SSC CHSL Previous Paper 60 (Held On: 28 March 2018 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Frenetically.

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is frenetically.
• It means involving a lot of excitement and activity (in an uncontrollable way) (बहुत अधिक उत्साह और गतिविधि शामिल करना (एक बेकाबू तरीके से)).
• Example: The political party campaigned frenetically.
  

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is ACB.

Key Points

• The first part of the sequence is part A. It suitably follows the given phrase. ‘ So we did get to read a whole lot…’ seems logical.
• This can be appropriately be followed by part C as it tells us the reading is related to what.
• Part B can suitably form the ending of the sentence.

So we did get to read a whole lot on how we can save a wounded sparrow from dying.

Thus, the correct sequence is ACB, making option 3 the correct answer.

The correct answer is gained. 

Key Points

Reading the sentence we find that: 

• The sentence is talking about something that happened in the near past.
• Thus the sentence is in the simple past tense and should use an appropriate verb.
• The verb gain should be used in the simple past tense in order to fit into the grammatical structure of the sentence.
• The past tense of the verb gain is gained.
• Other given options are incorrect as option 1 is a continuous verb and option 2 is a verb denoting the future.
• Thus the correct answer is gained.

LPG quickly gained popularity as it was easy to use and did not tarnish vessels.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is Inclined.

Key Points

Reading the above sentence we find that:  

• The modal verb might is used in the sentence.
• As a rule, the verb that follows might be should be in the past participle form
• Example : She might be interested in this.
• The verb in the given sentence is incline.
• Thus the correct form to be used here is inclined*,* as it is the past participle of incline.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct Sentence : You might be inclined to put the blame on infrastructure and officials, which is understandable.

Let us look into the meaning of the given words:

Mirthful - full of laughter or humour

Exultant - joyful and proud (because of triumph or success)

Apathetic - having or showing little or no emotion

Melancholic – affected by sadness or depression

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Let us look into the meaning of the given words:

Twang - the sharp, tinny sound of a plucked string or banged metal object

Resonance – the production of a sound as a result of vibration of another object

Oratory - skillful and effective public speaking

Phonetics - the study and systematic classification of speech sounds 

Thus, the correct answer is option 4 as phonetics expresses the meaning.

The correct answer is The time has come when someone is doomed to suffer a disaster.

Key Points

• When someone’s number is up, it means that the time has come when he\she is doomed to die or suffer some other disaster or setback.
• I have suffered so many crises. I think my number is up.
• Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is An encouraging stimulus.

Key Points

• The phrase a shot in the arm refers to something that has a sudden and positive effect on something.
• Winning this tournament has been a shot in the arm for me.
• Stimulus refers to a thing that arouses energy in someone.
• So, option 4 expresses the best meaning of the given phrase.

If is used to introduce a conditional clause. It is used to say that a thing can happen only after something else happens.

So, in the given sentence, if fits the blank. The last sentence conveys that we can be free from tyranny if (condition) we lead ourselves away from the field of unworthy thoughts.

Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

We need to understand the difference between to and too.

To is a preposition used to show the relationship between the subject and the other elements of the sentence.

I cannot deliver this package to the owner.

Too is used to indicate the idea of something in excess.  It refers to the excessive or extra amount of something.  It can also mean also.

I am too tired to go to the mall.

You are worried too. (Here, too means also)

In the given sentence, we are looking for the word that will emphasize the excessive (extra) amount of time and energy involved.

...enters, requires too much time and energy...

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 'entrance'

Key Points

• The blank needs to be filled with a noun.
• ​Verbs will not fit into the context and the structure of the sentence. (…which seeks entering… is incorrect.)
• Entrance seems a proper fit - ...which seeks entrance. To stand guard...
  

The correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 'not'.

Key Points

• The word not will fit into the given context. Other words are not grammatically correct.
• ...It is not enough that we have...
• Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Important Points

• We use neither to mean not the one or the other of two.
• Example : Neither of my parents likes the movie (The mother and the father do not like the movie)

Given the structure of the sentence, we need to use an adverb (that will describe how necessary it is). The meaning of the word vitally is ‘in an important way’.

...which makes it vitally necessary that our interests...

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The correctly spelt word is handkerchief. It refers to a piece of clothing / fabric which we use to blow our nose or tears.

Example : She took out her handkerchief and used it to wipe his tears.

Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct sentence in indirect speech is 'Sneha said that she was buying a gaming console that day.'

Key Points

• In Direct speech, the actual words of the speaker are quoted within quotation marks.
• In Indirect speech, we report someone else’s statement in our own words.
• When we change the speech from Direct to Indirect, we drop the quotation marks and use the conjunction 'that' before the Indirect statement. We make suitable changes in tenses as well.
• A simple present becomes a simple past:
• Drinks --> drank
• A present continuous becomes a past continuous:
• Is drinking --> was drinking
• A present perfect becomes a past perfect:
• Has eaten --> had eaten
• A simple past becomes a past perfect:
• Ate --> had eaten

Additional Information

• Also, am changes to was, today changes to that day, now changes to then, tomorrow changes to the next day, etc.
• So, keeping these points in mind, the sentence in the question, when changed from Direct to Indirect speech, becomes: Sneha said that she was buying a gaming console that day.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

The correct sentence in passive voice is 'The assistant was made to work late by the boss.'

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the subject is someone that works on the object.
• A sentence is said to be in Active Voice when the subject performs the action.
• When the subject is being acted upon by the verb – it is Passive Voice.
• The sequence in Active voice – Subject + verb + object
• The sequence in Passive voice – Object + verb + Subject

Additional Information

• The meaning conveyed by the sentence in both voices will remain the same, only the sequence of the subject and the object (or the action) changes.
• Let us understand this through an example
• Active Voice: She kept the book in the cupboard.
• Passive Voice: The book was kept in the cupboard by her.
• Note that 'kept' changes to 'was kept'.
• The given sentence is in Active Voice as somebody is the subject performing an action.
• The sentence when converted in Passive voice becomes:
• The assistant was made to work late by the boss.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is QRP

Key Points

• The sentence starts with 'A serious critic'
• Hence the next part should refer to or talk about this critic in one way or another
• Out of P, Q and R, only 'Q' talks about to the critic who 'has to comprehend...'
• Logically, the next part should talk about that which the critic should comprehend. Thus R, which talks about the 'content, unique structure...' is the logical successor.
• The adjectives used in R should refer to something (noun) which is provided by P - 'meaning of a work of art'

Thus the correct sentence is: A serious critic has to comprehend the particular content, unique structure, and the special meaning of a work of art

The correct answer is Flexible

Key Points

• Let's look at the meaning of each word given:

The correct answer is- 'Rough'

Key Points 

• Exquisite means very beautiful and delicate. (बहुत सुंदर और नाजुक।)
• Let us look into the meaning of the difficult words:
• Stale – no longer fresh or new (अब ताजा या नया नहीं)
• Elaborate – containing a lot of details (and complexities) (बहुत सारे विवरण (और जटिलताओं) से युक्त)
• Consummate- to complete (an arrangement, agreement, or the like) by a pledge or the signing of a contract (एक प्रतिज्ञा या अनुबंध पर हस्ताक्षर करके पूरा करना (एक व्यवस्था, समझौता, या पसंद))
• Thus, among all the options, the word rough best expresses the opposite meaning. This makes option 4 the correct answer.

Scrumptious means extremely delicious / tasting good. Let us look into the meaning of the difficult words:

Stale – no longer fresh or new

Crushable – that can be crushed

Devotedness – the quality of being extremely loyal

Thus, among all the options, the word tasty best expresses the meaning of the given word. This makes option 4 the correct answer.

Dour means unfriendly, unhappy and serious in manner or appearance. Let us look into the meaning of the difficult words:

Cheery – in a positive mood giving comfort or encouragement to someone

Morose – unhappy and annoyed

Approachable – friendly and easy to talk to.

Thus, the word morose best expresses the meaning of the given word, making option 3 the correct answer.

The word tweak means to pull and twist something with a small sudden movement. Here, the sentence should use will tweak in the blank to make a sensible and a grammatically correct sentence.

Complete sentence - The mechanic will tweak the car according to his own liking.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct phrase is discharge from the hospital. It means to leave the hospital after treatment.

Complete sentence - She was discharged from the hospital after treatment.

Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is 2

Key Points

• Let's look at each part:
• The Creole language is a:
• ​To refer to a specific noun (here Creole language), article 'the' is used correctly since superlative is used to refer to specific things, e.g., The Brahmaputra, The Himalayas, etc.
• stable natural language develop from:
• ​Here, the adjectives stable and natural qualify the noun language
• Since the part is talking about the Creole language's development and since this developed in the past from a mixture of different languages, the past tense form of the root verb 'develop', i.e., 'developed' should be used
• a mixture of different languages:
• This conveys that Creole developed from a mixture of varied languages and this part is grammatically correct
  

Thus the correct sentence is: The Creole language is a stable natural language developed from a mixture of different languages.

The correct answer is 3

Key Points

• Let's look at each part of the sentence:
• The 26th of January was chosen:
• ​ This part is grammatically correct since the superlative article 'the' is used to refer to a very special date in our country's history
• to commemorate the Purna Swaraj:
• ​Here, the usage of the superlative article 'the' to refer to Purna Swaraj is correct as it refers to a specific historical declaration
• declaration for the complete independence, of 1930:
• ​The word declaration means a formal statement of something
• It is followed by the preposition of. Example: Declaration of freedom, declaration of love etc
• The part '..., of 1930' is used to convey that the declaration was made in the year 1930 and is grammatically correct

The correct sentence is: The 26th of January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of the complete independence, of 1930.

Wine is made from grapes by the process of fermentation.

Similarly, Curd is made from Milk by the process of fermentation.

Hence, the correct answer is "Curd : Milk".

Additional Information

The pattern followed here is as follows,

36 : 9 → 3 + 6 = 9

Similarly,

49 → 4 + 9 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is '13'.

The pattern followed here is:

In GHJ : JKM 

Similarly, for NOQ

Hence, the correct answer is "QRT".

Table showing the crop and their nature/usage.

Rubber is a cash/commercial crop while the rest are food crops. Thus it is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Crop – Rubber'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number ×  2 = Second number

1. 17 × 2 = 34

2. 19 × 2 = 38

3. 23 × 2 = 46

4. 27 × 2 = 54 ≠ 56

Hence the correct answer is "27 – 56".

The table shows the place value of the alphabet.

The pattern followed here is:

1) DHM → 

2) GKO → 

3) IMQ → 

4) LPT → 

Hence, the correct answer is "DHM".

The words are arranged as per the dictionary order shown below,

(3) Caravan

(2) Cardigan

(4) Carton

(5) Challenge

(1) Charity

Hence, the correct answer is “Cardigan”.

Here, the logic followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "1806".

The logic followed here is,

L + 3 = O

O + 2 = Q

Q + 3 = T

T + 2 = V

V + 3 = Y

Hence, the correct answer is “Y”.

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

1. K + T × J × R → K is the mother of T, T is the some of J and J is the son of R.

Here K is the mother of T.

2. J + K × L × T → J is the mother of K, K is the son of L and L is the son of T.

Here K is the grandson of T.

3. R + T – S ÷ K → R is the mother of T, T is the wife of S and S is the father of K.

Here the gender of K cannot be determined.

4. K + L × R ÷ T → K is the mother of L, L is the son of R and R is the father of T

Here K is the mother of T.

Hence, the correct answer is “J + K × L × T”.

1. Can → Recalcitrant

2. Rent → Recalcitrant

3. Recall → Recalcitrant, this word cannot be formed as there is a single L in the word Recalcitrant.

4. Calcite → Recalcitrant

Hence, the correct answer is “Recall”.

FRANK is written as GQBML. The pattern followed here is,

Similarly, MARCO can be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is, “NZSBP”.

As per the information given in the question,

Interchanging the symbols as per the above table we get,

20 - 16 + 6 × 10 ÷ 4

Applying the BODMAS rule,

20 - 16 + 6 × 10 ÷ 4

= 20 – 16 + 15

= 35 - 16

= 19

Hence, the correct answer is, "19".

Given expression: 13 × 8 + 25 - 6 ÷ 10 = 20

1. ÷ and - → 13 × 8 + 25 ÷ 6 - 10

13 × 8 + 25 ÷ 6 - 10

= 13 × 8 + 4.16 - 10

= 104 + 4.16 - 10

= 108.16 - 10

⇒ 98.16 ≠ 20. LHS ≠ RHS

2. × and - → 13 - 8 + 25 × 6 ÷ 10

= 13 - 8 + 25 × 6 ÷ 10

= 13 - 8 + 25 × 0.6

= 13 - 8 + 15

= 28 - 20

⇒ 20 = 20. LHS = RHS

3. • and ÷ → 13 × 8 ÷ 25 - 6 + 10

= 13 × 8 ÷ 25 - 6 + 10

= 13 × 0.32 - 6 + 10

= 4.16 - 6 + 10

= 14.16 - 6

⇒ 8.16 ≠ 20. LHS ≠ RHS

4. • and + → 13 × 8 - 25 + 6 ÷ 10

13 × 8 - 25 + 6 ÷ 10

13 × 8 - 25 + 0.6

104 - 25 + 0.6

104.6 - 25

⇒ 79.6 ≠ 20. LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is, '× and -'

The logic followed here is,

30 % 3 = 100 → 30 ÷ 3 × 10 = 100

Similarly,

70 % 14 = 50 → 70 ÷ 14 × 10 = 50

and,

20 % 8 = 25 → 20 ÷ 8 × 10 = 25

Thus, applying the above logic we get,

50 % 5 → 50 ÷ 5 × 10 = 100

Hence, The correct answer is '100'.

Given series,

CBABABAB, BACBABAB, BABACBAB, BABABACB, BCABABAB, __________

The logic followed here is shown in the table given below.

The position of C is shifting by two places ahead in a cyclic manner.

So, the next term in the series will be BABCABAB.

Hence, the correct answer is, “BABCABAB”.

The movement of the footballer A is shown below,

A runs 35 m East, then 15 m South, turns to his right and runs 60 m

The movement of footballer B is shown below,

B runs 20 m North, then 25 m West, turns left and runs 20 m

Combining the movement of both the footballers having the common starting point, we get

From the above figure, we can conclude that B is 15 meters away from A in the north direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "15 m North".

Statement I: All sticks are canes

Statement II: Some wands are sticks

The least possible Venn diagram of the above statements is,

Conclusion I: Some canes are wands → Follows (All sticks are canes, and some wands are sticks, thus some wands being canes is definite).

Conclusion II: No wands are canes → Does not follow (As those wands which are sticks are also canes)

Hence, the correct answer is, 'Only conclusion I follow'.

Given that the rectangle represents Authors, Circle represents Art critics, Triangle represents Tattooists, Square represents Joggers.

Letters B and H represent Joggers who are either Art critics or Authors i.e. the part of the square that is common with the circle or with the rectangle.

Hence, the correct answer is “BH”.

The logic followed here is each letter of the word is shifted by five places ahead as per the English alphabetical order.

Hence, the correct answer is, “ZHA”.

The pattern followed here is,

Consecutive numbers (i.e. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6) are added respectively to get the next term of the series.

Hence, the correct answer is “29”.

The logic followed here is,

(First Number) × 2 + 1 = Second Number;

(Second Number) × 2 - 1 = Third Number.

Applying the above logic to each option, we get

1. (8, 17, 33) → 8 × 2 + 1 = 17; 17 × 2 - 1 = 33

2) (3, 7, 12) → 3 × 2 + 1 = 7; 7 × 2 - 1 = 13 ≠ 12

3. (9, 19, 37) → 9 × 2 + 1 = 19; 19 × 2 - 1 = 37

4. (15, 31, 61) → 15 × 2 + 1 = 31; 31 × 2 - 1 = 61

We can see that except option 3, all other options follow the given logic, thus option 3 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer. is “(3, 7, 12)”.

When a mirror is placed at the bottom of the object, the mirror image of the object is the same as the water image of that object. Thus The image is vertically inverted or flipped vertically.

Thus, the possible mirror image of the object is shown below.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given unfolded cube,

From the above figure, we can conclude that,

1. The face of dice having * will be opposite +.

2. The side with a dot will be opposite to the circle.

3. The side with 4 squares will be opposite to that of the circle and square.

Now, in option 2 

The top side has

 and is adjacent to

 which is not possible. Thus the above cube can not be formed.

Hence, the correct answer is, "Option 2".

As per the information given in the question, the first digit of the number represents Rows while the second digit of the number represents the columns.

Thus, each option is decoded as below,

1. 34, 75, 23, 75 → EVDV

2. 30, 59, 43, 98 → MQLY

3. 14, 75, 23, 69 → CVDW

4. 68, 78, 95, 34 → TONE

Hence, the correct answer is "68, 78, 95, 34".

Given:-

 $\sqrt {243} - \frac{1}{2}\sqrt {108} - \sqrt {147}$

Detailed solution:-

We can write,

⇒ √243 = √(81 × 3) = 9√3

⇒ √108 = √(36 × 3) = 6√3

⇒ √147 = √(49 × 3) = 7√3

∴ √243 - 1/2 × (√108) - √147 = 9√3 - 3√3 - 7√3 = -√3 = -1.732  

∴ The required answer is  -1.732

Given:- 

589573212.

Concept used:-

(1)Place value is the value of the digit with reference to its position in the number

(2) While, face value is the actual value of the digit

Calculation:-

⇒ Place value of 7 in given number = 70000

⇒ Face value of 7 = 7

∴ Required difference = 70000 - 7 = 69993

Given:-

√(1 + y/16) = 7/4 

Detalied solution:- 

√(1 + y/16) = 7/4 

Squaring both sides,

⇒ 1 + y/16 = 49/16

⇒ 16 + y = 49

⇒ y = 49 – 16 = 33

∴ 5y – 15 = 5(33) – 15 = 165 – 15 = 150  

∴ The required answer is 150

Given:

 x2 + (1/x2) = 6

Formula: 

(a - b)² = a² + b² - 2ab

Calculation:-   

⇒ $\frac{{2x\left( {x - 1} \right)}}{{{x^3} - {x^2} - x + 1}}$

As we know, (x - 1/x)² = x² + 1/x² - 2 (  Put  the value x2 + (1/x2) = 6)

⇒ (x - 1/x)² = 6 - 2 = 4

⇒ (x - 1/x) = √4 = 2

Now, we can write,

⇒ x³ - x² - x + 1 = x3 - x - x2 + 1 = x(x² - 1) - 1(x² - 1)

= (x - 1)(x² - 1)

Hence,

$\therefore \frac{{2x\left( {x - 1} \right)}}{{{x^3} - {x^2} - x + 1}}$

$= \frac{{2x\left( {x - 1} \right)}}{{\left( {x - 1} \right)\left( {{x^2} - 1} \right)}}$

= 2x/(x² - 1)

= 2x/{(x(x - 1/x)}

= 2/(x - 1/x)

= 2/2 = 1

Detailed solution:-

The given figure can be drawn as,

Let O be the centre of the circle, AB be the chord and P is the centre point of chord AB, such that OP is the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle

Now, OA = OB = radius of circle = 25 cm

Length of chord = AB = 48 cm

⇒ PB = AB/2 = 48/2 = 24 cm

Applying Pythagoras theorem in ΔOPB,

⇒ OB² = OP² + PB²

⇒ 25² = OP² + 24²

⇒ OP² = 625 - 576 = 49

⇒ OP = √49 = 7 cm

∴ Distance of chord from centre of circle = 7 cm

Shortcut Trick

In ΔOBC, OB = OC (radii of the circle), so ∠OCB = ∠OBC = 40°.

Angle at the center: ∠BOC = 180° − (40° + 40°) = 100°.

Angle at the circumference: ∠BAC = ∠BOC ÷ 2 = 100° ÷ 2 = 50°.

∴ The correct answer is 50°.

Alternate Method

Given:

∠OBC = 40°

OB is the radius of the circle with center O.

Formula Used:

1. In an isosceles triangle, angles opposite to equal sides are equal.
2. The angle subtended by an arc at the center of a circle is twice the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle.

Calculations:

In ΔOBC:

⇒ OB = OC (since both are radii of the same circle)

⇒ ∠OCB = ∠OBC = 40° (angles opposite to equal sides are equal)

We know that the sum of angles in a triangle is 180°:

⇒ ∠BOC + ∠OBC + ∠OCB = 180°

⇒ ∠BOC + 40° + 40° = 180°

⇒ ∠BOC + 80° = 180°

⇒ ∠BOC = 180° − 80° = 100°

By the circle theorem, the angle subtended by arc BC at the center O is twice the angle subtended at the circumference at A:

⇒ ∠BOC = 2 × ∠BAC

⇒ 100° = 2 × ∠BAC

⇒ ∠BAC = 100° ÷ 2

⇒ ∠BAC = 50°

Option Verification:

⇒ Option (1) 35°: Incorrect, as this would imply ∠BOC = 70°, which means ∠OBC + ∠OCB = 110°, making each 55° instead of the given 40°.

⇒ Option (2) 45°: Incorrect, as this would imply ∠BOC = 90°, which means ∠OBC + ∠OCB = 90°, making each 45° instead of the given 40°.

⇒ Option (3) 50°: Correct, as it perfectly satisfies ∠BOC = 100° and ∠OBC = ∠OCB = 40°.

⇒ Option (4) 65°: Incorrect, as this would imply ∠BOC = 130°, which means ∠OBC + ∠OCB = 50°, making each 25° instead of the given 40°.

∴ The correct answer is 50°.

Additional Information

Angle in a Semicircle

The angle subtended by a diameter at any point on the circumference of the circle is always a right angle (90°).

Angles in the Same Segment

Angles subtended by the same arc or chord at any points on the remaining part of the circle are equal to each other.

Cyclic Quadrilateral Property

The sum of the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is always 180°.

Let the initial weight of A and B be ‘7x’ and ‘8x’ units respectively

Total weight of A & B = 7x + 8x = 15x

When A’s weight increases by 10% & total weight increases by 20%,

⇒ A’s increased weight = 110% of 7x = 1.1 × 7x = 7.7x

⇒ Total increased weight = 120% of 15x = 1.2 × 15x = 18x

Hence,

B’s increased weight = 18x - 7.7x = 10.3x

⇒ Increase in B’s weight = 10.3x - 8x = 2.3x

∴ Percentage increase in B’s weight = 2.3x/8x × 100 = 28.75%

Given, X’s income = Rs. 18000

But, X’s income ∶ Y’s income = 3 ∶ 4

⇒ 18000/Y’s income = 3/4

⇒ Y’s income = 18000 × 4/3 = Rs. 24000

Now, X’s savings = Rs. 3000

∵ Expenses = Income - Savings

⇒ X’s expenses = 18000 - 3000 = Rs. 15000

But, X’s expenses ∶ Y’s expenses = 5 ∶ 5

⇒ 15000/Y’s expenses = 1

⇒ Y’s expenses = Rs. 15000

∴ Y’s savings = 24000 - 15000 = Rs. 9000

Let ‘x’ units of P and Q alloys are melted to form third alloy

Tin-lead ratio in P alloy = 12 ∶ 5

⇒ Quantity of Tin in ‘x’ units of P alloy = (12/17)x

⇒ Quantity of Lead in ‘x’ units of P alloy = (5/17)x

Similarly,

Tin-lead ratio in Q alloy = 4 ∶ 3

⇒ Quantity of Tin in ‘x’ units of Q alloy = (4/7)x

⇒ Quantity of Lead in ‘x’ units of Q alloy = (3/7)x

Hence,

Total quantity of Tin in R alloy = (12/17)x + (4/7)x = (152/119)x

Total quantity of Lead in R alloy = (5/17)x + (3/7)x = (86/119)x

∴ Tin-lead ratio in R alloy = (152x/119) ∶ (86x/119) = 152 ∶ 86 = 76 ∶ 43

Given:-

The first 5 positive even numbers divisible by 9 are the first 5 even

multiples of 9, these even number are18,36,54,72,90 

Formula used:-

 Average = (Sum of Observations) ÷ (Total Numbers of Observations)

Calculation:-

⇒ Sum of first 5 even multiples of 9 

⇒ 9(2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10)  

⇒ 9 × 30 = 270

∴ Required average = 270/5 = 54

Given:

The simple interest on a sum for 20 years is 5/4 of the principal.

Concept used:

Simple interest = PRT/100

Calculation:

Given, time = 20 years

⇒ (5/4)P = (P × R × 20)/100

⇒ R = 5/4 × 5 = 25/4

∴ The rate of interest is 6.25% p.a.

Detailed solution:-

Cost price of 13 articles = Rs. 12

⇒ Cost price of 1 article = Rs. 12/13

Similarly,

Selling price of 12 articles = Rs. 13

⇒ Selling price of 1 article = Rs. 13/12

∵ Profit = Selling price - Cost price

⇒ Profit on 1 article = 13/12 - 12/13 = Rs. 25/156

∴ Profit percentage = (25/156)/(12/13) × 100 = 25/144 × 100 = 17.36%

Given:

The successive discount are 20%, 30% and 20%.

Formula:

Successive discount = X + Y - (XY)/100

Where,

X = First discount

Y = Second discount

Calculation:

Successive discount = X + Y - (XY)/100

⇒ 20 + 30 - 600/100

⇒ 44%

Now, again

Successive discount = X + Y - (XY)/100

X = 44%, Y = 20%

⇒ 44 + 20 - (44 × 20)/100

⇒ 64 - 8.8 = 55.2%

∴ The single equivalent discount is 55.2%.

Let the marked price of the tyre be Rs. ‘x’

Price after first discount = x - 20% of x = x - 0.2x = 0.8x

Price after second discount = 0.8x - 30% of 0.8x = 0.8x - 0.24x = 0.56x

Price after third discount = 0.56x - 20% of 0.56x = 0.56x - 0.112x = 0.448x

⇒ Total discounted price = x - 0.448x = 0.552x

∴ Net discount percentage = 0.552x/x × 100 = 55.2%

As we know, 36 = 6² ⇒ √36 = 6

Also, 729 = 9³ ⇒ ∛729 = 9

Also, 81 = 9² ⇒ √81 = 9

Also, 64 = 4³ ⇒ ∛64 = 4

∴ (√36 + ∛729)/(√81 × ∛64) = (6 + 9)/(9 × 4) = 15/36 = 5/12

Given:-

(1) Robin can do work alone in 9 days

(2) Amit can do the same work alone in 6 days.

Detailed solution:-

Robin’s 1-day work = 1/9

Amit’s 1-day work = 1/6

When they work together, they received Rs. 2500

∵ The ratio of wages = Ratio of work efficiencies

⇒ Robin’s share∶ Amit’s share = (1/9) ∶ (1/6) = 6 ∶ 9 = 2 ∶ 3

Sum of ratios = 2 + 3 = 5

∴ Robin’s share = 2/5 × 2500 = Rs. 1000

Given:- 

(1) A boat covers 63 km upstream in 9 hours 

(2) covers the same distance downstream in 7 hours

Formula used:-

Speed = Distance/time 

Calculation:-

Upstream speed = Distance/time = 63/9 = 7 km/hr

Downstream speed = Distance/time = 63/7 = 9 km/hr

∵ Speed in still water = 1/2 × (Upstream speed + Downstream speed)

∴ Speed of boat in still water = (9 + 7)/2 = 8 km/hr

The sales per employee increases in the year 2016 as compared to the previous year

∴ Sales per employee in 2016 is greater than that of the previous year

Sales per employee in 2011 = Rs. 70 lakhs

Sales per employee in 2015 = Rs. 50 lakhs

∴ Required difference = 70 - 50 = Rs. 20 lakhs

Sales per employee in 2012 = Rs. 70 lakhs

Sales per employee in 2015 = Rs. 50 lakhs

Difference = 70 - 50 = Rs. 20 lakhs

∴ The Sales per employee in 2012 were greater than that in 2015 by = 20/50 × 100 = 40%

Sales per employee in 2015 = Rs. 50 lakhs

No. of employees in 2015 = 80       

∴ Sales of company in 2015 = 50 × 80 = Rs. 4000 lakhs = Rs. 40 crores

Given:-

Diagonals = 5 cm & 12 cm

Formula used:-

Area of rhombus = 1/2 × Product of its diagonals

Calculation:-

As we know,

Area of rhombus = 1/2 × Product of its diagonals

∴ Area of rhombus = (5 × 12)/2 = 30 cm²

Given:-

The sum of the measures of all the interior angles of a regular polygon of 9 sides

Formula used:-

The sum of interior angles = (n - 2) 180°

Calculation:-

For a regular polygon with n sides,

The sum of interior angles = (n - 2) 180°

∴ Sum of interior angles of a regular polygon with 9 sides = (9 - 2) × 180° = 1260°  

∴The required answer is 1260°.

Given:- 

The surface area of a sphere is 1386 cm2 

Formula used:- 

Surface area = 4πr2 

Calculation:-

For a sphere with radius ‘r’,

Surface area = 4πr²

⇒ 1386 = 4 × (22/7) × r²

⇒ r² = 441/4

⇒ Radius of sphere = √(441/4) = 21/2 = 10.5 cm

∴ Diameter of sphere = 2(10.5) = 21 cm

Detailed solution:-

Given, in ∆PQR, ∠Q = 90° and ∠R = 60°

The sum of angles of a triangle = 180°

⇒ ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R = 180°

⇒ ∠P + 90° + 60° = 180°

⇒ ∠P = 180° - 150° = 30°

∴ (sec P - 1/√3) = sec 30° - 1/√3 = 2/√3 - 1/√3 = 1/√3

In the given ∆PQR,

Given, cosec P = 25/24

As we know, cot P = √(cosec² P - 1)

⇒ cot P = √(625/576 - 1) = √(49/576) = 7/24

But, cot P = base/Perpendicular

⇒ PQ/QR = 7/24

Now, cot R = base/Perpendicular = QR/PQ

∴ cot R = 1/cot P = 24/7

• National Income is defined as the total value of all the final goods and services produced by a country in a certain year.
• It includes all the payments made to all the resources in the forms of wages, interests, rent and profits.

The correct answer is 9th Schedule

Key Points

• Ninth Schedule:- 
• The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws generally which cannot be challenged in court.
• Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.
• Most of the laws protected under the Schedule concern agriculture/land issues.
• The Schedule became a part of the Constitution in 1951 when the document was amended for the first time.
• It was created by the new Article 31B, which along with 31A was brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system.
• While Article 31A extends protection to ‘classes’ of laws, Article 31B shields specific laws or enactments.
• The First Amendment added 13 laws to the Schedule.
• ​Subsequent amendments in 1955, 1964, 1971, 1974, 1975, 1976, 1984, 1990, 1994, and 1999 have taken the number of protected laws to 284.
• The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it in 1951.
• It ensured that the laws related to land reforms were not challenged in courts for violation of fundamental rights.

Additional Information

• 7th Schedule:-​
• The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the union and the states in terms of the list.
• The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies the allocation of powers and functions between the Union & States.
• It contains three lists:
• Union List,
• State List and
• Concurrent List
• 8th schedule:-
• ​The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri.
• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
• 10th schedule:-​
• The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution is about Anti-defection.
• Anti-defection law acts as a deterrent for those who hop parties from one to other.
• It is a type of control system against the members of any political party leaving the original party for another.

The correct answer is Monadnock.

Key Points

• Monadnock:-
• It is an isolated rock hill or small mountain that rises abruptly from a gently sloping or virtually level surrounding plain.
• They are left as erosional remnants because of their resistant rock composition.

The correct answer is Mahanadi.

Key Points

• Estuary
• An estuary is an area where a freshwater river or stream meets the ocean. When freshwater and seawater combine, the water becomes brackish, or slightly salty.
• Estuaries are home to unique plant and animal communities.
• Estuaries are among the most productive ecosystems in the world. Many animals rely on estuaries for food, places to breed, and migration stopovers.
• Congress created the National Estuarine Research Reserve System to protect more than one million acres of estuarine land and water.
• Western flowing rivers widen their mouth into the sea, so these rivers form Estuaries whereas Eastern rivers flow through broken hills and mountain ranges
• The river that forms the estuary is Narmada, Tapi and Mandovi.
• Mahanadi does not form an estuary as it forms a delta.​​​

Additional Information

• Mahanadi
• The Mahanadi river originates at a height of 422 meters above mean sea level near Pharsiya village, Nagri town in the Raipur district of Chhattisgarh.
• Mahanadi river of peninsular India is one of the major interstate east-flowing rivers.
• The length of the Mahanadi river from its source of origin to its confluence in the Bay of Bengal is nearly 851km, of which 357 km lies in Chhattisgarh and the remaining 494 km in Odisha.
• In Water Potential the Mahanadi river ranks second to the Godavari river among the peninsular rivers.
• Narmada
• Narmada is the longest river in Madhya Pradesh, followed by the Tapti.
• Narmada is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India.
• Its total length from its source in Amarkantak Amarkantak to its estuary in the Gulf of Khambhat is 1,310 km.
• The Source of the Narmada is Narmada Kund which is located at Amarkantak in Anuppur District, Madhya Pradesh.
• The Narmada is also known as the Rewa.
• ​Tapi​
• The Tapti River  (aka Tapi river )is a river in central India located to the south of the Narmada river which flows westwards before draining into the Arabian Sea.
• The river has a length of around 724 km and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Tapti river originates from Multai Betul district Madhya Pradesh. And also from the Satpura range.

The correct answer is Ghiyasuddin Azamshah.

Key Points

• GhiyasuddinAzamshah established a diplomatic relationship with the Ming Empire in China.
• He was the third ruler of the Ilyas Shahi Dynasty in Bengal.

The correct answer is 1893. 

Key Points

• The AryaSamaj was divided in 1893 over the question of vegetarianism.
• The group that continued consumption of meat was known as ‘the Cultured Party’ whereas the other group that refrained from eating meat was known as ‘Mahatma’.
• Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875 in Bombay.

Important Points Arya Samaj

• Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• Initially, the headquarters of Arya Samaj was in Bombay. Later shifted to Lahore, at present it is in New Delhi.
• The main aim of Arya Samaj is to make a casteless society, to abolish sati and encourage widow remarriages, and to provide education for all.
• Dayanand Saraswathi propagated the infallibility of the Vedas.
• He also encouraged inter-caste marriages.
• Arya Samaj strongly criticized the beliefs of Maya and Moksha.
• Dayanand attacked puranas, polytheism, idolatry and domination of the priestly class.
• He adopted Hindi for reaching out to the masses.

The correct answer is Jahangir.

Key Points

• Ustad Mansur:-
• He was a painter and court artist during the reign of the Mughal Ruler Jahangir (1605-1627).
• He was one of the earliest painters to depict a dodo in color apart from the depiction of the Siberian Crane.
• Jahangir (1605-1627):
• Jahangir was the eldest son of Akbar.
• Jahangir executed the fifth Sikh Guru, Arjun Dev.
• Under Jahangir, Mughal paintings reached their zenith.

Additional Information

• Shah Jahan (1627-1658):-
• He was the son of Jahangir.
• A French traveler, Tavernier visited during his reign
• Diwan-i-Khas and Diwan-i-Am, a hall for private and public audiences are built by Shahjahan.
• Akbar (1556-1605):-
• Emperor Akbar founded the city by the name of “ILLAHABAS” which later became ALLAHABAD.
• He introduced the new religion as Din Ilahi.
• He introduced the Mansabdari system.
• Akbar defeated Hemu in the second battle of Panipat.
• He built Ibadat Khana in Fatehpur Sikri.
• He followed the policy of Sulh-i-kul.
• Aurangzeb (1658-1707):-
• Mughal intervention in the succession and internal politics of the Rathor Rajputs of Marwar led to their rebellion.
• Campaigns against the Maratha chieftain Shivaji were initially successful. However, escaped from Aurangzeb’s prison Shivaji declared himself an independent king and resumed his campaigns against the Mughals.
• Prince Akbar[II] rebelled against Aurangzeb and received support from the Marathas and Deccan Sultanate.
• After Akbar’s rebellion, Aurangzeb sent armies against the Deccan Sultanates.

Important Points

• Mughals:
• The Mughals were descendants of two great lineages of rulers.
• From their mother’s side, they were descendants of Genghis Khan (died in 1227), the Mongol ruler who ruled over parts of China and Central Asia.
• From their father’s side, they were the successors of Timur (died 1404), the ruler of Iran, Iraq, and modern-day Turkey.
• However, the Mughals did not like to be called Mughal or Mongol. This was because Genghis Khan’s memory was associated with the massacre of innumerable people.
• It was also linked with the Uzbeks, their Mongol competitors.
• On the other hand, the Mughals were proud of their Timurid ancestry, not least of all because their great ancestor had captured Delhi in 1398.

The correct answer is Nicaragua.

Key Points

• Paris Agreement on Climate Change
• It is an environmental agreement to address climate change and its negative impacts.
• Parties to the UNFCCC reached a landmark agreement at COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015, to combat climate change.
• The main aim is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by keeping a global temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
• The agreement went into effect on 4 November 2016.
• As of now, the agreement has been signed by 197 countries.
• The Paris Agreement which was signed in 2015 by US and 187 other countries was joined by Nicaragua on 23 October 2017.
• This leaves only United States and war-torn Syria against the global climate agreement.

The correct answer is Asha Bhosle.

Key Points

• ​Yash Chopra Memorial Award:-
• The TSR Foundation of T. Subbarami Reddy established the Yash Chopra Memorial Award ceremonies in memory of noted filmmaker, Yash Chopra, who died in 2012, in association with AnuRanjan and Shashi Ranjan.
• It comes with a citation and Rs 10,000,000.
• These award shows were established in 2013, the night before Yash Chopra passed away, and are held in his honor.
• The 5^th Yash Chopra Memorial Award was given to Asha Bhosle by Rekha for her outstanding contribution to the world of music over her six decades as a singer.
• Asha Bhosle:-
• She is a playback singer and entrepreneur from India. Asha Bhosle claimed in 2006 that she had sung over 12,000 songs, a number that has been verified by several other outlets.
• She was officially recognized as the most registered artist in music history by the Guinness Book of World Records in 2011.
• In 2000, the Indian government awarded her the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, and in 2008, the Padma Vibhushan.
• Bhosle is the younger sister of playback singer Lata Mangeshkar and is a member of the Mangeshkar family, which is well-known in Bollywood.

Additional Information

• Alka Yagnik:-​
• Indian playback vocalist Alka Yagnik, who was born on March 20, 1966, specializes in Hindi cinema.
• Numerous awards, including two National Film Awards for Best Female Playback Singer, have been given to Yagnik.
• The Lata Mangeshkar Award was given to Yagnik in 2017 for her work in the music industry.
• Kavita Krishnamurthy:-
• Sharada is an Indian playback and classical vocalist also known by the name Kavita Krishnamurthy or Kavita Subramaniam.
• She has recorded more than 50,000 Songs recorded in 46 different languages.
• She won the Padma Shri in 2005 and four Filmfare Best Female Playback Singer Awards, which she won consecutively from 1995 to 1997.
• Sunidhi Chauhan:-​
• She is an Indian playback singer.
• She has won the 'RD Burman Award for New Music Talent and 'Best Female Playback'.

The correct answer is Lahore.

Key Points

• Jahangir (1605-1627):
• Jahangir was the eldest son of Akbar.
• Jahangir executed the fifth Sikh Guru, Arjun Dev.
• Under Jahangir, Mughal paintings reached their zenith.
• The tomb of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir is situated in Lahore
• It dates back to the year 1637.
• It is at Shahdara Baghin Lahore, Punjab, and is located on the banks of the Ravi River.

Important Points 

• Mughals:
• The Mughals were descendants of two great lineages of rulers.
• From their mother’s side, they were descendants of Genghis Khan (who died in 1227), the Mongol ruler who ruled over parts of China and Central Asia.
• From their father’s side, they were the successors of Timur (died 1404), the ruler of Iran, Iraq, and modern-day Turkey.
• However, the Mughals did not like to be called Mughal or Mongol. This was because Genghis Khan’s memory was associated with the massacre of innumerable people.
• It was also linked with the Uzbeks, their Mongol competitors.
• On the other hand, the Mughals were proud of their Timurid ancestry, not least of all because their great ancestor had captured Delhi in 1398.

The Correct answer is 18,7.

Explanation:

• There are 18 groups and 7 periods in the modern periodic table.
• A period is a horizontal row of the periodic table. There are seven periods in the periodic table, with each one beginning at the far left.
• A group is a vertical column of the periodic table, based on the organization of the outer shell electrons. There are a total of 18 groups.

Solution: A mixture contains two or more substances that are not chemically combined.

The correct answer is the Twelfth Schedule.

Key Points

• The Twelfth schedule:- 
• It was added by the 74^th amendment to the constitution.
• It is associated with the municipalities in the country as the mechanism of local self-governance.
• The twelfth Schedule of the Indian constitution contains the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities.
• This schedule has 18 items.
• This was passed in the year 1992 and it came into effect on June 01, 1993.
• Constitution (Seventy Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992:-
• It has introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with Municipalities in an article 243 P to 243 ZG.
• This amendment, also known as Nagarpalika Act.

Additional Information

• Ninth Schedule:-​
• The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws generally which cannot be challenged in court.
• Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.
• Most of the laws protected under the Schedule concern agriculture/land issues.
• The Schedule became a part of the Constitution in 1951 when the document was amended for the first time.
• Tenth Schedule:-​
• The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution is about Anti-defection.
• Anti-defection law acts as a deterrent for those who hop parties from one to other.
• It is a type of control system against the members of any political party leaving the original party for another.
• Eleventh Schedule:-​
• The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added in 1992 by the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act.
• This Schedule contains 29 subjects.
• This schedule covers important topics such as Panchayat's powers, rural development, poverty alleviation, market, roads and drinking water, etc.

The correct answer is All I, II and III

Key Points

• Supremacy of the Constitution:-
• It is a doctrine where the Constitution is the supreme law of the country and all have to obey it.
• Free and fair elections:-
• It refers to the elections that take place without any application of force.
• Judicial Review:-
• It refers to the power of the judiciary to review the functions of the central government and state governments.

Additional Information

• From the various judgments, the following have emerged as ‘basic features of the Constitution or elements of the ‘basic structure of the constitution:
• Supremacy of the Constitution
• Sovereign, democratic, and republican nature of the Indian polity
• Secular character of the Constitution
• Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary
• Federal character of the Constitution
• Unity and integrity of the nation
• Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
• Judicial review
• Freedom and dignity of the individual
• Parliamentary system
• Rule of law
• Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
• Principle of equality
• Free and fair elections
• Independence of Judiciary
• Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution (not the sovereignty of the Parliament).
• Effective access to justice 18. Principles (or essence) underlying fundamental rights
• Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142
• Powers of the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227

The Correct answer is All I, II and III

Explanation:

• Plasma is the largest component of blood, comprising about 55% of its overall content.
• Along with water, plasma carries salts, hormones and enzymes.
• The main purpose of plasma is to transport nutrients, hormones, and proteins to the parts of the body that need them.
• Plasma is the largest part of the blood. It makes up more than half (about 55%) of its total content. When separated from the rest of the blood, plasma is a pale yellow liquid that contains water, salts, and enzymes.

Important Points

• Plasma is called the matrix of blood. It is composed of clotting factors, protein compounds, and serum.
• It consists of 92% water with proteins, salts, lipids, and glucose.
• Plasma is the main mode of excretory product transport.
• The main role of plasma is to transport nutrients, hormones, and proteins to the parts of the body that need them.
• Cells also dump their waste products into the plasma.
• The plasma then helps to remove this waste from the body.
• Blood plasma also carries all parts of the blood through the body's circulatory system.
• Proteins and antibodies in plasma are also used in the treatment of rare chronic conditions such as autoimmune disorders and haemophilia.

The correct answer is Differentiated plant body.

Explanation:

• The first level of classification among plants depends on whether the plant body has well- differentiated, distinct components.
• Depending upon these criteria plants are classified as Thallophyta, Bryophyta, and Pteridophyta.

Additional Information

• Thallophyta
• The plant body is not differentiated from roots, stems, and leaves.
• They are commonly called algae.
• Bryophyta
• These are small terrestrial plants.
• They show differentiation in the body design, with stem, leaf-like structures, and root-like structures.
• Pteridophyta
• The plant body is differentiated into roots, stems, and leaves, apart from having a specialized tissue for conduction.
• Gymnosperms
• Gymnosperms are plants with naked seeds.
• Angiosperms
• Angiosperms are seed-bearing plants. Seeds develop inside tissues that get modified to form the fruit of the plant.

The correct answer is Environment Ministry.

Key Points

• ‘Prakriti Khoj’ was the undertaking of the Environment Ministry to generate interest among school children about the science related to the environment, interactions within it, and the problems therein.
• In an attempt to spread awareness about the environment, the government launched a national-level online quiz competition, "Prakriti Khoj
• This will help in sensitizing the children/youth to issues related to environment and development and motivate children towards environment conservation-oriented lifestyles.

Important PointsEnvironment Ministry-

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is an Indian government ministry.
• Bhupendra Yadav is the current (February, 20223) minister of this ministry.
• The broad objectives of the Ministry are:
• Conservation and survey of flora, fauna, forests and wildlife
• Prevention and control of pollution
• Afforestation and regeneration of degraded areas
• Protection of the environment and
• Ensuring the welfare of animals

The correct answer is Bertrand Halperin.

Key Points

• The term ‘Excitonium’ was coined by Bertrand Halperin who was a theoretical physicist at Harvard.
• Researchers at the University of Illinois discovered this new state of matter in 2017.
• Excitonium is a state of matter that is a condensate made up of excitons and exhibits macroscopic quantum phenomena just like a superconductor.
• Bertrand I. Halperin is an American physicist and former holder of the Hollis Chair of Mathematics and Natural Philosophy at the physics department of Harvard University.

The correct answer is Rs. 9 lakh crore.

 Key Points

• The government had revealed plans to invest Rs. 9 lakh crores in 2017 to boost the country's economy.
• Out of the Rs. 9 lakh crores, a sum of Rs. 6.92 lakh crore is earmarked for infrastructure spending.
• Another Rs. 2.11 lakh crore was announced for bank recapitalization to revive investments as well as growth.