SSC GD Constable (2022) Official Paper (Held On : 13 Feb 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

For find the opposite surface of '4', we need to compare the common surface in the given dices,

Now, Surface '4 and 6' is given in Dice 1 and Dice 3, 

So, From Dice 1 and Dice 3:

 

→ Surface '4 and 6' is the common surface and 1 and 5 is the opposite surface.

So, the remaining '5' will be the opposite face of '1'.

And, From Dice 2 and Dice 3:

Here, no common surfaces in Dice 2 and 3, so from clockwise/anticlockwise rotation,

The opposite surface will be:

1 ⇔ 5

2 ⇔ 6

3 ⇔ 4

So, '3' will be the opposite face of '4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'FEDB' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

'GUIDE' is written as 'KWMFI',

‘SLICE' is written as 'WNMEI’

Similarly, for 'FAITH'

So, 'FAITH' will be coded as 'JCMVL'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. P is sitting second to the right of Q.

2. S is an immediate neighbour of both Q and R.

3. T is an immediate neighbour of both P and R.

4) U is sitting third to the left of R.

Here, 'T' is the immediate neighbour of P and Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

'RESULT' is written as 'LUTERS',

‘BARLEY' is written as 'ELYABR’

Similarly, for 'HEAVEN'

So, 'HEAVEN' will be written as 'EVNEHA'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first word is the term related to the second word.

Here,

Mango : Fruit → Mango is a type of Fruit.

Similarly,

Rumba : Dance → Rumba is a type of Dance.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given equation: 81 + 3 ÷ 27 - 8 × 24 = 25

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) ÷ and +

Given: 81 + 3 ÷ 27 - 8 × 24 = 25

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 81 ÷ 3 + 27 - 8 × 24 = 25

⇒ 27 + 27 - 8 × 24 = 25

⇒ 27 + 27 - 192 = 25

⇒ 54 - 192 = 25

⇒ - 138 ≠ 25

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) + and -

Given: 81 + 3 ÷ 27 - 8 × 24 = 25

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 81 - 3 ÷ 27 + 8 × 24 = 25

⇒ 81 - 0.11 + 8 × 24 = 25

⇒ 81 - 0.11 + 192 = 25

⇒ 273 - 0.11 = 25

⇒ 272.89 ≠ 25

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) ÷ and ×

Given: 81 + 3 ÷ 27 - 8 × 24 = 25

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 81 + 3 × 27 - 8 ÷ 24 = 25

⇒ 81 + 3 × 27 - 0.33 = 25

⇒ 81 + 81 - 0.33 = 25

⇒ 162 - 0.33 = 25

⇒ 161.67 ≠ 25

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) × and +

Given: 81 + 3 ÷ 27 - 8 × 24 = 25

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ 81 × 3 ÷ 27 - 8 + 24 = 25

⇒ 9 - 8 + 24 = 25

⇒ 33 - 8 = 25

⇒ 25 = 25

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, '169' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: Eight girls P, Q, R, S, U, V, T and W are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.

1. V is sitting to the immediate left of Q and to the immediate right of U.

2. W is sitting third to the left of V and second to the right of P.

3. R is the immediate neighbour of P and Q.

4. T is sitting fourth to the left of R.

And, S will place of the remaining place.

Here, 'S' is sitting third to the left of U.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

So, '$\frac{1}{{155}}$' will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given equation: (9 ÷ 3 + 169 × 13) ÷ 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) × and - 

Given: (9 ÷ 3 + 169 × 13) ÷ 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ (9 ÷ 3 + 169 - 13) ÷ 5 × 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ (3 + 169 - 13) ÷ 5 × 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ (172 - 13) ÷ 5 × 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ 159 ÷ 5 × 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ 31.8 × 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ 318 + 16 = 206

⇒ 334 ≠ 206

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) ÷ and ×

Given: (9 ÷ 3 + 169 × 13) ÷ 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ (9 × 3 + 169 ÷ 13) × 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ (9 × 3 + 13) × 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ (27 + 13) × 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ 40 × 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ 200 - 10 + 16 = 206

⇒ 216 - 10 = 206

⇒ 206 = 206

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) + and -

Given: (9 ÷ 3 + 169 × 13) ÷ 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ (9 ÷ 3 - 169 × 13) ÷ 5 + 10 - 16 = 206

⇒ (3 - 169 × 13) ÷ 5 + 10 - 16 = 206

⇒ (3 - 2197) ÷ 5 + 10 - 16 = 206

⇒ - 2194 ÷ 5 + 10 - 16 = 206

⇒ - 438.8 + 10 - 16 = 206

⇒ - 454.8 + 10 = 206

⇒ - 444.8 ≠ 206

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) + and ×

Given: (9 ÷ 3 + 169 × 13) ÷ 5 - 10 + 16 = 206

After interchanging the signs we get;

⇒ (9 ÷ 3 × 169 + 13) ÷ 5 - 10 × 16 = 206

⇒ (3 × 169 + 13) ÷ 5 - 10 × 16 = 206

⇒ (507 + 13) ÷ 5 - 10 × 16 = 206

⇒ 520 ÷ 5 - 10 × 16 = 206

⇒ 104 - 10 × 16 = 206

⇒ 104 - 160 = 206

⇒ - 56 ≠ 206

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 3rd number) × 3 = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (12, 87, 17)

⇒ (12 + 17) × 3

⇒ 29 × 3 = 87.

For, (19, 117, 20)

⇒ (19 + 20) × 3

⇒ 39 × 3 = 117.

Similarly, for (13, 75, 12)

⇒ (13 + 12) × 3

⇒ 25 × 3 = 75.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, NEAR : PVZP

For, GONE : ILMC

Similarly, for TAXI : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct dictionary order for the give words are:

2. damage
3. danger
4. daring
5. dark
6. darling

So, the correct sequence is '2, 1, 3, 5, 4'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

All apples are fruits.

All fruits are vegetables.

Some vegetables are fresh.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All apples are fresh - False (Because, No definite relation given between apples and fresh, so only possibility can be true here).

II. Some fruits are fresh - False (Because, No definite relation given fruits apples and fresh, so only possibility can be true here).

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows..

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Figure 1 and 2: 2nd image is the water image of 1st image.

Similarly, 3 and 4: 4th image is the water image of 3rd image.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Given: 

In a family, there are 7 members.

X and Y are a married couple.

X is the father of L.

M is the wife of L.

C is the brother of L.

C has one son O.

P is the sister of O

So, C is 'Father' of P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'GKJL' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• Paika:
• Paika is a Sadani Nagpuri martial folk dance from the Jharkhand, Odisha and Chhattisgarh (Chhota Nagpur plateaus region).
• It also known as Painki and Paiki.
• Participants in the dance wear dhotis, which are turbans adorned with peacock feathers.
• They dance to the sounds of Nagara, Dhak, Shehnai, and Narsingh musical instruments while holding a sword in their right hand and a shield in their left.
• Paik served as foot soilders throughout the medieval period. It displays bravery and is carried out by guys.
• It is done at events like weddings.
• The main performers are Rautia, who were soldiers in Chotanagpur during the Nagvanshi dynasty. In the districts of Khunti and Mayurbhanj, some Munda tribe members also perform it.
• Other Dances of Jharkhand:
• Chhau
• Khadia
• Kadsa
• Nagpuri
• Birhor
• Mundari
• Santhali
• Hunta
• Karam
• Barao
• Jhenna Jhumur
• Domkach
• Ghoda Naach

Additional Information

• The folk dances of Maharastra, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are listed below:

• 8 important Classical Dance forms of India:

The correct answer is Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission.

Key Points

• Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM):
• It was introduced in September 2021.
• It seeks to advance healthcare digitization and provide an open, interoperable National Digital Health Ecosystem.
• Its goal is to create the framework required to sustain the nation's integrated digital health infrastructure.
• It lays the groundwork for a long-lasting digital public health infrastructure that would allow India to attain universal health coverage as recommended by National Health Policy, 2015.
• Under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, the National Health Authority (NHA) serves as the implementing agency.

Additional Information

• The component of ABDM are as follows:
• ABHA Number:
• Health ID's will be issued as it is critical that healthcare professionals use a uniform identifying procedure for patients.
• It will be used to identify individuals in a unique way, authenticate them, and thread their health records across many systems and stakeholders—but only with the patient's informed consent.
• Citizens can link, save, and share their health records to receive healthcare services with autonomy and consent through the ABHA and the Personal Health Record (PHR) app that goes along with it.
• Unified Health Interface (UHI):
• As an open protocol, it is intended to support a range of digital health services.
• The UHI Network is going to be an open network for participating Health Service Provider (HSP) and End User Applications (EUAs).
• Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR):
• It is an extensive database that includes all medical professionals who provide treatment in both conventional and modern medical systems.
• Mobile App ABHA:
• A PHR is a personal health record (PHR) that is managed, shared, and controlled by the patient and complies with nationally recognized interoperability standards. The PHR can be derived from various sources.
• Health Facilities Registry (HFR):
• It is an extensive database of all the country's medical facilities from all specialties. It include both public and private healthcare facilities, such as clinics, imaging centers, diagnostic labs, hospitals, and pharmacies.
• They can link to India's digital health ecosystem by enrolling in the Health Facility Registry.

The correct answer is Duty to cast your vote.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties:
• Part IV A of the Indian Constitution contains Article 51A, which deals with the Fundamental Duties.
• The Soviet Constitution (USSR) is where the idea of fundamental duties originated.
• Fundamental Duties were recommended in 1976 by the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Ten Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• Fundamental duties are not subject to legal action unless specifically stated in a provision, in contrast to fundamental rights, which are justiciable.
• Right to vote:
• Article 326 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to vote. According to this article, "every State's Legislative Assembly and House of People elections shall be conducted on the basis of adult suffrage, meaning that any Indian citizen who is not less than eighteen years old may participate."
• It is not a part of Fundamental duty but it is a legal right and a moral responsibility of every citizen to vote in the elections.

Additional Information

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added ten fundamental duties.
• The 86th Amendment to the Constitution was passed in 2002, adding the eleventh fundamental duty.
• The list of Fundamental Duties as mentioned in the Article 51A:

The correct answer is 1356.

Key Points

• Ziyauddin Barani composed his first chronicle in 1356 and a second one two years later.
• Ziyauddin Barani:
• Ziauddin Barani (1285–1358) was a Indian Muslim political thinker, historian and scholar.
• He lived in the Delhi Sultanate, which was ruled by Muhammad bin Tughlaq and Firuz Shah in modern-day Northern India.
• He wrote:
• Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi (also known as Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi), a work on medieval India that spans the years between Ghiyasuddin Tughluq's reign and the first six years of Firoz Shah Tughluq's reign.
• Fatwa-i-Jahandari, which encouraged a hierarchy among Muslim communities in the Indian subcontinent, are his most iconic works.

Additional InformationImportant Literature of Delhi Sultanate:

The correct answer is 50th.

Key Points

• Justice Dhananjaya Yashwant Chandrachud:
• Justice DY Chandrachud is the 50th and current Chief Justice of India having assumed office on 9th November 2022.
• In May 2016, he was named a judge of the Indian Supreme Court.
• In the past, he was a judge on the Bombay High Court from 2000 to 2013 and the chief justice of the Allahabad High Court from 2013 to 2016.
• In addition, he has served as the National Legal Services Authority's executive chairman (ex officio) in the past.
• The sole child of the longest-serving chief justice in India, Y. V. Chandrachud.
• He has served on benches that have handed down historic rulings on issues including the decriminalization of homosexuality, the Ram Janmabhoomi verdict, privacy verdicts, same-sex marriage cases, Sabarimala case, and the revocation of Jammu and Kashmir's special status.
• Chief Justice of India (CJI):
• The CJI and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
• Qualifications for being the CJI:
• He/She should 
• be a citizen of India.
• have been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession or
• have been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession, or
• be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

Additional Information

• Justice Sabyasachi Mukharji was the 20th Chief Justice of India (CJI) having served from December 1989 to September 1990.
• Justice Sam Piroj Bharucha was the 30th Chief Justice of India (CJI) having served from November 2001 to May 2002.
• Justice Palanisamy Sathasivam was the 40th Chief Justice of India (CJI) having served from July 2013 to 26 April 2014.
• Justice Uday Umesh Lalit was the 49th Chief Justice of India (CJI) having served from August 2022 to November 2022.
• Justice Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana was the 48th Chief Justice of India, having served from April 2021 to August 2022.
• Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was the 47th Chief Justice of India, having served from November 2019 to April 2021.

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal.

Key Points 

• Piyush Goyal:
• Piyush Goyal is an IAS officer from the Nagaland cadre.
• He joined Indian Administrative Services in 1994.
• August 2022 marked his initial appointment to the CEO position at NATGRID.
• The extension of Goyal's tenure beyond March 25, 2024, for a period up to November 19, 2025, has been authorized by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
• National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID):
• The National Intelligence Grid, or NATGRID, is an integrated intelligence master database structure that connects databases of various core security agencies under the Government of India.
• It is used for counterterrorism purposes, gathering comprehensive patterns obtained from 21 different organizations that security agencies can easily access around-the-clock.
• Only authorized individuals are granted access to the platform on a case-by-case basis for investigations into suspected cases of terrorism.
• In the first phase, it is accessible to 11 central agencies.
• In later phases, police from all States and Union Territories will also have access to it.

Additional Information

• Ashish Gupta:
• Ashish Gupta is an officer in the Indian Police Service (IPS) who was recruited in 1989.
• From 2000 to 2002, he served as the commander of the Indian contingent in the UN Peacekeeping Mission in Kosovo.
• Previously, he was the NATGRID Joint Secretary.
• Raghu Raman:
• Formerly, the founding CEO of the National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) from 2016 to 2022.
• He is currently the President of Risk, Security, and New Ventures at Reliance Industries Ltd.
• Formerly, he was CEO of Mahindra First Choice, Mahindra Special Services Group, and the Mahindra-British Aerospace joint venture.
• Satya Lolla:
• He is an Indian Revenue Services (Central Excise and Customs) officer from the 1991 batch.
• For a period of five years, Satya S. Lolla was named joint secretary of NATGRID, an intelligence program run by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Ashish Gupta, an IPS officer who was given the position in August 2014, was replaced by Lolla.

The correct answer is Chaitra.

Key Points

• Chaitra (March-April): 
• In the Hindu calendar, the first month is Chaitra and is highly fortunate.
• Occurs in March or April on the Gregorian calendar.
• The Hindu New Year, known in Maharashtra as Gudi Padwa, in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as Ugadi, and in other parts of India as Chaitra Navratri, ushers in the month.
• The month is linked to fresh starts, development, and wealth as well as the start of the spring season.
• Ram Navami:
• Ram Navami is a Hindu festival that celebrates the birth of Lord Rama, one of the most revered deities in Hinduism.
• It falls on the ninth day of Shukla Paksha in the Hindu month of Chaitra, which usually falls in March or April according to the Gregorian calendar.
• The festival is celebrated with great enthusiasm and devotion by Hindus all over the world, with special prayers, fasting, and offerings being made to Lord Rama and his consort Sita.
• The celebrations include processions, singing of devotional songs, and recitation of the Ramayana, the epic story of Lord Rama's life and deeds.

Additional Information

• Ashwin (September-October): 
• According to the Hindu calendar, Ashwin, the seventh month, is connected to the celebration of Navratri, a holiday honoring the divine feminine force.
• Additionally, the month is linked to the celebration of Dussehra, a festival honoring Lord Rama's victory over the demon king Ravana.
• Kartik (October-November):
• The Hindu calendar's eighth month, Kartik, is linked to the celebration of Diwali, the festival of lights.
• The month is also linked to the observance of Karva Chauth, a festival honoring the marriage union of husband and wife.
• It is also linked with festival of Bhai Dooj.
• Phalguna (February-March):
• The Hindu calendar's twelfth and final month, Phalguna, occurs in February or March on the Gregorian calendar.
• It is the month of Holi, the widely renowned festival of colors that ushers in India's springtime.
• People of all ages celebrate the holiday with great excitement, playing with colors, indulging in traditional sweets and delicacies, and praying to Lord Krishna.
• In addition to Holi, Phalguna is the site of several significant celebrations, including Shivratri and Holika Dahan.

The correct answer is 1757.

Key Points

• Battle of Plassey:
• The Plassey battle took place in 1757 at West Bengal's Plassey, east of the Bhagirathi River.
• The last independent Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah faced up against Robert Clive's British East India Company troops.
• Following the death of his grandfather Alavardi Khan, Siraj-ud-Daulah, the then-Nawab of Bengal, took over.
• Siraj was already wary of the East India Company's increasing influence because to the British victory in the Carnatic.
• In June 1756, the enraged Nawab marched to Calcutta and took control of Fort William.
• Siraj imprisoned 146 British detainees in a tiny lair in Calcutta; 123 of them perished from suffocation. It is notoriously referred to as the Calcutta "Black Hole."
• After the Nawab of Bengal tragically defeated the British, Robert Clive's formidable force was dispatched from Madras to depose the nawab and fortify British rule in Bengal.
• Nawab's defeat was aided by Mir Jafar, who led around one-third of the Bengali army, choosing not to participate in the conflict.
• The Nawab attempted to flee with his army under duress, but Miran, Mir Jafar's son, assassinated him.
• Clive crowned Mir Jafar as the Nawab of Bengal and placed him on the throne of Murshidabad following the Battle of Plassey.
• In accordance with the deal, Mir Jafar offered the firm the Zamindari of 24 Parganas, a group of villages in Bengal, in order to appease the British.
• But this was insufficient to appease the British, and as a result, he lost his position as Nawab of Bengal and was replaced by his son-in-law Mir Kasim.
• The Battle is regarding a historic turning point for British in India; it established political and military supremacy of the British in Bengal.

Additional InformationSome Important Battles:

The correct answer is Article 76.

Key Points

• Attorney General of India:
• Article 76 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment, duties, and qualifications of the Attorney General of India.
• The Attorney General of India will be appointed by the President from among those who meet the requirements to be appointed as Supreme Court judges.
• The Attorney General will serve as long as the President so desires.
• He is the chief law officer in the country.
• He provides legal advice to the Government of India and represents the Government in legal matters.
• He also has the power to appear in any court of law in India and can take part in any proceedings that affect the Government of India.
• Thus he have the right of audience in all Indian courts while carrying out his duties.
• Under Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, he is free to participate in and speak at any session of the Houses of Parliament, as well as in any joint session, and to be appointed to any committee of the Parliament; however, he is not entitled to vote.
• He is entitled to all the privileges and immunities that are granted to members of Parliament.

Additional Information

• GST Council:
• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a replacement for the Value-Added Tax (VAT) in India and is levied on the supply of goods and services.
• The tax came into effect from 1 July 2017 through the implementation of the 101st Amendment of the Constitution of India by the Indian government.
• It inserted Article 279-A in the Constitution of India which empowered the President to constitute a GST Council by an order.
• President issued the order in 2016 and constituted the Council.
• Composition of the Goods and Services Tax Council:
• The Union Finance Minister as the Chairperson.
• The Union Minister of State in-charge of Revenue or Finance.
• The Minister in-charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each state government.
• Metropolitan Planning Committee:
• Article 243 ZE says that there shall be constituted in every Metropolitan area a Metropolitan Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan for the Metropolitan area as a whole.
• A state's legislature shall provide by law for the makeup of these committees and the procedure for filling their seats.
• State Finance Commission:
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendments Act, 1992 established the State Finance Commission (SFC) as an entity to organize and simplify fiscal interactions between the States and sub-States in India.
• Every five years, the State Governor is required by Article 243I of the Constitution to form a Finance Commission.
• The Finance Commission established under Article 243 I of the Constitution is mandated by Article 243Y to examine the financial standing of the Municipalities and provide recommendations to the Governor.

The correct answer is Sclerenchyma.

Key Points

• The husk of a coconut is made up of sclerenchyma tissue.
• Permanent and Meristematic tissues are two types of plant tissue.
• Permanent tissues:
• Although these cells can no longer spread, they are specialized to provide the plant with strength, elasticity, and flexibility.
• These tissues also fall into the following categories:
• Simple Permanent Tissue
• Complex Permanent Tissue
• Sclerenchyma:
• It is type of Simple Permanent Tissue.
• These are lengthy, dead cells whose cell walls have lignin deposits in them.
• There are no spaces between the cells.
• Sclerenchyma surrounds the vascular tissues in stems and leaves, as well as the coating of seeds and nuts.
• The plant gets its strength from its sclerenchyma.

Additional Information

• Simple Permanent Tissue:
• Depending on what they are used for, they can be divided into parenchyma, collenchyma, and sclerenchyma.
• Parenchyma:
• These are multigonal, living cells with intercellular gaps between them and a large central vacuole.
• Pith and ground tissue are produced by parenchymatous cells.
• Chlorenchyma is the term used to describe parenchyma that contains chloroplasts. Photosynthesis is aided by the chlorenchyma.
• Aerenchyma is the term for parenchyma that has large air gaps in it. The primary function of the aerenchyma is buoyancy.
• Certain parenchymatous cells serve as starch storage compartments in fruits and vegetables.
• Collenchyma:
• These are live, elongated cells with minuscule spaces between them.
• Pectin and cellulose make up their cell walls.
• It provides plants with mechanical support and a flexible structural framework.
• It is found on the margins of leaves and stems.
• Complex Permanent Tissue: Phloem and xylem are examples of these tissues.  
• Xylem:
• It facilitates the movement of water and dissolved materials throughout the plant.
• The various parts of the xylem consist of parenchyma, vessels, tracheids, and xylem fibers.
• Lignin makes up the xylem fibers and cheids, which give the plant structural support.
• Phloem:
• Food particles can be transported with the help of phloem.
• Complementary cells, sieve cells, sieve tubes, phloem fibers, and phloem parenchyma make up phloem.

The correct answer is Free trade.

Key PointsFree Trade:

• It is a trade policy that promotes the exchange of goods and services between countries without any restrictions, such as tariffs, quotas, or other trade barriers.
• The India-UAE CEPA is the most recent of India's twelve free trade agreements.
• In 2020, India made the decision to withdraw from the Asia-Pacific region's massive Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership.
• India has reaped only meager gains from the Free Trade Agreement with South Korea.

Additional InformationFair Trade:

• It is a trade policy that aims to promote greater equity in international trade, particularly for small-scale producers and workers in developing countries.
• It focuses on improving working conditions, promoting sustainable production practices, and ensuring fair prices for producers.

Local Trade:

• It refers to the exchange of goods and services within a local community or region, often with a focus on supporting small businesses, reducing transportation costs and environmental impact, and promoting local culture and identity.

Swiss Trade:

• It may refer to the trade policies and practices of Switzerland, which is known for its openness to international trade, particularly in the areas of finance, manufacturing, and services.
• Switzerland is also a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) and has signed numerous free trade agreements with other countries and regions.

The correct answer is Narthaki Natraj.

Key Points

Narthaki Natraj:

• She was born in the Tamil Nadu village of Anuppanadi, which is close to Madurai.
• She is the first transgender person to be honoured with the Padma Shri Award.
• She is also honoured with the SNA Puraskar and Tamil Nadu's state award, "Kalaimamani”.

Padma Shri:

• The Padma Shri, which is also written Padma Shree, is the fourth-highest civilian honor granted by the Indian Republic, ranking behind the Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, and Padma Bhushan.
• Awardees are chosen for their "distinguished contribution in various spheres of activity including the arts, education, industry, literature, science, acting, medicine, social service and public affairs."
• The award was established on January 2, 1954.
• Every year on India's Republic Day, the Indian government bestows this honour.

Additional Information

​Karthik Chandra Rath:

• He has directed more than 500 plays and written more than 100 plays.
• He brought ground-breaking ideas to Odia play in the areas of stagecraft, scriptwriting, and direction.
• He established the Utkal Yuva Sanskrutika Sangh in Cuttack, which participated in national theater festivals.
• Kendriya Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, Odisha Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, and Odisha Sahitya Akademi Award were among the distinguished honors he received.

Shanti Devi:

• President Ram Nath Kovind presented her with the esteemed Padma Shri award on November 9, 2021.
• She made a significant contribution to the state's Maoist-affected districts being peaceful again.
• She began her social work by establishing an ashram in the Rayagada district of Gobarapalli, where she strove to support the education and well-being of tribal females.
• She relocated to Gunupur, where she established the Seva Samaj Ashram in 1964 to give indigenous females access to education.

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key PointsAsian Games 2018:

• It was held in Indonesia (Jakarta and Palembang) from August 18 to September 2, 2018.
• This was Indonesia's second hosting of the Asian Games; the first took place in Jakarta in 1962.
• Canoe polo and eSports, a type of competition utilizing video games, were also held for the first time as demonstration sports.
• India had 15 gold, 24 silver, and 30 bronze medals.
• The mascots of this edition are:
• Atung(deer).
• Kaka (one-horned rhino).
• Trio of Bhin Bhin (bird of paradise).

Additional InformationAsians Games:

• The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from across Asia.
• They were regulated by the Asian Games Federation (AGF) till 1978.
• The first games were in New Delhi, India, in 1951.
• Since the breakup of the Asian Games Federation in 1982, the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) has organized the Games.
• The Games are recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and are described as the second largest multi-sport event after the Olympic Games.
• The next edition is expected to be held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan in 2026.

The correct answer is Reserve bank of India.

Key PointsReserve Bank of India (RBI) is India’s central bank.

• In compliance with the terms of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, it was founded on April 1, 1935 in Calcutta.
• It was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
• Though originally privately owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
• It also functions as the "lender of last resort" and is considered Banker to Banks.
• It regulates the issue of Bank notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its advantage.
• It also monitors the monetary policies through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).

Additional InformationState Bank of India:

• The Imperial Bank of India was nationalized to establish the State Bank of India on July 1, 1955.
• It is the biggest public-sector bank in India.
• Its first chairman was John Mathai.
• Its present chairman is Dinesh Kumar Khara.
• It administers public debt, acts as the government's bank, and collects money and makes payments on the government's behalf.
• It lends money to commercial banks and takes deposits from them.
• It acts as a representative for cooperative banks.

​Nationalised Bank:

• These are also known as Public Sector Bank.
• Banks are classified as public sector, where the public interest is the primary goal and the government has retained a majority of its share.
• In order to enter the banking industry after gaining independence, the Indian government began nationalising the Imperial Bank of India in 1955.
• It was renamed the State Bank of India after the Reserve Bank of India acquired 60% of the company.
• The Indian government nationalized fourteen more banks in 1969.

​Union Bank of India:

• It was founded in 1919.
• The Government of India nationalized it in 1969.
• It is the fifth-largest public-sector bank.
• Mahatma Gandhi officially opened it as a limited corporation.
• The present MD and CEO of Union Bank of India is A. Manimekhalai.

The correct answer is 2011.

Key PointsCricket World Cup 2011:

• It was the 10th edition of the Cricket World Cup (CWC).
• Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and India shared the hosting duties.
• India and Sri Lanka faced off in the championship game at Mumbai, India's Wankhede Stadium.
• India won the World Cup after an incredible campaign.
• Tillakaratne Dilshan was the highest run scorer in this edition of the CWC.
• Zaheer Khan and Shahid Afridi are jointly the highest wicket-takers in this edition of the CWC.
• The player of the tournament award went to Yuvraj Singh.
• After winning their first World Cup in 1983, India won their second one 28 years later.

Additional InformationCricket World Cup 2023:

• It is the 13th and latest edition of the Cricket World Cup (CWC).
• It was the first World Cup of men's cricket that India has hosted entirely.
• India and Australia faced off in the championship match at Narendra Modi Stadium.
• In 2023, Australia won the Cricket World Cup for the sixth time.
• Virat Kohli was the highest run scorer in this edition of the CWC.
• Mohammed Shami was the highest wicket-taker in this edition of the CWC.
• The player of the tournament and top run scorer was Virat Kohli.

Cricket World Cup 2027:

• It will be the 14th edition of the Cricket World Cup.
• It is scheduled to take place in South Africa, Zimbabwe, and Namibia during October and November 2027.
• It will be co-hosted by South Africa and Zimbabwe for the second time.
• Namibia will make its debut as a host nation.

A glossary of cricket terms:

The correct answer is hydrogen, oxygen.

Key Points

• Reduction Reaction:
• The chemical reaction which involves addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
• The process of reduction is a type of chemical reaction in which the electron density of an atom or molecule is increased.
• Reduction reactions are opposite to oxidation reactions, which involve the loss of electrons or increase in the oxidation state of an atom or molecule.
• Reduction reactions are widely used in industrial processes such as the production of metals and organic chemicals.
• Redox reaction:
• Redox reactions are chemical processes involving oxidation and reduction in which the oxidation states of the reactants change.
• In a chemical reaction, the material that is being reduced is referred to as the oxidizing agent, and the substance that is being oxidized is referred to as the reducing agent.

Additional Information

• Photosynthesis:
• It is the biological process by which plants convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose (a form of sugar) and oxygen.
• This chemical reaction which involves addition of Carbon Dioxide and removal of Oxygen.
• This process takes place in specialized structures within plant cells called chloroplasts, which contain a pigment called chlorophyll that gives plants their green color.
• During photosynthesis, chlorophyll absorbs the energy from sunlight.
• This energy is used to power a series of chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.
• Other Type of Chemical reactions are:
• Bi-displacement reaction is also known as the double displacement reaction.
• It involves two reactants exchanging their ions to form two new products.
• For example, potassium nitrate reacts with aluminium chloride and forms aluminium nitrate and potassium chloride.
• Reaction: KNO3 + AlCl3 ↔️    Al(NO3)3 + KCl
• Displacement reaction is also known as the single replacement reaction.
• It involves a more reactive element displacing a less reactive element from its compound.
• The reaction of potassium with magnesium chloride is an example of a single displacement reaction.
• Reaction: 2K + MgCl2 → 2KCl + Mg
• Combination reaction is also known as the synthesis reaction.
• It involves two or more reactants combining to form a single product.
• For example, when we burn magnesium ribbon (or magnesium), it gives a gray-black ash of magnesium oxide.
• Reaction: Mg + O2 → MgO

The correct answer is a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii.

Key Points 

Additional InformationAgro-based Industry:

• Industries that are connected to agriculture, either directly or indirectly.
• A wide range of industrial, manufacturing, and processing operations based on agricultural raw materials are covered, along with operations and services that serve as agricultural inputs.
• It promotes the growth of the rural economy.
• It offers employment opportunities to people living in rural areas.
• It promotes balanced industrial and agricultural growth.
• Example: Textiles, vegetable and fruit processing units, rice mills,  biofuel, paper, etc.

Public Sector Industry:

• It refers to the industry that is owned and operated by the government.
• It can make investments in important economic sectors like manufacturing, services, and infrastructure.
• It offers people necessary services at reasonable costs.
• It makes investments in less developed areas in an effort to lessen regional inequality.
• Examples: National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC), Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL), Coal India Limited (CIL), etc.

Private Sector Industry:

• It refers to an industry that is owned and operated by private individuals or companies.
• The private sector comprises a variety of organizations, such as partnerships, single proprietorships, cooperative societies, businesses, and multinational enterprises.
• In order to survive over the long term, they also prioritize meeting the demands of their clients.
• Private sector companies obtain their capital from their owners, loans, the issuance of shares and debentures, etc.
• Example: Aviation, Real Estate, Media, etc.

Mineral-based Industry:

• It refers to the industry that uses metals and mineral ores as raw materials for manufacturing goods.
• India topped the list of countries producing wipe iron and came in second place globally in the 2018 rankings for producers of (crude) steel.
• Example: Copper smelting industry, Lead and zinc smelting industry, Cement industry, Aluminium industry, etc

The correct answer is Seismograph.

Key Points

Seismograph:

• It is equipment that monitors and records the motion of the ground caused by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, and other seismic phenomena.
• Seismic vibrations cause the drum to revolve and the weighted pen to move back and forth when an earthquake occurs in the ground.
• It is made up of a seismometer—a sensor that senses ground motion—and a recorder, which captures the seismometer's data.
• The three-dimensional earthquake source and magnitude are measured by a network of seismometers.
• With seismographs, one may determine:
• The earthquake's location.
• The earthquake's depth.
• The earthquake's magnitude.

Additional InformationMercalli scale:

• It is used to measure an earthquake's intensity.
• Observable data is the basis of the Mercalli scale.
• The scale describes the intensity of the earthquake at twelve levels.

Hygrometer:

• It is a specialized device that determines the relative humidity in a closed or open space.
• The first hygrometer was created in 1783 by Swiss physicist and geologist Horace Bénédict de Saussur.
• He used human hair to measure humidity.
• It functions through a process called evaporative cooling.

Richter Scale:

• Charles Richter created it in the 1930s.
• It is a numerical system used to indicate the strength (or magnitude) of earthquakes.
• It gives the energy produced by an earthquake a magnitude number.
• It is a base-10 logarithmic scale, where magnitude is expressed as the logarithm of the seismic wave amplitude divided by an arbitrary, minor amplitude.

The correct answer is Our Census - Our Future.

Key PointsCensus of India 2011

• It started on April 1, 2010.
• "Our Census, Our Future" was the 2011 census's slogan.
• India's population, according to the 2011 Census, is estimated to be 1.21 billion.
• This marked the commencement of the 15th Census of India and the 7th Census of Independent India (2011).
• The Indian Census Commissioner for 2011 was C. Chandramouli.
• The 2011 India Census was carried out in two phases:
• House listing and Housing Census (April to September 2010).
• Population Enumeration (9th to 28 February 2011).

Additional Information

• The 1948 Census Act governs how the census is carried out.
• The Indian Home Minister at the time, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, spearheaded the bill for this Act.
• The Indian Constitution's Article 246 declares the population census to be a Union subject.
• It is mentioned in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution under serial number 69.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs' Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner oversees the decennial census.
• According to the 2011 census, the overall literacy rate in India is 74%.
• The population density was 382 persons per square kilometer in 2011.
• India's sex ratio, as per the 2011 census, is 943.
• India's child sex ratio is 918, the lowest since the country's independence, as per Census 2011.

The correct answer is 1969.

Key PointsFourth Five-Year Plan:

• It began in 1969 and ended in 1974.
• The Gadgil Formula served as the foundation for the Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969–1974), which placed a strong focus on growth with stability and the move toward self-reliance.
• It focused on the development of agriculture, industry, and infrastructure.
• It was implemented during Indira Gandhi's tenure as prime minister in an effort to address earlier shortcomings.
• The Green Revolution increased agriculture, and the government nationalized fourteen significant Indian banks.
• Additionally, the Drought Prone Area Program was introduced.
• The actual growth rate was 3.3% compared to the target growth rate of 5.6%.

Additional Information

• The Indian Planning Commission was established in 1950 to formulate and implement five-year plans for economic development in India.
• It was replaced by NITI Aayog since January 1, 2015.
• After the Planning Commission, the five year plans also stopped to be made in India.
• An overview of all Five Year Plans implemented in India is highlighted below:

Given:

Average weight of 8 persons = 40 kg

Average weight of 7 persons = 38 kg

Concept:

Average weight = (Total weight/Number of persons)

Solution:

Total weight of 8 persons = Average weight × Number of persons

⇒ 40 kg × 8 = 320 kg

Total weight of 7 persons = Average weight × Number of persons

⇒ 38 kg × 7 = 266 kg

Weight of the removed person = Total weight of 8 persons - Total weight of 7 persons

⇒ 320 kg - 266 kg = 54 kg

Therefore, the weight of the removed person is 54 kg.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = 64% of Marked Price (MP)

Discount = 20% of MP

Concept:

Gain% = ((Selling Price (SP) - CP)/CP) × 100%

Solution:

SP after 20% discount = MP - (20% of MP) ⇒ 0.80 × MP

CP = 0.64 × MP, so Gain% = ((SP - CP)/CP) × 100% ⇒ ((0.80 MP - 0.64 MP)/0.64 MP) × 100% = 25%

Therefore, the gain percentage is 0.25 or 25%.

Given:

Atul's time to complete the work = 114 days

Required time to complete the work = 19 days

Concept:

If each person works at the same speed, then the number of people required is inversely proportional to the time taken.

Solution:

Number of persons required = Atul's time/Required time ⇒ 114/19 = 6

Therefore, 6 persons are required to complete the work in 19 days.

Given:

Diameter of the cone = 14 cm

Height of the cone = 12 cm

Rate of filling = 4 cm³ every 10 s

Concept:

Volume of a cone = 1/3 × π × r² × h, where r is the radius and h is the height.

Solution:

Volume of the cone = 1/3 × (22/7) × (14/2)² × 12 cm³ = 616 cm³

Time to fill the cone = Volume of cone/Rate of filling ⇒ 616 cm³/(4 cm³/10s) = 1540 s

Therefore, it will take 1540 seconds to fill the cone.

Given:

First proportion = 2 hours 40 minutes = 160 minutes

Second proportion = 1 hour 20 minutes = 80 minutes

Third proportion = 10 hours = 600 minutes

Concept: In the fourth proportional, if a ∶ b = c ∶ d, then d = (b × c)/a.

Solution:

Fourth proportional (in minutes) = (Second proportion × Third proportion)/First proportion ⇒ (80 × 600)/160 = 300 minutes = 5 hours

Therefore, the fourth proportional is 5 hours.

Given:

Average weight of 34 persons increased by 3 kg

Weight of person replaced = 90 kg

Concept:

Total weight = Average weight × Number of persons

Solution:

Increase in total weight = Increase in average weight × Number of persons ⇒ 3 kg × 34 = 102 kg

Weight of the new person = Weight of person replaced + Increase in total weight

⇒ 90 kg + 102 kg = 192 kg

Therefore, the weight of the new person is 192 kg.

Given:

Two numbers: 144 and 216

Concept:

We need to find the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) and then the difference between its digits.

Solution:

GCD of 144 and 216 = 72

Difference between the digits of 72 = |7 - 2| = 5

Therefore, the difference between the digits of the greatest number that can exactly divide 144 and 216 is 5.

Given:

P + Q's time = 36 days

Q's time = 45 days

Q worked alone for 5 days

Concept:

Work done is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work.

Solution:

P's time = (P + Q's time) × (Q's time)/(Q's time - P + Q's time) ⇒ 36 × 45/(45 - 36) = 180 days

Work done by Q in 5 days = 5/Q's time ⇒ 5/45 of the total work

Remaining work = 1 - 5/45 = 40/45 of the total work

Time for P to complete the remaining work = Remaining work × P's time ⇒ (40/45) × 180 = 160 days

Therefore, P will take 160 days to complete the remaining work.

Given:

Total amount = ₹5,309

Time for A = 4 years

Time for B = 6 years

Interest rate = 6% per annum, compounded annually

Concept:

The compound interest formula is A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt), where A is the amount, P is the principal, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of times interest is compounded per year, and t is time.

Solution:

The amount of A after 4 years is equal to the amount of B after 6 years. Let the principal amounts be P1 for A and P2 for B.

Thus, P1(1 + 6/100)⁴ = P2(1 + 6/100)⁶

From this equation, we can express P2 as P1(1 + 6/100)² = P1(1.12)

Given P1 + P2 = ₹5,309, substituting P2 from the above equation, we get

⇒ P1 + 1.12P1 = ₹5,309

Solving the above equation, we find P1 = ₹2,500 and P2 = ₹2,809

Therefore, A and B receive ₹2,500 and ₹2,809 respectively.

Given:

First number = 3

Second number = 27

Concept:

In third proportional if a ∶ b = b ∶ c, then c = b²/a. The highest common factor (HCF) is the greatest number that divides both numbers.

Solution:

Third proportional 'x' = 27²/3 = 243

HCF of 'x' and 27 = HCF(243, 27) = 27

Therefore, the HCF of 'x' and 27 is 27.

Given:

Equation: $5 \over 8$ of 184 × 15 ÷ 5 + k = 513 ÷ 9 + 435

Concept:

Use basic arithmetic operations to solve for 'k'.

Solution:

Simplifying both sides, we have: (5/8) × 184 × (15/5) + k = (513/9) + 435

Solving further, 345 + k = 57 + 435

⇒ k = 57 + 435 - 345 = 147

Therefore, the value of k is 147.

Given:

Percentage of voters who cast their votes = 80%

Percentage of invalid votes = 5%

Candidate's votes = 285,000 (which is 75% of total valid votes)

Concept:

Simple percentage calculations.

Solution:

Total valid votes = Candidate's votes/0.75 = 380,000 votes

Total votes cast = Total valid votes/(1 - 0.05) = 400,000 votes

Total voters enrolled = Total votes cast/0.80 = 500,000 voters

Therefore, the total number of voters enrolled for that election was 500,000.

Given:

Volume of the hemisphere = 1,152π cm³

Concept:

Volume of a hemisphere = 2/3πr² and Curved Surface Area of a Hemisphere = 2πr².

Solution:

Solve the volume formula for r: r = ((3/2) × volume/π)^(1/3)

Substitute the given volume into the formula: r = ((3/2) × 1,152π/π)^(1/3) = 12 cm

Substitute r into the surface area formula: Curved Surface Area = 2π × 12² = 288π cm²

Therefore, the curved surface area of the hemisphere is 288π cm².

Given:

Initial population = 82,000

Growth rate = 2% annually

Number of years = 2022 - 2019 = 3

Concept:

The formula for population growth is P = P₀(1 + r)ⁿ, where P is the final population, P₀ is the initial population, r is the rate of growth, and n is the number of years.

Solution:

Substitute the given values into the formula: P = 82,000(1 + 0.02)³ = 87019.04

Therefore, the population in the beginning of 2022 (rounded to the nearest integer) is 87019.

Given:

Distance covered in first trip = 140 km

Time taken for first trip = 3 hours

Distance covered in second trip = 180 km

Time taken for second trip = 5 hours

Concept:

Average speed = Total distance/Total time.

Solution:

Total distance = 140 km + 180 km = 320 km

Total time = 3 hours + 5 hours = 8 hours

Average speed = 320 km/8 hours = 40 km/h

Therefore, the average speed for the entire trip is 40 km/h.

Given:

Profit on selling = 10%

Less weight used = 20%

Concept:

Overall profit percentage can be calculated by summing up the individual profit percentages and their product.

Solution:

Let the CP of 100 kg rice be Rs. 100

SP of 1 kg = 100 × 110/100 = Rs. 110

Use 20% less weight i.e sold (100 - 20) = 80 kg

Shopkeeper sold 80 kg instead of 100 kg.

CP of 80 kg = Rs. 80

SP of 80 kg = Rs. 110

Profit = 110 - 80 = 30

Profit % = 30/80 × 100 = $37\frac{1}{2}\%$

Therefore, the gain percentage is  $37\frac{1}{2}\%$.

Given:

Profit percentage = 20%

Concept:

If there is a profit of x%, the ratio of selling price to cost price is (100 + x) ∶ 100.

Solution:

The ratio of selling price to cost price = (100 + 20) ∶ 100 = 120 ∶ 100 = 6 ∶ 5

Therefore, the ratio of the selling price to the cost price is $6 \over 5$.

Given:

Marked price = Rs. 1600

Discount percent = 20%

Selling price = Rs. 1600

Concept:

Gain percentage can be calculated as (Selling Price - Cost Price)/Cost Price × 100%.

Solution:

Cost price for Rohan = Marked price - Discount = Rs. 1600 - 0.2 × Rs. 1600 = Rs. 1280

Gain percent = (Rs. 1600 - Rs. 1280)/Rs. 1280 × 100% = 25%

Therefore, Rohan's gain percent is 25%.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in profit percentages = 40% − 25% = 15%

This 15% of CP corresponds to the increase in selling price, which is Rs. 3.

⇒ 15% of CP = 3

⇒ 1% of CP = 3 ÷ 15 = 0.2

⇒ 100% of CP = 0.2 × 100 = 20

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit in case 1 = 25%

Profit in case 2 = 40%

Difference in Selling Prices (SP₂ − SP₁) = Rs. 3

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

Let the Cost Price (CP) of one mango be Rs. x.

⇒ SP₁ = x × 125 ÷ 100 = 1.25x

⇒ SP₂ = x × 140 ÷ 100 = 1.40x

According to the question,

⇒ SP₂ − SP₁ = 3

⇒ 1.40x − 1.25x = 3

⇒ 0.15x = 3

⇒ x = 3 ÷ 0.15 = 300 ÷ 15

⇒ x = 20

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 20.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always given on the Marked Price (MP) unless specified otherwise. Formula: SP = MP − Discount.

Successive Discount

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the effective single discount percentage is: a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100.

Dishonest Dealer Concept

When a dealer sells at CP but uses false weight, Profit % = (True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Upstream Speed = Speed of Boat − Speed of Stream = 15 − 3 = 12 km/h.

Time = Distance ÷ Upstream Speed = 6 ÷ 12 = 0.5 hours.

0.5 hours = 0.5 × 60 = 30 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 30 minutes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of boat in still water (u) = 15 km/h

Speed of stream (v) = 3 km/h

Distance (d) = 6 km

Formula Used:

Upstream Speed (S_up) = Speed of boat (u) − Speed of stream (v)

Time (T) = Distance (d) ÷ Speed (S)

Stream (3 km/h)

Boat (15 km/h)

Distance = 6 km (Upstream) Net Speed = 15 − 3 = 12 km/h

Calculations:

⇒ Upstream Speed = 15 − 3 = 12 km/h

⇒ Time taken = 6 ÷ 12 hours

⇒ Time = 0.5 hours

⇒ Time in minutes = 0.5 × 60

⇒ Time = 30 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 30 minutes.

Additional Information

Downstream Speed

When the boat moves with the flow of the stream, its speed is S_down = u + v.

Speed of Boat in Still Water

If downstream speed (D) and upstream speed (U) are known, speed in still water u = (D + U) ÷ 2.

Speed of the Stream

The speed of the current or stream v = (D − U) ÷ 2.

The correct answer is: determining; system

Key Points

• Determining refers to a method or process of finding out or establishing something. (निर्धारण)
• In the context of blood transfusion, it is crucial to identify and establish the patient's blood type before proceeding with the transfusion.
• The word "determining" fits well to convey the idea of finding out the patient's blood type.
• System refers to the ways or methods by which a system operates or functions. (व्यवस्था)
• The phrase "immune system" refers to the complex network of cells and proteins that defend the body against infections.
• A wrong blood transfusion can trigger an immune response and result in an infection, making "system" the suitable word to complete the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete Passage: Blood transfusion is a procedure that starts with the doctor (1) determining the patients' blood type. In case of a wrong transfusion in the immune (2) system of an individual, it leads to an infection.

Additional Information

• Diagnosing: Identifying or determining the nature or cause of a problem or condition. (निदान करना)
• Structure: The arrangement or organization of parts that make up a whole. (संरचना)
• Treating: Providing medical care, therapy, or taking actions to alleviate or cure a disease, condition, or problem. (इलाज)
• Process: A series of actions, steps, or operations conducted to achieve a particular result or outcome. (प्रक्रिया)
• Settling: Resolving or reaching a conclusion in a dispute, argument, or uncertainty. (तलछट)
• Order: Arrangement or organization, often based on a specific system or set of rules. (आदेश)

The correct answer is: Steady

Key Points

• Constant means unchanging, consistent, or continuously occurring. (स्थिर)
• Example: The constant noise from the construction site made it difficult to concentrate.
• Marked option Steady means stable, firm, or not subject to sudden changes. (नियमित)
• Example: Despite the economic challenges, she maintained a steady income through her freelance work.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Fickle: Capricious or prone to change one's mind easily. (चंचल)
• Pitiful: Evoking feelings of pity or sympathy, often due to a situation of suffering, hardship, or sadness. (रहमदिल)
• Reflective: Characterized by careful thought, contemplation, or meditation. (चिंतनशील)

The correct answer is: There are hundreds of superstitions that survive in various parts of the country, and the study of them is rather amusing.

Key Points

• In English grammar, the subject and verb in a sentence must agree in number.
• The original sentence uses the word "hundred," which is the singular form.
• However, since the context refers to multiple superstitions, the correct form is "hundreds," which is the plural form.
• Corrected sentence: There are hundreds of superstitions that survive in various parts of the country, and the study of them is rather amusing.
• This adjustment ensures agreement between the subject ("hundreds") and the plural noun it modifies ("superstitions").

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is: Expressing emotions very openly

Key Points

• The idiom "Wear your heart on your sleeve" means to openly display or show one's emotions, feelings, or affection without hiding them. (अपनी भावनाओं, संवेदनाओं या स्नेह को बिना छिपाए खुले तौर पर प्रदर्शित करना)
• It suggests that the person is transparent and doesn't conceal their emotions.
• Example: Even in a professional setting, she wears her heart on her sleeve, always expressing genuine enthusiasm and empathy for her colleagues' accomplishments and challenges.

​Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is: Dark

Key Points

• Lucid refers to something that is expressed clearly and is easy to comprehend. (स्पष्ट अर्थ)
• Example: His lucid explanation helped everyone understand the complex scientific concept.
• Marked option Dark means lacking light, gloomy, or having an absence of light. It can also be used metaphorically to indicate a lack of knowledge or understanding. (अँधेरा)
• Example: The room was so dark that it took a while for our eyes to adjust to the dim light.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Bloat: Swell or become swollen, often used to describe an excessive or abnormal enlargement. (फूलना)
• Jolt: A sudden, strong, and often unexpected jerk or shake. (झटका)
• Stark: Complete, harsh, or grim, often used to describe a situation or contrast that is sharp, clear, and without any embellishments. (कठोर)

The correct answer is: Logical

Key Points

• Valid refers to something that is legally or logically acceptable. (वैध)
• Example: The passport is still valid for another six months, allowing him to travel without any issues.
• Marked option Logical means in accordance with the principles of reasoning or sound judgment; reasonable and sensible. (तार्किक)
• Example: His argument was logical, presenting facts and evidence to support his case.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information

• Illicit: Forbidden by law, rules, or custom; illegal. (अवैध)
• Evil: Morally wrong, wicked, or morally reprehensible. (बुराई)
• Fake: Not genuine, counterfeit, or not real. (नकली)

The correct answer is "Brief".

Key Points

• Verbose: Using more words than necessary, often leading to wordiness and a lack of conciseness..
• For Example - The professor's verbose lecture made it difficult for students to understand the main points.
• Brief: Short in duration or extent. In communication, delivering information succinctly.
• For Example - His brief response, 'I'll think about it,' left everyone in suspense.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Additional Information

• Polished: Refined or sophisticated. In communication, indicates well-rehearsed or carefully crafted language.
• Wordy: Using more words than necessary, often leading to complexity or redundancy.
• Talkative: Fond of or given to talking.

The correct answer is: No error

Key Points

• The sentence follows proper syntax and structure.
• It consists of a subject ("Ameya"), a negative auxiliary verb "won't," a contraction of "will not", a main verb ("eat"), and an object ("any junk food at all").
• This adheres to the typical structure of an English sentence.
• The sentence conveys a clear and coherent meaning.
• So, both grammatically and conceptually, the sentence effectively communicates the idea that Ameya has a firm stance against consuming any form of junk food.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The incorrectly spelt word is: Covardice

Key Points

• The incorrectly spelled word is "Covardice."
• The correct spelling of the word is "Cowardice."
• The error lies in the placement of the "v" instead of 'w' in the given word.
• Cowardice refers to the trait of being excessively afraid or unwilling to confront danger or face difficult situations. (कायरता)
• Example: Facing the enemy on the battlefield, the soldier displayed an unexpected act of cowardice by abandoning his post.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Brandish: To wave or flourish something, typically a weapon as a threat or in an ostentatious way. (धमकी देना)
• Treachery: Betrayal of trust, deceptive action, or violation of loyalty, especially involving betrayal of one's own allies or associates. (द्रऋह)
• Statutory: Relating to statutes or laws, established or required by law. (वैधानिक)

The correct answer is: heir

Key Points

• An heir is a person who is legally entitled to inherit the property, wealth, or title of another person, typically a family member, upon their death. (उत्तराधिकार में पानेवाला)
• Example: As the only son of a wealthy business magnate, Daniel was the heir to the family fortune and business empire.
• The given sentence describes the legal relationship of the uncle's son to inherit his assets, making "heir" the correct term to use.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete sentence: My uncle‘s legal heir is his son.

Additional Information

• Hair: Fine, thread-like strands that grow from the skin of mammals, particularly humans. (केश)
• Here: In or at this place. (इस स्थान पर)
• Hare: A fast-running, long-eared mammal, similar to a rabbit. (खरगोश)

The correct answer is: accretion

Key Points

• The misspelled word "acretion" should be corrected to "accretion."
• Accretion refers to the gradual accumulation or buildup of something over time. (एक साथ वृद्धि)
• Example: The accretion of sedimentary layers over millions of years formed the impressive rock formations seen in the canyon.
• In the context of the sentence, it implies that the thick dirt on the building has accumulated over a long period, making "accretion" the appropriate and correctly spelt term.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is "too". 

Key Points

• Let's evaluate each option:
• Two - This is a numeral and suggests a quantity of two sandwiches.
• Depending on the context, this could be a valid choice, but without knowing if the user wants to specify a quantity, we can't select this as the most appropriate choice.
• Too - This word is used as a synonym for "also" or "as well".
• ​In this context, it implies that, in addition to making the basket for the picnic, the speaker has also packed some sandwiches.
• The sentence would correctly read: "I have made the basket for going to the picnic and I‘ve packed some sandwiches too."
• To - This is a preposition or part of an infinitive verb (to + verb), and it doesn't fit appropriately in this sentence.
• Toot - This is a noun that represents the sound of a horn. It doesn't make sense in the context of this sentence.
• In conclusion, the sentence is correctly completed as: "I have made the basket for going to the picnic and I've packed some sandwiches too."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is: seize

Key Points

• A homonym is a word that has the same spelling or pronunciation as another word but may have a different meaning.
• Seize means to take hold of suddenly or forcibly; to grasp, grab, or capture. (पकड़ना)
• Example: The police officer moved quickly to seize the suspect and prevent further escape.
• ​So, "Seize" fits in this context, indicating that the authorities are taking action against the unregistered companies.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete sentence: The authorities seize the unregistered companies.

Additional Information

• Sees: The third person singular form of the verb "see," which means to perceive with the eyes. (देखना)
• Seas: Plural form of the noun "sea," referring to large bodies of saltwater that cover much of the Earth's surface. (सागरों)
• Cease: To stop or come to an end; the act of discontinuing or halting an activity. (रोकना)

The correct answer is 'To make a bad situation worse.'

Key Points

• "To add fuel to the fire" is an idiom that means to do or say something that makes an already difficult or tense situation even worse. (पहले से मुश्किल या तनावपूर्ण स्थिति को और बदतर बनाने के लिए कुछ करना)
• Example Sentence: By making fun of John's new haircut in front of everyone, Peter just added fuel to the fire.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1

The correct answer is: neat and clean

Key Points

• The phrase "spic and span" is an idiomatic expression used to describe something that is very clean, tidy, and in good order. (कुछ ऐसा जो बहुत साफ सुथरा और अच्छे क्रम में हो)
• Example: After hours of cleaning and organizing, Mary's living room was spic and span, ready for the weekend guests.
• "Neat and clean" is a synonymous phrase that captures the same idea of cleanliness and tidiness.
• Therefore, the two phrases are interchangeable in this context, making "neat and clean" the closest in meaning to "spic and span."

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: positively

Key Points

• Positively means in a manner that indicates a positive condition, attitude, or manner; with optimism or affirmation. (सकारात्मक)
• Example: She always approached her work positively, seeking solutions and opportunities for growth.
• In the given context, the use of "positively" conveys the idea that Ayurveda has a favourable influence on health, emphasizing its potential benefits and holistic approach to well-being.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Casually: In an informal, relaxed, or unconcerned manner, without much formality or seriousness. (संयोग से)
• Negatively: In a way that indicates an adverse or unfavourable manner, expressing disapproval or criticism. (नकारात्मक)
• Probably: Very likely to happen or be true, although not with absolute certainty. (शायद)

The correct answer is: equilibrium

Key Points

• Equilibrium means a state of balance, stability, or harmony, where opposing forces or influences are in a state of relative balance. (संतुलन)
• Example: The market reached equilibrium when the supply and demand for the product were equal.
• The word "equilibrium" is grammatically correct in this context, as it accurately describes the state of balance that Ayurveda aims to achieve.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Foundation: The underlying base or support on which something is built, established, or constructed. (बुनियाद)
• Basis: The fundamental principle or groundwork on which something is developed, reasoned, or established. (आधार)
• Substance: The physical matter of which something is composed, or the essential meaning or nature of something. (पदार्थ)

The correct answer is: visible

Key Points

• Visible means being able to be seen or perceived; noticeable or observable. (दृश्यमान)
• Example: The stars were clearly visible in the night sky, shining brightly against the dark backdrop.
• The use of "visible" in the given context suggests that the results of these healthy practices can be observed or noticed. It implies tangible, noticeable changes in physical or mental well-being.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Invisible: Unable to be seen; not visible to the naked eye. (अदृश्य)
• Gentle: Mild, kind, or soft in action, effect, or degree. (कोमल)
• Sluggish: Slow-moving, lacking energy or alertness, or characterized by a slow response. (आलसी)

The correct answer is: regeneration

Key Points

• Regeneration means the process of renewal, regrowth, or restoration, often used to describe the renewal of tissues, cells, or the environment. (पुनर्जनन)
• Example: After the forest fire, the ecosystem began the process of regeneration, with new plants and trees gradually replacing those that were lost.
• ​The word "regeneration" is appropriate here as it refers to the process of renewal or regrowth.
• In the context of cells, it implies the natural restoration or replacement of damaged or ageing cells.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Benefit: An advantage, profit, or positive outcome gained from something. (फ़ायदा)
• Degeneration: The process of decline, deterioration, or worsening, especially in the condition of something over time. (अध: पतन)
• Loss: The state or fact of losing something, a reduction in value, or the deprivation of possession or use. (नुकसान)

The correct answer is: imbalance

Key Points

• Imbalance means a lack of balance, disproportion, or an uneven distribution of elements. (असंतुलन)
• Example: The excessive workload created an imbalance in her life, causing stress and affecting her overall well-being.
• The word "imbalance" is appropriate here as it conveys the idea of a lack of equilibrium or proportion.
• In the context of the sentence, it suggests that there is a disruption or disproportion in some aspect of the body's functioning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Weakness: The state or condition of lacking strength, vigour, or power; a deficiency in physical or mental strength. (कमजोरी)
• Potential: The inherent capacity or capability for growth, development, or achievement; the latent abilities or possibilities. (संभावना)
• Energy: The capacity for doing work, producing power, or exhibiting vitality; often associated with physical or mental activity. (ऊर्जा)

'वसंत ऋतु में वृक्षों में नव पल्लव आते हैं।' वाक्य में प्रयुक्त 'पल्लव' शब्द का अर्थ है- पत्ता अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points 

• वाक्य- वसंत ऋतु में वृक्षों में नव पल्लव आते हैं।
• वाक्य में प्रयुक्त 'पल्लव' शब्द का अर्थ पत्ता होगा।
• 'पल्लव' का अनेकार्थी शब्द :  नया और कोमल पत्ता, कोंपल, साड़ी का छोर, पल्ला आदि।

Important Points अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ प्रमुख अनेकार्थी शब्द:-

'कुत्ता रेंकता है।' इस वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द के स्थान पर उपयुक्त शब्द होगा- भोंकता अन्य सभी विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points 

• अशुद्ध वाक्य- कुत्ता रेंकता है।
• दिए गये वाक्य में 'क्रिया प्रयोग' की त्रुटि है।
• यहाँ 'रेंकता' सार्थक शब्द नही है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नही हो रहा।
• अत: सार्थक शब्द 'भोंकता' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य- कुत्ता भोंकता है।

Important Points क्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ:-

Additional Information 

'अतिवृष्टि' का सही विलोम है- अनावृष्टि अन्य सभी विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points 

• 'अतिवृष्टि' का सही विलोम 'अनावृष्टि' होगा।
• 'अतिवृष्टि' का अर्थ-  मूसलाधार वर्षा, अत्यधिक वर्षा होने की स्थिति।
• 'अनावृष्टि' का अर्थ- वर्षा का अभाव, अनावर्षण, अवर्षा, सूखा।
• अन्य 'निवृष्टि, अवृष्टि' शब्द वर्तनी की दृष्टि से अशुद्ध है।

अन्य विकल्प:-

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द:-