Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2024: Official Paper (Held On: 11 Jul, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.

He do not / fear the / repercussions of / this decision.

  1. AOption (a)

    repercussions of

  2. BOption (b)

    fear the

  3. COption (c)

    this decision.

  4. DOption (d)

    He do not

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

He do not

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the incorrect verb form "do" instead of "does."
  • For the third person singular (he, she, it), the correct form of the verb "do" is "does."
  • The correct phrase should be "He does not," ensuring grammatical correctness.
  • Thus, the error is located in part 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "He does not fear the repercussions of this decision."

 

Additional Information

  • 1: "repercussions of" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 2: "fear the" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 3: "this decision." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

Question 2

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks. (Ø = No article)

_____ road to Taj Mahal passes through ___ forest.

  1. AOption (a)

    A; a

  2. BOption (b)

    The; a

  3. COption (c)

    A; the

  4. DOption (d)

    Ø; Ø

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The; a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the definite article "the" is used before "road to Taj Mahal" to specify a particular road.
  • The indefinite article "a" is used before "forest" because it refers to any general forest.
  • Using "the" before "road" makes the sentence clear and specific because it refers to a known or identifiable road to the Taj Mahal.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: The road to Taj Mahal passes through a forest.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: “A; a” would be incorrect because the use of "a" before "road" does not specify a particular road to the Taj Mahal.
  • Option 3: “A; the” would place incorrect emphasis, making "forest" too specific when it should be general.
  • Option 4: “Ø; Ø” would make the sentence improper as articles are needed for clarity and correctness.

Question 3

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Mumbai is the city of dreams but it is a expensive city too.

  1. AOption (a)

    a expensive city too

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai is the

  3. COption (c)

    city of dreams

  4. DOption (d)

    but it is

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a expensive city too

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the article "a" before the term "expensive city."
  • The correct article should be "an" as it precedes a word starting with a vowel sound.
  • The correct phrase should be "an expensive city too," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Mumbai is the city of dreams but it is an expensive city too."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "Mumbai is the" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 3: "city of dreams" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 4: "but it is" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

Question 4

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

It is his job / to chase out / clients with / outstanding debts.

  1. AOption (a)

    to chase out

  2. BOption (b)

    clients with

  3. COption (c)

    It is his job

  4. DOption (d)

    outstanding debts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to chase out

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the phrase "chase out" in the context of dealing with clients having outstanding debts.
  • The phrase "chase out" is typically used in contexts where someone is physically removed or expelled from a place.
  • A more appropriate phrase might be "follow up with" or "deal with" clients with outstanding debts.
  • Thus, the error is located in part 1 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "It is his job to follow up with clients with outstanding debts."

 

Additional Information

  • It is his job – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • clients with – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • outstanding debts – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

When Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that rupees with the denominations of 500/- and 1000/- would 1.________ to be the legal tender from the 9th of November, the whole country was stunned. This decision caused a sensation in the whole country. Social media was flooded with messages and information. People started counting the cash they had 2.________ for years legally or illegally. The main objective of this move was to curb black money, corruption and fake money menace. All the people but those who indulged in 3.________ welcomed the move. The whole opposition shook hands against this move under one pretence or the other. They called this decision a 4.________ law and wanted the government to roll it back. Severe criticisms were made to target the decision. The government also carried out 5.________ attacks.

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    unify

  2. BOption (b)

    cease

  3. COption (c)

    seize

  4. DOption (d)

    collaborate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cease

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The word "cease" means to stop or come to an end. (अंत होना)
  • Example: The factory ceased operations due to financial difficulties.
  • In the context of the passage, the 500/- and 1000/- rupee notes would "cease" to be legal tender, indicating that they would no longer be accepted as valid currency.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'cease.'

Correct Sentence: "When Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that rupees with the denominations of 500/- and 1000/- would cease to be the legal tender from the 9th of November, the whole country was stunned."

 

Additional Information

  • Unify (एकीकरण करना): To make or become united, uniform, or whole.
  • Example: The new leader aimed to unify the divided country.
  • Seize (जब्त करना): To take hold of suddenly and forcibly.
  • Example: The police seized the stolen goods from the warehouse.
  • Collaborate (सहयोग करना): To work jointly with others or together especially in an intellectual endeavor.
  • Example: The two corporations decided to collaborate on a new project.

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 2. 

  1. AOption (a)

    accumulated

  2. BOption (b)

    distributed

  3. COption (c)

    withdrawn

  4. DOption (d)

    dispersed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

accumulated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The word "accumulated" means gathered together or acquired an increasing number or quantity over time. (जमा किया हुआ)
  • Example: Over the years, she accumulated a significant amount of wealth.
  • In the context of the passage, "accumulated" fits best as people were counting the cash they had gathered or collected over the years.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1 i.e. 'accumulated'.

Complete Sentence: People started counting the cash they had accumulated for years legally or illegally.

Additional Information

  • Distributed (वितरित): means to give shares of something; to pass out.
  • Example: The charity distributed food and clothing to the needy.
  • Withdrawn (निकाला हुआ): means taken out of a place or position.
  • Example: He has withdrawn all his savings from the bank.
  • Dispersed (विखरित): means distributed or spread over a wide area.
  • Example: The crowd dispersed after the rally ended.

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    malpractices

  2. BOption (b)

    indecision

  3. COption (c)

    announcement

  4. DOption (d)

    amalgamation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

malpractices

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "malpractices" means illegal, improper, or unethical conduct by a person in a position of authority or trust. (अनैतिक आचरण)
  • Example: Bribery and fraud are common malpractices that damage public trust.
  • In the context of the passage, "malpractices" fits best as it refers to the illegal or unethical activities that some people might have indulged in, which the demonetization move sought to counter.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'malpractices'.

Complete Sentence: All the people but those who indulged in malpractices welcomed the move.

Additional Information

  • Indecision (अनिर्णय): inability to decide.
  • Example: Her indecision about the job offer caused her to miss the opportunity.
  • Announcement (घोषणा): a formal public statement about a fact, event, or intention.
  • Example: The company made an announcement about the upcoming merger.
  • Amalgamation (विलयन): the action, process, or result of combining or uniting.
  • Example: The amalgamation of the two departments improved efficiency.

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    draconian

  2. BOption (b)

    comprehensive

  3. COption (c)

    fragile

  4. DOption (d)

    like

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

draconian

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The word "draconian" means excessively harsh and severe. (क्रूर)
  • Example: The new law imposes draconian penalties on those who violate traffic rules.
  • In the context of the passage, the opposition labeled the decision as a "draconian law" to imply that it was unfairly harsh and severe.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'draconian'.

Complete Sentence: They called this decision a draconian law and wanted the government to roll it back.

Additional Information

  • Comprehensive (व्यापक): Including all or nearly all elements or aspects of something.
  • Example: The report provided a comprehensive overview of the project's progress.
  • Fragile (नाज़ुक): Easily broken or damaged.
  • Example: Be careful with that vase—it's very fragile.
  • Like (समान): Having similar traits or qualities.
  • Example: People of like interests usually get along well.

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    ineffectual 

  2. BOption (b)

    case

  3. COption (c)

    example

  4. DOption (d)

    revengeful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

revengeful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The word "revengeful" means eager to exact revenge. (प्रतिशोधी)
  • Example: The government carried out revengeful attacks in response to the opposition's criticisms.
  • In the context of the passage, "revengeful" fits best as it describes the government's actions against the severe criticisms targeting the demonetization decision.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'revengeful'.

Complete Sentence: Severe criticisms were made to target the decision. The government also carried out revengeful attacks.

Additional Information

  • Ineffectual (अप्रभावी): Not producing the desired effect.
  • Example: All his efforts proved ineffectual in achieving the desired outcome.
  • Case (मामला): An instance of a particular situation.
  • Example: This case calls for careful consideration and judgment.
  • Example (उदाहरण): A representative case or instance.
  • Example: This story serves as an example of true bravery.

Question 10

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Out of the frying pan and into the fire

  1. AOption (a)

    Things going from bad to worse

  2. BOption (b)

    Things getting intense by the hour 

  3. COption (c)

    Being with someone through good times as well as bad times

  4. DOption (d)

    Being a horrible cook

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Things going from bad to worse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Out of the frying pan and into the fire" means moving from a bad situation to an even worse one. (बुरे स्थिति से और भी बुरी स्थिति में जाना)
  • Example: By quitting his job without having another one lined up, he jumped out of the frying pan and into the fire.
  • Things going from bad to worse refers to a situation that deteriorates further from an already bad state. (बुरी स्थिति से और भी बुरी स्थिति की ओर जाना)
  • Example: When the car broke down in the middle of nowhere, we realized things were going from bad to worse.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Things going from bad to worse.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Things getting intense by the hour (घंटे दर घंटे स्थिति गंभीर होना): This means that a situation is becoming more serious or intense as time passes.
  • Example: The storm was getting intense by the hour, making it difficult for rescue operations to continue.
  • Being with someone through good times as well as bad times (अच्छे और बुरे समय में किसी के साथ होना): This refers to staying loyal to someone regardless of the situation.
  • Example: She promised to be with him through good times as well as bad times.
  • Being a horrible cook (बहुत खराब खाना बनाना): This means someone is very bad at cooking.
  • Example: Despite his best efforts, he remains a horrible cook.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

I was in Oman around two months.

  1. AOption (a)

    since

  2. BOption (b)

    for

  3. COption (c)

    into

  4. DOption (d)

    from

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

for

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "since" is used to refer to a point in the past until now or a point in time. (तब से)
  • Example: She has been studying in this school since 2010.
  • "for" is used to indicate a period of time. (के लिए)
  • Example: He has been living in this city for five years.
  • Hence, in the context of the sentence, "I was in Oman around two months," the correct word to use is "for" to indicate the duration of time spent in Oman.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • since (तब से): Used to indicate a point in the past until now or a point in time.
  • Example: She has been studying in this school since 2010.
  • into (में): Used to indicate movement or action with the result that someone or something becomes enclosed or surrounded by something else.
  • Example: He walked into the room and sat down.
  • from (से): Used to indicate the point in space at which a journey, motion, or action starts.
  • Example: She traveled from New York to London.

Question 12

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Precarious

  1. AOption (a)

    Colossal

  2. BOption (b)

    Luminous

  3. COption (c)

    Reliable

  4. DOption (d)

    Doubtful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Reliable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "Precarious" means something that is not securely held or in position; dangerously likely to fall or collapse; dependent on chance; uncertain. (अनिश्चित, अस्थिर)
  • Example: The ladder was in a precarious position, and I was afraid it might fall.
  • "Reliable" refers to something or someone that can be trusted or depended upon; consistently good in quality or performance. (विश्वसनीय)
  • Example: John is a reliable employee who always completes his tasks on time.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Precarious' is 'Reliable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Colossal (विशाल): Extremely large or great.
  • Example: The statue was of colossal size, towering over the park.
  • Luminous (प्रकाशमान): Emitting or reflecting light; glowing; shining.
  • Example: The luminous stars lit up the night sky.
  • Doubtful (संदिग्ध): Feeling uncertain about something; not known with certainty.
  • Example: It is doubtful whether we will reach on time due to the heavy traffic.

Question 13

Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Vindication

  2. BOption (b)

    Conglomirate

  3. COption (c)

    Concentrate

  4. DOption (d)

    Psychometric

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Conglomirate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "Conglomirate" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Conglomerate". (कांग्लोमेरट)
  • Example: The company grew into a large conglomerate with diversified business interests.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Vindication (सत्यापन): The action of clearing someone of blame or suspicion.
  • Example: The new evidence led to the vindication of the wrongly accused man.
  • Concentrate (ध्यान केंद्रित करना ): To focus all one's attention on a particular object or activity.
  • Example: She needs to concentrate on her studies to excel in her exams.
  • Psychometric (मनोमितीय): Relates to the field of study concerned with the theory and technique of psychological measurement.
  • Example: Psychometric tests are often used in recruitment to assess candidates' suitability for a role.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

My grandmother is fond of giving homilies to all my friends who visit my place.

  1. AOption (a)

    Suggestions

  2. BOption (b)

    Strictures

  3. COption (c)

    Sermons

  4. DOption (d)

    Alternatives

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sermons

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The word "homilies" means a religious discourse intended for spiritual edification rather than doctrinal instruction; a sermon. (धार्मिक उपदेश)
  • Example: The priest delivered homilies that were both inspiring and thought-provoking.
  • "Sermons" refer to a talk on a religious or moral subject, usually given during a church service and based on a passage from the Bible. (प्रवचन)
  • Example: The pastor's sermons often focus on the importance of compassion and kindness.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'homilies' is 'sermons'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Suggestions (सुझाव): Ideas or proposals put forward for consideration.
  • Example: She provided several suggestions to improve the project.
  • Strictures (निषेध): A restriction on a person or activity.
  • Example: The strictures on freedom of speech were heavily criticized.
  • Alternatives (विकल्प): One of two or more available possibilities.
  • Example: We need to find alternatives to fossil fuels to combat climate change.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate homophones to fill in the blanks.

Her father _________ her to opt for a chemistry __________ in her final year.

  1. AOption (a)

    aloud; coarse

  2. BOption (b)

    aloud; course

  3. COption (c)

    allowed; course

  4. DOption (d)

    allowed; coarse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

allowed; course

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The word "allowed" is the correct homophone for "permitted," fitting the context of the sentence.
  • The word "course" is the correct homophone for "a series of lessons or lectures," fitting the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 16

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Advanced

  1. AOption (a)

    Progressive

  2. BOption (b)

    Foreign

  3. COption (c)

    Elementary

  4. DOption (d)

    Discarded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Progressive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word "Advanced" means something that is highly developed or complex, especially beyond an initial stage. (उन्नत)
  • Example: The student is taking advanced courses in mathematics.
  • "Progressive" refers to favoring or promoting change or innovation, moving forward in stages. (प्रगतिशील)
  • Example: The company is known for its progressive policies on employee welfare.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is: Progressive.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Foreign (विदेशी): Relating to or originating from a different country.
  • Example: She is learning a foreign language to enhance her career prospects.
  • Elementary (मूलभूत): Basic or fundamental, not advanced.
  • Example: The course covers elementary principles of physics.
  • Discarded (त्यागा हुआ): Thrown away or no longer useful.
  • Example: The old furniture was discarded to make room for new items.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The vendor said that the apples were of superior quality.

  1. AOption (a)

    Inferior

  2. BOption (b)

    Small

  3. COption (c)

    Distasteful

  4. DOption (d)

    Excellent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Inferior

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • The word 'Superior' means better than usual or than somebody/something else; having a more important position.(बेहतर)

  • Example -The new model is superior to every other car on the road.

  • 'Inferior' means low or lower in social position, importance, quality, etc.(निचला, हीन)

  • Example - The quality of this product is inferior to the original.

  • Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Superior' is 'Inferior'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Inferior'.

Additional Information Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences.

  • Small (छोटा) - Not large, number, amount, minor significance or consequence etc.
  • Example - He built a small model of the Eiffel Tower.
  • Distasteful (अप्रिय, बेस्वाद) - unpleasant or causing offence
  • Example - Her behaviour at the party was considered distasteful by many.
  • Excellent (उत्कृष्ट) -very good; of high quality; outstanding; superior.
  • Example - She gave an excellent performance in the play.

Question 18

Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. AOption (a)

    Immidiately

  2. BOption (b)

    Immedeatly

  3. COption (c)

    Imediately

  4. DOption (d)

    Immediately

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Immediately

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The word 'Immediately' means at once; without delay;without interval of time. (तुरंत, फ़ौरन)
  • Example - The ambulance arrived immediately after the accident.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Immediately'.

Additional Information The other options are incorrect spelling of 'Immediately'. 

  • Synonyms of Immediately - Forthwith, Instantly, Straight away.

Question 19

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Perilous

  1. AOption (a)

    Ugly

  2. BOption (b)

    Dangerous 

  3. COption (c)

    Adverse

  4. DOption (d)

    Bad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dangerous 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word 'Perilous' means full of danger; hazardous; risky.(जोखिम, खतरनाक)
  • Example - It was perilous to cross the river in a small boat during the storm.
  • 'Dangerous' means likely to cause injury or damage; full of risk or threat.(खतरनाक)
  • Example - The chemicals in the lab are dangerous if not handled properly.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Perilous' is 'Dangerous'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Dangerous'. ​

Additional Information Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences.

  • Ugly (भद्दा) - Unpleasant to look at or listen to; not attractive.
  • Example - He thinks a lot of modern architecture is very ugly.
  • Adverse (प्रतिकूल) - Making something difficult for somebody.
  • Example - A divorce often has an adverse effect on the children.
  • Bad (खराब, बुरा) - Of poor quality; of a low standard; not good; unpleasant.
  • Example - The food at that restaurant was bad.

Question 20

Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined word segment in the given sentence.

I know Covid has made you terribly ill, but the good thing is that you have developed immunity against it for further infections.

  1. AOption (a)

    the silver lining in the cloud

  2. BOption (b)

    being in the quicksilver

  3. COption (c)

    crossing palms with silver

  4. DOption (d)

    the silver spoon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the silver lining in the cloud

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The phrase "the silver lining in the cloud" means finding something positive in an otherwise negative situation. (किसी नकारात्मक स्थिति में कुछ सकारात्मक खोजना)
  • Example: Even though he lost his job, he found the silver lining in the cloud by starting his own business.
  • Immunity refers to the ability to resist a particular infection or toxin by the action of specific antibodies or sensitized white blood cells. (प्रतिरक्षा)
  • Example: Vaccinations help build immunity against various diseases.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Being in the quicksilver (पारा के संपर्क में होना): This phrase is not commonly used as an idiom in English.
  • Crossing palms with silver (किसी को रिश्वत देना): This phrase means to bribe someone.
  • Example: He crossed the official’s palms with silver to get the work done quickly.
  • The silver spoon (चांदी का चम्मच): This phrase is used to indicate someone born into wealth and privilege.
  • Example: She was born with a silver spoon in her mouth and never had to worry about money.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate homonym to fill in the blank.

Please ___________more sugar to the juice so that it becomes sweeter.

  1. AOption (a)

    ad

  2. BOption (b)

    aid

  3. COption (c)

    add

  4. DOption (d)

    aide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

add

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The word "add" means to combine or join something to something else, which fits the context of the sentence where more sugar needs to be combined with the juice to make it sweeter.
  • "Ad" is short for advertisement and does not fit the context.
  • "Aid" means to help or assist, which is not relevant in this context.
  • "Aide" refers to a person who helps or assists, which also does not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Please add more sugar to the juice so that it becomes sweeter."

 

Additional Information

  • Add means to combine or join something to something else, which makes sense in the context of making the juice sweeter.
  • Ad is short for advertisement, which is not related to the context of the sentence.
  • Aid means help or assistance, which is not relevant here.
  • Aide refers to a person who helps or assists, which also does not fit the context.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the following sentence.

He passed away in the year 1950 at 10 a.m. on 13 July.

  1. AOption (a)

    at 10 a.m. on 13 July in the year 1950

  2. BOption (b)

    in the year 1950 on 13 July at 10 a.m.

  3. COption (c)

    in the year 1950 at 10 a.m. on 13 July

  4. DOption (d)

    on 13 July at 10 a.m. in the year 1950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

at 10 a.m. on 13 July in the year 1950

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The phrase "at 10 a.m. on 13 July in the year 1950" means specifying the exact time, date, and year when an event occurred. (1950 में 13 जुलाई को सुबह 10 बजे)
  • Example: He was born at 10 a.m. on 13 July in the year 1950.
  • The correct phrase "at 10 a.m. on 13 July in the year 1950" is the most appropriate and correctly ordered way to specify the time, date, and year. (1950 में 13 जुलाई को सुबह 10 बजे)
  • Example: She graduated at 10 a.m. on 13 July in the year 1950.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 2 (1950 में 13 जुलाई को सुबह 10 बजे): It is correct but not the most standard way of structuring the sentence.
  • Example: He got married in the year 1950 on 13 July at 10 a.m.
  • Option 3 (1950 में 13 जुलाई को सुबह 10 बजे): It is also correct but less preferred in formal contexts.
  • Example: They moved to a new city in the year 1950 at 10 a.m. on 13 July.
  • Option 4 (1950 में 13 जुलाई को सुबह 10 बजे): This is the most logically and grammatically incorrect option.
  • Example: The event was held on 13 July at 10 a.m. in the year 1950.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

The meeting closed with a vote of thanks.

  1. AOption (a)

    stopped

  2. BOption (b)

    finished

  3. COption (c)

    concluded

  4. DOption (d)

    completed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

concluded

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The word "concluded" means to bring something to an end, especially more formally. (समाप्त)
  • Example: The conference concluded with a keynote speech from the CEO.
  • In the context of the given sentence, "concluded" is the most suitable and formal term to describe how the meeting ended with a vote of thanks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Stopped" implies an abrupt or unplanned end, which doesn't fit the context of a meeting formally ending with a vote of thanks.
  • Option 2: "Finished" is less formal and doesn't convey the sense of a formal ending that "concluded" does.
  • Option 4: "Completed" suggests that all parts of the meeting were done, but doesn't specifically capture the formal ending described by "concluded".

Question 24

Select the correct collocation to complete the following sentence.

She suppressed a __________ urge to yawn.

  1. AOption (a)

    stout

  2. BOption (b)

    strong

  3. COption (c)

    tough

  4. DOption (d)

    hard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

strong

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The word "strong" is the most appropriate collocation to describe an urge, implying a powerful or intense feeling.
  • Example: He felt a strong urge to finish the task quickly.
  • In the context of the sentence, "strong" fits perfectly to describe an urge to yawn.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: She suppressed a strong urge to yawn.

Additional Information

  • Stout (मोटा): Refers to someone or something strong and thick, but not suitable to describe an urge.
  • Tough (कठिन): Generally describes something hard to break or deal with, but it doesn't fit the context of an urge.
  • Hard (कठिन): Can mean difficult or requiring effort, but it's not the right collocation for an "urge".

Question 25

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

At his wit’s end, he decided to return to his parents as he was unable to cope with the stress of adjusting at a new place.

  1. AOption (a)

    Taking all notes

  2. BOption (b)

    After thinking

  3. COption (c)

    Not knowing what to do

  4. DOption (d)

    Deciding after contemplation 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Not knowing what to do

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

  • The phrase "At his wit’s end" means being so worried or confused by a problem that you do not know what to do next. (समझ में न आना)
  • Example: She was at her wit's end trying to figure out how to fix the computer.
  • "Not knowing what to do" refers to a state of confusion or indecision, similar to being at one's wit's end. (क्या करना है यह न जानते हुए)
  • Example: Not knowing what to do, he sat down and started to think deeply about his next steps.
  • Hence, we can infer that 'At his wit’s end' can be substituted with 'Not knowing what to do'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Taking all notes (सभी नोट्स लेना): The act of making written notes of important information.
  • Example: Taking all notes during the lecture helped him prepare for the exam.
  • After thinking (सोचने के बाद): Following a period of thought or consideration.
  • Example: After thinking for a while, she decided to accept the job offer.
  • Deciding after contemplation (विचार करने के बाद निर्णय लेना): Making a decision after careful thought or consideration.
  • Example: Deciding after contemplation, he chose to move to a new city.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

In a certain code language,

‘M & N’ means ‘M is the wife of N’,

‘M @ N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’,

‘M $ N’ means ‘M is the mother of N’,

‘M # N’ means ‘ M is the sister of N’.

Based on this, how is Q related to U, if ‘P & Q @ R $ T # U’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father’s brother

  2. BOption (b)

    Father

  3. COption (c)

    Brother

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother’s brother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mother’s brother

Why this answer is correct

Decoding symbols:

M is
Symbol&@$#
MeaningWifeBrotherMotherSister
to N

Given: P & Q @ R $ T # U

P & Q → P is the wife of Q.

Q @ R → Q is the brother of L.

R $ T → L is the mother of T.

T # U → T is the sister of U.

Thus, Q is U's maternal uncle or mother's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"$

Question 27

What is the maximum number of rectangles in the given figure? 

  1. AOption (a)

    11

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11

Why this answer is correct

The number of rectangle in the given figure are shown below:

Thus, as marked there are a total of 11 rectangles.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 28

Six letters D, H, K, L, R and Y are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure, Which is the letter on the face opposite to the face containing H? 

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    L

  3. COption (c)

    Y

  4. DOption (d)

    K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

D

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As K is common on both the dice, it is clear that R, H, L, and D are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. Y will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

R → L

H → D

K → Y

So, the opposite side of "H" will be side "D".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 29

A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 4 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 30

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

RKD ? ZUP QMI HEB

  1. AOption (a)

    ICW

  2. BOption (b)

    ZYZ

  3. COption (c)

    ABC

  4. DOption (d)

    WCI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ICW

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 31

If 19 July 2000 is Wednesday, then what will be the day of the week on 14 June 2009?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friday

  2. BOption (b)

    Tuesday

  3. COption (c)

    Thursday

  4. DOption (d)

    Sunday 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sunday 

Why this answer is correct

Given: 19 July 2000 was Wednesday.

Now,

2000 to 2009 = 9 Years (7 Ordinary Years and 2 Leap Years).

And, In 9 Years = 2 Leap Years and 7 Ordinary Years.

So, 2 Leap Years have 4 odd days,

And, 7 Ordinary Years have 7 odd days.

Total odd days = 4 + 7 = 11.

11 odd days → 11/7 = 1 week and 4 odd days.

then, 19 July 2009 will be Wednesday + 4 = Sunday.

Now, the number of days between 14 June 2009 to 19 July 2009

= 16 (June) + 19 (July) = 35 days.

= 35 days → 35/7 = 5 weeks and 0 odd days.

So, 14 June 2009 will be Sunday - 0 = Sunday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 32

In a certain code language, ‘78623' is coded as ‘TAKEN’ and ‘32685’ is coded as ‘TOKEN’ What is the code for ‘5’ in that language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    T

  2. BOption (b)

    O

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

O

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

‘78623' is coded as ‘TAKEN’

‘32685’ is coded as ‘TOKEN’

Thus, 5 is the code of O.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 33

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(81, 53, 70)

(94, 66, 83)

  1. AOption (a)

    (68, 40, 67)

  2. BOption (b)

    (86, 58, 65)

  3. COption (c)

    (77, 59, 76)

  4. DOption (d)

    (99, 71, 88) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(99, 71, 88) 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 2nd number + 6) ÷ 2 = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (81, 53, 70)

⇒ (81 + 53 + 6) ÷ 2

= 140 ÷ 2 = 70.

For, (94, 66, 83)

⇒ (94 + 66 + 6) ÷ 2

= 166 ÷ 2 = 83.

Similarly, for (99, 71, 88)

⇒ (99 + 71 + 6) ÷ 2

= 176 ÷ 2 = 88.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 34

Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

EFG, KLM, QRS, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    WXZ

  2. BOption (b)

    XYZ

  3. COption (c)

    WXY

  4. DOption (d)

    UVW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

WXY

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 35

Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following figure series were to be continued?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  1. First box series →

Elements above the diagonal line shift one step upward clockwise.

The elements below the diagonal line shift one step downward clockwise.

The left diagonal corner element interchange positions.

  1. Second box series →

Top three elements above the diagonal line and top right corner element shift anticlockwise

Top three elements below the diagonal line and bottom left corner element shift clockwise.

The rest elements shift clockwise.

 

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 36

In a certain code language, ‘YOUR’ is coded as ‘5627’ and ‘CROY’ is coded as ‘2769’. What is the code for ‘C’ in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

‘YOUR’ is coded as ‘5627’

‘CROY’ is coded as ‘2769’

Thus, code for C is 9.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 37

What should come in place of ? in the given series?

131 141 161 191 231 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    271

  2. BOption (b)

    291

  3. COption (c)

    281

  4. DOption (d)

    261

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

281

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 38

Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. 

FJM : UQN

DPQ : WKJ

  1. AOption (a)

    IEB : ACK

  2. BOption (b)

    MNO : ONM

  3. COption (c)

    LHE : VUT

  4. DOption (d)

    OVC : LEX

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

OVC : LEX

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

FJM : UQN

And,

DPQ : WKJ

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) IEB : ACK

Option 2) MNO : ONM

Option 3) LHE : VUT

Option 4) OVC : LEX

Thus, out of all the options, 'OVC : LEX' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 39

If ‘A’ stands for '÷'. 'B’ stands for ‘×', 'C' stands for ‘+' and 'D' stands for '—', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

128 A 4 C 16 B 7 D 5 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    139

  2. BOption (b)

    149

  3. COption (c)

    129

  4. DOption (d)

    159

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

139

Why this answer is correct


Given Equation: 128 A 4 C 16 B 7 D 5 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

| Alphabet | A | B | C | D |
| --- | --- | --- | --- | --- |
| Meaning | ÷ | × | + | - |

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ **128 ÷ 4** + 16 × 7 - 5 = ?

⇒ 32 + **16 × 7** - 5 = ?

⇒ **32 + 112** - 5 = ?

⇒ 144 **- 5** = **139**.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Question 40

If 2 August 2016 is a Tuesday, then what will the day of the week on 19 October 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Monday

  2. BOption (b)

    Thursday

  3. COption (c)

    Wednesday

  4. DOption (d)

    Saturday 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Monday

Why this answer is correct

Given: 2 August 2016 was Tuesday.

Now,

2016 to 2020 = 4 Years (3 Ordinary Year and 1 Leap Year).

And, In 4 Years = 1 Leap year and 3 Ordinary Year.

So, 1 Leap Year has 2 odd days,

And, 3 Ordinary Year has 3 odd days.

Total odd days = 2 + 3 = 5.

5 odd days → 5/7 = 0 weeks and 5 odd days.

then, 2 August 2020 will be Tuesday + 5 = Sunday.

Now, the number of days between 2 August 2020 to 19 October 2020

= 29(August) + 30(September) + 19(October) = 78 days.

= 78 days → 78/7 = 11 weeks and 1 odd day.

So, 19 October 2020 will be Sunday + 1 = Monday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 41

Select the option that is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, Option figure 1 is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 42

38 is related to 80 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 42 is related to 88. To which of the following is 29 related, following the same logic? 

  1. AOption (a)

    62

  2. BOption (b)

    66

  3. COption (c)

    54

  4. DOption (d)

    78

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

62

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) + 4 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 38 : 80

⇒ (38 × 2) + 4 = 76 + 4 = 80.

For, 42 : 88

⇒ (42 × 2) + 4 = 84 + 4 = 88.

Similarly, for 29 ∶ ?

⇒ (29 × 2) + 4 = 58 + 4 = 62.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 43

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 

19, ?, 43, 55, 67

  1. AOption (a)

    33

  2. BOption (b)

    34

  3. COption (c)

    41

  4. DOption (d)

    31

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

31

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 44

The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper is punched is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 45

Three statements are followed by conclusions numbered I, II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statements:

Some tables are gates.

All mats are tables.

All plates are gates.

Conclusion (I): All gates are mats.

Conclusion (II): All tables are plates.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (II) follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion (I) follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. All gates are mats → Does not follow (As some tables are gates and all mats are tables. So it is possible but not definite.)

II. All tables are plates → Does not follow (As some tables are gates and all plates are gates. So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 46

MAZQ is related to GUTK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, CPNR is related to WJHL. To which of the following is KOEV related, following the same logic? 

  1. AOption (a)

    EIYP

  2. BOption (b)

    EYPI

  3. COption (c)

    EYIP

  4. DOption (d)

    EIPY

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

EIYP

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

MAZQ is related to GUTK

And,

CPNR is related to WJHL

Similarly,

KOEV is related to

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 47

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+’ and '÷' are interchanged and ‘-' and '×' are interchanged? 

28 ÷ 90 + 6 - 5 × 17 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    84

  2. BOption (b)

    82

  3. COption (c)

    80

  4. DOption (d)

    86

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

86

Why this answer is correct

Given : 28 ÷ 90 + 6 - 5 × 17 = ?

According to the question, after  '+' and '÷' are interchanged and '-' and '×' are interchanged:

28 ÷ 90 + 6 - 5 × 17 = ? ⇒ 28 + 90 ÷ 6 × 5 - 17 = ?

⇒ 28 + 90 ÷ 6 × 5 - 17 = ?

⇒ 28 + 15 × 5 - 17 = ?

⇒ 28 + 75 - 17 = ?

⇒ 103 - 17 = ?

⇒ 86 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 48

Six numbers 1, 2, 4, 5, 7 and 9 are written on different faces of a dice, Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Which is the number on the face opposite to the face containing 9?  

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 5 is common on both the dice, it is clear that 1, 2, 4, and 7 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 9 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

1 → 7

2 → 4

5 → 9

So, the opposite side of "9" will be side "5".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 49

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+' and '-' are interchanged and ‘×' and '÷' are interchanged? 

10 - 12 ÷ 7 + 84 × 21 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    95

  2. BOption (b)

    85

  3. COption (c)

    93

  4. DOption (d)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

90

Why this answer is correct

Given : 10 - 12 ÷ 7 + 84 × 21 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+' and '-' are interchanged and ‘×' and '÷'are interchanged:

10 - 12 ÷ 7 + 84 × 21 = ? ⇒ 10 + 12 × 7 - 84 ÷ 21 = ?

⇒ 10 + 12 × 7 - 84 ÷ 21 = ?

⇒ 10 + 12 × 7 - 4 = ?

⇒ 10 + 84 - 4 = ?

⇒ 94 - 4 = ?

⇒ 90 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 50

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    FHK

  2. BOption (b)

    LNP

  3. COption (c)

    QSV

  4. DOption (d)

    BDG

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

LNP

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) FHK

Option 2) LNP

Option 3) QSV

Option 4) BDG

Thus, out of all the options, 'LNP' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

If the area of a rhombus is 70 m2 and its height is 5 m, its perimeter is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    64 m

  2. BOption (b)

    25 m

  3. COption (c)

    35 m

  4. DOption (d)

    56 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

56 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Area of the rhombus = 70 m2

Height of the rhombus = 5 m

Formula Used:

Area of a rhombus = Base × Height

Perimeter of a rhombus = 4 × Side

Calculation:

Base = Area / Height

Base = 70 / 5

Base = 14 m

Since all sides of a rhombus are equal, the side is equal to the base.

Side = 14 m

Perimeter = 4 × Side

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × 14

⇒ Perimeter = 56 m

The perimeter of the rhombus is 56 m.

Question 52

In an election, there were only two candidates. One of the candidates secured 44% of the votes and is defeated by the other candidate by 1440 votes. If there were no invalid votes. then the total number of votes polled is:

  1. AOption (a)

    15000

  2. BOption (b)

    12000

  3. COption (c)

    13000

  4. DOption (d)

    14000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Losing candidate votes = 44%

Winning candidate votes = 100% − 44% = 56%

Difference in percentage = 56% − 44% = 12%

Given 12% of total votes = 1440

Total votes = (1440 ÷ 12) × 100 = 12000

∴ The correct answer is 12000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Votes secured by the losing candidate = 44%

Margin by which the candidate is defeated = 1440 votes

Formula Used:

Total Votes = Margin of defeat ÷ (Winner % − Loser %)

Winning Candidate: 56%

Losing Candidate: 44%

12%

Difference = 1440 votes

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total number of polled votes be x.

⇒ Winning candidate percentage = 100% − 44% = 56%

⇒ Difference in votes = 56% of x − 44% of x

⇒ 12% of x = 1440

⇒ (12 ÷ 100) × x = 1440

⇒ x = 1440 × (100 ÷ 12)

⇒ x = 120 × 100

⇒ x = 12000

∴ The correct answer is 12000.

Additional Information

Valid and Invalid Votes

In some elections, a certain percentage of votes are declared invalid. The winning and losing percentages are then typically calculated on the remaining valid votes. Formula: Total Votes = Valid Votes + Invalid Votes.

Margin of Victory

The margin of victory or defeat is always the difference between the votes received by the winner and the runner-up. Margin = Votes of Winner − Votes of Runner-up.

Successive Percentage Application

If not all enrolled voters cast their vote and some votes are invalid, then the total valid votes = Total Enrolled × % Polled × % Valid.

Question 53

Three cubes each of side 5 cm are joined end to end. The surface area of the resulting cuboid is:

  1. AOption (a)

    350 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    75 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    150 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    175 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

350 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Side of each cube = 5 cm.

Three cubes are joined end to end.

Formula Used:

Surface area of a cuboid = 2(lw + lh + wh)

Calculation:

Length of the resulting cuboid = 3 × 5 = 15 cm

Width of the resulting cuboid = 5 cm

Height of the resulting cuboid = 5 cm

Surface area of the cuboid = 2(lw + lh + wh)

⇒ Surface area = 2(15 × 5 + 15 × 5 + 5 × 5)

⇒ Surface area = 2(75 + 75 + 25)

⇒ Surface area = 2(175)

⇒ Surface area = 350 cm2

The surface area of the resulting cuboid is 350 cm2.

Question 54

What is the value of a so that the seven-digit number 4645a52 is divisible by 72?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    0

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The seven-digit number is 4645a52.

The number should be divisible by 72.

Formula Used:

A number is divisible by 72 if it is divisible by both 8 and 9.

Divisibility rule for 8: The last three digits of the number should be divisible by 8.

Divisibility rule for 9: The sum of all digits should be divisible by 9.

Calculation:

First, check for divisibility by 8:

Last three digits are a52.

Possible values of a: 0, 1, 2, 3

Check each value:

For a = 0: 052 ⇒ 52 ÷ 8 = 6.5 (not divisible)

For a = 1: 152 ⇒ 152 ÷ 8 = 19 (divisible)

For a = 2: 252 ⇒ 252 ÷ 8 = 31.5 (not divisible)

For a = 3: 352 ⇒ 352 ÷ 8 = 44 (divisible)

Possible values of a for divisibility by 8: 1, 3

Next, check for divisibility by 9:

Sum of digits: 4 + 6 + 4 + 5 + a + 5 + 2 = 26 + a

Check each possible value:

For a = 1: 26 + 1 = 27 ⇒ 27 ÷ 9 = 3 (divisible)

For a = 3: 26 + 3 = 29 ⇒ 29 ÷ 9 = 3.22 (not divisible)

Therefore, the value of a is 1.

The value of a so that the seven-digit number 4645a52 is divisible by 72 is 1.

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT true regarding a circle?

  1. AOption (a)

    Given any three points in a plane, there is always a circle passing through these points

  2. BOption (b)

    The largest chord in a circle has a length twice its radius

  3. COption (c)

    A triangle with vertices on a circle and one side as its diameter is a right-angled triangle

  4. DOption (d)

    The ratio of the perimeter and radius of a circle is always constant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Given any three points in a plane, there is always a circle passing through these points

Why this answer is correct

Given:

We are to determine which of the following statements about a circle is NOT true.

Formula Used:

Properties of a circle and its geometric relationships.

Calculation:

  1. Given any three points in a plane, there is always a circle passing through these points. (True for non-collinear points)
  2. The largest chord in a circle has a length twice its radius. (True, as the largest chord is the diameter)
  3. A triangle with vertices on a circle and one side as its diameter is a right-angled triangle. (True, by the Thales' theorem)
  4. The ratio of the perimeter and radius of a circle is always constant. (True, as the ratio is 2π\pi)
  5. (No option given)

The correct answer is option 1.

Question 56

A and B are two stations 420 km apart. A train starts from A at 11 am and travels towards B at the speed of 70 kmph. Another train starts from B at 12 noon and travels towards A at the speed of 30 kmph. At what time do they meet?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 pm

  2. BOption (b)

    1.30 pm

  3. COption (c)

    3.30 pm

  4. DOption (d)

    3 pm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3.30 pm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Distance between stations A and B = 420 km

Speed of the train starting from A = 70 kmph

Speed of the train starting from B = 30 kmph

Train from A starts at 11 am

Train from B starts at 12 noon

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Let the trains meet after t hours from 12 noon.

Distance covered by the train from A in (t+1) hours (since it starts 1 hour earlier) = 70 × (t + 1)

Distance covered by the train from B in t hours = 30 × t

Since the total distance is 420 km, we have:

70(t + 1) + 30t = 420

⇒ 70t + 70 + 30t = 420

⇒ 100t + 70 = 420

⇒ 100t = 350

⇒ t = 3.5

So, the trains meet 3.5 hours after 12 noon, which is 3:30 pm.

The correct answer is option 3.

Question 57

Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.

The pie-chart represents the total number of valid votes obtained by four students who contested for school leadership. The total number of valid votes polled was 720.

 

  

By how many votes did the winner defeat the nearest contestant?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    30

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

40

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

The total number of valid votes polled = 720.

Angles representing the votes for each student:

  • Yasin = 60°
  • Paramjit Kaur = 80°
  • Siva Raman = 120°
  • Vishwanath = 100°

Step 1: Calculate the number of votes for each contestant

Votes for Yasin = (60/360) × 720 = 120 votes

Votes for Paramjit Kaur = (80/360) × 720 = 160 votes

Votes for Siva Raman = (120/360) × 720 = 240 votes

Votes for Vishwanath = (100/360) × 720 = 200 votes

Step 2: Find the winner and the nearest contestant

Winner = Siva Raman (240 votes)

Nearest contestant = Vishwanath (200 votes)

Step 3: Calculate the margin of victory

Margin = 240 - 200 = 40 votes

Final Answer: The winner defeated the nearest contestant by 40 votes.

Question 58

The measure of each side of an equilateral triangle is 16 cm. What is the ratio of its perimeter to the sum of its medians?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 : √3

  2. BOption (b)

    2√3 : 1

  3. COption (c)

    1 : 2√3

  4. DOption (d)

    √3 : 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2 : √3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Side of the equilateral triangle = 16 cm.

Formula Used:

Perimeter of an equilateral triangle = 3 × side

Median of an equilateral triangle = (3/2\sqrt{3} / 2) × side

Calculation:

Perimeter = 3 × 16 = 48 cm

Median = (3/2\sqrt{3} / 2) × 16

Median = 83\sqrt{3} cm

Sum of medians = 3 × 83\sqrt{3} = 243\sqrt{3} cm

Ratio of perimeter to the sum of medians:

Ratio = 48 / 243\sqrt{3}

Ratio = 2 / 3\sqrt{3}

To rationalize, multiply by 3/3\sqrt{3} / \sqrt{3}:

Ratio = (2 / 3\sqrt{3}) × (3/3\sqrt{3} / \sqrt{3})

Ratio = 23\sqrt{3} / 3

The ratio of the perimeter to the sum of its medians is 2 : √3.

Question 59

A hemispherical bowl is made of silver and has an inner diameter of 4 cm if the thickness of silver is 0.5 cm. Find the volume of silver used in making the bowl correct to two places of decimals (use π = 3.14).

  1. AOption (a)

    15.69 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    15.96 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    51.96 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    51.69 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15.96 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Inner diameter of the hemispherical bowl = 4 cm.

Thickness of silver = 0.5 cm.

π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Volume of a hemisphere = 23πr3\frac{2}{3}\pi r^3

Calculation:

Inner radius (r1) = 4 / 2 = 2 cm

Outer radius (r2) = 2 + 0.5 = 2.5 cm

Volume of outer hemisphere = 23π(r2)3\frac{2}{3}\pi (r_2)^3

⇒ Volume of outer hemisphere = 23×3.14×(2.5)3\frac{2}{3} \times 3.14 \times (2.5)^3

⇒ Volume of outer hemisphere = 23×3.14×15.625\frac{2}{3} \times 3.14 \times 15.625

⇒ Volume of outer hemisphere = 23×49.0625\frac{2}{3} \times 49.0625

⇒ Volume of outer hemisphere = 32.7083 cm3

Volume of inner hemisphere = 23π(r1)3\frac{2}{3}\pi (r_1)^3

⇒ Volume of inner hemisphere = 23×3.14×(2)3\frac{2}{3} \times 3.14 \times (2)^3

⇒ Volume of inner hemisphere = 23×3.14×8\frac{2}{3} \times 3.14 \times 8

⇒ Volume of inner hemisphere = 23×25.12\frac{2}{3} \times 25.12

⇒ Volume of inner hemisphere = 16.7467 cm3

Volume of silver used = Volume of outer hemisphere - Volume of inner hemisphere

⇒ Volume of silver used = 32.7083 cm3 - 16.7467 cm3

⇒ Volume of silver used = 15.96 cm3

The volume of silver used in making the bowl is 15.96 cm3.

Question 60

In an election between two candidates, 30% voters did not cast their votes and 200 votes were declared invalid. The winner got 65% of the valid votes. If he won by 1200 votes, then find the total votes.

  1. AOption (a)

    8000

  2. BOption (b)

    9000

  3. COption (c)

    6000

  4. DOption (d)

    7000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

30% voters did not cast their votes.

200 votes were declared invalid.

The winner got 65% of the valid votes.

The winner won by 1200 votes.

Formula Used:

Total votes = Valid votes + Invalid votes + Votes not cast

Calculation:

Let the total number of votes be V.

Votes cast = 70% of V = 0.7V

Valid votes = Votes cast - Invalid votes = 0.7V - 200

The winner got 65% of the valid votes.

Votes received by the winner = 0.65 × (0.7V - 200)

The loser got the remaining valid votes.

Votes received by the loser = (0.7V - 200) - 0.65 × (0.7V - 200)

The winner won by 1200 votes.

⇒ 0.65 × (0.7V - 200) - [(0.7V - 200) - 0.65 × (0.7V - 200)] = 1200

⇒ 0.65 × (0.7V - 200) - 0.35 × (0.7V - 200) = 1200

⇒ 0.3 × (0.7V - 200) = 1200

⇒ 0.21V - 60 = 1200

⇒ 0.21V = 1260

⇒ V = 1260 / 0.21

⇒ V = 6000

The total number of votes is 6000.

Question 61

On dividing a certain number by 459, we get 19 as remainder. What will be the remainder, when the same number is divided by 17?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number when divided by 459 gives a remainder of 19.

Formula Used:

If a number N gives remainder r when divided by d, then N≡rmod  dN \equiv r \mod d.

Calculation:

Let the number be N.

According to the given information:

N≡19mod  459N \equiv 19 \mod 459

We need to find the remainder when N is divided by 17.

Since N≡19mod  459N \equiv 19 \mod 459, we have:

N=459k+19N = 459k + 19 for some integer k.

Now, we need to find Nmod  17N \mod 17.

We know:

459≡0mod  17459 \equiv 0 \mod 17 because 459 is divisible by 17.

Therefore:

N≡19mod  17N \equiv 19 \mod 17

Calculating the remainder:

19mod  17=219 \mod 17 = 2

The remainder when the number is divided by 17 is 2.

Question 62

A vertical pole of length 6 m casts a 4 m long shadow on the ground. At the same time, a tower casts a 28 m long shadow. Find the height of the tower.

  1. AOption (a)

    42 m

  2. BOption (b)

    48 m

  3. COption (c)

    32 m

  4. DOption (d)

    36 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

42 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of the pole = 6 m

Length of the pole's shadow = 4 m

Length of the tower's shadow = 28 m

Formula Used:

Height of the tower / Length of the tower's shadow = Length of the pole / Length of the pole's shadow

Calculation:

Let the height of the tower be h meters.

h28=64 \frac{h}{28} = \frac{6}{4}

⇒ h × 4 = 6 × 28

⇒ 4h = 168

⇒ h = 168 / 4

⇒ h = 42 meters

The height of the tower is 42 meters.

Question 63

What is the value of cos⁡−1(725)−cos⁡−1(1517)\rm \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{7}{25}\right)-\rm \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{15}{17}\right)?

  1. AOption (a)

    cot⁡−1(297425)\rm \cot^{-1}\left(\frac{297}{425}\right)

  2. BOption (b)

    cos⁡−1(304425)\rm \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{304}{425}\right)

  3. COption (c)

    tan⁡−1(297425)\rm \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{297}{425}\right)

  4. DOption (d)

    sin⁡−1(304425)\rm \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{304}{425}\right)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

sin⁡−1(304425)\rm \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{304}{425}\right)

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

We are given the expression:

cos−1(725)−cos⁡−1(1517)cos^{-1}\left(\frac{7}{25}\right) - \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{15}{17}\right)

Step 1: Use the identity for cosine in terms of sine inverse:

cos⁡−1(725)=sin⁡−1(2425)\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{7}{25}\right) = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{24}{25}\right)

cos⁡−1(1517)=sin⁡−1(817)\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{15}{17}\right) = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{8}{17}\right)

The expression becomes:

sin⁡−1(2425)−sin⁡−1(817)\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{24}{25}\right) - \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{8}{17}\right)

Step 2: Apply the formula for the difference of inverse sine functions:

We use the identity:

sin⁡−1(x)−sin⁡−1(y)=sin⁡−1(x1−y2−y1−x2)\sin^{-1}(x) - \sin^{-1}(y) = \sin^{-1}\left( x \sqrt{1 - y^2} - y \sqrt{1 - x^2} \right)

Where x=2425and y=817.Where\ x = \frac{24}{25} and\ y = \frac{8}{17}.

Step 3: Calculate each part:

1−(817)2=1517\sqrt{1 - \left(\frac{8}{17}\right)^2} = \frac{15}{17}

1−(2425)2=725\sqrt{1 - \left(\frac{24}{25}\right)^2} = \frac{7}{25}

Step 4: Substitute into the formula:

sin⁡−1(2425×1517−817×725)\sin^{-1}\left( \frac{24}{25} \times \frac{15}{17} - \frac{8}{17} \times \frac{7}{25} \right)

First, calculate the terms:

2425×1517=360425\frac{24}{25} \times \frac{15}{17} = \frac{360}{425}

817×725=56425\frac{8}{17} \times \frac{7}{25} = \frac{56}{425}

Now subtract:

360425−56425=304425\frac{360}{425} - \frac{56}{425} = \frac{304}{425}

Step 5: Final answer:

The expression simplifies to:

sin⁡−1(304425)\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{304}{425}\right)

Final Answer: The value of the given expression is sin⁡−1(304425) \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{304}{425}\right).

Question 64

Study the given table and answer the question that follows. 

The table shows the results of half-yearly and annual examinations of three sections A, B, C of class X students in a school. 

ResultNumber of students
Section ASection BSection C
Students failed in both exams392012
Students failed in half-yearly but passed in annual exams16146
Students passed in half- yearly but failed in annual exams10128
Students passed in both exams654535

Find the pass percentage of section A in at least one of the two examinations.

  1. AOption (a)

    80%

  2. BOption (b)

    65%

  3. COption (c)

    70%

  4. DOption (d)

    75%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

70%

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

We are given the following data for Section A:

  • Students failed in both exams = 39
  • Students failed in half-yearly but passed in annual exams = 16
  • Students passed in half-yearly but failed in annual exams = 10
  • Students passed in both exams = 65

Step 1: Calculate the total number of students in Section A

Total students in Section A = 39 + 16 + 10 + 65 = 130

Step 2: Calculate the number of students who passed in at least one exam

Students who passed in at least one exam = 10 + 16 + 65 = 91

Step 3: Calculate the pass percentage

Pass percentage = (91 / 130) × 100 ≈ 70%

Final Answer: The pass percentage of Section A in at least one of the two examinations is 70%.

Question 65

Shyam's income is 20% less than Ram's. How much is Ram's income more than Shyam's in percentage terms?

  1. AOption (a)

    80%

  2. BOption (b)

    30%

  3. COption (c)

    25%

  4. DOption (d)

    20%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Shyam's income is 20% less than Ram's.

Formula Used:

Percentage increase = DifferenceOriginal Value×100

Calculation:

Let Ram's income be R.

Shyam's income = R - 0.2R = 0.8R

Difference between Ram's and Shyam's income = R - 0.8R = 0.2R

Percentage increase = 0.2R / 0.8R × 1000.2R0.8R×100

⇒ 1 / 4 × 1000.20.8×100

⇒ 0.25 × 100

⇒ 25%

Ram's income is 25% more than Shyam's.

Question 66

O is the centre of the circle. Its two chord AB and CD intersect each other at the point P (internally) within the circle. If AB = 22 cm, PB = 14 cm, CP = 8 cm, then find the value of the PD.

  1. AOption (a)

    14 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    22 cm

  3. COption (c)

    11 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    12 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

14 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

AB = 22 cm

PB = 14 cm

CP = 8 cm

Formula Used:

Power of a Point Theorem: PA × PB = PC × PD

Calculation:

Let PA = x cm

Since AB = 22 cm, PA = AB - PB = 22 - 14 = 8 cm

Using the Power of a Point Theorem:

PA × PB = PC × PD

⇒ 8 × 14 = 8 × PD

⇒ 112 = 8 × PD

⇒ PD = 112 / 8

⇒ PD = 14 cm

The value of PD is 14 cm.

Question 67

A sum of Rs. 5,000 was lent to two people. one at the rate of 16% and the other at the rate of 24%. If the simple interest after one year is Rs. 960. what is the sum lent at the higher rate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1,500

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 3,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 2,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 2,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total sum lent = Rs. 5,000

Interest rate for first person = 16%

Interest rate for second person = 24%

Total simple interest after one year = Rs. 960

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time / 100

Calculation:

Let the sum lent at the higher rate (24%) be Rs. x.

Then, the sum lent at the lower rate (16%) = Rs. (5000 - x).

Interest from the higher rate = x × 24 × 1 / 100 = 0.24x

Interest from the lower rate = (5000 - x) × 16 × 1 / 100 = 0.16(5000 - x)

Total interest = 0.24x + 0.16(5000 - x) = 960

⇒ 0.24x + 0.16 × 5000 - 0.16x = 960

⇒ 0.24x + 800 - 0.16x = 960

⇒ 0.08x + 800 = 960

⇒ 0.08x = 960 - 800

⇒ 0.08x = 160

⇒ x = 160 / 0.08

⇒ x = 2000

The sum lent at the higher rate is Rs. 2,000.

Question 68

The following table shows the number of trees axed in 2016 - 2020. Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follows. 

YearNeemBanyanTeak
201615,00020,00025,000
201718,00028,00028,000
201822,00032,00032,000
201925,00035,00035,000
202028,00038,00038,000

What was the percentage increase in the number of banyan trees axed in 2020 compared to the number of banyan trees axed in 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    60%

  2. BOption (b)

    47.4%

  3. COption (c)

    9%

  4. DOption (d)

    90%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

90%

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

From the table:

  • Number of Banyan trees axed in 2016 = 20,000
  • Number of Banyan trees axed in 2020 = 38,000

Step 1: Use the percentage increase formula:

Percentage Increase=38,000−20,00020,000×100\text{Percentage Increase} = \frac{38,000 - 20,000}{20,000} \times 100

Percentage Increase=18,00020,000×100=90% \text{Percentage Increase} = \frac{18,000}{20,000} \times 100 = 90\%

Final Answer: The percentage increase in the number of Banyan trees axed in 2020 compared to 2016 is 90%.

Question 69

In ∆ DEW, AB∥EW. If AD = 4 cm, DE = 12 cm and DW = 24 cm, then find the length of DB.

  1. AOption (a)

    8 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    9 cm

  3. COption (c)

    6 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    7 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In ∆DEW, AB∥EW.

AD = 4 cm, DE = 12 cm, DW = 24 cm.

Formula Used:

Using the Basic Proportionality Theorem (BPT):

If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides, then it divides those sides in the same ratio.

Calculation:

Using BPT, we have:

ADDE=DBDW\frac{AD}{DE} = \frac{DB}{DW}

Substitute the given values:

412=DB24\frac{4}{12} = \frac{DB}{24}

Simplify the ratio on the left side:

13=DB24\frac{1}{3} = \frac{DB}{24}

Cross-multiply to solve for DB:

⇒ DB × 3 = 24

⇒ DB = 24 / 3

⇒ DB = 8 cm

The length of DB is 8 cm.

Question 70

The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. The number obtained by interchanging its digits exceeds the given number by 45, then the original number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    54

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    27

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

27

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9.

The number obtained by interchanging its digits exceeds the given number by 45.

Formula Used:

Let the two-digit number be 10a + b, where a and b are the digits.

Sum of the digits: a + b = 9

Number after interchanging the digits: 10b + a

Given condition: (10b + a) - (10a + b) = 45

Calculation:

Let the original number be 10a + b.

From the given conditions:

a + b = 9           ...(1)

(10b + a) - (10a + b) = 45

⇒ 10b + a - 10a - b = 45

⇒ 9b - 9a = 45

⇒ b - a = 5           ...(2)

Adding equations (1) and (2):

⇒ a + b + b - a = 9 + 5

⇒ 2b = 14

⇒ b = 7

Substitute b = 7 in equation (1):

⇒ a + 7 = 9

⇒ a = 2

Therefore, the original number is 10a + b = 10 × 2 + 7 = 27.

The original number is 27.

Question 71

Divide 25 into two parts such that 6 times of the larger part added to 4 times of the smaller part is equal to 130. Find the larger part.

  1. AOption (a)

    13

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    14

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total sum of the two parts = 25

6 times the larger part + 4 times the smaller part = 130

Formula Used:

Let the larger part be x and the smaller part be 25 - x.

6x + 4(25 - x) = 130

Calculation:

Let's solve the equation:

6x + 4(25 - x) = 130

⇒ 6x + 100 - 4x = 130

⇒ 2x + 100 = 130

⇒ 2x = 130 - 100

⇒ 2x = 30

⇒ x = 30 / 2

⇒ x = 15

The larger part is 15.

Question 72

Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.

The graph shows the profit percentage earned by two companies — A and B over a period of six years. 

What is the percentage increase in profit percentage of company B in the year 2014 from the previous year?

  1. AOption (a)

    13.63%

  2. BOption (b)

    6.55%

  3. COption (c)

    5.75%

  4. DOption (d)

    7.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

13.63%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Profit percentage of Company B in 2013 = 44%

Profit percentage of Company B in 2014 = 50%

Formula used:

Percentage Increase = (New Value - Old ValueOld Value)×100\left(\frac{\text{New Value - Old Value}}{\text{Old Value}}\right) \times 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage Increase = (50−4444)×100\left(\frac{50 - 44}{44}\right) \times 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = (644)×100\left(\frac{6}{44}\right) \times 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 13.63%

∴ The percentage increase in profit percentage of Company B in 2014 from the previous year is 13.63%.

Question 73

Mira can complete a piece of work in 20 days, Nina in 30 days and Sima in 40 days. Mira and Sima worked together for 4 days and then Mira was replaced by Nina. In how many days, altogether, was the work completed?

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    14

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mira can complete a piece of work in 20 days.

Nina can complete a piece of work in 30 days.

Sima can complete a piece of work in 40 days.

Mira and Sima worked together for 4 days, then Mira was replaced by Nina.

Formula Used:

Work done by a person in 1 day = 1 / (Total days to complete the work)

Total work done = Sum of individual works

Calculation:

Work done by Mira in 1 day = 1/20

Work done by Sima in 1 day = 1/40

Work done by Mira and Sima together in 1 day = 1/20 + 1/40

⇒ Work done by Mira and Sima together in 1 day = 2/40 + 1/40

⇒ Work done by Mira and Sima together in 1 day = 3/40

Work done by Mira and Sima in 4 days = 4 × 3/40

⇒ Work done by Mira and Sima in 4 days = 12/40

⇒ Work done by Mira and Sima in 4 days = 3/10

Remaining work = 1 - 3/10

⇒ Remaining work = 10/10 - 3/10

⇒ Remaining work = 7/10

Work done by Nina in 1 day = 1/30

Now, Sima and Nina work together.

⇒ Work done by Sima and Nina together in one day = 1/40 + 1/30

⇒ Work done by Sima and Nina together in one day = 3/120+ 4/120

⇒ Work done by Sima and Nina together in one day = 7/120

Number of days required to complete 7/10 work = 7/10 × 120/7 = 12 days.

Total number of days to complete the work = 4 (Mira and Sima) + 12 (Nina and Sima)

⇒ Total number of days = 16

The work was completed in 16 days.

Alternate Method 

LCM (20,30,40) = 120 = Total work.

Mira does = 120/20 = 6 units of work in one day.

Nina does = 120/30 = 4 units of work in one day.

Sima does = 120/40 = 3 units of work in one day.

Now, in 4 days Mira and Sima does = 6× 4 + 3× 4 = 36 units of work. 

Remaining work = 120 -36 = 84 units.

After replacement of Mira, Sima and Nina does = 4 + 3 = 7 units in one day.

So, they complete work in 84 / 7 = 12 days.

∴ The work gets completed in 4 + 12 = 16 days.

Question 74

A shopkeeper sells his goods using weights 27% less than true weights and claims to sell his goods at the cost price. His gain per cent (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    47.9

  2. BOption (b)

    40.0

  3. COption (c)

    39.8

  4. DOption (d)

    37.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

37.0

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A shopkeeper sells his goods using weights 27% less than true weights and claims to sell his goods at the cost price.

Formula Used:

Gain % = (Gain / Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the true weight be 100 units.

Since the shopkeeper uses weights 27% less than the true weight:

Used weight = 100 - 27 = 73 units

He sells 73 units as 100 units.

Let the cost price of 1 unit be ₹1.

So, the cost price of 73 units = ₹73

Selling price of 73 units (since he claims to sell at cost price) = ₹100

Gain = Selling Price - Cost Price

Gain = ₹100 - ₹73 = ₹27

Gain % = (Gain / Cost Price) × 100

Gain % = (27 / 73) × 100

⇒ Gain % = (27)/(73) × 100

⇒ Gain % ≈ 36.9863

⇒ Gain % ≈ 37.0 (rounded off to 1 decimal place)

The gain per cent is 37.0%.

Question 75

Pomegranate juice contains 10% sugar solution and orange juice contains 30% sugar solution. What is the percentage of sugar solution in a mixture of two litres of pomegranate juice and three litres of orange juice?

  1. AOption (a)

    25%

  2. BOption (b)

    22%

  3. COption (c)

    40%

  4. DOption (d)

    20%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Volume of pomegranate juice = 2 litres

Sugar concentration in pomegranate juice = 10%

Volume of orange juice = 3 litres

Sugar concentration in orange juice = 30%

Formula Used:

Percentage of sugar solution in the mixture = (Total amount of sugar in the mixture / Total volume of the mixture) × 100

Calculation:

Amount of sugar in pomegranate juice = Volume of pomegranate juice × Sugar concentration in pomegranate juice

⇒ Amount of sugar in pomegranate juice = 2 × 0.10 = 0.2 litres

Amount of sugar in orange juice = Volume of orange juice × Sugar concentration in orange juice

⇒ Amount of sugar in orange juice = 3 × 0.30 = 0.9 litres

Total amount of sugar in the mixture = Amount of sugar in pomegranate juice + Amount of sugar in orange juice

⇒ Total amount of sugar in the mixture = 0.2 + 0.9 = 1.1 litres

Total volume of the mixture = Volume of pomegranate juice + Volume of orange juice

⇒ Total volume of the mixture = 2 + 3 = 5 litres

Percentage of sugar solution in the mixture = (Total amount of sugar in the mixture / Total volume of the mixture) × 100

⇒ Percentage of sugar solution in the mixture = (1.1 / 5) × 100

⇒ Percentage of sugar solution in the mixture = 0.22 × 100

⇒ Percentage of sugar solution in the mixture = 22%

The correct answer is option 2.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

When and where did the first Asian Games take place?

  1. AOption (a)

    1951, New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    2014, Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    1982, Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    2010, New Delhi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1951, New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1951, New Delhi

Key Points

  • The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India in 1951.
  • This historic event marked the beginning of a significant multi-sport event for athletes from across the Asian continent.
  • The inaugural Asian Games showcased a variety of sports and brought together athletes from different nations.
  • It was a milestone in the history of Asian sports and laid the foundation for future Asian Games.

Additional Information

  • The Asian Games were established to promote sportsmanship, friendship, and understanding among Asian nations.
  • They are the second-largest multi-sport event in the world after the Olympic Games.
  • The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India, in 1951.
  • The Asian Games are held every four years, showcasing a wide range of sports disciplines.
  • The Asian Games not only promote athletic competition but also serve as a platform for cultural exchange and understanding between different Asian nations.

Question 77

The UIDAI is under the jurisdiction of which of the following ministries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Finance

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Education

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Home Affairs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Key Points

  • The UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India) is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
  • The UIDAI is responsible for issuing Aadhaar cards, which are unique identification numbers assigned to Indian residents.
  • It is a crucial government body that plays a significant role in various government services and programs.

Additional Information 

  • Ministry of Finance:
  • ​ This ministry primarily handles government finances, taxation, and economic policies.
  • While UIDAI's operations involve financial transactions, its core function is related to digital identity, which is more closely aligned with technology and information technology.
  • Ministry of Education:
  • This ministry is responsible for education policies and programs. UIDAI, though used in education-related activities, is not directly under its purview.
  • Ministry of Home Affairs:
  • This ministry is responsible for internal security, law and order, and border security. While UIDAI can be used for identity verification in various security-related applications, its core function is not directly related to home affairs.

Question 78

Which of the following pairs of Indian rivers is west flowing? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Narmada and Tapi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahanadi and Godavari 

  3. COption (c)

    Mahanadi and Krishna

  4. DOption (d)

    Krishna and Kaveri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Narmada and Tapi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Narmada and Tapi

Key Points

  • Narmada and Tapi
  • These are the two major west-flowing rivers in Peninsular India.
  • The Narmada originates in the Maikala range near Amarkantak and flows through the rift valley between the Satpura and Vindhyan ranges.
  • It meets the Arabian Sea south of Bharuch, forming a 27 km long estuary.
  • The Narmada is also known as the Rewa River.
  • Other west-flowing rivers in India include Sabarmati, Mahi, Bharathapuzha, and Periyar

                                                                                       

Additional Information

  • Mahanadi
  • ​​This river originates in Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha, as well as parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
  • It's also known as the Hirakund Dam.
  • Godavari
  • This river originates in Trimbakeshwar, Maharashtra,
  • It flows through Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.
  • It's the second-longest river in India
  • It also known as Dakshin Ganga or Vridha Ganga.
  • Krishna
  • This river originates near Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats and
  • It flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • It's the third-longest river in India.
  • Kaveri
  • This river originates in Talakaveri, Karnataka, and flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • It's the third-largest river in Southern India
  • It considered one of the seven holy rivers of India.

Question 79

Formulas in MS-Excel always start with which of the following symbols?

  1. AOption (a)

    ==

  2. BOption (b)

    !

  3. COption (c)

    =

  4. DOption (d)
View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

=

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is = 

Key Points

  • In Microsoft Excel, all formulas begin with an equal sign (=).
  • This symbol tells Excel that the following characters constitute a formula, and it should perform the calculation or operation specified.

Additional Information

  • ! (Exclamation mark): Often used in Excel formulas for absolute cell references.
  • For example, AA1 indicates an absolute reference to cell A1, meaning that the reference won't change when the formula is copied to other cells.
    • (Minus sign): This is primarily used for subtraction operations within formulas.
  • For instance, =A1-B1 subtracts the value in cell B1 from the value in cell A1.
  • == (Double equal sign): This is not used to start formulas. It's a comparison operator used in logical expressions to check if two values are equal. For instance,
  • =IF(A1=B1,"Equal","Not Equal") checks if the values in cells A1 and B1 are equal and returns "Equal" or "Not Equal" accordingly.

Question 80

The Battle of Khanua was fought between Babur and ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rana Ratna Singh

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharana Pratap 

  3. COption (c)

    Rana Sanga

  4. DOption (d)

    Medini Rao

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rana Sanga

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rana Sanga

Key Points

  • The Battle of Khanua was fought between Babur and Rana Sanga: 
  • Babur: The founder of the Mughal Empire
  • Rana Sanga: The Rajput king of Mewar
  • The battle took place on March 16, 1527, near the village of Khanwa in the Bharatpur district of Rajasthan.
  • The battle was a major event in Medieval Indian history and was one of the earliest battles in Northern India to use gunpowder extensively.
  • Babur won the battle and became the predominant ruler of central and northern India.
  • He took the title of Ghazi after his victory.
  • The defeat of Rana Sanga at Khanwa is considered a watershed moment in the Mughal conquest of Northern India.

Additional Information

  • Rana Ratan Singh
  • Rana Ratan Singh is perhaps most famously known for his association with the legendary queen Padmini.
  • The story of her beauty and sacrifice has been immortalized in the epic poem "Padmini".
  • His reign was marked by the siege of Chittor by the Delhi Sultan, Alauddin Khilji, who was captivated by the tales of Padmini's beauty.
  • The siege led to a heroic sacrifice by the Rajput warriors, including Jauhar, a form of self-immolation by women to protect their honour.
  • Maharana Pratap
  • Maharana Pratap is one of the most celebrated figures in Indian history, known for his unwavering courage and resistance against the Mughal Empire.
  • His most famous battle was the Battle of Haldighati, where he fought against the formidable Mughal forces led by Akbar.
  • Though the battle resulted in a tactical defeat, it showcased the indomitable spirit of the Rajput warriors.
  • He is revered as a symbol of Rajput pride and a fighter for freedom.

Question 81

Balasaraswati who was regarded as child prodigy by Vidhwans and Pandits played an important role in reviving the dance form ______________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharatanatyam

  2. BOption (b)

    Kathak

  3. COption (c)

    Mohiniyattam

  4. DOption (d)

    Kuchipudi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bharatanatyam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam

Key Points

  • Balasaraswati was a famous Indian dancer and singer who played an important role in reviving the classical dance form Bharatanatyam
  • Balasaraswati was a leading exponent of Bharatanatyam, a classical dance style that originated in Tamil Nadu.
  • She made this style of dancing well-known in India and around the world.
  • Balasaraswati received the Padma Bhushan in 1957, the Padma Vibhushan in 1977, and the Sangeetha Kalasikhamani Award in 1981.
  • Balasaraswati was the only non-western dancer included in the 2000 compilation,
  • The Irreplaceable Treasures of Dance in America: The First 100. Bengali film director Satyajit Ray made a documentary film on Balasaraswati called Bala in 1976

Additional Information

  • Bharatanatyam:
  • Bharatanatyam is the oldest and major classical dance form of India that originated in Tamil Nadu.
  • Bharatanatyam is a solo dance performed only by women.
  • According to the Hindu tradition the name of the dance form was derived by joining two words, ‘Bharata’ and Natyam’ where ‘Natyam in Sanskrit means dance and ‘Bharata’ is a mnemonic comprising ‘bha’, ‘ra’ and ‘ta’ which respectively means ‘bhava’ that is emotion and feelings; ‘raga’ that is a melody; and ‘tala’ that is rhythm.
  • ‘Natya Shastra’ is the ancient Sanskrit Hindu text on the performing arts, the theoretical base of this form traces back.
  • Bharatanatyam performance consists of six portions: Alarippu, Jathiswaram, Shabdam, Varnam, Padam and Tillana
  • Kathak:
  • Kathak is a classical dance form that originated in Northern India of Uttar Pradesh referred to as Kathakars or storytellers for portraying the epic tales from Hindu scriptures, Mahabharata and Ramayana.
  • The Kathakars communicate stories through rhythmic foot movements, hand gestures, facial expressions, and eye work.
  • This performing art that incorporates legends from ancient mythology and great Indian epics, especially from the life of Lord Krishna became quite popular in the courts of North Indian kingdoms.
  • Three specific forms of this genre that is three Gharanas (schools), which mostly differ in the emphasis given to footwork versus acting, are more famous names, the Jaipur Gharana, the Benaras Gharana, and the Lucknow Gharana.
  • Mohiniyattam:
  • Mohiniyattam is a major classical dance form of India that originated in Kerala.
  • Mohiniattam derives its name from the word ‘Mohini’, a female avatar of Lord Vishnu.
  • Mohiniattam adheres to the Lasya type that showcases a more graceful, gentle, and feminine form of dancing.
  • Mohiniyattam is a solo dance performed only by female artists, it emotes a play through dancing and singing where the song is customarily in Manipravala which is a mix of Sanskrit and Malayalam language and the recitation may be either performed by the dancer herself or by a vocalist with the music style being Carnatic.
  • Kuchipudi:
  • Kuchipudi is a major classical dance form of India that originated in a village of the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Kuchipudi is a religious art rooting back to the age-old Hindu Sanskrit text ‘Natya Shastra’ and connects traditionally with temples, spiritual faiths and traveling bards.
  • This ancient dance form finds a place in the 10th-century copper inscriptions and in 15th-century texts like ‘Machupalli Kaifat’.
  • Traditionally it is regarded that the sannyasin of Advaita Vedanta sect, Tirtha Narayana Yati, and his disciple Siddhendra Yogi initiated, methodized and arranged the present day version of the dance form in the 17th century.

Question 82

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I- Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay.

II- All India Radio came into being in 1936.

III - In 1976, TV was delinked from All India Radio (AIR) and got a separate identity as Door darshan (DD).

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and II are correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    I, II and III are correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only III is correct.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both II and III are correct. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

I, II and III are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I, II and III are correct

Key Points

  • Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay.
  • This statement is correct.
  • The first radio broadcast in India was made by the Radio Club of Bombay in 1923.
  • II. All India Radio came into being in 1936.
  • This statement is also correct.
  • All India Radio (AIR) was formed in 1936, taking over the operations of the Indian State Broadcasting Service.
  • III. In 1976, TV was delinked from All India Radio (AIR) and got a separate identity as Doordarshan (DD).
  • This statement is correct as well.
  • In 1976, television broadcasting was separated from All India Radio and established as an independent entity, Doordarshan.
  • Therefore, all three statements are accurate

Question 83

El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in which ocean?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arctic Ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    Indian Ocean

  3. COption (c)

    Atlantic Ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    Pacific Ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pacific Ocean

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Pacific Ocean

Key Points

  • El Niño is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
  • This warming event has significant impacts on weather patterns around the globe, affecting rainfall, temperature, and wind patterns.
  • During an El Niño event, the trade winds, which typically blow from east to west across the Pacific Ocean, weaken or reverse direction.
  • This allows warm water to accumulate in the eastern Pacific, leading to changes in atmospheric pressure and circulation.
  • The impacts of El Niño can be far-reaching, affecting weather patterns in regions as diverse as South America, Africa, and Southeast Asia.
  • Some of the potential impacts of El Niño include:
  • Increased rainfall: In some regions, such as the southern United States and parts of South America, El Niño can lead to increased rainfall and flooding.
  • Drought: In other regions, such as Australia and Southeast Asia, El Niño can cause drought and reduced rainfall.
  • Changes in ocean ecosystems: Warmer water temperatures can disrupt marine ecosystems, affecting fish populations and coral reefs.

Additional Information 

  • Arctic Ocean:
  • This is the smallest of the world's five oceans, located in the Northern Hemisphere.
  • Indian Ocean:
  • This ocean is located between Africa, Asia, and Australia.
  • Atlantic Ocean:
  • This ocean separates the Americas from Europe and Africa.

Question 84

The Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of concurrent list from ______________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Australia

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan

  3. COption (c)

    Germany

  4. DOption (d)

    USSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Australia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Australia

Key Points

  • The Indian Constitution, while unique in many respects, drew inspiration from various sources, including the Australian Constitution.
  • One significant borrowing is the concept of the Concurrent List.
  • Concurrent List
  • This list outlines subjects on which both the central government and state governments have the power to legislate.
  • This arrangement is designed to balance the powers of the central and state governments, ensuring a harmonious federal structure.
  • Some of the subjects included in the Concurrent List are:
  • Education
  • Forests
  • Wildlife protection
  • Marriage and divorce
  • Criminal law and procedure
  • If both the central and state governments enact laws on a concurrent subject, the central law prevails.
  • However, in case of inconsistency, the state law can be overridden by a central law.
  • By incorporating the Concurrent List, the Indian Constitution aims to achieve a balance between national unity and state autonomy, enabling both levels of government to address issues of national and regional importance.

Additional Information The other borrowed provisions from different countries and details of those are given in below:

CountriesBorrowed Provisions
Australia- Freedom of trade, commerce - Joint-sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
Canada- Federation with a strong Centre - Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre - Appointment of state governors by the Centre - Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
Ireland- Directive Principles of State Policy - The nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha - Method of election of the President
Japan- Procedure Established by law
Russia- Fundamental duties - Ideals of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble
United Kingdom- Parliamentary government - Rule of Law - Legislative procedure - Single Citizenship - Cabinet system - Prerogative writs - Parliamentary privileges - Bicameralism
The United States of America- Fundamental rights - Independence of judiciary - Judicial review - Impeachment of the president - Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges - Post of vice-president
Germany- Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
South Africa- Procedure for amendment in the Indian Constitution - Election of members of Rajya Sabha
France- Republic - Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble

Question 85

Which of these is NOT true of the second phase of the green revolution? 

  1. AOption (a)

    It was launched in areas with a significant shift from dry to wet (irrigated) cultivation. 

  2. BOption (b)

    It covered the period of the 1980s. 

  3. COption (c)

    It covered the period of the 1960s and 1970s. 

  4. DOption (d)

    It was adopted by farmers living in dry and semi-arid regions of India. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It covered the period of the 1960s and 1970s. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3

Key Points

  • The second phase of the Green Revolution, which occurred in the 1980s,
  • aimed to expand the benefits of the Green Revolution to areas with less favourable conditions, such as dry and semi-arid regions.
  • First Phase (1960s-1970s):
  • Focused on introducing high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds and chemical fertilizers to increase agricultural production.
  • Primarily targeted areas with adequate irrigation facilities, such as the Punjab and Haryana regions.
  • Second Phase (1980s):
  • Expanded the Green Revolution to areas with less favorable conditions, including dry and semi-arid regions.
  • Introduced drought-resistant and early-maturing crop varieties.
  • Promoted integrated pest management and soil conservation practices.
  • Emphasized the need for sustainable agriculture to reduce environmental impact.
  • Therefore, the statement "It covered the period of the 1960s and 1970s" is incorrect.
  • The second phase of the Green Revolution took place in the 1980s, building upon the successes of the first phase and aiming to further enhance agricultural productivity and food security in India.

Question 86

To which Hindustani music Gharana are the Gundecha brothers related?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agra Gharana

  2. BOption (b)

    Dagari Gharana

  3. COption (c)

    Indore Gharana

  4. DOption (d)

    Patiala Gharana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dagari Gharana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dagari Gharana

Key Points

  • The Gundecha brothers, Umakant and Ramakant, are associated with the Dagarvani dhrupad Gharana style of Hindustani classical music

  • | Known for | Dhrupad vocalists | | --- | --- | | Gharana | Dagarvani dhrupad | | Awards | Padma Shri in 2012 | | Other accomplishments | Founded the Gurukul Dhrupad Sansthan in Bhopal |

  • Dhrupad is the oldest form of north Indian classical music.

  • The Gundecha brothers were leading exponents of the style and were active performers in India and internationally.

  • They were also known for their contributions to the field of Indian classical music.

  • After Ramakant Gundecha's death in 2019, his son Anant began performing with Umakant in the Gundecha bandhu.

Additional Information

  • Agra Gharana:
  • The Agra gharana is renowned for its intricate and complex rhythms (taals) and intricate melodic patterns.
  • Singers from this gharana often blend elements of both the dhrupad and khayal styles in their performances.
  • Famous singers from this gharana include Fayyaz Khan and Khadim Hussain Khan.
  • Indore Gharana:
  • The Indore gharana is known for its melodious and soothing style of singing.
  • Singers from this gharana excel in conveying emotions through their music.
  • Famous singers from this gharana include Ustad Alla Rakha Khan and Ustad Amanat Ali Khan.
  • Patiala Gharana:
  • The Patiala gharana is characterized by its energetic and powerful performances.
  • Singers from this gharana place a strong emphasis on rhythm and tempo in their music.
  • Famous singers from this gharana include Bade Ghulam Ali Khan and Malika Pukhraj.

Question 87

In which year did a trio of scientists, Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, prove that except viruses, all living organisms have DNA as their genetic material?

  1. AOption (a)

    1944

  2. BOption (b)

    1961

  3. COption (c)

    1918

  4. DOption (d)

    1902

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1944

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1944.

Key Points

  • In 1944, Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty conducted experiments that demonstrated that DNA is the substance that causes bacterial transformation.
  • Their findings provided critical evidence that DNA is the hereditary material in organisms, excluding viruses, which can have RNA as their genetic material.
  • This was one of the first significant steps in molecular biology that led to the identification of DNA as the carrier of genetic information.
  • Their work built upon Frederick Griffith's experiment in 1928, which suggested the existence of a "transforming principle" that could transfer genetic information.

Additional Information

  • DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)
  • DNA is a molecule that carries most of the genetic instructions used in the growth, development, functioning, and reproduction of all known living organisms and many viruses.
  • DNA is composed of two strands that coil around each other to form a double helix, carrying the genetic instructions in sequences of four types of nucleotides: adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G).
  • RNA (Ribonucleic Acid)
  • RNA is a molecule essential in various biological roles in coding, decoding, regulation, and expression of genes.
  • RNA is usually single-stranded and is composed of nucleotides: adenine (A), uracil (U), cytosine (C), and guanine (G).
  • In some viruses, RNA acts as the genetic material instead of DNA.
  • Bacterial Transformation
  • Bacterial transformation is a process by which bacterial cells take up foreign DNA molecules and incorporate them into their own genetic material, leading to genetic changes.
  • This process was first observed by Frederick Griffith in 1928, which led to the discovery of the "transforming principle" later identified as DNA by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty.
  • Griffith's Experiment
  • Griffith's experiment demonstrated that a substance from dead bacteria could genetically transform living bacteria.
  • He worked with two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae: a virulent S strain with a smooth capsule and a non-virulent R strain without a capsule.
  • His results showed that heat-killed S strain bacteria could transfer genetic material to the R strain, making it virulent.

Question 88

Where was the first Durand Cup, India’s oldest football tournament, held?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shimla

  2. BOption (b)

    Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Calcutta 

  4. DOption (d)

    Madras

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shimla

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shimla.

Key Points

  • The Durand Cup is the oldest football tournament in India and was first held in 1888.
  • The tournament was named after Mortimer Durand, who was the Foreign Secretary in charge of India at that time.
  • The inaugural tournament was held in Shimla, which served as the summer capital of British India.
  • Initially, the tournament was started as a football competition for British troops stationed in India but later it was opened to civilians as well.

Additional Information

  • Durand Cup
  • The Durand Cup is named after Sir Mortimer Durand, who was the Foreign Secretary of British India from 1884 to 1894.
  • It is one of the oldest football competitions in the world and the oldest in Asia.
  • The tournament is organized annually and has seen participation from top football clubs in India.
  • Winners of the Durand Cup are awarded three trophies: the President's Cup (added in 1956), the Durand Cup (the original trophy), and the Shimla Trophy (added in 1904).
  • Football in India
  • Football is one of the most popular sports in India, especially in states like West Bengal, Goa, Kerala, and the northeastern states.
  • The All India Football Federation (AIFF) is the governing body for football in India.
  • The Indian Super League (ISL) and I-League are the top professional football leagues in the country.
  • India has a rich history in football, with clubs like Mohun Bagan and East Bengal having a storied legacy.

Question 89

Which of the following statements about the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate is incorrect as of 31 March 2024? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The scheme was announced in the 2023-24 budget. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The maximum limit of deposit in the scheme is 2 lakhs per year. 

  3. COption (c)

    The tenure of the scheme is 5 years. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The scheme is validup to 31 March 2025. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The tenure of the scheme is 5 years. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme was announced in the 2023-24 budget.
  • The maximum limit of deposit in the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme is 2 lakhs per year.
  • The tenure of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme is 2 years, not 5 years.
  • The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme is valid up to 31 March 2025.

Additional Information

  • Mahila Samman Savings Certificate Scheme:
  • This scheme aims to empower women by encouraging savings and providing a secure investment option.
  • The scheme offers attractive interest rates to encourage more women to participate in formal financial systems.
  • The minimum deposit amount is ₹1,000, and the maximum is ₹2,00,000 per financial year.
  • The interest rate for the scheme is determined by the government and is revised periodically.
  • Budget 2023-24:
  • Presented by the Finance Minister, this budget included various schemes and allocations for different sectors.
  • The budget focused on infrastructure development, healthcare, education, and social welfare.
  • Special emphasis was placed on empowering women, youth, and economically weaker sections of society.
  • Savings Certificates:
  • Savings certificates are government-backed investment instruments that offer fixed returns over a specified period.
  • They are considered a safe investment option as they are backed by the government and provide guaranteed returns.
  • Examples include National Savings Certificates (NSC) and Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP).
  • Investment Tenure:
  • The investment tenure refers to the period for which the money is invested in a scheme.
  • Different schemes have varying tenures, and investors should choose based on their financial goals.
  • Short-term schemes typically have tenures of 1-3 years, while long-term schemes can range from 5 years to several decades.

Question 90

In which year was the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award renamed as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award, which is the highest sporting honour in the nation?

  1. AOption (a)

    2019

  2. BOption (b)

    2021

  3. COption (c)

    1991

  4. DOption (d)

    2014

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2021

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2021.

Key Points

  • The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award was renamed as Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award in 2021.
  • This renaming was done by the Government of India to honor the legendary Indian hockey player, Major Dhyan Chand.
  • Major Dhyan Chand is widely regarded as one of the greatest field hockey players in history, known for his extraordinary goal-scoring feats.
  • The decision to rename the award was made to celebrate the legacy and contribution of Major Dhyan Chand to Indian sports.

Additional Information

  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
  • Instituted in 1991-92, it is the highest sporting honor of the Republic of India.
  • The award is given annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • It is awarded for the most outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of four years.
  • The award comprises a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize.
  • Major Dhyan Chand
  • Dhyan Chand (1905-1979) was an Indian field hockey player, often referred to as "The Wizard" for his superb ball control.
  • He played a pivotal role in India's three consecutive Olympic gold medals in field hockey in 1928, 1932, and 1936.
  • His birthday, 29th August, is celebrated as National Sports Day in India.
  • He was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India's third-highest civilian honor, in 1956.
  • Other Major Sports Awards in India
  • Arjuna Award: Given for outstanding performance in sports and games.
  • Dronacharya Award: Awarded to coaches for producing medal winners at prestigious international sports events.
  • Dhyanchand Award: Given for lifetime achievement in sports and games.
  • Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar: Given to corporate entities and individuals for playing a significant role in the area of sports promotion and development.

Question 91

In August 2021, the Administrator of Lakshadweep, Praful Khoda Patel, highlighted that __________ style water villas, a project which is a first of its kind, will soon be set up in Lakshadweep, at a cost of 800 crores, in a bid to attract tourists to scenic beauty of the Union Territory

  1. AOption (a)

    Mexico

  2. BOption (b)

    Malaysia

  3. COption (c)

    Fiji

  4. DOption (d)

    Maldives

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maldives

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maldives.

Key Points

  • The Maldives is renowned for its over-water villas, which are popular among tourists for their luxurious amenities and breathtaking views.
  • These water villas in the Maldives are often built on stilts over the ocean and offer direct access to the water, making them a unique and attractive accommodation option.
  • The Maldives has a thriving tourism industry, and the concept of over-water villas has significantly contributed to its appeal as a top travel destination.
  • By introducing Maldives-style water villas, Lakshadweep aims to replicate this success and boost its own tourism industry.

Additional Information

  • Lakshadweep
  • Lakshadweep is a Union Territory of India, consisting of 36 islands located in the Arabian Sea.
  • It is known for its pristine beaches, clear blue waters, and rich marine life, making it a potential hotspot for tourism.
  • The introduction of luxury water villas is part of the development plans to enhance the tourism infrastructure in Lakshadweep.
  • The project aims to attract more tourists by offering world-class accommodation and showcasing the natural beauty of the islands.
  • Tourism in Maldives
  • The Maldives is one of the world's most popular tourist destinations, attracting visitors with its stunning coral reefs, clear lagoons, and luxurious resorts.
  • Tourism is the largest economic sector in the Maldives, contributing significantly to its GDP and providing employment opportunities for the local population.
  • The concept of over-water villas has been a key factor in the Maldives' tourism success, offering a unique and luxurious experience to visitors.
  • These water villas are equipped with modern amenities and provide unparalleled views of the ocean, enhancing the overall appeal of the destination.
  • Economic Impact of Tourism
  • Tourism is a major driver of economic growth in many countries, generating revenue, creating jobs, and promoting infrastructure development.
  • In addition to direct economic benefits, tourism can also lead to the preservation of natural and cultural heritage by providing the financial resources needed for conservation efforts.
  • Developing luxury accommodations, such as water villas, can help attract high-spending tourists, further boosting the local economy.
  • However, it is essential to manage tourism sustainably to minimize its environmental impact and ensure long-term benefits for the local community.

Question 92

Who proposed that ‘Light is made up of waves propagating perpendicular to the direction of its movement’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Newton

  2. BOption (b)

    Kepler

  3. COption (c)

    Huygens

  4. DOption (d)

    Pauli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Huygens

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Huygens.

Key Points

  • Christiaan Huygens was a Dutch physicist, mathematician, astronomer and inventor.
  • He is best known for his wave theory of light, which he described in his book "Traité de la Lumière" (Treatise on Light) in 1690.
  • Huygens proposed that light is made up of waves that propagate perpendicular to the direction of its movement.
  • This wave theory of light was later supported by the experiments of Thomas Young and Augustin-Jean Fresnel.

Additional Information

  • Wave Theory of Light:
  • The wave theory of light suggests that light travels in the form of waves.
  • According to Huygens' principle, every point on a wavefront is a source of wavelets that spread out in the forward direction at the same speed as the wave itself.
  • The new wavefront is the tangent to all of these secondary wavelets.
  • This theory was instrumental in explaining phenomena such as interference and diffraction, which could not be explained by the particle theory of light.
  • Particle Theory of Light:
  • The particle theory of light, proposed by Isaac Newton, suggested that light is made up of particles called corpuscles.
  • This theory was successful in explaining the reflection and refraction of light but failed to explain interference and diffraction.
  • Thomas Young's Double-Slit Experiment:
  • Thomas Young's double-slit experiment demonstrated the wave nature of light.
  • When light passes through two closely spaced slits, it creates an interference pattern on a screen behind the slits.
  • This pattern of bright and dark fringes can only be explained if light behaves as a wave.
  • Augustin-Jean Fresnel:
  • Fresnel made significant contributions to the wave theory of light.
  • He developed the Fresnel equations, which describe how light behaves at the interface between two different media.
  • Fresnel's work on diffraction and interference further confirmed the wave nature of light.

Question 93

In the Hindustani music system, the ________ are allotted to different hours of the day and different seasons.

  1. AOption (a)

    varnas

  2. BOption (b)

    gita

  3. COption (c)

    ragas

  4. DOption (d)

    srutis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ragas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ragas.

Key Points

  • In the Hindustani music system, ragas are specifically designed to be played or sung during certain times of the day or seasons.
  • Each raga has a distinct mood and is intended to invoke specific emotions, often linked with the time of day or season it is associated with.
  • The practice of associating ragas with different times of the day or seasons helps in enhancing the emotional and aesthetic experience of the listener.
  • This tradition has been an integral part of Indian classical music, helping to preserve its rich heritage and cultural significance.

Additional Information

  • Ragas
  • A raga is a melodic framework for improvisation akin to a melodic mode in Indian classical music.
  • It is a set of rules for building a melody – the specific notes that can be used and the motifs that can be played.
  • Ragas are meant to express certain emotions and are associated with different times of the day or seasons.
  • There are hundreds of ragas, each with its own unique characteristics and mood.
  • Varnas
  • In the context of music, varnas refer to the patterns of notes in classical compositions.
  • These are used to teach and practice the various aspects of a raga.
  • The term "varna" is also used in a different context in Indian culture, referring to the classification of society.
  • Gita
  • The term "gita" typically refers to a song or a hymn.
  • In the context of Indian classical music, it can refer to compositions that are sung.
  • The most famous "Gita" in Indian culture is the Bhagavad Gita, a 700-verse Hindu scripture that is part of the Indian epic Mahabharata.
  • Srutis
  • Srutis are the microtones or the smallest intervals of pitch that the human ear can detect.
  • They are fundamental to the tuning system in Indian classical music.
  • There are 22 srutis in an octave in Indian classical music, providing a finer division of pitch compared to the Western music system.

Question 94

Match the dances in column A with their states in column B.

Column A (Dances)Column B (States)
1.Bharatanatyama.Gujarat
2.Mohiniattamb.Tamil Nadu
3.Garbac.Kerala
4.Sattriyad.Assam
  1. AOption (a)

    1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

  2. BOption (b)

    1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

  3. COption (c)

    1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d

  4. DOption (d)

    1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork, along with expressive hand gestures and facial expressions.
  • Mohiniattam is a classical dance form from Kerala, characterized by graceful, swaying body movements and subtle facial expressions, typically performed by women.
  • Garba is a popular folk dance from Gujarat, performed in a circle, with rhythmic clapping and twirling, usually during the Navratri festival.
  • Sattriya is a classical dance form from Assam, originally performed by male monks in the monasteries as part of their religious rituals.

Additional Information

  • Bharatanatyam
  • It is one of the oldest classical dance traditions in India.
  • Originated in the temples of Tamil Nadu, it was traditionally performed by devadasis.
  • It is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and knees flexed out, combined with spectacular footwork.
  • It involves intricate hand gestures (mudras) and facial expressions to convey different emotions.
  • Mohiniattam
  • This dance form is named after Mohini, the female avatar of Vishnu.
  • It combines elements of Bharatanatyam and Kathakali, another classical dance from Kerala.
  • Known for its graceful movements and gentle swaying, it is often performed solo by women.
  • Garba
  • It is traditionally performed during the Navratri festival in Gujarat.
  • Garba is danced in a circle around an idol or picture of the Goddess Durga.
  • It is characterized by rhythmic clapping, twirling, and coordinated movements.
  • Garba is a community dance where everyone participates, reflecting the social and cultural harmony.
  • Sattriya
  • It was introduced in the 15th century by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev in Assam.
  • Originally performed in monasteries (sattras) by male monks, it has now gained popularity among female dancers as well.
  • Sattriya incorporates various elements of drama, dance, and music and is performed as part of religious rituals.

Question 95

Which organisation was started in the Pune district of Maharashtra in 1873 with the aim of promoting education and social rights among the underprivileged group of society?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prarthana Samaj

  2. BOption (b)

    Satyashodhak Samaj 

  3. COption (c)

    Shoshit Seva Samaj

  4. DOption (d)

    Deepalaya Samaj

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Satyashodhak Samaj 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Satyashodhak Samaj.

Key Points

  • Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotirao Phule in Pune, Maharashtra in 1873.
  • The organization aimed at social reforms including the upliftment of the underprivileged sections of society, especially the lower castes.
  • It promoted the values of human rights, equality, and education among the oppressed communities.
  • The organization also focused on eradicating social evils like untouchability and promoting women's rights.

Additional Information

  • Jyotirao Phule
  • Jyotirao Phule was a prominent social reformer and activist in Maharashtra, India.
  • He is best known for his efforts to promote education for women and lower castes, and his work against the caste system.
  • Phule, along with his wife Savitribai Phule, opened the first school for girls in Pune in 1848.
  • He wrote several books and plays that criticized the caste system and called for social equality.
  • Social Reforms in India
  • Social reforms in India have historically focused on eradicating social evils like sati, child marriage, untouchability, and promoting education and women's rights.
  • Various social reform movements were led by individuals like Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Jyotirao Phule, and B.R. Ambedkar.
  • These movements played a crucial role in shaping modern Indian society and its values of equality and justice.
  • Importance of Education
  • Education is a powerful tool for social change and empowerment.
  • It helps in the development of critical thinking, self-reliance, and the ability to participate fully in society.
  • Promoting education among the underprivileged sections of society can help in breaking the cycle of poverty and social inequality.
  • Women's Rights
  • Women's rights are fundamental to achieving gender equality and empowering women to make decisions about their lives.
  • Promoting women's education, health, and economic participation can lead to more inclusive and sustainable development.
  • Social reform movements have historically emphasized the importance of women's rights as a key component of social progress.

Question 96

In which year was Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) introduced?

  1. AOption (a)

    2015

  2. BOption (b)

    2009

  3. COption (c)

    2013

  4. DOption (d)

    2017

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2015

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

  • The Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) was introduced in 2015.
  • It was launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, on 8th April 2015.
  • MUDRA aims to provide funding to the non-corporate, non-farm sector income-generating activities of micro and small enterprises whose credit needs are below ₹10 lakh.
  • The initiative is part of the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’ through various financial institutions.

Additional Information

  • Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA)
  • MUDRA was set up through a statutory enactment and is responsible for developing and refinancing all Micro-finance Institutions which are in the business of lending to micro/small business entities.
  • It provides refinance support to banks, Microfinance Institutions (MFIs), and other eligible institutions which are in the business of lending to micro/small business entities engaged in manufacturing, trading, and service activities.
  • The primary objective of MUDRA is to create an inclusive, sustainable, and value-based entrepreneurial culture, in collaboration with partner institutions in delivering comprehensive financial support to the bottom of the pyramid universe.
  • MUDRA offers three types of loans: Shishu (up to ₹50,000), Kishor (₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh), and Tarun (₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh).
  • Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY)
  • It is a scheme launched by the Government of India to provide loans up to ₹10 lakh to the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-enterprises.
  • These loans are classified as MUDRA loans under PMMY.
  • The loans are given by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and NBFCs.
  • The aim is to promote entrepreneurship among the younger generation, women, and marginalized communities.
  • Importance of MUDRA Scheme
  • MUDRA aims to fund the unfunded by bringing such enterprises to the formal financial system and extending affordable credit to them.
  • It helps in creating job opportunities and encouraging self-employment.
  • The scheme also aims to provide a credit guarantee to these small businesses to ensure their sustainability and growth.
  • It plays a crucial role in boosting the Indian economy by promoting the micro-enterprise sector.

Question 97

Which shortcut key is used to paste a slide in Microsoft PowerPoint?

  1. AOption (a)

    CTRL + V

  2. BOption (b)

    CTRL + P

  3. COption (c)

    CTRL + X

  4. DOption (d)

    CTRL + C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CTRL + V

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CTRL + V.

Key Points

  • CTRL + V is the standard keyboard shortcut used to paste the copied content in most applications including Microsoft PowerPoint.
  • This shortcut allows users to quickly paste slides, text, or other objects that have been copied to the clipboard.
  • Using keyboard shortcuts like CTRL + V can significantly enhance productivity by reducing the time taken to navigate through menus.
  • This command works consistently across various Microsoft Office applications such as Word, Excel, and PowerPoint.

Additional Information

  • CTRL + C
  • This is the shortcut key used to copy the selected content to the clipboard.
  • It does not remove the original content from the source location.
  • CTRL + X
  • This shortcut key is used to cut the selected content, which removes it from the source location and copies it to the clipboard.
  • CTRL + P
  • This shortcut key is used to open the Print dialog box in most applications, allowing users to print the current document or slide.
  • Clipboard
  • The clipboard is a temporary storage area for data that the user wants to copy from one place to another.
  • It holds the data until the user decides to paste it elsewhere or until the system is shut down.

Question 98

As per the Economic Survey 2022-23, the Labour Force Participation Rate for males has gone up to ________in 2020-21.

  1. AOption (a)

    57.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    55.1%

  3. COption (c)

    54.2%

  4. DOption (d)

    59.3%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

57.5%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0.575.

Key Points

  • The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is an important metric that indicates the percentage of the working-age population that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
  • According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, the LFPR for males in India increased to 0.575 (57.5%) in the year 2020-21.
  • This increase suggests a positive trend in male participation in the labor market during that period.
  • The LFPR is a critical indicator for assessing the economic activity level and the potential labor supply within a country.

Additional Information

  • Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)
  • The LFPR is defined as the percentage of the working-age population (usually ages 15-64) that is part of the labor force. The labor force includes both the employed and the unemployed who are actively looking for work.
  • A higher LFPR indicates a higher proportion of the working-age population that is participating in the labor market, either by working or seeking work.
  • The LFPR is an important indicator for policymakers to understand the availability of labor in the economy and to make informed decisions regarding employment policies and programs.
  • The LFPR can be influenced by various factors, including economic conditions, social and cultural norms, education levels, and government policies.
  • Economic Survey
  • The Economic Survey is an annual document released by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, which reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the past financial year.
  • It provides an overview of the economic performance, identifies key challenges, and outlines the prospects for the coming year.
  • The Economic Survey is an important tool for policymakers, economists, and researchers to understand the current state of the economy and to formulate policies for sustainable growth and development.
  • It covers various aspects of the economy, including GDP growth, inflation, employment, trade, fiscal policy, and sectoral performance.
  • Employment and Unemployment
  • Employment refers to the situation where individuals are engaged in productive activities and receive compensation for their work.
  • Unemployment refers to the situation where individuals who are capable of working and are actively seeking work are unable to find employment.
  • The unemployment rate is a key indicator of labor market conditions and is calculated as the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed.
  • Reducing unemployment and increasing employment opportunities are important goals for governments to ensure economic stability and improve the standard of living for their citizens.

Question 99

Any citizen of India can make a declaration renouncing his/her Indian citizenship under the ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Citizenship Act, 1985

  2. BOption (b)

    Citizenship Act, 1955

  3. COption (c)

    Citizenship Act, 1975

  4. DOption (d)

    Citizenship Act, 1965

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Citizenship Act, 1955

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Citizenship Act, 1955.

Key Points

  • The Citizenship Act, 1955 is the primary legislation governing the acquisition and loss of Indian citizenship.
  • Under this Act, any Indian citizen can renounce their Indian citizenship by making a declaration.
  • The renunciation of citizenship is a formal process detailed in the Act and ensures that the individual is no longer considered an Indian citizen.
  • The Act also covers other aspects of citizenship such as acquisition, termination, and registration of citizenship.

Additional Information

  • Citizenship Act, 1955
  • The Citizenship Act, 1955, provides the basis for the acquisition and determination of Indian citizenship.
  • It specifies five modes of acquiring citizenship: by birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory.
  • The Act outlines the processes and criteria for each mode, ensuring clear guidelines for obtaining Indian citizenship.
  • Amendments to the Act have been made over the years to address various aspects of citizenship and to update the legal framework in line with changing needs and circumstances.
  • Renunciation of Citizenship
  • Renunciation of citizenship is a voluntary act where an individual formally declares their intention to give up Indian citizenship.
  • This process is essential for individuals who wish to acquire citizenship of another country that does not allow dual citizenship.
  • The declaration must be made in the prescribed manner, and upon its acceptance, the individual ceases to be an Indian citizen.
  • Renunciation also extends to any minor children of the individual, but they have the right to resume Indian citizenship upon reaching adulthood.
  • Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI)
  • The OCI scheme provides a form of residency status to persons of Indian origin who are citizens of other countries, allowing them to live and work in India indefinitely.
  • OCI cardholders do not have the right to vote, hold constitutional office, or buy agricultural land, but they enjoy many of the same rights as Indian citizens.
  • This scheme facilitates easier travel to and from India and allows for long-term residency without the need for repeated visa applications.

Question 100

With reference to Chethiagiri Vihar festival consider the following statements and select the correct option.

i) It is a Buddhist festival.

ii) It is held at Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh.

iii) Relics of SariPutta and Maha Moggallana are worshiped.

  1. AOption (a)

    i, ii, iii

  2. BOption (b)

    Both ii and iii

  3. COption (c)

    Both i and iii

  4. DOption (d)

    Both i and ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

i, ii, iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The Chethiagiri Vihar festival is indeed a Buddhist festival.
  • The festival is held at Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh.
  • During the festival, relics of Sariputta and Maha Moggallana are worshipped.
  • This festival is an important event for Buddhists, attracting many pilgrims to Sanchi.

Additional Information

  • Sanchi:
  • Sanchi is a small village in the Raisen District of the state of Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • It is famous for its Buddhist stupas, especially the Great Stupa which is one of the oldest stone structures in India.
  • Sanchi was a major Buddhist center in India, dating back to the 3rd century BCE, commissioned by Emperor Ashoka.
  • Buddhism:
  • Buddhism is a religion and philosophy that developed from the teachings of the Buddha (Sanskrit: "Awakened One"), a teacher who lived in northern India between the mid-6th and mid-4th centuries BCE.
  • Buddhism spread throughout Asia and is now a global religion.
  • The core beliefs include the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path.
  • Sariputta and Maha Moggallana:
  • Sariputta and Maha Moggallana were two of the most important disciples of the Buddha.
  • They are often depicted as the Buddha's chief attendants and are revered for their great wisdom and spiritual powers.
  • Their relics are considered sacred and are venerated by Buddhists around the world.

100 questions in the full paper