Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier-1 2024: Official Paper (Held On: 11 Jul, 2024 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The teacher will / certainly help you / if you will / ask her.

  1. AOption (a)

    ask her

  2. BOption (b)

    if you will

  3. COption (c)

    The teacher will

  4. DOption (d)

    certainly help you

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

if you will

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • In conditional sentences, the word "if" is followed by the simple present tense, not "will".
  • The correct phrase should be "if you ask her," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Thus, the error is located in part 2 of the sentence.

Correct Sentence: "The teacher will certainly help you if you ask her."

 

Additional Information

  • 1: "ask her," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 3: "The teacher will," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • 4: "certainly help you," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part 2.

Question 2

The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

My Vice-Chancellor works / eighteen hours / a day, / seven days week.

  1. AOption (a)

    seven days week.

  2. BOption (b)

    My Vice-Chancellor works

  3. COption (c)

    eighteen hours

  4. DOption (d)

    a day,

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

seven days week.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the omission of the article "a" before the term "week."
  • Singular countable nouns typically require an article ("a" or "an").
  • The correct phrase should be "seven days a week," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Thus, the error is located in Option 1 of the sentence.

Correct Sentence: "My Vice-Chancellor works eighteen hours a day, seven days a week."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "My Vice-Chancellor works" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 3: "eighteen hours" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • Option 4: "a day" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in Option 1.

Question 3

Identify the error in the tense of the sentence and select the option that correctly rectifies the error.

Between two evils, I always picks the one I have never tried before.

  1. AOption (a)

    Between two evils, I always picking the one I have never tried before.

  2. BOption (b)

    Between two evils, I always is picking the one I have never tried before.

  3. COption (c)

    Between two evils, I always pick the one I have never tried before

  4. DOption (d)

    Between two evils, I always picked the one I have never tried before.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Between two evils, I always pick the one I have never tried before

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the verb "picks" which should be in the base form to match the subject "I."
  • The correct form of the verb should be "pick" to agree with the subject "I" in the present simple tense.
  • The correct sentence should be "Between two evils, I always pick the one I have never tried before" ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Between two evils, I always pick the one I have never tried before."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Between two evils, I always picking the one I have never tried before." - This option is incorrect because "picking" is not the correct verb form to use with "I always".
  • Option 2: "Between two evils, I always is picking the one I have never tried before." - This option is incorrect because "is picking" is not the correct verb form to use with "I always".
  • Option 4: "Between two evils, I always picked the one I have never tried before." - This option is incorrect because "picked" is in the past tense, which does not fit the context.
  • No error - This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in the verb form.

Question 4

The following sentence has been divided into three segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.

It was possible to achieve anything, / if one has the grit and determination / to keep going.

  1. AOption (a)

    No error

  2. BOption (b)

    to keep going.

  3. COption (c)

    if one has the grit and determination

  4. DOption (d)

    It was possible to achieve anything, 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It was possible to achieve anything, 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the inconsistency in verb tense.
  • The phrase "It was possible" is in the past tense, while the phrase "if one has" is in the present tense.
  • For the sentence to be grammatically correct, the tenses should be consistent.
  • Thus, the error is located in part A of the sentence.

Correct Sentence: "It is possible to achieve anything, if one has the grit and determination to keep going."

 

Additional Information

  • B: "if one has the grit and determination" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • C: "to keep going." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
  • No error – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part A.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. 

Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on 1. Organic agriculture also generates income through exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a 2. Studies across countries have shown that organically grown food has more nutritional value than chemical farming, thus providing us with healthy foods. Since organic farming requires more labour input than 3 farming, India will find organic farming an attractive______4_. Finally, the produce is pesticide-free and produced in an environmentally 5 way.

Question 5

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    loss 

  2. BOption (b)

    investment

  3. COption (c)

    expenditure 

  4. DOption (d)

    profit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

investment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • The term "generate good returns on" is commonly followed by the word "investment" because it implies that the benefits gained are a result of the resources (money, time, effort) put into organic agriculture.
  • The options "loss", "expenditure", and "profit" do not fit as appropriately in the context of returns on resources allocated.
  • Using "investment" helps maintain clarity and accurately reflects the idea of gaining benefits from the resources used in organic agriculture.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 (investment).

 

Correct Sentence: "Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment."

 

Additional Information

  • Moving forward in the passage, other blanks should also be filled contextually to ensure the overall passage makes coherent sense.
  • This approach helps in understanding how each blank fits within the context of the surrounding text.
  • Consistently using appropriate words to fill blanks ensures readability and comprehensibility of the entire passage.

Question 6

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    rise

  2. BOption (b)

    growth

  3. COption (c)

    stagnation

  4. DOption (d)

    decline

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

rise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "is on a" suggests a movement or trend, implying an upward trend in the context of demand for organically grown crops.
  • "Rise" is the most appropriate choice as it clearly denotes an increase in demand.
  • "Growth" could also be a suitable option but "rise" aligns better with the context of an increase in demand.
  • "Stagnation" and "decline" are negative terms that contradict the context of the passage about the increasing demand for organic products.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'rise.'

 

Correct Sentence: "Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment. Organic agriculture also generates income through exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise."

Question 7

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    insipid

  2. BOption (b)

    mechanical

  3. COption (c)

    conventional 

  4. DOption (d)

    rigorous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

conventional 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The context of the passage contrasts "organic farming" with another type of farming. The term "conventional farming" refers to the traditional methods of farming that use chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and other non-organic inputs.
  • The other options, "insipid", "mechanical", and "rigorous", do not specifically describe traditional farming practices.
  • "Conventional farming" accurately highlights the difference being addressed and is the most contextually appropriate term.

Therefore, the correct answer is: conventional

 

Correct Sentence: "Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment. Organic agriculture also generates income through exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise. Studies across countries have shown that organically grown food has more nutritional value than chemical farming, thus providing us with healthy foods. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming........."

Question 8

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    obstacle

  2. BOption (b)

    proposition 

  3. COption (c)

    challenge

  4. DOption (d)

    burden

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

proposition 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

 

Key Points

  • The context suggests that India will find organic farming appealing or favorable, thus making it an attractive proposal or proposition rather than a difficulty or hindrance.
  • "Proposition" is the most appropriate choice as it denotes a business idea or plan that is likely to be beneficial or viable.
  • The other options, "obstacle", "challenge", and "burden", have negative connotations which do not fit the context of finding organic farming attractive.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 (proposition).

 

Correct Sentence: "Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment. Organic agriculture also generates income through exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise. Studies across countries have shown that organically grown food has more nutritional value than chemical farming, thus providing us with healthy foods. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming, India will find organic farming an attractive proposition."

Question 9

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

  1. AOption (a)

    innovative

  2. BOption (b)

    harmful 

  3. COption (c)

    sustainable

  4. DOption (d)

    destructive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

sustainable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The context of the passage emphasizes the environmental benefits of organic farming. Therefore, the term used should reflect a positive impact on the environment.
  • "Sustainable" is the most appropriate choice as it suggests practices that do not deplete resources or harm ecological balance, aligning with the concept of organic farming.
  • The other options, "innovative," "harmful," and "destructive," do not fit the positive environmental context indicated in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 (sustainable).

 

Correct Sentence: "Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment. Organic agriculture also generates income through exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise. Studies across countries have shown that organically grown food has more nutritional value than chemical farming, thus providing us with healthy foods. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming, India will find organic farming an attractive proposition. Finally, the produce is pesticide-free and produced in an environmentally sustainable way."

Question 10

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Peter was the last to know that she had been cheating of him.

  1. AOption (a)

    cheating in him

  2. BOption (b)

    cheating on him

  3. COption (c)

    cheating up him

  4. DOption (d)

    cheat of him 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cheating on him

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "cheating" means acting dishonestly or unfairly in order to gain an advantage, especially in a game or examination. (धोखा देना)
  • Example: He was caught cheating during the exam.
  • "Cheating on him" refers to being unfaithful to him in a romantic relationship. (धोखा देना)
  • Example: She was cheating on him with his best friend.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Cheating in him (उसमें धोखा देना): This phrase is grammatically incorrect and does not convey a meaningful sense in English.
  • Cheating up him (उसके ऊपर धोखा देना): This phrase is also grammatically incorrect and not used in standard English.
  • Cheat of him (उससे धोखा देना): This phrase could imply depriving him of something through deceit, but it is not the correct usage in the context of romantic unfaithfulness.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The guard did not want anything bad to happen, so he ordered the group to step back to avoid anything ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    terrible

  2. BOption (b)

    habitual 

  3. COption (c)

    diplomatic

  4. DOption (d)

    customary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

terrible

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "terrible" means extremely bad or serious. (बहुत बुरा या गंभीर)
  • Example: The earthquake caused terrible destruction in the city.
  • Hence, the word 'terrible' is appropriate in the context to describe something bad that the guard wants to avoid. (बहुत बुरा या गंभीर)
  • Example: The guard did not want anything bad to happen, so he ordered the group to step back to avoid anything terrible.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'terrible'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Habitual (आदतन): Done regularly or repeatedly, often without thinking.
  • Example: His habitual tardiness is starting to annoy his colleagues.
  • Diplomatic (राजनयिक): Involving diplomacy or diplomats; tactful.
  • Example: She was very diplomatic in her response to avoid offending anyone.
  • Customary (प्रथागत): According to the customs or usual practices associated with a particular society, place, or set of circumstances.
  • Example: It is customary to shake hands when meeting someone for the first time.

Question 12

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and complete the sentence.

You just wait in the lobby. I will be back after _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    a quick shower

  2. BOption (b)

    a quick food

  3. COption (c)

    a fast shower

  4. DOption (d)

    a fast meal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a quick shower

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "quick" means something that is done or occurring in a short time; fast. (जल्दी)
  • Example: She took a quick glance at her watch and realized she was late.
  • "Shower" refers to a brief period of rain or a bath in which water is sprayed on the body. (स्नान)
  • Example: After the workout, he felt refreshed after a quick shower.
  • Hence, the phrase 'a quick shower' is appropriate for the context of the sentence, implying a short duration for the shower.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'a quick shower'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 2: a quick food (जल्दी खाना): This phrase is incorrect because 'food' is not typically preceded by 'quick' in this context. Instead, we might say 'a quick meal'.
  • Example: She grabbed a quick meal before heading to the meeting.
  • Option 3: a fast shower (तेज स्नान): While this phrase is grammatically correct, 'quick shower' is more commonly used in English.
  • Example: He always takes a fast shower in the morning.
  • Option 4: a fast meal (तेज खाना): This phrase is also grammatically correct, but 'quick meal' is more commonly used.
  • Example: They had a fast meal before the movie started.

Question 13

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.

The film was made in Botswana, whose wildlife parks is larger to those in Kenya.

  1. AOption (a)

    are large than

  2. BOption (b)

    No substitution required 

  3. COption (c)

    as large than

  4. DOption (d)

    are larger than

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

are larger than

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect comparison phrase "is larger to".
  • When comparing sizes, the correct phrase is "are larger than".
  • The correct phrase should be "whose wildlife parks are larger than those in Kenya".
  • Thus, the error is located in the underlined segment of the sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "The film was made in Botswana, whose wildlife parks are larger than those in Kenya.

Question 14

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.

Neither Janki or I am to receive the award.

  1. AOption (a)

    nor

  2. BOption (b)

    either

  3. COption (c)

    no

  4. DOption (d)

    not

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

nor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect conjunction "or" used in place of "nor."
  • In the construction "neither... nor," "nor" should be used instead of "or."
  • The correct phrase should be "Neither Janki nor I am to receive the award," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "Neither Janki nor I am to receive the award."

 

Additional Information

  • Neither... nor: This pair of conjunctions is used to connect two negative alternatives.
  • Correct Verb Agreement: When using "neither... nor," the verb should agree with the subject closer to the verb. In this case, "I am" is correct.
  • Common Mistake: A common mistake is using "or" instead of "nor" with "neither."

Question 15

Select the correctly spelt word. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Quintessintial 

  2. BOption (b)

    Quintesential 

  3. COption (c)

    Quientessential

  4. DOption (d)

    Quintessential

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quintessential

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4)

Key Points

  • The word "quintessential" means representing the most perfect or typical example of a quality or class. (सर्वोत्कृष्ट)
  • Example: She is the quintessential example of a hardworking student.
  • "Quintessential" refers to the most perfect or typical example of something. (सर्वोत्कृष्ट)
  • Example: He is considered the quintessential hero in modern literature.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Quintessential.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Quintessintial (सर्वोत्कृष्ट): This is an incorrect spelling.
  • Quintesential (सर्वोत्कृष्ट): This is an incorrect spelling.
  • Quientessential (सर्वोत्कृष्ट): This is an incorrect spelling.

Question 16

Select the most appropriate homophones to fill in the blanks.

I ________ that he has been promoted to the post of _____ officer.

  1. AOption (a)

    heard; ceiling

  2. BOption (b)

    herd; sealing

  3. COption (c)

    heard; sealing

  4. DOption (d)

    herd; ceiling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

heard; sealing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

 

Key Points

  • The homophone "heard" refers to perceiving sound, which fits the context of the sentence.
  • The homophone "sealing" refers to closing or securing something, which is appropriate for the context of the post of an officer.
  • Option 3 correctly uses both homophones to complete the sentence meaningfully.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "I heard that he has been promoted to the post of sealing officer."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "heard; ceiling" – While "heard" is correct, "ceiling" does not fit the context of the officer's post.
  • Option 2: "herd; sealing" – "Herd" refers to a group of animals and is incorrect in this context.
  • Option 4: "herd; ceiling" – Both words are incorrect in this context.
  • Option 5: – This option is invalid as it is incomplete or missing.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Anxiety

  1. AOption (a)

    Ease

  2. BOption (b)

    Serenity

  3. COption (c)

    Distress

  4. DOption (d)

    Dilemma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Distress

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "Anxiety" means a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome. (चिंता)
  • Example: She felt a surge of anxiety before her job interview.
  • "Distress" refers to extreme anxiety, sorrow, or pain. (कष्ट)
  • Example: The news of the accident caused her great distress.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Distress.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Ease (आसानी): The absence of difficulty or effort.
  • Example: She completed the task with ease.
  • Serenity (शांति): The state of being calm, peaceful, and untroubled.
  • Example: The serenity of the mountains was breathtaking.
  • Dilemma (दुविधा): A situation in which a difficult choice has to be made between two or more alternatives.
  • Example: She faced a dilemma about whether to accept the job offer.

Question 18

Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

He has recovered now and is feeling too strong to walk.

  1. AOption (a)

    too weak to walk

  2. BOption (b)

    weak enough to walk

  3. COption (c)

    strong enough to walk

  4. DOption (d)

    strong to walk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

strong enough to walk

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "too" means to a higher degree than is desirable, permissible, or possible; excessively. (बहुत)
  • Example: He was too tired to continue the journey.
  • "Strong enough" means having sufficient strength to perform an action. (पर्याप्त मजबूत)
  • Example: She is strong enough to lift the heavy box.

Hence, the phrase should be "strong enough to walk" instead of "too strong to walk".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: too weak to walk (चलने के लिए बहुत कमजोर): This means not having enough strength to walk.
  • Example: After the illness, he was too weak to walk.
  • Option 2: weak enough to walk (चलने के लिए पर्याप्त कमजोर): This phrase is incorrect as it contradicts itself.
  • Example: This option does not make logical sense.
  • Option 4: strong to walk (चलने के लिए मजबूत): This phrase is grammatically incorrect.
  • Example: He is strong enough to walk.

Question 19

Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.

Every piece of furniture in her house is in apple-pie order.

  1. AOption (a)

    Painted in light colours

  2. BOption (b)

    Very neatly arranged

  3. COption (c)

    Kept in a disorganised wa

  4. DOption (d)

    Very delicately arranged

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Very neatly arranged

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The idiom "in apple-pie order" means very neatly and tidily arranged. (बहुत साफ-सुथरा और व्यवस्थित)
  • Example: After cleaning the house, everything was in apple-pie order.
  • Very neatly arranged refers to something that is organized in a tidy and orderly fashion. (बहुत ही व्यवस्थित रूप से रखा हुआ)
  • Example: All the files on his desk were very neatly arranged.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Very neatly arranged.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Painted in light colours (हल्के रंगों में रंगा हुआ): Refers to something that has been painted using light shades.
  • Example: The walls of her room are painted in light colours.
  • Kept in a disorganised way (अव्यवस्थित तरीके से रखा हुआ): Refers to something that is not arranged neatly.
  • Example: His books were kept in a disorganised way on the shelf.
  • Very delicately arranged (बहुत ही नाजुक तरीके से रखा हुआ): Refers to something that is arranged with great care and delicacy.
  • Example: The flowers were very delicately arranged in the vase.

Question 20

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Queer

  1. AOption (a)

    Eccentric

  2. BOption (b)

    Fantastic

  3. COption (c)

    Ordinary

  4. DOption (d)

    Doubtful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ordinary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3)

Key Points

  • The word "queer" means something that is strange, odd, or unusual. (अजीब)
  • Example: He felt a queer sensation in his stomach before the speech.
  • "Ordinary" refers to something that is normal, usual, or commonplace. (साधारण)
  • Example: She led a very ordinary life, without any major surprises.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'queer' is 'ordinary'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Eccentric (अजीब): Unconventional and slightly strange.
  • Example: His eccentric behavior made him the talk of the town.
  • Fantastic (अद्भुत): Extraordinarily good or attractive.
  • Example: The movie was fantastic and exceeded all our expectations.
  • Doubtful (संदेहास्पद): Feeling uncertain about something.
  • Example: I am doubtful about the success of this plan.

Question 21

Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling from the options.

Psycology developed as a significant discipline of study in the twentieth century.

  1. AOption (a)

    Pcychology

  2. BOption (b)

    Pscichology

  3. COption (c)

    Psychology

  4. DOption (d)

    Pscycology 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Psychology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. 'Psychology'.

Key Points

  • The word "Psycology" is an incorrect spelling of the word "Psychology".
  • Psychology refers to the scientific study of the human mind and its functions, especially those affecting behavior in a given context. (मनोविज्ञान)
  • Example: She decided to major in psychology because she wanted to understand how people think and behave.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Psychology.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Pcychology (मनोविज्ञान): Incorrect spelling of "Psychology".
  • Example: N/A
  • Pscichology (मनोविज्ञान): Incorrect spelling of "Psychology".
  • Example: N/A
  • Pscycology (मनोविज्ञान): Incorrect spelling of "Psychology".
  • Example: N/A

Question 22

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

I left the job because of a hostile working environment.

  1. AOption (a)

    Morose

  2. BOption (b)

    Friendly

  3. COption (c)

    Violent

  4. DOption (d)

    Rustic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Friendly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The word "hostile" means unfriendly, antagonistic, or adverse. (शत्रुतापूर्ण)
  • Example: The negotiations were difficult due to the hostile attitude of the other party.
  • "Friendly" refers to being kind, pleasant, and supportive. (मित्रवत)
  • Example: The new neighbors were very friendly and made us feel at home.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'hostile' is 'friendly'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Morose (उदास): Sullen and ill-tempered.
  • Example: He became morose and withdrawn after the accident.
  • Violent (हिंसक): Using or involving physical force intended to hurt, damage, or kill someone or something.
  • Example: The protest turned violent after the police arrived.
  • Rustic (ग्रामीण): Relating to the countryside; rural.
  • Example: The rustic charm of the village attracted many tourists.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To throw dust in one’s eyes

  1. AOption (a)

    To talk in an abusive language

  2. BOption (b)

    To mislead someone by tricks

  3. COption (c)

    To hit someone with stone

  4. DOption (d)

    To make someone blind forever

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To mislead someone by tricks

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2)

Key Points

  • The idiom "To throw dust in one’s eyes" means to mislead or deceive someone by tricks or false information. (किसी को धोखा देना)
  • Example: The conman threw dust in the old man's eyes by pretending to be a bank officer.
  • Mislead refers to causing someone to have a wrong idea or impression about something. (गुमराह करना)
  • Example: The advertisement was designed to mislead consumers about the product's benefits.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To mislead someone by tricks.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: To talk in an abusive language (गाली देना)
  • Example: He was known to talk in an abusive language whenever he got angry.
  • Option 3: To hit someone with stone (किसी को पत्थर से मारना)
  • Example: The angry mob decided to hit the thief with stones.
  • Option 4: To make someone blind forever (किसी को हमेशा के लिए अंधा कर देना)
  • Example: The accident made him blind forever.

Question 24

Select the most appropriate homophones to fill in the blanks.

It was against her ________ to earn more _________ than that decided by the board of directors.

  1. AOption (a)

    principle, profit

  2. BOption (b)

    principle; prophet

  3. COption (c)

    principal; prophet 

  4. DOption (d)

    principal; profit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

principle, profit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

 

Key Points

  • The word "principle" refers to a fundamental truth or proposition that serves as the foundation for a system of belief or behavior.
  • "Profit" refers to the financial gain made in a transaction.
  • The other options do not correctly fit the context of the sentence.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "It was against her principle to earn more profit than that decided by the board of directors."

 

Additional Information

  • Principle is often confused with principal, which can mean a person who has controlling authority or is a leading performer.
  • Profit should not be confused with prophet, which refers to a person regarded as an inspired teacher or proclaimer of the will of God.
  • Understanding the context of the sentence helps in choosing the correct homophones.

Question 25

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Contaminate’ from the given sentence.

Crews were requested to purify the system since a brain-eating amoeba was discovered in the drinking water.

  1. AOption (a)

    purify

  2. BOption (b)

    requested

  3. COption (c)

    discovered

  4. DOption (d)

    system

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

purify

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1)

Key Points

  • The word "contaminate" means to make something impure by exposure to or addition of a poisonous or polluting substance. (प्रदूषित करना)
  • Example: Industrial waste can contaminate water sources, making them unsafe for drinking.
  • "Purify" refers to the process of making something clean and free from contaminants. (शुद्ध करना)
  • Example: To ensure safe drinking water, it is essential to purify it by removing harmful substances.

Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'contaminate' is 'purify'.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Requested (अनुरोध किया): To ask for something politely or formally.
  • Example: She requested extra time to complete the project.
  • Discovered (खोजा): To find something or someone unexpectedly or during a search.
  • Example: The scientist discovered a new species of plant.
  • System (प्रणाली): A set of connected things or parts forming a complex whole.
  • Example: The computer system needs an upgrade to function efficiently.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word NUCLEAR is arranged in the alphabetical order?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One

Why this answer is correct

Given word: 'NUCLEAR'

After arranged in alphabetical order:

AlphabetsNUCLEAR
Alphabetical orderACELNRU

 

Now,

there is One alphabet "L" will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word 'NUCLEAR' is arranged in English alphabetical order.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 27

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(25, 8, 11)

(28, 8, 12)

  1. AOption (a)

    (15, 5, 8)

  2. BOption (b)

    (17, 7, 8) 

  3. COption (c)

    (42, 6, 21) 

  4. DOption (d)

    (22, 13, 19)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(17, 7, 8) 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number + 2nd number) ÷ 3 = 3rd number.

Now,

For, 25, 8, 11:

⇒ (25 + 8) ÷ 3 = 33 ÷ 3 = 11.

For, 28, 8, 12:

⇒ (28 + 8) ÷ 3 = 36 ÷ 3 = 12.

Similarly, for Option 2: 17, 7, 8:

⇒ (17 + 7) ÷ 3 = 24 ÷ 3 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 28

13 is related to 156 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 22 is related to 264. To which of the following is 31 related following the same logic?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    374

  2. BOption (b)

    376

  3. COption (c)

    372

  4. DOption (d)

    370

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

372

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number × 2) + 4 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 13 : 156

⇒ (13 × 12) = 156.

For, 22 : 264

⇒ (22 × 12) = 264.

Similarly, for 31 ∶ ?

⇒ (31 × 12) = 372.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 29

CEHM is related to YADI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IKNS is related to EGJO. To which of the following is OQTY related, following the same logic?

  1. AOption (a)

    KOPU

  2. BOption (b)

    KMPU

  3. COption (c)

    KNPU

  4. DOption (d)

    KNOU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

KMPU

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:​

CEHM is related to YADI

​ 

​And,

IKNS is related to EGJO

​ 

​Similarly,

OQTY is related to

​ 

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 30

In a certain code language. ‘DARK’ is coded as ‘3975’ and ‘READ’ is coded as '5873’. How is 'K’ coded in the given language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: No specific pattern is followed here, random digits are assigned to each letter of the word.

‘DARK’ is coded as ‘3975’

LettersD / A / RK
Codes3 / 7 / 59

And,

‘READ’ is coded as '5873’

LettersD / A / RD
Codes3 / 7 / 58

As 'D', 'A', and 'R' are common, therefore it can be concluded that :

K is coded as → 9

So, the code for 'K' is '9'.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 31

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and ‘×' and '÷' are interchanged? 

17 ÷ 4 - 28 + 125 × 5 =?

  1. AOption (a)

    71

  2. BOption (b)

    73

  3. COption (c)

    72

  4. DOption (d)

    74

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

71

Why this answer is correct

Given : 17 ÷ 4 - 28 + 125 × 5 =?

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

17 × 4 + 28 - 125 ÷ 5 =?

17 × 4 + 28 - 25 = ?

68 + 28 - 25 = ?

96 - 25 = ?

71 = ?

Hence, "71" is the correct answer.

Question 32

A square sheet of paper is folded along the dotted Line successively along the directions shown and is then punched in the last. How would the paper look when unfolded? 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given figure:

The figure will appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Question 33

Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related io each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)

Compress : Expand

  1. AOption (a)

    Limit : Boundless 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hopeful : Optimistic 

  3. COption (c)

    Observe : Notice  

  4. DOption (d)

    Defend : Protect 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Limit : Boundless 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Opposites.

Here,

Compress : Expand → Compress and Expand are opposites.

Similarly,

Limit : Boundless → Limit and Boundless are opposites.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 34

In a certain code language, 'TWIN' is coded as 2359 and ‘WING’ is coded as 5302. What is the code for ‘T' in the given code language?  

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is: No specific pattern is followed here, random digits are assigned to each letter of the word.

'TWIN' is coded as 2359

LettersW / I / NT
Codes2 / 3 / 59

And,

‘WING’ is coded as 5302

LettersW / I / NG
Codes2 / 3 / 50

Therefore it can be concluded that :

T is coded as → 9

So, the code for 'T' is '9'.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 35

Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed). 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, the given figure is embedded in option Figure - 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 36

Identify the figure in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :

1) For the left top and bottom number series → (5) is added to each number subsequently.

  1. For the right corner number series → (10) is added to each number subsequently.

Thus, the final series is :

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 37

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at AB.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 38

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    JNP

  2. BOption (b)

    HKM

  3. COption (c)

    RVX

  4. DOption (d)

    CGI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

HKM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) JNP​

Option 2) HKM

Option 3) RVX

Option 4) CGI

Thus, out of all the options 'HKM' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 39

Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN, as shown. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 40

Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 41

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

800 400 480 240 320 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    200

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    180

  4. DOption (d)

    160

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

160

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

 

Hence, "160" is the correct answer.

Question 42

How many rectangles are there in the figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    More than 17

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    17

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

More than 17

Why this answer is correct

The number of rectangles in the given figure is shown below :

Here, as marked there are a total of 18 rectangles.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 43

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

JIG_KG_U_EGZM_GE

  1. AOption (a)

    NGMC

  2. BOption (b)

    NGCL

  3. COption (c)

    PGMC

  4. DOption (d)

    PGLC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PGLC

Why this answer is correct

Given: JIG_KG_U_EGZM_GE

By checking options :

Option 1) NGMC → JIGNKGGUMEGZMCGE → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)  

Option 2) NGCL → JIGNKGGUCEGZMLGE → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)

Option 3) PGMC → JIGPKGGUMEGZMCGE → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)

Option 4) PGLC → JIGPKGGULEGZMCGE → (It follows the pattern of:

So, out of all the options "Option - (4)" follows the pattern.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 44

If 18 January 2013 was Friday, then what was the day of the week on 19 December 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thursday

  2. BOption (b)

    Sunday

  3. COption (c)

    Saturday

  4. DOption (d)

    Wednesday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sunday

Why this answer is correct

Given: 18 January 2013 was Friday.

Now,

2013 to 2021 = 8 Years (6 Ordinary Years and 2 Leap Years).

And, In 8 Years = 2 Leap years and 6 Ordinary Years.

So, 2 Leap Years have 4 odd days,

And, 6 Ordinary Years have 6 odd days.

Total odd days = 4 + 6 = 10.

10 odd days → 10/7 = 1 week and 3 odd days.

then, 18 January 2021 will be Friday + 3 = Monday.

Now, the number of days between 18 January 2021 to 19 December 2021

= 13(January) + 28(February) + 31(March) + 30(April) + 31(May) + 30(June) + 31(July) + 31(August) + 30(September) + 31(October) + 30(November) + 19(December) = 335 days.

= 335 days → 335/7 = 47 weeks and 6 odd day.

So, 19 December 2021 will be Monday + 6 = Sunday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 45

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

a _ z b _ y c _ x _ a z _ b y c c _ a a _ b b _ c c x _ a z _ b y _ c x

  1. AOption (a)

    bacabzxyabc

  2. BOption (b)

    bacazbxyacb

  3. COption (c)

    acbacxzyabc

  4. DOption (d)

    abcabxzyabc

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

abcabxzyabc

Why this answer is correct

Given : a _ z b _ y c _ x _ a z _ b y c c _ a a _ b b _ c c x _ a z _ b y _ c x

By checking options :

Option 1) bacabzxyabc → a b z b a y c c x a a z b b y c c z a a x b b y c c x a a z b b y c c x → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)  

Option 2) bacazbxyacb → a b z b a y c c x a a z z b y c c b a a x b b y c c x a a z c b y b c x → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)

Option 3) acbacxzyabc → a a z b c y c b x a a z c b y c c x a a z b b y c c x a a z b b y c c x → (It doesn't Follow the pattern)

Option 4) abcabxzyabc → a a z b b y c c x a a z b b y c c x a a z b b y c c x a a z b b y c c x → (It follows the pattern of: aazbbyccx - aazbbyccx - aazbbyccx - aazbbyccx)

So, out of all the options "Option - (4)" follows the pattern.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Question 46

If ‘A’ stands for '÷', 'B’ stands for ‘×', 'C; stands for ‘+' and 'D' stands for ‘-', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?  

5 B 5 C 216 A 9 D 3 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    23

  2. BOption (b)

    64

  3. COption (c)

    46

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

46

Why this answer is correct

Given Equation: 5 B 5 C 216 A 9 D 3 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetABCD
Meaning÷×+-

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 5 × 5 + 216 ÷ 9 - 3 = ?

⇒ 5 × 5 + 24 - 3 = ?

⇒ 25 + 24 - 3 = ?

⇒ 49 - 3 = 46.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

Question 47

Three statements are followed by conclusions numbered I, II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement. 

Statements:

All ground is wind.

Some tables are ground.

All wind is earth.

Conclusion (I): No tables are earth.

Conclusion (II): All earth is ground.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion (I) follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion (II) follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. No tables are earth → Does not follow (As all ground is wind, some tables are ground and all wind is earth. As no direct relation is given between tables and earth therefore no table are earth is false.)

II. All earth is ground → Does not follow (As all ground is wind and all wind is earth. So, it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows"

Question 48

In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,

‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

Based on the above, how is K related to P if ‘J ÷ K + L × O – P’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother’s sister

  3. COption (c)

    Sister

  4. DOption (d)

    Father’s sister 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Father’s sister 

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the Symbols:

Symbol+–×÷
MeaningSisterBrotherfatherDaughter

Given: J ÷ K + L × O – P 

J ÷ K → J is the daughter of K.

K + L  → K is the sister of L.

L × O → L is the father of O.​

O – P → O is the brother of P.

Here, K is the parental aunt or father's sister of P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 49

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if '+' and '-’ are interchanged and ‘×' and ‘÷’ are interchanged?  

24 ÷ 9 + 182 × 13 - 2 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    238

  2. BOption (b)

    172

  3. COption (c)

    224

  4. DOption (d)

    204

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

204

Why this answer is correct

Given : 24 ÷ 9 + 182 × 13 - 2 = ?

According to the question, after replacing the signs :

‘+’ and ‘-’ are interchanged 

‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

So,​​

24 × 9 - 182 ÷ 13 + 2 = ?

24 × 9 - 14 + 2 = ?

216 + 2 - 14 = ?

218 - 14 = ?

204 = ?

Hence, "204" is the correct answer.

Question 50

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

50, 51, 54, 55, 58, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    59

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    64

  4. DOption (d)

    62

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

59

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

 

Hence, "59" is the correct answer.

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

The cost price of a fan is Rs. 4,400. A merchant wants to make a 24% profit by selling it. At the time of sale, merchant declares a discount of 12% on the marked price. Find the marked price.  

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 6,200

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 2,600

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2,060

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. .6,020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 6,200

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹4,400

Profit Percentage = 24%

Discount Percentage = 12%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + Profit Percentage/100)

Marked Price (MP) = SP / (1 - Discount Percentage/100)

Calculation:

SP = 4400 × (1 + 24/100)

⇒ SP = 4400 × 1.24

⇒ SP = 5456

MP = 5456 / (1 - 12/100)

⇒ MP = 5456 / 0.88

⇒ MP = 6200

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 52

Study the following graph and answer the question that follows.

The following bar graph shows the percentage profit earned by two companies A and B over the given years. 

The incomes of two companies A and B in 2006 were in the ratio 3 : 4, respectively. What was the respective ratio of their expenditures in 2006?

  1. AOption (a)

    14 : 19

  2. BOption (b)

    7 : 22

  3. COption (c)

    15 : 22

  4. DOption (d)

    27 : 35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

15 : 22

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Incomes of companies A and B in 2006 are in the ratio 3:4

Profit percentage for Company A in 2006 = 65%

Profit percentage for Company B in 2006 = 50%

Formula used:

Profit % = (Income - Expenditure) / Expenditure × 100

Calculations:

Let the incomes of Company A and Company B be 3x and 4x respectively.

Step 1: For Company A

65 = (3x - Expenditure of A) / Expenditure of A × 100

⇒ 0.65 × Expenditure of A = 3x - Expenditure of A

⇒ 1.65 × Expenditure of A = 3x

⇒ Expenditure of A = 3x / 1.65

Step 2: For Company B

50 = (4x - Expenditure of B) / Expenditure of B × 100

⇒ 0.50 × Expenditure of B = 4x - Expenditure of B

⇒ 1.50 × Expenditure of B = 4x

⇒ Expenditure of B = 4x / 1.50

Step 3: Ratio of Expenditures

Ratio = (3x / 1.65) : (4x / 1.50)

⇒ Ratio = (3 × 1.50) : (4 × 1.65)

⇒ Ratio = 4.5 : 6.6

⇒ Ratio = 15 : 22

∴ The ratio of expenditures of Company A and Company B in 2006 is 15:22.

Question 53

In two successive years, 75 and 50 employees of a company appeared at the departmental examination. Respectively, 84% and 52% of them passed. The average rate of pass percentage is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    41%

  2. BOption (b)

    71%

  3. COption (c)

    4115%41\frac{1}{5}\%

  4. DOption (d)

    7115%71\frac{1}{5}\%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7115%71\frac{1}{5}\%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In two successive years, 75 and 50 employees of a company appeared at the departmental examination. Respectively, 84% and 52% of them passed.

Formula used:

Average rate of pass percentage = (Total passed candidates)(Total candidates)×100\dfrac{(Total\ passed\ candidates)}{(Total\ candidates)} \times 100

Calculation:

Total passed candidates in first year = 75 × 0.84 = 63

Total passed candidates in second year = 50 × 0.52 = 26

Total passed candidates = 63 + 26 = 89

Total candidates = 75 + 50 = 125

Average rate of pass percentage = 89125×100\dfrac{89}{125} \times 100

⇒ Average rate of pass percentage = 7115%71\frac{1}{5}\%%

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 54

The surface area of a spherical ball is 1386 cm2 . What will be its volume?

  1. AOption (a)

    4825 cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    4800 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    4851 cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    5000 cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4851 cm3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The surface area of a spherical ball is 1386 cm2.

Formula used:

Surface Area of Sphere, S = 4πr2

Volume of Sphere, V = (4/3)πr3

Calculation:

1386 = 4πr2

⇒ r2 = 1386 / (4π)

⇒ r2 = 1386 / (4 × 3.14)

⇒ r2 ≈ 110.49

⇒ r ≈ √110.49

⇒ r ≈ 10.51 cm

Now, Volume, V = (4/3)πr3

⇒ V = (4/3) × 3.14 × (10.51)3

⇒ V ≈ (4/3) × 3.14 × 1159.39

⇒ V ≈ 4851 cm3

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Question 55

The table shows the percentage distribution of the population (only male and female) according to Gender and Literacy. 

StatePercentage literateGender
LiterateIlliterate
M : FM : F
A555 : 64 : 5
B721 : 13 : 2
C784 : 33 : 2

If state B has 7 crore people, then the number of illiterate females in the state is:

  1. AOption (a)

    117.6 lakhs

  2. BOption (b)

    78.4 lakhs

  3. COption (c)

    201.6 lakhs

  4. DOption (d)

    130.67 lakhs 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

78.4 lakhs

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total population of State B = 7 crores = 700 lakhs

Percentage literate in State B = 72%

Male:Female ratio of illiterates = 3:2

Formula used:

Illiterate population = (100% - literate%) × total population

Calculation:

Illiterate population = (100 - 72)% × 700 lakhs

⇒ Illiterate population = 28% × 700 lakhs = 196 lakhs

Female illiterate population = 2/(3+2) × 196 lakhs

⇒ Female illiterate population = 2/5 × 196 = 78.4 lakhs

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 56

Two circles of radii 3 units and r units, respectively, have a 6 units distance between their centers. If the length of the direct common tangent is 35\sqrt35 units, then the value of r is ________ units.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of the first circle = 3 units

Radius of the second circle = r units

Distance between centers = 6 units

Length of the direct common tangent = √35 units

Formula used:

Length of direct common tangent = √(d2 - (r1 - r2)2)

Calculation:

√35 = √(62 - (3 - r)2)

⇒ 35 = 36 - (3 - r)2

⇒ (3 - r)2 = 36 - 35 = 1

⇒ 3 - r = ±1

⇒ r = 3 + 1 = 4 units OR

⇒ r = 3 - 1 = 2 units

So, the circle radius can be 2 units or 4 units. Since 2 units is not in the option, the correct answer will be 4 units.

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 57

Find the mean proportion to 0.72 and 2.85 (round up to one decimal place). 

  1. AOption (a)

    0.4

  2. BOption (b)

    2.8

  3. COption (c)

    0.7

  4. DOption (d)

    1.4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1.4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Numbers: 0.72 and 2.85

Formula used:

Mean Proportion = √(a × b)

Calculation:

Mean Proportion = √(0.72 × 2.85)

⇒ Mean Proportion = √(2.052)

⇒ Mean Proportion ≈ 1.4 (rounded to one decimal place)

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 58

ΔABC ∼ ΔEDF and area (ΔABC) :area (ΔEDF) = 1 : 4. If AB = 7 cm, BC = 8 cm and CA = 9 cm, then DF is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    18 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    12 cm

  3. COption (c)

    16 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    14 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

16 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

क्षेत���रफल का अनुपात = 1 : 4

संगत भुजाओं का अनुपात = √1 : √4 = 1 : 2

चूँकि ΔABC ~ ΔEDF, इसलिए भुजा BC की संगत भुजा DF है।

इसलिए, BC / DF = 1 / 2

8 / DF = 1 / 2 ⇒ DF = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Alternate Method

दिया गया है: ΔABC ~ ΔEDF, Area(ΔABC) : Area(ΔEDF) = 1 : 4, AB = 7 cm, BC = 8 cm, AC = 9 cm.

सूत्र: यदि दो त्रिभुज समरूप हैं, तो उनके क्षेत्रफल का अनुपात उनकी संगत भुजाओं के अनुपात के वर्ग के बराबर होता है।

Area(ΔABC) / Area(ΔEDF) = (BC / DF)2

⇒ 1 / 4 = (8 / DF)2

⇒ √(1 / 4) = 8 / DF

⇒ 1 / 2 = 8 / DF

⇒ 1 × DF = 8 × 2

⇒ DF = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Additional Information

समरूपता और क्षेत्रफल प्रमेय (Similarity and Area Theorem)

दो समरूप त्रिभुजों के क्षेत्रफलों का अनुपात उनकी संगत भुजाओं, ऊँचाइयों, माध्यिकाओं या कोण द्विभाजकों के अनुपात के वर्ग के बराबर होता है।

परिमाप का अनुपात (Ratio of Perimeters)

दो समरूप त्रिभुजों के परिमाप का अनुपात उनकी संगत भुजाओं के अनुपात के बराबर होता है: P1/P2 = s1/s2.

त्रिभुजों की समरूपता (Similarity of Triangles)

यदि ΔABC ~ ΔEDF है, तो शीर्षों का क्रम महत्वपूर्ण है: A→E, B→D, और C→F, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप AB/ED = BC/DF = AC/EF होता है।

Question 59

The price of a product increases by 10% in the first year and 20% in the second year. What is the overall percentage increase in the price of the product over the two years?  

  1. AOption (a)

    28%

  2. BOption (b)

    36%

  3. COption (c)

    30%

  4. DOption (d)

    32%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

32%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective percentage change = x + y + xy/100

Here, x = 10 and y = 20

Overall percentage increased in the price = 10 + 20 + (200/100)

⇒ 32%

∴ The overall percentage increased in the price is 32%.

 

Given:

A number increased by 10% and 20%

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

According to the question,

⇒ x × (110/100) × (120/100)

⇒ x × (11/10) × (6/5)

⇒ 66x/50

Overall percentage increase in the price = [{(66x/50) - x}/x] × 100

⇒ (16x/50x) × 100

⇒ 32%

∴ The overall percentage increased in the price is 32%.

Question 60

In how many years will a sum of ₹4,250 yield a simple interest of ₹510 at a rate of 6% per annum?

  1. AOption (a)

    3123\frac{1}{2} years

  2. BOption (b)

    3 years

  3. COption (c)

    2122\frac{1}{2} years

  4. DOption (d)

    2 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹4,250

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹510

Rate (R) = 6% per annum

Formula used:

SI = (P × R × T) / 100

Where, T = Time in years

Calculations:

510 = (4250 × 6 × T) / 100

⇒ 510 = 255 × T

⇒ T = 510 / 255

⇒ T = 2 years

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 61

Shantanu’s income decreased from ₹42,800 to ₹37,236. Find the percentage decrease in his income. 

  1. AOption (a)

    13%

  2. BOption (b)

    11%

  3. COption (c)

    14%

  4. DOption (d)

    12%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

13%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial Income (I1) = ₹42,800

Final Income (I2) = ₹37,236

Formula used:

Percentage Decrease = I1−I2I1×100\dfrac{I_1 - I_2}{I_1} \times 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage Decrease = 42800−3723642800×100\dfrac{42800 - 37236}{42800} \times 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease = 556442800×100\dfrac{5564}{42800} \times 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease = 13%

∴ The correct answer is 13%.

Question 62

A shopkeeper sold an article at a 26% profit. On selling it for ₹2,250 more, he would get a profit of 41%. If this article is sold at 12% profit, then the selling price would be: 

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹16,800

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹15,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹16,120

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹15,800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹16,800

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A shopkeeper sold an article at a 26% profit. On selling it for ₹2,250 more, he would get a profit of 41%. If this article is sold at 12% profit, then the selling price would be:

Formula used:

Let the cost price (CP) be ₹x.

Selling Price (SP) at 26% profit = x + 0.26x = 1.26x

Selling Price (SP) at 41% profit = x + 0.41x = 1.41x

Calculation:

Given: 1.41x - 1.26x = ₹2,250

⇒ 0.15x = ₹2,250

⇒ x = ₹2,250 / 0.15

⇒ x = ₹15,000

Selling Price at 12% profit = x + 0.12x = 1.12x

⇒ Selling Price = 1.12 × ₹15,000

⇒ Selling Price = ₹16,800

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 63

Simplify sin⁡60∘−cos⁡60∘sin⁡60∘+cos⁡60∘\rm \frac{\sin 60^{\circ}-\cos 60^{\circ}}{\sin 60^{\circ}+\cos 60^{\circ}}

  1. AOption (a)

    √3 - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    √3 - 1

  3. COption (c)

    2 - √3

  4. DOption (d)

    2 + √3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 - √3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Simplify: sin⁡60∘−cos⁡60∘sin⁡60∘+cos⁡60∘\rm \frac{\sin 60^{\circ}-\cos 60^{\circ}}{\sin 60^{\circ}+\cos 60^{\circ}}

Formula used:

sin 60° = √3/2, cos 60° = 1/2

Calculation:

⇒ 32−1232+12\frac{\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}-\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}+\frac{1}{2}}

⇒ 3−13+1\frac{\sqrt{3}-1}{\sqrt{3}+1}

Multiply numerator and denominator by (√3 - 1):

⇒ (3−1)2(3)2−(1)2\frac{(\sqrt{3}-1)^2}{(\sqrt{3})^2 - (1)^2}

⇒ 3−23+13−1\frac{3 - 2\sqrt{3} + 1}{3 - 1}

⇒ 4−232\frac{4 - 2\sqrt{3}}{2}

⇒ 2 - √3

∴ The simplified value is 2 - √3.

Question 64

The following graph shows the wheat imports (in thousand tonnes) over the five years: 

What is the ratio of the years which have below-average imports to those which have above-average imports?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 : 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 : 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 : 1

  4. DOption (d)

    1 : 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 : 3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Wheat imports (in thousand tonnes) for five years: 36 (2018), 32 (2019), 34 (2020), 37 (2021), 35 (2022)

Formula used:

Average imports = Sum of imports / Number of years

Calculation:

⇒ Average imports = (36 + 32 + 34 + 37 + 35) / 5 = 174 / 5 = 34.8 thousand tonnes

Below-average imports: 2019 (32), 2020 (34)

Above-average imports: 2018 (36), 2021 (37), 2022 (35)

Ratio of below-average to above-average imports = 2:3

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 65

Out of a class of 200 people, 50 people’s average marks is 40, and the remaining 150 people’s average is 60. Find the people’s weighted average. 

  1. AOption (a)

    150

  2. BOption (b)

    200

  3. COption (c)

    50

  4. DOption (d)

    55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

55

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of students = 50 : 150 = 1 : 3.

Assume a base average of 40.

Net deviation from 40 = 3 × (60 − 40) = 3 × 20 = 60.

Distribute deviation among total ratio parts (1 + 3 = 4): 60 ÷ 4 = 15.

Weighted Average = 40 + 15 = 55.

∴ The correct answer is 55.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of people in Group 1 (n1) = 50, Average (A1) = 40

Number of people in Group 2 (n2) = 150, Average (A2) = 60

Formula:

Weighted Average = (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2)

Calculations:

⇒ Total marks of Group 1 = 50 × 40 = 2000

⇒ Total marks of Group 2 = 150 × 60 = 9000

⇒ Total combined marks = 2000 + 9000 = 11000

⇒ Total number of people = 50 + 150 = 200

⇒ Weighted Average = 11000 ÷ 200

⇒ Weighted Average = 55

∴ The correct answer is 55.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

For multiple groups, the formula is ΣniAi ÷ Σni, where n is the number of items and A is the average of each group.

Alligation Rule

Ratio of quantities = (Higher Average − Weighted Average) : (Weighted Average − Lower Average). This is used to find the ratio of quantities when the average of each and the mixture is known.

Deviation Method

Weighted Average = Assumed Average + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Quantity). This simplifies calculations by using smaller numbers.

Question 66

Let C be a circle with center O and PQ be the diameter of C. Let AB be a chord on C. If ∠QOB = 40°, ∠AOP = 80°, then find ∠AOB. 

  1. AOption (a)

    70° 

  2. BOption (b)

    100°

  3. COption (c)

    60°

  4. DOption (d)

    90°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

60°

Why this answer is correct

Given:

∠QOB = 40º

∠AOP = 80º

Formula used:

The sum of all angle on a straight line is 180º.

Calculation:

∠QOB = 40º

∠AOP = 80º

Since PQ is the diameter, 

Let ∠AOB = xº

∠AOB + ∠AOP + ∠QOB = 180º (sum of angles on a straight line)

⇒ x + 80º + 40º = 180º

⇒ x + 120º = 180º

⇒ x = 180º - 120º

⇒ x = 60º

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 67

The value of 1\frac{1}{3}\div \left[2\frac{1}{6}\div \left{14\frac{1}{3}-\left(2\frac{1}{3}+3\frac{1}{2}\right)\right}\right] is:

  1. AOption (a)

    43174\frac{3}{17}

  2. BOption (b)

    32173\frac{2}{17}

  3. COption (c)

    53135\frac{3}{13}

  4. DOption (d)

    32133\frac{2}{13}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

53135\frac{3}{13}

Why this answer is correct

Here is the step-by-step solution for the given problem:

Given:

11⁄3 ÷ [21⁄6 ÷ {141⁄3 - (21⁄3 + 31⁄2)}]

Formula used:

Division of fractions: a ÷ b = a × 1/b

Calculations:

Step 1: Simplify the inner bracket:

21⁄3 + 31⁄2 = 7/3 + 7/2

⇒ (14 + 21)/6 = 35/6

Step 2: Subtract from 141⁄3:

141⁄3 - 35/6 = 43/3 - 35/6

⇒ (86 - 35)/6 = 51/6

Step 3: Now divide 21⁄6 by 51/6:

21⁄6 = 13/6

⇒ 13/6 ÷ 51/6 = 13/6 × 6/51

⇒ 13/51

Step 4: Finally, divide 11⁄3 by 13/51:

11⁄3 = 4/3

⇒ 4/3 ÷ 13/51 = 4/3 × 51/13

⇒ 68/13 = 53135\frac{3}{13}

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 68

Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.

The bar-graph shows the production of refrigerators (in thousand) by five different companies A, B, C, D and E during 2004 to 2007.

What is the difference between 60% of the average production of refrigerators by all the companies for the year 2005-2006 and 70% of the average of all the companies in 2006-2007?

  1. AOption (a)

    4000

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    400

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Production of refrigerators (in thousand) by five different companies A, B, C, D, E in 2005-2006 and 2006-2007

2005-2006: A = 250, B = 340, C = 370, D = 490, E = 430

2006-2007: A = 390, B = 200, C = 450, D = 240, E = 360

Formula used:

Average = Sum of values / Number of values

Required difference = 60% of 2005-2006 average - 70% of 2006-2007 average

Calculation:

Average of 2005-2006 = (250 + 340 + 370 + 490 + 430)/5

⇒ = 1880/5 = 376

60% of 376 = 0.6 * 376

⇒ = 225.6

Average of 2006-2007 = (390 + 200 + 450 + 240 + 360)/5

⇒ = 1640/5 = 328

70% of 328 = 0.7 * 328

⇒ = 229.6

Difference = 225.6 - 229.6

⇒ = 4 i.e. 4 thousand

∴ The correct answer is 4000.

Question 69

Teena does half of a task in 6 days. Later, with Shyam’s help, she completes the remaining work in 4 days. Shyam alone can finish the entire work in: 

  1. AOption (a)

    12 days 

  2. BOption (b)

    18 days

  3. COption (c)

    24 days

  4. DOption (d)

    21 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Teena does half of a task in 6 days.

With Shyam's help, she completes the remaining work in 4 days.

Formula used:

Work done by Teena in 6 days = 1/2 of the task.

Work done by Teena in 1 day = 1/12 of the task.

Let Shyam's 1 day work be 1/x of the task.

Combined work done by Teena and Shyam in 4 days = 1/2 of the task.

Calculation:

Teena's 1 day work = 1/12

Teena and Shyam's combined 1 day work = 1/4

⇒ 4(Teena's 1 day work + Shyam's 1 day work) = 1/2

⇒ 4(1/12 + 1/x) = 1/2

⇒ 1/12 + 1/x = 1/8

⇒ 1/x = 1/8 - 1/12

⇒ 1/x = (3 - 2)/24

⇒ 1/x = 1/24

⇒ x = 24

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Question 70

If 640 ÷ 8 + 930 ÷ 15 – k + 32 × 5 = 1104 ÷ 16 × 148 ÷ 37, then the value of k is:

  1. AOption (a)

    276

  2. BOption (b)

    302

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    26

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

26

Why this answer is correct

Given:

640 ÷ 8 + 930 ÷ 15 - k + 32 × 5 = 1104 ÷ 16 × 148 ÷ 37

Formula used:

Basic arithmetic operations: Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction

Calculation:

640 ÷ 8 + 930 ÷ 15 - k + 32 × 5 = 1104 ÷ 16 × 148 ÷ 37

⇒ 80 + 62 - k + 160 = 69 × 4

⇒ 302 - k = 276

⇒ k = 302 - 276

⇒ k = 26

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 71

Find the whole surface area of a cuboid having a length of 19 cm, breadth of 9 cm and height of 4.5 cm.

  1. AOption (a)

    594 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    497 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    619 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    917 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

594 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length (l) = 19 cm

Breadth (b) = 9 cm

Height (h) = 4.5 cm

Formula used:

Whole Surface Area (WSA) of a cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl)

Calculation:

WSA = 2(19 × 9 + 9 × 4.5 + 4.5 × 19)

⇒ WSA = 2(171 + 40.5 + 85.5)

⇒ WSA = 2(297)

⇒ WSA = 594 cm2

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Question 72

The sum of the present ages of a father and son is 50 years. If after 5 years, the father’s age will be 5 times the age of the son, then what was the father’s age 5 years ago?

  1. AOption (a)

    43

  2. BOption (b)

    47

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of ages of father and son after 5 years = 50 + 5 + 5 = 60 years.

Given ratio of Father to Son after 5 years = 5 : 1.

Father's age after 5 years = (5 ÷ 6) × 60 = 50 years.

Father's age 5 years ago (which is 10 years before the 'after 5 years' stage) = 50 − 10 = 40 years.

∴ The correct answer is 40 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of present ages of father and son = 50 years.

After 5 years, the father's age will be 5 times the son's age.

Calculations:

Let the present age of the father be x and the son be y.

⇒ x + y = 50   --- (Equation 1)

After 5 years, their ages will be (x + 5) and (y + 5).

According to the given condition:

⇒ x + 5 = 5 × (y + 5)

⇒ x + 5 = 5y + 25

⇒ x − 5y = 20   --- (Equation 2)

Subtracting Equation 2 from Equation 1:

⇒ (x + y) − (x − 5y) = 50 − 20

⇒ 6y = 30

⇒ y = 5

Substitute y = 5 in Equation 1:

⇒ x + 5 = 50

⇒ x = 45

The present age of the father is 45 years.

Father's age 5 years ago = 45 − 5 = 40 years.

∴ The correct answer is 40 years.

Additional Information

Sum of Ages in Future/Past

If the sum of present ages of n people is S, then the sum of their ages after t years will be S + n × t, and t years ago it was S − n × t.

Age Difference

The difference in ages between any two people remains constant throughout their entire lives regardless of the time period.

Base Variables Setup

Always set the present age as the base variables (like x and y). This minimizes calculation errors when adjusting conditions for past or future ages.

Question 73

If the speed of a boat in still water is 3 km/h and if its speed upstream is 1 km/h, find the speed of the stream.

  1. AOption (a)

    0.25 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    1 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    2 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Speed of stream = Still water speed − Upstream speed

Speed of stream = 3 km/h − 1 km/h

Speed of stream = 2 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 2 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of boat in still water (u) = 3 km/h

Speed of boat upstream (vu) = 1 km/h

Formula used:

Upstream speed (vu) = Still water speed (u) − Stream speed (v)

Calculations:

⇒ Upstream speed = Still water speed − Stream speed

⇒ 1 km/h = 3 km/h − Stream speed

⇒ Stream speed = 3 km/h − 1 km/h

⇒ Stream speed = 2 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 2 km/h.

Additional Information

Downstream Speed

It is the net speed of a boat moving with the flow of the stream. Downstream Speed = Speed in still water + Speed of stream.

Speed in Still Water

The actual speed of the boat without any stream influence. Still Water Speed = (Downstream speed + Upstream speed) ÷ 2.

Speed of the Stream

The speed at which the water is flowing. Stream Speed = (Downstream speed − Upstream speed) ÷ 2.

Question 74

ΔABC and ΔDEF are similar triangles, and their areas are 81 cm2 and 144 cm2, respectively. If EF = 20 cm, then what is the value of BC?

  1. AOption (a)

    15 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    9 cm

  3. COption (c)

    12 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    13 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

15 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

ΔABC and ΔDEF are similar triangles

Area of ΔABC = 81 cm2

Area of ΔDEF = 144 cm2

EF = 20 cm

Formula used:

For similar triangles, the ratio of their areas is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides.

Area of ΔABCArea of ΔDEF\dfrac{Area\ of\ ΔABC}{Area\ of\ ΔDEF} = (BCEF)2\left(\dfrac{BC}{EF}\right)^2

Calculation:

81144\dfrac{81}{144} = (BC20)2\left(\dfrac{BC}{20}\right)^2

⇒ 912\dfrac{9}{12} = (BC20)\left(\dfrac{BC}{20}\right)

⇒ 34\dfrac{3}{4} = BC20\dfrac{BC}{20}

⇒ BC = 34×20\dfrac{3}{4} \times 20

⇒ BC = 15

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 75

There are two circles touching each other externally. The radius of the first circle with centre O is 12 cm. The radius of the second circle with centre A is 5 cm. Find the length of their common tangent touching the two circles at points P and Q.

  1. AOption (a)

    5145\sqrt{14} cm

  2. BOption (b)

    4154\sqrt{15} cm

  3. COption (c)

    5415\sqrt{41} cm

  4. DOption (d)

    14√5 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4154\sqrt{15} cm

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

If two circles touch each other externally, then the length of their common tangent = 2√r1r2 , where r1 and r2 are radius

Calculation:

Radius of the first circle (r1) = 12 

Radius of the second circle (r2) = 5

Then, according to the question,

the length of their common tangent BC

= 2√(12 × 5)

= 2√60

= 2 ×√(4 × 15)

= 4√15 cm

∴ The correct answer is 4√15 cm.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

In badminton, 0 points is called _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    play

  2. BOption (b)

    out

  3. COption (c)

    in

  4. DOption (d)

    love

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

love

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is love

Key Points

  • In badminton, the term "love" is used to denote a score of zero points.
  • The scoring system in badminton is similar to that used in tennis, where "love" means zero.
  • For example, if the score is 10-0, it is announced as "10-love".
  • The term "love" is believed to have originated from the French word "l'oeuf," meaning "egg," which symbolizes zero.
  • Understanding these terminologies is essential for following and enjoying the game of badminton.

Additional Information

  • Badminton is a racquet sport played using racquets to hit a shuttlecock across a net.
  • It is played as a singles or doubles game, with players positioned on opposite halves of a rectangular court.
  • The game originated in ancient civilizations in Europe and Asia; the modern form of badminton developed in British India.
  • Badminton is governed by the Badminton World Federation (BWF), which organizes various international competitions.
  • Scoring in badminton matches can be played to 21 points, with a requirement to win by at least 2 points if the score reaches 20-all.

Question 77

Which of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code deals with 'rape'? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Section 370

  2. BOption (b)

    Section 375

  3. COption (c)

    Section 385

  4. DOption (d)

    Section 380

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Section 375

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Section 375

Key Points

  • Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code defines the offense of rape.
  • This section outlines the different circumstances under which a sexual act is considered rape, including lack of consent, consent obtained through force or fraud, and situations involving minors.
  • It specifies the punishment for rape, which can vary depending on the severity of the crime.
  • The section has been amended several times to address changing societal norms and to strengthen the legal framework for protecting victims of sexual violence.
  • Section 375 is a crucial part of India's legal system aimed at safeguarding the dignity and bodily autonomy of individuals.

Additional Information

  • The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860 and is the principal criminal code of India.
  • It covers all substantive aspects of criminal law and has been amended numerous times to keep pace with the changing needs of society.
  • Other important sections related to sexual offenses include Section 376 (punishment for rape) and Section 354 (assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty).
  • The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, also known as the Nirbhaya Act, brought significant changes to the IPC, including stricter punishments for sexual offenses.
  • The IPC is complemented by other laws such as the Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses (POCSO) Act, which specifically addresses sexual crimes against minors.

Question 78

What is a revenue deficit in the government budget?

  1. AOption (a)

    The excess of expenditure over revenue, excluding interest payments on debt

  2. BOption (b)

    The excess of revenue over expenditure, excluding interest payments on debt 

  3. COption (c)

    The excess of revenue over expenditure, including interest payments on debt

  4. DOption (d)

    The excess of expenditure over revenue, including interest payments on debt 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The excess of expenditure over revenue, including interest payments on debt 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The excess of expenditure over revenue, including interest payments on debt

Key Points

  • The excess of expenditure over revenue, including interest payments on debt is known as a revenue deficit in the government budget.
  • A revenue deficit indicates that the government's revenue receipts are not sufficient to meet its revenue expenditure.
  • This type of deficit is a key indicator of the financial health of the government and reflects its ability to manage its finances.
  • A persistent revenue deficit can lead to higher borrowings and increased debt burden for the government.
  • Reducing the revenue deficit is crucial for maintaining fiscal discipline and ensuring long-term economic stability.

Additional Information

  • Revenue receipts include tax revenues (like income tax, corporate tax, GST) and non-tax revenues (like interest receipts, dividends, and profits from public sector enterprises).
  • Revenue expenditure includes expenses incurred for the normal functioning of government departments and various services, interest payments on debt, and subsidies.
  • Unlike capital expenditure, revenue expenditure does not result in the creation of assets or reduction in liabilities.
  • Efforts to reduce revenue deficit may include enhancing revenue receipts through better tax compliance and administration, and rationalizing expenditure.
  • The government may also implement structural reforms to improve the efficiency and productivity of public sector enterprises.

Question 79

Which Article of the Constitution of India vests plenary powers in Parliament to legislate on the subject of citizenship?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 11

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 5

  3. COption (c)

    Article 8

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 11

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 11

Key Points

  • Article 11 of the Constitution of India vests plenary powers in Parliament to legislate on the subject of citizenship.
  • This article gives Parliament the authority to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
  • It is part of Part II of the Constitution, which deals with the citizenship of individuals at the commencement of the Constitution.
  • Article 11 empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
  • This provision ensures that the Parliament has the flexibility to address all issues related to citizenship as and when required.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • Part II of the Constitution (Articles 5 to 11) deals with the citizenship of individuals at the commencement of the Constitution.
  • Article 11 gives the Parliament the power to regulate the right of citizenship by law, which allows for necessary amendments and changes to adapt to evolving circumstances.

Question 80

Match India’s neighbouring countries in column A with their official languages in column B.

Column A (Country names)Column B (Official Languages)
1.Sri Lankaa.Mandarin
2.Chinab.Burmese
3.Myanmarc.Tamil
4.Bhutand.Dzongkha
  1. AOption (a)

    1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d 

  2. BOption (b)

    1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

  3. COption (c)

    1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

  4. DOption (d)

    1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

Key Points

  • Option 4 correctly matches the countries with their official languages:
  • Sri Lanka - Tamil
  • China - Mandarin
  • Myanmar - Burmese
  • Bhutan - Dzongkha

Additional Information

  • The official languages of these countries are integral to their cultural and administrative identity.
  • Sri Lanka has two official languages: Sinhala and Tamil, but Tamil is the correct match in this context.
  • Mandarin is the official language of China and is the most spoken language in the world.
  • Burmese is the official language of Myanmar, also known as Burma.
  • Dzongkha is the official language of Bhutan and is used in government and education.

Question 81

What is the keyboard shortcut for inserting a new slide into an MS-PowerPoint presentation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + X

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + M

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + S

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + N

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ctrl + M

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ctrl + M

Key Points

  • The keyboard shortcut for inserting a new slide in MS-PowerPoint is Ctrl + M.
  • Using keyboard shortcuts can enhance productivity and efficiency while working on presentations.
  • MS-PowerPoint provides various keyboard shortcuts for different functions, which can be customized if needed.
  • Remembering common shortcuts like Ctrl + M for new slides can save time during the creation process.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + X is used for cutting the selected content.
  • Ctrl + S is used for saving the current presentation.
  • Ctrl + N is used for creating a new presentation.
  • Keyboard shortcuts are designed to streamline tasks and minimize the use of a mouse for frequent actions.
  • Learning and utilizing shortcuts can significantly improve workflow efficiency in MS-PowerPoint and other software applications.

Question 82

In which of the following years was the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 amended?

  1. AOption (a)

    2013

  2. BOption (b)

    2021

  3. COption (c)

    2019

  4. DOption (d)

    2015

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2021

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2021

Key Points

  • The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 was amended in the year 2021.
  • The amendment aimed to strengthen the provisions for the protection and care of children.
  • It introduced measures to streamline the adoption process and ensure the welfare of children in need of care and protection.
  • The amendment also provided for more robust mechanisms to deal with juvenile offenders and enhanced the role of Child Welfare Committees and Juvenile Justice Boards.

Additional Information

  • The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was originally enacted in 2000 and was later replaced by the 2015 Act to address the changing needs and challenges in the juvenile justice system.
  • The 2015 Act introduced significant changes, including the provision to try juveniles in the age group of 16-18 years as adults for heinous offenses.
  • The amendment in 2021 further refined the legal framework to ensure the effective implementation of the Act and better protection for children.
  • The Act is a crucial piece of legislation that aligns with India's commitment to child rights and welfare as outlined in the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC).

Question 83

In Microsoft Word, the Mail Merge Wizard is located under the _________ tab.

  1. AOption (a)

    Review

  2. BOption (b)

    Insert

  3. COption (c)

    Mailings

  4. DOption (d)

    Home

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mailings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mailings

Key Points

  • The Mail Merge Wizard in Microsoft Word is located under the Mailings tab.
  • Mail Merge is a useful tool that allows users to create multiple documents at once, such as letters, labels, envelopes, or emails.
  • This feature is particularly beneficial for producing mass communications that are personalized for each recipient.
  • To start the Mail Merge, you can navigate to the Mailings tab and then click on the "Start Mail Merge" button.
  • The Mail Merge Wizard guides you step-by-step through the process of selecting the document type, choosing the recipients, and inserting merge fields.

Additional Information

  • Microsoft Word is a word processing software developed by Microsoft, which is part of the Microsoft Office suite.
  • It is widely used for creating, formatting, and editing documents.
  • Other tabs in Microsoft Word include Home, Insert, Design, Layout, References, Review, and View, each providing different functionalities.
  • The Mail Merge feature can also be used in conjunction with Excel, where recipient data can be stored in an Excel spreadsheet and then linked to the Word document.
  • Understanding the use of different tabs and features in Microsoft Word can significantly enhance productivity and document management.

Question 84

What is the name of the famous British social reformer known for founding the Indian Home Rule League in 1916?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anne Knight

  2. BOption (b)

    Annie Besant 

  3. COption (c)

    Catherine Osler

  4. DOption (d)

    Maria Rye

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Annie Besant 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Annie Besant

Key Points

  • Annie Besant was a prominent British social reformer, theosophist, and supporter of Indian self-rule.
  • She founded the Indian Home Rule League in 1916 to promote self-governance and greater autonomy for India within the British Empire.
  • Annie Besant was also known for her work in education and women's rights, and she played a significant role in the Indian independence movement.
  • Her efforts helped to galvanize support for the cause of Indian self-rule and set the stage for future leaders like Mahatma Gandhi.

Additional Information

  • Annie Besant was born on 1st October 1847 in London and became involved in various social and political causes throughout her life.
  • She became the president of the Theosophical Society and moved to India, where she became deeply involved in Indian politics.
  • The Indian Home Rule League aimed to achieve self-government for India through constitutional means and fostered a sense of national unity.
  • In recognition of her contributions, she was elected as the president of the Indian National Congress in 1917.
  • Her legacy continues to be remembered in India for her contributions to social reform, education, and the independence movement.

Question 85

Which folk music does NOT belong to Tamil Nadu?

  1. AOption (a)

    Villu Pattu

  2. BOption (b)

    Ammanaivari

  3. COption (c)

    Nattupura

  4. DOption (d)

    Khubakeshei

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Khubakeshei

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Khubakeshei

Key Points

  • Khubakeshei is not a folk music form from Tamil Nadu.
  • Villu Pattu is a popular folk music form in Tamil Nadu, known for its storytelling style using a bow-shaped musical instrument.
  • Ammanaivari and Nattupura are also traditional folk music forms from Tamil Nadu, deeply rooted in the cultural heritage of the region.
  • Folk music in Tamil Nadu often reflects the traditions, stories, and daily life of the people, and is performed during festivals and important ceremonies.

Additional Information

  • Tamil Nadu has a rich and diverse cultural heritage, with various forms of music, dance, and art.
  • The state is known for its classical music, Carnatic music, which is one of the oldest forms of music in India.
  • Folk music in Tamil Nadu is often accompanied by traditional instruments such as the thavil, nadaswaram, and urumi.
  • Many folk music forms in Tamil Nadu are performed during temple festivals, weddings, and other community gatherings.

Question 86

Select the INCORRECT pair of the location of the refinery and its state from the following

  1. AOption (a)

    Numaligarh Refinery – Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Tatipaka Refinery – Telangana

  3. COption (c)

    Bina Refinery – Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Koyali Refinery – Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tatipaka Refinery – Telangana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tatipaka Refinery – Telangana

Key Points

  • Numaligarh Refinery is correctly located in Assam.
  • Tatipaka Refinery is actually located in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana.
  • Bina Refinery is correctly located in Madhya Pradesh.
  • Koyali Refinery is correctly located in Gujarat.

Additional Information

  • Refineries play a crucial role in the production of petroleum products and contribute significantly to the economy.
  • India has several refineries spread across different states to meet the energy demands of the country.
  • The location of a refinery is often strategic, based on factors such as proximity to crude oil sources, transportation facilities, and market demand.

Question 87

Which of the following is a rare group of genetic disorders caused by mutations of certain genes affecting the colour (pigmentation) of the skin, hair and eyes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Angelman syndrome

  2. BOption (b)

    Alkaptonuria

  3. COption (c)

    Alagille syndrome

  4. DOption (d)

    Albinism

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Albinism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Albinism

Key Points

  • Albinism is a rare group of genetic disorders caused by mutations of certain genes affecting the color (pigmentation) of the skin, hair, and eyes.
  • People with albinism are at risk of skin and vision problems due to the lack of melanin, the pigment responsible for coloration.
  • Albinism can occur in all racial and ethnic groups.
  • There is no cure for albinism, but individuals can manage symptoms with proper skin care and eye protection.
  • Genetic counseling is recommended for families affected by albinism to understand the inheritance patterns and risks.

Additional Information

  • Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is the most common form, affecting the skin, hair, and eyes.
  • Ocular albinism primarily affects the eyes, with minimal or no impact on skin and hair color.
  • Individuals with albinism should avoid excessive sun exposure and use sunscreen to protect their skin.
  • Regular eye check-ups and visual aids can help manage vision issues associated with albinism.
  • Public awareness and education are crucial to reduce the stigma and discrimination faced by individuals with albinism.

Question 88

The Lucknow Gharana which came into existence in the time of Wajid Ali Shah was developed by who among the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pandit Bindawar Prasad

  2. BOption (b)

    Pandit Kalka Prasad

  3. COption (c)

    Pandit Thakur Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    Ustad Bakhtawar Khan 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pandit Thakur Prasad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pandit Thakur Prasad

Key Points

  • Pandit Thakur Prasad was instrumental in developing the Lucknow Gharana during the time of Wajid Ali Shah.
  • The Lucknow Gharana is one of the prominent schools of Kathak dance, known for its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and expressive gestures.
  • It emphasizes storytelling through dance and has contributed significantly to the classical dance heritage of India.
  • This Gharana has produced many renowned artists who have carried forward its rich traditions.

Additional Information

  • Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, was a patron of arts and played a key role in the cultural development of Lucknow, including the promotion of Kathak dance.
  • The Lucknow Gharana is distinct from other Kathak Gharanas like the Jaipur and Banaras Gharanas, each having its own unique style and repertoire.
  • Besides dance, the Lucknow Gharana has also influenced music, particularly the thumri style of singing.
  • Efforts have been made to preserve and promote the traditions of the Lucknow Gharana through institutions and cultural festivals.

Question 89

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to High Yielding Varieties (HYVs)? 

  1. AOption (a)

    HYVs led to decrease in the cropping intensity. 

  2. BOption (b)

    HYVs had a shorter period of maturity. 

  3. COption (c)

    They made green revolution technology as land-saving technology. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The usage of HYVs was complemented with the attraction of more investment in farm machines. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

HYVs led to decrease in the cropping intensity. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HYVs led to decrease in the cropping intensity

Key Points

  • Option 1 is incorrect as High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) led to an increase, not a decrease, in cropping intensity due to their shorter maturity period and higher productivity.
  • Option 2 is correct because HYVs indeed had a shorter period of maturity, allowing for multiple cropping cycles in a year.
  • Option 3 is correct as HYVs made green revolution technology a land-saving technology by increasing yield per hectare.
  • Option 4 is correct because the usage of HYVs was complemented with the attraction of more investment in farm machines, irrigation, and other inputs.

Additional Information

  • The introduction of HYVs was a major component of the Green Revolution in India during the 1960s and 70s.
  • HYVs required higher inputs of fertilizers, pesticides, and water, which led to an increase in agricultural productivity and self-sufficiency in food grains.
  • The Green Revolution had significant socio-economic impacts, including changes in agricultural practices, rural incomes, and labor dynamics.
  • Despite the benefits, the Green Revolution also brought about challenges such as environmental degradation, inequity among farmers, and over-reliance on chemical inputs.

Question 90

Who was the chief guest at the first Republic Day celebration of India in 1950?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Kwame Nkrumah 

  2. BOption (b)

    Gamal Abdel Nasser 

  3. COption (c)

    Sukarno 

  4. DOption (d)

    Josip Broz Tito 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sukarno 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sukarno

Key Points

  • Sukarno was the chief guest at the first Republic Day celebration of India in 1950.
  • Sukarno was the first President of Indonesia and a prominent leader in the Indonesian struggle for independence from the Dutch colonial rule.
  • The invitation of Sukarno as the chief guest underscored the close relations between India and Indonesia, both of which were newly independent nations at the time.
  • The first Republic Day celebration marked the adoption of the Constitution of India and the transition of India from a British Dominion to a republic.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • The Republic Day is celebrated every year on 26th January to honor the date on which the Constitution of India came into effect.

Question 91

Who was the Indian Buddhist monk who is credited with the development of many ancient martial art forms in the 5th century?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bodhiruchi

  2. BOption (b)

    Bodhidharma

  3. COption (c)

    Paramartha

  4. DOption (d)

    Atisa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bodhidharma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bodhidharma

Key Points

  • Bodhidharma was an Indian Buddhist monk who is traditionally credited with transmitting Chan Buddhism to China.
  • He is also considered the founder of the Shaolin Monastery and is associated with the development of many ancient martial art forms in the 5th century.
  • Bodhidharma's teachings and practice centered on meditation and the Lankavatara Sutra, which emphasizes the realization of Buddha-nature.
  • His contributions have had a lasting impact on both Buddhist practice and martial arts in East Asia.

Additional Information

  • Bodhiruchi was another Indian monk who translated numerous Buddhist texts into Chinese but is not associated with martial arts.
  • Paramartha was an Indian Buddhist missionary who translated texts and propagated Buddhism in China.
  • Atisa was a Buddhist teacher from the Pala Empire in India who helped establish the Sarma schools of Tibetan Buddhism.
  • The Shaolin Monastery, linked to Bodhidharma, is renowned for its association with Chinese martial arts and Chan (Zen) Buddhism.
  • Legends suggest that Bodhidharma also developed exercises that later evolved into Shaolin Kung Fu, emphasizing physical fitness and self-defense.

Question 92

Which of the following planets does NOT have rings?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saturn

  2. BOption (b)

    Uranus

  3. COption (c)

    Venus

  4. DOption (d)

    Jupiter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Venus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Venus

Key Points

  • Venus is the planet that does NOT have rings.
  • Saturn, Uranus, and Jupiter all have ring systems, though Saturn's rings are the most prominent and well-known.
  • The ring systems of Uranus and Jupiter are fainter and less visible compared to Saturn's.
  • Rings are composed of dust, rock, and ice particles orbiting around their respective planets.

Additional Information

  • Venus is the second planet from the Sun and is similar in size and structure to Earth but has a thick, toxic atmosphere.
  • It is the hottest planet in our solar system due to its dense atmosphere, which traps heat.
  • Venus rotates very slowly on its axis and in the opposite direction to most planets in the solar system.
  • It is often referred to as Earth's "sister planet" due to their similar size and proximity.
  • Venus has no natural satellites (moons).

Question 93

Which of the following types is NOT an element of classical Carnatic music?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kriti

  2. BOption (b)

    Padam

  3. COption (c)

    Thumri 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sthayi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Thumri 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Thumri

Key Points

  • Thumri is not an element of classical Carnatic music; it is a genre associated with Hindustani classical music.
  • Kriti is a prominent composition form in Carnatic music, known for its structured and devotional content.
  • Padam is a type of Carnatic music composition that is expressive and often deals with themes of love and devotion.
  • Sthayi refers to the main section or refrain of a composition in Carnatic music.

Additional Information

  • Carnatic music is a system of music commonly associated with the southern part of India.
  • It is one of the two main sub-genres of Indian classical music that evolved from ancient Hindu traditions; the other sub-genre is Hindustani music, which is mainly found in the northern and central regions.
  • Carnatic music is known for its complex structure and emphasis on rhythm and melody.
  • It includes various forms of compositions such as Varnam, Kriti, Padam, Javali, and Tillana.
  • Learning and performing Carnatic music often involves rigorous training and a deep understanding of its theoretical aspects.

Question 94

The Sun Temple at Konark was built under the rule of which dynasty?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pandya Dynasty

  2. BOption (b)

    Pallava Dynasty

  3. COption (c)

    Eastern Ganga Dynasty

  4. DOption (d)

    Rashtrakuta Dynasty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Eastern Ganga Dynasty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Eastern Ganga Dynasty

Key Points

  • The Sun Temple at Konark, also known as the Black Pagoda, was built by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty in the 13th century.
  • The temple is an architectural marvel and is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot with elaborately carved stone wheels, pillars, and walls.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is considered one of the seven wonders of India.
  • The temple is dedicated to the Hindu Sun God, Surya, and symbolizes the majestic stride of the Sun God.

Additional Information

  • The Eastern Ganga Dynasty ruled the Kalinga region, which is present-day Odisha and northern Andhra Pradesh, from the 11th to the 15th centuries.
  • The dynasty is renowned for its patronage of art and architecture, with the Sun Temple at Konark being their most famous architectural achievement.
  • The temple was designed in such a way that the first rays of the sun would strike the main entrance.
  • Despite being partially in ruins, the temple's intricate carvings and monumental scale continue to attract tourists and historians from around the world.

Question 95

For which of the following discoveries in 1827 was the German physicist, Georg Simon Ohm best known? 

  1. AOption (a)

    For invention of the magnetometer, which is a device capable of measuring the direction and strength of a magnetic field 

  2. BOption (b)

    For developing a device capable of amplifying and modulating electromagnetic signals that could also function as an oscillator

  3. COption (c)

    For measuring the magnetic properties of nuclear particles

  4. DOption (d)

    For clarifying the mathematical relationship between electrical current, resistance and voltage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

For clarifying the mathematical relationship between electrical current, resistance and voltage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is For clarifying the mathematical relationship between electrical current, resistance and voltage

Key Points

  • Georg Simon Ohm was a German physicist and mathematician.
  • He is best known for Ohm's Law, which states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.
  • This law is usually expressed with the formula V = IR, where V is the voltage, I is the current, and R is the resistance.
  • Ohm's work was crucial in the field of electrical engineering and physics, providing a fundamental principle for understanding electrical circuits.
  • His discovery in 1827 significantly contributed to the development of electrical theory and technology.

Additional Information

  • Ohm's work initially received little recognition, but it later earned him significant honors, including the Copley Medal from the Royal Society of London.
  • He also made contributions to the understanding of acoustics and the measurement of electrical resistance.
  • Ohm's Law remains a fundamental concept in the study and application of electrical circuits today.
  • His discoveries laid the groundwork for future innovations in electrical engineering and technology.

Question 96

As of 2022, which is the tallest hydroelectric power plant in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tehri Hydroelectric Power Plant

  2. BOption (b)

    Sardar Sarovar Hydropower Plant

  3. COption (c)

    Nathpa Jhakri Power plant

  4. DOption (d)

    Koyna Hydroelectric Power Plant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tehri Hydroelectric Power Plant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tehri Hydroelectric Power Plant

Key Points

  • Tehri Hydroelectric Power Plant is the tallest hydroelectric power plant in India as of 2022.
  • Located in the state of Uttarakhand, the Tehri Dam is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River.
  • The dam is 260.5 meters (855 ft) high, making it the highest dam in India and one of the tallest in the world.
  • It plays a crucial role in water supply, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation, with an installed capacity of 1,000 MW.
  • The project is managed by the Tehri Hydro Development Corporation Limited (THDC).

Additional Information

  • The Tehri Dam was constructed over a period of nearly 30 years, with the construction starting in 1978 and the dam becoming operational in 2006.
  • The dam's reservoir, Tehri Lake, is a major tourist attraction and provides water for drinking and irrigation purposes to a large population.
  • The Tehri Dam is also designed to withstand seismic activities, given its location in a seismically active region.
  • It is a vital part of India's efforts to harness renewable energy and reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
  • The project faced several challenges, including environmental concerns and displacement of local communities, which were addressed through various mitigation measures.

Question 97

In Fencing, a defensive blade movement that blocks the opponent’s offensive action is called ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    redoublement

  2. BOption (b)

    parry

  3. COption (c)

    reprise

  4. DOption (d)

    saber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

parry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is parry

Key Points

  • In fencing, a parry is a defensive action where the fencer blocks or deflects the opponent's blade.
  • The primary purpose of a parry is to prevent the opponent from landing a hit.
  • There are several types of parries, each corresponding to a different line of attack.
  • Parries are fundamental skills in fencing, essential for both defense and setting up counter-attacks.

Additional Information

  • Redoublement refers to a renewed attack after the initial attack has been parried.
  • Reprise is an offensive action made immediately after a parry or a failed attack.
  • Saber is one of the three weapons used in the sport of fencing, the others being foil and épée.

Question 98

The __________ results from an increase in the proportion of workers relative to nonworkers in the population.

  1. AOption (a)

    demographic dividend

  2. BOption (b)

    population momentum

  3. COption (c)

    old-age dependency ratio

  4. DOption (d)

    age structure of population

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

demographic dividend

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is demographic dividend

Key Points

  • The term demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population’s age structure.
  • This shift occurs when the proportion of the working-age population (15-64 years) is larger compared to the non-working-age population (below 15 and above 64 years).
  • During this period, the workforce grows more rapidly than the dependent population, providing a window of opportunity for economic growth.
  • To harness the demographic dividend, it is crucial to invest in health, education, and employment opportunities.

Additional Information

  • The concept of the demographic dividend is closely linked to the demographic transition theory, which describes the transition from high birth and death rates to lower birth and death rates as a country develops.
  • Countries in different stages of this transition can experience varying economic impacts based on their demographic profiles.
  • Effective policy measures and investments in human capital are essential to convert the demographic potential into actual economic benefits.

Question 99

From which of the following states was Vibrant Village programme launched, on 10 April 2023? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mizoram  

  2. BOption (b)

    Nagaland 

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Anunachal Pradesh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Anunachal Pradesh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh

Key Points

  • The Vibrant Village programme was launched from Arunachal Pradesh on 10 April 2023.
  • The programme aims to enhance the quality of life for people living in border villages, ensuring sustainable development and improving infrastructure.
  • It focuses on areas such as education, health, agriculture, and connectivity to ensure comprehensive growth.
  • Special emphasis is placed on empowering local communities and promoting tourism to generate livelihood opportunities.

Additional Information

  • Arunachal Pradesh is known for its unique cultural heritage and scenic beauty, making it a crucial region for such developmental programmes.
  • The Vibrant Village programme is a part of the government's broader strategy to bolster border security and enhance the living standards of border communities.
  • By improving the infrastructure in these remote areas, the programme also aims to curb migration to urban areas, thereby maintaining the demographic stability of border regions.

Question 100

Which writ literally means 'what is your authority’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Quo-Warranto

  2. BOption (b)

    Prohibition

  3. COption (c)

    Mandamus

  4. DOption (d)

    Habeas Corpus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Quo-Warranto

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Quo-Warranto

Key Points

  • Quo-Warranto literally means 'what is your authority?'.
  • This writ is issued to inquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
  • The purpose of the writ is to prevent illegal usurpation of public office by an individual.
  • It is a judicial order requiring the person to whom it is directed to show what authority they have for exercising some right, power, or franchise they claim to hold.

Additional Information

  • The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court to prohibit a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction.
  • The writ of Mandamus is issued to command a public official, government department, corporation, or inferior court to perform a public or statutory duty.
  • The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to secure the release of a person who has been unlawfully detained.

100 questions in the full paper