SSC GD Constable Previous Year Paper (Held on: 29th November 2021 Shift 1)

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, 'option 4' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is​

Hence, 'NIODER' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'VE' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is

(8, 112, 49) →

(√49 × 2) × 8 = (7 × 2) × 8 = 14 × 8 = 112

Option (1): (15, 85, 25)

(√25 × 2) × 15 = (5 × 2) × 15 = 10 × 15 = 150 ≠ 85

Option (2): (16, 117, 81)

(√81 × 2) × 16 = (9 × 2) × 16 = 18 × 16 = 288 ≠ 117

Option (3): (12, 48, 64)

(√64 × 2) × 12 = (8 × 2) × 12 = 16 × 12 = 192 ≠ 48

Option (4): (7, 154, 121)

(√121 × 2) × 7 = (11 × 2) × 7 = 22 × 7 = 154

Therefore (7, 154, 121) follows the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at 'AB' is shown below: 

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

• Entomology : Insect → Entomology is the study of insects.

Similarly,

• Ichthyology : ? → Ichthyology is the branch of zoology devoted to the study of fish.

Hence, 'Fish' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

6 × 1 + 2 = 6 + 2 = 8

8 × 2 + 4 = 16 + 4 = 20

20 × 3 + 6 = 60 + 6 = 66

66 × 4 + 8 = 264 + 8 = 272

Hence, '272' is the correct answer.

Five friends, Shruti, Shreya, Anup, Ankit and Kiran, are sitting in a row facing towards the south.

1. Kiran and Shreya are sitting at the extreme ends of the west and east, respectively.

2. Shruti is between Shreya and Anup.

Clearly, Ankit the only person left will occupy the vacant position.

Anup is sitting in the middle.

Hence, 'Anup' is the correct answer.

Faces opposite to each other is shown below:

Clearly, letter U will be on the face opposite to the face having the letter Q.

Hence, 'U' is the correct answer.

The correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary is:

2. Deliberate
3. Delicacy
4. Delicious
5. Delinquent
6. Delirium

Hence, '2, 5, 1, 3, 4' is the correct answer.

Given sequence: _ a d f b _ d f b a _ f b a d _

1. a b f d → a a d f - b b d f - b a f f - b a d d
2. b a d f → b a d f - b a d f - b a d f - b a d f
3. d f b a → d a d f - b f d f - b a b f - b a d a
4. b a f d → b a d f - b a d f - b a f f - b a d d

• In option 2, badf is being repeated.

Hence, 'b a d f' is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

I. No flower is a herb. → Do not follow (As, there is no definite relation between flower and herb. Hence, false)

II. Some flowers are herbs. →  Do not follow (As, there is no definite relation between flower and herb. Hence, false)

Conclusion I and II are complementary statements. 

Therefore, either I or II follows.

Hence, Either conclusion I or II follows.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'LORPREFI' is the correct answer.

The paper when unfolded will appear as shown below:

Hence, 'option 3' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

 

Similarly,

Hence, '7-9-20-1' is the correct answer.

Given equation: 165 $ 11 # 15 & 4 @ 6

After replacing the symbols by their meaning, we get:

165 ÷ 11 × 15 - 4 + 6

= 15 × 15 - 4 + 6

= 225 - 4 + 6

= 231 - 4

= 227

Hence, '227' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, 'ZSV' is the correct answer.

Option that will complete the series is shown below:

1) 

Hence, 'option 1' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, '137' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. JMO → J + 3 = M; M + 2 = O
2. SVY → S + 3 = V; V + 3 = Y
3. RUW → R + 3 = U; U + 2 = W
4. NQS → N + 3 = Q; Q + 2 = S

Hence, 'SVY' is the correct answer.

In a class of 75 students.

19 students do not participate in any of the two sports.

• Students who participate in any of the two sports or both the sports = 75 - 19 = 56

12 students participate in both Cricket and Hockey.

40 students participate in Cricket.

• Students who participate only in Cricket = 40 - 12 = 28

28 students participate in Hockey

• Students who participate only in Hockey = 28 - 12 = 16

Clearly, 16 students participate only in Hockey.

Hence, '16' is the correct answer.

Nine students, Ajay, Gita, Navya, Vipin, Pinki, Kabir, Mohan, Saroj and Rani, are standing in a row from left to right according to decreasing order of their heights.

1. Ajay is standing at the middle position.
2. Mohan and Kabir are at the third position from the left and right side, respectively. 3. Navya is standing to the immediate left of Ajay. 4. Rani is standing between Ajay and Kabir.  5. Pinki is at the eighth position from the right .

6. Vipin is the tallest among all nine students. 

7. Gita is at either of the ends of the row.

Saroj, the only person left will occupy the vacant position.

As they are standing in a row from left to right according to decreasing order of their heights. Clearly, Saroj is in the second position from the right.

Hence, 'Saroj' is the correct answer.

The number which represents the words of English and Persian that are included in Hindi words is shown below:

Hence, '13' is the correct answer.

Logic: Sum of the digits of 1st number = 2nd number

The logic followed here is:

• 154 : 10 → 1 + 5 + 4 = 10

Similarly,

• 261 : ? → 2 + 6 + 1 = 9

Hence, '9' is the correct answer.

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

Clearly, Kapil is the maternal uncle of Neha.

Hence, ‘Maternal uncle’ is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Guru Hargobind.

Key Points

• Guru Hargobind
• He became a guru at the age of 11 after the death of his father Guru Arjan Dev
• Guru Hargobind is credited with developing a strong Sikh army. This brought him into direct conflict with the Mughals.
• It is believed that Guru Hargobind carried two swords at his succession ceremony.
• He was an adept swordsman, wrestler and rider as he had been imparted training in military warfare and martial arts.
• He constructed the Akal Takht, the highest seat temporal seat of the Sikhs. Spiritual and temporal matters related to the Sikh community are resolved at Akal Takht.
• Besides building an army, he founded congregational prayers to promote Sikhism.
• He sent his followers to various places across India to spread the word of Guru Nanak, the first Guru of Sikhs.

Additional Information

1. Guru Nanak- He was the founder of Sikhism as well as the first Sikh Guru.  He started the practice of "Langer".
2. Guru Angad- He also developed the Gurumukhi script.
3. Guru Amar Das- Composed the Anand Sahib, introduced the simple Anand Karaj marriage and abolished Sati among the Sikhs.
4. Guru Ram Das- He laid the foundation of the holy city of Amritsar and initiated the construction of the Golden Temple.
5. Guru Arjan Dev- Compiled the Adi Granth and constructed the Golden Temple.
6. Guru Hargobind- Created the Sikh martial art called Gatka. Built the Akal Takhat.
7. Guru Har Rai- He was known as the "tender-Hearted Guru".
8. Guru Har Kishan- Youngest Sikh Guru, installed at the age of 5.
9. Guru Teg Bahadur- Refused to convert to Islam and was beheaded by Aurangzeb.
10. Guru Gobind Singh- He was the last Sikh Guru. He established the military force of "Khalsa".

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

• While calculating the GDP of India at factor cost, Central Statistical Office assesses the performance of 8 different industries.
• Gross Domestic Product or GDP is a measure of the size of the economy, and the total economic activity in a country.
• It is the most important indicator of how a country is doing financially for several reasons.
• GDP is a very comprehensive indicator of economic health.
• There are three different ways of calculating GDP but they all lead to the same result.
• First, we can measure the value of goods and services produced in an economy.
• Second, we can measure the income received from producing goods and services.
• Third, we can measure how much is spent on goods and services.
• GDP is the internationally acknowledged indicator of how much a country is producing in a given year.

Additional Information

• Central Statistical Office 
• The Central Statistics Office coordinates the statistical activities in the country and evolves statistical standards.
• It is headed by a Director General assisted by 5 Additional Director Generals.
• CSO is responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in India, and for evolving and maintaining statistical standards.
• The CSO is located in Delhi.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• As of December 2020, India is the only country to win the 60-Over, 50-Over and 20-Over World Cup in Men's Cricket.
• India is the only country to win all three types of Cricket World Cups - 60 overs, 50 overs and 20 overs.
• On June 25, 1983, Kapil Dev-led India defeated two-time defending champions Windies to become the second country to win a 60-over World Cup.
• MS Dhoni later led India to 20-over (2007) and 50-over (2011) World Cup triumphs.
• This means India is the only side in the world who have won World Cups in 60-over, 50-over and 20-over tournaments.
• This is something even the mighty Australians haven’t been able to achieve (all their ODI WCs have come in the 50-over format and they are yet to win the World T20I).

Important Points

• The 2022 ICC Women's Cricket World Cup was the twelfth edition of the Women's Cricket World Cup.
• It was held in New Zealand in March and April 2022.
• It was originally scheduled for 6 February to 7 March 2021 but was postponed by one year due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• It is organized from 4 Mar 2022 – 3 Apr 2022.
• New Zealand qualified automatically as hosts.
• Australia was the first team to qualify for the semi-finals after they won their first five matches of the tournament.
• The 2022 ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup was held in the West Indies in January and February 2022 with sixteen teams taking part.
• It was the fourteenth edition of the Under-19 Cricket World Cup, and the first that was held in the West Indies.
• England became the first team to reach the final of the tournament after they beat Afghanistan by 15 runs in the first Super League semi-final match.
• It was the first time that England had reached the final of the Under-19 Cricket World cup since winning the 1998 tournament in South Africa.
• In the second semi-final, India beat Australia by 96 runs.

The correct answer is Jaipur.

In News

• Jaipur is inscribed on the World Heritage list of UNESCO.
• Jaipur has become the second city in the country after Ahmedabad to get recognition from UNESCO.
• With Jaipur's inclusion as a cultural site, the number of heritage sites across India on the UNESCO World Heritage list has grown to 40, including 32 cultural properties, 8 natural properties and 1 mixed site.
• The walled city of Jaipur in Rajasthan was founded in 1727 AD by Sawai Jai Singh II.
• It also serves as the capital city of the state of Rajasthan.
• The city's urban planning shows an exchange of ideas from ancient Hindu and modern Mughal as well as Western cultures.
• Designed to be a commercial capital, the city has maintained its local commercial, artisanal and cooperative traditions to this day.
• The iconic monuments in the city include the Govind Dev temple, City Palace, Jantar Mantar, Hawa Mahal etc.

Additional Information

• UNESCO
• UNESCO is the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
• The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) was born on 16 November 1945.
• UNESCO has 195 Members and 8 Associate Members and is governed by the General Conference and the Executive Board.
• The Secretariat, headed by the Director-General, implements the decisions of these two bodies.
• The Organization has more than 50 field offices around the world and its headquarters are located in Paris.
• It seeks to build peace through international cooperation in education, sciences and culture.
• UNESCO's programmes contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals defined in the 2030 Agenda, adopted by the UN General Assembly in 2015.
• UNESCO uses education, science and culture to inform, inspire and engage people everywhere to foster understanding and respect for each other and our planet.

The correct answer is the 21st century.

Key Points​

• In Agenda 21 of Earth Summit 1992, what does 21 refer to 21st century?
• Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by organizations of the United Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every area in which human impacts the environment.
• Agenda 21, the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, and the Statement of principles for the Sustainable Management of Forests were adopted by more than 178 Governments at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, 3 to 14 June 1992.
• The Commission on Sustainable Development (CSD) was created in December 1992 to ensure effective follow-up of UNCED and to monitor and report on the implementation of the agreements at the local, national, regional and international levels.
• It was agreed that a five-year review of Earth Summit progress would be made in 1997 by the United Nations General Assembly meeting in a special session.
• The full implementation of Agenda 21, the Programme for Further Implementation of Agenda 21 and the Commitments to the Rio principles, were strongly reaffirmed at the World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD) held in Johannesburg, South Africa from 26 August to 4 September 2002.

The correct answer is Faizpur.

Key Points

• The Fiftieth (50th) Session of the Indian National Congress was held on 27 and 28 December 1936 at Faizpur, located in Jalgaon District of Bombay Presidency (Maharashtra).
• It was, here, for the first time that Congress held its Annual Session in a backward rural area.
• A large number of peasants participated in the session.
• The Faizpur Session was important for the Congress which had been raising demands for the welfare of the peasants and struggling for them.
• The Faizpur Session was also important because it was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru who was at his peak of influence in the Congress.
• Pandit Nehru said during his presidential address, 'A vaster and more pressing problem is that of the peasantry, for India is essentially a land of the peasants. In recognition of this fact, and to bring the Congress nearer to the peasant masses, we are meeting here today at the village of Faizpur and not, as of old, in some great city.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Waterways.

Key Points

• In November 2020, the Ministry of Shipping was renamed as the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.​
• Union Minister of State (I/C) for Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Chemicals & Fertilizers Shri Mansukh Mandaviya unveiled the plaque of Ministry’s new nomenclature today in New Delhi.
• Ministry of Shipping is renamed as the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (Pattan, Pot Parivahan aur Jalmarg Mantralaya).
• Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi announced the renaming of Ministry of Shipping while addressing, through video-conferencing, the inaugural ceremony of Ro-Pax ferry service between Hazira and Ghogha in Gujarat on 8 November 2020.

Additional Information

• The list of important ports in India is given below:​​

The correct answer is Charles Dickens.

Key Points

• Charles Dickens  is the author of the novel 'Oliver Twist'.
• Charles Dickens’s (1812-1870) second novel, originally published in serial parts 1837-39, and as a three volume edition in 1838.
• Dickens was deeply disturbed by the harsh Poor Law Amendment Act of 1834.
• Subtitled 'The Parish Boy’s Progress', Oliver Twist conveys concerns about the impact of poverty and the flaws of the workhouse system.
• Oliver, an orphan, spends his early years in grim institutions.
• After causing consternation by requesting more food, he is apprenticed to an undertaker, but absconds and becomes part of a pickpocket gang, controlled by the manipulative Fagin.
• One of the author’s motives was to counter the sensational and glamorous depiction of criminals in ‘Newgate’ fiction, a popular genre of the 1830s.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Jalandhar.

Key Points

• As per Swachh Survekshan 2020, which of the following is the cleanest cantonment is Jalandhar.
• Swachh Survekshan 2020 is the fifth edition of the annual cleanliness urban survey conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), Government of India.
• Swachh Survekshan 2020 surveyed a total of 4242 cities, 62 Cantonment Boards and 97 Ganga Towns and saw an unprecedented participation of 1.87 crore citizens.
• Indore Creates Record by Winning Title of Cleanest City Fourth Time in A Row.
• Surat And Navi Mumbai Secure Second and Third Position Respectively.
• Chhattisgarh Declared Cleanest State in >100 ULB Category
• Jharkhand Declared Cleanest State in < 100 ULB Category
• State SS 2020 Survey Report Released Along With Reports On Innovations And Best Practices And Report On Assessment Of Ganga Towns.
• 4,324 Urban Ulbs Declared Odf So Far.
• 1,319 Cities Certified ODF+ and 489 Cities Certified ODF++ More than 66 Lakhs Individual Household Toilets And Over 6 Lakhs Community/ Public Toilets Constructed.
• Cities Of Indore, Ambikapur, Navi Mumbai, Surat, Rajkot And Mysuru Rated As 5-Star Cities, 86 Cities As 3-Star And 64 Cities As 1-Star.

In News

• Swachh Survekshan 2022
• The Survekshan participated by 4,355 cities, also saw an unprecedented number of citizens’ feedback – over 9 crores, compared to 5 cores last year.
• In all, 22 States and 5 UTs received awards, of whom 8 States received more than 10 awards each.
• 8 States and 5 UTs have shown improvements ranging between 5 – 25% in their overall ground level performance over last year.
• Of them, 4 out the 8 North Eastern states have shown significant improvement in the overall performance over the last year.
• Moreover, 10 Cantonment Boards (against 7 CBs last year) and 2 Ganga towns received awards.
• A heartening feature of the awards was that smaller cities with population of less than 25,000 have performed admirably in the survey, with 40 of them receiving awards.
• Cleanest states
• More than 100 Urban Local Bodies - Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra
• Less than 100 Urban Local Bodies - Tripura, Jharkhand, Uttarakhand
• Cleanest cities
• More than 1 lakh population’ category- Indore, Surat, Navi Mumbai
• Less than 1 lakh population category -  Panchgani, Patan, Karad

The correct answer is Calcium. 

Key Points

• Calcium has the highest atomic weight among all others.
• Calcium with atomic number 20 is represented in the periodic table with the symbol Ca.
• It has an atomic weight of 40 g mol-1.
• Calcium (Ca) is a vital element that aids our bones stay tough and is capable of supporting our load.
• Calcium is also used by our nervous system to help transmit impulses through our bodies.
• The element is the fifth most abundant metal in the planet’s crust (4.1%).
• It has a solid state at normal temperature.

Additional Information

• Magnesium
• It has a symbol of Mg
• Atomic Number of Magnesium 12
• The Atomic Mass of magnesium is 24.305.
• Chlorine
• It has a symbol of Cl.
• Atomic Number of Chlorine 17.
• Atomic Mass of Chlorine 35.45.
• Sulphur
• It has the Symbol of S.
• It has atomic Number 16.
• It has an atomic Mass of 32.06.

The correct answer is Bharatmala.

Key Points

• The Golden Quadrilateral that connects the four major cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata is part of the Bharatmala project.
• The principal routes of the Indian Railways on the Golden Quadrilateral and diagonals are:
• Delhi - Mumbai, Delhi - Howrah, Howrah - Chennai, Chennai - Mumbai, Delhi - Chennai, and Howrah - Mumbai)
• ​Carrying about 58% of freight traffic and 52% of coaching traffic.
• India has about 62.16 lakh kilometres of the road network, which is the second largest in the world in terms of length.
• It was important to redefine road development and have a macro approach while planning an expansion of the national highways network.

Additional Information

• Bharatmala Project
• Bharatmala focuses on enhanced effectiveness of already built infrastructure, multi-modal integration, bridging infrastructure gaps for seamless movement and integrating National and Economic Corridors.
• There are six key features of the programme:

1. Economic Corridors: Integrating the economic corridors facilitates larger connectedness between economically important production and consumption centres.
2. Inter-corridor and Feeder routes: This would ensure first-mile and last-mile connectivity.
3. National Corridor Efficiency Improvement: Through this, the greater actionable goal is to undertake lane expansion and decongestion of existing National Corridors.
4. Border and International connectivity roads: Better border road infrastructure would ensure greater manoeuvrability, while also boosting trade with neighbouring countries.
5. Coastal and Port connectivity roads: Port-led economic development is further boosted through connectivity to coastal areas, encouraging both tourism and industrial development.
6. Green-field Expressways: Expressways have higher traffic configuration and choke points would benefit from green-field expressways.

• Sagarmala Project
• The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Shipping to promote port-led development in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.
• The main vision of the Sagarmala Programme is to reduce logistics costs for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment.
• Sagarmala Programme was approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2015 and a National Perspective Plan was prepared by the Ministry of Shipping which was released on 14th April 2016.

The correct answer is Article 45.

Key Points

• Article 45 of the Constitution of India contains the provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years.
• It contains the provision for free and compulsory education for children.
• The State shall endeavour to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of this Constitution, for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
• 86th Amendment Act of 2002: It changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21.

Additional Information 

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Warli painting is a style of tribal art created by the people of the Warli Tribe of Maharashtra.
• Warli painting is a form of tribal art mostly created by the tribal people from the North Sahyadri Range in Maharashtra, India.
• This range encompasses towns such as Dahanu, Talasari, Jawhar, Palghar, Mokhada, and Vikramgad  of Palghar district.
• This tribal art originated in Maharashtra, where it is still practiced today.
• The Warli Painting tradition in Maharashtra are among the finest examples of the folk style of paintings.
• The Warli tribe is one of the largest in India, located outside of Mumbai.
• The Warli culture is centered on the concept of Mother Nature and elements of nature are often focal points depicted in Warli painting.
• Farming is their main way of life and a large source of food for the tribe.
• They greatly respect nature and wildlife for the resources that they provide for life.
• Warli artists use their clay huts as the backdrop for their paintings, similar to how ancient people used cave walls as their canvases.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

• The Constituent Assembly of India adopts the National Anthem in 1950.
• Jana Gana Mana" was officially adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the Indian national anthem on 24 January 1950.
• Only the first stanza is adopted as National Anthem.
• The first version of the ‘Jana Gana Mana was sung in a convention of the Indian National Congress in 1911 at Calcutta.
• In 1942, ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was performed (not sung) for the first time in Hamburg.
• The official version of the National Anthem of India should take 52 seconds by law, and not 54 seconds.
• In 2015, Rajasthan Governor has demanded to replace the word ‘Adhinayaka’ with the word ‘Mangal’, constructing his contention in light of the myth Tagore himself smashed in 1939 it.
• Subhas Chandra Bose had authorized a free translation of the National Anthem of India from Sanskritized Bengali to a well-known form in Hindustani.
• Captain Abid Ali of the Indian National Army (INA) had shaped the version called the ‘Subh Sukh chain’.

Additional Information

• The Constituent Assembly of India
• The idea of a constituent assembly was first proposed in 1934 by M.N. Roy.
• However, the actual constituent assembly was formed in 1946 on the basis of the cabinet mission plan.
• The demand was taken up by the Congress Party in 1935 as an official demand.
• The British accepted this in the August Offer of 1940.
• Under the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946, elections were held for the formation of the constituent assembly.
• The members of this assembly were elected indirectly, i.e., by the members of the provincial assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote of proportional representation.
• The constituent assembly was formed for the purpose of writing a constitution for independent India.

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

• Dhaulagiri is a peak in Nepal Himalaya.
• Dhaulagiri, the seventh-highest mountain in the world, is situated in Nepal and forms part of the Dhaulagiri mountain range.
• Its name is derived from Sanskrit, where it means ‘white beautiful mountain’.
• First ascended in 1960, the mountain has since been climbed successfully hundreds of times.
• Dhaulagiri is the highest mountain located entirely in Nepal.
• Dhaulagiri stands over the great Kali Gandaki Valley, which by some measures is the deepest gorge on earth, as it is flanked by two 8000m (26,250ft) peaks (Dhaulagiri I & Annapurna I).

The correct answer is Nadia.

Key Points

• Chaitanya, also known as Sri Gauranga, was a famous Vaishnava saint and reformer from Nadia.
• The Vedic spiritual master Chaitanya Mahaprabhu is regarded by his followers as an avatar of Lord Krishna.
• He lived in the 15th century.
• Gaudiya Vaishnavism, a religious movement that encourages the veneration of Lord Vishnu as the Supreme Soul, was founded by Chaitanya.
• The practice of Bhakti yoga is encouraged by Gaudiya Vaishnavism as a means of realizing the ultimate truth.
• The "Maha Mantra" or "Hare Krishna Mantra" is credited with gaining popularity thanks to Chaitanya Mahaprabhu.
• He is also well-known for writing the eight-verse Sanskrit prayer called "Siksastakam."

Additional Information

• Bhakti Movement of India 
• The monotheistic foundation of the Bhakti movement led to widespread criticism of idolatry.
• The Bhakti reformers believed in freedom from the cycle of life and death and preached that salvation could be attained only by deep devotion and faith in God.
• They emphasised the importance of self-surrender for obtaining the bliss and grace of God and also valued the importance of Gurus who acted as guides and preceptors. They preached the principle of universal brotherhood.
• They disapproved of rituals, journeys, and fasts.
• They were adamantly opposed to the caste system, which separated people based on where they were born.
• Additionally, they emphasized the importance of singing hymns with sincere devotion, and they wrote poems in everyday language without regard for any particular language's sacredness.
• Saguna bhakti was primarily promoted by Tulsidas, Chaitanya, Surdas, and Meera.

The correct answer is Grihastha.

Key Points

• According to the 'Chaturashrama' of the Vedic period, Grihastha is related to the period of family life.
• Ashramas are the stages of life which provide training and an environment for realising the ideal of our life.
• There are four ashramas in all:

1. Brahmacharya (Student life)
2. Garhasthya (Family life)
3. Vanaprastha (Retired life)
4. Sannyasa (Life of renunciation).

• The first two provide the train­ing and environment for the Pravrtti Marg and the last two for the Nivrtti Marg of development.
• Each stage has its own specific duties (Vishesha Dharmas).
• Grihastha's period of life covers an active period of ef­fective membership in society and covers 25 years of life after the first 25 years of education.

Additional Information

• ​Early Vedic Period:
• It started in 1500 BC and ends in 1000 BC.
• The caste system was flexible and based on profession rather than birth.
• There was no concept of Shudra or untouchables.
• Women were allowed a greater degree of freedom in this period. They are allowed to participate in the political process of the time to a certain extent.
• Kingship was fluid as the kings were elected for a fixed period by the local assembly known as Samiti.
• Rigveda: This text is cited as the earliest text from this period.
• Later Vedic Period:
• It started in 1000 BC and ends in 600 BC.
• The caste system became more rigid in this period in this period with birth being the main criterion.
• Shudras became a mainstay in the Later Vedic Period. Their sole function was to serve those of the upper castes.
• Women were restricted from their participation in society by being relegated to subordinate and docile roles.
• As society became more urbanized during this Period, the need for stable leadership was realized. Thus the absolute rule of the kings became more and more prominent.
• Yajurveda, Samaveda, and Atharvaveda: This text is cited as the later text from this period.

The correct answer is AR Rahman.

Key Points 

• AR Rahman was roped in as ambassador of the BAFTA Breakthrough initiative in India in November 2020.
• This association with Rahman marks the continued development of creative relationships between the UK and India.
• Eabling and supporting collaboration between the two nations and showcasing the incredible talent India has to offer across different regions on a global scale.
• As part of BAFTA Breakthrough India, a jury of British and Indian industry experts will select five talents from across India to take part in the year-long mentoring and guidance program.

Additional Information

• BAFTA 2022:
• Hosted by actor-comic Rebel Wilson, the award ceremony took place on 13 March 2022 at the Royal Albert Hall, London.
• Lata Mangeshkar was featured in the 'In Memoriam' segment at the 2022 edition of the British Academy of Film and Television Awards (BAFTA).
• The Power of the Dog won the Best Film.
• Jane Campion won the Best Director.
• Joanna Scanlan won Leading Actress for 'After Love'.
• Will Smith won the Leading Actor for 'King Richard'.
• Belfast won the Outstanding British Film.
• 'Drive My Car' won in the Film Not In The English Language category.
• Summer of Soul won the Best Documentary.
• Encanto won the Best Animated Film.
• The Black Cop won the Best British Short Film.
• Paul Thomas Anderson won in the Original Screenplay category for 'Licorice Pizza'.

The correct answer is black.

Key Points

• The five colours of the rings in the symbol of the Olympic Games are red, blue, green, yellow and black.
• The Olympic symbol – widely known throughout the world as the Olympic rings – is the visual ambassador of Olympism for billions of people.
• Based on a design first created by Pierre de Coubertin, the Olympic rings remain a global representation of the Olympic Movement and its activity
• The Olympic symbol consists of five interlaced rings of equal dimensions (the Olympic rings), used alone, in one or in five different colours.
• When used in its five-colour version, these colours shall be, from left to right, blue, yellow, black, green and red.
• The rings are interlaced from left to right; the blue, black and red rings are situated at the top, and the yellow and green rings at the bottom in accordance with the following graphic reproduction.
• “The Olympic symbol expresses the activity of the Olympic Movement and represents the union of the five continents and the meeting of athletes from throughout the world at the Olympic Games.
• The Olympic rings were publicly presented for the first time in 1913.
• In the centre of a white background, five rings interlaced: blue, yellow, black, green and red.
• Blue, yellow, black, green, and red are the order of the colour of the Olympic logo rings.
• It represents five continents: Asia, Africa, America, Australia, and Europe.
• The Olympic Charter once ascribed a ring colour to each continent:
• Blue for Europe
• Yellow for Asia
• Black for Africa
• Green for Oceania (or Australia)
• Red for America.

The correct answer is K.

Key Points

• The chemical symbol of potassium is K.
• Potassium is a chemical element with the symbol K and atomic number 19.
• Classified as an alkali metal, potassium is a solid at room temperature.
• The term potassium arises from a material called Potash.
• The element has been in use for hundreds of years.
• It is an alkali metal along with lithium, rubidium, sodium, caesium, and francium.
• It is a very active metal and never occurs free in nature and it always forms a compound with other elements.
• Potassium usually has three isotopes, it goes by the name of potassium-39, 40 and 41.
• The potassium-40 is highly radioactive and can be found in rocks, plants, and animals.
• It is used to measure the age of objects.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 50 - 125 cm.

Key Points

• The minimum amount of rainfall needed for groundnut cultivation during its growing season 50 - 125 cm.
• Groundnut is a significant oilseed, ideal for cultivation in tropic regions of the country.
• Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), is a species in the legume or "bean" family.
• It is considered to be local in South America.
• These are known by many other local names such as earthnuts, ground nuts, goober peas, monkey nuts, pygmy nuts and peanuts.
• Despite its name and appearance, the peanut is not a nut, but rather a legume.
• Groundnut is the third most important oilseed of world.
• In India, it is available throughout the year.
• It is important source of protein grown mostly under rain-fed conditions.
• In India, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are major groundnut growing states.
• Groundnut is raised in a sandy loam as well as well drained sandy clay loam soil.
• Deep well- drained soil with pH of 6.5 -7 as well as having great fertility are perfect for groundnut cultivation.
• Sow the rainfed crop with the advent of monsoon in the last week of June or in the Ist week of July.
• Groundnut–Late Kharif Fodder/Gobhi sarson+Toria /Potato/Peas/Toria/Rabi crops rotation can be taken up successfully where irrigation facilities exist.
• Avoid sowing groundnut in the same field year after year, as this practice results in heavy build- up of soil-borne diseases.

The correct answer is Sania Mirza.

Key Points

• Sania Mirza is not a professional badminton player.
• Sania Mirza is an Indian professional tennis player.
• A former doubles world No. 1, she has won six Grand Slam titles in her career.
• From 2003 until her retirement from singles in 2013, she was ranked by the Women’s Tennis Association as India’s No. 1 player.
• She is one of the two Indian female tennis players to win a WTA title.
• She was named one of the “50 Heroes of Asia” by Time in October 2005.
• She won 6 ITF singles titles in 2004.
• She became the first Indian woman to reach the fourth round of a Grand Slam tournament at the US Open.

Additional Information

• Saina Nehwal
• Saina Nehwal, an Indian badminton player, was born on 17 March 1990 in Hisar District, Haryana.
• In 2006, She created history by winning the prestigious Asian Satellite Badminton tournament twice, becoming the first player to do so.
• In 2006, She became the first Indian woman and youngest player of Asia to win the Philippines Open.
• In 2008, She became the first Indian to win World Junior Badminton Championship.
• In June 2009, she became the first Indian to win a BWF Super Series title.
• She has already been accredited by the Padma Bhushan.
• Apart from this, she has also bagged the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna and Arjuna Award.
• Srikanth Kidambi
• Kidambi Srikanth is one of the finest badminton players India has produced; having reached the No.1 one spot in the world rankings
• He is the first Indian man to win a silver medal at the world championships.
• Kidambi reached the final of the men’s singles at the 2021 badminton world championships and is also the only Indian to win the men's title in a Super Series Premier event on the BWF Tour.
• Born on February 7, 1993, at Ravulapalem in Andhra Pradesh, Srikanth Kidambi started playing badminton in 2001 at Guntur after watching his elder brother.
• PV Sindhu
• Pusarla Venkata Sindhu is a sporting icon of the 21st century and a shining beacon for sportswomen in India.
• The shuttler has risen to the top of the world in the last decade, winning dozens of titles across the globe.
• PV Sindhu’s consistency at the highest level can somewhat be attributed to the sporting genes she inherited from her parents.
• Born July 5, 1995, in Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh to parents who were both volleyball players at the national level, sport already coursed through PV Sindhu’s veins since she was born.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• Mount Adi Kailash is located in the state of Uttarakhand.
• Situated at a fairly impressive altitude of 6,310 metres, Adi Kailash also referred to as Chota Kailash or Little Kailash is in one or the other way a replica of Mount Kailash in Tibet.
• It is situated in the Indian Territory in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand within proximity to the Indo-Tibetan border.
• In the quietude of the tranquil Kumaon Himalayas, Adi Kailash is a popular pilgrimage of Hindu devotees.
• One can catch a glimpse of the emerald Parvati lake and the Gauri Kund adorned on the very foot of Chota Kailash.

 

Additional Information

• One that is most ardently followed by devotees from all across the globe is the mighty Mount Kailash which consists of the Om Parvat.
• It is at an elevation of 6,191m.
• This peak is recognized by varied names such as the Jonglingkong, Baba Kailash, Adi Kailash and also the Chota Kailash.
• The ancient peak Om Parvat is situated In the Himalayan Mountain Range that is located in western Nepal’s Darchula District.
• It is clipped on the border of India and Nepal.
• The massively fascinating impression of Om Parvat is that it is witnessed as the one being formed naturally as soon as the deposition of the snow commences with the backdrop of the mountain that is black in colour.
• Om Parvat is situated nearby Nabhi Dhang camp (Nepal) and this majestic peak does not fall in our Kailash Yatra route.
• Its route in Uttarakhand is Kedarnath-Kakbhusand

The correct answer is Sialkot.

Key Points

• Sialkot city in Pakistan is the world’s leading manufacturer of hand-sewn footballs.
• Sialkot, a city located in Punjab province in eastern Pakistan, produces seventy per cent of hand-stitched football.
• This Pakistani city produces more than 70% of all footballs in the world Football was India's second-largest export commodity until 2011.
• Pakistan then started manufacturing stitchless balls that were bonded together using heat.
• They are more resilient and hold their shape better.
• Some 40 million balls are made here every year.
• In recent times, manufacturers have faced more scrutiny as consumers pay closer attention to the conditions under which their kits and footballs are made.

Additional Information

• IVC Sites located in Pakistan:
• Mohenjo Daro, or "Mound of the Dead" is an ancient Indus Valley Civilization city that flourished between 2600 and 1900 BCE.
• The site was discovered in the 1920s and lies in Pakistan's Sindh province.
• Harappa is an archaeological site in Punjab, Pakistan, about 24 km (15 mi) west of Sahiwal.
• The site takes its name from a modern village located near the former course of the Ravi River which now runs 8 km (5.0 mi) to the north.
• Chanhudaro is an archaeological site belonging to the Indus Valley Civilization.
• The site is located 130 kilometers south of Mohenjo-Daro, in Sindh, Pakistan.
• The settlement was inhabited between 4000 and 1700 BCE and is considered to have been a center for manufacturing carnelian beads.
• Kot Diji, an archaeological site located near an ancient flood channel of the Indus River in Pakistan, 15 miles (25 km) south of the city of Khairpur in Sindh province.

The correct answer is Louise Glück.

Key Points 

• The Poet Louise Gluck won the Nobel Prize in 2020 in the field of Literature.
• She won the award for "her unmistakable poetic voice that with austere beauty makes individual existence universal”.
• Louise Gluck is the 16th woman to win the Nobel Prize.
• She also won the Pulitzer Prize and the National Book Award.

Important Points 

• 82-year-old French writer Annie Ernaux has been awarded the Nobel Prize in literature for the year 2022.
• The author was awarded for the courage and clinical acuity with which she uncovers the roots, estrangements and collective restraints of personal memory.
• Her literary work maintains close links with sociology.

Additional Information

• List of all Nobel Prize winners for 2022
• Physics: Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, Anton Zeilinger
• Chemistry: Carolyn Bertozzi, Morten Meldal, Barry Sharpless
• Medicine: Svante Pääbo
• Literature: Annie Ernaux
• Peace: Ales Bialiatski, Memorial and Center for Civil Liberties
• Economics: Ben Bernanke, Douglas Diamond, Philip Dybvig

Shortcut Trick

Speed of Train = 1200 ÷ 15 = 80 kmph.

Speed of Bus = 80 × (5/4) = 100 kmph.

Speed of Car = 100 × (6/5) = 120 kmph.

Distance covered by Car = 120 × 7 = 840 km.

∴ The correct answer is 840 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance of Train = 1200 km, Time = 15 hours.

Speed of Bus = 1(1/4) × Speed of Train = 5/4 × Speed of Train.

Speed of Car = 1(1/5) × Speed of Bus = 6/5 × Speed of Bus.

Calculations:

⇒ Speed of Train = Distance ÷ Time = 1200 ÷ 15 = 80 kmph.

⇒ Speed of Bus = 80 × (5/4) = 100 kmph.

⇒ Speed of Car = 100 × (6/5) = 120 kmph.

⇒ Distance covered by Car = Speed of Car × Time = 120 × 7

⇒ Distance = 840 km.

∴ The correct answer is 840 km.

Additional Information

Speed-Distance Formula

Basic relationship: Distance = Speed × Time. To find speed, use Speed = Distance ÷ Time.

Unit Conversion

To convert kmph to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to kmph, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. If opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Given:

$\frac{43+\frac{2}{7}\ of\ 28-7}{(72\div8\times2.5)-1\frac{1}{8}\ of\ \left(\frac{4}{3}-\frac{8}{9}\right)}$

Concept used:

Calculation:

$\frac{43+\frac{2}{7}\ of\ 28-7}{(72\div8\times2.5)-1\frac{1}{8}\ of\ \left(\frac{4}{3}-\frac{8}{9}\right)}$

⇒ $\frac{43+ 8 -7}{(72\div8\times2.5)-1\frac{1}{8}\ of\ \left(\frac{4}{3}-\frac{8}{9}\right)}$

⇒ $\frac{43+ 8 -7}{(9\times2.5)-1\frac{1}{8}\ of\ \left({12 - 8 \over 9}\right)}$

⇒ $\frac{43+ 8 -7}{(9\times2.5)-{9 \over 8} of {4 \over 9}}$

⇒ $\frac{43+ 8 -7}{(9\times2.5)-{1 \over 2}}$

⇒ $\frac{43+ 8 -7}{22.5-0.5}$

⇒ $\frac{44} {22}$ = 2

∴ The simplified value is 2.

Shortcut Trick

In Simple Interest, the interest earned remains constant every year.

Total interest for 5 years = 35% of the Principal.

Rate of interest per annum = Total Interest % ÷ Total Time.

Rate = 35% ÷ 5 = 7%.

∴ The correct answer is 7%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time (T) = 5 years

Simple Interest (SI) = 35% of Principal (P) = 0.35P

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ 0.35P = (P × R × 5) ÷ 100

⇒ 35P / 100 = (5 × P × R) ÷ 100

⇒ 35 = 5 × R

⇒ R = 35 ÷ 5

⇒ R = 7%

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

∴ The correct answer is 7%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Concept

Interest is calculated only on the initial Principal amount. The formula is SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Total Amount Formula

The total amount (A) after T years is the sum of Principal and Interest: A = P + SI = P(1 + RT/100).

Effective Interest Rate

The total percentage increase over the period is simply (R × T)%. In this case, 7% × 5 = 35%.

Given:

Ram bought a chair at a 35% discount on its market price.

Had Ram got no discount, he would have had to pay ₹245 more.

Concept used:

Selling price = Marked Price - Marked Price × Discount%

Selling price = Marked price - Discount

Calculation:

Let the market price of the chair be M.

Discount = M × 35% = 0.35M

According to the question, 

0.35M = 245

⇒ M = 245/0.35

⇒ 700

Now, Ram paid for the chair = 700 - 245

⇒ Rs. 455

∴ Ram paid Rs. 455 for the chair.

Given:

The simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is half of the compound interest on a sum of ₹5,000 for 2 years at 10% per annum.

Concept used:

Simple Interest, SI = (P × R × T)/100

Amount = P + SI

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

T = Time in years

In case of the compound interest,

Amount = P(1 + R/100)^N

CI = P(1 + R/100)^N - P

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

N = Time in years

Calculation:

Let the principal sum placed on simple interest be P.

Simple interest incurred = (P × 10 × 2)/100 = 0.2P

Compound interest incurred

⇒ 5000(1 + 10/100)² - 5000

⇒ 1.21 × 5000 - 5000

⇒ 0.21 × 5000 = Rs. 1050

According to the question,

0.2P = 1050/2

⇒ 0.2P = 525

⇒ P = 525/0.2

⇒ P = 2625

∴ The sum placed on simple interest is Rs. 2625.

Given:

Given range = 1 to 40

Unit's digit = 1 or 9

Calculation:

Numbers that have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit in the range of 1 to 40

⇒ 1, 9, 11, 19, 21, 29, 31, 39

So, 8 numbers that have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit in the range of 1 to 40.

Numbers in between 1 and 40 = 40

Now, % = ${8 \over 40} \times 100\%$ = 20%

∴ 20.00 percent of numbers from 1 to 40 have 1 to 9 in the unit's digit.

Shortcut Trick

Total volume of cuboid = 4 × 5 × 6 = 120 cm³.

A cuboid has exactly 8 corners.

Volume of 8 cubes removed = 8 × (1³) = 8 cm³.

Remaining volume = 120 − 8 = 112 cm³.

∴ The correct answer is 112 cm³.

Alternate Method

Given: Dimensions of cuboid (L=4 cm, B=5 cm, H=6 cm) and side of small cubes (a=1 cm).

Formula Used: Volume of cuboid = L × B × H; Volume of cube = a³.

⇒ Total Volume = 4 × 5 × 6 = 120 cm³

⇒ Number of corners in a cuboid = 8

⇒ Volume of one small cube = 1 × 1 × 1 = 1 cm³

⇒ Total Volume removed = 8 × 1 = 8 cm³

⇒ Remaining Volume = 120 − 8 = 112 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 112 cm³.

Additional Information

Properties of a Cuboid

A cuboid has 6 faces, 12 edges, and 8 vertices (corners). The Total Surface Area is 2(lb + bh + hl).

Volume Calculation

The Volume of any prism (including cuboids) is the Area of Base × Height.

Corner Removal Property

When small cubes are removed from the corners of a larger cuboid, the Volume decreases by the total volume of small cubes, but the Surface Area remains unchanged.

Given:

The volume of a cube is 175616 cm3

Concept used:

Volume of a cube = Side³

Calculation:

By Prime Factorization Method,

175616 = 2⁹ × 7³

Now, the measure of each side of the cube = ∛175616

⇒ ∛29 × 73

⇒ 2³ × 7

⇒ 8 × 7 = 56 cm

∴ The measure of each side of the cube is 56 cm.

Given:

Three numbers A, B and C are in the ratio 4 ∶ 5 ∶ 8, If each number is increased by 15%, 24% and 35%.

Calculation:

Let the numbers be 4p, 5p, and 8p respectively.

Now, the new ratio of the numbers will be

⇒ 4p + 4p × 15% : 5p + 5p × 24% : 8p + 8p × 35%

⇒ 4p + 0.6p : 5p + 1.2p : 8p + 2.8p

⇒ 4.6p : 6.2p : 10.8p

⇒ 46 : 62 : 108

⇒ 23 : 31 : 54

∴ The new ratio of the numbers will be 23 : 31 : 54.

Given:

A shopkeeper bought 6 pieces of TV sets at ₹21,000 each and sold all of them at a total of ₹1,45,920.

Concept used:

Profit% = ${Profit \over Cost\ Price} \times 100\%$

Calculation:

Total cost price of 6 pieces of TV sets at ₹21,000 = 6 × 21000 = ₹1,26,000

Profit made = 1,45,920 - 1,26,000 = ₹19,920

Now, total profit% = ${19920 \over 126000} \times 100\%$

⇒ 15.8095% ≈ 15.81%

∴ His total profit percentage was 15.81%.

Given:

₹12,800 is invested in a bank for 5 years at the rate of 9% per annum simple interest. 

Concept used:

Simple Interest, SI = (P × R × T)/100

Amount = P + SI

where

P = Principal amount

R = Rate of interest per year

T = Time in years

Calculation:

The amount becomes after 5 years

⇒ 12800 + (12800 × 5 × 9)/100

⇒ 12800 + 5760

⇒ Rs. 18,560

∴ The amount returned by the bank is Rs. 18,560.

Given:

The smallest number which when divided by 6, 8 and 10 leaves remainders 4, 6 and 8, respectively

Concept used:

LCM is the smallest common multiple of two or more numbers.

Calculation:

LCM (6, 8, 10) = 120

The smallest number divided by 6, 8, and 10 = 120

So we get,

⇒ 6 - 4 = 2

⇒ 8 - 6 = 2

⇒ 10 - 8 = 2

Now, the required number = 120 - 2 = 118

∴ 118 is the smallest number which when divided by 6, 8 and 10 leaves the remaining 4, 6 and 8, respectively.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in percentage = 40% − 25% = 15%

Difference in marks = 28 − (−32) = 60 marks

15% of total marks → 60 marks

1% of total marks → 4 marks

Required 72% marks = 72 × 4 = 288

∴ The correct answer is 288.

Alternate Method

Given:

Candidate 1: 25% score, fails by 32 marks.

Candidate 2: 40% score, 28 marks more than passing.

Formula Used:

Pass Marks = (Score% × Maximum Marks) + Marks needed to pass

Pass Marks = (Score% × Maximum Marks) − Extra marks over passing

Calculations:

⇒ Let Maximum Marks be M.

⇒ Passing Marks = 25% of M + 32

⇒ Passing Marks = 40% of M − 28

⇒ 40% of M − 25% of M = 32 + 28

⇒ 15% of M = 60

⇒ M = (60 ÷ 15) × 100

⇒ M = 4 × 100 = 400

⇒ Marks scored at 72% = 72% of 400

⇒ Marks = 0.72 × 400 = 288

Checking the result against the options, we identify that the value corresponds to Option (3).

∴ The correct answer is 288.

Additional Information

Passing Percentage Calculation

Passing Percentage = (Passing Marks ÷ Maximum Marks) × 100. In this case, Passing Marks = (0.25 × 400) + 32 = 132. Passing % = (132 ÷ 400) × 100 = 33%.

Percentage Difference Principle

When one score is below and another is above a reference point, the total numerical difference is the sum of their individual deviations from that point.

Base Value Formula

Maximum Marks = (Difference in Marks ÷ Difference in Percentage) × 100.

Given:

A and B together can complete a certain work in 20 days, B and C together can complete it in 30 days and C and A together can complete it in 24 days.

Concept used:

Total work = Efficiency (Work done per hour) × Total time taken

Calculation:

LCM (20, 30, 24) = 120

Let the total work be the LCM of the time taken by different workers.

So, total work = 120 units

Let the efficiencies of A, B, and C be represented by A, B, and C.

According to the question,

A + B = 120/20

⇒ A + B = 6      ....(1)

B + C = 120/30

⇒ B + C = 4      ....(2)

A + C = 120/24

⇒ A + C = 5      ....(3)

(1) + (2) + (3),

2(A + B + C) = 6 + 4 + 5

⇒ A + B + C = 7.5      ....(4)

(4) - (2),

A + B + C - B - C = 7.5 - 4

⇒ A = 3.5

Now, A alone will complete $\frac{7}{12}$ part of the same work in

⇒ ($\frac{7}{12}$ × 120)/3.5

⇒ 20 days

∴ A alone will complete $\frac{7}{12}$ part of the same work in 20 days.

Given:

A can complete a project in 10 days and B can complete the same project in 15 days.

A and B start working on the project together and A quit 5 days before the project is completed. 

Concept used:

Total work = Efficiency (Work done per hour) × Total time taken

Calculation:

LCM (10, 15) = 30

Let the total project be the LCM of the time taken by different workers.

So, total project = 30 units

A's efficiency = 30/10 = 3 unit per day

B's efficiency = 30/15 = 2 unit per day

Let in N days the project be completed.

According to the question,

3 × (N - 5) + 2 × N = 30

⇒ 3N - 15 + 2N = 30

⇒ 5N = 15 + 30

⇒ N = 45/5

⇒ N = 9

∴ The project is completed in 9 days.

Shortcut Trick

If x is the fourth proportional to a, b, and c, then x = (b × c) ÷ a.

Given values: a = 9, b = 21, and c = 123.

x = (21 × 123) ÷ 9

x = 2583 ÷ 9 = 287

∴ The correct answer is 287.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 9, 21, and 123.

Formula Used:

If x is the fourth proportional to a, b, and c, then a : b :: c : x.

Product of Extremes = Product of Means

Product of Extremes Product of Means

9 21 123 x

: :: :

x = (21 × 123) ÷ 9 = 287

Calculations:

Let the fourth proportional be x.

⇒ 9 : 21 :: 123 : x

⇒ 9 × x = 21 × 123

⇒ 9x = 2583

⇒ x = 2583 ÷ 9

⇒ x = 287

∴ The correct answer is 287.

Additional Information

Fourth Proportional

If four quantities a, b, c, and d are in proportion (a : b :: c : d), then d is the fourth proportional. Formula: d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Third Proportional

If three quantities a, b, and c are in continued proportion (a : b :: b : c), then c is the third proportional to a and b. Formula: c = b² ÷ a.

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is defined as the square root of their product. Formula: Mean proportional = √(a × b).

Given:

A man sold an almirah for ₹960 at a loss of 4%.

He then sold a folding bed for ₹840 at a profit of 20%.

Concept used:

Selling Price = Cost Price - Cost Price × Loss%

Selling Price = Cost Price + Cost Price × Gain%

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the almirah and folding bed be P and Q respectively.

According to the question,

P - P × 4% = 960

⇒ 0.96P = 960

⇒ N = 960/0.96

⇒ N = 1000

According to the question,

Q + Q × 20% = 840

⇒ 1.2Q = 840

⇒ Q = 840/1.2

⇒ Q = 700

Total cost price of two of these articles = 1000 + 700 = Rs. 1700

Total selling price of two of these articles = 960 + 840 = Rs. 1800

Now, his profit = 1800 - 1700 = Rs. 100

∴ His profit is Rs. 100.

Alternate MethodIn case of Almirah, we have

Loss% = 4% = 1/25

Ratio of C.P. to S.P. = 25 : 24

⇒ 24 unit = Rs. 960

⇒ 25 units = (960/24) × 25 = Rs. 1000

In case of folding bed, we have

Profit % = 20% = 1/5

Ratio of C.P. to S.P. = 5 : 6

⇒ 6 units = Rs. 840

⇒ 5 units = (840/6) × 5 = Rs. 700

Now, Total C.P. = Rs. 1000 + Rs. 700 = Rs. 1700

Total S.P. = Rs. 960 + Rs. 840 = Rs. 1800

Profit = 1800 - 1700 = Rs. 100

∴ His profit is Rs. 100.

Shortcut Trick Initial Selling Price (SP1) = 8,875 at 25% profit ⇒ 125% of Cost Price (CP). Using unitary method: 125% = 8,875 ⇒ 1% = 8,875 ÷ 125 = 71. Cost Price (CP) = 100% = 71 × 100 = 7,100. New Selling Price (SP2) = 6,937. Since SP2 < CP, it is a Loss. Loss% = (7,100 − 6,937) ÷ 7,100 × 100 = 163 ÷ 71 ≈ 2.2957%. ∴ The correct answer is Loss, 2.30%.

Alternate Method Given: SP1 = ₹8,875, Profit1 = 25%, SP2 = ₹6,937. Formulas: CP = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 + Profit%], Loss% = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100.

⇒ Step 1: Calculate CP = (8,875 × 100) ÷ (100 + 25) = 887,500 ÷ 125 = 7,100. ⇒ Step 2: Compare SP2 with CP. Since 6,937 < 7,100, there is a Loss. ⇒ Step 3: Loss Amount = 7,100 − 6,937 = 163. ⇒ Step 4: Loss% = (163 ÷ 7,100) × 100 = 163 ÷ 71 = 2.29577...%. ⇒ Step 5: Rounding to two decimal places, we get 2.30%. ∴ The correct answer is Loss, 2.30%.

Additional Information Profit and Loss Basics Profit occurs when Selling Price (SP) > Cost Price (CP), while Loss occurs when CP > SP. Both are always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise. Rounding Rules When the third decimal digit is 5 or greater, the second decimal digit is rounded up. Here, 2.295... becomes 2.30%.

Shortcut Trick

Value ratio = (Coin value × Number ratio)

Value ratio = (5 × 4) : (2 × 3) : (1 × 5) = 20 : 6 : 5

Total value units = 20 + 6 + 5 = 31 units

31 units = ₹310 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹10

Number of 5 rupee coins = 4 × 10 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40 coins.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount in bag = ₹310

Ratio of ₹5, ₹2, and ₹1 coins = 4 : 3 : 5

Calculations:

Let the number of coins be 4x, 3x, and 5x respectively.

⇒ (5 × 4x) + (2 × 3x) + (1 × 5x) = 310

⇒ 20x + 6x + 5x = 310

⇒ 31x = 310

⇒ x = 310 ÷ 31

⇒ x = 10

⇒ Number of 5 rupee coins = 4x = 4 × 10 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40 coins.

Additional Information

Coin Value Principle

The total value of coins of a specific denomination is calculated as: Total Value = Face Value × Number of Coins.

Ratio and Proportion

To find the value of a specific part in a ratio a:b:c when the total sum S is known, use the formula: Part A = [a / (a + b + c)] × S.

Unitary Method in Currency

When the ratio of coins is given, first convert it to the ratio of their monetary values by multiplying with the respective denominations before equating to the total sum.

Given:

5 ÷ 10 of 10 × 4 + 4 ÷ 4 of 4 × 10 + (10 - 4) ÷ 16 × 4

Concept used:

Calculation:

5 ÷ 10 of 10 × 4 + 4 ÷ 4 of 4 × 10 + (10 - 4) ÷ 16 × 4

⇒ 5 ÷ 100 × 4 + 4 ÷ 16 × 10 + 6 ÷ 16 × 4

⇒ 0.05 × 4 + 0.25 × 10 + 0.375 × 4

⇒ 0.2 + 2.5 + 1.5

⇒ 4.2

⇒ 42/10

⇒ $\frac{21}{5}$

∴ The value of 5 ÷ 10 of 10 × 4 + 4 ÷ 4 of 4 × 10 + (10 - 4) ÷ 16 × 4 is $\frac{21}{5}$.

Given:

14, 28, and 42

Concept used:

LCM is the smallest common multiple of two or more numbers.

Calculation:

14 = 2 × 7

28 = 2² × 7

42 = 2 × 3 × 7

LCM (14, 28, 42) = 2² × 3 × 7 = 84

Largest three-digit number = 999

Quotient when 999 is divided by 84 = 999/84 = 11

Now, The greatest three-digit number which is divisible by 14, 28, and 42 = 11 × 84

⇒ 924

∴ The greatest three-digit number which is divisible by 14, 28, and 42 is 924.

 Shortcut Trick

Option elimination method: Check the divisibility of 7. Since 3 digit no is divisible by 14, 28, and 42. So no will also be divisible by 7. Only 924 is divisible by 7.

Shortcut Trick

Total sum of 5 observations = Average × Count = 30 × 5 = 150.

Sum of constant values = 23 + 26 + 4 + 7 = 60.

Sum of variable terms = y + y + y = 3y.

Equating: 3y + 60 = 150 ⇒ 3y = 90 ⇒ y = 30.

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Alternate Method

Given:

Observations: 23, 26, y, y + 4, and y + 7

Total number of terms (n) = 5

Arithmetic Average = 30

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Average = (23 + 26 + y + (y + 4) + (y + 7)) ÷ 5

⇒ 30 = (23 + 26 + 4 + 7 + y + y + y) ÷ 5

⇒ 30 × 5 = 60 + 3y

⇒ 150 = 60 + 3y

⇒ 3y = 150 − 60

⇒ 3y = 90

⇒ y = 90 ÷ 3

⇒ y = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean

The average or arithmetic mean is calculated by taking the sum of observations and dividing it by the total count of those observations.

Sum of Observations

The total sum can always be found using the formula: Sum = Average × Number of items.

Linear Property of Averages

If a constant k is added to every observation in a set, the new average will be the old average + k.

Given:

A train is going at $\frac{1}{4}$ of its usual speed and it takes an extra 60 min to reach its destination.

Concept used:

60 minutes = 1 hour

Time × Speed = Distance

Calculation:

Let the usual speed of the train and distance be 4S km/h and D km.​

${1 \over 4}$ of its usual speed = 4S/4 = S km/h

Time to cover the distance = D/4S hours

According to the question,

D/S - D/4S = 1

⇒ (4 - 1)/4S = 1/D

⇒ 3/4S = 1/D

⇒ D/S = 4/3

⇒ D/4S = 4/(4 × 3) (Divided each side by 4)

⇒ D/4S = 1/3

So, 1/3 hours = 1/3 × 60

⇒ 20 minutes

∴ Its usual time to cover the same distance is 20 minutes.

Given:

The marked price of a fan is ₹1,780 and it is sold for ₹1,655.40.

Concept used:

Discount% = ${(Marked\ Price\ -\ Selling\ Price) \over Marked\ Price} \times 100\%$

Calculation:

Now, discount% = ${{1780 - 1655.40} \over 1780} \times 100\%$

⇒ ${{124.6} \over 1780} \times 100\%$ = 7%

∴ The percentage discount allowed is 7%.

Given:

The average weight of 30 girls in a group is 35 kg. 

When a new girl is included, the average weight increases by 2 kg. 

Concept used:

Total = Average × Number of entities

Calculation:

Total weight of 30 girls = 35 × 30 = 1050 kg

New average weight = 35 + 2 = 37 kg

Total number of girls now = 30 + 1 = 31

New total weight of 31 girls = 37 × 31 = 1147 kg

Now, the weight of the new girl = 1147 - 1050 = 97 kg

∴ The weight of the new girl is 97 kg.

The correct answer is 'advise'.

Key Points

• The marked option 'advise' means to tell someone what they should do.
• Advise is a verb and it also means to give (someone) a recommendation about what should be done.
• Example: It is advised to follow a strict routine to enhance productivity.
• Hence, from the given meaning of the marked option and its example, we are sure that it fits well in the given blank and explains the context of the sentence.
• The given sentence implies that the person is telling another person to do yoga daily for at least 10 minutes.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

**Correct Sentence :I would advise you to do yoga daily for at least 10 minutes.

The correct answer is 'encounter'.

Key Points

• We need to substitute the underlined word 'slaughter' which does not fit well in the given sentence as per the context of the sentence.
• Slaughter  means the act of killing and it does bring the same sense that the sentence conveys.
• Let us explore the given options :
• Encounter  to experience something (a danger, difficulty, etc.)
• Harbinger: a sign that shows that something is going to happen soon, often something bad
• Plunder:  to steal or remove something precious from something.
• Volunteer: a person who offers or agrees to do something without being forced or paid to do it
• From the given meanings of the given options, we are clear 'encounter' will substitute 'slaughter' in the given sentence.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'timid'.

Key Points

• The underlined word Outspoken means direct and open in speech or expression.
• But the word 'outspoken' is bringing contrast to the sense that the sentence conveys.
• The given sentence implies that Ravidas avoided all company and he used to be very reserved and was not outspoken.
• Therefore, from the given options, we have to choose the antonym of the underlined word 'outspoken'.
• The marked option 'timid' means shy and nervous; without much confidence; easily frightened.
• Therefore, from the above meaning, Timid and Outspoken are antonyms of each other and it conveys the exact sense of the given sentence and is the most appropriate option.
• Thus, the correct answer is 'option 2'.

The correct answer is 'festive'.

Key Points

• The given sentence implies that 'Retail sales of consumer goods and automobiles witnessed a sharp increase during the auspicious season.'
• From the given options, Festive fits well in the given blank.
• Festive means having or producing happy and enjoyable feelings suitable for a festival or other special occasion.
• Example:  In the festive season, one feels grateful for great deals on various products.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: Retail sales of consumer goods and automobiles witnessed a sharp spike during the festive season. 

Additional Information 

• Celebrated: famous.
• Concert: it means a performance of music.
• Sale: an act of exchanging something for money.

The correct answer is 'Garantee'.

Key Points 

• The erroneous spelling is 'Garantee'.
• The correct spelling of this erroneous word is 'Guarantee'.
• The meaning of the word 'Guarantee' is a firm promise that something will be done or that something will happen.
• Example: Money doesn't guarantee a happy life.
• From the given meaning and example, it is clear the marked option,'Garantee' is the erroneous spelling of Guarantee
• Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is 'Restrict'.

Key Points

• The given word 'confine' means to enclose within bounds; limit or restrict.
• Example: She did not confine herself to only one language.
• The marked option 'restrict' means to put a limit on somebody/something.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 2 as 'restrict' and confine both are synonyms of each other.

The correct answer is 'Embarass'.

Key Points

• The erroneous spelling is 'Embarass'.
• The correct spelling of this erroneous word is 'Embarrass'.
• The meaning of the word 'embarrass' is to cause someone to feel anxious, ashamed, or uncomfortable.
• Example: Talking negative things about someone behind their back is a very embarrassing act for me.
• From the given meaning and example, it is clear the marked option 'embarass' is the erroneous spelling of Embarrass.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'exciting'.

Key Points

• The given word 'dull' means lacking enthusiasm, boring, and not exciting.
• Example: Some topics from any subject are always so dull.
• The marked option 'exciting' means thrilling, interesting, and causing excitement.
• Therefore, from the above-given meaning of the marked option, we are clear that 'dull' and 'exciting' are antonyms of each other.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is “Chaos”.

Key Points

• Mayhem (संपूर्ण अराजकता) refers to a situation of great confusion, disorder, and violence.
• Chaos (अराजकता) means complete disorder and confusion, often involving violence and unpredictability.
• Both Mayhem and Chaos convey a sense of uncontrollable disorder and tumult.
• In many contexts, mayhem and chaos are used to describe similar scenarios involving disarray and lack of order.
• Example sentence for Mayhem: During the protest, the streets descended into mayhem as police clashed with demonstrators.
• Example sentence for Chaos: After the power outage, the office was thrown into chaos as employees scrambled to save their work.
• Hence, the option that is similar in meaning to the given word is 'Chaos’.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 1’.

Additional Information

• Let’s have a look at the meaning of the remaining options.
• Order (व्यवस्था): Order refers to a state of tidiness, organization, and control.
• Example sentence: The librarian arranged the books in perfect order, making it easy to find any title.
• Rebel (विद्रोही): A rebel is someone who resists or defies authority or control.
• Example sentence: The rebel group organized a protest against the new government policies.
• Plunder (लूट): To plunder means to rob or steal goods, typically using force and in a time of war or disorder.
• Example sentence: The invaders plundered the village, taking valuable items and causing destruction.

The correct answer is ' Draw'.

Key Points

• One word substitution for 'A game that no one wins' is Draw.
• It is also called a stalemate condition when neither party wins or losses in a game.
• Example : Pre quarter-final in the chess tournament ended in a draw.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.