Key Points

• Primary data is data collected directly by the researcher for a specific research purpose, rather than using existing data. It is first-hand, original information.
• Methods of primary data collection -

1. Observation-Researcher observes participants or phenomena directly.
2. Interviewing - Allows for in-depth exploration of attitudes, behaviors, and experiences.
3. Questionnaire- Participants answer structured questions.

Additional Information Census - A census is a method of data collection in which data is gathered from every member of the population under study, rather than just a sample.

It’s essentially a complete enumeration.

It is a secondary data collection method.

The correct answer is Random variable.

Key Points

• Random variable is a numerical quantity that depends on the outcome of a random experiment. In other words, it’s a function that assigns a number to every possible outcome in a sample space.
• In research, especially in statistics, social sciences, economics, and natural sciences, random variables are used to-

1. Any measurement or observation that can vary across subjects or trials can be represented as a random variable.
2. Random variables allow to model probabilities of different out comes.
3. Random variables represent the sample statistic used in testing hypotheses.

Additional Information

1. Special variable - In research, a special variable usually refers to a variable that has a unique role or significance in a study, often beyond the regular independent or dependent variables.
2. Independent variable -An independent variable (IV) is the variable that a researcher manipulates, controls, or selects to observe its effect on another variable.
3. Extraneous variable -An extraneous variable is any variable other than the independent variable (IV) that might affect the dependent variable (DV).

The correct answer is Cohort Studies.

Key Points

• A cohort study is a research design in which a group of people (cohort) sharing a common characteristic or experience is followed over time to observe the development of outcomes (like disease, behavior, or other health events).
• People are grouped by whether they were exposed or unexposed to a factor.
• Exposure occurs before the outcome, which helps infer a possible causal relationship.
• It Can be short or long-term depending on the outcome.

Additional Information

1. Panel Studies - A panel study is a longitudinal study in which the same group of individuals (panel) is observed repeatedly over time to study changes in variables.
2. Trend Studies - A trend study is a longitudinal study that examines changes in a population or group over time, but different samples from the same population are surveyed at each time point.
3. Blind Studies - A blind study is a type of experiment in which the participants do not know certain details about the treatment or condition they are receiving, usually to prevent bias in behavior or responses.

The correct answer is B, D, C, A.

Key Points 

1. Foundation Training at LBSNAA - Duration: ~3 months (Foundation Course).Purpose is to Introduce officers to civil services, governance, and public administration.
2. ​Professional courses for civil servants are specialized programs designed to enhance the skills, knowledge, and efficiency of government officers in administrative, policy-making, and leadership roles. These courses are often part of initial training, mid-career programs, or specialized development programs.
3. Practical training for civil servants is the part of their professional development that exposes them to real-world administrative, governance, and field experiences, helping them apply theoretical knowledge to practical situations.
4. Probationary training is a crucial stage in the career of civil servants, as it bridges initial selection and actual field responsibilities.

The correct answer is  D, B, A, C.

Key Points

1. Philadelphia Conference 1787 - The Philadelphia Conference was a meeting of delegates from 12 of the 13 American states (Rhode Island did not attend) held to revise the Articles of Confederation, which was the United States’ first governing document.
2. US President's Committee on Administrative Management 1936- The President's Committee on Administrative Management was a special committee appointed by the President of the United States in 1936 to study and recommend improvements in the organization and efficiency of the federal government.
3. First Minnow brook Conference-The First Minnowbrook Conference (1968) was a gathering of scholars and practitioners of public administration held at Minnowbrook, New York, to reassess the field of public administration in light of social changes in the 1960s.
4. Publication of First Text-book in Public Administration 1926-In terms of public administration specifically, the first formal textbook is often credited to L.D. White (Leonard D. White) – Introduction to the Study of Public Administration (1926).

The correct answer is C, A, B, D.

Key Points

• Mary Parker Follett (1868–1933) was a pioneering thinker in management, organizational theory, and public administration, often called the “Mother of Modern Management”. She emphasized human relations, collaboration, and participatory leadership long before these ideas became mainstream.
• Her works are -

1. The Speaker of the House of Representatives (1896)
2. The New State (1918)
3. Creative Experience (1924)
4. Dynamic Administration (1941)

Additional Information 

• M.P. Follett is regarded as a bridge between the classical approach and the behavioral-human relations approach to organization.
• She highlighted, for the first time, the sociological and psychological dimensions of administration and management.​

The correct answer is B, A, E, C, D.

Key Points

• Henry Fayol (1841–1925) was a French mining engineer and management theorist, widely regarded as a founder of modern management theory. He is best known for developing a general theory of administration that applies to all organizations.
• The sequence of the attributes of the manager as suggested by Henri Fayol-

1. Physical -Health and vitality to handle stress and workload
2. Mental - Mental alertness and intelligence to understand problems and make decisions
3. Moral- should follow guiding principles
4. General Education  -Understanding of administration, management, and organizational principles
5. Special Knowledge -Technical knowledge of the industry or work.

The correct answer is - B, A, C, D

Key Points

• The committees related to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) were established in the following chronological order:
• Giridhari Lal Vyas Committee (1973): This committee was appointed by the Government of Rajasthan to suggest measures for strengthening the Panchayati Raj system.
• Ashok Mehta Committee (1977): Appointed by the Janata Government in December 1977, it recommended a two-tier system of Panchayati Raj consisting of Zila Parishads and Mandal Panchayats.
• G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985): Appointed by the Planning Commission, it emphasized that the district should be the basic unit of planning and development, famously describing PRIs as "grass without roots."
• L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986): Appointed by the Rajiv Gandhi government, it strongly recommended constitutional recognition for Panchayati Raj Institutions to ensure their stability and continuity.

Additional Information

• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957):
• This was the first major committee to recommend a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad).
• It introduced the concept of Democratic Decentralization in independent India.
• Thungon Committee (1988):
• It was a sub-committee of the Consultative Committee of Parliament that recommended making Panchayati Raj bodies constitutional.
• It suggested a five-year term for these bodies.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992):
• This act finally gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.
• It added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is A, D, B, C.

 Key Points

• ​Creation of the post of the District Collector 1772-by Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of India, under his Judicial and Administrative Reforms.
• Cornwallis Code 1787-1793 - The Cornwallis Code refers to a set of administrative, judicial, and police reforms introduced by Lord Cornwallis, the Governor-General of India (1786–1793). It laid the foundation of British civil administration in India
• Placement of District Treasury under the District Collector - The District Treasury was placed under the control of the District Collector during the Cornwallis Reforms (1787–1793), as part of the Cornwallis Code.
• Administration of revenue, civil justice and magistracy services united in the office of District Collector - The administration of revenue, civil justice, and magistracy services was united in the office of the District Collector under the Cornwallis Code (1787–1793) introduced by Lord Cornwallis.

The correct answer is C, A, B, D.

Key Points

1. Writing Research Proposal - A research proposal is a formal document that outlines a planned research project. It explains what you intend to study, why, and how. It is usually submitted to supervisors, funding agencies, or institutions for approval before starting the actual research.
2. Selecting a Sample -Selecting a sample is the process of choosing a subset of individuals or items from a larger population to represent the whole. Sampling is used in research because studying the entire population is often impractical, time-consuming, or expensive.
3. Data Collection -Data collection is the process of gathering information from various sources to answer research questions, test hypotheses, or evaluate outcomes. It is a critical step in the research process because the quality of data determines the reliability and validity of the research findings.
4. Data Processing -Data processing is the step in research where the collected data is organized, cleaned, and transformed into a format suitable for analysis and interpretation. It ensures that the data is accurate, consistent, and meaningful for drawing conclusions.

The correct answer is B, A, C, D

Key Points

1. Dissect the broad area into sub-areas - starting with a broad area and breaking it into sub-areas is crucial to narrow down the focus and make the research manageable
2. Select the topic which is of interest to the researcher-A topic should be of personal interest to the researcher because it ensures motivation, commitment, and persistence throughout the study.
3. Raise Research Questions - are the specific questions that provide focus and direction to the research and determine the methods, data, and analysis required.
4. Formulate Objectives -clarifies the purpose of the study and guides the research design, methodology, and analysis.

The correct answer is A, B, D, C.

Key Points

1. Scrutiny by Departmental Committees- After the general discussion on the budget is over, the Houses are adiourned for about three to four weeks. During this gap period, the 11 departmental standing committees of the Parliament examine and discuss in detail the demands for grants of the concerned ministries and prepare reports on them.
2. Voting on Demands for Grants -In the light of the reports of the departmental standing committees, the Lok Saba takes up voting of demands for grants. The demands are presented ministrywise. A demand becomes a grant after it has been duly voted.
3. Passing of Appropriation Bill- The Constitution states that "no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law." Accordingly, an Appropriation Bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. **Passing of Finance Bill -**Under Rule 219 of the Lok Sabha, the 'Finance Bill means the Bill ordinarily introduced in each year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the next following financial year, and includes a bill to give effect to supplementary financial proposals for any period. It is subjected to all the conditions applicable to a Money Bill.

The correct answer is D, C, B, A.

Key Points

1. Major Head - A Major Head is the first-level classification in the government accounts, representing a broad category of revenue or expenditure.
2. Minor Head-A Minor Head is a sub-division of a Major Head, representing a specific component or aspect of revenue or expenditure within that broad category.
3. Sub Head -A Sub-Head is a division of a Minor Head used to classify government receipts or expenditure in a more detailed and specific manner.
4. Detailed Head -A Detailed Head is a further subdivision of a Sub-Head, specifying exact items or schemes for which government money is received or spent.

The correct answer is A, D, C, E. В.

Key Points

• Peter DeLeon is a noted scholar in public policy and political science, particularly associated with the development of the policy sciences as an academic field.
• The correct sequence of political evensts suggested by him-

1. Second World War -1939–1945
2. War on Vietnam - U.S. involvement escalated mainly 1965–1973
3. War on Poverty - Initiated by President Lyndon B. Johnson in 1964
4. Watergate Scandal - Happened 1972–1974
5. Energy Crisis - Major oil crises in 1973 and 1979

The correct answer is D, C, B, A.

Key Points

1. Neo-liberalism 1940s- is an economic and political philosophy emphasizing free markets, limited government intervention, privatization, deregulation, and competition in public services
2. Marketization and privatization 1970s -Both marketization and privatization are key components of neo-liberal reforms, aimed at reducing the role of the state and introducing market mechanisms in the economy and public sector.
3. Networks and Partnerships 1980s -A network is a structured set of relationships between multiple actors and A partnership is a formal or informal collaboration between public, private, or voluntary sector organizations to deliver services or implement programs.
4. Openess to the disclouser of information 2005 -Openness to disclosure of information is the willingness and legal obligation of public authorities to provide information about their decisions, policies, finances, and functioning to citizens and stakeholders.

The correct answer is B, D, A, C.

Key Points

• Public choice 1970s-Public Choice Theory is a branch of economics that applies economic principles to political decision-making, analyzing the behavior of politicians, bureaucrats, and voters as self-interested actors.
• Governing the Commons 1990s - “Governing the Commons” is a seminal work by Elinor Ostrom (1990) that examines how communities around the world successfully manage shared resources without central regulation or privatization. It is highly influential in public administration, political science, and environmental governance.
• Governance and Development 1970s to 1980s - The concept of Governance and Development emerged in the 1970s–1980s when scholars and international organizations recognized that economic growth alone is insufficient for development. Poor governance, corruption, and institutional inefficiency were seen as obstacles, leading to a focus on good governance, transparency, accountability, and citizen participation as essential for sustainable socio-economic development.
• New Public Service 2000s- paradigm in public administration that emphasizes serving citizens rather than steering or controlling them, focusing on democracy, civic engagement, and public interest. It emerged as a response to limitations of New Public Management (NPM).

Additional Information Governance is the process through which authority is exercised in the management of a country’s economic, social, and political resources, including the mechanisms, processes, and institutions by which citizens and groups articulate their interests, exercise their rights, and fulfill obligations.

The correct answer is: 4 - D, A, B, C

Key Points

Chronological Order of Public Policy Books:

• Charles O. Jones – An Introduction to the Study of Public Policy (D)
• Published in 1970.
• Considered one of the foundational texts in public policy studies.
• Focused on policy-making processes, implementation, and evaluation.
• Harold Lasswell – Preview of Policy Sciences (A)
• Published in 1971.
• Introduced the concept of “Policy Sciences” as an interdisciplinary approach.
• Emphasized rational and scientific methods in policy analysis.
• Aaron Wildavsky – The Art and Craft of Policy Analysis (B)
• Published in 1979.
• Highlighted practical aspects and techniques of policy analysis.
• Focused on decision-making and administrative processes in governance.
• Paul Sabatier – Theories of the Policy Process (C)
• Published in 1999.
• Explained modern theoretical frameworks of policy-making.
• Included models such as Advocacy Coalition Framework and policy change theories.

Additional Information

• Harold Lasswell is regarded as one of the pioneers of policy sciences and significantly contributed to the development of modern public policy analysis.
• Paul Sabatier’s work became highly influential in contemporary policy studies because it systematically explained competing theories of policy formulation and implementation.
• Aaron Wildavsky emphasized budgeting and incrementalism, which became important concepts in public administration and policy analysis.
• Charles O. Jones focused extensively on the stages approach in public policy, including agenda-setting, formulation, adoption, implementation, and evaluation.

The correct answer is C, B, A, D.

Key Points

1. Prevention of Corruption Act -The Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA), 1988 is the primary legislation in India to combat corruption in public offices. It criminalizes bribery, abuse of official position, and corrupt practices by public servants.
2. Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003 - The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the apex body in India responsible for monitoring and preventing corruption in central government organizations and public sector undertakings.
3. Right to Information Act 2005 - The Right to Information Act, 2005 is a landmark legislation in India that empowers citizens to access information held by public authorities, promoting transparency, accountability, and participatory governance.
4. Whistle- Blowers Protection Act 2014 - The Whistle-Blowers Protection Act, 2014 is legislation enacted to protect individuals who expose corruption, misconduct, or wrongdoing in government and public sector organizations, ensuring they can report without fear of retaliation.

The correct answer is A, B, and C.

Key Points

• The Minnowbrook Conferences are landmark gatherings in the field of public administration that have shaped the theoretical and practical discourse on governance, public policy, and administrative reform.
• Correct statements are -

1. First Minnowbrook Conference was decidedly anti behavioural as due to its focus on Critique of traditional public administration; call for social equity and human values; influenced the New Public Administration (NPA) movement.
2. **Second Minnowbrook Conference'**s tone and temper was more pragmatic as it focuses on Reflected on changes in public administration over 20 years; emphasized diversity, democracy, and ethics.
3. Third Minnowbrook Conference expressed dissatisfaction on the discipline of Public Administration as Focused on globalization, technology, networks, and collaborative governance; relevance of public administration in a changing world.

The correct answer is A, B & C only.

Key Points

• Public administration, in this context, encompasses only the managerial activities and not the technical, clerical and manual activities which are nonmanagerial in nature.
• Thus, administration, according to this view, constitutes the activities ofonly the top persons.
• Simon, Smithburg, Thompson and Luther Gulick adopt this view. Administration, according to this view, is same in all the spheres as the managerial techniques are same in all the fields of activities.

Additional Information

• L.D. White gave integral view which suggested public administration encompasses all the activities which are undertaken to accomplish the given objective. In other words, public administration is the sum total of managerial, technical, clerical and manual activities.

The correct answer is A, B and C Only

Key Points

• Lyndall Fownes Urwick (1891–1983) was a British administrative and management thinker and a leading supporter of the classical theory of administration. He played a key role in systematizing and popularizing management principles, especially those of Henri Fayol, for modern organizations.

He gave eight principles-

1. Principle of objective: definite purpose
2. Principle of correspondence: at all levels authority and responsibility must be coequal
3. Principle of Responsibility: absolute responsibility will be of superior of the organisation
4. Scalar principle: ranking system of the employees
5. Principle of span of control: no supervisor can supervise directly the work of more than five or at the most six subordinates.
6. Principle of specialisation: limiting one's work to a single function
7. Principle of coordination
8. Principle of definition: clearly defining the duties, authority and responsibility of each position and its relationship with other position.

Additional Information

• Principles of control and budgeting - primarily given by W. F. Willoughby, emphasizing that budgeting is both a planning and control tool in public administration, ensuring unity, legality, efficiency, and accountability in public expenditure.

The correct answer is B, C and D Only.

Key Points

• Chester I. Barnard was an influential management theorist and organizational thinker, best known for his ideas on authority, cooperation, and organizations as social systems.
• He has given -

1. Contribution-satisfaction- equilibrium - Contributions are provided by the participants to the organisation, while satisfaction is provided by the organisation to the participants.
2. Zone of indifference of individual participant of the organisation the orders will be accepted by the subordinate so long as they fall within this zone. So the executives should issue only those orders which fall within this zone.
3. Fiction of Authority -Barnard called authority a “fiction” because it is effective only if people recognize and accept it, even though it has no physical or coercive force by itself.

Additional Information

• Zone of Acceptance is given by **Simon-**The Zone of Acceptance is the set of orders or directives that a subordinate considers reasonable and will comply with without decision conflict.
• Simon added that this zone is shaped by the subordinate’s perception, past experiences, and bounded rationality.

The correct answer is A and B Only.

Key Points

• The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 is a landmark anti-corruption legislation in India aimed at establishing institutions to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries at the central and state levels.
• features of the act are -

1. The Administrative expenses of the Lokpal be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
2. B. Prime Minister and all ministers of the Central Government are included in the jurisdiction of Lokpal
3. Lokpal can act on its own if there is sufficient evidence of corruption.
4. Whistle-blowers and complainants are protected against victimization.

The correct answer is A, C and D Only.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is one of the most important ministries of the Government of India, responsible for internal security, law & order, centre–state relations, and administration of UTs.

1. Department of Internal Security - handles ,Internal security policy,Counter-terrorism & insurgency , Naxalism / Left Wing Extremism ,Cyber security ,Border management policy ,Police modernization
2. Department of Official Languages - handles ,Implementation of Hindi as Official Language ,Promotion of Hindi in government offices ,Official language policy & training
3. Department of Border Management- handles Border infrastructure development, Border management policy ,Border area development.

The correct answer is  B, C and D only.

Key Points

• The act gave constitutional status to the municipalities. It has brought them under the purview of justiciable part of the Constitution.
• ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG. In addition, the act has also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains eighteen functional items of municipalities.
• features of the act are-

1. It provides three  tier system of Municipalities
2. It provides for the establishement of District Planning Committee
3. 12th Schedue of the Constitution was inserted through this amendment
4. . It provides one third reservation for women in Municipalities
5. Provides state election commission and state finance commission

Additional InformationExempted Areas-

• The act does not apply to the scheduled areas and tribal areas in the states It shall also not affect the functions and powers of the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council of the West Bengal.
• However, the Parliament may extend the provisions of this part to the scheduled areas and tribal areas subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points The constitution mentions-

• District Planning Committee - constitutional body created to ensure decentralised and integrated planning at the district level in India.Under Article 243ZD of the Indian ConstitutionInserted by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
• Metropolitan Planning Committee - constitutional body meant for integrated planning of metropolitan areas in India.Under Article 243ZE of the Indian Constitution Introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992

Additional Information

• Notified Area Committee - type of urban local body in India established in areas that are undergoing urbanization but do not yet qualify as full municipalities.It is meant to manage civic administration in transitional areas, especially where a settlement is growing rapidly but the population or revenue base is not enough for a municipal council.
• Town Area Committee - A Town Area Committee (TAC) is a type of urban local body in India that governs small towns which are not large enough to be Municipal Councils. It is similar to a Notified Area Committee (NAC) but typically found in slightly larger or more established towns.

The correct answer is A, B, C and D.

Key Points Fred W. Riggs, in his prismatic theory of administration, designed the SALA framework to analyze administrative systems, especially in developing countries.

1. Nepotism - Favoritism shown to family, relatives, or friends in administrative appointments, promotions, or privileges.
2. Poly- Communalism - refers to a society composed of multiple, distinct religious, linguistic, or ethnic communities, each maintaining its own identity, culture, and social institutions.
3. Poly-Normativism -  refers to a social or administrative situation in which multiple legal or normative systems coexist within the same society, and different groups follow different sets of rules, norms, or laws.
4. Separation of authority from Control - Officials may have legal authority (e.g., power to collect taxes, issue permits).But actual control over outcomes is limited.

The correct answer is A and B only.

Key Points

• Article 110 is part of Part V (The Union) – The Parliament of the Indian Constitution.
• A Money Bill is a bill that contains only provisions related to taxation, borrowing, or expenditure of money by the government.
• A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with:
• Taxes (imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, regulation)
• Borrowing of money by the government
• Appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India
• Payment into or withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India
• Audit of accounts by the Comptroller & Auditor-General of India
• Pensions (payment of debts, services, or obligations)
• Any matter incidental to the above.

Additional Information

1. Once certified, the decision of the Speaker is final and binding.
2. Money Bills must be passed by Lok Sabha, even if Rajya Sabha suggests changes.
3. Rajya Sabha powers are limited Can recommend amendments within 14 days.and Cannot reject or amend the Bill beyond suggestions.

The correct answer is A, B and C only.

Key PointsThe administrative system of the UK is shaped by its parliamentary democracy, constitutional monarchy, and common law traditions.

1. Civil Service Commission - independent body that ensures the integrity, fairness, and merit-based recruitment of the UK civil service. It plays a key role in maintaining neutrality and professionalism in the UK bureaucracy.
2. Treasury -  officially called Her Majesty’s Treasury, is the government department responsible for economic and financial matters in the United Kingdom. It is one of the most important departments in the UK administrative system.
3. Civil Service College - principal training institution for the UK civil service, aimed at developing competent, professional, and impartial administrators.

Additional Information  National School of Administration - École Nationale d’Administration, (ENA) is part of the administrative system of France.

• Established to train senior civil servants for the French government.
• Aims to produce a highly skilled, professional, and elite administrative cadre.
• Focuses on public administration, policy implementation, and management.

The correct answer is A, B, C and D.

Key Points

• Policy Science is an interdisciplinary field that studies the formulation, implementation, and evaluation of public policies. It emerged to systematize decision-making in government and provide tools for rational policy analysis.
• All the above statements are correct-

1. The notion of 'Policy Sciences' emerged with the publication of Policy Orientation article by Harold Lasswell in 1951.
2. Harold Laswell proposed that policy sciences can be created by combining the knowledge of academic disciplines with real world politics for solving social problems.
3. . According to Harold Lasswell, Policy Sciences are concerned with the knowledge of and in decision processes related to public and civic order.
4. Harold Lasswell viewed that public order decisions may have antecedents in civic order decisions in non-totalitarian regimes.

The correct answer is C and D Only.

Key Points The correct statements are -

• Cobb and Elder specified systemic agenda' and 'institutional agenda' as the two basic types of policy agenda that can be identified in a political system
• John Kingdon proposed Policy Windows model in which three independent streams (problem stream, policy stream and politics stream) converge to open a policy window and permit certain issues to reach governmental agenda.

Additional Information

• Convergence Thesis, discussed by Michael Hill in public policy studies, argues that as countries industrialize, they tend to develop similar policy priorities and policy mixes, regardless of their political or ideological differences.
• The Policy Monopoly Model is not advocated by Peter Hall. It is associated with Frank R. Baumgartner and Bryan D. Jones, especially in their work on agenda setting and punctuated equilibrium theory.

The correct answer is A only.

Key Points PM-JAY is India’s flagship public health insurance scheme, launched under the Ayushman Bharat Mission to provide health coverage to economically vulnerable families.

Features of the scheme are -

• Approximately 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable families (around 50 crore people).
• Secondary and tertiary care (hospitalization, surgeries, therapies).
• Treatment in empaneled hospitals is free; no direct payment by patients.

Additional Information Achievements of the scheme are -

• Largest health insurance scheme in the world by coverage.
• Covered millions of families for free hospitalization.
• Promotes digital and paperless transactions, improving governance efficiency.

The correct answer is A and D only.

Key Points

• DPSPs are guidelines given to the central and state governments in India to frame policies and laws aimed at establishing a just society.
• Socialistic Artiles are -

1. Article 42 -It directs the State to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
2. Article 43 - It deals with economic welfare of workers and promotion of cottage industries, reflecting the socialistic orientation of the Constitution.

Additional Information 

1. Article 40 - It directs the State to organize village-level governance through Panchayati Raj institutions to promote self-government and local development.
2. Article 44 - It directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens, aiming at equality and social justice in personal laws.

The correct answer is A, B and D Only

Key Points

• New Public Management (NPM) is a public administration approach that emerged in the late 1970s–1980s, aiming to make the public sector more efficient, results-oriented, and responsive by adopting practices from the private sector.
• NPM shifts focus from traditional bureaucratic procedures to performance, competition, and customer (citizen) satisfaction.
• So the correct statements are-

1. The impetus came from fiscal crises
2. Associated with neo liberalism
3. It is an extension of Public Choice school.

The correct answer is A, B and C Only

Key Points

• Good Governance refers to the way institutions and authorities manage public resources and affairs in a manner that is effective, transparent, accountable, inclusive, and rule-based to promote sustainable development and public trust.
• Indicators of Good Governance are measurable factors used to assess how well a government manages public affairs, resources, and institutions. The most widely used framework comes from the World Bank’s Worldwide Governance Indicators (WGI).
• The indicators of good governance are-

1. Accountability in Good Governance refers to the obligation of public officials, institutions, and decision-makers to explain, justify, and take responsibility for their actions, decisions, and use of public resources, and to face consequences if standards are not met.
2. The rule of law means that everyone is equal before the law, and all actions of the state are governed by fair, clear, and publicly known laws. No individual or authority is above the law.
3. Transparency in good governance refers to the openness and clarity with which governments conduct public affairs, ensuring that information, decisions, and processes are accessible, understandable, and available to citizens.

Additional Information

• Performance appraisal is a systematic and periodic process of evaluating an employee’s job performance against predefined standards, objectives, and competencies, in order to assess effectiveness and support improvement.
• It is not a indicator of good governance.

The correct answer is A, B and C.

Key Points

• Quantitative research is a systematic method of investigation that focuses on collecting and analyzing numerical data to identify patterns, relationships, or cause–effect links using statistical techniques.
• The various types of validity in quantitative research are-

1. Face and content validity - Refers to how well the instrument covers all aspects of the concept being measured.
2. Concurrent and predictive validity - Concurrent validity refers to the extent to which a test or measurement correlates with an established standard (criterion) measured at the same time.
3. Constructive validity - Construct validity refers to the extent to which a test or instrument truly measures the theoretical construct or concept it is intended to measure.

Additional Information

• Factorial design validity - is related to the validity of conclusions drawn from factorial experiments, which are experiments that study two or more independent variables (factors) simultaneously to see their individual (main) and combined (interaction) effects on a dependent variable.
• It ensures that the observed effects are accurate, reliable, and attributable to the experimental factors rather than other sources of error.

The correct answer is A and B Only.

Key Points

• Random sampling is a probability sampling technique in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample. It is widely used in quantitative research to ensure that the sample is representative of the population.
• Probability sampling is a sampling technique in which every member of the population has a known, non-zero chance of being selected. It is the foundation of quantitative research because it allows statistical inference and generalization from the sample to the population.
• In Random and Probability sampling  each element in the population has an equal and independent chance of selection in the sample.

Additional Information

• Quota sampling is a non-probability sampling technique in which the researcher selects a sample that reflects certain characteristics of the population in proportion to their occurrence, but selection within each category is non-random.
• Snowball sampling is a non-probability sampling technique in which existing study participants recruit or refer other participants from among their acquaintances, forming a “snowball” effect.

The correct answer is A and C only.

Key Points

• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the parliamentary committees in India responsible for examining the accounts of the government to ensure transparency, accountability, and proper use of public funds. It is a key instrument of financial oversight.
• Composition of Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Indian Parliament-

1. The Total Strength of the PAC is increased to 22 in the year 1953
2. The members of the PAC will be elected annually

• Hence these are the correct statements.

Additional Information

• Out of 22 members, 15 are from Lok Sabha and 7 are from Rajya Sabha
• The First ARC recommended for an equal size of members from both houses.

The correct answer is А-III, В-IV, C-II, D-I

Key Points

1. Kothari Committee refers to the Education Commission of 1964–66 in India, officially called the Education Commission (1964–66), which was chaired by Dr. D. S. Kothari, a renowned scientist and educationist. This committee is highly significant because it laid down the foundation for modern education
2. The Satish Chandra Committee 1988-89 was a committee constituted to review and reform the Civil Services Examination system in India. It was set up by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to evaluate the structure, content, and methods of recruitment to the All‑India and Central Services and to suggest improvements to make the system more effective and relevant.
3. Yoginder K. Alagh Committee was a task force constituted by the Planning Commission of India in 1977 and submitted its report in 1979. It is one of the earliest official committees on poverty measurement in India and laid the foundation for the country’s approach to estimating poverty.
4. P.C. Hota Committee refers to an important Indian government committee on civil service reforms that was set up in 2004 under the chairmanship of Shri Purna Chandra (P.C.) Hota, a former Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and former Secretary, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.

The correct asnwer is А-ІI, В-IV, C-I, D-III.

Key Points

• The Principles of Administration 1927-1937-are general truths or guidelines that help managers and administrators plan, organize, direct, and control public organizations.
• Public Administration as Management 1956-1970- treats it as the art and science of managing public organizations to achieve policy goals efficiently. It's Focus is on processes, techniques, and organizational efficiency rather than political theory or legal framework.

The correct answer is А-ІI, В-III, C-I, D-IV.

Key Points

1. Philadelphia conference 1967 - Also called the Constitutional Convention. Held in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, from May 25 to September 17, 1787. Purpose is To revise the Articles of Confederation, which had proven weak and ineffective for governing the United States.
2. Second Minnow brook conference - September 4, 1988.Venue was Minnowbrook Conference Center, Syracuse University, USA.The conference aimed to revisit and evaluate how public administration theory and practice had evolved since the first conference, and to frame future directions in light of these changes.
3. Publication of Public Administration in the time of turbulence 1971-The late 1960s–early 1970s was an era marked by social upheaval, political conflict, civil rights struggles, and rapid societal change, especially in the United States. Traditional administrative theory focused on efficiency and economy was increasingly seen as inadequate in addressing pressing social problems and civil unrest. Given by Dwight Waldo.
4. Third Minnow brook conference 2008-The conference aimed to rethink and reorient public administration theory and practice for the rapidly globalizing and interconnected world of the 21st century. focus on Globalization, interdisciplinary approaches, future challenges.

The correct answer is А-І, В-III, С-II, D-IV.

Key Points

• Anthony Downs, an American economist and political scientist, in his book “Inside Bureaucracy” (1967), analyzed bureaucrats’ behavior using economic and rational choice principles.
• Downs classified bureaucrats into four types based on their motives and approach to work-

1. Climbers - who are Ambitious, career-oriented, seeks promotion. It's focus on Advancement, prestige, higher position.
2. Conservers - who Likes stability, security, and rules.focus on Job security, routine, predictability.
3. Zealots - who have Strong ideological motivation. focused on Loyalty to ideas, reforms, or policy goals
4. Advocates - Focuses on public service, ideals, or mission. Serving public interest, social causes.

The correct answer is А-ІII. В-IV, C-II,D-I.

Key Points

1. Article 77 ensures that the President is the formal executive authority, but in reality, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers run the government, with clear rules for the transaction of business.
2. Article 78 ensures that the Prime Minister acts as the chief channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the President, keeping the President informed about administration and legislative matters while maintaining the parliamentary system.
3. Article 72 deals with the President’s power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment under certain circumstances. It is a key provision in the Indian Constitution for executive clemency.
4. Article 73 deals with the scope of executive power of the Union Government. It essentially clarifies what matters fall under the Union government’s executive authority.

The correct answer is А-ІII, В-I, C-IV, D-II.

 Key Points

• Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament) to the States and Union Territories. It ensures proportional representation of states based on population.
• Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the subjects of legislation between the Union and the States.
• Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the First Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws from judicial review.
• Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 and is also called the Anti-Defection Law.

Additional Information

• In the Indian Constitution, a Schedule is a list or table added at the end of the Constitution that provides detailed provisions, classifications, or guidelines related to various subjects.
• The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when it came into force in 1950.
• Over time, through amendments, the number of schedules has increased to 12 schedules at present.

The correct answer is A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

Key Points

• Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in 1977 to review the working of Panchayati Raj system and suggest reforms. It suggested  Direct Participation of Political parties in Panchayat Raj institutions
• L.M. Singhvi Committee 1983-1985 was appointed by the Government of India to review the working of Panchayati Raj institutions and suggest measures to strengthen local self-government. It suggested  Constitutional Status for Panchayat Raj institutions
• Girdhari Lal Vyas Committee 1985 was appointed by the Government of India to review the functioning of Panchayati Raj institutions after the recommendations of the L.M. Singhvi Committee. It suggested Statutory Recognition to Gram Sabha
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in 1957 to evaluate the Community Development Programme and National Extension Service and to suggest measures for establishing democratic decentralized local governance. It suggested A three-tier system of Panchayat Raj.

The correct answer is: (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II).

Key Points

Additional Information

• American Society for Public Administration (1939):
• Purpose: Established to advance the science, art, and practice of public administration.
• Key Features: It promotes professional ethics, governance research, and administrative studies.
• Significance: It became one of the most influential organizations in the field of public administration.
• Comparative Administration Group (1963):
• Purpose: Created under the American Society for Public Administration to encourage comparative administrative studies.
• Key Features: Focused on administrative systems of developing and developed countries.
• Significance: Played an important role in the development of Comparative Public Administration.
• Disbanding of Comparative Administration Group (1973):
• Purpose: The group was dissolved after decline in funding and changing academic interests.
• Key Features: Criticism emerged regarding overdependence on Western administrative models.
• Significance: Marked the decline of the first major phase of Comparative Public Administration.
• Journal of Comparative Administration ceased to exist (1974):
• Purpose: The journal earlier served as a platform for comparative administrative research.
• Key Features: It published studies on governance, bureaucracy, and administration across nations.
• Significance: Its closure reflected the declining momentum of comparative administration studies during that period.

The correct answer is А-ІI, В-III, C-I, D-IV.

Key Points

• Fred W. Riggs (often written as Riggs’ models of industrialization) are used in comparative public administration to explain how administrative systems change as societies move from traditional to modern/industrial stages.
• He gave four models-

1. Industia Model-Represents modern / industrial societies. Economy dominated by industry and technology. High role differentiation (specialized institutions). Administration is universalistic, achievement-oriented, and rational.
2. Fused Model-used to describe the structure of administrative systems in traditional (agrarian) societies. It is the opposite of the Industria (modern) model, which is characterized by specialization and role differentiation.
3. Prismatic Model - Represents transitional / developing societies. Mix of traditional (agraria) and modern (industria) features.
4. Diffracted Model-describes the administrative systems of modern industrial societies. It is essentially the fully “modernized” or industrial model, often contrasted with the Fused Model of traditional societies.

The correct answer is Α-II, Β-Ι, C-IV, D-III.

Key Points

• National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) was launched in 2006 to make government services accessible, efficient, and transparent through ICT.
• Digital India Mission, launched in 2015, aims to digitally empower citizens and provide government services electronically.
• Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed in India in 2005. Specifically, it was enacted by the Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came into force on 12 October 2005. This Act empowers Indian citizens to access information held by public authorities, promoting transparency and accountability in the working of the government.
• first Chairman (Chairperson) of the Lokpal of India was Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose. He was appointed in March 2019, with his term starting on 23 March 2019 when he took the oath of office as the first Lokpal Chairperson.

The correct answer is Α-Ι, Β-II, C-IV. D-III.

Key Points

• An independent variable is a variable that a researcher deliberately changes or controls in an experiment to observe its effect on another variable, which is called the dependent variable.
• A dependent variable is the variable that responds to changes in the independent variable. In other words, it’s the “effect” in a cause-and-effect relationship.
• An extraneous variable is a variable other than the independent variable that could affect the dependent variable in an experiment. These are unwanted or “extra” factors that can confuse or distort the results if not controlled.
• An intervening variable is a variable that explains the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable. It mediates the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable, often helping us understand how or why the effect occurs.

The correct answer is Α-Ι, Β-II, C-III, D-IV.

Key Points

• Accidental Sampling (also called Convenience Sampling) is a non-probability sampling method where the researcher selects participants who are easiest to reach or readily available. It’s called “accidental” because the sample is chosen by chance availability, not randomly.
• Expert Sampling is a type of purposive (judgmental) sampling where the researcher selects participants who are experts in a particular field relevant to the study. It’s used when the study requires specialized knowledge and the opinions or insights of experts are most valuable.
• Snowball Sampling is a non-probability sampling technique where existing study participants recruit or refer other participants from among their acquaintances. The sample “grows like a snowball.” It’s often used when the target population is hard to reach or hidden.
• Systematic Sampling is a probability sampling technique where you select participants from a population at regular intervals (a fixed “system”) after choosing a random starting point. It’s often used when you have a complete list of the population and want an evenly spread sample.

The correct answer is А-III, В-I, C-IV, D-II.

Key Points

• Public Policy is a set of decisions, actions, and laws made by a government to address problems, achieve goals, or regulate the behavior of individuals and organizations in society.
• Definitions given by various proponents-

1. B. Guy Peters -The Decisions giving direction, coherence, continuity to the courses of A. action for which the decision making body is responsible.
2. James Anderson - A purposive course of action taken or adopted by those in power in pursuit of certain goals or objectives.
3. David Easton -An authoritative allocation of values for the whole society.
4. Thomas R. Dye - Whatever governments choose to do or not to do.

The correct answer is A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV.

Key Points

• Regulatory Policy refers to a set of government rules, laws, and regulations designed to control, guide, or influence the behavior of individuals, businesses, or organizations to achieve public goals.
• Distributive Policy is a type of public policy in which the government provides benefits, services, or resources to specific groups or sectors of society, usually funded by general public revenue.
• Redistributive Policy is a type of public policy in which the government redistributes resources (income, wealth, or opportunities) from one group in society to another, usually from the better-off to the less-privileged.
• Constituent Policy is a type of public policy that focuses on establishing, organizing, or restructuring government institutions and political systems.

The correct answer is: 4 - A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Key Points

• Committee on Subordinate Legislation (A - IV)
• Established in 1963.
• Examines whether delegated legislation is properly exercised by the executive.
• Ensures that rules and regulations framed under laws remain within parliamentary limits.
• Estimates Committee (B - III)
• Established in 1950.
• Studies budget estimates and suggests improvements in administrative efficiency.
• Known as the largest parliamentary committee in India.
• Committee on Public Undertakings (C - II)
• Established in 1964.
• Examines the reports and accounts of public sector undertakings.
• Evaluates efficiency, autonomy, and functioning of public enterprises.
• Public Accounts Committee (D - I)
• Established in 1921 under the Government of India Act, 1919.
• Examines audit reports prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
• Ensures accountability of government expenditure to Parliament.

Additional Information

• Parliamentary committees play a vital role in ensuring legislative oversight and administrative accountability in India.
• The Public Accounts Committee is chaired traditionally by a member of the opposition party to maintain neutrality and effective scrutiny.
• The Estimates Committee only functions in the Lok Sabha and does not include Rajya Sabha members.
• Committee on Public Undertakings was created after the expansion of the public sector in post-independence India.

The correct  answer is may withhold assent to 'not a money bill passed by parliament.

• Article 111 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Assent to Bills by the President of India. It specifies the options the President has when a bill is passed by Parliament.

The correct answer is A and C Only

Correct Statements are -

• Rajya Sabha for its recommendations
• If it has not returned within a period of 14 days by Rajya Sabha, deemed to have been passed by both the houses

Additional Information There is no provision for joint sitting for the money bill.Hence statement B is incorrect.

 If it has not returned within a period of 14 days it has to be certified by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence statement D is incorrect.

The correct answer is 110.

Key Points Article 110 defines what a Money Bill is and establishes the Speaker’s role in certifying it. This is why money bills have special procedures in Parliament.

The correct answer is Lok Sabha.

Key Points

• A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) and not in the Rajya Sabha.
• It can be introduced By a minister of the government, usually the Finance Minister. It cannot be introduced by a private member.

The correct answer is A, B and C.

Key Points Rajya Sabha, after receiving the money bill from the Lok Sabha, it-

A. may return the bill within 14 days to Lok Sabha

B. may suggest Reccommendations to the bill and Lok Sabha may accept or reject any recommendations

C. may not return the bill within 14 days.

Hence All the statements are correct.