Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2024: Official Paper (Held On: 11 Jul, 2024 Shift 4) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Select the grammatically INCORRECT sentence. 

  1. AOption (a)

    They hardly meet each other.

  2. BOption (b)

    They often meet each other.

  3. COption (c)

    They quite meet each other.

  4. DOption (d)

    They always meet each other.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

They quite meet each other.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the word "quite" in this context.
  • "Quite" is not used in this manner to describe the frequency of meetings.
  • The correct phrases should be "They hardly meet each other", "They often meet each other", or "They always meet each other".
  • Thus, the error is located in option 3 of the given sentences.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "They quite meet each other." is not grammatically correct. Instead, you could say "They frequently meet each other."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "They hardly meet each other." – This sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 2: "They often meet each other." – This sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 4: "They always meet each other." – This sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 5 – This option is not provided in the question, hence not applicable.

Question 2

The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The new / secretary / does not likes / me.

  1. AOption (a)

    secretary

  2. BOption (b)

    me.

  3. COption (c)

    does not likes

  4. DOption (d)

    The new

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

does not likes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the verb form "likes" after "does not."
  • In English, when using "does not" (or "doesn't"), the base form of the verb should be used, which is "like" in this case.
  • The correct phrase should be "does not like," ensuring grammatical correctness.
  • Thus, the error is located in part 3 of the sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "The new secretary does not like me."

Additional Information

  • 1: "The new" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 2: "secretary" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 4: "me." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part 3.

Question 3

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The manager asked / the cooking team, “Who / among you is to baked the / Christmas cake this year?”

  1. AOption (a)

    the cooking team, “Who

  2. BOption (b)

    Christmas cake this year?”

  3. COption (c)

    The manager asked

  4. DOption (d)

    among you is to baked the

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

among you is to baked the

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect verb form "baked" after "is to."
  • The correct verb form should be "bake" to match the infinitive structure "is to."
  • The correct phrase should be "among you is to bake the," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Thus, the error is located in Option 4 of the sentence.

 

Correct Sentence: "The manager asked the cooking team, “Who among you is to bake the Christmas cake this year?”

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "the cooking team, “Who" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 2: "Christmas cake this year?”" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 3: "The manager asked" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 5: "among you is to baked the" – This part contains the error as it should be "among you is to bake the."

Question 4

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Geeta was working now but she can be seen swimming in the river every evening.

  1. AOption (a)

    but she can be seen 

  2. BOption (b)

    swimming in the 

  3. COption (c)

    Geeta was working now 

  4. DOption (d)

    river every evening.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Geeta was working now 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the word "now" with the past continuous tense "was working."
  • The word "now" typically indicates present time, which is inconsistent with the past continuous tense.
  • The correct phrase should be "Geeta is working now," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Thus, the error is located in Option 3 of the sentence.

 

Correct Sentence: "Geeta is working now but she can be seen swimming in the river every evening."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "but she can be seen" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 2: "swimming in the" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 4: "river every evening." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. 

Teachers 1_________ given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher 2_________expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven 3_________ their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, 4_________cover the latest pedagogies regarding foundational literacy and numeracy, formative and adaptive assessment of learning outcomes, competency-based learning and related pedagogies, 5_________ experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated and storytelling-based approaches, etc.

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. 

  1. AOption (a)

    shall be

  2. BOption (b)

    can be

  3. COption (c)

    will be

  4. DOption (d)

    would be

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

will be

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The use of "will be" indicates a future action that is intended to be a part of ongoing professional development for teachers.
  • "Shall be" can also indicate a future action but is often more formal and less commonly used in contemporary English.
  • "Can be" suggests possibility rather than certainty, which doesn't align with the context of required continuous opportunities for self-improvement.
  • "Would be" is conditional and hypothetical, which is not appropriate for this definitive statement about professional development requirements.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 (will be).

 

Correct Sentence: "Teachers will be given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions..

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    will be

  2. BOption (b)

    shall be

  3. COption (c)

    can be

  4. DOption (d)

    would be

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

will be

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The phrase should indicate a future action that is a requirement for the teachers' professional development.
  • "Will be" is appropriate because it indicates a definite expectation or requirement in the future.
  • "Shall be" is too formal and less commonly used in contemporary English for such contexts.
  • "Can be" suggests a possibility rather than a requirement, which is not suitable here.
  • "Would be" is conditional and hypothetical, which does not fit the context of a mandatory requirement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1 (will be).

 

Correct Sentence: "Teachers will be given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher will be expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven by their own interests...."

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    at

  3. COption (c)

    by

  4. DOption (d)

    from

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

by

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The preposition "by" is used to indicate the agent performing the action of the verb in sentences where the verb is in the passive voice.
  • In this context, "driven by their own interests" means that the teachers' professional development is motivated or influenced by their own interests.
  • The other options ("for," "at," "from") do not convey the correct relationship in this context.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 (by).

 

Correct Sentence: "Teachers will be given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher will be expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven by their own interests.

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    partially 

  2. BOption (b)

    carelessly

  3. COption (c)

    systematically

  4. DOption (d)

    roughly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

systematically

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The word "systematically" fits well within the context of the sentence because it implies that the coverage of CPD opportunities is organized and methodical.
  • The other options ("partially," "carelessly," "roughly") do not convey the appropriateness or thoroughness required in the context of professional development.
  • "Partially" suggests incompletion**, "carelessly"** suggests a lack of diligence, and "roughly" suggests a lack of precision, none of which align with the intended meaning.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 (systematically).

 

Correct Sentence: "Teachers will be given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher will be expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven by their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, systematically cover the latest pedagogies................."

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. 

  1. AOption (a)

    such as

  2. BOption (b)

    for as 

  3. COption (c)

    from as

  4. DOption (d)

    same as

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

such as

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "such as" is used to introduce examples that clarify or illustrate what has been mentioned before.
  • The other options ("for as," "from as," "same as") do not appropriately introduce examples in this context.
  • "Such as" fits perfectly here as it introduces examples of different pedagogical approaches (experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated, and storytelling-based approaches).
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1 (such as).

 

Correct Sentence: "Teachers will be given continuous opportunities for self-improvement and to learn the latest innovations and advances in their professions. Each teacher will be expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities every year for their own professional development, driven by their own interests. CPD opportunities will, in particular, systematically cover the latest pedagogies regarding foundational literacy and numeracy, formative and adaptive assessment of learning outcomes, competency-based learning and related pedagogies, such as experiential learning, arts-integrated, sports-integrated and storytelling-based approaches, etc."

Question 10

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Candid

  1. AOption (a)

    Cruel

  2. BOption (b)

    Honest

  3. COption (c)

    Top

  4. DOption (d)

    Bright

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Honest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "Candid" means being truthful and straightforward; frank. (स्पष्टवादी)
  • Example: She gave a candid interview about her life and career.
  • "Honest" refers to someone who is free of deceit; truthful and sincere. (ईमानदार)
  • Example: He is known for being an honest politician who always speaks the truth.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Honest.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Cruel (क्रूर): Willfully causing pain or suffering to others, or feeling no concern about it.
  • Example: The dictator was known for his cruel treatment of prisoners.
  • Top (शीर्ष): The highest or uppermost point, part, or surface of something.
  • Example: He reached the top of the mountain after a long climb.
  • Bright (चमकीला): Giving out or reflecting a lot of light; shining.
  • Example: The bright lights of the city could be seen from miles away.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

The athlete looked unsettled before the race.

  1. AOption (a)

    Reticent

  2. BOption (b)

    Triumphant

  3. COption (c)

    Tangent 

  4. DOption (d)

    Confident

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Confident

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "unsettled" means feeling anxious, nervous, or uneasy. (अशांत)
  • Example: She felt unsettled about moving to a new city.
  • "Confident" refers to having a strong belief in one's abilities or qualities, feeling self-assured. (आत्मविश्वासी)
  • Example: The student was confident about passing the exam with flying colors.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'unsettled' is 'confident'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Reticent (मितभाषी): Not revealing one's thoughts or feelings readily.
  • Example: She was reticent about her personal life.
  • Triumphant (विजयी): Feeling or expressing jubilation after having won a victory or mastered a difficulty.
  • Example: The team returned home triumphant after winning the championship.
  • Tangent (स्पर्शरेखा): A completely different line of thought or action.
  • Example: He went off on a tangent during the meeting.

Question 12

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM for the given word.

Ghastly

  1. AOption (a)

    Agitated

  2. BOption (b)

    Relaxing

  3. COption (c)

    Pleasant

  4. DOption (d)

    Bitter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pleasant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "Ghastly" means something that is shockingly frightful or dreadful; it can also refer to something extremely unpleasant or bad. (भयानक)
  • Example: The haunted house was filled with ghastly images that terrified the visitors.
  • "Pleasant" refers to something that is agreeable, enjoyable, or giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment. (सुखद)
  • Example: We had a pleasant afternoon picnic in the park.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Ghastly' is 'Pleasant'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Agitated (बेचैन): Feeling or appearing troubled or nervous.
  • Example: She became agitated when she couldn't find her keys.
  • Relaxing (आरामदायक): Making someone feel relaxed; reducing tension or anxiety.
  • Example: A relaxing bath can help you unwind after a long day.
  • Bitter (कड़वा): Having a sharp, pungent taste or smell; not sweet.
  • Example: The medicine had a bitter taste.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

The waters of Germany are abundant in fish, but there are few genera and species in them.

  1. AOption (a)

    flourish

  2. BOption (b)

    allay

  3. COption (c)

    discord

  4. DOption (d)

    deficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

deficient

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "abundant" means something that exists or is available in large quantities; plentiful. (प्रचुर मात्रा में)
  • Example: During the harvest season, the fields are abundant with crops.
  • "Deficient" refers to something that is lacking in some necessary quality or element; not enough. (अपर्याप्त)
  • Example: The soil in the region is deficient in nutrients, which affects crop yield.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'abundant' is 'deficient'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Flourish (फलना-फूलना): Grow or develop in a healthy or vigorous way.
  • Example: The business continued to flourish despite the economic downturn.
  • Allay (कम करना): Diminish or put at rest (fear, suspicion, or worry).
  • Example: The government aimed to allay public fears through transparent communication.
  • Discord (विवाद): Disagreement between people.
  • Example: The discord among the team members affected their performance.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Compulsory

  1. AOption (a)

    Reliable

  2. BOption (b)

    Factional

  3. COption (c)

    Full-fledged

  4. DOption (d)

    Optional

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Optional

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "Compulsory" means something that is required by law or a rule; obligatory. (अनिवार्य)
  • Example: Wearing a seatbelt in a car is compulsory in many countries.
  • "Optional" refers to something that is available to be chosen but not obligatory; voluntary. (वैकल्पिक)
  • Example: Attendance at the seminar is optional, but highly recommended.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Compulsory' is 'Optional'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Reliable (विश्वसनीय): Consistently good in quality or performance; able to be trusted.
  • Example: She is a reliable employee who always meets her deadlines.
  • Factional (गुटीय): Relating to a small organized dissenting group within a larger one, especially in politics.
  • Example: The factional disputes within the party have weakened its overall effectiveness.
  • Full-fledged (पूर्ण विकसित): Completely developed or established; of full status.
  • Example: He is now a full-fledged professor at the university.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.

The experienced surgeon handled the delicate procedure with care and precision.

  1. AOption (a)

    seasoned

  2. BOption (b)

    untrained

  3. COption (c)

    unskilled

  4. DOption (d)

    amateur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

seasoned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The term "experienced" in the sentence implies someone who has significant practice and skill in a particular field.
  • The word "seasoned" is a suitable synonym for "experienced," as it also conveys the idea of someone who has gained a lot of experience and skill over time.
  • Other options like "untrained," "unskilled," and "amateur" do not fit the context as they imply a lack of experience or skill.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "The seasoned surgeon handled the delicate procedure with care and precision."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: untrained – This word suggests a lack of training or experience, which is the opposite of "experienced."
  • Option 3: unskilled – This term implies a lack of skill, which does not fit the context of an experienced surgeon.
  • Option 4: amateur – This word refers to someone who engages in an activity for pleasure rather than as a profession, and lacks the expertise implied by "experienced."

Question 16

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains a spelling error.

I was alarmed lest we should be wreked.

  1. AOption (a)

    I was

  2. BOption (b)

    we should

  3. COption (c)

    alarmed lest 

  4. DOption (d)

    be wreked.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

be wreked.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "wreked" is incorrect and does not exist in the English language. (गलत शब्द)
  • Example: There is no valid example because "wreked" is not a correct word.
  • The correct word is "wrecked", which means to be destroyed or ruined, especially in the context of a ship. (नष्ट हुआ)
  • Example: The ship was wrecked in the storm.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'be wrecked.'

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • I was (मैं था): Refers to the past state of being of the speaker.
  • Example: I was happy to see my old friends. (मैं अपने पुराने दोस्तों को देखकर खुश था।)
  • we should (हमें चाहिए): Suggests a recommendation or obligation for the group including the speaker.
  • Example: We should finish our homework before playing. (हमें खेलने से पहले अपना होमवर्क खत्म करना चाहिए।)
  • alarmed lest (डर गया कि): Indicates a fear or concern that something undesirable might happen.
  • Example: She was alarmed lest her secret be discovered. (वह डर गई कि कहीं उसका रहस्य पता न चल जाए।)

Question 17

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.

I have left it to his discretion to accept or decline my offer.

  1. AOption (a)

    Judgement

  2. BOption (b)

    Wisdom

  3. COption (c)

    Inattention

  4. DOption (d)

    Calculation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Inattention

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "discretion" means the quality of behaving or speaking in such a way as to avoid causing offense or revealing confidential information. It also refers to the freedom to decide what should be done in a particular situation. (विवेक)
  • Example: She knew she could rely on his discretion to keep the information private.
  • "Inattention" refers to lack of attention; disregard. It is the opposite of being attentive and careful. (अवधान)
  • Example: His inattention in class often led to missing important details.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'discretion' is 'inattention'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Judgement (निर्णय): The ability to make considered decisions or come to sensible conclusions.
  • Example: His judgement in critical situations is highly valued.
  • Wisdom (बुद्धिमत्ता): The quality of having experience, knowledge, and good judgement.
  • Example: His wisdom is often sought in difficult matters.
  • Calculation (गणना): The process of using mathematics; careful planning.
  • Example: The calculation of risks is essential for any business venture.

Question 18

Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.

The advertisement of vacencies in education sector has received huge response.

  1. AOption (a)

    Vacancies

  2. BOption (b)

    Vecencies

  3. COption (c)

    Vecancies

  4. DOption (d)

    Vacansies 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vacancies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "vacancies" means unoccupied positions or jobs available for someone to fill. (रिक्तियां)
  • Example: The company posted several job vacancies on their website.
  • "Vacancies" is the correct spelling and usage in the given sentence. (रिक्तियां)
  • Example: The advertisement of vacancies in the education sector has received a huge response.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Vacancies.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Vecencies (वेकेंसीज़): This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
  • Example: N/A
  • Vecancies (वेकैंसीज़): This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
  • Example: N/A
  • Vacansies (वैकेंसीज़): This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
  • Example: N/A

Question 19

Based on the situation in the sentence, select the most appropriate idiom.

After many years of rivalry, the two schools decided to _______ and participate in a National Event together.

  1. AOption (a)

    bell the cat

  2. BOption (b)

    bury the hatchet

  3. COption (c)

    be in the doldrums

  4. DOption (d)

    go cold turkey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

bury the hatchet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The idiom "bury the hatchet" means to end a conflict or feud and become friendly. (शत्रुता समाप्त करना)
  • Example: After years of disputes, the two neighbors decided to bury the hatchet and live peacefully

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Bell the cat (जोखिम उठाना): To undertake a risky or dangerous task.
  • Example: The plan sounds good, but who will bell the cat?
  • Be in the doldrums (निष्क्रियता की स्थिति में होना ): To be in a state of inactivity or depression.
  • Example: After losing his job, he was in the doldrums for months.
  • Go cold turkey (अचानक आदत छोड़ना): To stop a habit abruptly and completely.
  • Example: He went cold turkey on caffeine after realizing its negative effects on his health.

Question 20

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Revolution

  1. AOption (a)

    Order

  2. BOption (b)

    Gyration

  3. COption (c)

    Harmony

  4. DOption (d)

    Stagnation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gyration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "Revolution" means a dramatic and wide-reaching change in conditions, attitudes, or operation. (क्रांति)
  • Example: The industrial revolution changed the face of manufacturing forever.
  • "Gyration" refers to a rapid movement in a circle or spiral; a whirling motion. (घूमाव)
  • Example: The gyration of the dancer captivated the audience.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Revolution' is 'Gyration'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Order (क्रम): The arrangement or disposition of people or things in relation to each other according to a particular sequence, pattern, or method.
  • Example: The students were asked to stand in alphabetical order.
  • Harmony (सामंजस्य): The combination of simultaneously sounded musical notes to produce a pleasing effect.
  • Example: The choir sang in perfect harmony.
  • Stagnation (स्थिरता): The state of not flowing or moving; lack of activity, growth, or development.
  • Example: Economic stagnation can lead to high unemployment rates.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The artist received a ___________ from the audience.

  1. AOption (a)

    round of applause

  2. BOption (b)

    plenty of applause

  3. COption (c)

    bunch of applause

  4. DOption (d)

    handful of applause

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

round of applause

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "round" in the context of applause means a burst or series of claps from an audience as a sign of appreciation. (गोल/दौर)
  • Example: After the performance, the singer received a loud round of applause from the audience.
  • "applause" refers to the clapping of hands to show approval or admiration. (ताली)
  • Example: Her speech was met with thunderous applause.

Hence, the phrase 'round of applause' is commonly used to describe a collective show of appreciation through clapping.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Plenty of applause (बहुत सारी तालियाँ): Refers to a large amount of clapping, but it is not a common phrase.
  • Example: The artist received plenty of applause, though it is not the usual expression.
  • Bunch of applause (गुच्छा तालियाँ): This is an incorrect phrase as it is not commonly used in English.
  • Example: The phrase 'bunch of applause' is not commonly used.
  • Handful of applause (थोड़ी सी तालियाँ): This phrase implies a small amount of clapping, which is not suitable in this context.
  • Example: The artist received a handful of applause, which means only a few people clapped.

Question 22

Choose the option that best describes the meaning of the idioms and phrases underlined in the given sentence.

A jack of all trades cannot survive in the world of specialisation.

  1. AOption (a)

    A businessman

  2. BOption (b)

    A person who can do many things but is not an expert in any

  3. COption (c)

    A good communicator

  4. DOption (d)

    An expert of many jobs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A person who can do many things but is not an expert in any

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • The idiom "a jack of all trades" refers to a person who can do many different types of work but is not necessarily very skilled or an expert in any of them.
  • This idiom is often used to emphasize the variety of skills a person possesses, but also to highlight their lack of specialization.
  • The correct meaning provided by Option 2 is "A person who can do many things but is not an expert in any."
  • The other options do not accurately capture the essence of the idiom.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 (A person who can do many things but is not an expert in any).

Question 23

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Well, I prefer eating at home from eating out.

  1. AOption (a)

    to eating out

  2. BOption (b)

    and eating out

  3. COption (c)

    than eating out

  4. DOption (d)

    while eating out

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to eating out

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "prefer eating at home from eating out" is incorrect.
  • The correct preposition to use with "prefer" when comparing two activities is "to."
  • Thus, the correct phrase should be "prefer eating at home to eating out."
  • This correction ensures the sentence is grammatically correct and clear.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Well, I prefer eating at home to eating out."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "and eating out" is incorrect as it does not convey a preference.
  • Option 3: "than eating out" is incorrect as "prefer" is not followed by "than."
  • Option 4: "while eating out" is incorrect as it changes the meaning of the sentence.

Question 24

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Do not later about the street.

  1. AOption (a)

    litre about

  2. BOption (b)

    latter about 

  3. COption (c)

    litter about

  4. DOption (d)

    loiter around 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

loiter around 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the word "later" which does not fit contextually.
  • The word "loiter" means to stand or wait around without apparent purpose, which makes sense in the context of the street.
  • The correct phrase should be "loiter around the street," ensuring the sentence is both grammatically correct and contextually appropriate.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Do not loiter around the street."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "litre about" – This option is incorrect as "litre" is a unit of measure and does not fit the context.
  • Option 2: "latter about" – This option is incorrect as "latter" refers to the second of two things mentioned and does not fit the context.
  • Option 3: "litter about" – This option is incorrect as "litter" means to make a place messy with trash, which does not fit the context.
  • Option 5: (No option provided) – This option is not applicable.

Question 25

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

I opened the box beneath the table and took of a book, the Materia Medica.

  1. AOption (a)

    took in

  2. BOption (b)

    took out 

  3. COption (c)

    No substitution required

  4. DOption (d)

    take off

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

took out 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the phrase "took of" instead of "took out."
  • The correct verb phrase should be "took out" to indicate the action of removing something from a container.
  • Therefore, the sentence should read, "I opened the box beneath the table and took out a book, the Materia Medica."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "I opened the box beneath the table and took out a book, the Materia Medica."

 

Additional Information

  • No substitution required – This would be the correct option if the original sentence was grammatically correct, but the phrase "took of" is incorrect.
  • Took in – This phrase does not fit the context of the sentence, as it means to absorb or understand something.
  • Take off – This phrase means to remove something from a surface, which does not fit the context of taking a book out of a box.
  • Took out – This is the correct phrase to use in this context, meaning to remove something from inside a container.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option Figure - 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 27

What would be the letter on the opposite side of ‘P’ if the given sheet is folded to form a cube? 

  1. AOption (a)

    M

  2. BOption (b)

    K

  3. COption (c)

    L

  4. DOption (d)

    N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

N

Why this answer is correct

The faces opposite to each other are shown below:

⇒ As the alternate positions become opposite to each other, the remaining two faces become opposite to each other.

So, opposite pairs are:

L → K

N → P

O → M

Therefore, 'N' is the opposite of 'P'.

Hence, "N" is the correct answer.

Question 28

IJLO is related to GHJM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, HIKN is related to FGIL. To which of the following is EFHK related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    CEDI

  2. BOption (b)

    CEFI

  3. COption (c)

    CDEF

  4. DOption (d)

    CDFI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CDFI

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:​

IJLO is related to GHJM

​ 

​And,

HIKN is related to FGIL

​ 

​Similarly,

EFHK is related to

​ 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 29

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at AB as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 30

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted Line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded? 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 31

CYRF is related to NJCQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GBUM is related to RMFX. To which of the following is CZKP related, following the same logic?  

  1. AOption (a)

    NAKV 

  2. BOption (b)

    NAVK

  3. COption (c)

    NKVA

  4. DOption (d)

    NKAV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NKVA

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

CYRF is related to NJCQ

​ 

​And,

GBUM is related to RMFX

​ 

​Similarly,

CZKP is related to

​ 

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 32

Which of the following letter-clusters can replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

JMD, OHJ, ? , YXV, DSB

  1. AOption (a)

    RST

  2. BOption (b)

    VCP

  3. COption (c)

    TCP

  4. DOption (d)

    AOZ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

TCP

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 33

What would be the Roman numeral on the opposite side of ‘V’ if the given sheet is folded to form a cube? 

  1. AOption (a)

    VIII

  2. BOption (b)

    VI

  3. COption (c)

    X

  4. DOption (d)

    VII

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

VIII

Why this answer is correct

The faces opposite to each other are shown below:

⇒ As the alternate positions become opposite to each other, the remaining two faces become opposite to each other.

So, opposite pairs are:

V → VIII

VI → X

IX → VII

Therefore, 'VIII' is the opposite of 'V'.

Hence, "VIII" is the correct answer.

Question 34

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. 

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(4, 8, 32)

(7, 14, 56)

  1. AOption (a)

    (11, 33, 88) 

  2. BOption (b)

    (11, 33, 77)

  3. COption (c)

    (11, 22, 77) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (11, 22, 88) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(11, 22, 88) 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) + (2nd number × 3) = 3rd number.

Now,

For, (4, 8, 32)

⇒ (4 × 2) + (8 × 3) 

⇒ 8 + 24 = 32.

For, (7, 14, 56)

⇒ (7 × 2) + (14 × 3) 

⇒ 14 + 42 = 56.

Similarly, for (11, 22, 88) 

⇒ (11 × 2) + (22 × 3) 

⇒ 22 + 66 = 88.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 35

In a certain language, ‘protect your health’ is written as ‘Df Bk Tu’ and ‘health is wealth’ is written as ‘Po Tu Le'. How is ‘health’ written in the given language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Tu

  2. BOption (b)

    Df

  3. COption (c)

    Bk

  4. DOption (d)

    Po

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tu

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes 'Tu' is the code for the word 'health'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Tu".

Question 36

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 

[59],[149],[239],[329],[419],?\left[\frac{5}{9}\right], \left[\frac{14}{9}\right], \left[\frac{23}{9}\right], \left[\frac{32}{9}\right], \left[\frac{41}{9}\right], ?

  1. AOption (a)

    [479]\left[\frac{47}{9}\right]

  2. BOption (b)

    [449]\left[\frac{44}{9}\right]

  3. COption (c)

    [509]\left[\frac{50}{9}\right]

  4. DOption (d)

    [519]\left[\frac{51}{9}\right]

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

[509]\left[\frac{50}{9}\right]

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 37

What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

QRS MXB IDK EJT ?

  1. AOption (a)

    AAC

  2. BOption (b)

    APC

  3. COption (c)

    CPA

  4. DOption (d)

    PCA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

APC

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

 

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 38

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and ‘-’ are interchanged and ‘×' and '÷' are interchanged?  

87 ÷ 3 + 35 - 88 × 11 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    232

  2. BOption (b)

    233

  3. COption (c)

    234

  4. DOption (d)

    231

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

234

Why this answer is correct

Given : 87 ÷ 3 + 35 - 88 × 11 = ?

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

87 × 3 - 35 + 88 ÷ 11 = ?

87 × 3 - 35 + 8 = ?

261 + 8 - 35 = ?'

269 - 35 = ?

234 = ?

Hence, "234" is the correct answer.

Question 39

In a certain code language,

A % B means ‘A is the mother of B’

A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’

A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’

A & B means ‘A is the father of B’

Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P & Q % R # S @ T’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wife’s mother’s brother

  2. BOption (b)

    Wife’s father

  3. COption (c)

    Wife’s mother’s father

  4. DOption (d)

    Wife’s brother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wife’s mother’s father

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the Symbols:

Symbol%#@&
MeaningMotherBrotherWifeFather

Given: P & Q % R # S @ T

P & Q → P is the father of Q.

Q % R  → Q is the mother of R.

R # S → R is the brother of S.​

S @ T → S is the wife of T.

Here, P is the wife’s mother’s father of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 40

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    ORT

  2. BOption (b)

    DGH

  3. COption (c)

    JMN

  4. DOption (d)

    UXY

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ORT

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

​Option 1) ORT

Option 2) DGH

Option 3) JMN

Option 4) UXY

Thus, out of all the options 'ORT' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 41

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

86, 88, 90, 92, 94, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    96

  2. BOption (b)

    98

  3. COption (c)

    99

  4. DOption (d)

    97

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

96

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "96" is the correct answer.

Question 42

If 25 August 2006 was Friday, then what was the day of the week on 25 August 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sunday

  2. BOption (b)

    Thursday

  3. COption (c)

    Saturday

  4. DOption (d)

    Wednesday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Saturday

Why this answer is correct

Given: 25 August 2006 was Friday.

Now,

2006 to 2018 = 12 Years (9 Ordinary Years and 3 Leap Years).

And, In 12 Years = 3 Leap years and 9 Ordinary Years.

So, 3 Leap Years have 6 odd days,

And, 9 Ordinary Years have 9 odd days.

Total odd days = 6 + 9 = 15.

15 odd days → 15/7 = 2 weeks and 1 odd day.

then, 25 August 2018 will be Friday + 1 = Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 43

Each of the letters in the word FRANCHISE are arranged from left to right in alphabetical order to form a new word. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is fifth from the left and the one which is third from the right in the newly formed word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five

  2. BOption (b)

    Six

  3. COption (c)

    Seven

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Five

Why this answer is correct

Given word: 'FRANCHISE'

After arranged in alphabetical order:

AlphabetsFRANCHISE
Alphabetical orderACEFHINRS

 

After arranged in alphabetical order,

Fifth alphabet from the left end is: H,

Third alphabet from the right end is: N,

Now,

there are 5 letters between H and N.

HIJKLMN

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 44

In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statements.

Statements:

No rose is an orchid.

All roses are lilies.

All lilies are lotuses.

Conclusions:

I. Some lilies are orchids.

II. Some lotuses are orchids.

III. All lilies are orchids.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both conclusions II and III follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions I and II follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither conclusions I, II nor III follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and III follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither conclusions I, II nor III follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some lilies are orchids → Does not follow (As no rose is an orchid and all roses are lilies. So it is possible but not definite)

II. Some lotuses are orchids → Does not follow (As no rose is an orchid, all roses are lilies and all lilies are lotuses. So it is possible but not definite)

III. All lilies are orchids → Does not follow (As no rose is an orchid, all roses are lilies and all lilies are lotuses. So it is possible but not definite)

∴ Here, Neither conclusions I, II nor III follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusions I, II nor III follows"

Question 45

If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘–’, then the resultant of which of the following will be 421?

  1. AOption (a)

    63 B 7 A 125 D 5 C 5

  2. BOption (b)

    63 C 7 D 125 A 5 B 5 

  3. COption (c)

    63 B 7 D 125 A 5 C 5 

  4. DOption (d)

    63 A 7 D 125 B 5 C 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

63 B 7 D 125 A 5 C 5 

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the information: 

SymbolABCD
Meaning÷×+-

Required resultant: 421

So,​​ checking options one by one

Option 1) 63 B 7 A 125 D 5 C 5

⇒63 × 7 ÷ 125 - 5 + 5

⇒63 × 0.05 - 5 + 5

⇒3.15 + 5 - 5

⇒8.15 - 5 = 3.15

Option 2) 63 C 7 D 125 A 5 B 5 

⇒63 + 7 - 125 ÷ 5 × 5

⇒63 + 7 - 25 × 5

⇒63 + 7 - 125

⇒70 - 125 = -55

Option 3) 63 B 7 D 125 A 5 C 5 

⇒63 × 7 - 125 ÷ 5 + 5

⇒63 × 7 - 25 + 5

⇒441 + 5 - 25

⇒446 - 25 = 421

Option 4) 63 A 7 D 125 B 5 C 5

⇒63 ÷ 7 - 125 × 5 + 5

⇒9 - 125 × 5 + 5

⇒9 + 5 - 625 

⇒14 - 625 = -611

Thus, out of all options, only option - 3 has a resultant of '421'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 46

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged?

125 ÷ 5 + 19 - 190 × 19 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    626

  2. BOption (b)

    606

  3. COption (c)

    616

  4. DOption (d)

    636

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

616

Why this answer is correct

Given : 125 ÷ 5 + 19 - 190 × 19 = ?

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

125 × 5 - 19 + 190 ÷ 19 = ?

125 × 5 - 19 + 10 = ?

625 + 10 - 19 = ?

635 - 19 = ?

616 = ?

Hence, "616" is the correct answer.

Question 47

78 is related to 30 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 67 is related to 26.

To which of the following is 54 related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    28

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

18

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Digit Sum of 1st number × 2) = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 78 : 30

⇒ (7 + 8) = 15 × 2 = 30.

For, 67 : 26

⇒ (6 + 7) = 13 × 2 = 26.

Similarly, for 54 ∶ ?

⇒ (5 + 4) = 9 × 2 = 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 48

Find the number of triangles in the given figure. 

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

The number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

[Number of parts × (1 + Number of parts)] ÷ 2 = Total triangles

= [3 × (1 + 3)] ÷ 2

= [3 × 4] ÷ 2

= 12 ÷ 2

= 6

Here, there are a total of 6 triangles.

Hence, "6" is the correct answer.

Question 49

In a certain code language. ‘mix jaggery well’ is written as ‘rb co ot’ and ‘well done boss’ is written as ‘cx rb op’. How is ‘well’ written in the given language?  

  1. AOption (a)

    ot

  2. BOption (b)

    co

  3. COption (c)

    cx

  4. DOption (d)

    rb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

rb

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

Thus, according to the given codes 'rb' is the code for the word 'well'.

Hence, the correct answer is "rb".

Question 50

identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

1) For the right top corner letter → Replaced by new element subsequently.

  1. For the rest of the letters → Shift in the forward clockwise direction.

Thus, the final series is :

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

The salary of employees in a factory was reduced by 20% due to economic crisis. In order to have their salary back to original amount, it must be raised by:

  1. AOption (a)

    25%

  2. BOption (b)

    20%

  3. COption (c)

    12.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    40%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Salary reduction = 20%

Formula Used:

Required increase percentage = (Reduction %)/(100 - Reduction %) × 100

Calculation:

Reduction percentage = 20%

Required increase percentage = (20)/(100 - 20) × 100

⇒ (20)/(80) × 100

⇒ (1)/(4) × 100

⇒ 25%

∴ The salary must be raised by 25% to get back to the original amount.

Question 52

The number 611611611611 is: (a)divisible by both 6 and 11 (b)neither divisible by 6 nor by 11 (c)divisible by 6 only (d)divisible by 11 only

  1. AOption (a)

    (b)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a)

  3. COption (c)

    (d)

  4. DOption (d)

    (c)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The number is 611611611611.

Formula used:

Divisibility Rules:

  1. A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 2 and 3.
  2. A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits in the odd positions and the sum of the digits in the even positions is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Calculation:

Check for divisibility by 6:

  1. Divisibility by 2: The last digit is 1, which is not even. Hence, 611611611611 is not divisible by 2.
  2. Divisibility by 3: Sum of the digits = 6 + 1 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 1 = 32. Since 32 is not divisible by 3, 611611611611 is not divisible by 3.

Since the number is not divisible by both 2 and 3, it is not divisible by 6.

Check for divisibility by 11:

Sum of digits in odd positions = 6 + 1 + 1 + 6 + 1 + 1 = 16

Sum of digits in even positions = 1 + 6 + 1 + 1 + 6 + 1 = 16

Difference = 16 - 16 = 0

Since the difference is 0, 611611611611 is divisible by 11.

⇒ 611611611611 is divisible by 11 only.

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 53

A right angled triangle of area 600 m2 is to be made such that the hypotenuse is double the base. For the triangle, the hypotenuse is ________ more than the base.

  1. AOption (a)

    24.36 m

  2. BOption (b)

    26.32 m

  3. COption (c)

    22.32 m

  4. DOption (d)

    20.36 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

26.32 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Area of the right-angled triangle = 600 m2

Hypotenuse = 2 × Base

Hypotenuse > Base

Formula used:

Area of right-angled triangle = (1/2) × Base × Height

Pythagoras theorem: Hypotenuse2 = Base2 + Height2

Calculation:

Let the base be b meters.

Height = h meters.

Hypotenuse = 2b meters.

Area = (1/2) × b × h

600 = (1/2) × b × h

⇒ h = 1200 / b

Using Pythagoras theorem:

(2b)2 = b2 + (1200 / b)2

⇒ 4b2 = b2 + 1440000 / b2

⇒ 3b4 = 1440000

⇒ b4 = 480000

⇒ b2 = 692.82

⇒ b = 26.32 m

Hypotenuse = 2 × 26.32 = 52.64 m

Difference between hypotenuse and base = 52.64 - 26.32 = 26.32 m.

Therefore, hypotenuse is 26.32 m more than the base.

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 54

An election was held between two candidates. The winning candidate scored 54% of the valid votes and won by 88 votes. If 58 votes were declared invalid, then find the total number of votes polled in the election.

  1. AOption (a)

    1156

  2. BOption (b)

    1850

  3. COption (c)

    2000

  4. DOption (d)

    1158

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1158

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Difference in vote share = 54% − 46% = 8%

8% of Valid Votes = 88 ⇒ 1% = 11 ⇒ 100% = 1100

Total Votes Polled = Valid Votes + Invalid Votes

Total = 1100 + 58 = 1158

∴ The correct answer is 1158.

Alternate Method

Given:

Winning Candidate share = 54% of Valid Votes

Winning Margin = 88 votes

Invalid Votes = 58

Let the Valid Votes be x.

⇒ Winner's Votes = 54% of x = 0.54x

⇒ Loser's Votes = (100 − 54)% of x = 46% of x = 0.46x

⇒ Margin = 0.54x − 0.46x = 88

⇒ 0.08x = 88

⇒ x = 88 ÷ 0.08

⇒ x = 1100

⇒ Total Votes Polled = x + Invalid Votes

⇒ Total = 1100 + 58 = 1158

∴ The correct answer is 1158.

Additional Information

Vote Classification

Total Polled = Valid + Invalid. Calculations for winning/losing shares are usually based on Valid Votes unless specified otherwise.

Winning Margin

Margin = (Winner's percentage − Loser's percentage) × Total Valid Votes. For 2 candidates, Loser % = 100 − Winner %.

Percentage Change

Base Change: To find total from part, use Value ÷ Percentage. Example: If 8% = 88, then 100% = (88 ÷ 8) × 100.

Question 55

Tom travelled 285 km in 6 hours. In his total travelling, he travelled the first part by bus at 40 km/hr and the remaining part by train at 55 km/hr. How much distance has he travelled by train?

  1. AOption (a)

    165 km

  2. BOption (b)

    155 km

  3. COption (c)

    135 km

  4. DOption (d)

    120 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

165 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total distance = 285 km

Total time = 6 hours

Speed by bus = 40 km/hr

Speed by train = 55 km/hr

Let distance travelled by bus = x km

Formula used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Total time = Time by bus + Time by train

Calculations:

Time by bus = x ÷ 40

Time by train = (285 - x) ÷ 55

Total time = 6 hours

⇒ x ÷ 40 + (285 - x) ÷ 55 = 6

⇒ (55x + 40(285 - x)) ÷ (40 × 55) = 6

⇒ (55x + 11400 - 40x) ÷ 2200 = 6

⇒ (15x + 11400) ÷ 2200 = 6

⇒ 15x + 11400 = 13200

⇒ 15x = 13200 - 11400

⇒ 15x = 1800

⇒ x = 1800 ÷ 15

⇒ x = 120 km

Distance travelled by train = 285 - 120 = 165 km

∴ Distance travelled by train = 165 km

Question 56

What should be added to each term of the ratio 5 : 11 so that the ratio becomes 3 : 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial ratio = 5 : 11

Final ratio = 3 : 5

Formula used:

If each term of the ratio a : b is increased by x, the new ratio becomes (a + x) : (b + x)

Calculations:

Let the number to be added to each term be x.

(5 + x)/(11 + x) = 3/5

⇒ 5(5 + x) = 3(11 + x)

⇒ 25 + 5x = 33 + 3x

⇒ 5x - 3x = 33 - 25

⇒ 2x = 8

⇒ x = 4

∴ The correct number to be added to each term is 4.

Question 57

The volume of rectangular block is 12288 m³. Its dimension are in the ratio of 4 : 3: 2. If the entire surface is polished at the rate 2 paise per m²,then find the total cost of polishing

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 33.28

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 11.14

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 66.56

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 44.42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 66.56

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of dimensions = 4 : 3 : 2 ⇒ Product of ratios = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24.

Ratio constant x3 = 12288 ÷ 24 = 512 ⇒ x = 8.

Dimensions are 32, 24, and 16 m.

Total Surface Area (TSA) = 2 × [32×24 + 24×16 + 16×32] = 2 × 1664 = 3328 m2.

Total Cost = 3328 × 0.02 = Rs. 66.56.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 66.56.

Alternate Method

Given: Volume of the rectangular block = 12288 m3, Ratio of dimensions = 4 : 3 : 2, Polishing rate = 2 paise per m2.

Formula Used: Volume = l × w × h; Total Surface Area (TSA) = 2(lw + wh + hl).

⇒ Let dimensions be 4x, 3x, and 2x.

⇒ Volume = 4x × 3x × 2x = 24x3

⇒ 24x3 = 12288

⇒ x3 = 512 ⇒ x = 8 m

⇒ Length (l) = 32 m, Width (w) = 24 m, Height (h) = 16 m

⇒ TSA = 2(32 × 24 + 24 × 16 + 16 × 32)

⇒ TSA = 2(768 + 384 + 512) = 2 × 1664 = 3328 m2

⇒ Cost = (3328 × 2) paise = 6656 paise

⇒ Total Cost in Rupees = 6656 ÷ 100 = Rs. 66.56

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 66.56.

Additional Information

Cuboid Dimensions

Total Surface Area = 2(lb + bh + hl) and Lateral Surface Area = 2h(l + b).

Volume of Cuboid

The volume of a rectangular prism (cuboid) is given by Length × Breadth × Height.

Diagonal of Cuboid

The length of the longest rod that can be placed in a cuboid is √(l2 + b2 + h2).

Currency Conversion

To convert paise to Rupees, divide the amount by 100 as 1 Rupee = 100 Paise.

Question 58

If tan A + sin A = x, tan A — sin A = y, what is the value of x2 — y2?

  1. AOption (a)

    xy\rm \sqrt{xy}

  2. BOption (b)

    4xy\rm 4\sqrt{xy}

  3. COption (c)

    4xy\rm4\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}}

  4. DOption (d)

    2xy\rm2\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4xy\rm 4\sqrt{xy}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Given x = tan A + sin A and y = tan A − sin A.

Using the identity (a + b)2 − (a − b)2 = 4ab, we get x2 − y2 = 4 tan A sin A.

Since tan2 A − sin2 A = tan2 A sin2 A, it follows that √xy = √(tan2 A − sin2 A) = tan A sin A.

Therefore, x2 − y2 = 4√xy.

∴ The correct answer is 4√xy.

Alternate Method

Given values: x = tan A + sin A and y = tan A − sin A

⇒ Adding both equations: x + y = (tan A + sin A) + (tan A − sin A) = 2 tan A

⇒ Subtracting both equations: x − y = (tan A + sin A) − (tan A − sin A) = 2 sin A

⇒ Calculating x2 − y2: (x + y)(x − y) = (2 tan A)(2 sin A) = 4 tan A sin A

⇒ Calculating xy: (tan A + sin A)(tan A − sin A) = tan2 A − sin2 A

⇒ Simplifying xy: (sin2 A / cos2 A) − sin2 A = sin2 A (1/cos2 A − 1) = sin2 A (sec2 A − 1)

⇒ xy = sin2 A tan2 A

⇒ Taking square root: √xy = sin A tan A

⇒ Substituting back: x2 − y2 = 4(sin A tan A) = 4√xy

By comparing the simplified terms, we find that the expression is equal to 4√xy, which corresponds to Option (2).

∴ The correct answer is 4√xy.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Product-Difference Identity

The identity tan2θ − sin2θ = tan2θ × sin2θ is a specific property used to convert trigonometric differences into products.

Algebraic Identity

The difference of squares formula (a + b)(a − b) = a2 − b2 is fundamental in simplifying expressions involving sum and difference of the same terms.

Pythagorean Relation

The relationship sec2θ − tan2θ = 1 is derived from sin2θ + cos2θ = 1 by dividing the entire equation by cos2θ.

Question 59

My father is presently 25 years older than me. The sum of our ages 5 years ago was 39 years. Find my present age.

  1. AOption (a)

    15 years

  2. BOption (b)

    20 years

  3. COption (c)

    12 years

  4. DOption (d)

    13 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Current Sum of Ages = Sum 5 years ago + (2 × 5 years) = 39 + 10 = 49 years.

The Age Difference remains constant at 25 years.

Age of the younger person (Me) = (Sum − Difference) ÷ 2

My present age = (49 − 25) ÷ 2 = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 years.

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Father is 25 years older than me.

Sum of ages 5 years ago = 39 years.

Let my present age be x years.

Then, father's present age = (x + 25) years.

⇒ Age of me 5 years ago = (x − 5)

⇒ Age of father 5 years ago = (x + 25 − 5) = (x + 20)

⇒ (x − 5) + (x + 20) = 39

⇒ 2x + 15 = 39

⇒ 2x = 39 − 15

⇒ 2x = 24

⇒ x = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12 years.

Additional Information

Age Difference Property

The difference between the ages of two persons remains constant at any point in time (past, present, or future).

Sum of Ages Shift

If the sum of ages of 'n' persons is 'S' today, then 'k' years ago, the sum was S − (n × k).

Ratio Method

For age problems involving ratios, always assume a common variable 'x' (e.g., 3x and 4x) to maintain the proportion during calculations.

Question 60

The marked price of a table lamp is Rs. 2,165. During the festive season, it is sold for Rs. 1,710.35. Find the percentage discount offered.

  1. AOption (a)

    22.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    21%

  3. COption (c)

    20.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    18%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Marked price of a table lamp = ₹2165

Selling price during the festive season = ₹1710.35

Formula used:

Percentage Discount = ((Marked Price - Selling Price))/(Marked Price) × 100

Calculations:

Discount = 2165 - 1710.35

⇒ Discount = 454.65

Percentage Discount = (454.65)/(2165) × 100

⇒ Percentage Discount = 0.21 × 100

⇒ Percentage Discount = 21%

∴ The percentage discount offered is 21%.

Question 61

If the price of a commodity is increased by 36%, by what percentage (rounded off to 1 decimal place) should its consumption be decreased so that the expenditure of the commodity stays the same?

  1. AOption (a)

    36%

  2. BOption (b)

    32%

  3. COption (c)

    26.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    29.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26.5%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The price of a commodity is increased by 36%.

Formula used:

New Price × New Consumption = Old Price × Old Consumption

Calculation:

Let the original price be P and the original consumption be C.

New Price = 1.36P

Let the new consumption be C'.

Since the expenditure remains the same:

⇒ 1.36P × C' = P × C

⇒ C' = (P × C) / (1.36P)

⇒ C' = C / 1.36

Percentage decrease in consumption = ((C - C') / C) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in consumption = (1 - 1 / 1.36) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in consumption = (1 - 0.7353) × 100

⇒ Percentage decrease in consumption ≈ 26.5%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 62

The given chart represents the sales of automobiles in India (by type, in million units) from the year 2011 to 2014. Study the chart and answer the question that follows. 

The percentage increase in the sales in 2013 over the previous year was the maximum for which of the categories of vehicles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Passenger vehicles

  2. BOption (b)

    Two wheelers and Passenger vehicles

  3. COption (c)

    Commercial vehicles

  4. DOption (d)

    Two wheelers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Passenger vehicles

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Two-wheelers sales in 2012 = 13.4 million

Two-wheelers sales in 2013 = 13.8 million

Passenger vehicles sales in 2012 = 2.6 million

Passenger vehicles sales in 2013 = 2.7 million

Commercial vehicles sales in 2012 = 0.8 million

Commercial vehicles sales in 2013 = 0.79 million

Formula used:

Percentage increase = Sales in 2013−Sales in 2012Sales in 2012×100\frac{\text{Sales in 2013} - \text{Sales in 2012}}{\text{Sales in 2012}} \times 100

Calculations:

For Two-wheelers:

⇒ 13.8−13.413.4×100=2.99%\frac{13.8 - 13.4}{13.4} \times 100 = 2.99\%

For Passenger vehicles:

⇒ 2.7−2.62.6×100=3.85%\frac{2.7 - 2.6}{2.6} \times 100 = 3.85\%

For Commercial vehicles:

⇒ 0.79−0.80.8×100=−1.25%\frac{0.79 - 0.8}{0.8} \times 100 = -1.25\%

∴ The maximum percentage increase in sales in 2013 was for Passenger vehicles (3.85%).

Question 63

In ΔABC,D and E are points on sides AB and AC, such that DE∥BC. If AD = x,DB = x - 3,AE = x + 3 and EC = x - 2, then the value of x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    4.0

  2. BOption (b)

    4.5

  3. COption (c)

    5.2

  4. DOption (d)

    4.2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4.5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In ΔABC, D and E are points on sides AB and AC, such that DE∥BC.

AD = x

DB = x - 3

AE = x + 3

EC = x - 2

Formula used:

By the Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales' theorem):

If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides, then it divides those sides in the same ratio.

Calculation:

(AD)/(DB) = (AE)/(EC)

Substitute the given values:

(x)/(x - 3) = (x + 3)/(x - 2)

⇒ x(x - 2) = (x - 3)(x + 3)

⇒ x2 - 2x = x2 - 9

Eliminate x2 from both sides:

⇒ -2x = -9

Divide both sides by -2:

⇒ x = 9/2

⇒ x = 4.5

∴ The value of x is 4.5.

Question 64

What is the area (in square units) of the sector if the radius of the circle is given to be 24 units and the arc length is 7.5 units?

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    180

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    135

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

90

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of the circle = 24 units.

Arc length = 7.5 units.

Formula used:

Area of sector = (Arc length × Radius) / 2

Calculation:

⇒ Area of sector = (7.5 × 24) / 2

⇒ Area of sector = 180 / 2

⇒ Area of sector = 90 square units

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 65

How much simple interest will ₹5,000 earn in 14 months at a 12% interest rate per annum?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹600

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹500

  3. COption (c)

    ₹800

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹700

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹5,000

Time (T) = 14 months = 14/12 years = 7/6 years

Rate of interest (R) = 12% per annum

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

SI = (₹5,000 × 12 × 7/6) / 100

⇒ SI = (₹5,000 × 12 × 7) / (6 × 100)

⇒ SI = (₹5,000 × 2 × 7) / 100

⇒ SI = (₹5,000 × 14) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹70,000 / 100

⇒ SI = ₹700

∴ The simple interest earned is ₹700.

Question 66

Refer to the bar graph below and answer the question that follows.

 

What is the difference between the number of students enrolled in Institute A in 2015 and 2017 and that in Institute B in 2016, 2018 and 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    40

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    150

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

40

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Institute A enrollments:

2015 = 150 students

2017 = 350 students

Institute B enrollments:

2016 = 160 students

2018 = 50 students

2019 = 250 students

Formula used:

Difference = (A enrollments in 2015 + 2017) - (B enrollments in 2016 + 2018 + 2019)

Calculations:

Enrollments in Institute A (2015 and 2017):

⇒ 150 + 350 = 500 students

Enrollments in Institute B (2016, 2018, and 2019):

⇒ 160 + 50 + 250 = 460 students

Difference:

⇒ 500 - 460 = 40 students

∴ The difference is 40 students.

Question 67

X, Yand Z can do a work in 24 days. 5 days and 12 days, respectively. In how many days can they do the same work if they work together?

  1. AOption (a)

    1/24 days

  2. BOption (b)

    7/24 days

  3. COption (c)

    3(1/13) days

  4. DOption (d)

    4 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3(1/13) days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Time taken by X to do the work = 24 days.

Time taken by Y to do the work = 5 days.

Time taken by Z to do the work = 12 days.

Formula used:

Work rate = 1 / Time taken

Combined work rate = Work rate of X + Work rate of Y + Work rate of Z

Time taken when working together = 1 / Combined work rate

Calculation:

Work rate of X = 1 / 24

Work rate of Y = 1 / 5

Work rate of Z = 1 / 12

Combined work rate = (1 / 24) + (1 / 5) + (1 / 12)

To add the fractions, find the LCM of 24, 5, and 12, which is 120.

⇒ Combined work rate = (5 / 120) + (24 / 120) + (10 / 120)

⇒ Combined work rate = (5 + 24 + 10) / 120

⇒ Combined work rate = 39 / 120

Time taken when working together = 1 / (39 / 120)

⇒ Time taken when working together = 120 / 39

⇒ Time taken when working together = 3(1/13) days

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Question 68

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination.

The numbers in the brackets give the maximum marks in each subject. 

StudentSubject (Max. Marks)
MathsChemistryPhysicsGeographyHistoryComputer Science
(150)(130)(120)(100)(60)(40)
Ayush905090607080
Aman1008080408070
Sajal906070709070
Rohit806580806060
Muskan806585955090
Tanvi707565854060
Tarun653550778080

How many students secured a raw score of 135 in Maths?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Maths maximum marks = 150

Raw score in Maths = 135

Formula used:

Raw score = (Percentage × Maximum marks) ÷ 100

Calculations:

For a raw score of 135 in Maths:

⇒ (Percentage × 150) ÷ 100 = 135

⇒ Percentage = (135 × 100) ÷ 150 = 90%

We need to check how many students scored 90% in Maths.

From the table, students who scored 90% in Maths are:

Ayush (90%)

Sajal (90%)

∴ Two students secured a raw score of 135 in Maths.

Question 69

The following bar graph represents the total number of students enrolled and the number of students who got campus placement in six different engineering colleges A, B, C, D, E, and F. Study the graph carefully and answer the question given below:

 

What per cent (correct up to two decimal places) of total enrolled students have got campus placements in colleges A, C, and F?

  1. AOption (a)

    82.78%

  2. BOption (b)

    86.67%

  3. COption (c)

    79.67%

  4. DOption (d)

    77.78%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

77.78%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

College A: Enrolled = 800, Placed = 625

College C: Enrolled = 425, Placed = 325

College F: Enrolled = 350, Placed = 275

Formula used:

Percentage of placed students = Placed studentsTotal enrolled students×100\frac{\text{Placed students}}{\text{Total enrolled students}} \times 100

Calculations:

Total enrolled students in A, C, and F = 800 + 425 + 350 = 1575

Total placed students in A, C, and F = 625 + 325 + 275 = 1225

Percentage of placed students = 12251575×100\frac{1225}{1575} \times 100

⇒ Percentage = 77.78%\

∴ The percentage of students placed in colleges A, C, and F is 77.78%.

Question 70

If \rm \frac{15}{8}+\left[\left{\frac{4}{5}\ of\ \frac{5}{12}\div \left(1\frac{1}{15}\right)\right}\times 1\frac{7}{12}\right] is expressed in the form of ab\rm \frac{a}{b} where a and b are integers and relatively prime to each other, the value 4b — a is:

  1. AOption (a)

    225

  2. BOption (b)

    189

  3. COption (c)

    313

  4. DOption (d)

    164

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

313

Why this answer is correct

Given:

\frac{15}{8}+\left[\left{\frac{4}{5}\ of\ \frac{5}{12}\div \left(1\frac{1}{15}\right)\right}\times 1\frac{7}{12}\right]

Formula used:

Mixed fraction: abc=ac+bc\rm a\frac{b}{c} = \frac{ac+b}{c}

Calculations:

Step 1: Simplify 1115=1615\rm 1\frac{1}{15} = \frac{16}{15}

Step 2: 45 of 512÷1615=45×512×1516=4×5×155×12×16=300960=516\frac{4}{5} \ of \ \frac{5}{12} \div \frac{16}{15} = \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{5}{12} \times \frac{15}{16} = \frac{4 \times 5 \times 15}{5 \times 12 \times 16} = \frac{300}{960} = \frac{5}{16}

Step 3: 516×1712=516×1912=95192\frac{5}{16} \times 1\frac{7}{12} = \frac{5}{16} \times \frac{19}{12} = \frac{95}{192}

Step 4: Add 158+95192=360192+95192=455192\frac{15}{8} + \frac{95}{192} = \frac{360}{192} + \frac{95}{192} = \frac{455}{192}

Step 5: 455192\frac{455}{192} is in its simplest form, where a = 455 and b = 192.

Step 6: Calculate 4b−a=4×192−455=768−455=313\rm 4b - a = 4 \times 192 - 455 = 768 - 455 = 313

∴ The value of 4b - a is 313.

Question 71

If L is the mid-point of side BC of ΔABC and the area of ΔABL is 15 cm2, then the area (in sq cm) of ΔABC is:

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    27

  3. COption (c)

    32

  4. DOption (d)

    25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In any triangle, the median (the line joining a vertex to the mid-point of the opposite side) bisects the area of the triangle into two equal parts.

Since L is the mid-point of BC, AL is the median of ΔABC.

∴ Area of ΔABC = 2 × Area of ΔABL

⇒ Area of ΔABC = 2 × 15 = 30 cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 30 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given: Area of ΔABL = 15 cm2 and L is the mid-point of side BC.

Formula Used: Area of a triangle = (1/2) × base × height. Triangles with the same height have areas proportional to their bases.

Calculations:

⇒ Both ΔABL and ΔALC share the same altitude from vertex A to the line BC.

⇒ Area(ΔABL) / Area(ΔALC) = Base(BL) / Base(LC)

⇒ Since L is the mid-point, BL = LC, which means Base(BL) / Base(LC) = 1.

⇒ Area(ΔALC) = Area(ΔABL) = 15 cm2

⇒ Area(ΔABC) = Area(ΔABL) + Area(ΔALC)

⇒ Area(ΔABC) = 15 + 15 = 30 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 30 cm2.

Additional Information

Centroid Property

The three medians of a triangle intersect at the centroid, dividing the triangle into 6 smaller triangles of equal area.

Area and Base Ratio

If a point D divides the base BC in the ratio m:n, then Area(ΔABD) : Area(ΔADC) = m : n.

Apollonius Theorem

In ΔABC with median AL, the sum of the squares of two sides is: AB2 + AC2 = 2(AL2 + BL2).

Question 72

If 10% of 24% of x is 240,then x = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    100

  2. BOption (b)

    100000

  3. COption (c)

    1000

  4. DOption (d)

    10000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

10% of 24% of x is 240

Formula used:

10% of 24% of x = 240

Calculation:

10% of 24% of x = 240

10% = 10/100 = 0.1

24% = 24/100 = 0.24

10% of 24% of x = 0.1 × 0.24 × x

⇒ 0.1 × 0.24 × x = 240

⇒ 0.024 × x = 240

⇒ x = 240 / 0.024

⇒ x = 10000

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 73

A cylindrical candle, 14 cm in diameter and length 2 cm is melted to form a cuboid candle of dimensions 7 cm × 11 cm × 2 cm. How many cuboidal candles can be obtained?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Diameter of cylindrical candle = 14 cm

Height of cylindrical candle = 2 cm

Dimensions of cuboid candle = 7 cm × 11 cm × 2 cm

Formula used:

Volume of cylinder = πr2h

Volume of cuboid = l × b × h

Number of cuboidal candles = Volume of cylinder / Volume of cuboid

Calculations:

Radius of cylinder (r) = 14 ÷ 2 = 7 cm

Volume of cylinder = π × 72 × 2 = 22/7 × 49 × 2 = 308 cm3

Volume of cuboid = 7 × 11 × 2 = 154 cm3

⇒ Number of cuboidal candles = 308 ÷ 154

⇒ Number of cuboidal candles = 2

∴ 2 cuboidal candles can be obtained.

Question 74

In an obtuse-angled triangle ABC, the length of its longest side AB is 50 cm and one of the other two sides is 42 cm. If the area of the triangle is 294 cm2 , what is the length (in cm) of its third side?

  1. AOption (a)

    15√(21)

  2. BOption (b)

    2√(58)

  3. COption (c)

    12√(43)

  4. DOption (d)

    8√(35)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2√(58)

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Height (h) of the triangle with base 42 cm = (2 × Area) ÷ Base = (2 × 294) ÷ 42 = 14 cm.

In right ΔABD (where D is the projection of B on base line AC), AD = √(502 − 142) = √(2500 − 196) = 48 cm.

Since the triangle is obtuse and AB is the longest side, vertex C lies between A and D.

Distance CD = AD − AC = 48 − 42 = 6 cm.

Third side BC = √(BD2 + CD2) = √(142 + 62) = √(196 + 36) = √232 = 2√58 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 2√58 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Longest side (c) = AB = 50 cm

Side (b) = AC = 42 cm

Area = 294 cm2

Formula Used:

Area of triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Pythagoras Theorem: Side2 = Height2 + Base2

A C B D 42 cm 50 cm h = 14 6 Obtuse Triangle ABC

Calculations:

⇒ Let AC be the base. Area = 1/2 × AC × h

⇒ 294 = 1/2 × 42 × h

⇒ h = 294 ÷ 21 = 14 cm (Height BD)

⇒ In right-angled ΔABD, AD2 + BD2 = AB2

⇒ AD2 + 142 = 502

⇒ AD2 = 2500 − 196 = 2304

⇒ AD = √2304 = 48 cm

⇒ Since ΔABC is obtuse at C, D lies outside AC. CD = AD − AC

⇒ CD = 48 − 42 = 6 cm

⇒ In right-angled ΔBCD, BC2 = BD2 + CD2

⇒ BC2 = 142 + 62 = 196 + 36 = 232

⇒ BC = √232 = √(4 × 58) = 2√58 cm

∴ The correct answer is 2√58 cm.

Additional Information

Obtuse Triangle Condition

For a triangle with sides a, b, and longest side c, it is obtuse if c2 > a2 + b2.

Area of Triangle (Heron's Formula)

Area = √(s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)), where s = (a+b+c)/2 is the semi-perimeter.

Cosine Rule

For any triangle, c2 = a2 + b2 − 2ab cos(C). If C > 90°, cos(C) is negative, making c2 > a2 + b2.

Question 75

The average of 50 numbers is 23. If each number is multiplied by 13, then the new average is:

  1. AOption (a)

    219

  2. BOption (b)

    299

  3. COption (c)

    650

  4. DOption (d)

    88

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

299

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average of 50 numbers = 23.

Each number is multiplied by 13.

Formula used:

New average = Old average × Multiplier

Calculation:

Old average = 23

Multiplier = 13

⇒ New average = 23 × 13

⇒ New average = 299

∴ The new average is 299.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

original constitution did NOT mention any fundamental duty because:

  1. AOption (a)

    it was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties forcefully

  2. BOption (b)

    it was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties willingly

  3. COption (c)

    initially fundamental duties were punishable as per the constitution

  4. DOption (d)

    initially fundamental duties were not expected to be performed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

it was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties willingly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is it was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties willingly

Key Points

  • The original Constitution of India did not mention any fundamental duty because it was expected that the citizens of the country would perform their duties willingly.
  • Fundamental Duties were later added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • These duties are enshrined in Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A.
  • The duties emphasize the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
  • Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains three lists which delineate the subjects under the Union, State, and Concurrent lists.
  • Amendments to the Constitution can be made through a process outlined in Article 368.
  • The Union List has been amended several times to meet the evolving needs of the nation.

Question 77

Which of the following is the fastest way to open the Help window in Microsoft Word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Type ‘help’ in the search bar and then, press Enter

  2. BOption (b)

    Press F1

  3. COption (c)

    Click the Help button on the ribbon

  4. DOption (d)

    Click the Microsoft Office button and then, click Help

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Press F1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Press F1

Key Points

  • Press F1 is the fastest way to open the Help window in Microsoft Word.
  • The F1 key is a common standard across many software applications to bring up the help documentation or support window.
  • Using keyboard shortcuts like F1 can improve productivity and efficiency when working with software applications.
  • Other methods to access help may involve more steps or require navigating through menus, making F1 the quickest option.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Word is a widely used word processing application developed by Microsoft as part of the Microsoft Office suite.
  • It offers a variety of features for creating, editing, formatting, and sharing documents.
  • Knowing keyboard shortcuts can significantly enhance the user experience and streamline workflows.
  • Aside from F1 for help, other useful shortcuts include Ctrl+C for copy, Ctrl+V for paste, and Ctrl+Z for undo.

Question 78

Who was the first person to conduct a systematic study of chromosomes during division and called this process mitosis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

  2. BOption (b)

    Thomas Hunt Morgan

  3. COption (c)

    Walther Flemming

  4. DOption (d)

    Friedrich Miescher 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Walther Flemming

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Walther Flemming

Key Points

  • Walther Flemming was the first person to conduct a systematic study of chromosomes during cell division.
  • He coined the term mitosis to describe the process of cell division.
  • Flemming's work laid the foundation for the field of cytogenetics, which studies the structure and function of chromosomes.
  • His meticulous observations and detailed drawings of dividing cells provided critical insights into the mechanisms of heredity and cell reproduction.

Additional Information

  • Antonie van Leeuwenhoek is known for his pioneering work in microscopy and for being the first to observe and describe microorganisms.
  • Thomas Hunt Morgan was a geneticist who won the Nobel Prize for his work on the role of chromosomes in heredity.
  • Friedrich Miescher is credited with the discovery of nucleic acids, which he initially called "nuclein."
  • Mitosis is a critical process for growth, development, and tissue repair in multicellular organisms.
  • Understanding mitosis has significant implications for cancer research, as uncontrolled cell division is a hallmark of cancer.

Question 79

According to the Census of India 2011, which of the following states has the largest Buddhist population?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra

Key Points

  • Maharashtra has the largest Buddhist population according to the Census of India 2011.
  • Buddhism in Maharashtra has a significant presence due to the mass conversion of Dalits to Buddhism led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1956.
  • The state is home to numerous Buddhist sites and monuments, including the famous Ajanta and Ellora caves.
  • The Buddhist population in Maharashtra forms a considerable percentage of the total Buddhist population in India.

Additional Information

  • Buddhism is a religion and dharma that encompasses a variety of traditions, beliefs, and spiritual practices largely based on teachings attributed to the Buddha.
  • The Census of India 2011 is the 15th Indian Census and provides detailed information about the demographic profile of India's population.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, a social reformer and the chief architect of the Indian Constitution, converted to Buddhism along with his followers, which significantly boosted the Buddhist population in Maharashtra.
  • The state government of Maharashtra has undertaken various initiatives to preserve and promote Buddhist heritage and culture.
  • Maharashtra's Buddhist community actively participates in festivals like Buddha Purnima and Ambedkar Jayanti.

Question 80

Which of the following hills is located in the Eastern most part of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jaintia Hills

  2. BOption (b)

    Garo Hills

  3. COption (c)

    Khasi Hills

  4. DOption (d)

    Patkai Bum Hills

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Patkai Bum Hills

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Patkai Bum Hills

Key Points

  • Patkai Bum Hills are located in the easternmost part of India, along the India-Myanmar border.
  • The hills are part of a mountain range that extends from Arunachal Pradesh in India to Myanmar.
  • The region is known for its rich biodiversity and dense forests.
  • The Patkai range is also referred to as the Purvanchal Hills in India.

Additional Information

  • Jaintia Hills, Garo Hills, and Khasi Hills are located in the state of Meghalaya in northeastern India.
  • The Jaintia Hills are known for their limestone caves and are located to the east of the Khasi Hills.
  • The Garo Hills are located in western Meghalaya and are known for their scenic beauty and tribal culture.
  • The Khasi Hills are located in central Meghalaya and are known for their rich cultural heritage and matrilineal society.
  • The Patkai Bum Hills are significant for their strategic location and ecological importance.

Question 81

Who captained India to victory in the 2011 Cricket World Cup final win over Sri Lanka? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sourav Ganguly 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rahul Dravid 

  3. COption (c)

    Mahendra Singh Dhoni 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sachin Tendulkar  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mahendra Singh Dhoni 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mahendra Singh Dhoni

Key Points

  • Mahendra Singh Dhoni captained India to victory in the 2011 Cricket World Cup final against Sri Lanka.
  • The final match was held at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai on April 2, 2011.
  • India won the match by six wickets, chasing down Sri Lanka's target of 275 runs.
  • Dhoni played a crucial role in the victory, scoring an unbeaten 91 runs and hitting the winning six.
  • This victory marked India's second Cricket World Cup win, the first being in 1983.

Additional Information

  • Mahendra Singh Dhoni, commonly known as MS Dhoni, is one of the most successful captains in Indian cricket history.
  • Under his captaincy, India also won the ICC T20 World Cup in 2007 and the ICC Champions Trophy in 2013.
  • Dhoni is known for his calm demeanor, strategic acumen, and finishing abilities in high-pressure situations.
  • He received numerous accolades for his captaincy and contributions to Indian cricket, including the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan awards.
  • Dhoni announced his retirement from international cricket on August 15, 2020.

Question 82

With reference to ‘Saila dance’ consider the following statements and select the correct option.

a) A group comprising of male performers.

b) The dance is performed with bamboo sticks.

c) It is performed after the cutting of crops.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both b and c

  2. BOption (b)

    Both a and b

  3. COption (c)

    Both a and c

  4. DOption (d)

    a, b, c

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a, b, c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a, b, c

Key Points

  • Saila dance is performed by a group comprising of male performers.
  • The dance involves the use of bamboo sticks.
  • It is performed after the cutting of crops.

Additional Information

  • Saila dance is a traditional folk dance from the Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
  • It is also known as the Stick Dance due to the use of bamboo sticks during the performance.
  • The dance is typically performed by young boys and men to celebrate post-harvest festivities.
  • The rhythmic clashing of the sticks and coordinated movements are key features of the dance.

Question 83

Which of the following measures can be adopted by the government to reduce revenue deficit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Offering freebies

  2. BOption (b)

    Increasing subsidies

  3. COption (c)

    Tax reforms

  4. DOption (d)

    Increasing money supply

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tax reforms

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tax reforms

Key Points

  • Tax reforms are crucial measures that can help the government reduce revenue deficits.
  • By implementing effective tax reforms, the government can increase its revenue without necessarily increasing tax rates.
  • Tax reforms can include broadening the tax base, improving tax compliance, and reducing tax evasion.
  • Improved tax administration and the introduction of modern technology in tax collection processes can also contribute significantly to reducing revenue deficits.

Additional Information

  • Offering freebies and increasing subsidies may lead to higher government expenditure, potentially worsening the revenue deficit.
  • Increasing money supply can lead to inflationary pressures and is not a sustainable solution for revenue deficits.
  • Effective tax reforms can make the tax system more efficient and equitable, thus boosting government revenue without imposing undue burdens on taxpayers.
  • Governments around the world have successfully reduced revenue deficits through comprehensive tax reforms.

Question 84

Which British colonel is remembered as the Butcher of Amritsar for his role in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reginald Dyer

  2. BOption (b)

    Robert Clive

  3. COption (c)

    William Slim

  4. DOption (d)

    William Birdwood

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Reginald Dyer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reginald Dyer

Key Points

  • Reginald Dyer is remembered as the Butcher of Amritsar for his role in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919.
  • The massacre took place on April 13, 1919, when Dyer ordered his troops to fire on a peaceful gathering of men, women, and children.
  • Hundreds of people were killed and many more were injured in this tragic event.
  • The massacre was a turning point in India's struggle for independence and significantly contributed to the rise of the Indian independence movement.
  • Dyer's actions were widely condemned both in India and internationally, leading to his eventual removal from duty.

Additional Information

  • The Jallianwala Bagh massacre is considered one of the most brutal acts of colonial repression in India.
  • The event galvanized Indian leaders and the public to demand greater self-governance and ultimately complete independence from British rule.
  • It led to the non-cooperation movement led by Mahatma Gandhi, which was a significant step towards India's independence.
  • In 2019, the British government expressed "deep regret" over the massacre, although it stopped short of a formal apology.
  • The Jallianwala Bagh site in Amritsar is now a national memorial and a symbol of the sacrifices made in the fight for Indian independence.

Question 85

Which function is used to calculate the maximum value in a selected column in MS Excel?

  1. AOption (a)

    Max

  2. BOption (b)

    Auto max

  3. COption (c)

    Auto high

  4. DOption (d)

    High

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Max

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Max

Key Points

  • Max is the function used to calculate the maximum value in a selected column in MS Excel.
  • The Max function returns the largest value from a set of values.
  • It is commonly used in data analysis to determine the highest value in a dataset.
  • The function syntax is =MAX(number1, [number2], ...), where number1, number2, etc., are the values or range of cells you want to evaluate.

Additional Information

  • MS Excel is a spreadsheet program included in the Microsoft Office suite of applications.
  • It allows users to organize, format, and calculate data with formulas using a spreadsheet system broken up by rows and columns.
  • Excel is widely used for financial and statistical analysis, data visualization, and complex calculations.
  • Other common functions in Excel include SUM, AVERAGE, MIN, and IF.
  • Advanced users can leverage features like PivotTables, VLOOKUP, and macros to automate tasks and analyze large datasets efficiently.

Question 86

In Equestrian sports, ______ occurs when a horse or rider lowers an element of a jump that establishes the height of an obstacle. 

  1. AOption (a)

    canter

  2. BOption (b)

    curb

  3. COption (c)

    knockdown

  4. DOption (d)

    clean round

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

knockdown

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is knockdown

Key Points

  • Knockdown occurs when a horse or rider lowers an element of a jump that establishes the height of an obstacle in equestrian sports.
  • This typically results in penalties for the rider, affecting their overall score in the competition.
  • A knockdown is often caused by the horse's legs hitting the jump or the rider's mistakes in guiding the horse over the obstacle.
  • It is a common term used in show jumping and other equestrian events involving jumps.

Additional Information

  • Equestrian sports include a variety of disciplines such as show jumping, dressage, eventing, and more.
  • In show jumping, riders and their horses are required to jump a series of obstacles within a set time.
  • Penalties are given for faults such as knockdowns, refusals, and exceeding the time limit.
  • The goal is to complete the course with the fewest penalties and the fastest time.
  • Proper training and understanding between the rider and horse are crucial for success in these events.

Question 87

In cricket, a fast, head-high delivery of the ball is referred to as ________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    grubber

  2. BOption (b)

    bouncer

  3. COption (c)

    duck

  4. DOption (d)

    leg-bye

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

bouncer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is bouncer

Key Points

  • A bouncer is a type of fast, short-pitched delivery in cricket that reaches the batsman at head height.
  • This delivery is used primarily by fast bowlers to intimidate the batsman or to induce a mistake.
  • The bouncer is a strategic delivery aimed at disrupting the batsman's concentration and forcing them into a defensive position.
  • It can be a potent weapon in the bowler's arsenal when used effectively.

Additional Information

  • Grubber: A delivery that stays very low after bouncing.
  • Duck: A term used when a batsman gets out without scoring any runs.
  • Leg-bye: Runs scored when the ball hits the batsman's body without hitting the bat.
  • In cricket, various types of deliveries and terms are used to describe different aspects of the game, each having its own significance and strategic importance.

Question 88

The Press and Registration of Books (PRB) Act was enacted in which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    1857

  2. BOption (b)

    1877

  3. COption (c)

    1867

  4. DOption (d)

    1887

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1867

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1867

Key Points

  • The Press and Registration of Books (PRB) Act was enacted in the year 1867.
  • The Act regulates the printing presses and newspapers and makes registration with an appointed authority compulsory for all printing presses.
  • It aims to ensure that the government can keep track of the publications and the publishers in the country.
  • The Act has provisions to penalize non-compliance and ensure that the printed material adheres to certain standards and does not incite violence or hatred.

Additional Information

  • The PRB Act is one of the oldest regulations in India, reflecting the colonial government's concern with controlling the press.
  • Over the years, several amendments have been made to the Act to address the changing dynamics of the publishing industry and the rise of digital media.
  • The Act continues to be relevant today, although there are calls for its modernization to better suit the current media landscape.

Question 89

From which book is the national song of India compiled?

  1. AOption (a)

    Katha Upanishad

  2. BOption (b)

    Mandukya Upanishad

  3. COption (c)

    Anand Math

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharat Bharti 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Anand Math

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anand Math

Key Points

  • The national song of India, "Vande Mataram," is taken from the book Anand Math.
  • Anand Math is a Bengali novel written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
  • The song "Vande Mataram" was written in Sanskrit and Bengali.
  • It played a vital role in the Indian independence movement and was first sung by Rabindranath Tagore in 1896.
  • The novel Anand Math was published in 1882 and is set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century.

Additional Information

  • The national song status was conferred on "Vande Mataram" by the Constituent Assembly of India on 24 January 1950.
  • Bankim Chandra Chatterjee was one of the earliest graduates of the University of Calcutta and a prominent figure in the literary renaissance of Bengal.
  • The song is known for its patriotic fervor and has been a source of inspiration for many freedom fighters.
  • It consists of six stanzas, but usually, only the first two are sung during official events.
  • The song's lyrics praise the motherland and evoke a sense of devotion and pride among the citizens of India.

Question 90

Every year in the month of February, this camel festival is organised by Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation in __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Barmer 

  2. BOption (b)

    Jodhpur 

  3. COption (c)

    Bikaner

  4. DOption (d)

    Jaisalmer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bikaner

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bikaner

Key Points

  • The camel festival is organized every year in February by the Rajasthan Tourism Development Corporation.
  • This festival takes place in Bikaner, Rajasthan.
  • The festival includes various events such as camel races, camel dances, and other cultural performances.
  • Bikaner, known for its historical importance and cultural heritage, becomes a hub of activities during the festival.

Additional Information

  • The Camel Festival in Bikaner is a significant event that attracts tourists from all over the world.
  • Rajasthan is known for its rich culture, and festivals like these showcase the traditional lifestyle of the region.
  • Bikaner is also famous for its forts, palaces, and temples, adding to the attraction for visitors during the festival.

Question 91

In which of the following liquids would anthracene dissolve easily?

  1. AOption (a)

    Water

  2. BOption (b)

    Benzene

  3. COption (c)

    Methane

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium chloride 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Benzene

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Benzene

Key Points

  • Anthracene is a polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon.
  • It is non-polar in nature.
  • According to the principle of "like dissolves like", non-polar solutes dissolve well in non-polar solvents.
  • Benzene is a non-polar solvent.
  • Therefore, anthracene would dissolve easily in benzene.

Additional Information

  • Water is a polar solvent and would not dissolve non-polar substances like anthracene well.
  • Methane is a gas at room temperature and is not used as a solvent for dissolving solids.
  • Sodium chloride is an ionic compound and would not dissolve non-polar substances like anthracene.
  • Choosing the appropriate solvent is crucial in chemical processes and experiments to ensure proper dissolution and reaction.

Question 92

Who among the following is related to Hindustani classical singing?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mallikarjun Mansur

  2. BOption (b)

    Aruna Sairam

  3. COption (c)

    Srinavasa Iyer

  4. DOption (d)

    Ramanuj Iyengar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mallikarjun Mansur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mallikarjun Mansur

Key Points

  • Mallikarjun Mansur is a renowned figure in Hindustani classical music.
  • He was known for his unique style and contribution to the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana of Hindustani classical music.
  • His renditions of ragas and his innovative approach to music have left a lasting legacy.

Additional Information

  • Aruna Sairam is a prominent Carnatic vocalist, not associated with Hindustani classical music.
  • Srinavasa Iyer and Ramanuj Iyengar are also known for their contributions to Carnatic music.
  • Hindustani classical music and Carnatic music are the two main traditions of Indian classical music, with distinct styles and origins.
  • Mallikarjun Mansur has received numerous awards, including the Padma Vibhushan, for his contributions to Indian classical music.

Question 93

In March 2023, the Uttarakhand government had approved how much horizontal reservation for statehood activists in state government jobs?

  1. AOption (a)

    15%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    8%

  4. DOption (d)

    5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10%

Key Points

  • The Uttarakhand government approved a 10% horizontal reservation for statehood activists in state government jobs in March 2023.
  • This reservation is aimed at recognizing and rewarding the contributions of those who were involved in the movement for Uttarakhand's statehood.
  • Horizontal reservation is a category of reservation that cuts across all vertical reservations like SC, ST, OBC, etc., and is provided to specific groups such as women, differently-abled persons, and in this case, statehood activists.
  • This initiative is part of the state government's efforts to honor the sacrifices and contributions of the statehood activists.

Additional Information

  • The state of Uttarakhand was formed on 9th November 2000, becoming the 27th state of the Republic of India.
  • The movement for statehood was marked by various protests and agitations, particularly in the 1990s, demanding a separate state to address the distinct socio-cultural and economic issues of the region.
  • Horizontal reservations ensure that the benefits of reservation are extended to specific groups across all categories, enhancing inclusivity and representation.
  • The decision to provide reservation to statehood activists reflects the government's commitment to acknowledging historical contributions and promoting social justice.

Question 94

According to Census 2011, which union territory recorded the highest female literacy rate in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lakshadweep 

  2. BOption (b)

    Chandigarh

  3. COption (c)

    Puducherry

  4. DOption (d)

    Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lakshadweep 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lakshadweep

Key Points

  • Lakshadweep recorded the highest female literacy rate among Union Territories in India according to Census 2011.
  • The female literacy rate in Lakshadweep was significantly higher compared to other Union Territories.
  • Female literacy is a crucial indicator of social development and empowerment.
  • Efforts to improve female literacy involve enhancing access to education, providing scholarships, and creating awareness about the importance of education for girls.
  • High female literacy rates contribute to better health, economic growth, and social stability.

Additional Information

  • Census 2011 provides a comprehensive overview of the demographic, social, and economic status of the population in India.
  • The Census data helps in formulating policies and programs aimed at improving literacy and education.
  • It also highlights the need for targeted interventions in regions with lower literacy rates.
  • Improving female literacy is linked to achieving broader goals of gender equality and women's empowerment.
  • Government initiatives such as Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan aim to enhance female literacy rates across the country.

Question 95

Which star is also known as the ‘Pole Star’?

  1. AOption (a)

    The North star

  2. BOption (b)

    The West star

  3. COption (c)

    The South star 

  4. DOption (d)

    The East star 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The North star

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The North star

Key Points

  • Polaris, also known as the North Star, is the star located almost directly above the Earth's North Pole.
  • It is part of the constellation Ursa Minor and is the brightest star in this constellation.
  • The North Star is a crucial point of navigation in the Northern Hemisphere.
  • Unlike other stars, Polaris appears to stay in a fixed position in the sky, making it a reliable point of reference for determining direction.

Additional Information

  • Polaris is actually a triple star system, consisting of the main star, Polaris A, and two smaller companions, Polaris B and Polaris Ab.
  • The star is approximately 433 light-years away from Earth.
  • Due to its alignment with the Earth's rotational axis, Polaris has been used by navigators and explorers for centuries.
  • In ancient times, Polaris was not always the Pole Star. The title shifts over millennia due to the precession of the Earth's axis.

Question 96

Who amongst the following Delhi Sultanate rulers sent his army under Malik Kafur’s command to conquer South India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alauddin Khilji

  2. BOption (b)

    Ghiyas-ud-din Balban

  3. COption (c)

    Qutub-al-din Aibak

  4. DOption (d)

    Iltutmish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alauddin Khilji

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alauddin Khilji

Key Points

  • Alauddin Khilji was a prominent ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who reigned from 1296 to 1316.
  • He is known for his military conquests and administrative reforms.
  • Alauddin Khilji sent his trusted general, Malik Kafur, to lead expeditions to South India.
  • Under Malik Kafur's command, the army successfully raided several kingdoms in the Deccan and South India, including the Yadavas, Kakatiyas, and Hoysalas.
  • These expeditions were significant as they brought immense wealth to the Delhi Sultanate and expanded its influence to the southern regions of India.

Additional Information

  • Ghiyas-ud-din Balban was a ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who focused more on consolidating power in the north rather than expanding southward.
  • Qutub-al-din Aibak was the founder of the Delhi Sultanate and laid the foundation for future rulers but did not engage in significant southern expeditions.
  • Iltutmish was another significant ruler who consolidated the Sultanate's power in the north and built the administrative framework but did not send expeditions to South India.
  • The Delhi Sultanate was a series of dynasties that ruled northern India from the 13th to the 16th centuries, with significant contributions to Indian culture, architecture, and administration.

Question 97

Who among the following is NOT associated with the Green Revolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chidambaram Subramaniam

  2. BOption (b)

    MS Swaminathan

  3. COption (c)

    P Chidambaram

  4. DOption (d)

    Norman Borlaug

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

P Chidambaram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is P Chidambaram

Key Points

  • Chidambaram Subramaniam, MS Swaminathan, and Norman Borlaug are notable figures associated with the Green Revolution.
  • Chidambaram Subramaniam played a key role in the introduction and promotion of high-yielding variety seeds and modern agricultural techniques in India.
  • MS Swaminathan is known as the "Father of the Green Revolution in India" for his significant contributions to the development and dissemination of high-yielding crop varieties.
  • Norman Borlaug was an American agronomist whose work on high-yielding wheat varieties earned him the Nobel Peace Prize and had a global impact on food production.
  • P Chidambaram, on the other hand, is a prominent Indian politician and lawyer who has served as the Finance Minister and Home Minister of India, but is not associated with the Green Revolution.

Additional Information

  • The Green Revolution refers to a set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that took place between the 1940s and the late 1960s, which increased agriculture production worldwide, particularly in developing countries.
  • In India, the Green Revolution led to an increase in food grain production, especially in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh, transforming India from a food-deficient to a food-surplus country.
  • The success of the Green Revolution in India is attributed to the combined efforts of the government, scientists, and farmers, along with international support and collaboration.

Question 98

Which group of states was concentrated in the cotton production in the early years to develop textile industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab and Haryana

  2. BOption (b)

    Bihar and West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra and Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal and Odisha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra and Gujarat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Gujarat

Key Points

  • Maharashtra and Gujarat were the states concentrated in cotton production in the early years to develop the textile industry.
  • The favorable climate and soil conditions in these regions made them ideal for cotton cultivation.
  • These states were home to some of the earliest and most significant textile mills in India, contributing substantially to the country's textile industry.
  • The cities of Mumbai (in Maharashtra) and Ahmedabad (in Gujarat) became major centers for the textile industry.
  • These regions continue to play a crucial role in India's textile sector, which is a significant part of the nation's economy.

Additional Information

  • The textile industry in India is one of the oldest industries and has a strong presence in the national economy.
  • India is one of the largest producers of cotton and cotton yarn in the world.
  • The industry provides employment to millions of people, especially in rural areas.
  • Textile exports are a significant source of foreign exchange earnings for the country.
  • The Indian government has implemented various policies and schemes to support and promote the textile industry.

Question 99

Thee 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of Indian Constitution was passed in the year ________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    1978

  2. BOption (b)

    1977

  3. COption (c)

    1979

  4. DOption (d)

    1976

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1976

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1976

Key Points

  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution was passed in the year 1976.
  • This amendment is also known as the Mini-Constitution due to the extensive changes it brought to the Constitution of India.
  • It was enacted during the Emergency period and brought about several significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble.
  • The 42nd Amendment also curtailed the power of judicial review and made substantial changes to the legislative and executive powers at both the central and state levels.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains three lists which delineate the subjects under the Union, State, and Concurrent lists.
  • Amendments to the Constitution can be made through a process outlined in Article 368.
  • The 42nd Amendment has been a subject of much debate and has had a lasting impact on the Indian political and legal landscape.

Question 100

MLAs in which of the following states/UTs received an increase of about 66% in salaries and allowances w.e.f. 14 February 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Lakshadweep

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Delhi

Key Points

  • Delhi MLAs received an increase of about 66% in salaries and allowances effective from 14 February 2023.
  • This increase includes various components such as basic salary, constituency allowance, and communication allowance among others.
  • The decision was taken to ensure that the compensation reflects the responsibilities and duties of the MLAs.
  • Such increments aim to provide better financial security and encourage dedicated public service.

Additional Information

  • Delhi is a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly.
  • The Assembly was established in 1993, and it has the power to legislate on matters except public order, police, and land.
  • The Chief Minister of Delhi is the head of the government, and the Lieutenant Governor is the representative of the President of India in Delhi.
  • Periodic revisions in the salaries and allowances of MLAs help in maintaining their financial well-being and enabling them to perform their duties efficiently.

100 questions in the full paper