SSC GD Constable (2022) Official Paper (Held On : 13 Feb 2023 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

1. For '

' element → Shifting diagonally in the downwards direction.

2. For element at the sides→ 

• Elements sitting on the sides are shifting in the clockwise direction. This movement happens at every alternative time starting with first box.
• Elements sitting on the sides i.e at top and bottom interchange their position. This movement happens at every alternative time starting with second box.

Final series is

Hence, ‘option - (1)’ is the correct answer.

Given equation : (200 − 6) ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5

Now, by interchanging the numbers

• Option - (1) : 6 and 4

(200 − 6) ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5 ⇒ (200 − 4) ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 24 ÷ 6 × 25 ÷ 5

(200 − 4) ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 24 ÷ 6 × 25 ÷ 5

196 ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 4 × 5

14 × 2 − 8 = 20

28 - 8 = 20 

20 = 20 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (2) : 8 and 2

(200 − 6) ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5 ⇒ (200 − 6) ÷ 14 × 8 − 2 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5

(200 − 6) ÷ 14 × 8 − 2 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5

194 ÷ 14 × 8 − 2 = 6 × 5

13.85 × 8 − 2 = 30

110.8 - 2 = 30

108.8 ≠ 30 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : 24 and 14

(200 − 6) ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5 ⇒ (200 − 6) ÷ 24 × 2 − 8 = 14 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5

(200 − 6) ÷ 24 × 2 − 8 = 14 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5

194 ÷ 24 × 2 − 8 = 3.5 × 5

8.08 × 2 − 8 = 17.5

16.16 - 8 = 17.5

8.16 ≠ 17.5 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (4) : 6 and 8

(200 − 6) ÷ 14 × 2 − 8 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5 ⇒ (200 − 8) ÷ 14 × 2 − 6 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5

(200 − 8) ÷ 14 × 2 − 6 = 24 ÷ 4 × 25 ÷ 5

192 ÷ 14 × 2 − 6 = 6 × 5

13.71 × 2 − 6 = 30

27.42 - 6 = 30

21.42 ≠ 30 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (1)" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some sticks are trees → Does not Follow (As, No definite relation given between sticks and trees, So, it can be possible but not definitely true)

II. Some papers are trees → Follow (As, all trees are papers. So, whole trees comes in papers therefore some papers are trees is definitely true)

III. No bags are papers → Does not Follow (As, No definite relation given between bags and papers, So, it can be possible but not definitely true)

So, Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Only conclusion II follows".

Logic : First consonants and then vowels are arranged in ascending order according to English alphabetic series respectively.

So,

• ‘SHAKE’ is written as ‘HKSAE’

​

And,

• ‘RIVER’ is written as ‘RRVEI’

​Similarly,

• ‘OCEAN’ will be written as :

​

​Hence, "CNAEO" is the correct answer.

Logic : Double addition pattern is followed here with common difference of (4).

Hence, "50" is the correct answer.

Logic : Term : Antonym

So,

• Antonym of up is down.

Similarly,

• Antonym of backward is forward.

Hence, "Forward" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

1. Forward → It is antonym of backward or reverse.
2. Straighten → It is antonym of bend or curve
3. Lift → It is antonym of lower or drop.
4. Low → It is antonym of high.

Given :

Statement given :  P + Q – S + R × L ÷ M

So,

• P + Q → P is the brother of Q.

• Q – S → Q is the wife of S.

• S + R → S is the brother of R.

• R × L → R is the son of L.

​

• L ÷ M → L is the husband of M.

 

Thus, according to the final family tree :

• Option - (1) : Q is the sister of M → This statement is incorrect as Q is daughter-in-law of M.
• Option - (2) : P is S’s wife’s brother → This statement is correct.
• Option - (3) : L is the father of P → This statement is incorrect as L is the father-in-law of P's sister Q.
• Option - (4) : P is the brother of S → This statement is incorrect as P is the brother-in-law of S.

Hence, "Option - (2)" is the correct answer.

Logic :

• First, third and fourth letter ⇒ (4) is added to the position value according to English alphabetic series.
• Second letter ⇒ (7) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.

So,

​Hence, "VILI" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic : (2^nd number + 1)² = 1^st number.

So,

• 256 ∶ 15

$(15 + 1)^2$ = 256

$(16)^2$ = 256

256 = 256 (LHS = RHS)

And,

• 1225 ∶ 34

$(34 + 1)^2$ = 1225

$(35)^2$ = 1225

1225 = 1225 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

• ? ∶ 17

$(17 + 1)^2$ = ?

$(18)^2$ = ?

324 = ?

Hence, "324" is the correct answer.

Given equation : 104 ÷ 8 – 24 × 5 + 9 = 34

Now, by interchanging the signs

• Option - (1) : + and ÷

104 ÷ 8 – 24 × 5 + 9 = 34 ⇒ 104 + 8 – 24 × 5 ÷ 9 = 34

104 + 8 – 24 × 5 ÷ 9 = 34

104 + 8 – 24 × 0.55 = 34

104 + 8 – 13.2 = 34

112 – 13.2 = 34

98.8 ≠ 34 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (2) : – and +

104 ÷ 8 – 24 × 5 + 9 = 34 ⇒ 104 ÷ 8 + 24 × 5 - 9 = 34

104 ÷ 8 + 24 × 5 - 9 = 34

13 + 24 × 5 - 9 = 34

13 + 120 - 9 = 34

133 - 9 = 34

124 ≠ 34 (LHS ≠ RHS)

• Option - (3) : + and ×

104 ÷ 8 – 24 × 5 + 9 = 34 ⇒ 104 ÷ 8 – 24 + 5 × 9 = 34

104 ÷ 8 – 24 + 5 × 9 = 34

13 – 24 + 5 × 9 = 34

13 + 45 - 24 = 34

58 - 24 = 34

34 = 34 (LHS = RHS)

• Option - (4) : ÷ and ×

104 ÷ 8 – 24 × 5 + 9 = 34 ⇒ 104 × 8 – 24 ÷ 5 + 9 = 34

104 × 8 – 24 ÷ 5 + 9 = 34

104 × 8 – 4.8 + 9 = 34

832 + 9 - 4.8 = 34

841 - 4.8 = 34

836.2 ≠ 34 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Hence, "Option - (3)" is the correct answer.

Logic : Body part : Profession or activity associated with

So,

• Singers uses vocal cords in their profession.

Similarly,

• Footballers uses feet the sport of football.

Hence, "Footballer" is the correct answer.

Additional Information

1. Scientist → Scientists uses brain in their profession.
2. Doctor → Doctors uses brain to treat patients.
3. Footballer → Footballers uses feet in their game of football.
4. Teacher → Teachers uses brain to teach.

According to the sequence in the dictionary:

4 inert

2 insert

1 inside

3 insist

5 investigate

Hence, the correct option is "4, 2, 1, 3, 5".

Logic : Consecutive multiples of (6) are subtracted from the given series.

Hence, "78" is the correct answer.

Logic :

• First and fourth letter ⇒ (2) and (3) is subtracted from the first and fourth letter position value according to English alphabetic series respectively.
• Second and third letter ⇒ Interchanged their positions
• Fifth and sixth letter ⇒ Interchanged their positions

So,

• ‘PEOPLE’ is written as ‘NOEMEL’

​

And,

• ‘TABLES’ is written as ‘RBAISE’

​Similarly,

• ‘MATURE’ will be written as :

​

​Hence, "KTARER" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given combination when mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Detailed Explanation:

• The line MN is the mirror
• The word "U72Fhz56S" the second digit is "7". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 1 is eliminated.

• The word "U72Fhz56S" the fourth letter is "F". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 2 is eliminated..

• The word "U72Fhz56S" the fifth letter is "h". So, the mirror image should be "

" ⇒ Option 4 is eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (3)".

Given:

 

• The image must not to be rotated

  

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Given : Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

Explanation :

1) Sam is sitting second to the right of Krish.

2. Vishal is sitting second to the right of Sam.

3) Savio is sitting third to the right of Sam.

4) Michelle is the immediate neighbour of Sam and Krish.

5) Dixon is sitting third to the right of Krish.

Thus, according to the final arrangement Savio is sitting between Vishal and Krish.

Hence, "Savio" is the correct answer.

Given : Six boys M, G, V, A, R and D are standing in a straight line facing towards North.

Explanation : 

1) Only three boys are standing to the left of G.

2. M is standing at the second position from the left end.

3) Only D is standing between G and A.

As position of V and R are not known yet, therefore there are two possible positions for V and R.

Thus, according to the final arrangement 'D' is standing at the second position from the extreme right end.

Hence, "D" is the correct answer.

Logic : (4) is subtracted from the position value according to English alphabetic series.

So,

​Hence, "FEDG" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is :-

From the given three different cubes taking figure 1 and figure 2 ,the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 4 is common on both figure 1 and figure 2, it is clear that 1, 3, 5 and 6 are adjacent to it and remaining number i.e., 2 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

1 → 6

2 → 4

3 → 5

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "4".

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

The correct answer is Rs.3,00,000/- (Rupees three lakh) along with a Tamrapatra and Angavastram.

Key PointsSangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship:

• It is also known as Akademi Ratna Sadasyata.
• The greatest award bestowed by Sangeet Natak Akademi, regardless of nationality, ethnicity, caste, religion, creed, or sex, is the Fellowship.
• Anybody under 50 is not ordinarily eligible to be considered for the honor according to the criteria.
• The members of the Akademi General Council as well as the existing fellows provide recommendations.
• Up until 2008, only 30 distinguished individuals could receive the most coveted and rare Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna Sadasyata) at any given time.
• However, ten (10) additional Akademi Fellow seats have been added as a result of the Rules and Regulations being amended at the General Council meeting on January 29, 2010, with two seats being filled each year. This expansion will take place gradually over the course of five years.
• The Akademi elected its first Fellow in 1954.
• To date, it has named 153 notable individuals as Akademi Fellows (Akademi Ratna).
• The Akademi Fellowship includes an Angavastram, a Tamrapatra, and purse money totaling Rs. 3.00 lakhs.

Additional InformationSangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship awardee in 2018:

• Zakir Hussain
• Jatin Goswami
• Sonal Mansingh
• Thiruvidaimarudur Kuppiah Kalyanasundram

Sangeet Natak Akademi:

• India's premier performing arts organization, Sangeet Natak Akademi, was founded in 1953.
• With the goal of preserving and advancing the rich intangible cultural legacy of the nation, which is reflected in its many musical, dance, and theatrical traditions.
• The General Council of the Akademi is in charge of overseeing it.
• The President of India appoints the Chairman of the Akademi to a five-year term.
• The Indian government's Ministry of Culture oversees Sangeet Natak Akademi as an autonomous entity.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi has bestowed following awards:
• Sangeet Natak Academy Fellowship (Ratna Sadashya)
• Sangeet Natak Academy Award (Akademi Puraskar)
• Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar (Instituted in 2006)

The correct answer is Southern part.

Key Points

• Mawsynram:
• Mawsynram is a town located 69 kilometers from Shillong, the state capital of Meghalaya state in northeastern India, in the Southern Khasi Hills area.
• In India, Mawsynram experiences the most rainfall.
• It is said to be the wettest site on Earth, receiving 11,872 millimeters of rain on average per year.
• The Guinness Book of World Records states that Mawsynram saw 26,000 millimeters of rain in 1985.
• Mawsynram is a popular tourist destination known for its scenic beauty, waterfalls, and limestone caves.
• Traveling to Phlangwanbroi village enables nature enthusiasts to go deep into the jungle, which is home to colonies of protected Hoolock Gibbons.
• Worldwide, Krem Puri is the world's longest sandstone cave.

Additional Information

• Khasi Tribe:
• An ethnic group in northeastern India's Meghalaya state is known as the Khasi people.
• Khasi Hills are home to the Khasi people
• They are one of the few South Asian populations speaking Austronasiatic.
• One of the few tribes in the world that still practice matriarchy is the Khasi tribe.
• Khasi region is also known for its tea and orange plantations.
• There are three possible causes for Mawsynram's heavy rainfall:
• During the monsoon, warm, humid winds from the Bay of Bengal push northward, covering a large area before being forced to converge into a tighter zone over the Khasi Hills, where they concentrate their moisture.
• The Khasi Hills' east-west alignment puts them squarely in the line of the Bay of Bengal breeze, which causes a considerable uplift as well as cooling, additional condensation, and consequently more rain.
• Lastly, during the monsoon season, uplift over the Khasi Hills is almost continual due to strong winds in the upper atmosphere continuously drawing the lifted air upward, which results in nearly constant rainfall.

The correct answer is The Royal Calcutta Golf Club.

Key Points

• The Royal Calcutta Golf Club was established in 1829, making it the oldest golf club in India.
• It is also the first golf club established outside of Great Britain.
• The club is located in Kolkata and has a rich history, having hosted several prestigious golf tournaments.
• Some of the notable members of the club include famous Indian cricketer Sourav Ganguly and former Indian President Pranab Mukherjee.

Additional Information

• East Point Golf Club: This golf club is located in Visakhapatnam and was established in 1884.
• It ​is the only golf course that is open to people from all walks of life.
• EPGC, as it is commonly referred to, is an independent, non-profit entity that focuses on providing services aimed at enhancing the game of Golf, and the skill levels of its members who have a desire to improve the standard of their game through the organization of training programmes and competitions.
• The Bangalore Golf Club: This golf club is also located in Bangalore and was established in 1876. It was initially a 12-hole Golf Course.
• For decades since its founding, it was used by the Army as a training ground.
• In 2002, the entire landscape was wholly restructured to give birth to an 18-hole golf course of international standard.
• ​Cosmopolitan Club: This is not a golf club but a social club located in Chennai.
• It was founded in 1873.
• Renowned for its fine cuisine, superb sports facilities, and residential accommodation, Cosmopolitan Club has kept pace with the changing times.

The correct answer is one-third.

Key Points

• India's legislature is divided into two houses.
• Article 169 of the Constitution allows the states to have a Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) in addition to the Legislative Assembly ( Vidhan Sabha), much as Parliament has two Houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).
• Article 169 (Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States): Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than 2/3^rd of the members of the Assembly present and voting.
• A state's Legislative Council may not have fewer than 40 members or more than one-third of the State Assembly's total membership, as stated in Article 171 of the Constitution.
• At present, 6 States have a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
• The tenure of a Member of the Legislative Council (MLC) is 6 years, with 1/3^rd of the members retiring every two years.

Additional InformationManner of Election of Members of the Legislative Council (MLC): Article 171

• The state's MLAs elect 1/3^rd of the MLCs.
• An additional 1/3^rd will be chosen by a special electorate made up of current district board and municipality members.
• 1/12^th are chosen by registered graduates of at least three years standing and 1/12^th by teachers of secondary schools having at least three years experience.
• The governor appoints the remaining members (about 1/6^th) in recognition of their remarkable contributions to the cooperative movement, literature, science, art, and social service, among other fields.

The correct answer is March-April.

Key Points

• Mahavir Jayanti:
• For the Jain community, Mahavir Jayanti is one of the most auspicious holidays.
• The 24^th and final Tirthankara (enlightened teacher) Mahavir of the Jain religion is born on this day.
• Achieving global peace and harmony in a way that harms living things as little as possible is highly valued in Jainism.
• Jains across celebrate Mahavir Jayanti with great enthusiasm.
• On this auspicious day, they recite songs in praise of Lord Mahavirs, meditate, visit temples, go on processions (rath yatra), and pay alms to the needy.
• Vardhman Mahavir:
• In the former Vaishali kingdom, King Siddhartha and Queen Trishala gave birth to Lord Mahavira.
• The precise date of Mahvira's birth is a topic of discussion among Jains.
• The Swetambar Jains date his birth to 599 BC, whereas the Degambar Jains place his birth year at 615 BC.
• The 13^th day of the month of Chaitra is when Lord Mahavira was born, according to the Hindu calendar.
• At thirty years old, Mahavira gave up all of his material belongings and set out to become a nomadic ascetic in pursuit of enlightenment.
• According to tradition, after going into exile for 12 years, he achieved "Kevala Jnana," or omniscience.
• The teachings of non-violence, honesty, non-stealing, chastity, and non-attachment were the focus of Lord Mahavira's life.
• He advocated treating all living things with love, compassion, and respect since they all have souls.
• He also emphasized the value of leading a straightforward, tranquil, and moral life.

Additional Information

• Some other festivals of Jains:
• Paryushana:
• The most significant yearly religious occasion for Jains is Das Lakshana, also known as Paryushana, which is often observed in August or September during the Bhadrapad Month's Shukla Paksha in the Hindi calendar.
• Jains frequently use prayer, meditation, and fasting to heighten their spiritual intensity.
• This is the time to highlight the five primary vowels.
• Followers are encouraged to practice in accordance with their aptitude and desires, and there are no established regulations.
• Śvētāmbaras refer to it as Paryushana ("abiding" or "coming together"), whereas Digambaras refer to it as Das Lakshana Dharma.
• For Śvētāmbara Jains, Paryushana lasts for eight days, whereas for Jains of the Digambara sect, it lasts for ten days.
• The celebration of Samvatsari, also known as Kshamavani (forgiveness day), marks the completion of the festival.
• Samvatsari:
• Saṃvatsari, also known as Annual Day or Forgiveness Day, falls on the last day of the Paryushana Shvetambara Jaina sect.
• Every year, in the Jain month of Bhadrapada, it falls on Shukla Choth; on the Gregorian calendar, it falls between mid-August and mid-September.
• On this day, Jains ask for and accept forgiveness from all living things for whatever mistakes they may have made, whether they were intentional or not.
• On this day every year, an intricate penitential retreat known as "samvatsari pratikramana" is conducted.
• Following the pratikramana, Jains repeat Micchami Dukkadam, or variations such as "Khamau Sa," "Uttam Kshama," or "Khamat Khamna" in order to ask for forgiveness from all living things, including friends and family.

The correct answer is Cooperative.

Key Points

• Cooperative Banks:
• It is a cooperatively organized institution designed to handle standard banking operations.
• The founding principles of cooperative banks are share collections, deposit acceptance, and loan disbursements.
• These are cooperative credit societies, where community members band together to lend money to one another on advantageous terms.
• They adhere to the cooperative principle of one member, one vote, which guarantees each participant an equal voice in the process of making decisions.
• They are registered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, or the Cooperative Societies Act of the relevant State.
• The Co-operative banks are governed by:
• Banking Regulations Act, 1949
• Banking Laws (Co-operative Societies) Act, 1955
• They can be generically categorized as:
• Urban cooperative banks
• Rural cooperative banks

Additional Information

• Scheduled Bank:
• Scheduled banks are those that fall under Schedule II of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• To be classified as a scheduled bank, the bank's raised capital and paid-up capital must total at least Rs. 5 lakh.
• The RBI may provide these banks with low interest loans.
• They are clearing house members as well.
• They also have a lot of responsibilities to meet, like keeping the central bank's average daily cash reserve ratio.
• Nationalised Bank:
• These are also known as Public Sector Bank.
• Banks classified as public sector in which the public interest is the primary goal and the government has retained a majority of its share.
• In order to enter the banking industry after gaining independence, the Indian government began nationalising the Imperial Bank of India in 1955.
• It was renamed as The State Bank of India after the Reserve Bank of India acquired 60% of the company.
• The Indian government nationalized fourteen more banks in 1969.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• The fourth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2021 was hosted in Panchkula, Haryana.
• After being postponed three times due to COVID-19, it was held from 4–13 June 2022​
• It was held in five different cities: Panchkula, Shahabad, Ambala, Chandigarh and Delhi.
• Some 4,700 athletes, including 2,262 women, from all of India’s 36 states and Union Territories participated at KIYG 2021.
• A total of 903 medals across 25 different sports were awarded at KIYG 2021.
• Five indigenous sports, mallakhamb, gatka, kalaripayattu, thang-ta and yogasana, also made their KIYG debut.
• Hosts Haryana won the KIYG 2021 with 52 gold medals, followed by Maharashtra with 45 and Karnataka with 22.

Additional Information

• The Khelo India initiative, which translates to ‘Let’s play India’, was proposed by the government of India in 2017 to revive India’s sporting culture by engaging with children at the grassroots level.
• Under this movement, the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG), the Khelo India University Games (KIUG) and the Khelo India Winter Games were set up as annual national sports competitions where youngsters, representing their states and universities, respectively, showcased their skills and competed for medals.
• The Khelo India Youth Games is an annual national sports event for athletes under-17 and under-21 years of age.
• The 1^st edition was held in Delhi in 2018.
• Maharashtra hosted the 2^nd edition of the Khelo India Youth Games in 2019, which was held in Pune.
• Haryana topped the medals table in the inaugural edition in 2018, then called the Khelo India School Games, but Maharashtra beat them down to second in 2019 and 2020.

The correct answer is hydrogenation.

Key PointsHydrogenation of Oil:

• As vegetable oils have long chains and double bonds, they can go through addition processes. These substances are unsaturated. Vegetable ghee, also referred to as vanaspati ghee, is created by heating vegetable oils in the presence of Nickel catalyst, which changes the unsaturated fat into saturated fat.
• This process is called the hydrogenation of oil.
• While vegetable ghee is semi-solid or solid, vegetable oil is a viscous liquid. Since hydrogens are added in this instance across the double bond, the reaction is also referred to as an addition reaction.
• As Nickel can absorb hydrogen, catalysts are utilized to facilitate rapid and simple absorption.
• Simple absorption of atomic hydrogen and unsaturated fat on the metal catalyst is the mechanism behind this reaction. It should be pointed out that applying hydrogen gas under pressure is necessary.
• The melting point of the oil or fat is increased after the hydrogenation process. Additionally, flavour degradation and oxidation resistance are preserved which increases the shelf life.

Hydrogenation:

• The chemical process known as hydrogenation occurs when molecular hydrogen reacts with another substance or element, typically with the help of a catalyst like platinum, palladium, or nickel.
• The method is frequently used to saturate or decrease organic molecules.

Additional Information

• Pasteurization:
• The process of pasteurization involves heating milk to a precise temperature for a predetermined amount of time in order to eradicate hazardous germs that may cause illnesses like brucellosis, typhoid fever, tuberculosis, and diphtheria.
• Shelf life is extended by doing this.
• Preservation:
• The act of treating and managing food in a way that stops or significantly slows down decomposition and prevents foodborne illness while preserving nutritional value, texture, and flavor is known as food preservation.
• Preservatives are usually added to accomplish this.
• Homogenization:
• The process of homogenizing, or dispersing a material uniformly throughout a fluid like milk, involves breaking down a substance—like the fat globules in milk—into incredibly minute particles. The cream will not float to the top of properly homogenized milk. The fat globules are broken up in the procedure by applying high pressure to force the milk through tiny apertures.
• This process is done to make milk uniform and prevent separation.

The correct answer is dry ice.

Key Points

• Solid carbon dioxide (CO₂) is commonly known as dry ice because it does not melt like regular ice but instead sublimates directly from a solid into a gas.
• It is colorless, odorless, and non-flammable and can lower the pH of a solution when dissolved in water, forming carbonic acid (H₂CO₃)
• It is used for various purposes, such as refrigeration, transportation of frozen goods, and in the entertainment industry for creating smoke or fog effects.
• It sublimes at 194.7 K (−78.5 °C; −109.2 °F) at Earth's atmospheric pressure.                                                 

Additional Information

• Heavy water, or deuterium oxide, is a form of water in which the hydrogen atoms are replaced by deuterium, a heavier isotope of hydrogen.
• It is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
• Aspirin, also known as acetylsalicylic acid, is a medication used for pain relief, fever reduction, and anti-inflammatory purposes.
• Table sugar, or sucrose, is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose.
• It is commonly used as a sweetener in food and beverages.

The correct answer is Anil Chauhan.

Key Points 

• Anil Chauhan:
• Born on May 18, 1961, General Anil Chauhan holds four stars in the Indian Army.
• Currently serving as the Indian Armed Forces' second Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) since September 30, 2022.
• The Narendra Modi-led government recalled Chauhan from retirement on September 28, 2022, and named him as the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS). This came about as a result of a June 2022 announcement that allowed military retirees under the age of 62 to be eligible for the position.
• He became the first three-star retiree to be appointed to the position, which is usually held by a four-star officer, and took over as commander two days later.
• General Bipin Rawat was the first person to hold the position, and he succeeded him.
• Awards:
• Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM)
• Uttam Yudh Seva Medal (UYSM)
• Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM)
• Sena Medal (SM)
• Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM)

Additional Information

• Ajai Singh:
• He is a Retired Indian Army Lieutenant General.
• He headed Andaman and Nicobar Command (CINCAN) as its 16^th Commander-in-Chief. On June 1, 2021, he succeeded Lieutenant-General Manoj Pande, PVSM, AVSM, VSM, in leadership.
• He was awarded: 
• Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM)
• Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM)
• Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM)
• Bipin Rawat:
• Four-star general of the Indian Army General Bipin Rawat was an Indian military officer who served from 16 March 1958 to 8 December 2021. Before his death in a helicopter crash in December 2021, he was the first Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of the Indian Armed Forces, having taken office in January 2020. He held the positions of 26^th Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) and 57^th Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (Chairman COSC) of the Indian Armed Forces before becoming the CDS.
• Awards:
• Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM)
• Uttam Yudh Seva Medal (UYSM)
• Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM)
• Sena Medal (SM)
• Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM)
• Manoj Pande:
• Born on May 6, 1962, General Manoj Pande is a serving four-star officer in the Indian Army.
• He is currently the 29^th Chief of Staff.
• He had held the positions of Vice Chief of Staff, Eastern Command's General Officer-Commanding-in-Chief, and Andman and Nicobar Command's Commander-in-Chief (CINCAN) in the past.
• He is the first officer to hold the position of Army Chief from both the Corps of Engineers and non-infantry/armoured corps.
• He was awarded: 
• Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM)
• Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM)
• Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM)

The correct answer is Madurai.

Key Points

• The Pandyas were one of the ancient Tamil dynasties that ruled over parts of southern India from around the 6^th century BCE to the 17^th century CE.
• Their kingdom was centered in what is now Tamil Nadu.
• They belonged to the group of three ancient Sangam age kingdoms known as "Muvendar," or the three crowns- The Pandyas, Chera and Chola.
• Under Jatavarman Sundara Pandyan, the Pandyas entered their golden age, expanding their empire into Telugu country and invading Sri Lanka to conquer the northern half of the island.
• They ruled initially from Korkai, a seaport on the Indian peninsula's southernmost tip, and later shifted to Madurai.
• Madurai was one of the major cities in the Pandya kingdom and was the capital for many centuries.
• It was known for its impressive architecture, including the Meenakshi Amman Temple and the Thirumalai Nayak Palace.

Additional Information

• Kallupatti and Kariapatti are both small towns in Tamil Nadu that have historical significance but were not major centers of power during the Pandya era.
• Palamedu is a village in Tamil Nadu that is known for its annual bull-taming festival.
• The territory of the Pandyas is known as Pandymandalam, Thenmandalam, or Pandianadu.
• The region known as Pandy Mandalam or Pandy Nadu was split up into numerous valanadus, which were then further separated into numerous kurrams and nadus (meaning group of villages).
• Royal authorities were referred to by different titles:
• The Prime Minister was called Uttaramantri.
• The name of the royal secretariat was Eluttu Mandapam.
• The titles of the military leaders were Palli Velan, Parantakan Pallivelan, Maran Adittan, and Tennavan Tamizhavel.6
• The political distribution of land was as follows:
• Brahmins were given land in Salabogam.
• The land allotted to ironsmiths was known as Tattarkani.
• The area belonging to the Carpenters was called Taccu-maniyam.
• The land provided to the Brahmin community for educational reasons was known as Bhattavriutti.
• Early Tamilakam coins featured the Three Crowned Kings, a tiger, a fish, and a bow, which represented the Cholas, Pandyas, and Cheras respectively.
• "Kodandaraman" and "Kanchi Valangum Perumal" were the names given to the Pandya coins with fish images.
• The Pandyas are thought to have followed Jainism at first before switching to Shaivism.

The correct answer is 51A.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties:
• Part IV A of the Indian Constitution contains Article 51A, which deals with the Fundamental Duties.
• The Soviet Constitution (USSR) is where the idea of fundamental duties originated.
• Fundamental Duties were recommended in 1976 by the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Ten Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• Fundamental duties are not subject to legal action unless specifically stated in a provision, in contrast to fundamental rights, which are justiciable.

Additional Information

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added ten fundamental duties.
• The 86^th Amendment to the Constitution was passed in 2002, adding the eleventh fundamental duty.
• The list of Fundamental Duties as mentioned in the Article 51A:

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• An asset is something of value that can be owned by an individual or an organization and can be used to produce something profitable.
• For a bank, these are the resources that generate income and profit.
• A bank has assets such as cash held in its vaults and moneys that the bank holds at the Federal Reserve bank (called “reserves”), loans that are made to customers.
• Other assets for a bank can include investments, such as stocks and bonds, and physical assets, such as buildings and equipment.

Additional Information

• Reserves, which are the funds held by the bank to meet its obligations and cover any potential losses, are considered an asset for the bank.
• This is because the reserves can be used to make loans or investments that generate income for the bank.
• These are important for a bank because they act as a buffer against unexpected losses.
• Banks are required by regulatory authorities (like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in India) to hold a certain amount of reserves to ensure financial stability. e.g., CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) and SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio).
• Loans are also considered an asset for the bank.
• When a bank makes a loan, it expects to receive interest payments from the borrower over time. This interest income is a source of revenue for the bank and is considered an asset.
• Reserves are typically low-risk and low-return, while loans are higher-risk and higher-return.

The correct answer is Tashkent.

Key Points

• Communist Party of India (CPI):
• It is a left-wing political party in India, founded in 1920 in Tashkent (now the capital of Uzbekistan).
• M.N. Roy was the first elected Commintern leader.
• The CPI was formally founded in 1925 at the Indian Communist Conference in Kanpur.
• It declared that revolution would be used to build socialism in India.
• Among its founders were M. N. Roy, his wife Evelyn Trent, M. P. T. Acharya and Abani Mukherji.
• The CPI's first general secretary was S.V. Ghate.
• Ideological differences led to the split in the party in 1964 when two different party conferences were held, one of CPI and one of the Communist Party of India (Marxist).
• The Left Front governed West Bengal for 34 years (1977–2011) and Tripura for 25 years (1993–2018)

 

Additional Information

• Current scenario of CPI:
• The Election Commission of India recognized the CPI as a "National Party," but on April 10, 2023, the commission revoked that recognition due to the party's persistently dismal election results.
• The CPI was the only national political party in India to run under the same electoral emblem in every general election up until 2022.
• The Communist Party of India held its 24^th Party Congress at Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh, from October 14–18, 2022.
• List of members of parliament held by CPI:
• Rajya Sabha:
• Binoy Biswam - Kerala
• P. Sandosh Kumar - Kerala
• Lok Sabha:
• K. Subbarayan - Tiruppur (T.N.) constituency
• M. Selvarasu - Nagapattinam (T.N.) constituency
• Andijan, Bukhara, and Namangan are also cities in Uzbekistan.

The correct answer is Kolannalu.

Key Points

• Kolannalu:
• India is home to a number of popular folk dances, including the well-known Kolannalu stick dance from Andhra Pradesh.
• The narrative of the wicked spirit Basavasura that transformed into deity assisting others is explained by the song, dance moves, and background music.
• The Kolannalu traditional dance is sometimes referred to as kolkolannalu and is widely known among the Andhra Pradeshi people as Kolattam in Telugu.
• It is also known as the "stick dance" because the performers use long sticks (called kolatams) as props during the dance.
• Kolattam is a traditional dance in which eight to forty ladies take part. The dancers follow the direction of a leader who forms two circles.
• The dance is performed by the inner circle dancers striking on stickers while the outside circle dances around the sticks.
• Other Folk Dance of Andhra Pradesh:
• Bhagotam
• Burrakatha
• Kuchipudi
• Bhamakalapam
• Butta Bommalu
• Dappu
• Perini
• Tappeta Gullu

 Additional Information

• Ghodemodni:
• An essential type of warrior folk dance, ghodemodni is performed in Bicholim (Goa) during Shigmo.
• It is a reflection of the rich fighting heritage that the Maratha community, who came from the Ghat region, inherited.
• Every member of the Ravalnathkar, Madwal, Saterkar, and Mahamayakar groups participates in this folk dance during Ghodemodni, dressing as a horse and donning white garments.
• It is performed by men and women, and involves intricate footwork and rhythmic movements.
• Theyyam:
• Theyyam is one of the several dance styles that Kerla is famous for.
• The word for God in Malayalam, daivam, is the source of theyyam.
• Despite being a dance style, it is not performed for amusement.
• This is a ceremonial performance of centuries-old worship—a dance of the gods.
• This dancing worship, which is primarily practiced in Kerala's northern regions, aims to bring divine and mankind together.
• Prior to calling upon the deity, the (mostly) male dancer gets dolled up in cosmetics and clothing.
• Then he looks into his own reflection in a tiny mirror he's holding in his palm. We refer to this action as mukha darshan.
• Koli:
• One of Maharashtra's most well-known dance styles, Koli gets its name from the Kolis, the state's fishermen.
• Fishing and the sea, two activities that this community is most familiar with, are incorporated into the dance.
• Men and women separate into groups of two and perform this dance style.
• These fisherman use this dancing form to depict the motion of rowing a boat. In addition, the dancers simulate the motion of the waves and the launching of nets to capture fish.
• The women who work as fishers are positioned in the opposing rows, reaching out towards men with linked arms.
• Some more folk dances:

The correct answer is bilateral.

Key Points

• A bilateral trade agreement is a pact between two parties, countries, or regions that outlines the terms and conditions for trade between them.
• In it, both parties agree to reduce or eliminate trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas to promote trade and investment.
• It can help to increase economic growth, create job opportunities, and improve the standard of living in both countries.
• India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) are examples of bilateral agreements.
• Trade Agreements are treaties in which a country promises to engage in fewer trade protections with another country (or countries) to engage in more trade.
• It can be between two countries or between many countries.
• Important terms of trade between them include tariffs, quotas, restrictions on imports and exports, and provisions such as trade facilitation, intellectual property rights, and investment protection.

Additional Information

• A multilateral trade agreement involves three or more countries or regions that agree to reduce or eliminate trade barriers.
• The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), among the 15 members, is an example.
• The World Trade Organization (WTO) is another example of a multilateral trade agreement.
• A tripartite trade agreement involves three parties, usually countries or regions, that agree to promote trade and investment between them.
• The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) is an example of a tripartite trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico.
• A unilateral trade agreement is a decision made by one country or region to reduce or eliminate trade barriers without the agreement of another party.
• This is usually a preferential arrangement that a developed country makes for imports from developing countries.
• The United States has unilateral trade policies under the Generalized System of Preferences.

The correct answer is Parameswaran Iyer.

Key Points

• Parameswaran Iyer:
• Born on April 16, 1959, Parameswaran Iyer is an Indian government servant who served as NITI Aayog's CEO from July 1, 2022, to February 28, 2023.
• He was appointed as the Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog in July 2022, succeeding Amitabh Kant.
• In 1981, he enlisted in the Indian Civil Services. He voluntarily retired in 2009 to take a position managing the World Bank's water resources.
• He joined the Indian government's Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation in 2016, and Prime Minister Modi designated him to lead the Swachh Bharat Mission's initiatives for water management and sanitation.
• He is presently the India's nominee as an executive director in World Bank.
• NITI Aayog:
• The Government of India's premier think tank on public policy, NITI Aayog is the nodal agency responsible for promoting cooperative federalism, encouraging economic development, and eschewing bargaining federalism by involving State Governments of India in the formulation of economic policies through a bottom-up methodology.
• It took over the role of the Planning Commission when it was founded in 2015.
• Chairperson: Narendra Modi, The Prime Minister (ex-officio)
• Vice Chairperson: Suman Bery
• CEO: B. V. R. Subrahmanyam
• HQ: New Delhi, India

Additional Information

• Narendra Singh Tomar:
• Narendra Singh Tomar is an Indian politician.
• He is a member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• At present, he serves as the fifteenth Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of Madhya Pradesh.
• Additionally, he served as a member of Fifteenth Lok Sabha from Morena (2009 - 2014), the Sixteenth Lok Sabha from Gwalior from 2014 to 2019, and the Seventeenth Lok Sabha from Morena from 2019 to 2023.
• Arvind Virmani:
• Arvind Virmani, an Indian economist, was born on June 22, 1949.
• He is a full-time member of NITI Aayog since November 2022.
• In 2009, he was designated as the representative of India at the International Monetary Fund.
• As the 13^th Government of India's Chief Economic Advisor from 2007 to 2009, Virmani authored the 2008–2009 Economic Survey of India.
• He is the creator of the non-profit, multidisciplinary EGROW Foundation, which conducts independent, first-rate research in the fields of national security, public welfare, macroeconomic policy, and diplomacy.

The correct answer is Light Emitting Diode Lamps.

Key Points

• LED Lamps:
• It stands for Light Emitting Diode Lamps.
• Compared to incandescent light bulbs, LED lighting products provide light up to 90% more effectively.
• Visible light is produced when an electrical current flows through a microchip, illuminating the small light sources known as LEDs.
• Heat sinks are used by LEDs to absorb their own heat and release it into the surrounding air. This prevents LEDs from burning out or overheating.
• Compared to both incandescent and fluorescent lights, the lifespan of commercial LED lamps is far longer.
• Unlike incandescent and CFL light sources, which release light and heat in all directions, LED light sources are "directional," meaning they focus their light emission in a single direction.
• This implies that LEDs can use light and energy more effectively in a variety of applications.
• All LED products that have been awarded the ENERGY STAR have undergone testing to guarantee that, regardless of the heat sink design, they effectively manage heat to maintain light output until the end of their rated life.

Additional Information

• Compact Fluorescent Lamps:
• Compact fluorescent lamps are energy-efficient bulbs that use up to 75% less energy than traditional incandescent bulbs and last up to 10 times longer.
• They are widely promoted as an eco-friendly lighting option.
• An electric current travels between electrodes at either end of a gas-filled tube in a CFL.
• Heat and ultraviolet (UV) light are produced by this process.
• When the UV light hits the phosphor coating inside the lightbulb, it is converted to visible light.
• Incandescent bulb:
• Incandescent bulbs are the traditional, inefficient lighting option that has been phased out in many countries due to their high energy consumption and short lifespan.
• A metal filament within an incandescent lightbulb is heated by electricity to a "white" temperature, a process known as incandesce.
• Consequently, 90% of the energy in incandescent bulbs is released as heat.
• They are not typically promoted as an energy-saving option.
• Oil lamps:
• Oil lamps are not an energy-efficient option.
• They use Hydrocarbon as fuel.
• Typically used for decorative or emergency purposes rather than everyday lighting.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• Consumer Protection Act, 1986:
• The historic Consumer Protection Act, passed by the Indian Parliament in 1986, is a significant piece of socio-economic law that aims to promote public welfare by allowing consumers to engage directly in the market.
• The Act's goal when it was passed was to give greater protection to consumer interests. Its purpose was to protect customers from unfair business practices and other forms of abuse by offering them effective and efficient safeguards.
• It encompasses all industries viz. public, commercial, and cooperative—and all goods and services.
• The following rights were enshrined in the Act:
• Right to Safety
• Right to be informed
• Right to Choose
• Right to be Heard
• Right to seek Redressal
• Right to Consumer Education
• Three-tiered Consumer Disputes Redressal agencies are established in India under the Consumer Protection Act. They are as follows:
• District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (value of goods or services involved is up to Rs. 20 lakhs)
• State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (value of goods or services involved is between Rs. 20 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore)
• National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (value of goods or services involved is over Rs. 1 crore)

Additional Information

• On August 6, 2019, the Parliament passed the historic Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 with the goal of addressing the new issues that customers face in the digital age and offering prompt and efficient administration and resolution of consumer complaints.
• The President of India has signed the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
• Salient feature of Consumer Protection Act, 2019:
• Inclusion of e-commerce, since e-commerce transactions were not expressly covered by the previous Act.
• Section 2(7) defines "consumer" more broadly, encompassing both offline and online transactions.
• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) will be established under the New Act in order to regulate matters pertaining to consumer rights violations, unfair trade practices, and deceptive or false advertisements that harm the interests of the public and consumers. Additionally, the CCPA will be responsible for promoting, safeguarding, and enforcing the rights of consumers as a class.
• Filing of complaints electronically online.
• The New Act streamlines and expedites the dispute adjudication process by offering mediation as an Alternate Dispute Resolution tool.
• Enhanced three-tiered Consumer Disputes Redressal agencies are established in India under the Consumer Protection Act. They are as follows:
• District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (value of goods or services involved is up to Rs. 1 crore)
• State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (value of goods or services involved is between Rs. 1 crore and Rs. 10 crore)
• National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (value of goods or services involved is over Rs. 10 crore)

The correct answer is Primary sector.

Key Points

• Products and services are produced as a result of economic activity, and sectors are collections of economic activities categorised according to certain standards.
• Based on ownership, labour conditions, and the type of activity, the Indian economy can be divided into several sectors.
• Economic sector types according to the type of activity:
• Primary Sector
• Secondary Sector
• Tertiary Sector
• Quaternary Sector
• Primary Sector:
• Activities in the primary sector of the economy involve the direct use of natural resources.
• Some examples of this industry are agriculture, mining, fishing, forestry, dairy, and so on.
• It is thus named because it serves as the foundation for all other goods.
• It is also known as the "agriculture and allied sector" because the majority of the natural products we use come from forestry, fishery, dairy, and agriculture.
• Because primary activities require working outside, those who engage in them are referred to as red-collar workers.

Additional Information

• Secondary Sector:
• It encompasses the sectors in which natural resources generated in the primary sector are used to create final goods.
• This sector includes operations such as sugar cane production, cotton fabric production, and industrial production.
• Therefore, manufacturing is the sector of a nation's economy that produces goods as opposed to raw materials.
• This sector is also known as the industrial sector because it is connected to several industries.
• Blue collar workers are those who perform auxiliary tasks.
• Tertiary Sector:
• The primary and secondary sectors benefit from the activity of this sector.
• Economic activity in the tertiary sector assists or supports production rather than producing commodities on its own.
• It is also known as Service Sector.
• The industry includes things like banking, insurance, finance, and truck or train-borne freight.
• It adds value to a product in the same way as the secondary sector.
• White collar jobs are those in this industry.
• Economic sector types depending on labour conditions:
• Organised Sector
• Unorganised Sector
• Organised Sector:
• Employees in this industry are guaranteed employment and social security, and job terms are regular and set.
• It may also be described as an industry that is registered with the government and to which certain acts are applicable to the businesses.
• The organized sector includes hospitals and schools.
• Employees in the organized industry are guaranteed a job. They have a set amount of hours that they are required to work. The company must give them extra pay if they put in more hours.

Given:

Store price of a chair = Rs.2,000

Successive discounts offered by the store = 10% and 15%

Concept:

Successive percentage change (discount here) is given by (a + b - ab/100)

Solution:

⇒ Total discount = 10 + 15 - (10 × 15/100)

⇒ Total discount = 25 - 1.5

⇒ Total discount = 23.5%

Hence, the total discount percentage for the chair is 23.5%.

Given:

A can finish a work in 10 days

B can finish a work in 15 days

C can finish a work in 30 days

Concept:

Total work is calculated by the LCM of the time taken by each, and total work done in a day is the sum of each's work done in a day.

Solution:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 10, 15, 30 = 30 units

⇒ Work done by A in a day = 30/10 = 3 units

⇒ Work done by B in a day = 30/15 = 2 units

⇒ Work done by C in a day = 30/30 = 1 unit

⇒ Total work done in 3 days = 3 + 3 + (3 + 2 + 1) = 12 units

⇒ Total work done in 6 days = 12 + 12 = 24 units

So Remaining work = 30 - 24 = 6 units

On 7^th and 8^th day, A works and complete the work = 3 + 3 = 6 units

Work completed in 8 days = 24 + 6 = 30 units = Total work

Hence, A can finish the work in 8 days when assisted by B and C every third day.

Given:

Initial population of bacteria in a culture = 8 × 10⁸

Birth rate per hour = 12.75%

Death rate per hour = 10.75%

Time = 3 hours

Concept: Net growth rate is calculated by (birth rate − death rate). Population after t hours is given by P0 × (1 + growth rate)^t.

Solution:

⇒ Net growth rate per hour = 12.75% − 10.75% = 2%

⇒ Population after 3 hours = 8 × 10⁸ × (1 + 0.02)³

⇒ Population after 3 hours = 8 × 10⁸ × 1.061208

⇒ Population after 3 hours = 84, 89, 66, 400 

Hence, the population of bacteria in the culture after 3 hours would be 84, 89, 66, 400.

Given:

The marked price of a book = ₹600

Discount allowed = 20%

Profit made = ₹48

Concept:

The cost Price is calculated by (Selling Price - Profit).

The gain percentage is calculated by (Gain/Cost Price) × 100.

Solution:

⇒ Selling Price after discount = ₹600 - 20% of ₹600 = ₹480

⇒ Cost Price = Selling Price - Profit = ₹480 - ₹48 = ₹432

⇒ Gain percentage = (Profit/Cost Price) × 100 = (₹48 / ₹432) × 100 = 11.11%

Hence, the gain percentage is 11.11%.

Shortcut Trick

Loss of 8% → Selling Price = 92% of Cost Price

Gain of 12% → Selling Price = 112% of Cost Price

Required Selling Price = (5,45,000 ÷ 92) × 112

Required Selling Price = 5,45,000 × (28 ÷ 23) ≈ 6,63,478.26

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,63,478.25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Selling Price (SP₁) = ₹5,45,000

Initial Loss = 8%

Desired Gain = 12%

Formula:

Cost Price (CP) = [Selling Price ÷ (100 − Loss%)] × 100

New Selling Price = [CP × (100 + Gain%)] ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ CP = [5,45,000 ÷ (100 − 8)] × 100

⇒ CP = [5,45,000 ÷ 92] × 100 ≈ 5,92,391.30

⇒ New SP = [5,92,391.30 × (100 + 12)] ÷ 100

⇒ New SP = [5,92,391.30 × 112] ÷ 100

⇒ New SP = ₹6,63,478.25

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,63,478.25.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Marked Price (MP) is the price printed on an item. Selling Price = MP − Discount.

Successive Percentage

If two successive changes of a% and b% are applied, net change = [a + b + (a × b)/100]%.

Profit & Loss Percentage

Profit% or Loss% is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise.

Given:

Mohi can finish work in 12 days

Suniti can finish work in 15 days

Concept:

For work done on alternate days, we first find the total work by taking the LCM of the two individual days. The total work done in 2 days is the sum of their individual work.

Solution:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 12 and 15 = 60 units

⇒ Work done by Mohi in a day = $\frac{60}{12}$ = 5 units

⇒ Work done by Suniti in a day = $\frac{60}{15}$ = 4 units

⇒ Total work done in 2 days = 5 + 4 = 9 units

So 12 days of work will be 9 × 54 units.

13^th day mohi will work = 54 + 5 = 59.

Now 1 unit is done by Suniti in 1/4 days.

⇒ Time taken to complete the work =  $13\frac{1}{4}$ days

Hence, the work will be completed in $13\frac{1}{4}$ days.

Given:

Distance to be covered = 354 kms

Speed of the car = 59 km/h

Concept:

The time taken to cover a certain distance at a constant speed is given by the formula Time = Distance / Speed.

Solution:

⇒ Time = 354 km/59 km/h = 6 hours

Hence, the car will take 6 hours to cover a distance of 354 kms.

Given:

Cost price of an article = Rs.1,850

Selling price of an article = Rs.1,480

Concept:

The percentage loss is calculated by (Loss/Cost Price) × 100.

Solution:

⇒ Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price = Rs.1,850 - Rs.1,480 = Rs.370

⇒ Loss percentage = (Loss/Cost Price) × 100 = (Rs.370 / Rs.1,850) × 100 = 20%

Hence, the loss percentage is 20%.

Given:

Distance between thief and policeman = 100 m

Speed of the thief = 8 km/h

Speed of the policeman = 10 km/h

Concept:

The distance covered before the thief is caught is (Relative Speed × Time).

The relative speed is the difference of their speeds and time is given by Initial Distance/Relative Speed.

Solution:

⇒ Relative Speed = Speed of policeman - Speed of thief = 10 km/h - 8 km/h = 2 km/h = 2 × (5/18) m/s (converting to m/s)

⇒ Time = Initial Distance/Relative Speed = 100/(2 × 5/18) = 180 seconds

⇒ Distance covered by the thief = Speed of thief × Time = 8 × (5/18) × 180 s = 400 m

Hence, the thief will have run 400 m before he is overtaken.

Given:

The same base radius (r) is used for both hemisphere and cone.

Concept:

The volume of a hemisphere is (2/3)πr³ and the volume of a cone is (1/3)πr²h. Setting these two equal, we can solve for h.

Solution:

⇒ (2/3)πr³ = (1/3)πr²h

⇒ h = 2r

Hence, the ratio of r to h is 1 ∶ 2.

Given:

Fractions: $\frac{3}{4},\frac{7}{8}, \frac{9}{20}$

Concept:

To find the HCF of fractions, we take the HCF of the numerators and the LCM of the denominators.

Solution:

⇒ HCF of 3, 7, 9 = 1

⇒ LCM of 4, 8, 20 = 40

⇒ HCF of the given fractions = $\frac{1}{40}$

Hence, the HCF of the fractions is $\frac{1}{40}$.

Given:

Ratio between two numbers is 3 ∶ 5

LCM of these numbers is 240

Concept:

If the ratio of two numbers is given, and their LCM is known, then the numbers can be found by multiplying the ratio terms by the common factor obtained from LCM / (Product of the ratio terms).

Solution:

⇒ Common factor = LCM/(Product of ratio terms) = 240/(3 × 5) = 16

⇒ Numbers = 3 × 16 and 5 × 16 = 48 and 80

Hence, the two numbers are 48 and 80.

Shortcut Trick

Let the original fraction be 100/100 = 1.

New Numerator = 100 − 25 = 75

New Denominator = 100 + 25 = 125

New Fraction = 75 ÷ 125 = 3/5 = 0.6 (which is 60% of the original).

Percentage decrease = (1 − 0.6) × 100% = 40%.

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numerator of a fraction is decreased by 25%.

The denominator of the fraction is increased by 25%.

Formula Used:

Percentage Decrease = [(Original Value − New Value) ÷ Original Value] × 100%

Calculations:

Original Fraction = 100%

New Fraction = 60%

Decrease = 40%

Decrease = 100% − 60% = 40%

⇒ Let the original fraction be x / y.

⇒ New Numerator = x − (25/100) × x = 0.75x

⇒ New Denominator = y + (25/100) × y = 1.25y

⇒ New Fraction = 0.75x ÷ 1.25y = (75 ÷ 125) × (x / y) = 3/5 × (x / y)

⇒ Decrease in fraction = (x / y) − [3/5 × (x / y)] = 2/5 × (x / y)

⇒ Percentage decrease = [{2/5 × (x / y)} ÷ (x / y)] × 100%

⇒ Percentage decrease = 2/5 × 100% = 40%

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

Percentage change is calculated as [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100. A negative result indicates a decrease, while a positive result indicates an increase.

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is sequentially changed by x% and then by y%, the net percentage change can also be found using the effective formula: Net Change = x + y + (x × y) ÷ 100.

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

To convert a fraction into a percentage, multiply it by 100. For example, the fraction 3/5 expressed as a percentage is 3/5 × 100% = 60%. Therefore, any value that drops to 60% of its original has observed a 40% reduction.

Given:

1/8 portion of the grain is rotten

Concept:

The percentage of grain that is not rotten is 100% minus the percentage that is rotten.

Solution:

⇒ Rotten grain = 1/8 = 12.5%

⇒ Not rotten grain = 100% - 12.5% = 87.5%

Hence, the percentage of grain in the stock that is NOT rotten is 87.5%.

Given:

Ratio of third proportional to X and Y and fourth proportional to X, Y and Z is 7 ∶ 22

Concept:

The third proportional to X and Y is (Y²/X) and the fourth proportional to X, Y and Z is (Y × Z/X). The ratio of these is (Y/Z).

Solution:

⇒ 7/22 = Y/Z

Hence, the ratio Z ∶ Y is 22 ∶ 7.

Given:

The average weight of 18 students increases by 3.5 kg when a student weighing 45 kg is replaced

Concept:

The increase in the total weight is the difference between the new student's weight and the replaced student's weight.

Solution:

⇒ Increase in total weight = 18 students × Increase in average weight = 18 × 3.5 kg = 63 kg

⇒ Weight of the new student = Increase in total weight + Weight of replaced student = 63 kg + 45 kg = 108 kg

Hence, the weight of the new student is 108 kg.

Given:

The sum of present ages of X, Y, and Z is 165 years

Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 3 ∶ 5 ∶ 7

Concept:

The sum of their ages 5 years ago is (Sum of present ages - 5 years × number of persons). If the sum is known, the individual ages can be found using the given ratio.

Solution:

⇒ Sum of their ages 5 years ago = 165 years - 5 years × 3 = 150 years

⇒ Using the ratio, Age of X = 150 years × 3/15 = 30 years, Age of Z = 150 years × 7/15 = 70 years

After 5 year present age of X = 35 and Z = 75

⇒ Average age of X and Z = (Age of X + Age of Z)/2 = (35 years + 75 years)/2 = 55 years

Hence, the present average age of X and Z is 55 years.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 6,000

Rate (r) = 5% per annum

Time (t) = 3 years

Concept:

For compound interest, Interest for the third year = P(1 + r/100)² × r/100

Solution:

⇒ Interest for the third year = 6000(1 + 5/100)² × 5/100 = Rs. 330.75

Hence, the interest for the third year is Rs. 330.75.

Given:

A number 2 × 16 is divided by the smallest number divisible by 4 and 9

The resultant number is the square of 9

Concept:

The smallest number divisible by 4 and 9 is their LCM. The resultant number being the square of 9 gives us the original number.

Solution:

⇒ LCM of 4 and 9 = 36

⇒ Original number = Resultant number × LCM = 9² × 36 = 2916

⇒ X = the missing digit in the original number = 2916 (place value of X is in hundreds place)

Hence, the value of X is 9.

Given:

Radius (r) of a cone = 10 cm

Slant height (l) of a cone = 26 cm

Concept:

The volume of a cone is given by V = (1/3)× πr²h, where h is the height of the cone which can be found using the Pythagorean theorem l² = r² + h².

Solution:

Using the Pythagorean theorem,

⇒ h = √(l² - r²) = √(26² - 10²) = 24 cm

⇒ Volume of the cone = (1/3) × 3.14 × 10² × 24 = 2512 cm³

Hence, the volume of the cone is 2512 cm³

The correct answer is: Confident

Key Points

• "Confidant" refers to a person with whom one shares a secret or private matter.
• It is not the appropriate term in this context where the intended meaning is related to self-assurance and certainty about the examination result.
• "Confident" is an adjective that appropriately describes the speaker's state of mind regarding the positive outcome of the examination.
• Therefore, the corrected sentence is, "I am very confident of my positive result in the examination."

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• The word "confidence" is a noun, while the sentence requires an adjective to describe the speaker's state of mind.
• In the context of expressing assurance or certainty about the examination result, an adjective is needed.

The correct answer is: Vaccenation

Key Points

• The correct spelling is "Vaccination," and the word "Vaccenation" is incorrectly spelt.
• Vaccination is the act or process of administering a vaccine to provide immunity against a disease. (किसी बीमारी के खिलाफ प्रतिरक्षा प्रदान करने के लिए टीका लगाने की क्रिया या प्रक्रिया)
• Example: The government launched a vaccination campaign to protect the population from the spread of infectious diseases.
• The correct spelling is essential for clear communication and understanding of the topic related to administering vaccines for disease prevention.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Treasure: Valuable and precious possessions or wealth, often stored or kept with care. (मूल्यवान और कीमती संपत्ति या धन, जिसे अक्सर संग्रहीत या देखभाल के साथ रखा जाता है)
• Consonant: A speech sound produced by obstructing the flow of air at some point in the vocal tract; a letter of the alphabet that represents such a sound. (स्वर तंत्र में किसी बिंदु पर वायु के प्रवाह में बाधा उत्पन्न होने से उत्पन्न भाषण ध्वनि; वर्णमाला का एक अक्षर जो ऐसी ध्वनि का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है)
• Similar: Having a resemblance or likeness; almost the same but not identical. (समानता या समानता होना; लगभग समान लेकिन समान नहीं)

The correct answer is "spick and span".

Key Points

• "Spick and span" is an idiom that substitutes for the phrase "every corner of our home is clean and organised".
• It means perfectly clean and tidy.
• Example- The kitchen was spick and span after she had finished cleaning.
• Hence, the idiom that can substitute the given phrase is "spick and span".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 4'.

Additional Information 

• Let's have a look at the meanings of the remaining idioms.
• "Root and branch" means completely and thoroughly.
• "A queer fish" refers to an odd or eccentric person.
• "A rainy day" means a time of need or trouble.

The correct answer is "rejected".

Key Points

• "Accepted" generally means to receive something willingly. (स्वीकार करना) 
• Example-  His proposal was widely accepted by the management.
• "Rejected" means to refuse to accept, consider, or allow. (अस्वीकार करना)
• Example- The proposal was rejected due to budget constraints.
• Hence, the option that is opposite in meaning to the given word is "rejected".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 2'.

Additional Information 

• Let's have a look at the meanings of the remaining options.
• "Fulfilled" signifies having achieved or realized something desired, promised, or predicted. (पूरा करना)
• "Attended" means to go to or be present at. (उपस्थित होना)
• "Agreed" stands for having the same opinion about something; concurring. (सहमत होना)

The correct answer is "Dissatisfaction".

Key Points

• "Gratification" is the pleasing feeling you get when you achieve something you wanted or when you receive something you desired. (संतोष) 
• Example-  Her promotion was a source of gratification.
• "Dissatisfaction" means the state of feeling dissatisfaction, a lack of satisfaction. (असंतुष्टि)
• Example- The customer expressed his dissatisfaction with the product's quality.
• Hence, the option that is opposite in meaning to the given word is "Dissatisfaction".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 1'.

Additional Information

• Lets see the meaning of the other options:
• "Growth" signifies the process of increasing in size. (विकास)
• "Blessing" refers to God's favor and protection. (आशीर्वाद)
• "Pleasure" is a state or feeling of happiness or satisfaction. (आनंद)

The correct answer is "Repudiation".

Key Points

• "Divulgence" is the act of making something publicly known; telling people something that was secret. (प्रकटीकरण) 
• Example- The divulgence of his secret identity put him in danger.
• "Repudiation" means the rejection of a proposal or idea. (अस्वीकार)
• Example- His repudiation of the claim shocked everyone.
• Hence, the option that is opposite in meaning to the given word is "Repudiation".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 3'.

Additional Information 

• Let's have a look at the meanings of the remaining options.
• "Revelation" denotes a surprising and previously unknown fact that has been disclosed to others. (प्रकटीकरण)
• "Assertion" signifies a confident and forceful statement of fact or belief. (दावा)
• "Confirmation" refers to the action of making sure or demonstrating that something is true or accurate. (पुष्टि)

The correct answer is "efforts".

Key Points

• "Endeavours" generally means trying hard to do or achieve something. (प्रयास) 
• Example- He endeavours to keep his promises.
• "Efforts" is a synonym for endeavours, it signifies a vigorous attempt or striving. (मेहनत)
• Example- She put a lot of effort into finishing the project on time.
• Hence, the option that is similar in meaning to the given word is "Efforts".

Therefore, the correct answer is 'option 1'.

Additional Information 

• Let's have a look at the meanings of the remaining options.
• "Passivity" signifies acceptance of what happens, without active response or resistance. (निष्क्रियता)
• "Fun" refers to enjoyment, amusement, or lighthearted pleasure. (मनोरंजन)
• "Drop" means to let go of or release. (छोड़ना)

The correct answer is 'Archaeology'.

 

Key Points

• The correct word, Archaeology is the study of human history and prehistory through the excavation of sites and the analysis of artifacts and other physical remains. (पुरातत्व).
• Example: Archaeologists unearthed an ancient tomb in the archaeological site.
• Hence, the correct discipline to study material remains like relics and monuments of past human life is 'Archaeology'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- “Option 2”.

 

Additional Information

• Theology is the study of the nature of God and religious belief. (धर्मशास्त्र)
• Biology is the natural science that studies life and living organisms, including their physical structure, chemical processes, molecular interactions, physiological mechanisms, development and evolution. (जीव विज्ञान)
• Geology is the study of the solid Earth, the rocks of which it is composed, and the processes by which they change over time. It can also include the study of the solid features of any terrestrial planet or natural satellite. (भूविज्ञान)

The correct answer is:  their skilful antics

Key Points 

• The underlined segment "they’re skillful antics" is grammatically incorrect.
• The use of 'they’re' is incorrect.
• The correct usage is ‘their’.
• ‘Their’ is a possessive pronoun. In this sentence, it indicates that the skilful antics belong to the travelling gypsies.
• "they're" would not make sense in this context, as it would mean "they are skilful antics," which is not the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct sentence is “The travelling gypsies wanted to display their skilful antics to the crowd”.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Amaze'.

 

Key Points

• The given word 'Baffle' refers to the state of being perplexed or bewildered. (चकरा देना)
• Example: The sudden twist in the movie's plot baffled the audience.
• The correct synonym, 'Amaze', means to fill with astonishment. (आश्चर्यचकित करना)
• Example: The magic tricks performed by the magician amazed everyone in the room.
• Hence, the correct synonym for 'Baffle' is 'Amaze'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- “Option 4”.

 

Additional Information

• 'Enlighten' means to give someone greater knowledge and understanding about a subject or situation. (प्रकाशित करना)
• 'Clear' means easy to perceive or understand. (स्पष्ट)
• 'Comprehend' means to grasp mentally; understand. (समझना)

The correct answer is: "is come for"

Key Points

• The error in the original sentence is in the segment "is come for."
• The verb "come" should be replaced with its present participle form, "coming," to convey the ongoing or future action.
• In the original sentence, the verb "come" is in its base form, which is not suitable for the present continuous tense.
• In the present continuous tense, the present participle (verb + ing) is used.
• The helping verb "am/is/are" is conjugated based on the subject of the sentence.
• This tense is commonly used to describe actions in progress, temporary situations, or planned future actions.
• The correct sentence would be: My sister is coming for a short holiday from the US.

​Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Halting between two options'.

 

Key Points

• The given idiom 'On the fence' refers to a situation where an individual is unable to decide or choose between two options. (दो विचारों में उलझा हुआ)
• Example: When it comes to choosing a political side during an election, many people remain on the fence until the very end.
• Hence, the correct meaning for the idiom 'On the fence' is 'Halting between two options'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- “Option 3”.

 

Additional Information

• 'On very intimate terms' refers to being very close or friendly with someone or familiar with something. (बहुत निकटता से)
• 'Undaunted by anything' refers to not being discouraged or intimidated by difficulties or challenges. (किसी भी चीज़ से नहीं डरने वाले)
• 'Under all conditions' means in all situations or circumstances, without exceptions. (सभी परिस्थितियों में)

The correct answer is 'Shy'.

 

Key Points

• The given word 'Introvert' refers to a person who tends to shrink from social contacts and to become preoccupied with their own thoughts. (अंतर्मुखी)
• Example: Introverts often enjoy solitude and activities they can do alone or with just one or two people.
• The correct synonym, 'Shy', suggests a person who tends to avoid social gatherings or interactions due to discomfort or anxiety. (शर्मीला)
• Example: Shy people might prefer to avoid big gatherings or parties.
• Hence, the correct synonym for 'Introvert' is 'Shy'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- “Option 4”.

 

Additional Information

• 'Forward' means someone who is confident, and direct in claiming one's rights or putting forward one's views. (आगे)'
• 'Outgoing' refers to a person who is friendly and enjoys meeting and talking to people. (बहिर्मुखी)
• 'Bold' implies a willingness to get things done despite risks. (साहसी)

The correct answer is: Painting

Key Points

• The original sentence contains an infinitive ("to paint") after "finished," which is not grammatically correct.
• In English, it is more natural to use the gerund form in such constructions.
• The correct option is "painting" because it represents the gerund form of the verb "paint."
• Verbs like "finish," "complete," and "enjoy" are often followed by gerunds when referring to an activity or action.
• The corrected sentence is: "Shubhda has not finished painting the window."
• In the sentence, the word "painting" acts as a gerund, and it functions as the object of the verb "finished."
• The structure "finished painting" indicates that Shubhda did not complete the action of painting the window.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: meant, mean

Key Points

• "Meant" is the past tense and past participle of the verb "mean," which, in this context, refers to conveying or intending a particular message or idea. (किसी विशेष संदेश या विचार को संप्रेषित या अभिप्रेत करना)
• In the sentence, it suggests that the speaker is clarifying or explaining what the woman intended or wanted to express.
• "Mean," on the other hand, is an adjective that can describe someone as unkind, malicious, or lacking in generosity. (निर्दयी, दुर्भावनापूर्ण, या उदारता की कमी)
• In the sentence, it characterizes the person as having a negative or unkind disposition.
• The correct pair of homonyms to fill in the blanks is: What she meant is that he is a mean person.
• The sentence conveys the idea that the woman intended to communicate that the person in question has a negative or unkind personality.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Grown: Reached a more mature or fully developed stage. It is often used to describe the physical development of living organisms. (अधिक परिपक्व या पूर्ण विकसित अवस्था में पहुंच गया)
• Groaned: Made a low, moaning sound, typically expressing pain, discomfort, or dissatisfaction. (धीमी, कराहने की आवाज़ निकाली, जो आमतौर पर दर्द, बेचैनी या असंतोष व्यक्त करती है)
• Growing: Undergoing the process of increasing in size, developing, or maturing. (आकार में वृद्धि, विकास या परिपक्व होने की प्रक्रिया से गुजरना)

The correct answer is: Control

Key Points

• Control means having power or influence over something to manage or direct its actions. (किसी चीज़ पर उसके कार्यों को प्रबंधित करने या निर्देशित करने की शक्ति या प्रभाव होना)
• Example: The manager was able to control the team effectively, ensuring a smooth and organized workflow.
• So, "control" in this context is the correct answer as it refers to the positive influence of urban forests in managing or reducing pollution.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Hasten: To speed up or accelerate a process; to move or act quickly. (किसी प्रक्रिया को तेज या तीव्र करना; तेजी से आगे बढ़ना या कार्य करना)
• Destroy: To cause significant damage or harm, rendering something completely unusable or beyond repair. (महत्वपूर्ण क्षति या नुकसान पहुँचाना, किसी चीज़ को पूरी तरह से अनुपयोगी या मरम्मत से परे बना देना)
• Create: To bring something into existence; to make or produce something new. (किसी चीज़ को अस्तित्व में लाना; कुछ नया बनाना या उत्पन्न करना)

The correct answer is: Prevents

Key Points

• Prevents means to stop something from happening or to hinder an action. (किसी चीज़ को घटित होने से रोकना या किसी कार्य में बाधा डालना)
• Example: Installing a good antivirus program on your computer helps prevent malicious software from infecting your system.
• The word "prevents" is used here to convey the idea that something is taking action to stop or hinder the occurrence of tempests (violent storms) and unforeseen droughts (lack of rainfall).

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Collides: Comes into violent contact with something. Typically used to describe a forceful impact or collision between two objects. (किसी चीज़ के हिंसक संपर्क में आना)
• Confirms: Affirms the truth or correctness of something. To validate or acknowledge the accuracy of a statement, fact, or belief. (किसी बात की सत्यता या शुद्धता की पुष्टि करता है)
• Contributes: Provides something, such as effort, resources, or ideas, to a cause or project. (किसी कारण या परियोजना के लिए प्रयास, संसाधन या विचार जैसे कुछ प्रदान करता है)

The correct answer is: Experiencing

Key Points

• Experiencing refers to going through or encountering a particular situation, event, or feeling. (किसी विशेष स्थिति, घटना या भावना से गुजरना या उसका सामना करना)
• Example: After years of studying marine life in books, the marine biologist was excited about experiencing the underwater world firsthand during the scuba diving expedition.
• The word "experiencing" is used here to convey that the world is currently going through or facing the occurrence of flash floods.

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• Chasing: Pursuing or following something or someone with the intention of catching or reaching them. (किसी चीज़ या किसी व्यक्ति को पकड़ने या उस तक पहुँचने के इरादे से उसका पीछा करना या उसका पीछा करना)
• Holding: Grasping or keeping something with your hands. (किसी चीज़ को अपने हाथ से पकड़ना)
• Seeing: Perceiving with the eyes or observing visually. (आँखों से समझना या दृष्टि से देखना)

The correct answer is: Drought

Key Points

• Drought refers to a prolonged period of abnormally low precipitation, leading to a shortage of water supply for various uses, including agriculture, industry, and daily life. (अनावृष्टि)
• Example: The region experienced a severe drought that lasted for several months.
• The word "drought" is used in the sentence to highlight the climatic condition that has led to famine in Africa, impacting food availability and resulting in severe malnutrition among children.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Heat: The form of energy associated with the motion of particles within a substance. (ताप)
• Temperature: A measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a substance. It indicates how hot or cold an object or environment is. (तापमान)
• Fire: A process of combustion characterized by the combination of oxygen with a fuel, often producing heat and light. (आग)

The correct answer is: Consistent

Key Points

• Consistent means acting or doing in the same way over time, especially to be fair or accurate. (समय के साथ एक ही तरह से कार्य करना या करना, विशेषकर निष्पक्ष या सटीक होने के लिए)
• It refers to a behaviour or pattern that remains steady and predictable.
• Example: The manager praised Sarah for her consistent efforts in maintaining a high level of customer service.
• The use of "consistent" in this context implies that ongoing and steadfast efforts are needed to address and control changes in the global climate.
• It emphasizes the importance of sustained and reliable action rather than sporadic or temporary measures.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Random: Without a specific pattern or order; occurring without a definite plan or purpose. (किसी विशिष्ट पैटर्न या क्रम के बिना; बिना किसी निश्चित योजना या उद्देश्य के घटित होना)
• Rare: Uncommon or infrequently occurring; not happening often. (असामान्य या कभी-कभार होने वाला; अक्सर नहीं हो रहा है)
• One-time: Happening or applicable only once; occurring on a single occasion. (केवल एक बार घटित या लागू होने वाला; एक ही अवसर पर घटित होना)

‘शक' का एकार्थी शब्द "आशंका" है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है। 

Key Points

• वाक्य- माँ को _______ है कि शायद बेटा घर वापस न आए।
• इस वाक्य में अमंगल सूचक भय ‘शक का एकार्थी शब्द आशंका का प्रयोग होगा।
• आशंका का अर्थ-
• संदेह, शक।
• पूर्ण वाक्य- माँ को आशंका है कि शायद बेटा घर वापस न आए।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प- 

वाक्य में रेखांकित अंश के स्थान पर सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प "डर" होगा। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• वाक्य- मकान गिर जाने का संदेह है।
• इस वाक्य में संदेह शब्द के स्थान पर डर शब्द का प्रयोग होगा।
• डर का अर्थ- 
• किसी विशिष्ट दर्द या खतरे की आशंका में अनुभव की गई भावना।
• सही वाक्य- मकान गिर जाने का डर है।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प- 

जिसका ज्ञान इंद्रियों द्वारा न हो' वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द "अगोचर" है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• जिसका ज्ञान इंद्रियों द्वारा न हो- अगोचर।​

अन्य विकल्प-

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश-

रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए शुद्ध शब्द "कुआँ" है। अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Points

• वाक्य - 'रमेश के घर के पास एक ________ है, जिसमें से वह पानी भरता है।
• इस वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए शुद्ध शब्द कुआँ  का प्रयोग किया जाएगा।
• कुआँ का अर्थ- 
• पानी निकालने के लिए ज़मीन में खोदा हुआ गहरा गड्ढा।
• शुद्ध वाक्य- रमेश के घर के पास एक कुआँ है, जिसमें से वह पानी भरता है।

Important Pointsअन्य महत्वपूर्ण उदाहरण-