UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 27th Jan 2025 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Number of votes cat in C :

\(20000\times\frac{50}{100}=10000. \)

Number of votes cast in D :

\(25000\times\frac{80}{100}=20000.\)

Number of invalid votes in D :

\(20000\times\frac{40}{100}=8000. \)

Number of votes cast in E :

\(12500\times\frac{60}{100}=7500.\)

Number of invalid votes in E :

\(7500\times\frac{20}{100}=1500. \)

Difference : 10000 - 8000 - 1500 = 500.

Number of votes cast in D :

\(25000\times\frac{80}{100}=20000.\)

 

Number of votes cast in E :

\(12500\times\frac{60}{100}=7500.\)

total votes cast in D and E together : 27500.

Number of votes cast in A :

\(18000\times\frac{75}{100}=13500.\)

Number of valid votes in A :

\(13500\times\frac{90}{100}=12150. \)

Number of votes cast in C :

\(20000\times\frac{50}{100}=10000.\)

Number of invalid votes in C :

\(10000\times\frac{100}{100}=10000. \)

Total valid votes cast in C and A : 22150.

reqd. percentage : \(\frac{27500-22150}{27500}\times100= 19.5\)%.

Number of votes cast in B :

\(22500\times\frac{80}{100}=18000.\)

Number of valid votes in B :

\(18000\times\frac{75}{100}=13500. \)

Number of votes cast in D :

\(25000\times\frac{80}{100}=20000.\)

Number of valid votes in D :

\(20000\times\frac{60}{100}=12000. \)

Number of votes cast in E :

\(12500\times\frac{60}{100}=7500.\)

Number of valid votes in E :

\(7500\times\frac{20}{100}=6000. \)

Avg. valid votes : \(\frac{13500+12000+6000}{3}=10500.\)

Number of votes cast in A :

\(18000\times\frac{75}{100}=13500.\)

Number of invalid votes in A:

\(13500\times\frac{10}{100}=1350. \)

Number of votes cast in D :

\(25000\times\frac{80}{100}=20000.\)

Number of invalid votes in D :

\(20000\times\frac{40}{100}=8000. \)

total : 8000 + 1350 = 9350.

Number of votes cast in D :

\(25000\times\frac{80}{100}=20000.\)

Number of valid votes in D :

\(20000\times\frac{60}{100}=12000. \)

Number of votes cast in A :

\(18000\times\frac{75}{100}=13500.\)

Number of votes cast in B :

\(22500\times\frac{80}{100}=18000.\)

Reqd. percentage : \(\frac{31500}{12000}\times100=262.5\)%

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)

Key Points

• Mindmeister
• Enables collaborative mind mapping and brainstorming.
• Features include real-time collaboration, task management, and presentation mode.
• Mindomo
• Offers a variety of templates for mind mapping, concept mapping, and outlining.
• Supports real-time collaboration and integration with LMS (Learning Management Systems).
• Coggle
• Simple, easy-to-use tool for creating beautiful mind maps.
• Allows for real-time collaboration and sharing.
• Miro
• A versatile online whiteboard platform for team collaboration and brainstorming.
• Includes templates for mind mapping, kanban boards, and user story maps.
• Popplet
• Visual tool for brainstorming, mind mapping, and planning.
• Features include real-time collaboration, adding images, videos, and text.

Additional Information

• Collaborative Features
• All these tools support real-time collaboration, allowing multiple users to work on the same mind map simultaneously.
• Collaboration features typically include commenting, task assignment, and version history.
• Integration and Compatibility
• Many of these tools integrate with other platforms like Google Drive, Microsoft Teams, and various LMS.
• Compatibility with different file formats (PDF, PNG, etc.) is commonly provided to ensure ease of sharing.
• User-Friendly Interface
• These tools are designed to be intuitive and user-friendly, making them accessible even for users with no prior experience.
• Drag-and-drop functionality, customizable templates, and easy navigation are some of the key features.

The correct answer is - Television Rating Points

Key Points

• Television Rating Points
• Also known as TRP, it is a metric used to gauge the popularity and viewership of television programs.
• TRP reflects the percentage of target audience that is watching a particular show at a given time.
• It helps in determining the advertising rates for television channels based on the popularity of their programs.
• Higher TRP indicates more viewers, which can result in higher advertising revenue for the channel.

Additional Information

• Measurement Methods
• TRP is measured using devices called People Meters installed in sample households to record viewing patterns.
• Data collected from these meters is analyzed to estimate the overall viewership.
• Importance in the Industry
• TRP ratings are crucial for television networks as they provide insights into audience preferences.
• Advertisers use TRP data to decide where to allocate their advertising budgets effectively.
• Producers and content creators use TRP ratings to understand which genres and formats are most popular among viewers.
• Challenges
• Accurate measurement can be challenging due to sample size limitations and potential manipulation of data.
• There is ongoing debate about the accuracy and reliability of TRP ratings.

The correct answer is - (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Key Points

• SDG 12 - Responsible production and consumption
• Focuses on ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns.
• Aims to reduce waste generation through prevention, reduction, recycling, and reuse.
• SDG 13 - Climate Action
• Targets urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts.
• Encourages resilience and adaptive capacity to climate-related hazards.
• SDG 14 - Life below water
• Committed to conserving and sustainably using the oceans, seas, and marine resources.
• Addresses marine pollution and ocean acidification.
• SDG 15 - Life on land
• Aims to protect, restore, and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems.
• Focuses on managing forests, combating desertification, and halting biodiversity loss.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
• There are 17 SDGs established by the United Nations in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• Each SDG has specific targets and indicators to measure progress.
• They address global challenges including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.
• Implementation of SDGs
• Requires coordinated efforts from governments, private sector, civil society, and individuals.
• Monitoring and reporting are key to track progress and ensure accountability.

The correct answer is - Walter Lippman

Key Points

• Walter Lippman
• Walter Lippman is a prominent figure in the field of communication and media studies.
• He propounded the theory of Public Opinion formation in his seminal work, "Public Opinion", published in 1922.
• Lippman's theory explores how public opinion is shaped by the media and other external influences.

Additional Information

• Public Opinion
• Public opinion refers to the collective attitudes and beliefs of individuals on various issues.
• It is influenced by various factors including media, political leaders, and social interactions.
• Role of Media
• The media plays a crucial role in shaping public opinion by highlighting specific issues and framing them in particular ways.
• Lippman argued that the media creates "pictures in our heads," influencing how we perceive the world.
• Other Theorists
• Lasswell Harold - Known for his model of communication, emphasizing the role of the communicator, message, medium, receiver, and effect.
• Wilbur Schramm - A pioneer in the field of communication studies, focusing on the process and effects of communication.
• Dewey Jacob - Not directly related to public opinion formation but known for his work in psychology and education.

The correct answer is - (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Key Points

• Tehalka Case
• Involved Tarun Tejpal, an Indian journalist known for his investigative journalism.
• Watergate Scandal
• Exposed by journalists Bob Woodward and Carl Bernstein of The Washington Post.
• Bofors Scandal
• Investigated by Indian journalist Chitra Subramaniam, exposing corruption in arms deals.
• Wikileaks
• Founded by Julian Assange, known for publishing classified documents.

Additional Information

• Tehalka Case
• In 2001, Tehelka conducted a sting operation that revealed corruption in defense procurement in India.
• Tarun Tejpal, the founder, became a prominent figure in investigative journalism due to this case.
• Watergate Scandal
• The scandal led to the resignation of President Richard Nixon in 1974.
• It highlighted the role of journalism in checking government power.
• Bofors Scandal
• Involved allegations of kickbacks in a deal between India and Swedish arms manufacturer Bofors in the 1980s.
• Chitra Subramaniam's reports were instrumental in exposing the corruption.
• Wikileaks
• Wikileaks gained global attention for releasing classified documents from governments and corporations.
• Julian Assange faced legal challenges and controversy due to the nature of the leaks.

Given:

One-fourth by car and the remaining walk down to school.

One-third of those who walk to school are not accompanied by anyone, the rest are escorted by their parents.

224 students walk to school on their own.

Let the total number of students be "x".

Two-fifth of the students of a school go to school by bus = (2/5)x

Number of students who walk to school = x - (2/5)x - (1/4)x

1/3 of the students who walk to school are not accompanied by anyone.

Number of students who are not accompanied = 1/3 × (x - (2/5)x - (1/4)x)

Calculations:

According to Question:

1/3 × (x - (2/5)x - (1/4)x) = 224

1/3 × (20x/20 - 8x/20 - 5x/20) = 224

1/3 × (7x/20) = 224

7x/60 = 224

x = 224 × 60 / 7

x = 1920

∴ The total number of students in the school is 1920.

The correct answer is - (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Key Points

• B. Ed - M. Ed is regulated by NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education).
• NCTE is responsible for planning and coordinating the development of teacher education across the country.
• It sets the norms and standards for various teacher education courses including B. Ed and M. Ed.
• Special Education is regulated by RCI (Rehabilitation Council of India).
• RCI is a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• It regulates and monitors the training of rehabilitation professionals and personnel, promoting education in special education.
• B.Tech-Engineering is regulated by AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education).
• AICTE is responsible for proper planning and coordinated development of the technical education and management education system in India.
• It ensures quality in technical education through accreditation and various other means.
• MBBS is regulated by MCI (Medical Council of India).
• MCI is responsible for establishing and maintaining high standards of medical education and recognition of medical qualifications in India.
• It regulates the standards of medical colleges, the curriculum, and the conduct of examinations.

Additional Information

• NCTE
• Established in 1995, the National Council for Teacher Education is a statutory body.
• It aims to achieve planned and coordinated development of the teacher education system throughout the country.
• RCI
• The Rehabilitation Council of India was set up as a registered society in 1986 and became a statutory body in 1992.
• It is responsible for regulating and monitoring services given to persons with disabilities and maintaining a Central Rehabilitation Register.
• AICTE
• The All India Council for Technical Education was established in 1945 and became a statutory body in 1987.
• It is involved in accrediting postgraduate and graduate programs under specific categories at Indian institutions as per its charter.
• MCI
• The Medical Council of India was established in 1934 under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1933.
• It was replaced by the National Medical Commission (NMC) in 2020, which now performs similar functions.

The correct answer is - (C), (B), (D), (A)

Key Points

• Aeration
• Aeration is the first step in treating hard groundwater. It involves exposing water to air to remove dissolved gases such as carbon dioxide and to oxidize dissolved metals like iron and manganese.
• This process improves the taste and removes odors from the water.
• Softening
• The next step is softening, which involves the removal of hardness-causing minerals, primarily calcium and magnesium.
• This is often achieved by using lime or ion-exchange resins to precipitate or exchange these minerals.
• Filtration
• Filtration is the third step and is used to remove particulate matter from the water.
• This can involve various methods such as sand filters, membrane filters, or other media to physically remove particles.
• Disinfection
• The final step is disinfection, which involves killing or inactivating pathogenic microorganisms to ensure the water is safe for consumption.
• Common disinfection methods include chlorination, UV radiation, and ozonation.

Additional Information

• Purpose of Aeration
• Removes dissolved gases such as hydrogen sulfide and radon.
• Oxidizes dissolved metals, making them easier to remove in subsequent steps.
• Water Softening Techniques
• Ion Exchange: Uses resins to exchange hardness ions (calcium and magnesium) with sodium or potassium ions.
• Lime Softening: Adds lime (calcium hydroxide) to precipitate calcium and magnesium as carbonate compounds.
• Filtration Methods
• Sand Filtration: Utilizes a bed of sand to capture and remove suspended particles.
• Membrane Filtration: Employs semi-permeable membranes to separate particles based on size and charge.
• Disinfection Methods
• Chlorination: Adds chlorine to kill bacteria and viruses.
• UV Radiation: Uses ultraviolet light to inactivate microorganisms by damaging their DNA.
• Ozonation: Introduces ozone gas, which is a powerful oxidant that destroys pathogens.

The correct answer is - Discrete variable

Key Points

• Discrete variable
• A discrete variable can only take on specific, distinct values.
• These values are typically integer values and cannot be fractions or decimals.
• Common examples include the number of students in a class or the number of cars in a parking lot.

Additional Information

• Continuous variable
• A continuous variable can take on any value within a given range.
• These values can be fractional or decimal.
• Examples include height, weight, and temperature.
• Complex variable
• In mathematics, a complex variable involves complex numbers, which are numbers in the form of a + bi where i is the imaginary unit.
• Temporal variable
• A temporal variable is related to time.
• It can represent different points or intervals of time.

The correct answer is - (B), (D), and (E) Only

Key Points

• Dada Saheb Phalke Award
• The Dada Saheb Phalke Award is the highest honor in Indian cinema, presented annually by the Government of India for lifetime contribution to Indian cinema.
• L. V. Prasad and B. N. Reddy are both recipients of this prestigious award.
• Shammi Kapoor, Rajesh Khanna, and Dharmendra have not been awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award.

Additional Information

• L. V. Prasad
• Recognized for his significant contributions to Indian cinema, he received the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 1982.
• He was a renowned film producer, director, and actor.
• B. N. Reddy
• B. N. Reddy was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 1974.
• He was a pioneering director and producer in the Telugu film industry.
• Shammi Kapoor
• While Shammi Kapoor was a celebrated actor in Hindi cinema, he did not receive the Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
• Rajesh Khanna
• Known as the "First Superstar" of Indian cinema, Rajesh Khanna did not receive the Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
• Dharmendra
• Dharmendra, a legendary actor in Indian cinema, has also not been honored with the Dada Saheb Phalke Award.

The correct answer is - (D), (B), (C), (A) and (E)

Key Points

• Formulating a research problem (D)
• This is the first step in the research process where the researcher identifies the issue or problem to be studied.
• It involves defining the objectives and scope of the research.
• Reviewing the literature (B)
• Once the problem is formulated, the next step is to review existing literature related to the research problem.
• This helps in understanding what has already been studied and identifying gaps in the current knowledge.
• Designing the methodology (C)
• After the literature review, the researcher designs the methodology to be used in the study.
• This includes selecting the research design, methods of data collection, and analysis techniques.
• Collecting data (A)
• In this step, the researcher collects data using the chosen methods.
• Data collection could involve surveys, experiments, interviews, or other methods.
• Analysis and Interpretation (E)
• The final step is to analyze and interpret the collected data.
• This involves using statistical tools and techniques to make sense of the data and derive conclusions.

Additional Information

• Importance of Literature Review
• It helps in identifying the theoretical framework for the study.
• It ensures that the research does not duplicate previous studies and adds new knowledge to the field.
• Methodology Design
• Choosing the right methodology is crucial as it affects the validity and reliability of the research.
• Common research designs include experimental, correlational, and descriptive studies.
• Data Analysis Techniques
• Quantitative data analysis often involves statistical tests such as t-tests, ANOVA, and regression analysis.
• Qualitative data analysis may involve coding, thematic analysis, and content analysis.

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (D) and (E) Only

Key Points

• Structuring and Sign posting
• Helps in organizing the portfolio content logically.
• Provides clear navigation for the reader.
• Evidence
• Includes documents or artifacts that demonstrate skills, achievements, or learning.
• Critical for validating the claims made in the portfolio.
• Labelling of the evidence
• Ensures that each piece of evidence is clearly identified.
• Helps in correlating evidence with specific skills or competencies.
• Critical Reflection
• Involves thoughtful analysis of experiences and learning.
• Helps in personal and professional growth by understanding what was learned and how it can be applied in the future.

Additional Information

• Single piece of work
• While a single piece of work might be included, it does not represent the comprehensive nature of a portfolio.
• Portfolios typically consist of multiple pieces of evidence to showcase a range of skills and achievements.
• Purpose of portfolios
• Used in educational and professional contexts to document and reflect on learning and achievements.
• Can be used for assessment, career development, and personal growth.
• Types of portfolios
• Developmental Portfolios: Focus on the process of learning and improvement over time.
• Showcase Portfolios: Highlight the best work and achievements.
• Assessment Portfolios: Used for evaluation purposes to demonstrate competencies and skills.

The correct answer is - Prakaranasama

Key Points

• Satpratipaksa Hetvabhasa
• In Indian philosophy, particularly in the context of Nyaya and Vaisheshika schools, Hetvabhasa refers to a fallacy in logical reasoning.
• Satpratipaksa Hetvabhasa specifically deals with fallacies where the logical reason is countered by a valid contradictory reason.
• Prakaranasama
• This term means "similar in context" and is used to describe arguments or reasoning that are contextually equivalent.
• In the context of Satpratipaksa Hetvabhasa, Prakaranasama signifies that the fallacy occurs due to contextual similarity between the proposed reason and the counter-argument.

Additional Information

• Other Types of Hetvabhasa
• Asiddha
• This fallacy occurs when the proposed reason is not proven or is unestablished.
• Viruddha
• This fallacy occurs when the proposed reason contradicts the conclusion it is supposed to support.
• Asadharana
• This fallacy occurs when the proposed reason is not applicable to the subject of discussion.
• Importance in Logical Reasoning
• Understanding different types of fallacies like Hetvabhasa is crucial for developing sound arguments and avoiding logical errors.
• These concepts are fundamental in Indian philosophical traditions and are essential for students of logic and philosophy.

The correct answer is - (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Key Points

• Basic Research (A)-(IV)
• Expanding knowledge without immediate application.
• Conducted to increase understanding of fundamental principles.
• Applied Research (B)-(II)
• Focused on solving practical problems.
• Directly applicable to real-world situations and often results in immediate practical benefits.
• Action Research (C)-(III)
• Aimed at improving practices in specific settings.
• Involves iterative cycles of planning, acting, observing, and reflecting.
• Evaluation Research (D)-(I)
• Involves assessing programs or interventions.
• Focuses on determining the effectiveness and impact of specific programs.

Additional Information

• Basic Research
• Often termed as "pure" or "fundamental" research.
• Examples include research in theoretical physics, mathematics, and foundational studies in social sciences.
• Applied Research
• Includes research aimed at developing new technologies, improving agricultural methods, or optimizing business practices.
• Examples include medical research for vaccine development, engineering projects, and market analysis studies.
• Action Research
• Commonly used in educational settings, organizational development, and community-based projects.
• Encourages collaborative problem-solving and continuous improvement.
• Evaluation Research
• Methods include formative, summative, process, and impact evaluations.
• Often used in public health, education, and social services to measure the success of programs.

The correct answer is - (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Key Points

• Worm (A)-(II)
• A worm is a type of malware that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers across the network.
• Unlike viruses, worms do not need to attach themselves to an existing program.
• They exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems or applications to spread.
• Bot (B)-(IV)
• A bot is a malware that responds to external commands sent by an attacker.
• Bots are often used in botnets to carry out tasks like sending spam emails or participating in DDoS attacks.
• They allow remote control of the infected system by the attacker.
• Denial-of-Service (C)-(III)
• Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks flood sites with useless traffic to overwhelm a network.
• The primary goal is to make a website or online service unavailable to its intended users.
• DDoS (Distributed Denial-of-Service) is a more complex form involving multiple compromised systems to launch the attack.
• Pharming (D)-(I)
• Pharming involves misdirecting users to a fraudulent website without their knowledge or consent.
• It is often used to steal sensitive information such as login credentials and financial data.
• Pharming can be accomplished by exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS servers or by using malicious software.

Additional Information

• Malware Types
• Viruses: Malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads when the program is executed.
• Trojans: Malware disguised as legitimate software, which provides unauthorized access to the user's system.
• Ransomware: Malware that encrypts user data and demands a ransom to restore access.
• Cyber Security Measures
• Firewalls: Network security systems that monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
• Antivirus Software: Programs designed to detect and remove malware from the computer.
• Encryption: The process of encoding data to prevent unauthorized access.
• Phishing
• Similar to pharming but involves tricking users into providing sensitive information through fraudulent emails or messages.
• Often involves impersonating a trustworthy entity to gain the user's confidence.

The correct answer is - Negative feedback

Key Points

• Negative feedback
• In the context of Global Warming, negative feedback mechanisms work to stabilize or reduce the warming effect.
• A cloudier troposphere increases the reflection of solar flux, meaning more sunlight is reflected back into space, leading to a cooling effect.
• This cooling effect counteracts the warming, hence acting as a negative feedback mechanism.

Additional Information

• Feedback Mechanisms
• Positive feedback
• Amplifies the initial change; for example, melting ice reduces albedo, leading to more absorption of heat, and further warming.
• Negative feedback
• Reduces the initial change; for example, increased cloud cover reflecting more sunlight and cooling the Earth.
• Troposphere and Clouds
• The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere where weather phenomena occur.
• Clouds in the troposphere can reflect sunlight (albedo effect) and influence Earth's energy balance.
• Global Warming
• Refers to the long-term rise in Earth's average temperature due to human activities.
• Understanding feedback mechanisms is crucial for predicting climate change impacts.

The correct answer is - (A) and (C) Only

Key Points

• (A) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration trains future IASs
• The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA) is the premier training institute for Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers.
• It provides foundational training to the new recruits of the IAS and other civil services.
• (C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Academy trains future IPSs
• The Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy (SVPNPA) is the premier training institute for Indian Police Service (IPS) officers.
• It provides training to the new recruits of the IPS and focuses on various aspects of policing and law enforcement.

Additional Information

• Polytechnics and MBBS Degree
• Polytechnics typically offer diploma courses in various engineering and technical fields.
• MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) degrees are awarded by medical colleges and universities, not polytechnics.
• Jawahar Lal Nehru University (JNU), New Delhi
• JNU is a central university known for its strong emphasis on research and social sciences.
• It does not have 89 affiliated colleges; this is a characteristic more commonly associated with universities like the University of Delhi.
• Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC), New Delhi
• IIMC is a premier institution for training in journalism and mass communication.
• It is not an institution for management counselling; this role is typically fulfilled by institutions like the Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs).

The correct answer is - Pratyaksa

Key Points

• Pratyaksa
• According to the Nyaya school of Indian philosophy, Pratyaksa refers to perception, which is knowledge obtained directly through the senses.
• It is considered immediate knowledge that does not rely on any other form of knowledge.
• This form of knowledge is obtained through direct experience and observation.

Additional Information

• Anumana
• Anumana refers to inference, which is a form of knowledge derived through logical reasoning.
• This involves drawing conclusions based on premises or evidence.
• Sabda
• Sabda denotes verbal testimony, which is knowledge gained through the words of a reliable source or authority.
• It is considered a valid means of knowledge in Indian philosophy.
• Anupalabdhi
• Anupalabdhi means non-apprehension or knowledge of absence.
• It is a method of knowing something by the absence of its perception.

The correct answer is - Option 1: (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only

Key Points

• Criterion Referenced Evaluation
• Supports formative and diagnostic evaluation as it aims to monitor student learning and provide ongoing feedback.
• Aims to know individual performance in a well-defined learning task, focusing on what each student can do.
• Typically focuses on a specific domain of examinee behaviors, rather than comparing students to each other.
• To ascertain an individual's status with respect to a defined achievement domain, ensuring that they have met specific learning objectives.

Additional Information

• Norm-Referenced Evaluation
• Focuses on knowing the relative position/rank of students within a well-defined known population.
• Compares individual performance against the performance of others, often leading to a ranking system.
• Formative Evaluation
• Used to monitor student learning and provide ongoing feedback that can be used by instructors to improve their teaching and by students to improve their learning.
• Diagnostic Evaluation
• Aims to identify students’ existing knowledge and skills before instruction begins, helping to identify strengths and areas for improvement.

The correct answer is - Proactive

Key Points

• Proactive interference
• Occurs when previously learned information interferes with the retrieval of new information.
• This type of interference is common when similar types of information are learned in succession.
• For example, if you learn two languages back-to-back, words from the first language may interfere with recalling words in the second language.
• Understanding proactive interference is crucial for effective study techniques and memory management.

Additional Information

• Types of Memory Interference
• Retroactive Interference
• Occurs when new information interferes with the retrieval of previously learned information.
• For instance, learning a new password can make it difficult to recall an old password.
• Decay Theory
• Suggests that memories fade over time if they are not accessed or rehearsed.
• This theory emphasizes the importance of regular review and practice to maintain information in long-term memory.
• Dysfunction
• Refers to any disruption or impairment in the normal functioning of memory processes.
• This can be caused by various factors, including brain injury, psychological conditions, and aging.

The correct answer is - (D), (C), (B), (A)

Key Points

• Facebook (D)
• Launched in February 2004.
• Founded by Mark Zuckerberg along with fellow Harvard College students.
• Twitter (C)
• Launched in March 2006.
• Founded by Jack Dorsey, Noah Glass, Biz Stone, and Evan Williams.
• Recently rebranded as X.
• WhatsApp (B)
• Launched in January 2009.
• Founded by Brian Acton and Jan Koum.
• Instagram (A)
• Launched in October 2010.
• Founded by Kevin Systrom and Mike Krieger.

Additional Information

• Facebook
• Initially intended for Harvard students, later expanded to other universities and eventually to anyone over the age of 13.
• Features include News Feed, Friends, Likes, and Groups.
• Twitter
• Known for its 140-character limit (now 280) and real-time updates.
• Popular for hashtags and trending topics.
• WhatsApp
• Popular for its end-to-end encryption and instant messaging capabilities.
• Also offers voice and video call features.
• Instagram
• Initially focused on photo sharing with filters, later expanded to include video sharing and stories.
• Acquired by Facebook in 2012.

The correct answer is - Capability of computing everywhere

Key Points

• Capability of computing everywhere
• Ubiquitous computing, also known as pervasive computing, refers to the concept where computing is made to appear everywhere and in everything.
• It means embedding microprocessors in everyday objects so they can communicate information.
• This concept envisions a world where computing devices are seamlessly integrated into the environment, providing constant access and connectivity.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Ubiquitous Computing
• Context-awareness
• Systems can adapt based on the context or environment they operate in.
• Example: Smart home devices that adjust settings based on the time of day.
• Embeddedness
• Computational capabilities are embedded into everyday objects.
• Example: Wearable fitness trackers.
• Interconnectivity
• Devices can communicate and share information with each other.
• Example: Internet of Things (IoT) devices.
• Applications of Ubiquitous Computing
• Healthcare
• Remote monitoring of patients using wearable devices.
• Smart Homes
• Automated control of home systems like lighting and heating.
• Transportation
• Intelligent traffic management systems.

Given:

The mean of x₁, x₂, x₃, ... x_n is X̅.

We need to find the mean of the transformed values:

(ax₁, ax₂, ax₃, ..., ax_n) and (x₁/a, x₂/a, x₃/a, ..., x_n/a).

Formula used:

The mean of a set of values {x₁, x₂, ..., x_n} is:

X̅ = (x₁ + x₂ + ... + x_n) / n

For a transformation involving multiplication by a constant a and division by a:

Calculation:

Mean of {ax₁, ax₂, ..., ax_n}:

⇒ (ax₁ + ax₂ + ... + ax_n) / n

⇒ a (x₁ + x₂ + ... + x_n) / n

⇒ aX̅

Mean of {x₁/a, x₂/a, ..., x_n/a}:

⇒ (x₁/a + x₂/a + ... + x_n/a) / n

⇒ (1/a) (x₁ + x₂ + ... + x_n) / n

⇒ (1/a) X̅

∴ The mean of the given transformed values is (a + 1/a)X̅.

The correct answer is - (D), (A), (E), (B), (C)

Key Points

• Committee on Differentiation of Curricula for Boys and Girls
• Established in 1953 to address gender-specific curriculum differentiation in education.
• National Commission on Teachers
• Formed in 1983 to evaluate and improve teacher education and conditions.
• National Policy on Education
• Introduced in 1986 to promote educational reforms and standardize educational policies in India.
• Acharya Ramamurti Committee
• Established in 1990 to review the National Policy on Education 1986 and propose modifications.
• Yashpal Committee - Learning without Burden
• Formed in 1993 to address the issue of curriculum overload and suggest measures to make learning less burdensome.

Additional Information

• National Policy on Education 1986
• Focused on removing disparities and equalizing educational opportunities, especially for Indian women, Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Scheduled Castes (SC).
• Introduced Operation Blackboard to improve primary schools nationwide.
• Yashpal Committee Recommendations
• Emphasized the reduction of curricular load on students.
• Promoted the concept of making learning a joyful experience rather than a burdensome task.
• Acharya Ramamurti Committee
• Suggested decentralization of educational management and emphasized vocationalization of education to make it job-oriented.

The correct answer is - 14.1 GB

Key Points

• Video Storage Calculation
• Each 1-minute video takes up 10 MB.
• There are 60 minutes in an hour and 24 hours in a day.
• Total Minutes per Day
• Total minutes in a day = 24 hours/day * 60 minutes/hour = 1440 minutes/day.
• Total Storage per Day
• Total storage required = 1440 minutes/day * 10 MB/minute = 14400 MB/day.
• Conversion to Gigabytes
• 1 GB = 1024 MB.
• Total storage required in GB = 14400 MB / 1024 MB/GB = 14.0625 GB.
• Rounded to three significant figures, the required storage capacity is 14.1 GB.

Additional Information

• Data Storage Units
• 1 Kilobyte (KB) = 1024 bytes
• 1 Megabyte (MB) = 1024 KB
• 1 Gigabyte (GB) = 1024 MB
• 1 Terabyte (TB) = 1024 GB
• Importance of Backup
• Regular backups ensure data security and availability in case of system failures.
• For security purposes, video surveillance data is crucial and needs to be backed up daily.

The correct answer is - (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Key Points

• Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂)
• It is a major component of industrial smog.
• Produced by burning fossil fuels like coal and oil.
• Particulate Matters
• These are tiny particles or droplets in the air.
• Can include dust, dirt, soot, and smoke.
• Fly Ash
• A byproduct of coal combustion in power plants.
• Contains heavy metals and can contribute to air pollution.
• Soot
• Consists of fine black particles, primarily composed of carbon.
• Generated from incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.

Additional Information

• Formation of Industrial Smog
• Occurs mainly in industrial areas where there is a high concentration of pollutants.
• Involves chemical reactions between primary pollutants (like SO₂) and secondary pollutants.
• Health Impacts
• Can cause respiratory issues such as asthma and bronchitis.
• Long-term exposure may lead to cardiovascular diseases.
• Environmental Impacts
• Leads to acid rain, which can harm ecosystems and water bodies.
• Contributes to the degradation of buildings and infrastructure.

The correct answer is - Pragabhava

Key Points

• Pragabhava
• In Advaita Vedanta, Pragabhava refers to the non-existence of the effect in its material cause before the effect comes into being.
• This concept is crucial in understanding the transformation of the cause into the effect in Advaitic philosophy.
• For example, a pot (effect) does not exist in the clay (material cause) before the potter shapes it.

Additional Information

• Anyonyabhāva
• Anyonyabhāva refers to the mutual non-existence of two entities.
• For example, a cloth is not a pot, and a pot is not a cloth.
• This type of non-existence shows the distinct and separate nature of two entities.
• Atyantabhava
• Atyantabhava denotes absolute non-existence or the complete absence of an entity.
• It is used to describe something that never existed and will never exist.
• For instance, the horn of a hare is an example of atyantabhava.
• Pradhvamsabhava
• Pradhvamsabhava refers to the destruction or cessation of an entity after it has come into existence.
• It indicates the non-existence of an effect after its destruction.
• For example, the non-existence of a pot after it is broken is pradhvamsabhava.

The correct answer is - (D), (B), (A), (C)

Key Points

• (D) The web browser finds the IP address of Amazon's website using DNS
• The first step is to translate the domain name (e.g., www.amazon.com) into an IP address.
• This is done using the Domain Name System (DNS).
• (B) The web browser establishes a TCP connection with the Amazon's web server
• Once the IP address is known, the browser establishes a TCP connection with the server.
• This connection is necessary for reliable communication.
• (A) The web browser requests a webpage using HTTP
• After the TCP connection is established, the browser sends an HTTP request to the server for the desired webpage.
• (C) The web server sends the requested webpage using HTTP
• The server processes the request and sends back the requested webpage using HTTP.

Additional Information

• DNS (Domain Name System)
• DNS servers translate human-readable domain names into IP addresses.
• It acts as a phonebook for the Internet.
• TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
• TCP is a core protocol of the Internet Protocol Suite.
• It provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data between applications.
• HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
• HTTP is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.
• It defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and how web servers and browsers should respond to various commands.
• Web Browsers
• Web browsers are software applications used to access information on the World Wide Web.
• Common browsers include Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, and Microsoft Edge.

The correct answer is - (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

Key Points

• (A)-(I)
• If 'E' (Universal Negative) is False, then 'O' (Particular Negative) is Undetermined.
• (B)-(IV)
• If 'O' (Particular Negative) is True, then 'E' (Universal Negative) is Undetermined.
• (C)-(II)
• If 'I' (Particular Affirmative) is False, then 'E' (Universal Negative) is True.
• (D)-(III)
• If 'A' (Universal Affirmative) is True, then 'E' (Universal Negative) is False.

Additional Information

• Square of Opposition
• It is a diagram representing different ways in which each of the four propositions of classical categorical logic can be logically related to each other.
• The four types of categorical propositions are:
• 'A': Universal Affirmative (All S are P)
• 'E': Universal Negative (No S are P)
• 'I': Particular Affirmative (Some S are P)
• 'O': Particular Negative (Some S are not P)
• Contradictory Relationship
• In the square of opposition, propositions 'A' and 'O' are contradictory, as are 'E' and 'I'.
• If one is true, the other must be false, and vice versa.
• Contrary Relationship
• Propositions 'A' and 'E' are contraries. They cannot both be true, but they can both be false.
• Subcontrary Relationship
• Propositions 'I' and 'O' are subcontraries. They cannot both be false, but they can both be true.
• Subalternation
• 'A' implies 'I' and 'E' implies 'O'. If the universal is true, the particular is true. If the particular is false, the universal is false.

The correct answer is - (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Key Points

• Learner diversity
• Requires culturally responsive teaching strategies to address the varied cultural, linguistic, and learning needs of students.
• Poor classroom ventilation
• Negatively affects concentration levels of students due to the discomfort caused by poor air quality and temperature regulation.
• Digital inequality
• Worsens the digital divide by creating disparities in access to digital resources and technologies among students.
• Teacher's reluctance to innovate
• Hinders utilization of instructional facilities for teachers, leading to outdated teaching methods and lack of engagement.

Additional Information

• Culturally responsive teaching
• Involves recognizing the cultural backgrounds of students and incorporating their experiences into the curriculum.
• Enhances student engagement and learning outcomes.
• Classroom ventilation
• Good ventilation is crucial for maintaining a healthy learning environment.
• Improves air quality, reduces the spread of airborne diseases, and enhances student concentration.
• Digital divide
• Refers to the gap between those who have easy access to the internet and digital technologies and those who do not.
• Impacts educational opportunities and outcomes.
• Instructional innovation
• Involves the adoption of new teaching methods and technologies to improve learning.
• Encourages active learning and student engagement.

The correct answer is - (B) and (D) Only

Key Points

• (B) Althea is a two years old. So, Althea probably goes to college.
• This is a fallacy because it is highly unlikely and irrelevant to assume that a two-year-old child goes to college.
• It demonstrates an irrelevant conclusion based on unrelated premises.
• (D) Marty is a high-school senior. So, Marty likely has a Ph.D.
• This statement is also a fallacy because it is highly improbable and irrelevant to assume that a high-school senior already has a Ph.D.
• It shows an irrelevant conclusion by jumping to an unreasonable conclusion from the given premise.

Additional Information

• Fallacies of Relevance
• These fallacies occur when the premises offered in support of a conclusion are not relevant to the truth of the conclusion.
• Examples include:
• Ad hominem: Attacking the person instead of the argument.
• Appeal to emotion: Using emotions to persuade rather than logical reasoning.
• Red herring: Introducing an irrelevant topic to divert attention from the original issue.
• Identifying Fallacies
• It's essential to critically analyze the relevance and logical connection between premises and conclusions.
• Practice recognizing common fallacies in everyday arguments to enhance analytical skills.

The correct answer is - Rashtriya Indian Military College

Key Points

• Rashtriya Indian Military College
• It is a military school in India for boys aged 11.5 to 18 years.
• It provides military training and prepares students for entry into the Indian Armed Forces.
• It is not categorized as an institution of higher education.
• Institutions of Higher Education
• These are institutions that offer undergraduate and postgraduate programs.
• They include universities, colleges, and institutes of technology.
• Examples: Ferguson College, National Institute of Technology, Indian School of Mines.

Additional Information

• Ferguson College
• Located in Pune, Maharashtra.
• Offers undergraduate and postgraduate programs in arts, science, and commerce.
• National Institute of Technology (NIT)
• Group of premier public engineering colleges in India.
• Offers undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs in engineering and technology.
• Indian School of Mines (ISM)
• Located in Dhanbad, Jharkhand.
• Renamed as Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Dhanbad.
• Offers programs in engineering, applied sciences, and management.

The correct answer is - Samyak Darshan, Samyak Gyan, Samyak Charitra

Key Points

• Samyak Darshan
• Refers to right belief or right vision.
• It involves having the correct perspective towards the nature of reality and truth.
• Samyak Gyan
• Refers to right knowledge.
• It is the true understanding of the various substances and their modifications.
• Samyak Charitra
• Refers to right conduct.
• It involves practicing ethical and moral behavior in accordance with Jain principles.

Additional Information

• Moksha
• The ultimate goal in Jainism, which is the liberation of the soul from the cycle of birth and death.
• Achieved by following the three ratna (triratna): Samyak Darshan, Samyak Gyan, and Samyak Charitra.
• Jain Philosophy
• Emphasizes non-violence (ahimsa), non-attachment (aparigraha), and many-sidedness (anekantavada).
• These principles are reflected in the practice of the three ratna to achieve spiritual purity and liberation.

Given:

Two pipes: 12 hrs (full pool)

Large 4 hrs + Small 9 hrs: 1/2 pool

Calculations:

Half pool filled by both in 6 hrs (12/2)

Let half pool be 1 unit of work.

4L + 9S = 1 (half pool)

L + S = 1/6 (half pool)

L = 1/6 - S

4(1/6 - S) + 9S = 1

2/3 - 4S + 9S = 1

5S = 1/3

S = 1/15 (small pipe for half pool)

L = 1/6 - 1/15 = 3/30 = 1/10 (large pipe for half pool)

Large pipe to fill half pool: 1 / (1/10) = 10 hrs

Large pipe to fill full pool: 10 × 2 = 20 hrs

∴ Large pipe: 20 hrs

Given:

Series I: 6, 24, x, 720, 5040

Series II: 432, 250, 128, y, 16

We need to find the values of x and y and verify the given statements.

Calculation:

Finding x:

Observing the factorial pattern:

6 = 3!

24 = 4!

x = 5! = 120

720 = 6!

5040 = 7!

Finding y:

The given series follows the following pattern

2 × 63 = 432

2 × 53 = 250

2 × 43 = 128

2 × 33 = 54 = y

2 × 23 = 16

Verifying the Statements:

(A) The sum of x and y is 164

⇒ 120 + 54 = 174  (False)

(B) x exceeds the double of y by 12

⇒ 120 = (2 × 54) + 12

⇒ 120 = 120 (True)

(C) Both x and y are exactly divisible by 6

⇒ 120 % 6 = 0, 54 % 6 = 0  (True)

(D) Either x or y is a perfect square

⇒ 120 is not a perfect square

⇒ 54 is not a perfect square  (False)

∴ The correct statement are (B) and (C) Only​.

The correct answer is option 4) (A), (B) and (D) Only.

Key Points

WAV vs MP3 Format:

• WAV (Waveform Audio File Format) is an uncompressed, lossless audio format developed by Microsoft and IBM. It preserves all the original audio data, making it ideal for professional recordings and editing.
• MP3 (MPEG-1 Audio Layer III) is a compressed, lossy format, meaning it reduces file size by discarding some audio data, which may lead to slight loss in quality.

Benefits of using WAV over MP3:

• (A) The size of the audio file is larger – ✅ WAV files are significantly larger because they are uncompressed.
• (B) The audio quality is better – ✅ WAV offers higher fidelity due to lossless compression, making it superior for professional use.
• (C) There are no cross-platform issues – ❌ While WAV is widely supported, it may not be as universally supported across all mobile and web platforms as MP3.
• (D) Audio file is uncompressed and lossless – ✅ This is the main feature of WAV format, making it ideal for editing and archival.

Therefore:

Correct statements: (A), (B), and (D)

Incorrect statement: (C) — MP3 has better cross-platform compatibility than WAV.

Hence, the correct answer is: option 4) (A), (B) and (D) Only.

The correct answer is - Epistemological

Key Points

• Epistemological
• Relates to the nature and scope of knowledge.
• Concerns the questions of what is or should be regarded as acceptable knowledge in a discipline.
• Includes discussions on the methods, validity, and scope of knowledge.
• Addresses how knowledge is acquired and the extent to which knowledge pertinent to any given subject or entity can be acquired.

Additional Information

• Ontological
• Relates to the nature of being and existence.
• Concerns the fundamental categories of being and their relations.
• Positivist
• Emphasizes empirical data and observable phenomena.
• Rejects metaphysical and theological considerations.
• Realism
• Asserts that entities exist independently of being perceived or thought.
• Opposes idealism and nominalism.

The correct answer is - (A) and (C) Only

Key Points

• (A) A null hypothesis assumes that no relationship between variables or different groups exists.
• The null hypothesis is a statement that there is no effect or no difference, and it serves as the starting point for statistical testing.
• (C) A hypothesis must be acceptable or falsifiable.
• For a hypothesis to be scientifically valid, it must be possible to test it empirically and potentially prove it false (falsifiability).

Additional Information

• Alternative Hypothesis
• The alternative hypothesis proposes that there is a statistically significant effect or relationship between variables.
• It is the opposite of the null hypothesis and is what researchers typically aim to support.
• Testing Hypotheses
• Statistical tests are used to determine whether the evidence in a sample of data supports the null hypothesis or the alternative hypothesis.
• If the null hypothesis is rejected, it suggests that there is evidence to support the alternative hypothesis.
• False Statements
• (B) An alternative hypothesis does not assume no relationship; it assumes that there is a relationship or effect.
• (D) The null hypothesis is not always true; it is a testable assumption that can be accepted or rejected based on statistical evidence.

The correct answer is - Highest dose at which no toxic effect occurs

Key Points

• Threshold dose
• The threshold dose is the highest dose at which no toxic effect occurs.
• It is important to differentiate it from the lowest dose at which no toxic effect occurs, which is often referred to as the no observed adverse effect level (NOAEL).
• Understanding the threshold dose helps in determining safe exposure levels for chemicals and substances.

Additional Information

• Related Concepts in Toxicology
• NOAEL (No Observed Adverse Effect Level)
• This is the highest dose at which there are no observed adverse effects in exposed subjects.
• NOAEL is used in risk assessment to set exposure limits for humans.
• LOAEL (Lowest Observed Adverse Effect Level)
• This is the lowest dose at which adverse effects are observed in exposed subjects.
• LOAEL helps in understanding the dose-response relationship and is also used in risk assessments.
• Lethal Dose (LD50)
• The dose which is lethal to 50% of the exposed population.
• It is a common measure used to assess the toxicity of a substance.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Stories that combine horror fiction with real-life details'.

Key Points

• The passage describes urban legends as scary when they combine horror fiction with details of real life.
• ULs feature elements like lurking criminals, threatening maniacs, vague unknown dangers, faulty products, and isolated victims, which are all set in the context of everyday life.
• These stories are told with local details, making them seem more plausible.
• ULs are narrated in a way that suggests the events happened to someone close to the storyteller (a friend of a friend, or a FOAF).
• Although ULs are fictional, they are convincing and create the impression that they could potentially be true.
• This combination of realistic elements with horror fiction makes ULs particularly compelling and scary.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Fictional horror stories set in a fantasy world are not what the passage describes as ULs.
• Option 2: While ULs involve the narration of horror incidents, the key aspect is their combination with real-life details.
• Option 4: ULs do not necessarily involve supernatural elements; they are more focused on realistic, everyday contexts.

The correct answer is 'Isolated victims in everyday settings'.

Key Points

• The passage explains that a typical theme in urban legends (ULs) includes isolated victims.
• Urban legends set these incidents in the context of everyday life, making them relatable and scarier.
• ULs feature elements like lurking criminals and threatening maniacs, which imply the presence of isolated victims.
• These stories include everyday settings which enhance the realism and relatability.
• Victims in ULs are often portrayed as being under threat from common, realistic dangers.
• The use of local details and an air of conviction in storytelling makes these scenarios believable.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Extra terrestrial beings are not mentioned as a typical theme in ULs in the passage.
• Option 3: Magical powers are irrelevant to the described themes of ULs.
• Option 4: Heroic rescues are not highlighted as a common theme in ULs within the passage.

The correct answer is 'They mix horror fiction with relatable, everyday scenarios'.

Key Points

• The passage explains that urban legends (ULs) are scary because they combine horror fiction with the details of real life.
• ULs feature shocks like lurking criminals, threatening maniacs, and vague unknown dangers which are set in the context of everyday life.
• These stories are told with local details and related with an air of conviction, making them believable.
• The realistic elements and the familiar settings make the stories more relatable and hence scarier.
• Although ULs are fictional, they create the impression that they could potentially be true because of their realistic aspects.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The passage does not emphasize supernatural elements as a reason for ULs being scary.
• Option 3: ULs are not typically set in remote, unknown locations; they are set in everyday settings.
• Option 4: ULs are not confined to being told only during Halloween; the passage does not support this statement.

The correct answer is 'They are make-believe'.

Key Points

• The passage explains that certain fictional stories, such as a Halloween spook house, a haunted corn maze, or a slasher movie, give you a shiver but are not truly frightening because they are acknowledged fictions or make-believe.
• These types of stories are understood by the audience to be imaginary and not based on real events.
• The passage contrasts these kinds of fictional stories with urban legends, which are more frightening because they combine horror fiction with realistic, everyday details.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The passage does not state that fictional stories based on true events are less frightening.
• Option 3: The passage does not mention that fictional stories involving many unknown places are less frightening.
• Option 4: The passage contrasts make-believe fictional stories with urban legends that involve realistic, relatable dangers, indicating that make-believe is the key reason they are less frightening.

The correct answer is 'Friend of a friend'.

Key Points

• The passage explains that urban legends are often shared as stories that happened to someone the storyteller knows indirectly.
• The term "friend of a friend" (FOAF) indicates a close acquaintance rather than a direct personal experience.
• Using FOAF gives the story a level of credibility and relatability, making it more believable.
• The local details and the air of conviction when sharing these stories contribute to their realistic feel.
• The passage explicitly mentions FOAF to describe how urban legends are typically told and spread.
• This creates the illusion that the story could actually happen, enhancing the fear factor of urban legends.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Fictional occurrence and facts" is not mentioned or implied in the passage.
• Option 3: "Fear of all friends" is not relevant to the context provided.
• Option 4: "Fictional over actual facts" does not fit the explanation of FOAF given in the passage.