Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-II Exam 2024 Official Paper (Held On: 18 Nov, 2024). (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

The weights (in kg) of 7 cousins in a family are 54, 62, 65, 70, 60, 59, 55.

Find the median weight.

  1. AOption (a)

    60 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    61.5 kg

  3. COption (c)

    70 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    61 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

60 kg

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The weights (in kg) of 7 cousins in a family are 54, 62, 65, 70, 60, 59, 55.

Formula used:

Median of a set of numbers is the middle number when they are arranged in ascending order.

Calculations:

First, arrange the weights in ascending order:

54, 55, 59, 60, 62, 65, 70

Since there are 7 numbers, the median is the 4th number in the ordered list.

⇒ Median weight = 60 kg

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 2

If 88 is replaced by 93 and 41 is replaced by 47 in the following observations, 46, 48, 63, 76, 88, 41, 35, 55, 90, 56, 92, then what would be the difference between the new median and the previous median?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Original observations: 46, 48, 63, 76, 88, 41, 35, 55, 90, 56, 92

88 is replaced by 93 and 41 is replaced by 47

New observations: 46, 48, 63, 76, 93, 47, 35, 55, 90, 56, 92

Formula used:

Median of a set of numbers

Calculations:

Original observations sorted: 35, 41, 46, 48, 55, 56, 63, 76, 88, 90, 92

Median of original observations: 56

New observations sorted: 35, 46, 47, 48, 55, 56, 63, 76, 90, 92, 93

Median of new observations: 56

⇒ Difference = 56 - 56 = 0

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 3

The value of 5 + 24 × 8 ÷ 8 of 8 - 8 ÷ 8 × 4 of 4 is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)
    • 9
  4. DOption (d)
    • 8
View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.
  • 8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The value of 5 + 24 × 8 ÷ 8 of 8 - 8 ÷ 8 × 4 of 4

Formula used:

Order of operations (BODMAS/BIDMAS): Brackets, Orders (i.e. powers and square roots, etc.), Division and Multiplication (left-to-right), Addition and Subtraction (left-to-right)

Calculations:

5 + 24 × 8 ÷ 8 of 8 - 8 ÷ 8 × 4 of 4

⇒ 5 + 24 × 8 ÷ 8 × 8 - 8 ÷ 8 × 4 × 4

⇒ 5 + 24 × 8 ÷ 64 - 8 ÷ 8 × 16

⇒ 5 + 24 × 1/8 - 1 × 16

⇒ 5 + 3 - 16

⇒ - 8

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 4

Sandeep made a profit of 22% when he sold an overcoat for Rs. 8,540. Find the cost price of the overcoat. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 7,000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 6,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 6,500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 7,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 7,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹8,540

Profit Percentage = 22%

Formula used:

Profit = SP - CP

Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100

CP = SP / (1 + Profit Percentage/100)

Calculations:

CP = 8540 / (1 + 22/100)

⇒ CP = 8540 / 1.22

⇒ CP = 7000

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 5

A sum on simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum amounts to ₹4,160 in 6 years. Find the sum.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,900

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹3,100

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2,800

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹3,200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹3,200

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹4,160

Rate (r) = 5% per annum

Time (t) = 6 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = P × r × t / 100

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Calculations:

A = P + (P × r × t / 100)

4160 = P + (P × 5 × 6 / 100)

⇒ 4160 = P + (P × 30 / 100)

⇒ 4160 = P + 0.3P

⇒ 4160 = 1.3P

⇒ P = 4160 / 1.3

⇒ P = 3200

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 6

Simplify (2z - 5y)2 + (5z + 2y)2 - 25z2.

  1. AOption (a)

    29y2 + 4z2

  2. BOption (b)

    29y2 - 4z​2

  3. COption (c)

    19y2 - 4z​2

  4. DOption (d)

    19y2 + 4z​2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

29y2 + 4z2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Simplify (2z - 5y)2 + (5z + 2y)2 - 25z2.

Formula used:

(a - b)2 = a2 - 2ab + b2

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

Calculation:

(2z - 5y)2 + (5z + 2y)2 - 25z2

⇒ (2z)2 - 2×2z×5y + (5y)2 + (5z)2 + 2×5z×2y + (2y)2 - 25z2

⇒ 4z2 - 20zy + 25y2 + 25z2 + 20zy + 4y2 - 25z2

⇒ 4z2 + 25y2 + 4y2

⇒ 4z2 + 29y2

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 7

Find the value of 3(sec2 A - 1) (cosec A - 1) (cosec A + 1) + 4 (cosec2 A - cot2 A).

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Find the value of 3(sec2 A - 1) (cosec A - 1) (cosec A + 1) + 4 (cosec2 A - cot2 A).

Formula used:

sec2 A - 1 = tan2 A

cosec2 A - cot2 A = 1

(cosec A - 1)(cosec A + 1) = cosec2 A - 1

cosec2 A - 1 = cot2 A

Calculation:

3(sec2 A - 1) (cosec A - 1) (cosec A + 1) + 4 (cosec2 A - cot2 A)

⇒ 3(tan2 A) (cot2 A) + 4 (1)

⇒ 3(1) + 4

⇒ 3 + 4

⇒ 7

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 8

The price of an electronic machine decreased by 5%, 10% and 15% during the first three years. What will be the price of the machine after three years if the value at the beginning was ₹ 8,000?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹ 5,814

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹ 5,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹ 6,721

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹ 7,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹ 5,814

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial price of the machine = ₹8,000

Price decrease percentages over three years:

Year 1: 5%

Year 2: 10%

Year 3: 15%

Formula used:

Price after each year = Current price × (1 - Rate of decrease)

Calculation:

Year 1:

Price = 8,000 × (1 - 5/100)

⇒ Price = 8,000 × 0.95 = ₹7,600

Year 2:

Price = 7,600 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ Price = 7,600 × 0.90 = ₹6,840

Year 3:

Price = 6,840 × (1 - 15/100)

⇒ Price = 6,840 × 0.85 = ₹5,814

∴ The price of the machine after three years will be ₹5,814.

Question 9

In a triangle PQR, incentre is A and ∠QAR = 116°. Find the measure of ∠QPR.

  1. AOption (a)

    27°

  2. BOption (b)

    54°

  3. COption (c)

    26°

  4. DOption (d)

    52°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

52°

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In a triangle PQR, incentre is A and ∠QAR = 116º. Find the measure of ∠QPR.

Formula used:

∠QAR = 90º + ∠QPR/2

Calculation:

116º = 90º + ∠QPR/2

⇒ 116º - 90º = ∠QPR/2

⇒ 26º = ∠QPR/2

⇒ ∠QPR = 26º × 2

⇒ ∠QPR = 52º

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 10

The average of five integers is 48. The average of the first four integers is 50% of the 5th integer. The 5th integer is:

  1. AOption (a)

    82

  2. BOption (b)

    78

  3. COption (c)

    74

  4. DOption (d)

    80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

80

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average of five integers is 48.

The average of the first four integers is 50% of the 5th integer.

Formula used:

Average = Sum / Number of items

Calculation:

Let the five integers be a,b,c,d,ea,b,c,d,e

.

Average of five integers = 48

⇒ a+b+c+d+e5=48a+b+c+d+e5=48

⇒ a+b+c+d+e=48×5a+b+c+d+e=48×5

⇒ a+b+c+d+e=240a+b+c+d+e=240

The average of the first four integers is 50% of the 5th integer.

⇒ a+b+c+d4=e2a+b+c+d4=e2

⇒ a+b+c+d=4e2a+b+c+d=4e2

⇒ a+b+c+d=2ea+b+c+d=2e

We know that:

a+b+c+d+e=240a+b+c+d+e=240

Substitute a+b+c+d=2ea+b+c+d=2e

into the equation:

2e+e=2402e+e=240

⇒ 3e=2403e=240

⇒ e=2403e=2403

⇒ e=80e=80

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 11

A milk vendor has 75 litres of cow milk, 45 litres of toned milk and 30 litres of full cream milk. These should be placed in different trays such that each tray contains the same quantity of milk and two kinds of milk should not be mixed in a tray. What is the least number of trays required to place all the milk?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A milk vendor has 75 litres of cow milk, 45 litres of toned milk and 30 litres of full cream milk.

Formula used:

To find the least number of trays required, we need to find the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the quantities of milk.

Calculations:

Quantities of milk: 75 litres, 45 litres, 30 litres

Finding HCF of 75, 45, 30:

⇒ Factors of 75: 1, 3, 5, 15, 25, 75

⇒ Factors of 45: 1, 3, 5, 9, 15, 45

⇒ Factors of 30: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30

⇒ Common factors: 1, 3, 5, 15

⇒ HCF = 15

Each tray will contain 15 litres of milk.

Number of trays for cow milk = 75 ÷ 15 = 5

Number of trays for toned milk = 45 ÷ 15 = 3

Number of trays for full cream milk = 30 ÷ 15 = 2

Total number of trays = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 12

Ratnesh and Vineet worked on alternate days, starting with Ratnesh. The entire work got completed in 543454\frac{3}{4} days. If Ratnesh alone can finish the work in 48 days, then in how many days can Vineet alone do the work?

  1. AOption (a)

    66

  2. BOption (b)

    64

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    62

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

64

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In 543/4 days on alternate days starting with Ratnesh, Ratnesh works for 273/4 days and Vineet works for 27 days.

Since Ratnesh alone takes 48 days, the work remaining for Vineet to finish is what Ratnesh would do in 48 − 27.75 = 20.25 days.

Efficiency ratio R : V = 27 : 20.25 = 1 : 0.75 = 4 : 3.

Time taken by Vineet = 48 × (4 ÷ 3) = 64 days.

∴ The correct answer is 64 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time for Ratnesh (R) alone = 48 days

Total time (alternate) = 543/4 = 54.75 days

Formula: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

PersonDays AloneTotal WorkEfficiency
Ratnesh48 days192 units4 units/day
Vineet64 days3 units/day

Calculations:

⇒ Total days = 54.75 days. Since Ratnesh starts on day 1, he works on all odd days.

⇒ Ratnesh works for 27 full days (1, 3, ..., 53) + 0.75 of day 55 = 27.75 days.

⇒ Vineet works for 27 full days (2, 4, ..., 54).

⇒ Let R's efficiency be ER and V's efficiency be EV.

⇒ Total Work = 48 × ER

⇒ Also, Total Work = 27.75 × ER + 27 × EV

⇒ 48 × ER = 27.75 × ER + 27 × EV

⇒ (48 − 27.75) × ER = 27 × EV

⇒ 20.25 × ER = 27 × EV

⇒ EV = (20.25 ÷ 27) × ER = 0.75 × ER

⇒ Time for Vineet alone = (48 × ER) ÷ (0.75 × ER) = 48 ÷ 0.75 = 64 days.

∴ The correct answer is 64 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work

When two people work on alternate days, we calculate the work done in a 2-day cycle. If A starts, A works on days 1, 3, 5... and B works on days 2, 4, 6...

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (E1 × T1 = E2 × T2).

Combined Efficiency

Total efficiency in one cycle (2 days) = Efficiency of A + Efficiency of B.

Question 13

ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to CD, and E and F are the mid-points of non-parallel sides AD and BC. If EF is parallel to AB, AB = 28 cm and CD = 18 cm, then find EF (in cm).

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

23

Why this answer is correct

Given:

ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to CD, and E and F are the mid-points of non-parallel sides AD and BC. EF is parallel to AB, AB = 28 cm, and CD = 18 cm.

Formula used:

In a trapezium, the line segment joining the mid-points of the non-parallel sides is parallel to the parallel sides and equal to half the sum of the lengths of the parallel sides.

EF = 1/2 (AB + CD)

Calculation:

EF = 1/2 (28 + 18)

⇒ EF = 1/2 (46)

⇒ EF = 23 cm

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 14

Find the value of (sin6 A + cos6 A + 3 sin2 A cos2 A) - (sin4 A - cos4 A + 1) cosec2 A.

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    -3

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    -1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

-1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Find the value of (sin6 A + cos6 A + 3 sin2 A cos2 A) - (sin4 A - cos4 A + 1) cosec2 A.

Formula used:

We use the identity for simplification:

sin2A + cos2A = 1

cosec2A - cot2A = 1

sin4 A - cos4 A = (sin2 A - cos2 A)(sin2 A + cos2 A)

cosec2 A = 1 / sin2 A

Solution:

The expression sin⁡6A+cos⁡6A\sin^6 A + \cos^6 A can be rewritten using the identity for the sum of cubes:

a3+b3=(a+b)(a2−ab+b2)a^3 + b^3 = (a + b)(a^2 - ab + b^2) Here, a = sin2A and b = cos2A So: 

sin⁡6A+cos⁡6A=(sin⁡2A+cos⁡2A)(sin⁡4A−sin⁡2Acos⁡2A+cos⁡4A)\sin^6 A + \cos^6 A = (\sin^2 A + \cos^2 A)(\sin^4 A - \sin^2 A \cos^2 A + \cos^4 A)

sin⁡6A+cos⁡6A=1⋅(sin⁡4A−sin⁡2Acos⁡2A+cos⁡4A)\sin^6 A + \cos^6 A = 1 \cdot (\sin^4 A - \sin^2 A \cos^2 A + \cos^4 A)

sin⁡6A+cos⁡6A=sin⁡4A−sin⁡2Acos⁡2A+cos⁡4A\sin^6 A + \cos^6 A = \sin^4 A - \sin^2 A \cos^2 A + \cos^4 A

Using the identity a2+b2=(a+b)2−2aba^2 + b^2 = (a + b)^2 - 2ab, we can write:

sin⁡4A+cos⁡4A=(sin⁡2A+cos⁡2A)2−2(sin⁡2Acos⁡2A)\sin^4 A + \cos^4 A = (\sin^2 A + \cos^2 A)^2 - 2(\sin^2 A \cos^2 A)

sin⁡4A+cos⁡4A=12−2(sin⁡2Acos⁡2A)=1−2sin⁡2Acos⁡2A\sin^4 A + \cos^4 A = 1^2 - 2(\sin^2 A \cos^2 A) = 1 - 2\sin^2 A \cos^2 A

Substitute sin⁡4A+cos⁡4A=1−2sin⁡2Acos⁡2A\sin^4 A + \cos^4 A = 1 - 2\sin^2 A \cos^2 A into the equation:

sin⁡6A+cos⁡6A=(1−2sin⁡2Acos⁡2A)−sin⁡2Acos⁡2A\sin^6 A + \cos^6 A = (1 - 2\sin^2 A \cos^2 A) - \sin^2 A \cos^2 A

sin⁡6A+cos⁡6A=1−3sin⁡2Acos⁡2A\sin^6 A + \cos^6 A = 1 - 3\sin^2 A \cos^2 A

Putting value in (sin6 A + cos6 A + 3 sin2 A cos2 A) - (sin4 A - cos4 A + 1) cosec2 A:

(sin6 A + cos6 A + 3 sin2 A cos2 A) - (sin4 A - cos4 A + 1) cosec2 A

⇒ (1 + 3 sin2 A cos2 A - 3 sin2 A cos2 A) - [(sin2 A - cos2 A)(1) + 1] (1 / sin2 A)

⇒ (1) - [(sin2 A - cos2 A) + 1] (1 / sin2 A)

⇒ (1) - (sin2 A - cos2 A + 1) / sin2 A

⇒ (1) - (sin2 A / sin2 A - cos2 A / sin2 A + 1 / sin2 A)

⇒ (1) - (1 - cos2 A / sin2 A + 1 / sin2 A)

⇒ (1) - (1 - cos2 A / sin2 A + cosec2 A)

⇒ (1) - (1 - cot2 A + Cosec2A)                Since [cosec2A - cot2A = 1]

⇒ (1) - (2)

⇒ -1

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 15

If an increase of 40% is observed on an amount in 4 years at simple interest, what will be the compound interest on ₹80,000 after 4 years at the same rate of interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹17,128

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹37,128

  3. COption (c)

    ₹39,724

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹29,728

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹37,128

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹80,000

Time (t) = 4 years

Simple Interest Increase = 40%

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = P × r × t / 100

Amount (A) = P(1 + r/100)t

Calculation:

Simple Interest Increase = 40%

⇒ 40 = r × 4 / 100

⇒ r = 40 × 100 / 4

⇒ r = 10%

Now, find compound interest:

Amount (A) = P(1 + r/100)t

A = 80,000(1 + 10/100)4

⇒ A = 80,000(1 + 0.1)4

⇒ A = 80,000(1.1)4

⇒ A = 80,000 × 1.4641

⇒ A = ₹117,128

Compound Interest (CI) = A - P

CI = 117,128 - 80,000

⇒ CI = ₹37,128

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 16

A cylinder has a radius of 8π\frac{8}{π} cm and its volume is 448 cm3 . What is the height of the cylinder (take π = 227\frac{22}{7})?

  1. AOption (a)

    24 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    22 cm

  3. COption (c)

    21 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    23 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A cylinder has a radius of 8π\frac{8}{π} cm and its volume is 448 cm3 .

Formula Used:

Volume of Cylinder = π r2h

Calculation:

According to the question, 

448 = π (8/π)2 h

⇒ h = (448 × 22)/(64 × 7) 

⇒ 22 cm

∴ The height of the cylinder is 22 cm.

Question 17

A number 37 is divided into two parts such that 5 times one part and 11 times the other is together equal to 227. Find the value of 9 times the smaller number.

  1. AOption (a)

    63

  2. BOption (b)

    61

  3. COption (c)

    62

  4. DOption (d)

    60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

63

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A number 37 is divided into two parts such that 5 times one part and 11 times the other is together equal to 227.

Formula used:

Let the two parts be x and (37 - x).

According to the given condition:

5x + 11(37 - x) = 227

Calculation:

5x + 11(37 - x) = 227

⇒ 5x + 407 - 11x = 227

⇒ -6x + 407 = 227

⇒ -6x = 227 - 407

⇒ -6x = -180

⇒ x = 30

The smaller part is 37 - 30 = 7

9 times the smaller number = 9 × 7 = 63

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 18

For making a toy, a hemisphere is attached at one end of a cylinder and a cone is attached at the other end of the cylinder. The cylinder, the cone and the hemisphere have a common radius of 4.2 cm. The height of the cylinder and that of the cone is 7 cm. Find the volume (in cm3) of the toy. (Use π = 227\frac{22}{7})

  1. AOption (a)

    762.255

  2. BOption (b)

    863.25

  3. COption (c)

    672.672

  4. DOption (d)

    358.8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

672.672

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of the cylinder, cone, and hemisphere (r) = 4.2 cm

Height of the cylinder (hcyl) = 7 cm

Height of the cone (hcone) = 7 cm

π = 22/7

Formula used:

Volume of cylinder (Vcyl) = πr2hcyl

Volume of cone (Vcone) = (1/3)πr2hcone

Volume of hemisphere (Vhemi) = (2/3)πr3

Calculation:

Vcyl = π × (4.2)2 × 7

⇒ Vcyl = (22/7) × (4.2)2 × 7

⇒ Vcyl = 22 × 4.2 × 4.2

⇒ Vcyl = 387.464 cm3

Vcone = (1/3) π × (4.2)2 × 7

⇒ Vcone = (1/3) × (22/7) × (4.2)2 × 7

⇒ Vcone = (1/3) × 22 × 4.2 × 4.2

⇒ Vcone = 129.155 cm3

Vhemi = (2/3) π × (4.2)3

⇒ Vhemi = (2/3) × (22/7) × (4.2)3

⇒ Vhemi = (2/3) × 22 × 4.2 × 4.2 × 4.2 / 7

⇒ Vhemi = 155.053 cm3

Total volume (Vtotal) = Vcyl + Vcone + Vhemi

⇒ Vtotal = 387.464 + 129.155 + 155.053

⇒ Vtotal = 672.672 cm3

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 19

The average of 11 results is 60 and that of the first 10 is 59. The 11th result is?

  1. AOption (a)

    70

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    69

  4. DOption (d)

    59

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

70

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average of 11 results is 60 and that of the first 10 is 59.

Formula used:

Sum = Average × Number of items

Calculation:

Sum of 11 results = 60 × 11

⇒ Sum of 11 results = 660

Sum of first 10 results = 59 × 10

⇒ Sum of first 10 results = 590

The 11th result = Sum of 11 results - Sum of first 10 results

⇒ The 11th result = 660 - 590

⇒ The 11th result = 70

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 20

​The surface area of a cube is 1728 cm2. Find its volume

  1. AOption (a)

    4356√2 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    5436√2 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    6453√2 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    3456√2 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3456√2 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The surface area of a cube is 1728 cm2.

Formula used:

Surface area of a cube = 6a2

Volume of a cube = a3

Calculation:

6a2 = 1728

⇒ a2 = 1728 / 6

⇒ a2 = 288

⇒ a = √288

Volume = a3

Volume = (√288)3

Volume = 3456√2 cm3

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 21

Tarun gives Hari a head-start of 60 seconds in a 2400 m race and still beats him by 40 seconds. If the speed of Hari is 6 m/s, find the speed of Tarun.

  1. AOption (a)

    7 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    8.5 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    7.5 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    8 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8 m/s

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Head-start time for Hari = 60 seconds

Distance of race = 2400 m

Tarun beats Hari by = 40 seconds

Speed of Hari = 6 m/s

Formula used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Calculations:

Time taken by Hari to run 2400 m at 6 m/s:

⇒ TimeHari = 2400 / 6 = 400 seconds

Since Tarun beats Hari by 40 seconds, and Tarun gave head start of 60 seconds to hari, Time taken by Tarun:

⇒ TimeTarun = 400 - 40 - 60 = 300 seconds

Speed of Tarun:

⇒ SpeedTarun = 2400 / 300

⇒ SpeedTarun = 8 m/s (approximately)

The correct answer is 8 m/s

Question 22

The average of 11 results is 59 and that of the first 10 is 58. The 11th result is?

  1. AOption (a)

    59

  2. BOption (b)

    58

  3. COption (c)

    68

  4. DOption (d)

    69

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

69

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average of 11 results is 59.

The average of the first 10 results is 58.

Formula used:

Sum of n terms = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

Sum of 11 results = 59 × 11

⇒ Sum of 11 results = 649

Sum of first 10 results = 58 × 10

⇒ Sum of first 10 results = 580

The 11th result = Sum of 11 results - Sum of first 10 results

⇒ 11th result = 649 - 580

⇒ 11th result = 69

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 23

Three numbers are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 9, and their LCM is 1260. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest number?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The numbers are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 9

Their LCM is 1260

Formula used:

If the numbers are 5x, 7x, and 9x then their LCM is the highest of the multiples of the common factors.

Calculation:

LCM of 5x, 7x, and 9x = 315x

Given LCM = 1260

⇒ 315x = 1260

⇒ x = 1260 / 315

⇒ x = 4

Therefore, the numbers are:

Smallest number = 5x = 5 × 4 = 20

Largest number = 9x = 9 × 4 = 36

⇒ Difference between the largest and smallest number = 36 - 20 = 16

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 24

A, Band C jointly started a business in which A invested Rs. 7,000 for 12 months, B invested Rs. 8,000 for 10 months and C invested Rs. 12,000 for 6 months. A was the working member for which he received 20% of the profits as his remuneration. The total profit earned at the end of one year was Rs. 14,750. What is C’s share (in Rs.) in the profit? 

  1. AOption (a)

    4,000

  2. BOption (b)

    3,600

  3. COption (c)

    4,200

  4. DOption (d)

    2,950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3,600

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A invested = ₹7,000 for 12 months

B invested = ₹8,000 for 10 months

C invested = ₹12,000 for 6 months

Total Profit = ₹14,750

A received 20% of the profit as remuneration

Formula used:

Share of profit = (Investment × Time) / Total Investment Ratio

Calculations:

Total Investment Ratio = (7000 × 12) + (8000 × 10) + (12000 × 6)

⇒ Total Investment Ratio = 84000 + 80000 + 72000

⇒ Total Investment Ratio = 236000

A's Investment Ratio = 7000 × 12 = 84000

B's Investment Ratio = 8000 × 10 = 80000

C's Investment Ratio = 12000 × 6 = 72000

Total Profit - A's remuneration = 14750 - (20% of 14750)

⇒ 20% of 14750 = 2950

⇒ Remaining Profit = 14750 - 2950 = 11800

C's share in profit = (C's Investment Ratio / Total Investment Ratio) × Remaining Profit

⇒ C's share = (72000 / 236000) × 11800

⇒ C's share = (72 / 236) × 11800

⇒ C's share = 0.3051 × 11800

⇒ C's share = 3600

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 25

The radii of the two spheres are in the ratio 4 : 5. Their volume will be in the ratio:

  1. AOption (a)

    16 : 25 

  2. BOption (b)

    125 : 64

  3. COption (c)

    64 : 125

  4. DOption (d)

    4 : 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

64 : 125

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The radii of the two spheres are in the ratio 4 : 5.

Formula used:

Volume of a sphere V = (4/3)πr3

For two spheres with radii r1 and r2 in the ratio 4:5, the volumes will be in the ratio (r1)3 : (r2)3

Calculations:

Let r1 = 4k and r2 = 5k

⇒ V1 : V2 = (4k)3 : (5k)3

⇒ V1 : V2 = 64k3 : 125k3

⇒ V1 : V2 = 64 : 125

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 26

The marked price of an article is ₹2,800. It is sold at three successive discounts of 15%, 8% and 5%. Find the selling price of the article (in ₹).

  1. AOption (a)

    2,080.12

  2. BOption (b)

    1,890.20

  3. COption (c)

    1,997.26

  4. DOption (d)

    1,923.56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2,080.12

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Marked price (MP) = ₹2,800

Discounts = 15%, 8%, 5%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 - d1/100) × (1 - d2/100) × (1 - d3/100)

Where, d1, d2, d3 are successive discounts

Calculation:

SP = 2800 × (1 - 15/100) × (1 - 8/100) × (1 - 5/100)

⇒ SP = 2800 × 0.85 × 0.92 × 0.95

⇒ SP = 2800 × 0.74

⇒ SP = 2080.12

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 27

A die is cast twice and a coin is tossed thrice. Find the probability that the die will turn a 5 each time and the coin will turn a head every time.

  1. AOption (a)

    1100\frac{1}{100}

  2. BOption (b)

    1288\frac{1}{288}

  3. COption (c)

    1200\frac{1}{200}

  4. DOption (d)

    150\frac{1}{50}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1288\frac{1}{288}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A die is cast twice and a coin is tossed thrice.

Formula used:

Probability of an event = (Number of favorable outcomes) / (Total number of outcomes)

Calculation:

Probability of getting 5 on a die = 1/6

Probability of getting 5 on a die twice = (1/6) × (1/6)

⇒ (1/6) × (1/6) = 1/36

Probability of getting head on a coin = 1/2

Probability of getting head on a coin thrice = (1/2) × (1/2) × (1/2)

⇒ (1/2) × (1/2) × (1/2) = 1/8

Combined probability = (1/36) × (1/8)

⇒ (1/36) × (1/8) = 1/288

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 28

If a man’s age is four times the sum of the ages of his three children, and after 6 years his age will be twice the sum of the ages of his three children, then what is the man’s present age?

  1. AOption (a)

    60 years

  2. BOption (b)

    45 years

  3. COption (c)

    56 years

  4. DOption (d)

    30 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

60 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Man’s age = 4 × (sum of ages of his three children)

After 6 years, man’s age = 2 × (sum of ages of his three children)

Formula used:

Let the man’s age be x and the sum of the ages of his three children be y.

Equation (1): x = 4y

Equation (2): x + 6 = 2 × (y + 18)

Calculation:

From equation 1, substitute x = 4y into equation 2:

⇒ 4y + 6 = 2 × (y + 18)

⇒ 4y + 6 = 2y + 36

⇒ 4y - 2y = 36 - 6

⇒ 2y = 30

⇒ y = 15

Substitute y = 15 into equation 1:

⇒ x = 4 × 15

⇒ x = 60

∴ The man’s present age is 60 years.

Question 29

The numbers of Commerce, Science and Arts postgraduates working in a company are 40, 80 and 60, respectively. If these figures are represented by a pie chart, then what is the angle corresponding to Commerce postgraduates?

  1. AOption (a)

    50°

  2. BOption (b)

    60°

  3. COption (c)

    80°

  4. DOption (d)

    70°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

80°

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of Commerce postgraduates = 40

Total number of postgraduates = 40 (Commerce) + 80 (Science) + 60 (Arts) = 180

Formula used:

Angle corresponding to Commerce postgraduates in a pie chart = (Number of Commerce postgraduates / Total number of postgraduates) × 360°

Calculation:

Angle = (40 / 180) × 360°

⇒ Angle = (2 / 9) × 360°

⇒ Angle = 80°

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 30

A quadrilateral having equal diagonals and equal opposite sides is always a ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    rectangle

  2. BOption (b)

    rhombus

  3. COption (c)

    trapezium

  4. DOption (d)

    kite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

rectangle

Why this answer is correct

Rectangle

  • A rectangle is a quadrilateral.
  • The opposite sides are parallel and equal to each other.
  • Each interior angle is equal to 90 degrees.
  • The sum of all the interior angles is equal to 360 degrees.
  • The diagonals bisect each other
  • Both diagonals have the same length.

Explanation:

According to the question, we draw a figure of a rectangle ABCD

AB = CD

BC = AD

AC = BD

It will be a rectangle and each angle will be a right angle.

Question 31

89 is related to 78 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 97 is related to 86. To which ofthe following is 72 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    68

  2. BOption (b)

    66

  3. COption (c)

    61

  4. DOption (d)

    59

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

61

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number - 11 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 89 : 78

→ 89 - 11 = 78.

For, 97 : 86

→ 97 - 11 = 86.

Similarly, for 72 ∶ ?

→ 72 - 11 = 61.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 32

In this question, a statement is followed by two conclusions, numbered I and II. Decide which of the two conclusions is/are true based on the given statement.

Statement: M < N ≤ O = S > T ≥ W ≥ Z

Conclusions:

I. M ≤ T

II. N < Z

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

  3. COption (c)

    Only Conclusion II is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Conclusion I is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true

Why this answer is correct

Given Statement: M < N ≤ O = S > T ≥ W ≥ Z

Now,

Conclusions:

1: M ≤ T → False (Because, M < N ≤ O = S > T no definite relation given between M and T).

2: N < Z → False (Because, N ≤ O = S > T ≥ W ≥ Z no definite relation given between N and Z).

So, Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 33

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the followingsets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(19, 9, 173)

(6, 17, 104)

  1. AOption (a)

    (11, 4, 46)

  2. BOption (b)

    (14, 4, 62)

  3. COption (c)

    (8, 12, 94)

  4. DOption (d)

    (7, 15, 105)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(11, 4, 46)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2nd number) + 2 = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (19, 9, 173)

→ (19 × 9) + 2 = 171 + 2 = 173.

For, (6, 17, 104)

→ (6 × 17) + 2 = 102 + 2 = 104.

Similarly, for (11, 4, 46)

→ (11 × 4) + 2 = 44 + 2 = 46.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 34

If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 23584617, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Three

  2. BOption (b)

    None

  3. COption (c)

    Two

  4. DOption (d)

    One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given number: '23584617'

Now, 

2 is added to each odd digit and,

1 is subtracted from each even digit.

After applying the transformations:

Original Digits23584617
Transformed Digits15773539

 

The transformed digits are: 1, 5, 7, 7, 3, 5, 3, 9

Digits that appear more than once: 3, 5, 7

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 35

Three of the following four number triads are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the number triad that does not belong to that group?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    94 - 85 - 76

  2. BOption (b)

    112 - 103 - 94

  3. COption (c)

    76 - 67 - 54

  4. DOption (d)

    87 - 78 - 69

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

76 - 67 - 54

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number - 9 = 2nd number; 2nd number - 9 = 3rd number.

Let's apply the logic to each

  1. 94 - 85 - 76

→ 94 - 9 = 85 

→ 85 - 9 = 76.

  1. 112 - 103 - 94 

→ 112 - 9 = 103 

→ 103 - 9 = 94.

3) 76 - 67 - 54

→ 76 - 9 = 67 

→ 67 - 9 = 58 ≠ 54.

  1. 87 - 78 - 69 

→ 87 - 9 = 78 

→ 78 - 9 = 69.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 36

Two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements maybe the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and select the correct option.

I. All undergraduate exams scheduled for tomorrow in Balasore have been cancelled by the university. New dates will be announced early next week.

II. High winds and very heavy rains are expected in Balasore tomorrow as the cyclone makes a landfall by 3 pm.

  1. AOption (a)

    I is the cause and II is its possible effect

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II are independent causes

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are effects of independent causes

  4. DOption (d)

    II is the cause and I is its possible effect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

II is the cause and I is its possible effect

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: All undergraduate exams scheduled for tomorrow in Balasore have been cancelled by the university. New dates will be announced early next week.

Statement II: High winds and very heavy rains are expected in Balasore tomorrow as the cyclone makes a landfall by 3 pm.

Due to the expected severe weather conditions caused by the cyclone, the university has decided to cancel the undergraduate exams scheduled for tomorrow to ensure the safety of the students.

Hence, II is the cause and I is its possible effect.

Question 37

Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Step I: New element is adding in second and third figure.

Step II: Element repeat itself in sequence in forth and fifth figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 38

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

21 − 7 ÷ 144 × 3 + 18 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    323

  2. BOption (b)

    330

  3. COption (c)

    339

  4. DOption (d)

    342

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

339

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 21 - 7 ÷ 144 × 3 + 18 = ?

Now, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged, then:

⇒ 21 + 7 × 144 ÷ 3 - 18 = ?

⇒ 21 + 7 × 48 - 18 = ?

⇒ 21 + 336 - 18 = ?

⇒ 357 - 18 = 339.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 39

In a certain code language, ‘DARK’ is coded as ‘3284’ and ‘RAKE’ is coded as ‘6438’.What is the code for ‘E’ in that language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

The code for "D" is "2".

The code for "E" IS "6".

Thus, the code for "E" IS "6".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 40

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series, will complete the series.

REMRRE_R_EEMRRE_M_

  1. AOption (a)

    REME

  2. BOption (b)

    EMER

  3. COption (c)

    MREM

  4. DOption (d)

    MRME

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

MREM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: 

Option 1) REME → REM/ RRER / REEEM / RREMME 

Option 2) EMER → REM/ RREE / RMEEM / RREEMR

Option 3) MREM → REM/ RREM / RREEM / RREEMM (It follows a pattern).

Option 4) MRME → REM/ RREM / RREEM / RREMME

Question 41

How many meaningful English words can be formed from Y, P, R and A, using each letter mandatorily but only once in each word?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    More than two

  4. DOption (d)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

One

Why this answer is correct

Meaningful English words can be formed with the letters Y, P, R, and A using each letter only once in each word is:

  1. PRAY → To make a request in a humble manner.

So, only one meaningful word can be formed using these letters once in each word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 42

Three of the following word pairs are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which word pair does not belong to that group?

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

  1. AOption (a)

    Television - Triangle

  2. BOption (b)

    Ring - Circle

  3. COption (c)

    Ball - Sphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Birthday hat - Cone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Television - Triangle

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Television-Triangle
Ring-Circle
Ball-Sphere
Birthday hat-Cone

 

Ring, Ball, Birthday hat all are objects that can be associated with a geometric shape (Circle, Sphere, Cone),

Whereas,

Television is not associated with a specific geometric shape.

Hence, the correct answer is "Television - Triangle".

Question 43

Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

: VXB :: ACG : %

  1. AOption (a)

    - UWA, % - BDH

  2. BOption (b)

    - GIM, % - KMQ

  3. COption (c)

    - HDN, % - BDH

  4. DOption (d)

    - UVN, % - KMQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

- UWA, % - BDH

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: +1 in the positional value of the letter.

 Thus, 

- UWA, % - BDH, ⇒ GIM :  VXB  :: ACG : KMQ

⇒Here, similar pattern can be seen.

- GIM, % - KMQ, ⇒ UWA :  VXB  :: ACG : BDH

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

- HDN, % - BDH ,⇒ UVN :  VXB  :: ACG : BDH

⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

- UVN, % - KMQ, ⇒  HDN :  VXB  :: ACG : KMQ

 ⇒Here, no similar pattern can be seen.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option - (1)".

Question 44

 A certain number of people are sitting in a row facing the north direction. ‘T’ is sitting to the immediate right of ‘U’. ‘Y’ is sitting 5th to the left of ‘U’. ‘Z’ is an immediate neighbour of both ‘T’ and ‘P’. ‘V’ is sitting 5th to the left of ‘T’. ‘O’ is sitting at one extreme end, and there is only one person sitting between ‘O’ and ‘Y’. If no other person is sitting in the row, what is the total number of people seated?

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11

Why this answer is correct

Given:  A certain number of people are sitting in a row facing the north direction.

1) ‘T’ is sitting to the immediate right of ‘U’.

  1. ‘Y’ is sitting 5th to the left of ‘U’

3)  ‘O’ is sitting at one extreme end, and there is only one person sitting between ‘O’ and ‘Y’.

  1. ‘Z’ is an immediate neighbour of both ‘T’ and ‘P’. 

  2. ‘V’ is sitting 5th to the left of ‘T’

If no other person is sitting in the row, then 11 person are sitting in the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 45

Select the option that is related to Figure C in the same way as Figure B is related to Figure A.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Step I: Element at the top left corner + 1 the side of element in the next image.

Step II:  Element at the bottom left corner moved to middle with double of it in the next image.

Step III:  Element at the bottom right corner has the mirror image covered with box in the next image.

In figure 1 → figure 2

In figure 3 → figure 4

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 46

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Hexagon
  2. Triangle
  3. Pentagon
  4. Square
  5. Octagon
  1. AOption (a)

    3, 1, 5, 2, 4

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 4, 3, 1, 5

  3. COption (c)

    2, 1, 3, 4, 5

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 4, 3, 5, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2, 4, 3, 1, 5

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  1. Triangle - A triangle is a polygon with the smallest number of sides, which is 3.
  2. Square - A square is a polygon with 4 equal sides.
  3. Pentagon - A pentagon is a polygon with 5 sides.
  4. Hexagon - A hexagon is a polygon with 6 sides.
  5. Octagon - An octagon is a polygon with 8 sides.

So, the order would be: '2, 4, 3, 1, 5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 47

How many meaningful four letter English words can be formed using A, E, D and N using all the letters but each letter only once in each word?

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1

Why this answer is correct

Meaningful English words that can be formed with the letters A, E, D, and N using each letter only once in each word is:

  1. DEAN → A person who is the head of a college or university faculty or department.

So, 'One' meaningful words can be formed using these letters once in each word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 48

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 49

Three of the following four number triads are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the number triad that does not belong to that group?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    29 - 44 - 38

  2. BOption (b)

    31 - 46 - 41

  3. COption (c)

    17 - 32 - 26

  4. DOption (d)

    24 - 39 - 33

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

31 - 46 - 41

Why this answer is correct

The logic to be used is:

Logic: 1st number + 15 = 2nd number; 2nd number - 6 = 3rd number.

Let's verify each options:

  1. 29 - 44 - 38 

→ 29 + 15 = 44

→ 44 - 6 = 38

2) 31 - 46 - 41

→ 31 + 15 = 46

→ 46 - 6 = 40 ≠ 41.

  1. 17 - 32 - 26

→ 17 + 15 = 32

→ 32 - 6 = 26

  1. 24 - 39 - 33

→ 24 + 15 = 39

→ 39 - 6 = 33

From the above calculations, it is clear that 'Option 2' does not follow the given pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 50

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some crayon is colour.

No colour is water.

Some water is liquid.

Conclusions:

I) Some crayon is liquid.

II) Some crayon is not water.

III) Some liquid is not colour.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I and III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only II and III

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

Some crayon is colour.

No colour is water.

Some water is liquid.

The least possible venn diagram is given:

Conclusions:

I) Some crayon is liquid - False (because there is no direct relation between crayon and liquid, So it can be possible only).

II) Some crayon is not water - True (because some colour is crayon and no colour is water, so the part of crayon which is colour can never be water).

III) Some liquid is not colour - True (because some liquid is water and no colour is water, so the part of liquid which is water can never be colour).

Thus, Only II and III follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 51

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown below. Select the option figure that would most closely resemble the unfolded form of the paper.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

According to given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

 ⇒    

 ⇒

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 52

MNQP is related to STWV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ABED is related to GHKJ. To which of the following is IJML related, following the same logic? 

  1. AOption (a)

    OPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    ROPS

  3. COption (c)

    OPSR

  4. DOption (d)

    PORS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

OPSR

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed is here is:

MNQP is related to STWV

ABED is related to GHKJ

Similarly, 

IJML related to 

So, IJML is related to OPSR.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 53

In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of actions, numbered I and II. You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the courses of actions logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Statement:

In spite of the principal’s repeated warnings, a child was caught with a hidden mobile phone in the school.

Courses of Action:

I) The mobile phone should be taken away from the child and the parents should be called to the school.

II) The child should be punished for committing this mistake.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (I) and (II) follow

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither (I) nor (II) follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only (II) follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (I) follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both (I) and (II) follow

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Statement: In spite of the principal's repeated warnings, a child was caught with a hidden mobile phone in the school.

Course of Action:

I. The mobile phone should be taken away from the child and the parents should be called to the school - True (Because, this will ensure that the parents are aware of the child’s misconduct and can take steps to prevent it in the future).

II. The child should be punished for committing this mistake - True (Because, punishment can act as a deterrent for the child and other students from repeating such actions).

So, Both I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 54

Four figure pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Top left corner symbol is shifted to bottom right corner 

Bottom left corner symbol is shifted to top right corner

Option 1) 

Similar pattern is followed in Option 3 and Option 4.

But in Option 2 it is not followed,

Thus Option 2 figure is not belong to that group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 55

Two statements, I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statement.

Read both the statements and select the correct option.

I) Refreshing and delicious salads are full of antioxidants, Vitamin A, Vitamin C, folate, calcium, fibre and phytonutrients, which are good for health.

II) It is a perfect way to begin our day with salads in order to lead a healthy life.

  1. AOption (a)

    I is the cause and II is its possible effect

  2. BOption (b)

    Both I and II are independent causes

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are effects of independent causes

  4. DOption (d)

    II is the cause and I is its possible effect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I is the cause and II is its possible effect

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Statement I: Refreshing and delicious salads are full of antioxidants, Vitamin A, Vitamin C, folate, calcium, fibre and phytonutrients, which are good for health.

Statement II: It is a perfect way to begin our day with salads in order to lead a healthy life.

Since the nutrients in salads are beneficial for health, it logically follows that consuming them, especially at the start of the day, would promote a healthy lifestyle.

Hence, I is the cause and II is its possible effect.

Question 56

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

Some rice is white.

Some rice is brown.

No white is wheat.

Conclusions:

I) Some wheat is brown.

II) Some rice is not wheat.

III) Some brown is not white

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Only III

  3. COption (c)

    Only II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,

Conclusions:

I) Some wheat is brown → False(As, no direct relation given between them so, it is not followed )

II) Some rice is not wheat →  True(As, Some rice is white and No white is wheat. So, Some rice is not wheat is followed)

III) Some brown is not white → False(As, no direct relation is given between them so, it is not followed)

So, Conclusion II will followed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 57

In a certain code language, ‘PAID’ is coded as ‘3274’ and ‘APED’ is coded as ‘6437’.What is the code for ‘E’ in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

The code for I is : 2

The code for E is : 6

Thus, the code for for E "6".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 58

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the followingsets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(7, 11, 33)

(14, 18, 54)

  1. AOption (a)

    (18, 21, 63)

  2. BOption (b)

    (5, 9, 36)

  3. COption (c)

    (12, 16, 48)

  4. DOption (d)

    (16, 20, 40)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(12, 16, 48)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number + 4 = 2nd number; 2nd number × 3 = 3rd number.

For (7, 11, 33)

→ 7 + 4 = 11

→ 11 × 3 = 33

For (14, 18, 54)

→ 14 + 4 = 18

→ 18 × 3 = 54

Similarly, for (12, 16, 48)

→ 12 + 4 = 16

→ 16 × 3 = 48

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 59

How many meaningful English words can be formed from R, O, W, D and C, using each letter mandatorily but only once in each word?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    More than two

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One

Why this answer is correct

Meaningful English words can be formed with the letters R, O, W, D, and C using each letter only once in each word is:

  1. CROWD → A large group of people gathered together.

So, one meaningful word can be formed using these letters once in each word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 60

Four figure pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed in the options is:

Symbol inside square 1st figure is getting thrice in 2nd figure.

Option1) Symbol inside square in 1st figure is getting thrice in 2nd figure.

Similar logic follows for Option (2) and Option (4)

But, in Option (3)

Symbol inside square in 1st figure is not getting thrice in 2nd figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Section II (60 questions)

Question 61

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Doctors saved many lives during the pandemic. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Many lives have been saved by doctors during the pandemic.

  2. BOption (b)

    Many lives were saved by doctors during the pandemic.

  3. COption (c)

    Many lives were being saved by doctors during the pandemic. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Many lives are saved by doctors during the pandemic.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Many lives were saved by doctors during the pandemic.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "Doctors saved many lives during the pandemic."
  • To convert to passive voice: Place the object "many lives" at the beginning.
  • Change the active verb form "saved" to "were saved" (past simple passive).
  • Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "doctors."
  • Ensure the time phrase "during the pandemic" remains at the end of the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Many lives were saved by doctors during the pandemic."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Many lives have been saved by doctors during the pandemic." – Incorrect tense (present perfect passive).
  • Option 3: "Many lives were being saved by doctors during the pandemic." – Incorrect use of past continuous passive.
  • Option 4: "Many lives are saved by doctors during the pandemic." – Incorrect tense (present simple passive).

Question 62

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. He will say that he is okay.

  1. AOption (a)

    He would say, “I am okay.”

  2. BOption (b)

    He will say, “I am always okay.”

  3. COption (c)

    He will say, “I was okay.”

  4. DOption (d)

    He will say, “I am okay.” 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

He will say, “I am okay.” 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: He will say that he is okay.
  • Key Conversions:
  • "he is okay" becomes "I am okay"
  • Pronoun "he" is changed to "I" to match direct speech.
  • Since the reporting verb (He will say) is in future tense the reported speech (he is okay) will have no change in its tense form only verb "is" is changed to "am" to match the present tense in direct speech.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
  • Starts with a capital letter "I" and ends with a period "."
  • Reporting clause follows the quoted speech, starting with a lowercase letter after the comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 63

Rearrange the jumbled words and choose the alternative that correctly matches the given sentence.

The youth ___________ now-a-days.

life / of / today / a / leading / are / miserable

  1. AOption (a)

    today are leading of a miserable life

  2. BOption (b)

    of today are leading a miserable life

  3. COption (c)

    are today leading of a miserable life

  4. DOption (d)

    today are leading a miserable life of 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

of today are leading a miserable life

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. of today are leading a miserable life

Key Points

  • The sentence begins with "of today," which correctly sets the context of the youth in question.
  • Following "of today," the phrase "are leading" comes next, indicating the action being taken by the youth.
  • Next, "a miserable life" completes the sentence by describing the condition of the youth.

Therefore, the correct answer is of today are leading a miserable life.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "today are leading of a miserable life" is grammatically incorrect as it misplaces the phrase "of today."
  • Option 3: "are today leading of a miserable life" is also grammatically incorrect as it misplaces the phrase "of today."
  • Option 4: "today are leading a miserable life of" is incorrect because it leaves the sentence incomplete and awkwardly places "of" at the end.

Question 64

Rearrange the jumbled words and choose the alternative that correctly matches the given sentence.

The people of _______ to survive.

are / this / island / commodities / deprived / essential / needed / remote / of

  1. AOption (a)

    remote island are deprived of essential commodities needed this

  2. BOption (b)

    this remote island are needed essential commodities deprived of

  3. COption (c)

    this island are deprived of essential commodities needed remote

  4. DOption (d)

    this remote island are deprived of essential commodities needed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

this remote island are deprived of essential commodities needed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. this remote island are deprived of essential commodities needed

Key Points

  • The sentence starts with the phrase "this remote island," correctly indicated by part (this remote island).
  • Following the subject, "are deprived of essential commodities," continues the logical sequence, making it clear what the people are deprived of.
  • The sentence ends with "needed" which completes the sentence by stating what the essential commodities are needed for.

Therefore, the correct answer is this remote island are deprived of essential commodities needed.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: This option starts with "remote island are deprived of essential commodities needed this," which is grammatically incorrect and does not make logical sense.
  • Option 2: This option starts with "this remote island are needed essential commodities deprived of," which creates a fragmented sentence.
  • Option 3: This option starts with "this island are deprived of essential commodities needed remote," which is not structured correctly.

Question 65

Complete the sentence by choosing an appropriate word from the given options.

He has not _______ returned the money

  1. AOption (a)

    still

  2. BOption (b)

    only

  3. COption (c)

    yet

  4. DOption (d)

    too

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

yet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'yet'. 

Key Points

  • The adverb "yet" is commonly used in negative sentences to indicate that something has not happened up to the present moment.
  • It is placed at the end of the sentence or clause.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "He has not yet returned the money."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "still" is incorrect because it is not used in this context in negative sentences.
  • Option 2: "only" is incorrect as it does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 4: "too" is incorrect because it implies excessiveness, which does not fit the context here.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Call it a day

  1. AOption (a)

    Stop working on something

  2. BOption (b)

    Begin with an assignment

  3. COption (c)

    Name a particular day

  4. DOption (d)

    Involve many people for a simple job

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Stop working on something

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Stop working on something.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Call it a day" means to stop working on something, usually because the work is complete or it is time to stop. (काम करना बंद कर देना)
  • Example: After finishing the report, she decided to call it a day and went home.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Stop working on something.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Begin with an assignment (किसी कार्य को शुरू करना): To start working on a specific task or project.
  • Example: She began with an assignment that was due next week.
  • Name a particular day (किसी विशेष दिन का नाम लेना): To mention or identify a specific day.
  • Example: He named the particular day when the event would take place.
  • Involve many people for a simple job (एक साधारण काम के लिए कई लोगों को शामिल करना): To engage more people than necessary for a straightforward task.
  • Example: They involved many people for a simple job, making it more complicated than it needed to be.

Question 67

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

His family lives _______ Mahu in Madhya Pradesh.

  1. AOption (a)

    at

  2. BOption (b)

    on

  3. COption (c)

    of

  4. DOption (d)

    by

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

at

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'at'.

 

Key Points

  • The preposition "at" is used to indicate a specific place or location.
  • In this context, "at Mahu" specifies the location where his family lives.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "His family lives at Mahu in Madhya Pradesh."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "on" is incorrect because it is not used for indicating a specific location in this context.
  • Option 3: "of" is incorrect; it indicates belonging or possession, not location.
  • Option 4: "by" is incorrect because it indicates proximity rather than a specific location.

Question 68

Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

S1. CV Raman’s story begins in a village near Tiruchirapalli (known in his days as Trichinopoly) in southern India.

P. When he was four years old, Raman’s family moved to Vishakapatnam.

Q. He was born on 8 November 1888, the second child of R Chandrashekara Iyer and Parvati Ammal.

R. Chandrasekara Iyer was an athletic man and he took active interest in sports.

S. His father took up a job there, as a lecturer in Mrs. AV Narsimha Rao College, where he taught physics, mathematics and physical geography.

S6. His young son Raman was not physically very strong, but was very intelligent and he preferred to read books and work at his studies.

  1. AOption (a)

    QPSR

  2. BOption (b)

    SRPQ

  3. COption (c)

    PQSR

  4. DOption (d)

    QPRS 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QPSR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The paragraph begins by introducing CV Raman's early life in a specific location, setting the context for his background.
  • Sentence Q is the second sentence as it provides the birth details of CV Raman:
  • "He was born on 8 November 1888, the second child of R Chandrashekara Iyer and Parvati Ammal."
  • Sentence P follows as it details a significant move in his early childhood:
  • "When he was four years old, Raman's family moved to Vishakapatnam."
  • Sentence S is the fourth sentence because it explains the reason for the family's move:
  • "His father took up a job there, as a lecturer in Mrs. AV Narsimha Rao College, where he taught physics, mathematics and physical geography."
  • Sentence R is the fifth as it provides additional information about his father:
  • "Chandrasekara Iyer was an athletic man and he took active interest in sports."
  • The correct sequence is QPSR.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Abolish

  1. AOption (a)

    Assist

  2. BOption (b)

    Cancel

  3. COption (c)

    Subside

  4. DOption (d)

    Worship

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cancel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "abolish" means to formally put an end to a system, practice, or institution. (समाप्त करना)
  • Example: The government decided to abolish the outdated law.
  • "Cancel" refers to deciding or announcing that a planned event will not take place or that an agreement is no longer valid. (रद्द करना)
  • Example: The meeting was cancelled due to unforeseen circumstances.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'abolish' is 'cancel'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Assist (मदद करना): To help or aid someone.
  • Example: She assisted her friend in completing the project.
  • Subside (शांत होना): To become less intense, violent, or severe.
  • Example: The storm began to subside after a few hours.
  • Worship (पूजा करना): The feeling or expression of reverence and adoration for a deity.
  • Example: The community gathered to worship at the temple.

Question 70

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Harish is clever than wise

  1. AOption (a)

    cleverest than

  2. BOption (b)

    more clever than

  3. COption (c)

    clever as

  4. DOption (d)

    more cleverer than

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

more clever than

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the comparison between "clever" and "wise".
  • To make a proper comparison, the phrase should be "more clever than" rather than just "clever than".
  • The correct phrase should be "Harish is more clever than wise," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • So the correct answer is Option 2

 

Correct sentence: Harish is more clever than wise.

Question 71

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

The patient says, “I am fine.”

  1. AOption (a)

    The patient says that he will be fine.

  2. BOption (b)

    The patient says that he is fine.

  3. COption (c)

    The patient says that he would be fine.

  4. DOption (d)

    The patient says that he was fine.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The patient says that he is fine.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: The patient says that he is fine.
  • Key Conversions:
  • "I am fine" becomes "he is fine"
  • Pronoun "I" is changed to "he" to reflect the third person in indirect speech.
  • Verb "am" is changed to "is" to match the subject "he".
  • Reporting verb:
  • Indirect: "says"
  • Remains the same as it is in the present tense.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • Direct speech is converted to a reported clause.
  • Quotation marks are removed in indirect speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: The patient says that he is fine.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The patient says that he will be fine.
  • Changes the meaning to future tense, which is incorrect.
  • Option 3: The patient says that he would be fine.
  • Uses conditional "would" which changes the meaning.
  • Option 4: The patient says that he was fine.
  • Changes the tense to past, which is incorrect.

Question 72

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

I remember my mother taking me to the stadium.

  1. AOption (a)

    I remember being taken to the stadium by my mother. 

  2. BOption (b)

    I was taken to the stadium by mother that I remembered. 

  3. COption (c)

    My mother remembered me taken to the stadium. 

  4. DOption (d)

    I was remembered being taken to the stadium by my mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I remember being taken to the stadium by my mother. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "I remember my mother taking me to the stadium."
  • To convert to passive voice: Place the object "me" at the beginning.
  • Change the active verb form "taking" to "being taken" (passive gerund).
  • Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "my mother."
  • Ensure the time phrase "to the stadium" remains at the end of the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "I remember being taken to the stadium by my mother."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "I was taken to the stadium by mother that I remembered." – Incorrect structure and meaning.
  • Option 3: "My mother remembered me taken to the stadium." – Incorrect subject and verb form.
  • Option 4: "I was remembered being taken to the stadium by my mother." – Incorrect structure and meaning.

Question 73

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Huxley was an exponent of Darwin’s theory of evolution.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cease

  2. BOption (b)

    Terminate

  3. COption (c)

    Proponent

  4. DOption (d)

    Conclude

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Proponent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Proponent.

Key Points

  • The word "exponent" means a person who supports an idea, theory, or cause and tries to persuade others of its value and importance. (समर्थक)
  • Example: She is a leading exponent of modern art.
  • "Proponent" refers to a person who advocates for or supports a theory, proposal, or course of action. (समर्थक)
  • Example: He is a strong proponent of renewable energy sources.
  • Hence, we can infer that 'exponent' is synonymous with 'proponent'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Cease (रोकना): To stop or bring to an end.
  • Example: The company will cease operations next month.
  • Terminate (समाप्त करना): To bring something to an end.
  • Example: The contract will terminate at the end of the year.
  • Conclude (निष्कर्ष निकालना): To bring to an end, especially in a formal way.
  • Example: The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks.

Question 74

Select the most appropriate article(s) to fill in the blanks.

I was in ________ state of unconsciousness for about half ________ hour

  1. AOption (a)

    the ; a

  2. BOption (b)

    a ; No article

  3. COption (c)

    a ; an

  4. DOption (d)

    No article ; an

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a ; an

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence requires an article before "state" and "hour".
  • The article "a" is used before "state" because it is a singular, countable noun.
  • The article "an" is used before "hour" because "hour" starts with a vowel sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "I was in a state of unconsciousness for about half an hour."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "the ; a" is incorrect because "the" is not appropriate before "state" in this context.
  • Option 2: "a ; No article" is incorrect because "an" is necessary before "hour".
  • Option 4: "No article ; an" is incorrect because "a" is necessary before "state".

Question 75

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word to fill in the blank.

Allies have always come to his rescue in spite of his ____________ attempts to defame him.

  1. AOption (a)

    fellows’

  2. BOption (b)

    scholars’ 

  3. COption (c)

    buddies’

  4. DOption (d)

    enemies’

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

enemies’

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. enemies’.

Key Points

  • The word "allies" means people, groups, or nations that have joined together in an association for mutual benefit or to achieve a common aim. (मित्र)
  • Example: The two nations were allies during the war, supporting each other with resources and strategic planning.
  • "Enemies" refers to individuals or groups that are hostile to one another; adversaries or opponents. (दुश्मन)
  • Example: Throughout history, these two nations have been bitter enemies, clashing repeatedly over territorial disputes.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'allies' is 'enemies'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. enemies’.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Fellows’ (साथी): People who share a particular activity, quality, or condition.
  • Example: He and his fellows worked tirelessly to ensure the success of the project.
  • Scholars’ (विद्वान): People who are highly educated or have an aptitude for study.
  • Example: The scholars gathered at the conference to discuss the latest research findings.
  • Buddies’ (दोस्त): Informal term for friends.
  • Example: He and his childhood buddies have stayed in touch over the years, meeting up whenever they can.

Question 76

In the following sentence, a few of the spellings are incorrect. Find out the sentence with correctly spelt words from the given options.

He is wimsical by natur. No one can seek an explanation from him for his absurd atitude towards others.

  1. AOption (a)

    He is wimsical by nature. No one can seek an explanation from him for his absurd attitude towards others.

  2. BOption (b)

    He is whimsical by natur. No one can seek an explanation from him for his absurd attitude towards others.  

  3. COption (c)

    He is whimsical by nature. No one can seek an explanation from him for his absurd atitude towards others.

  4. DOption (d)

    He is whimsical by nature. No one can seek an explanation from him for his absurd attitude towards others.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

He is whimsical by nature. No one can seek an explanation from him for his absurd attitude towards others.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled words are 'wimsical', 'natur', and 'atitude'.

  • The correct spellings would be 'whimsical', 'nature', and 'attitude'.
  • The word 'whimsical' is an adjective which means 'playfully quaint or fanciful, especially in an appealing and amusing way'. (अजीब)
  • For Example -
  • Her whimsical sense of humor made everyone laugh.
  • The word 'nature' is a noun which means 'the inherent or essential qualities or character of something'. (स्वभाव)
  • For Example -
  • It is not in his nature to be unkind.
  • The word 'attitude' is a noun which means 'a settled way of thinking or feeling about something'. (रवैया)
  • For Example -
  • Her positive attitude towards life is inspiring.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence is: He is whimsical by nature. No one can seek an explanation from him for his absurd attitude towards others.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank.

________, I'm going to walk my dog.

  1. AOption (a)

    Annually

  2. BOption (b)

    Now

  3. COption (c)

    Rarely

  4. DOption (d)

    Already

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Now

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Now'.

 

Key Points

  • The adverb "Now" indicates a present action that is about to take place.
  • The sentence implies an immediate action, making "Now" the most appropriate choice.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Now, I'm going to walk my dog."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Annually" is incorrect because it refers to something that happens once a year.
  • Option 3: "Rarely" is incorrect because it indicates infrequent actions, not immediate ones.
  • Option 4: "Already" is incorrect because it suggests that the action has been completed.

Question 78

Rearrange the jumbled words and choose the alternative that correctly matches the given sentence.

I missed the ________for the next. usually / hour / which / for / board / had / wait / an / bus / I / and / to

  1. AOption (a)

    bus which I board and had to wait for an usually hour

  2. BOption (b)

    bus which I usually board and had to wait for an hour

  3. COption (c)

    hour and had to wait for an bus which I usually board

  4. DOption (d)

    bus I usually board which had to wait for an hour and

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

bus which I usually board and had to wait for an hour

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. bus which I usually board and had to wait for an hour

Key Points

  • The sentence begins with the subject "bus which I usually board," which is correctly indicated by part (bus which I usually board).
  • Following the subject, "and had to wait for an hour" (and had to wait for an hour) continues the logical sequence, making it clear what the speaker had to do.

Therefore, the correct answer is bus which I usually board and had to wait for an hour.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (bus which I board and had to wait for an usually hour): This option has a grammatical error with "an usually hour" which should be "an hour usually."
  • Option 3 (hour and had to wait for an bus which I usually board): This option starts with "hour," which makes the sentence incorrect as the subject is misplaced.
  • Option 4 (bus I usually board which had to wait for an hour and): This option ends with "and," which creates an incomplete and confusing sentence structure.

Question 79

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Intuition

  2. BOption (b)

    Instinctual

  3. COption (c)

    Implusive

  4. DOption (d)

    Initiative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Implusive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'implusive'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'impulsive'.
  • The word 'impulsive' is an adjective which means 'acting or done without forethought'.
  • For Example -
  • He made an impulsive decision to quit his job.
  • Therefore, the correct answer would be 'implusive'.

 

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

  • Intuition - the ability to understand something instinctively, without the need for conscious reasoning.
  • Instinctual - relating to or denoting an innate, typically fixed pattern of behavior; based on instinct.
  • Initiative - the ability to assess and initiate things independently.

Question 80

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The rising rate of inflation is making life very hard for ________ poor.

  1. AOption (a)

    the

  2. BOption (b)

    some

  3. COption (c)

    all

  4. DOption (d)

    its

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'the'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "the" is a definite article used to specify a noun that is known to the reader.
  • In this context, "the" is used to specify a particular group of people, i.e., the poor.
  • The other options: "some," "all," and "its" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: The rising rate of inflation is making life very hard for the poor.

Additional Information

  • Some: means an unspecified amount or number of.
  • All: means the whole quantity or extent of.
  • Its: means belonging to or associated with a thing previously mentioned or easily identified.

Question 81

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Dingy

  1. AOption (a)

    Pure

  2. BOption (b)

    Dreary

  3. COption (c)

    Sterile

  4. DOption (d)

    Bright

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dreary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Dreary.

Key Points

  • The word "dingy" means something that is gloomy, dismal, or lacking brightness and cleanliness. (मैला, अंधेरा)
  • Example: The old, dingy curtains made the room look even more depressing.
  • "Dreary" refers to something that is dull, bleak, and lifeless; depressing in character or appearance. (उदासीन)
  • Example: The dreary weather made everyone feel sluggish and unmotivated.
  • Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate synonym for 'dingy' is 'dreary'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Dreary.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Pure (शुद्ध): Free from any contamination or impurities.
  • Example: The water from the mountain spring is so pure and refreshing.
  • Sterile (निष्फल): Free from bacteria or other living microorganisms; totally clean.
  • Example: Surgeons work in a sterile environment to prevent infections.
  • Bright (चमकदार): Giving out or reflecting a lot of light; shining.
  • Example: The bright sunlight filled the room with warmth and cheerfulness.

Question 82

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

It’s funny how every time he fails to apply the _________ and _________ the glass.

  1. AOption (a)

    breaks; breaks

  2. BOption (b)

    brakes; breaks

  3. COption (c)

    breaks; brakes

  4. DOption (d)

    brakes; brakes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

brakes; breaks

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'brakes; breaks'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "brakes" refers to the mechanical devices used to stop or slow down a vehicle.
  • The word "breaks" refers to the act of causing something to separate into pieces or stop functioning.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not correctly differentiate between the two meanings.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "It’s funny how every time he fails to apply the brakes and breaks the glass."

Question 83

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The Supreme Court set away / the verdict of the High Court / and agreed to hear the plea / of the complainant

  1. AOption (a)

    the verdict of the High Court

  2. BOption (b)

    The Supreme Court set away

  3. COption (c)

    of the complainant

  4. DOption (d)

    and agreed to hear the plea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Supreme Court set away

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the phrase "set away."
  • The correct phrase should be "set aside," which means to annul or void a decision.
  • The correct phrase should be "The Supreme Court set aside the verdict of the High Court," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Thus, the error is located in Option 2 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The Supreme Court set aside the verdict of the High Court and agreed to hear the plea of the complainant."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "the verdict of the High Court" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 3: "of the complainant" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 4: "and agreed to hear the plea" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

Question 84

Select the most appropriate phrasal verb that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The firefighters tried their best to extinguish the fire

  1. AOption (a)

    put in

  2. BOption (b)

    put out

  3. COption (c)

    put off

  4. DOption (d)

    put on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

put out

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. 'put out'.

Key Points

  • The word "put out" means to extinguish something, especially a fire. (बुझाना)
  • Example: The firefighters were able to put out the fire quickly.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. 'put out'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Put in (लगाना/डालना): To install or insert something.
  • Example: The workers put in a new floor in the kitchen.
  • Put off (स्थगित करना): To postpone something to a later time.
  • Example: The event was put off due to bad weather.
  • Put on (पहनना/बढ़ना): To wear or gain something.
  • Example: She put on her glasses to read the document.

Question 85

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The new sunshades have protected our windows during the rainy season.

  1. AOption (a)

    Our windows are being protected by the new sunshades during the rainy season. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Our windows have been protected by the new sunshades during the rainy season

  3. COption (c)

    Our windows are being protected by the new windows during the rainy season.

  4. DOption (d)

    Our sunshades have been protected by the new windows during the rainy season.  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Our windows have been protected by the new sunshades during the rainy season

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • In the active voice, the sentence is: "The new sunshades have protected our windows during the rainy season."
  • To convert to passive voice: Place the object "our windows" at the beginning.
  • Change the active verb form "have protected" to "have been protected" (present perfect passive).
  • Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "the new sunshades."
  • Ensure the time phrase "during the rainy season" remains at the end of the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Our windows have been protected by the new sunshades during the rainy season."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Our windows are being protected by the new sunshades during the rainy season." – Incorrect tense (present continuous passive).
  • Option 3: "Our windows are being protected by the new windows during the rainy season." – Incorrect subject ("new windows" instead of "new sunshades").
  • Option 4: "Our sunshades have been protected by the new windows during the rainy season." – Incorrect subject and object swap.

Question 86

Replace the underlined word in the given sentence with its correctly spelt version.

I have been morning the death of my pet dog.

  1. AOption (a)

    merning

  2. BOption (b)

    moruning

  3. COption (c)

    mourning

  4. DOption (d)

    murning

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

mourning

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'morning'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'mourning'.
  • The word 'mourning' is a noun which means 'the expression of deep sorrow for someone who has died'. (शोक)
  • For Example -
  • I have been mourning the death of my pet dog.
  • Therefore, the correct answer would be 'mourning'.

 

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

  • Habitats - the natural home or environment of an animal, plant, or other organism (निवास)
  • Significant - sufficiently great or important to be worthy of attention; noteworthy (महत्वपूर्ण)
  • Mitigating - having the effect of making something bad less severe, serious, or painful (कम करना)

Question 87

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Research in Social Sciences is plagued nowadays on gloomy definitions and measurements.

  1. AOption (a)

    nowadays amid gloomy definitions

  2. BOption (b)

    nowadays by gloomy definitions

  3. COption (c)

    nowadays during gloomy definitions

  4. DOption (d)

    nowadays onto gloomy definitions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

nowadays by gloomy definitions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The verb "plagued" typically takes the preposition "by" to indicate the agent causing the problem.
  • The phrase "plagued nowadays by gloomy definitions" is grammatically correct and maintains the intended meaning of the sentence.
  • Thus, "nowadays by gloomy definitions" is the most appropriate substitution.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Research in Social Sciences is plagued nowadays by gloomy definitions and measurements."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Nowadays amid gloomy definitions" – The preposition "amid" suggests being surrounded by or amidst, which is not suitable in this context.
  • Option 3: "Nowadays during gloomy definitions" – The preposition "during" indicates a time period, which does not logically align with the verb "plagued."
  • Option 4: "Nowadays onto gloomy definitions" – The preposition "onto" is used to indicate movement towards a surface and is incorrect here.

Question 88

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He always says to me, “I am perturbed.”

  1. AOption (a)

    He always tells me that he is mostly perturbed.

  2. BOption (b)

    He always tells me that he is perturbed.

  3. COption (c)

    He always tells me that he is perturbed by change

  4. DOption (d)

    He always tells me that he is going to be perturbed.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

He always tells me that he is perturbed.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: He always tells me that he is perturbed.
  • Key Conversions:
  • "He always says to me" becomes "He always tells me"
  • Reporting verb "says to" is changed to "tells" to match indirect speech.
  • "I am perturbed" becomes "he is perturbed"
  • Pronoun "I" is changed to "he" to match the subject of the reporting verb.
  • Verb "am" is changed to "is" to match the third person singular.
  • Punctuation and Format:
  • Indirect speech is not enclosed in quotation marks.
  • The sentence structure changes to a statement format.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "He always tells me that he is perturbed."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "He always tells me that he is mostly perturbed."
  • The word "mostly" is added, which changes the meaning of the original sentence.
  • Option 3: "He always tells me that he is perturbed by change."
  • The phrase "by change" is added, which changes the context of the original sentence.
  • Option 4: "He always tells me that he is going to be perturbed."
  • The phrase "going to be" changes the tense and meaning of the original sentence.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

During active sleep, the body is still, (1)_______ the brain is active. The eyes dart back and forth behind closed lids, blood pressure (2)______ and the breathing pattern speeds up. Rapid eye movement sleep plays a vital role in harmonising the experiences we have in the world outside. An EEG of someone during rapid eye movement sleep looks almost the same as the EEG of a person in the (3)______ state, although one is still asleep and the body is still (4)__________.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. 

  1. AOption (a)

    neither 

  2. BOption (b)

    therefore

  3. COption (c)

    so

  4. DOption (d)

    but

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

but

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'but'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "but" is used as a conjunction to connect two contrasting ideas. In the context of the sentence, it highlights the contrast between the stillness of the body and the activeness of the brain during sleep.
  • Other options like "neither," "therefore," and "so" do not convey the necessary contrast between the two parts of the sentence.
  • "But" ensures that the sentence maintains clarity and logical flow by correctly linking the contrasting states of the body and brain during active sleep.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Neither" is used in negative sentences to indicate that two or more things are not true. It does not fit here as there is no negation involved.
  • Option 2: "Therefore" is used to indicate a result or consequence, which is not the relationship between the two clauses in this sentence.
  • Option 3: "So" indicates a cause-and-effect relationship, which does not match the contrasting relationship in the sentence.

Question 90

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2

  1. AOption (a)

    relaxes

  2. BOption (b)

    beeps

  3. COption (c)

    stables

  4. DOption (d)

    increases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

increases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'increases'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage describes physiological changes during active sleep, including the darting of the eyes, an increase in blood pressure, and changes in breathing patterns.
  • The verb "increases" correctly fits the context, indicating that blood pressure rises during this phase of sleep.
  • Other options such as "relaxes," "beeps," or "stables" are either grammatically incorrect or do not align with the intended meaning.
  • Thus, the correct substitution for blank 2 is "increases."

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Relaxes" – This suggests a decrease in blood pressure, which contradicts the physiological description provided.
  • Option 2: "Beeps" – This is irrelevant and does not align with the description of physiological changes during sleep.
  • Option 3: "Stables" – This is grammatically incorrect; the correct form would be "stabilizes," but it still does not fit the context.

Question 91

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    sleeping

  2. BOption (b)

    standing

  3. COption (c)

    waking

  4. DOption (d)

    eating

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

waking

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The blank requires a word describing the state of a person, which is being compared to rapid eye movement (REM) sleep in the context of an EEG.
  • The term "waking" is appropriate because it refers to the conscious, alert state of an individual, aligning with the sentence's description.
  • Other options, such as "sleeping," "standing," and "eating," do not logically fit the context of describing a similar EEG state.
  • The comparison is between REM sleep and the waking state, emphasizing the brain's activity during both conditions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Sleeping" – Incorrect, as it does not fit the context of a comparison between REM sleep and a different state (waking).
  • Option 2: "Standing" – Incorrect, as it refers to a physical posture and does not align with the description of brain activity.
  • Option 4: "Eating" – Incorrect, as it does not relate to the context of describing brain activity during different states.

Question 92

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    conscious

  2. BOption (b)

    immobile

  3. COption (c)

    performing

  4. DOption (d)

    active

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

immobile

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'immobile'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence emphasizes the contrast between brain activity during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and the stillness of the body.
  • The word "immobile" accurately reflects the body’s lack of movement in this state.
  • Other options like "conscious," "performing," or "active" do not appropriately describe the stillness of the body during REM sleep.
  • Thus, "immobile" is the most suitable choice for this blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Conscious" – This refers to being awake or aware, which does not describe the stillness of the body during sleep.
  • Option 3: "Performing" – This implies active engagement in tasks, which is not appropriate for describing the body's immobility during sleep.
  • Option 4: "Active" – This contradicts the idea of the body being still during sleep.

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows

Lena was an avid explorer. She had a deep fascination for the mysteries hidden within the dense forests. One day, while wandering through a secluded forest, she stumbled upon an ancient-looking map half-buried in the undergrowth. The map depicted a trail that led to a legendary waterfall rumoured to possess magical properties. Driven by her curiosity, Lena decided to follow the trail.

As she walked deeper into the forest, the atmosphere grew more enchanting. Sunlight filtered through the thick canopy, casting dappled patterns on the ground. The sound of rustling leaves and distant bird calls created a symphony of nature around her. Guided by the map's markings, Lena navigated through challenging terrains and crossed a narrow rope bridge suspended over a crystal-clear stream.

Finally, after hours of journeying, Lena arrived at the foot of the legendary waterfall. Its cascading waters sparkled like diamonds in the sunlight, and a gentle mist enveloped the surroundings. Lena felt a sense of wonder and tranquillity as she dipped her hand in the cool waters, as if the legends were coming alive. She sat by the waterfall, captivated by its beauty, pondering the ancient stories that had led her here.

Question 93

What intrigued Lena's curiosity in the forest?

  1. AOption (a)

    She heard whispers in the wind.

  2. BOption (b)

    She found a hidden cave.

  3. COption (c)

    She stumbled upon an ancient map

  4. DOption (d)

    She discovered an old book.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

She stumbled upon an ancient map

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

  • Lena’s curiosity in the forest was sparked by her discovery of an ancient-looking map.
  • The map depicted a trail leading to a legendary waterfall with magical properties, which intrigued her enough to follow it.
  • The passage explicitly states that the map was half-buried in the undergrowth, indicating her accidental discovery.
  • Other options like whispers, a cave, or a book are not mentioned in the passage as sources of her curiosity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because whispers in the wind are not mentioned in the passage.
  • Option 2: Incorrect because Lena did not find a hidden cave that intrigued her curiosity.
  • Option 4: Incorrect because there is no mention of Lena discovering an old book in the passage.

Question 94

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. What surrounded Lena as she journeyed through the forest?

  1. AOption (a)

    Freed

  2. BOption (b)

    Created

  3. COption (c)

    Girded

  4. DOption (d)

    Bolt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Freed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Freed.

Key Points

  • The word "surrounded" means to be all around someone or something, often creating a feeling of being enclosed. (घेर लिया)
  • Example: The army surrounded the enemy camp, cutting off all escape routes.
  • "Freed" refers to being released from confinement, bondage, or any kind of encirclement; it is the opposite of being surrounded. (मुक्त किया)
  • Example: The prisoner was finally freed after years of captivity.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'surrounded' is 'freed'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Freed.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Created (निर्मित किया): Brought something into existence.
  • Example: She created a beautiful painting in just two hours.
  • Girded (कमर कस ली): Encircled or surrounded, especially in preparation for action.
  • Example: He girded himself for the upcoming battle.
  • Bolt (बोल्ट): A metal pin or bar, in this context it is less related but can mean to run away suddenly.
  • Example: The horse bolted when it heard the loud noise.

Question 95

Select the correct spelling of the underlined word in the given sentence. What was Lena's reason for following the trial on the map?

  1. AOption (a)

    Triall

  2. BOption (b)

    Trail

  3. COption (c)

    Treil

  4. DOption (d)

    Trale

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Trail

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'trial'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'trail'.
  • The word 'trail' is a noun that refers to a marked or beaten path, often in a natural or outdoor setting. (पथ)
  • For Example -
  • The hikers followed the trail through the woods.
  • Therefore, the correct answer would be 'trail'.

 

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

  • Trial - a formal examination of evidence, typically in a court of law (मुकदमा)
  • Treil - an incorrect spelling of 'trail'.
  • Trale - an incorrect spelling of 'trail'.

Question 96

Where did Lena find the map?

  1. AOption (a)

    Buried in the sand

  2. BOption (b)

    In a bookstore in town

  3. COption (c)

    Underneath a bridge

  4. DOption (d)

    Half-buried in the undergrowth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Half-buried in the undergrowth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage states that Lena found the map while wandering through a secluded forest, where she came across an ancient-looking map half-buried in the undergrowth.
  • This detail directly answers the question about where Lena discovered the map.
  • The other options—'buried in the sand,' 'in a bookstore in town,' and 'underneath a bridge'—are not mentioned or relevant to the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 (Buried in the sand): Incorrect, as there is no mention of sand in the passage.
  • Option 2 (In a bookstore in town): Incorrect, as Lena discovered the map in a forest, not a bookstore.
  • Option 3 (Underneath a bridge): Incorrect, as Lena found the map in the undergrowth, not near or under a bridge.

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows

As a result of increasing population and expansion of residential areas, forest lands are being encroached. This is not all; even the wildlife is under extreme threat. As our fauna is facing a dearth of adequate shelter in forests, they are heading towards towns and hence get killed by hunters. Consequently, many animal species have either become extinct or are on the verge of extinction. The Black Buck is almost endangered and found only in two countries, Nepal and India. In India, this antelope is found in many national parks like Guindy National Park, Point Calimere and Vellandu sanctuaries of Tamil Nadu, Rollapadu of Andra Pradesh, few parts of Rajasthan and Haryana. As far as their habitat is concerned, they live in open grasslands, dry areas or thinly populated areas and near water resources. They live in the desert areas of Rajasthan and coastal areas because they cannot sustain cold climate. They are the fastest running animals on this planet. Further, this animal is active during the day, but slows down in its activities after mid-day. They are social beings. Hence, they move with their herds, which can vary from 3 to 23 mates. They cohabit twice in a year and give birth twice in a year

Prior to independence, this antelope was extensively hunted which affected their population so much that this species has reached the stage of extinction in many parts of the country. Poachers kill them mainly for material gain. Its skin has an enormous value in the market. In order to protect this species, the IUCN has declared this species nearly threatened. Hence, under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, numerous stern measures have been taken. To specify a few, Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary (Bihar), Gir Forest National Park, Velavadar Wildlife Sanctuary (Gujarat), National Chambal Sanctuary, etc. Despite these acts, hunting is adversely affecting our wildlife. There are some solutions to this problem but the best one is to boycott the products made from endangered species at an international level. This seems to be effective but will it prevent animal hunting? That’s a question.

Question 97

What is the theme of this passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Endangered species

  2. BOption (b)

    Over-population

  3. COption (c)

    Land encroachment

  4. DOption (d)

     Forests and their uses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Endangered species

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • A) The passage discusses the impact of overpopulation and land encroachment on forests and wildlife, particularly focusing on the endangered Black Buck.
  • The theme primarily revolves around the endangerment of species and conservation efforts, highlighting the Black Buck’s plight and protective measures.
  • B) Overpopulation and land encroachment are mentioned as contributing factors but are not the central theme.
  • These elements support the main narrative but do not encompass the entire scope of the passage.
  • C) The passage does not primarily focus on forests and their uses but rather on the consequences of human actions on wildlife.
  • The theme is centered on endangered species rather than general forest usage or benefits.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Incorrect because overpopulation is mentioned as a cause but not the theme of the passage.
  • Option 3: Incorrect because land encroachment is also a contributing factor but not the focus of the passage.
  • Option 4: Incorrect because forests and their uses are not discussed in detail; the focus is on endangered species.

Question 98

Choose the word which closely means ‘adversely’

  1. AOption (a)

    Digressing 

  2. BOption (b)

    Detrimentally

  3. COption (c)

    Scarcely

  4. DOption (d)

    Distressing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Detrimentally

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

  • A) The word ‘adversely’ means negatively or detrimentally.
  • The passage discusses how hunting is having a harmful effect on wildlife, aligning with the meaning of ‘detrimentally.’

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 (Detrimentally).

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because ‘digressing’ is unrelated to the context.
  • Option 3: Incorrect because ‘scarcely’ does not align with the meaning of ‘adversely.’
  • Option 4: Incorrect because ‘distressing,’ while somewhat related, does not capture the exact meaning conveyed by ‘adversely.’

Question 99

What is the author’s tone in this passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Concerned

  2. BOption (b)

    Revengeful

  3. COption (c)

    Impressed

  4. DOption (d)

    Agitated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Concerned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • The author expresses a deep concern about the endangered Black Buck species, as well as the ongoing threats they face from poaching and habitat loss.
  • The tone reflects worry about the damage to wildlife populations and the need for action, especially through the question posed at the end: "Will it prevent animal hunting?" This conveys a sense of concern about the future of the species.
  • The tone is not revengeful, impressed, or agitated, as there is no expression of anger, admiration, or extreme emotional reaction in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (Revengeful): Incorrect, as the passage does not express any form of revenge or anger, but rather concern for the species.
  • Option 3 (Impressed): Incorrect, as the author is not showing admiration or awe in the passage, but instead concern about the threat to wildlife.
  • Option 4 (Agitated): Incorrect, as the tone is not agitated or frantic, but rather thoughtful and concerned.

Question 100

The Black Buck is killed because of hunters’ ______________.

  1. AOption (a)

    material gain

  2. BOption (b)

    need

  3. COption (c)

    fun

  4. DOption (d)

    personal gratification

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

material gain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage mentions that poachers kill the Black Buck for material gain, specifically pointing to the value of its skin in the market.
  • The other options—'need,' 'fun,' and 'personal gratification'—are not explicitly mentioned in the passage as reasons for hunting the Black Buck.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (Need): Incorrect, as there is no mention of hunters needing the Black Buck for survival or sustenance.
  • Option 3 (Fun): Incorrect, as the passage does not describe hunting for fun as the reason for killing Black Bucks.
  • Option 4 (Personal gratification): Incorrect, as the hunting is driven by material gain rather than personal pleasure or gratification.

Question 101

A part of the cell other than the nucleus which has DNA and ribosomes and can thus make its own proteins is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    mitochondria

  2. BOption (b)

    endoplasmic reticulum

  3. COption (c)

    ribosomes

  4. DOption (d)

    Golgi apparatus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

mitochondria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is mitochondria.

Key Points

  • The mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they produce energy in the form of ATP through the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
  • They contain their own DNA, which is separate from the nuclear DNA, and ribosomes, which allows them to synthesize some of their own proteins.
  • Mitochondria are involved in various cellular processes, including the regulation of the cell cycle and cell growth.
  • They are found in almost all eukaryotic cells, and their number can vary depending on the energy requirements of the cell.

Additional Information

  • Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)
  • ER is a network of membranes found throughout the cell and connected to the nucleus.
  • There are two types of ER: Rough ER (with ribosomes attached) and Smooth ER (without ribosomes).
  • Rough ER is involved in protein synthesis and quality control, while Smooth ER is involved in lipid synthesis and detoxification processes.
  • Ribosomes
  • Ribosomes are the molecular machines responsible for protein synthesis in the cell.
  • They can be found floating freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the Rough ER.
  • Ribosomes are composed of RNA and proteins and are critical for translating mRNA into functional proteins.
  • Golgi Apparatus
  • The Golgi apparatus is a series of stacked membranes involved in modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles.
  • It is often considered the cell's "post office" due to its role in trafficking molecules to their appropriate destinations.

Question 102

Who propounded the famous equation E = mc2 in 1905?

  1. AOption (a)

    Albert Einstein

  2. BOption (b)

    Isaac Newton

  3. COption (c)

    Werner Heisenberg

  4. DOption (d)

    Ernest Rutherford 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Albert Einstein

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Albert Einstein.

Key Points

  • Albert Einstein was a theoretical physicist who is widely acknowledged as one of the greatest and most influential physicists of all time.
  • He developed the theory of relativity, one of the two pillars of modern physics (alongside quantum mechanics).
  • His equation E = mc2, which asserts that energy (E) equals mass (m) times the speed of light (c) squared, is derived from his theory of special relativity.
  • In 1921, he received the Nobel Prize in Physics for his services to theoretical physics, and especially for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect, a pivotal step in the development of quantum theory.

Additional Information

  • Theory of Relativity
  • It includes two interrelated theories by Albert Einstein: special relativity and general relativity.
  • Special relativity applies to all physical phenomena in the absence of gravity. General relativity explains the law of gravitation and its relation to other forces of nature.
  • Special relativity introduced the concept that space and time are linked in a four-dimensional space-time continuum.
  • General relativity introduced the concept of spacetime being curved by mass and energy, leading to what we perceive as gravity.
  • Photoelectric Effect
  • It is the emission of electrons or other free carriers when light hits a material.
  • Electrons emitted in this manner can be referred to as photoelectrons.
  • Einstein's explanation of the photoelectric effect was crucial in establishing quantum theory.
  • He proposed that light could be thought of as discrete packets of energy, or photons, which was a significant departure from the wave theory of light.
  • Mass-Energy Equivalence (E = mc2)
  • This equation indicates that mass and energy are interchangeable; they are different forms of the same thing.
  • It implies that a small amount of mass can be converted into a large amount of energy.
  • This principle is the basis for the energy produced in nuclear reactions, where the binding energy of atomic nuclei is released.
  • It has profound implications in both theoretical physics and practical applications, including nuclear power and atomic bombs.

Question 103

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be invoked by a certificate granted by the High Court.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Supreme Court has a very wide advisory jurisdiction over all courts and tribunals in India.

  3. COption (c)

    The original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more State

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 30 of the Constitution of India gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more State

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more State.

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between two or more States.
  • This jurisdiction is provided under Article 131 of the Constitution of India.
  • Original jurisdiction means the power to hear and decide cases at the first instance, rather than on appeal.
  • The purpose of this jurisdiction is to ensure that the federal structure of the Constitution is maintained.

Additional Information

  • Article 131 of the Constitution of India:
  • Article 131 grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between two or more States.
  • This is a unique power as it is not shared by the High Courts or any other courts in India.
  • This ensures that disputes of significant constitutional importance are decided by the highest court in the country.
  • Original Jurisdiction:
  • Original jurisdiction refers to the authority of a court to hear and decide a case for the first time, rather than reviewing a lower court's decision.
  • In the case of the Supreme Court of India, its original jurisdiction includes matters relating to disputes between the center and states, and between states themselves.
  • Advisory Jurisdiction:
  • Advisory jurisdiction refers to the power of the Supreme Court to give advice to the President of India on legal or constitutional matters.
  • This is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution of India.
  • Certificate from High Court:
  • This refers to the process where a High Court certifies that a case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution, allowing it to be appealed directly to the Supreme Court.
  • This is provided under Article 132 of the Constitution of India.

Question 104

The torrid zone lies between _____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Antarctic Circle and Tropic of Capricorn

  2. BOption (b)

    North Pole and Arctic Circle

  3. COption (c)

    Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn

  4. DOption (d)

    Arctic Circle and Tropic of Cancer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.

Key Points

  • The torrid zone, also known as the tropical zone, lies between the Tropic of Cancer (approximately 23.5° North) and the Tropic of Capricorn (approximately 23.5° South).
  • This region of the Earth experiences the most direct sunlight throughout the year, leading to a consistently warm or hot climate.
  • The torrid zone is characterized by a high level of biodiversity due to its warm climate and consistent daylight.
  • Significant climatic phenomena such as monsoons are often influenced by the conditions within the torrid zone.

Additional Information

  • Tropic of Cancer
  • The Tropic of Cancer is the circle marking the latitude 23.5° North where the sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice in June.
  • This latitude marks the northernmost point where the sun can be directly overhead.
  • The Tropic of Cancer passes through countries like Mexico, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, India, and China.
  • Tropic of Capricorn
  • The Tropic of Capricorn is the circle marking the latitude 23.5° South where the sun is directly overhead at noon on the winter solstice in December.
  • This latitude marks the southernmost point where the sun can be directly overhead.
  • The Tropic of Capricorn passes through countries such as Australia, Brazil, Chile, and South Africa.
  • Equator
  • The Equator is an imaginary line around the middle of the Earth, equidistant from the North and South Poles, dividing the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
  • It is located at 0° latitude.
  • The Equator passes through countries such as Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Gabon, and Indonesia.
  • The region around the Equator generally experiences a tropical rainforest climate, with high temperatures and significant precipitation year-round.

Question 105

Match the following:

TreatyYear
1. Treaty of Surata. 1665
2. Treaty of Salbaib. 1775
3. Treaty of Purandharc. 1782
  1. AOption (a)

    1-a, 2-b, 3-c

  2. BOption (b)

    1-b, 2-c, 3-a

  3. COption (c)

    1-a, 2-c, 3-b

  4. DOption (d)

    1-c, 2-b, 3-a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1-b, 2-c, 3-a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a.

Key Points

  • Treaty of Surat:
  • It was signed between Raghunath Rao and the British East India Company (EIC).
  • British EIC agreed to support the claim of Raghunathrao over Peshwaship.
  • In return, Raghunathrao conceded Salsette and Bassein to the English.
  • The Treaty of Surat in 1775 is considered the beginning of the First Anglo-Maratha War.
  • Treaty of Salbai:
  • With the Treaty of Salbai, the First Anglo-Maratha War ended.
  • It was signed on 17 May 1782 between the British East India Company and the Marathas.
  • Mahadaji Sindhia made an agreement with the English in October 1781 by which he agreed to negotiate with Poona Council for a treaty with the English.
  • The negotiations started in early 1782 and the treaty of Salbai was signed between the English and the Marathas on May 17, 1782.
  • Treaty of Purandar: 
  • The treaty of Purandar was signed between the Rajput ruler Jai Singh I, who was commander of the Mughal Empire, and Maratha Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
  • This treaty was signed on 11th June 1665.

Question 106

How many phases are involved in the census operations in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Four

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Two

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

  • The census operations in India are conducted in two phases.
  • The first phase is the House listing & Housing Census.
  • The second phase is the Population Enumeration.
  • The census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Additional Information

  • House listing & Housing Census
  • This is the first phase of the census operations where the enumerators collect data on the condition of houses, amenities available to households, and assets owned by them.
  • It helps in creating a comprehensive database of the housing conditions and helps in planning and implementing various government schemes.
  • Population Enumeration
  • This is the second phase where the actual counting of the population takes place.
  • Enumerators visit households to collect detailed information on demographic, social, and economic parameters.
  • Data collected during this phase includes age, sex, marital status, literacy, occupation, and migration status of the population.
  • Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner
  • This office is responsible for conducting the census in India.
  • It operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is tasked with planning, coordination, and supervision of the census operations.

Question 107

The number of atoms in exactly 12 g of carbon-12 is known as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Faraday’s constant

  2. BOption (b)

    Rydberg constant

  3. COption (c)

    Planck’s constant 

  4. DOption (d)

    Avogadro’s constant 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Avogadro’s constant 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Avogadro's constant.

Key Points

  • Avogadro's constant is the number of atoms, molecules, or particles in one mole of a substance.
  • It is defined as exactly 6.02214076 × 10^23 entities per mole.
  • This constant is named after the Italian scientist Amedeo Avogadro.
  • It plays a fundamental role in the field of chemistry and physics, particularly in the context of the mole concept and the calculation of the amount of substance.

Additional Information

  • Faraday's Constant
  • Faraday's constant represents the electric charge per mole of electrons.
  • It is approximately equal to 96485 coulombs per mole.
  • This constant is used in electrochemistry to relate the amount of substance undergoing oxidation or reduction at an electrode to the quantity of electric charge passed through the substance.
  • Rydberg Constant
  • The Rydberg constant is associated with the wavelengths of spectral lines of hydrogen.
  • It is used in atomic physics to describe the wavelengths of photons emitted during electron transitions between energy levels in an atom.
  • The value of the Rydberg constant is approximately 1.097 × 10^7 m^-1.
  • Planck's Constant
  • Planck's constant is a fundamental constant in quantum mechanics.
  • It relates the energy of a photon to the frequency of its associated electromagnetic wave.
  • The value of Planck's constant is approximately 6.626 × 10^-34 joule-seconds.
  • This constant is central to the theory of quantum mechanics and helps to explain phenomena like the photoelectric effect.

Question 108

Who among the following participated in the All-World Religious Conference (Parliament of Religions) held in 1893 in Chicago? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Swami Shahjananda

  2. BOption (b)

    Swami Dayanand

  3. COption (c)

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  4. DOption (d)

    Swami Vivekananda 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Swami Vivekananda 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Swami Vivekananda.

Key Points

  • Swami Vivekananda represented India and Hinduism at the Parliament of the World's Religions held in Chicago in 1893.
  • He is best known for his speech which began with the words "Sisters and brothers of America," which earned him a standing ovation from the audience.
  • His speech at the Parliament is considered one of the most significant events in the history of modern Hinduism and Indian nationalism.
  • Swami Vivekananda was a key figure in introducing the Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.

Additional Information

  • All-World Religious Conference (Parliament of Religions):
  • The Parliament of the World's Religions was an event held in 1893 in Chicago to create a global dialogue of faiths.
  • It was the first organized interfaith gathering, bringing together religious leaders from various faiths around the world.
  • Swami Vivekananda:
  • Born as Narendranath Datta on 12 January 1863 in Kolkata, he was a chief disciple of the 19th-century Indian mystic Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
  • He played a major role in the revival of Hinduism in India and contributed to the concept of nationalism in colonial India.
  • Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Math and the Ramakrishna Mission, which are still active in providing social services and spiritual teachings.
  • Hinduism and Vedanta:
  • Hinduism is one of the oldest religions in the world, encompassing a variety of philosophies, beliefs, and rituals.
  • Vedanta is a school of Hindu philosophy that emphasizes the ideas found in the Upanishads, such as the ultimate unity of all existence and the essential oneness of the individual soul (Atman) with the supreme reality (Brahman).

Question 109

The pH value of the curd is:

  1. AOption (a)

    higher than 7 

  2. BOption (b)

    nearly 7

  3. COption (c)

    lower than the pH value of milk

  4. DOption (d)

    higher than the pH value of milk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

lower than the pH value of milk

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is lower than the pH value of milk.

Key Points

  • Curd is formed by the fermentation of milk, which results in the production of lactic acid.
  • The production of lactic acid lowers the pH of curd compared to that of milk.
  • Milk typically has a pH of around 6.5 to 6.7.
  • Due to the presence of lactic acid, curd has a more acidic pH, generally around 4.5 to 5.5.

Additional Information

  • pH Scale:
  • The pH scale measures how acidic or basic a substance is, ranging from 0 to 14.
  • A pH of 7 is considered neutral, below 7 is acidic, and above 7 is basic (alkaline).
  • Fermentation:
  • Fermentation is a metabolic process that converts sugar to acids, gases, or alcohol.
  • In the case of curd, lactose in the milk is converted to lactic acid by bacterial fermentation.
  • Lactic Acid:
  • Lactic acid is an organic acid produced during the fermentation process.
  • It is responsible for the sour taste and lower pH of curd.
  • Acidity in Foods:
  • Acidity in foods can affect flavor, preservation, and texture.
  • Many fermented foods, such as yogurt, sauerkraut, and kimchi, have lower pH values due to the presence of organic acids.

Question 110

Choose the correct order of the following plateaus and mountain ranges from south to north of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Malwa Plateau, Satpura Range, Vindhya Range, and Deccan Plateau

  2. BOption (b)

    Malwa Plateau, Vindhya Range, Satpura Range, and Deccan Plateau 

  3. COption (c)

    Deccan Plateau, Satpura Range, Vindhya Range, and Malwa Plateau

  4. DOption (d)

    Deccan Plateau, Vindhya Range, Satpura Range, and Malwa Plateau

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Deccan Plateau, Satpura Range, Vindhya Range, and Malwa Plateau

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Deccan Plateau, Satpura Range, Vindhya Range, and Malwa Plateau.

Key Points

  • The Deccan Plateau is located in southern and central India, covering a vast area with its southernmost point.
  • It is a large triangular plateau covering most of southern India, bordered by the Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, and the Satpura Range.
  • The plateau is rich in black soil, making it suitable for cotton cultivation, and is known for its volcanic origin.
  • Rivers like Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri originate from the Deccan Plateau, flowing eastward into the Bay of Bengal.

Additional Information

  • Satpura Range
  • Located in central India, it runs parallel to the Vindhya Range, forming a natural boundary between northern and southern India.
  • The range is rich in natural resources, including coal deposits found in regions like Chhindwara and Betul.
  • Satpura is home to several protected areas, including Satpura National Park, known for its biodiversity.
  • Vindhya Range
  • The Vindhya Range lies north of the Satpura Range and plays a crucial role as a cultural and geographical divide between northern and southern India.
  • It is primarily composed of sandstone and limestone and houses significant mineral reserves.
  • The range is historically significant, associated with the development of ancient Indian kingdoms and civilizations.
  • Malwa Plateau
  • Situated in western Madhya Pradesh and southeastern Rajasthan, it is part of the larger Deccan Plateau.
  • The region is known for its fertile black soil, ideal for growing wheat, soybean, and cotton.
  • Malwa Plateau has a rich historical and cultural heritage, with prominent sites like Mandu and Ujjain.

Question 111

Which of the following statements regarding orographic rainfall is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    This precipitation is heavy but of short duration, highly localised and is associated with minimum amount of cloudiness. 

  2. BOption (b)

    This type of precipitation occurs when warm, humid air strikes on a mountain range.

  3. COption (c)

    This type of precipitation is characterised by seasonal reversal of winds that carry oceanic moisture.

  4. DOption (d)

    It occurs mainly during summer and is common over equatorial doldrums in the Congo basin.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

This type of precipitation occurs when warm, humid air strikes on a mountain range.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is This type of precipitation occurs when warm, humid air strikes on a mountain range..

Key Points

  • Orographic rainfall occurs when moist air is forced to ascend over a mountain range.
  • As the air rises, it cools and condenses to form clouds, leading to precipitation.
  • This type of rainfall is common in mountainous regions such as the Western Ghats in India and the Andes in South America.
  • The windward side of the mountain receives heavy rainfall, while the leeward side (rain shadow area) receives very little.

Additional Information

  • Orographic Rainfall
  • Orographic rainfall is a type of precipitation induced by the presence of elevated terrain such as mountains.
  • When warm, humid air is forced to rise over a mountain range, it cools and loses its capacity to hold moisture, leading to cloud formation and precipitation.
  • This phenomenon is common in coastal mountain ranges where moist winds from oceans or seas are forced to rise.
  • The windward side of the mountain receives heavy rainfall, whereas the leeward side, known as the rain shadow area, receives significantly less rainfall.
  • Types of Rainfall
  • Convectional Rainfall: Occurs due to intense heating of the Earth's surface, leading to the rising of warm, moist air which then cools and condenses to form rain. Common in equatorial regions.
  • Frontal Rainfall: Occurs when warm air mass meets a cold air mass, causing the warm air to rise over the cold air, leading to cooling, condensation, and precipitation. Common in mid-latitudes.
  • Cyclonic Rainfall: Associated with cyclones or low-pressure systems, where warm, moist air rises and cools, leading to cloud formation and precipitation. Common in tropical and temperate regions.

Question 112

Which of the following is NOT the feature of Fundamental Duties provided under the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Duties are inspired from erstwhile USSR

  2. BOption (b)

    Duties are non- justiciable in nature

  3. COption (c)

    Duties are enforceable by the law

  4. DOption (d)

    Duties are intended to secure the country

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Duties are enforceable by the law

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Duties are enforceable by the law.

Key Points

  • The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile USSR.
  • These duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be enforced by a court of law.
  • The primary purpose of Fundamental Duties is to remind the citizens of their moral obligations towards the country and promote a sense of discipline and commitment among them.
  • The Fundamental Duties are intended to secure the country by encouraging responsible behavior among its citizens and fostering a spirit of patriotism.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties
  • Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
  • They were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • Initially, 10 Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution, and one more was added by the 86th Amendment Act of 2002, bringing the total to 11.
  • The Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution and are intended to serve as a constant reminder to citizens to uphold the spirit of patriotism and to contribute towards the nation's welfare.
  • Non-Justiciable Nature
  • Unlike Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable and can be enforced by the courts, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable.
  • This means that no legal action can be taken against an individual for not following these duties.
  • However, these duties act as moral obligations and guide the citizens in their conduct.
  • 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is also known as the "Mini-Constitution" due to its wide-ranging impact on the Constitution.
  • It introduced several changes, including the addition of Fundamental Duties and changes to the Preamble, among others.
  • Swaran Singh Committee
  • The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the government in 1976 to make recommendations on Fundamental Duties.
  • Based on its recommendations, the Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

Question 113

Which of the following statements regarding the functions of money is/are true?

  1. Money as a unit of account means it is a standard numerical unit of measurement of the market value of goods, services and other transactions.
  2. Money as a standard of deferred payment is not a significant function because modern economies rarely use money for future payments.
  1. AOption (a)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

  • Money as a unit of account means it is a standard numerical unit of measurement of the market value of goods, services, and other transactions.
  • Money provides a common measure for valuing goods and services, making it easier to compare their worth.
  • This function of money allows for the recording and reporting of financial transactions in a consistent manner.
  • Money as a standard of deferred payment is actually a significant function as it facilitates credit and future payments.

Additional Information

  • Unit of Account:
  • It is a standard monetary unit of measurement of value/cost of goods, services, or assets.
  • This allows for consistent accounting and economic reporting, making complex economic calculations possible.
  • Standard of Deferred Payment:
  • This function of money allows it to be used for payments that are to be made in the future.
  • It is vital for the functioning of credit systems, as it provides the basis for loan and credit agreements.
  • Contrary to what is mentioned in Option 2, modern economies heavily rely on this function for various financial instruments and credit facilities.
  • Store of Value:
  • Money can be saved and retrieved in the future, retaining its value over time.
  • This function is important for savings and investments, as it ensures that money can be used for future transactions.
  • Medium of Exchange:
  • Money facilitates the buying and selling of goods and services, eliminating the inefficiencies of a barter system.
  • It is universally accepted in exchange for goods and services, making transactions more efficient.

Question 114

When was International Anti-Corruption Day Celebrated in 2021 (an annual event) to raise awareness and find newer ways to combat corruption?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 February

  2. BOption (b)

    16 January

  3. COption (c)

    19 August

  4. DOption (d)

    9 December

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9 December

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mon Dec 09 2024 00:00:00 GMT+0530 (India Standard Time).

Key Points

  • International Anti-Corruption Day is observed on December 9th each year.
  • This day was designated by the United Nations General Assembly in 2003.
  • The purpose of this day is to raise public awareness about the dangers of corruption and the need to combat it.
  • Various events and activities are organized worldwide on this day to promote anti-corruption measures and policies.

Additional Information

  • United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC)
  • The UNCAC is the only legally binding international anti-corruption multilateral treaty.
  • It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on October 31, 2003, and entered into force in December 2005.
  • It covers a wide range of corruption-related issues, including prevention, criminalization, international cooperation, and asset recovery.
  • The convention promotes measures to prevent and combat corruption more effectively.
  • Transparency International
  • Transparency International is a global civil society organization that leads the fight against corruption.
  • It was founded in 1993 and is headquartered in Berlin, Germany.
  • Transparency International publishes the annual Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI), which ranks countries by their perceived levels of public sector corruption.
  • The organization's mission is to create change towards a world free of corruption.
  • Global Anti-Corruption Initiatives
  • Many international and regional organizations work towards combating corruption, including the World Bank, International Monetary Fund (IMF), and the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
  • These organizations provide technical assistance, policy advice, and funding for anti-corruption programs in various countries.
  • Anti-corruption initiatives often focus on promoting transparency, accountability, and good governance.
  • Collaboration between governments, civil society, and the private sector is crucial in the fight against corruption.

Question 115

Which of the following duties is specified as the 10th Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform

  2. BOption (b)

    To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

  3. COption (c)

    To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom 

  4. DOption (d)

    To provide opportunities for education to his child or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Key Points

  • The 10th Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution is to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
  • This duty emphasizes the importance of continuous improvement and personal as well as collective growth.
  • It encourages citizens to work towards the betterment of the country in every possible way.
  • This duty is aimed at fostering a culture of excellence in various fields such as education, science, technology, and other spheres of life.

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties
  • The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • These duties are enshrined in Article 51A of the Constitution and aim to promote a sense of discipline and commitment among the citizens.
  • Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were listed. An 11th duty was added by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which mandates that parents or guardians provide opportunities for education to their children between the ages of six and fourteen years.
  • The Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. However, they serve as a constant reminder to citizens to act responsibly and contribute to the nation's well-being.
  • Examples of Fundamental Duties
  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
  • To protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities.
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture.
  • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
  • To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Question 116

Match the following microfinance concepts with their descriptions.

List I (Concepts)List II (Descriptions)
(a)Microcredit(i)Small, often peer-monitored savings products designed for low-income individuals
(b)Microsavings(ii)Financial protection against specific perils for low-income populations
(c)Microinsurance(iii)The use of group responsibility as a guarantee for loan repayment
(d)Social Collateral(iv)Small loans provided to entrepreneurs too poor to qualify for traditional bank loans
  1. AOption (a)

    a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

  2. BOption (b)

    a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

  3. COption (c)

    a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii).

Key Points

  • Microcredit refers to small loans provided to entrepreneurs too poor to qualify for traditional bank loans.
  • Microsavings are small, often peer-monitored savings products designed for low-income individuals.
  • Microinsurance provides financial protection against specific perils for low-income populations.
  • Social Collateral involves the use of group responsibility as a guarantee for loan repayment.

Additional Information

  • Microcredit
  • Microcredit involves providing small amounts of capital to individuals or small businesses that do not have access to traditional financial services.
  • This concept aims to enable entrepreneurs to start or expand small businesses and improve their economic conditions.
  • Microcredit has been popularized by the Grameen Bank in Bangladesh, founded by Dr. Muhammad Yunus.
  • Microsavings
  • Microsavings products are designed to help low-income individuals save small amounts of money over time.
  • These savings can be used for emergencies, future investments, or other financial goals.
  • Microsavings accounts often have low or no minimum balance requirements to make them accessible to the poor.
  • Microinsurance
  • Microinsurance provides affordable insurance products to low-income populations who are often excluded from traditional insurance markets.
  • It covers risks such as health issues, accidents, natural disasters, and death.
  • Microinsurance aims to provide financial stability and reduce vulnerability for the poor.
  • Social Collateral
  • Social collateral refers to the use of social networks and group responsibility to ensure loan repayment.
  • Borrowers often form groups where members guarantee each other's loans, reducing the risk for lenders.
  • This method leverages social pressure and trust within the community to ensure financial discipline.

Question 117

Central Vigilance Commission observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2022 with which of the following themes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vigilant India, Prosperous India

  2. BOption (b)

    Corruption free India for a developed Nation

  3. COption (c)

    Independent India @ 75: Self Reliance with Integrity

  4. DOption (d)

    Integrity A way of life

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Corruption free India for a developed Nation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Corruption free India for a developed Nation.

Key Points

  • The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2022 with the theme "Corruption free India for a developed Nation".
  • The Vigilance Awareness Week was observed from 31st October to 6th November 2022.
  • The observance of this week commenced with the taking of the Integrity Pledge by public servants and other stakeholders.
  • The aim of Vigilance Awareness Week is to raise public awareness about the perils of corruption and promote integrity in public life.

Additional Information

  • Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
  • The CVC is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption.
  • It was set up on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam.
  • The Commission is tasked with monitoring all vigilance activities under the Central Government and advising various authorities in central government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work.
  • Vigilance Awareness Week
  • Vigilance Awareness Week is observed every year during the week in which the birthday of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (31st October) falls.
  • The week is marked by various activities such as debates, lectures, and awareness campaigns to promote vigilance and integrity.
  • The Integrity Pledge is a key component of the week, encouraging people to adhere to ethical conduct and fight against corruption.
  • Integrity Pledge
  • The Integrity Pledge is an oath taken by individuals to uphold and promote ethical practices and fight corruption.
  • It is aimed at creating a corruption-free environment in all spheres of life, including public and private sectors.
  • The pledge is taken by employees of government organizations, PSUs, and other stakeholders.

Question 118

In 2021, Union Minister Jitendra Singh inaugurated the X-band Doppler Weather Radar to provide improved forecasts. Where was it inaugurated? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jammu

  2. BOption (b)

    Ladakh

  3. COption (c)

    Chandigarh

  4. DOption (d)

    Puducherry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jammu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jammu.

Key Points

  • Union Minister Jitendra Singh inaugurated the X-band Doppler Weather Radar in Jammu in 2021.
  • The inauguration was part of the government's effort to provide improved weather forecasts for the region.
  • The X-band Doppler Weather Radar is crucial for providing real-time data on weather conditions, especially in terms of rainfall, wind speed, and storm tracking.
  • This radar system is expected to enhance the accuracy of weather predictions, thus helping in better disaster management and planning.

Additional Information

  • X-band Doppler Weather Radar
  • The X-band radar operates at a frequency range of 8 to 12 GHz and is particularly effective for short-range weather observations.
  • It is capable of providing detailed information about precipitation, including the intensity and movement of rain, snow, and hail.
  • Doppler radar technology helps in measuring the velocity of particles within the weather system, which is essential for tracking storms and predicting severe weather events.
  • The data from the X-band radar is used by meteorologists to improve weather forecasts, issue timely warnings, and mitigate the impact of natural disasters.
  • Union Minister Jitendra Singh
  • Dr. Jitendra Singh is an Indian politician who serves as the Minister of State for the Ministry of Science and Technology and the Ministry of Earth Sciences, among other portfolios.
  • He has been actively involved in promoting scientific research and development in India.
  • Under his leadership, various initiatives have been undertaken to improve the country's capabilities in weather forecasting, disaster management, and climate change mitigation.
  • Weather Forecasting
  • Weather forecasting involves predicting the state of the atmosphere at a particular location over a specific period.
  • Advanced technologies such as Doppler radar, satellites, and computer models are used to analyze weather patterns and make accurate predictions.
  • Accurate weather forecasts are crucial for agriculture, transportation, disaster preparedness, and daily activities.
  • Efforts are continuously made to improve the accuracy and reliability of weather forecasts through research and development in meteorology.

Question 119

Nataraja represents the dancing figure of which Hindu deity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shiva

  2. BOption (b)

    Kartikeya

  3. COption (c)

    Vishnu

  4. DOption (d)

    Ganesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shiva

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shiva.

Key Points

  • Nataraja is a depiction of the Hindu god Shiva as the cosmic dancer who performs his divine dance to destroy a weary universe and make preparations for the god Brahma to start the process of creation.
  • The Nataraja sculpture represents Shiva in his form as the Lord of Dance (Sanskrit: Nata meaning dance, and Raja meaning king).
  • The dance performed by Shiva is called the Tandava, which is described as the source of the cycle of creation, preservation, and destruction.
  • The Nataraja figure is widely recognized and revered in Hindu temples and is a significant symbol in Indian art and culture.

Additional Information

  • Shiva
  • Shiva, also known as Mahadeva, is one of the principal deities of Hinduism. He is the Supreme Being in Shaivism, one of the major traditions within Hinduism.
  • He is known as the "Destroyer" within the Trimurti, the Hindu trinity that includes Brahma and Vishnu.
  • Shiva is often depicted with a third eye on his forehead, a snake around his neck, the crescent moon adorning his head, the holy river Ganga flowing from his matted hair, and a trident as his weapon.
  • Mount Kailash in the Himalayas is considered his divine abode.
  • Kartikeya
  • Kartikeya, also known as Skanda or Murugan, is the Hindu god of war and the son of Shiva and Parvati.
  • He is often depicted as a youthful god riding a peacock and wielding a spear known as Vel.
  • Kartikeya is particularly revered in South India, especially in Tamil Nadu.
  • Vishnu
  • Vishnu is one of the principal deities of Hinduism, known as the "Preserver" within the Trimurti.
  • He is usually depicted with a dark complexion, holding a conch, discus, mace, and lotus flower.
  • Vishnu is believed to have taken many avatars, including Rama and Krishna, to restore cosmic order.
  • Ganesh
  • Ganesh, also known as Ganesha or Ganapati, is one of the best-known and most worshipped deities in the Hindu pantheon.
  • He is the son of Shiva and Parvati and is widely revered as the remover of obstacles, the patron of arts and sciences, and the deva of intellect and wisdom.
  • Ganesh is easily identified by his elephant head and is often depicted holding a modak (sweet) and riding a mouse.

Question 120

What is the cottony growth over a stale and moist bread known as?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fungi

  2. BOption (b)

    Lichens

  3. COption (c)

    Algae

  4. DOption (d)

    Bacteria

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fungi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fungi.

Key Points

  • Fungi are a kingdom of usually multicellular, eukaryotic organisms that are heterotrophs (cannot produce their own food).
  • They play a crucial role in the ecosystem by decomposing organic matter and recycling nutrients.
  • Fungi can thrive in a variety of environments, particularly where there is decaying organic matter, such as stale and moist bread.
  • The cottony growth seen on stale and moist bread is a result of fungal spores landing on the bread and proliferating under favorable conditions.

Additional Information

  • Fungi:
  • Fungi include microorganisms such as yeasts and molds, as well as the more familiar mushrooms.
  • They are vital decomposers in the ecosystem, breaking down organic matter and returning nutrients to the soil.
  • Unlike plants, fungi do not perform photosynthesis; they obtain their nutrients through absorption.
  • Many fungi form symbiotic relationships with plants, such as mycorrhizae, which aid in plant nutrient uptake.
  • Lichens:
  • Lichens are a symbiotic association between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium.
  • They are known for their ability to colonize harsh environments, such as bare rocks.
  • Lichens are important bioindicators of environmental health and air quality.
  • Algae:
  • Algae are a diverse group of photosynthetic organisms found in a variety of aquatic environments.
  • They range from single-celled microorganisms to large multicellular forms like seaweeds.
  • Algae play a key role in aquatic ecosystems by producing oxygen and serving as the base of the food chain.
  • Bacteria:
  • Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that can be found in almost every habitat on Earth.
  • They play essential roles in processes like nitrogen fixation, decomposition, and fermentation.
  • Some bacteria are beneficial to humans, while others can cause diseases.

This code provides a detailed explanation of the correct option (Fungi) and additional information on related terminologies such as Lichens, Algae, and Bacteria.

Computer Knowledge (15 questions)

Question 121

What does the Ctrl + V shortcut key do?

  1. AOption (a)

    Finds text in a document

  2. BOption (b)

    Saves the document

  3. COption (c)

    Cuts the selected content

  4. DOption (d)

    Pastes the copied content

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pastes the copied content

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pastes the copied content.

Key Points

  • The Ctrl + V shortcut key is used to paste content that has been copied or cut to the clipboard.
  • This function is available in most applications, including word processors, web browsers, and other software that supports text editing.
  • When you press Ctrl + V, the content from the clipboard is inserted at the current cursor position.
  • This shortcut is part of the standard set of keyboard shortcuts for copy, cut, and paste operations, which includes Ctrl + C (copy) and Ctrl + X (cut).

Additional Information

  • Clipboard
  • The clipboard is a temporary storage area in the computer's memory where data that is cut or copied is stored.
  • The clipboard can hold text, images, files, and other types of data.
  • The contents of the clipboard remain available until they are replaced by new data or until the computer is shut down.
  • Copy (Ctrl + C)
  • This shortcut key is used to copy the selected content to the clipboard without removing it from its original location.
  • After copying, the content can be pasted elsewhere using the Ctrl + V shortcut.
  • Cut (Ctrl + X)
  • This shortcut key is used to cut the selected content, removing it from its original location and placing it in the clipboard.
  • The cut content can then be pasted to a new location using the Ctrl + V shortcut.
  • Paste (Ctrl + V)
  • This shortcut key is used to paste the content from the clipboard to the current cursor position or selected location.
  • Pasting does not remove the content from the clipboard, allowing it to be pasted multiple times.

Question 122

Which option in the print dialog allows you to save a web page as a digital file instead of printing it?

  1. AOption (a)

    Save as PDF

  2. BOption (b)

    Print preview

  3. COption (c)

    Print to file

  4. DOption (d)

    Select printer 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Save as PDF

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Save as PDF.

Key Points

  • The "Save as PDF" option in the print dialog allows users to save a web page as a PDF file instead of physically printing it.
  • This option is commonly available in most modern web browsers and operating systems.
  • It is a convenient way to store digital copies of web pages for offline viewing or sharing.
  • Using this option helps in reducing paper usage and is environmentally friendly.

Additional Information

  • Print Preview
  • This option allows users to see how the web page will look when printed, including layout, page breaks, and other print settings.
  • It is useful for ensuring that the printed output matches the user's expectations before committing to printing.
  • Print to File
  • This option allows users to save the print job as a file, typically in a format like PostScript or PDF.
  • It is useful for creating a digital copy of the print job that can be printed later or on a different printer.
  • Select Printer
  • This option allows users to choose which printer they want to use for printing the web page.
  • It is helpful when multiple printers are available, and the user needs to select the appropriate one for the job.

Question 123

In symmetric encryption, how many keys are used to encrypt and decrypt data?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two Keys

  2. BOption (b)

    One Key

  3. COption (c)

    No Key

  4. DOption (d)

    Three Keys

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One Key

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is One Key.

Key Points

  • Symmetric encryption uses a single key for both encryption and decryption of data.
  • The key must be shared between the sender and the receiver to facilitate secure communication.
  • Symmetric encryption is generally faster and less computationally intensive compared to asymmetric encryption.
  • Common symmetric encryption algorithms include AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) and DES (Data Encryption Standard).

Additional Information

  • Encryption:
  • The process of converting plaintext into ciphertext to prevent unauthorized access.
  • Encryption ensures data confidentiality.
  • Decryption:
  • The process of converting ciphertext back into plaintext.
  • Decryption is the reverse operation of encryption and requires the same key used for encryption in symmetric encryption.
  • Symmetric Encryption:
  • A type of encryption where the same key is used for both encryption and decryption.
  • It is also known as secret-key or private-key encryption.
  • Asymmetric Encryption:
  • A type of encryption that uses a pair of keys – a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption.
  • It is also known as public-key encryption.
  • Asymmetric encryption is generally more secure but slower compared to symmetric encryption.

Question 124

Which of the following best describes the primary difference between broadband and dial-up Internet connections? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Broadband is slower than dial-up

  2. BOption (b)

    Dial-up uses a telephone line, while broadband uses various technologies for higher speeds.

  3. COption (c)

    Broadband is only available in urban areas, while dial-up is available everywhere.

  4. DOption (d)

    Dial-up requires a cable connection, while broadband does not.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dial-up uses a telephone line, while broadband uses various technologies for higher speeds.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dial-up uses a telephone line, while broadband uses various technologies for higher speeds..

Key Points

  • Dial-up Internet requires a telephone line for connectivity. Users connect to the Internet by dialing a phone number, which establishes a connection to their Internet Service Provider (ISP).
  • Broadband Internet utilizes a variety of technologies, such as DSL, cable, fiber optics, and satellite, to provide much higher speeds compared to dial-up.
  • Broadband connections are always on and do not require the user to dial in each time they want to access the Internet.
  • Broadband can handle more data and allows for simultaneous use of Internet and telephone services without interference.

Additional Information

  • Dial-up Internet
  • Dial-up Internet access is a form of Internet access that uses the facilities of the public switched telephone network (PSTN) to establish a dialed connection to an Internet service provider (ISP).
  • Users must dial a phone number to connect to their ISP's server, which can be time-consuming.
  • Dial-up typically offers speeds of up to 56 kbps, which is significantly slower than broadband.
  • One of the major disadvantages is that it ties up the phone line, preventing incoming and outgoing calls while connected to the Internet.
  • Broadband Internet
  • Broadband is a high-speed Internet connection that is always on and faster than the traditional dial-up access.
  • It includes several types of high-speed transmission technologies such as Digital Subscriber Line (DSL), cable modem, fiber, wireless, satellite, and broadband over powerlines (BPL).
  • Speeds can vary significantly, with broadband typically providing speeds from 25 Mbps to 1 Gbps.
  • Broadband connections allow for simultaneous use of telephone and Internet services, making it more versatile and efficient.

Question 125

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is commonly used to rename a file or folder in Windows OS?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + F5

  2. BOption (b)

    Alt + Enter

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + R

  4. DOption (d)

    F2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

F2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is F2.

Key Points

  • F2 is a keyboard shortcut commonly used in Windows OS to rename a file or folder.
  • This shortcut allows you to quickly change the name of the selected file or folder without having to right-click and select the rename option.
  • It is a universally recognized shortcut across different versions of the Windows operating system.
  • Using the F2 key is efficient and helps improve productivity by reducing the time taken to perform this task.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + F5: This keyboard shortcut is typically used to refresh the content of a web page in most web browsers, bypassing the cache.
  • Alt + Enter: This shortcut is used in Windows Explorer to open the properties window of the selected file or folder.
  • Ctrl + R: This is generally used to refresh the active window in some applications, but it is not used for renaming files or folders in Windows.
  • F2: This is the correct shortcut for renaming a file or folder in Windows OS.

Question 126

What does QR in 'QR code' stand for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Query Response

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantum Read

  3. COption (c)

    Quick Response

  4. DOption (d)

    Quick Resolution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Quick Response

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Quick Response.

Key Points

  • QR code stands for Quick Response code.
  • It was invented in 1994 by the Japanese company Denso Wave.
  • The QR code system was originally designed to track parts in vehicle manufacturing.
  • QR codes are two-dimensional barcodes that can store a significant amount of information compared to traditional barcodes.

Additional Information

  • Barcode vs. QR Code
  • Barcode: A barcode is a machine-readable optical label that contains information about the item to which it is attached. Barcodes are typically one-dimensional and can hold up to 20 characters.
  • QR Code: A QR code is a type of two-dimensional barcode that can contain more data than a traditional barcode. It can hold up to 7,089 numeric characters or 4,296 alphanumeric characters.
  • Applications of QR Codes
  • Product Tracking: QR codes are used in manufacturing and logistics for tracking products and parts.
  • Payment Systems: Many mobile payment systems, such as those used in China, use QR codes to facilitate transactions.
  • Marketing and Advertising: QR codes are used in marketing materials to direct consumers to websites, promotions, and more.
  • Event Ticketing: QR codes are often used for electronic tickets and event registration.
  • How to Read a QR Code
  • QR codes can be read using a QR code scanner, which is available as a feature on many smartphones and dedicated QR code reader devices.
  • To scan a QR code, you typically open the QR code scanning app or the camera app on your smartphone and point it at the QR code until it is recognized.
  • Once scanned, the encoded information will be displayed or the appropriate action (such as opening a website) will be taken.

Question 127

What application software is utilised for managing extensive data collections and executing queries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antivirus software

  2. BOption (b)

    Database management system software

  3. COption (c)

    Word processing software

  4. DOption (d)

    Paint

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Database management system software

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Database management system software.

Key Points

  • A Database Management System (DBMS) is a software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data.
  • DBMS software allows for the creation, querying, update, and administration of databases.
  • It helps in managing large volumes of data efficiently and supports multiple users and applications.
  • Examples of DBMS software include MySQL, Oracle, Microsoft SQL Server, and PostgreSQL.

Additional Information

  • Antivirus Software:
  • Antivirus software is a program designed to detect and destroy computer viruses and other malicious software (malware).
  • Examples include Norton, McAfee, and Avast.
  • It protects the computer from threats and ensures safe browsing and file handling.
  • Word Processing Software:
  • Word processing software is used for creating, editing, formatting, and printing documents.
  • Examples include Microsoft Word, Google Docs, and Apple Pages.
  • It offers features like spell check, text formatting, and image insertion.
  • Paint Software:
  • Paint software is used for creating and editing digital images.
  • Examples include Microsoft Paint, Adobe Photoshop, and GIMP.
  • It provides tools for drawing, coloring, and enhancing images.

Question 128

Which of the following is an essential role of ROM in a computer system?

  1. AOption (a)

    Storing files created by the user

  2. BOption (b)

    Storing data temporarily

  3. COption (c)

    Storing data permanently for boot-up processes

  4. DOption (d)

    Performing calculations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Storing data permanently for boot-up processes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Storing data permanently for boot-up processes.

Key Points

  • Read-Only Memory (ROM) is a type of non-volatile memory used in computers and other electronic devices.
  • Data stored in ROM is permanent and cannot be modified during normal operations, making it ideal for storing firmware.
  • It contains the bootstrap code, which is essential for initializing and booting up the computer system when it is powered on.
  • ROM ensures that the computer has the necessary instructions to start up and load the operating system.

Additional Information

  • Random Access Memory (RAM)
  • RAM is a type of volatile memory that is used to store data temporarily while the computer is in use.
  • It allows data to be read and written quickly, enabling efficient processing and multitasking.
  • When the computer is turned off, all data stored in RAM is lost, making it unsuitable for permanent storage.
  • Storage Devices
  • Storage devices such as hard drives, SSDs, and USB drives are used to store files created by the user and other data permanently.
  • Unlike ROM, these devices allow data to be modified and deleted as needed.
  • Central Processing Unit (CPU)
  • The CPU is the primary component of a computer that performs calculations and executes instructions.
  • It works in conjunction with RAM and ROM to process data and run programs.

Question 129

Which browser extension could be used to download an entire web page for offline use?

  1. AOption (a)

    Web ScrapBook

  2. BOption (b)

    AdBlock

  3. COption (c)

    Evernote

  4. DOption (d)

    Grammarly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Web ScrapBook

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Web ScrapBook.

Key Points

  • Web ScrapBook is a browser extension that allows users to save web pages for offline use.
  • It is highly customizable and supports capturing all or part of a web page.
  • Web ScrapBook can save web pages in various formats including HTML and MHTML.
  • It also supports organizing and managing the saved pages effectively.

Additional Information

  • AdBlock
  • AdBlock is a browser extension that blocks advertisements on web pages.
  • It helps in improving browsing speed and reducing distractions.
  • It is one of the most popular ad-blocking extensions available for various browsers.
  • Evernote
  • Evernote is a note-taking application that allows users to create, organize, and store notes.
  • It supports multiple formats including text, images, audio, and web clippings.
  • Evernote is available on multiple platforms including web, mobile, and desktop.
  • Grammarly
  • Grammarly is a writing assistant tool that helps users improve their writing by checking for grammar, punctuation, and style errors.
  • It provides real-time suggestions and corrections as users type.
  • Grammarly is available as a browser extension, desktop application, and mobile app.

Question 130

How can using a smiley or emoji help reduce misunderstandings in instant messaging?

  1. AOption (a)

    By shortening the message content

  2. BOption (b)

    By replacing words that could be misinterpreted

  3. COption (c)

    By eliminating the need for a response

  4. DOption (d)

    By clarifying the sender's tone or emotional intent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

By clarifying the sender's tone or emotional intent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is By clarifying the sender's tone or emotional intent.

Key Points

  • Emojis or smileys can help convey the sender's emotions more accurately, reducing the risk of misinterpretation in text-based communication.
  • They provide visual cues that complement the text, making the message's emotional tone clearer.
  • Using emojis can make the conversation feel more personal and engaging, as it mimics face-to-face interactions where body language and facial expressions are key.
  • They help in expressing feelings like happiness, sadness, sarcasm, or humor, which can be easily misunderstood in plain text.

Additional Information

  • Instant Messaging (IM)
  • Instant Messaging is a form of real-time text communication between two or more people over the internet or a network.
  • It allows users to send messages quickly and efficiently, often incorporating additional features like file sharing, voice and video calls, and emojis.
  • Emojis
  • Emojis are small digital images or icons used to express ideas, emotions, or objects in electronic communication.
  • They have become a universal language in digital communication, helping to bridge gaps in understanding across different languages and cultures.
  • Misunderstandings in Text Communication
  • Text communication lacks non-verbal cues like tone of voice, facial expressions, and body language, which are essential for conveying emotions and intent.
  • This absence can lead to misinterpretations, where the recipient might not understand the sender's true feelings or intentions.
  • Role of Emojis in Communication
  • Emojis serve as visual aids that add emotional context to messages, making it easier for recipients to understand the sender's mood and intent.
  • They can make conversations more engaging and dynamic, reducing the likelihood of misunderstandings.

Question 131

Which of the following protocols is commonly used for data encapsulation in WANs?

  1. AOption (a)

    High-Level Data Link Control

  2. BOption (b)

    Wi-Fi

  3. COption (c)

    Ethernet

  4. DOption (d)

    TCP/IP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

High-Level Data Link Control

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is High-Level Data Link Control.

Key Points

  • High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a protocol used for data encapsulation in Wide Area Networks (WANs).
  • HDLC is a bit-oriented protocol for communication over point-to-point and multipoint links.
  • It provides both connection-oriented and connectionless services.
  • HDLC is known for its reliability and efficiency in data transmission over long distances.

Additional Information

  • Wide Area Network (WAN)
  • A WAN is a telecommunications network that extends over a large geographic area for the primary purpose of computer networking.
  • WANs are used to connect smaller networks, such as local area networks (LANs) or metro area networks (MANs).
  • They enable devices from different locations to communicate as if they were part of the same local network.
  • Wi-Fi
  • Wi-Fi is a wireless networking technology that uses radio waves to provide high-speed Internet and network connections.
  • It is commonly used for local area networking of devices and Internet access.
  • Wi-Fi is not typically used for WANs but for home and office networks.
  • Ethernet
  • Ethernet is a family of networking technologies commonly used in local area networks (LAN), metropolitan area networks (MAN), and wide area networks (WAN).
  • It is a wired communication technology that provides network connectivity over physical cables.
  • Ethernet is primarily used for short-distance communication within a single building or campus.
  • TCP/IP
  • TCP/IP stands for Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.
  • It is a set of communication protocols used to interconnect network devices on the Internet.
  • TCP/IP specifies how data should be packetized, addressed, transmitted, routed, and received.
  • It is the foundation of Internet communication.

Question 132

What is the function of the CPU following the commencement of a DMA transfer? 

  1. AOption (a)

    It actively manages each byte transferred.

  2. BOption (b)

    It must remain idle until the DMA transfer is complete.

  3. COption (c)

    It is free to perform other tasks while the transfer is handled by the DMA controller. 

  4. DOption (d)

    It handles the entire data transfer.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is free to perform other tasks while the transfer is handled by the DMA controller. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is free to perform other tasks while the transfer is handled by the DMA controller..

Key Points

  • The CPU is free to perform other operations during a DMA (Direct Memory Access) transfer as the DMA controller manages the data transfer.
  • DMA allows devices to transfer data to/from memory without CPU intervention, which improves the system's efficiency.
  • During a DMA transfer, the CPU is not involved in the data transfer process, reducing its workload and allowing multitasking.
  • This mechanism is particularly useful in real-time computing environments where the CPU needs to handle multiple tasks simultaneously.

Additional Information

  • DMA (Direct Memory Access)
  • DMA is a feature that allows peripherals to communicate directly with the system memory without involving the CPU.
  • It significantly speeds up memory operations by offloading work from the CPU, allowing it to execute other instructions while data transfer is in progress.
  • DMA is commonly used for data transfer operations such as disk I/O, audio, and video data streaming.
  • It is particularly beneficial in systems that need to process large amounts of data quickly.
  • CPU (Central Processing Unit)
  • The CPU is the primary component of a computer that performs most of the processing inside a computer.
  • It executes instructions from computer programs by performing basic arithmetic, logical, control, and input/output operations specified by the instructions.
  • CPU performance is crucial for the overall speed and efficiency of a computer system.
  • Modern CPUs are designed to handle multiple tasks simultaneously through techniques such as multitasking, multithreading, and multi-core processing.
  • Multitasking
  • Multitasking refers to the ability of a computer system to handle multiple tasks at the same time.
  • In a multitasking environment, the CPU allocates time slices to each task, switching rapidly between them to create the illusion of parallel execution.
  • This approach improves the overall system efficiency and responsiveness, especially when running multiple applications concurrently.

Question 133

Which type of e-commerce model is exemplified by Amazon?

  1. AOption (a)

    B2C (Business to Consumer)

  2. BOption (b)

    B2B (Business to Business)

  3. COption (c)

    C2B (Consumer to Business)

  4. DOption (d)

    C2C (Consumer to Consumer)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B2C (Business to Consumer)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B2C (Business to Consumer).

Key Points

  • Amazon is a prime example of the B2C e-commerce model as it connects businesses directly with consumers.
  • In the B2C model, products and services are sold by businesses directly to individual consumers.
  • Amazon facilitates the sale of a wide range of products, from electronics to clothing, to individual buyers online.
  • This model benefits consumers by offering a convenient shopping experience and competitive pricing.

Additional Information

  • B2C (Business to Consumer)
  • This model involves transactions between businesses and individual consumers.
  • Examples include online retailers like Amazon, eBay, and various other e-commerce platforms that cater directly to consumers.
  • B2C e-commerce allows consumers to purchase products and services from the comfort of their homes, offering convenience and often better prices.
  • This model also includes services like online banking, travel services, and digital products.
  • B2B (Business to Business)
  • In the B2B model, transactions occur between two businesses.
  • This model often involves the sale of raw materials, components, or services that are used in the production of goods or services by the buying business.
  • Examples include manufacturers selling to wholesalers or wholesalers selling to retailers.
  • C2B (Consumer to Business)
  • In the C2B model, individuals sell products or services to businesses.
  • This model is often seen in freelancing platforms where individuals offer services to companies, such as graphic design, content writing, or digital marketing.
  • Examples include platforms like Upwork and Fiverr where businesses hire freelancers.
  • C2C (Consumer to Consumer)
  • In the C2C model, transactions occur between consumers, typically facilitated by a third-party platform.
  • This model is common in online marketplaces where individuals can buy and sell products directly to each other.
  • Examples include eBay, Craigslist, and Facebook Marketplace.

Question 134

Keyboard shortcut to Save as document in MS Word 2019 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    F9

  2. BOption (b)

    F11

  3. COption (c)

    F10

  4. DOption (d)

    F12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

F12

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is F12.

Key Points

  • F12 is the keyboard shortcut used to open the "Save As" dialog box in MS Word 2019.
  • Using the "Save As" option allows the user to save the current document with a new name or to a different location.
  • This shortcut is particularly useful for quickly saving different versions of the same document without overwriting the original file.
  • The "Save As" function can also be accessed from the File menu, but using the F12 shortcut speeds up the process significantly.

Additional Information

  • MS Word
  • Microsoft Word is a word processing software developed by Microsoft, and it is part of the Microsoft Office suite of productivity software.
  • It is widely used for creating, editing, formatting, and printing text documents.
  • Word offers various features such as spell check, grammar check, text formatting, image insertion, and more.
  • It supports different file formats including .doc, .docx, .pdf, .rtf, and others.
  • Keyboard Shortcuts
  • Keyboard shortcuts are combinations of keys that provide quick access to certain functions within a software program.
  • They help users perform tasks more efficiently by reducing the need to navigate through menus.
  • Common shortcuts in MS Word include Ctrl+C (copy), Ctrl+V (paste), Ctrl+S (save), and Ctrl+Z (undo).
  • Save As
  • The "Save As" function is used to save a document with a new name or in a different location, preserving the original document.
  • It can be accessed via the File menu or using the F12 keyboard shortcut.
  • This function is useful for creating different versions or backups of a document.

Question 135

Which of the following is considered the first mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abacus

  2. BOption (b)

    ENIAC

  3. COption (c)

    Analytical Engine

  4. DOption (d)

    UNIVAC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Analytical Engine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Analytical Engine.

Key Points

  • The Analytical Engine was designed by Charles Babbage in the 1830s.
  • It is considered the first mechanical computer and is a precursor to modern computers.
  • The engine was intended to be programmable using punched cards.
  • Although it was never completed, its design concepts laid the groundwork for future computational devices.

Additional Information

  • Abacus
  • The Abacus is an ancient calculating tool that dates back to around 2700–2300 BCE.
  • It is used for basic arithmetic calculations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.
  • The device consists of a wooden frame and beads that can be moved along rods.
  • While it is not a computer, it is one of the earliest devices used to aid in calculations.
  • ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer)
  • ENIAC was the first electronic general-purpose computer.
  • It was completed in 1945 and was used primarily for military calculations.
  • ENIAC could perform complex calculations much faster than earlier mechanical devices.
  • It used vacuum tubes and was programmable via plugboards and switches.
  • UNIVAC (Universal Automatic Computer)
  • UNIVAC was the first commercially produced computer in the United States.
  • It was designed by J. Presper Eckert and John Mauchly, who also developed ENIAC.
  • UNIVAC was used for a variety of business and government applications.
  • It became famous for accurately predicting the outcome of the 1952 U.S. presidential election.

135 questions in the full paper