SSC CHSL Previous Paper 55 (Held On: 26 March 2018 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 1- the error lies only in Part 1.

Key Points

It should be on every level instead of in.

A level is analogous to a floor of a building. And we say my office is on the third floor.

Option 1 is thus the correct answer.

The correct sentence: Evolutionary processes give rise to biodiversity on every level of biological organisation, including the level of species, individual organisms, and molecules.

The correct answer is 4- No Error.

Key Points

Note that had begun is not incorrect since it occurred before the action of 'continuation' and therefore, uses the past perfect tense.

The correct answer is Sketch.

Key Points

Sketch: to make a simple and quickly-made drawing of something

Additional Information

• Made: produced something, often using a particular substance or material
• Scatter: to (cause to) move far apart in different directions
• Built: made something by putting bricks or other materials together

The correct answer is Deep.

Key Points

We are presenting a contrast through but. Even though life is short, it has a meaning quite opposing to short. Here, we will go with the contextual antonym. Something short is not generally deep as brevity is not generally associated with depth.

Deep: showing or needing serious thought, or not easy to understand

Thus, Option 3 - Deep is the most appropriate answer.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other words-

• Rare: (of an event, situation, or condition) not occurring very often
• Sharp: (of an object) having an edge or point that is able to cut or pierce something
• Blur: make or become unclear or less distinct.

Thus, we can see that the correct word would be 'deep'.

The correct answer is Lively.

Key Points

• Pert:  energetic, enthusiastic, and confident
• Lively: full of energy and enthusiasm; interesting and exciting

Thus we can see that 'pert' and 'lively' are synonyms.

Additional Information

• Humble: not proud or not believing that you are important
• Meek: quiet, gentle, and not willing to argue or express your opinions in a forceful way
• Timid: shy and nervous; without much confidence; easily frightened

Important Points

Timid and Meek are synonyms or near-synonyms.

'Pert' is generally used as an adjective to qualify the nature of a young woman.

The correct answer is Plentiful.

Key Points

• Copious: in large amounts, or more than enough (बड़ी मात्रा में, या पर्याप्त से अधिक)
• Plentiful: abundant (प्रचुर)

Thus we can see that copious and plentiful are synonyms.

Additional Information

The meaning of the other words-

• Counterfeit: fake; copied (उल्लू बनाना; की नकल की)
• Commendable: deserving praise (प्रशंसा के पात्र)
• Deficient: lacking; not enough (कमी; पर्याप्त नहीं)

The correct answer is Mild

Key Points

• Egregious: extremely bad in a way that is very noticeable (एक तरह से बेहद खराब जो बहुत ध्यान देने योग्य है)
• Mild: not violent, severe, or extreme (हिंसक, गंभीर या चरम नहीं)

Thus we can see that egregious and mild are antonyms. 

Additional Information

• Noticeable: easy to see or recognize (देखने या पहचानने में आसान)
• Gross: total; extremely unpleasant (कुल; अत्यंत अप्रिय)
• Obvious: easy to see, recognize, or understand (देखने, पहचानने या समझने में आसान)

The correct answer is Infamy.

Key Points

• Rectitude: honesty and correct moral behaviour
• Infamy: the quality of being famous for something considered bad

Thus we can see that Rectitude and Infamy are antonyms or near-antonyms.

Additional Information

• Goodness: the personal quality of being morally good
• Honesty: the quality of being honest
• Character: the particular combination of qualities in a person or place that makes them different from others

The correct answer is QPR.

Key Points

Elusive means difficult to find or catch. Now, what could be difficult to find?

• Clearly, out of P, Q, and R, Q starts with snow leopard which fits the description, so Q is the first part.
• Automatically options 2 and 4 are ruled out.
• A sentence can't end with of the international, so P can't be the last part.
• Hence Option 1) QPR is the correct answer.

The sentence: The elusive snow leopard has lost its endangered status in the Red List of the International Union for Conservation of Nature.

The given sentence is in simple past tense. Thus, the passive voice will be **was/were + past participle of give = given. Option 1) She was given promotion happily by him is the correct answer.

Then => now during change of speech => rule out 3) and 4). You can't eliminate the information that these were the words said by Anuj => rule out 1). Option 2) Anuj said that he needed my help then is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Hygiene.

Key Points

The correct spelling is Hygiene.

• Hygiene: the degree to which people keep themselves or their environment clean, especially to prevent disease
• Eg. Poor standards of hygiene mean that the disease spreads fast.

The correct answer is Automatically.

Key Points

Automatically(adverb): independent, without human control

It is clear from the context that the blank needs an adverb. Among the options, only the word 'automatically' is an adverb.

Additional Information

Automatic(adjective): able to operate independently of human control

There is no such word as automatical

Automation(noun): the use of machines and computers that can operate without needing human control

The correct answer is Appreciation.

Key Points

Appreciation(noun): the act of recognizing or understanding that something is valuable, important, or as described

From the context, it is clear that the blank needs a noun. Among the options, only the word 'appreciation' is a noun.

Additional Information

• Appreciate(verb): to recognize how good someone or something is and to value him, her, or it
• Appreciative(adjective): showing that you understand how good something is, or are grateful for something
• Appreciatively(adverb): in a way that shows you are grateful for something

The correct answer is Of.

Key Points

Of(preposition): expressing the relationship between a part and a whole.

Additional Information

For(preposition/conjunction): As a preposition, for is used to introduce a purpose or goal. As a conjunction, for means because.

From(preposition): indicating the point in space at which a journey, motion, or action starts

Off(adverb/preposition): away from the place in question; to or at a distance; moving away and often down from.

The correct answer is Up.

Key Points

End up: to reach or come to a place, condition, or situation that was not planned or expected

Hint

• In this question, we have to take into account the phrasal use of the prepositions.
• In this way, we can easily eliminate Upon, On and Above.

The correct answer is And.

Key Points

 And(conjunction): used to connect words of the same part of speech, clauses, or sentences, that are to be taken jointly.

Additional Information

• But(conjunction): used to introduce a phrase or clause contrasting with what has already been mentioned
• Nor(conjunction): used before the second or further of two or more alternatives (the first being introduced by a negative such as ‘neither’ or ‘not’) to indicate that they are each untrue or each do not happen
• Also(adverb): in addition; too

The correct answer is Betray someone.

Key Points

• Stab someone in the back: a betrayal of trust, an act of treachery
• For example: Don't trust George; he's been known to stab his friends in the back**.**

The correct answer is Used to emphasize that one completely opposes something.

Key Points

Over my dead body: 

• in no way, under no circumstances
• willing to go to extreme lengths to stop something from happening
• an exaggerated way of saying, “Absolutely not” 
• Eg. You think that I will give you the keys to my car? Over my dead body.

The correct answer is Fallow.

Key Points

Fallow: land not planted with crops, in order to improve the quality of the soil

• Eg. Farmers are eligible for government support if they let a certain amount of land lie fallow.

​ 

Additional Information

Let's look at the meaning of other given options-

• Urbane- The term "urbane" refers to someone who is sophisticated, polished, and suave in social situations
• Sophisticated-  having or showing a lot of experience and knowledge about the world and about culture, art, literature, etc
• Genteel- The term "genteel" refers to having or displaying qualities associated with polite society, refinement, and good manners. It describes a person or their behavior as being well-bred, courteous, and socially respect

The correct answer is Apathetic.

Key Points

Apathetic: showing no interest or energy and unwilling to take action, especially over something important

Additional Information

• Ardent: showing strong feelings
• Fervent: used to describe beliefs that are strongly and sincerely felt or people who have strong and sincere beliefs
• Melancholic: expressing feelings of sadness

I takes have, not has. Rule out 4). 2) and 3) are grammatically incorrect phrases. Option 1) Have been is the correct answer.

Correct phrases in place of 2,3 = was being and have been.

The correct answer is Returned.

Key Points

The first part of the sentence(the first clause) is in the simple past tense and to maintain uniformity and parallelism, the verb in the second clause must also be in the same tense as the actions are considered almost simultaneous. 

The correct sentence: I closed the window just in time and returned to my room with relief.

The correct answer is ABC.

Key Points

We use in order to with an infinitive form of a verb to express the purpose of something. Thus, it must be followed by a verb => Only A qualifies the criterion.

Option 4) ABC is the correct answer.

The sentence: In order to regulate technology and boost the rankings, we need our teachers to exponential thinking.

The correct answer is Symptomatically.

Key Points

The correct spelling is symptomatically.

Symptomatically:  By symptoms

Here, the pattern is such that second word is the physical quantity and the first word is the unit of that physical quantity i.e.

Ohm : Resistance → Ohm is the unit of Resistance.

By checking all the options.

1. Temperature : Degree → Here temperature is not the unit of degree.

2. Hectare : Area → Hectare is the unit of Area.

3. Energy : Watt → Here Energy is not the unit of Watt.

4. Current : Ampere → Here Current is not the unit of Ampere. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Hectare : Area".

Here pattern is as follows:

That 2^nd number is 7 more than the 1^st number i.e.

16 : 23 → 16 + 7 = 23.

Similarly,

22 : ? → 22 + 7 = 29.

Hence, the correct answer is "29".

The pattern here is as follows,

Hence, the correct answer is "QXO".

The logic here is as follows:

In all the pairs, the 1^st word is a category while the 2^nd word is the example of that category i.e.

1. Figure - Rectangle → Rectangle is an example of Figure.

2. Ornament - Ring → Ring is an example of Ornament.

3. Vehicle - Scooter → Scooter is an example of Vehicle.

4) Necklace - Ornament → Ornament is not an example of Necklace.

Hence, the correct answer is "Necklace - Ornament".

The logic here is as follows:

First number × 2 = Second number

1. 17 – 34 → 17 × 2 = 34

2. 37 – 74 → 37 × 2 = 74

3. 43 – 86 → 43 × 2 = 86

4) 29 – 59 → 29 × 2 = 58

But in 29 – 59 → 29 × 2 = 58 which is not equal to 59.

Hence, the correct answer is "29 – 59".

The logic here is as follows:

There's a pattern of –8 between two consecutive characters as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "ZSK".

The dictionary sequence is:

 4) Phony

 5) Pick

 3) Pierce

 2) Pigment

 1) Pinnacle.

Hence, the correct answer is "45321".

The relation between the numbers is as follows,

13 + 19 = 32

19 + 32 = 51

32 + 51 = 83

51 + 83 = 134

Hence, the correct answer is "134".

The pattern is as follows,

Hence, the correct answer is "SBW".

The following arrangement is as follows:

Suraj is shorter than Gopal but taller than Tarun.

Gopal > Suraj > Tarun

Rajan is the tallest and Shivam is shorter than Suraj but not the shortest

Rajan > Gopal > Suraj > Shivam >Tarun.

So, Suraj is the third shortest.

Hence, the correct answer is "Suraj".

Let’s check each option,

1. VOTE → cannot be formed because there is no ‘T’ in ENDEAVORS.

2. ROSE → can be formed as ENDEAVORS.

3. END → can be formed as ENDEAVORS**.**

4. DONE → can be formed as ENDEAVORS.

So, VOTE can’t be formed from word ENDEAVORS.

Hence, the correct answer is "VOTE".

The pattern here is each letter of the given words are coded as a particular number as shown below:

Hence the required conversion is,

Hence, the correct is "45810".

The given equation is:

7 - 8 + 20 x 10 ÷ 9 = ?

Here '-' represents '+', '+' represents 'x', 'x' represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-'.

So let’s replace the sign in the above equation.

7 - 8 + 20 x 10 ÷ 9 → 7 + 8 x 20 ÷ 10 - 9

So, now solving the equation according to bodmas rule

7 + 8 x 20 ÷ 10 - 9

7 + 8 x 2 - 9

7 + 16 - 9 

23 - 9

= 14

Hence, the correct answer is "14".

The given equation is: 16 × 4 - 10 + 2 ÷ 12 = 18

Let’s check each option by solving using bodmas rule,

1. (× and -) →

 16 - 4 × 10 + 2 ÷ 12 =18

 16 - 4 × 10 + 0.167 = 18

 16 + 0.167 - 40 = 18

 16.167 - 40 = 18

 -23.83 ≠ 18

2. (÷ and -) →

 16 × 4 ÷ 10 + 2 - 12 = 18

 16 × 0.4 + 2 - 12 = 18

 6.4 + 2 - 12 = 18

 8.4 - 12 = 18

 - 3.6 ≠ 18

3. (- and +) →

 16 × 4 + 10 - 2 ÷ 12 = 18

 16 × 4 + 10 - 0.167 = 18

 64 + 10 - 0.167 = 18

 74 - 0.167 = 18

 73.84 ≠ 18

4. (÷ and ×) →

 16 ÷ 4 - 10 + 2 × 12 = 18

 4 - 10 + 2 × 12 = 18

 4 + 24 - 10 = 18

 28 - 10 = 18

 18 = 18

 So, by interchanging (÷ and ×) the equation will be correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "(÷ and ×)".

The pattern here is as follows,

Two numbers are given separated by ‘!’. We get the answer by adding the two numbers and multiplying it by 10 to get the answer.

Let A and B are two numbers such that A!B then

A!B = (A + B) × 10 i.e.

4!4 = (4 + 4) × 10 = 80

3!8 = (3 + 8) × 10 = 110

6!2 = (6 + 2) × 10 = 80

Similarly,

7!9 = (7 + 9) × 10 = 160.

Hence, the correct is "160".

The pattern here is the letter ‘C’ and ‘D’are two letters between the continuous series of ‘AB’. If D is after C (i.e. BCD)then in the ne×t step D will replace the one which was before C (i.e. DCB) and if they are in the left most corner the one which is after will replace the letter which is in the right most corner as shown below:

ABABCDAB, ABADCBAB, ABCDABAB, ADCBABAB, CDABABAB,CBABABAD

Hence, the correct answer is "CBABABAD".

Given:-

1. The route of the race goes 4.5 km West from the starting point.
   

2) It then turns North and goes 3 km.

3. Then turns East and goes 4.5 km.

4. Finally it turns left and goes 1.5 km to reach the end point.

5. The distance and direction of the end point with respect to the start point.

As can be seen clearly that the end point is 4.5 km away and is in North direction with respect to the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "4.5 km North".

The least possible venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below:-

Conclusions:

I. All tapes are strips→ Doesn't follow (As it is given that some ribbons are tapes so, it is possible but not definite that all tapes are strips.)

II. No strips are tapes → Doesn't follow (As no direct relation is given between strips and tapes so, it is not definite that No strips are tapes.)

Hence, the correct answer is "Neither conclusion I nor II follows".

Given:-

Rectangle represents Hairstylists ;  Circle represents Choreographers ; Triangle represents Mountain climbers and Square represents Gymnasts.

Letters in Rectangle that represents hairstylists are → A B C D E F

Letters in Circle that represents Choreographers are → I H

Letters in Triangle that represents Mountain Climbers are → B C D

Letters in Square that represents Gymnasts are → C F G H

It can be seen that the common letter representing Gymnasts who are both Hairstylists as well as Mountain climbers is → C  (present at the intersection point of square, rectangle and triangle.

Hence, the correct answer is "C".

The pattern followed here is:-

As can be seen clearly that the next number in the series is CJT.

Hence, the correct answer is "CJT".

The pattern followed here is:-

Hence, the correct answer is "34".

The logic followed here is:-

(First term × 5) + 1 → Second number

First number × 3 → Third number

In (7, 36, 21)

[7, {(7 × 5) + 1}, {7 × 3}]

[7, {35 + 1}, 21] → (7, 36, 21)

In (9, 46, 27)

[9, {(9 × 5) + 1}, {9 × 3}]

[9, {45 + 1}, 27]) → (9, 46, 27)

In (11, 56, 33)

[11, {(11 × 5) + 1}, {11 × 3}]

[11, {55 + 1}, 33]) → (11, 56, 33)

In (22, 106, 63)

[22, {(22 × 5) + 1}, {22 × 3}]

[22, {110 + 1}, 66]) → (22, 111, 66) not (22, 106, 63)

Hence, the correct answer is "(22, 106, 63)".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on the line MN is as shown below:-

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Additional Information

• The mirror always forms the laterally inverted images, i.e. left changes to right and vice-versa.
• The reflection of an object in the water is called its water image.
• The water image of an object in the water is always vertically inverted, i.e. upside changes to downside and vice-versa.
• The water image is the mirror image in case if the mirror is placed horizontally below the object.

Here, the opposite faces of the cube are:-

⇔ 

 (i.e. dot is present on the face opposite to circle)

⇔ 

 (i.e. star is present on the face opposite to square)

⇔ 

 (i.e. circle enclosing the square is present on the face opposite to addition symbol)

Now, checking option one by one:-

1. Cube shown in option figure 1 can be formed as no opposite faces are present together.

2. Cube shown in option figure 2 can be formed as no opposite faces are present together.

3. Cube shown in option figure 3 can be formed as no opposite faces are present together.

4. Cube shown in option figure 4 of the cannot be formed as the opposite faces

 and  

 are shown adjacent to each other which is not possible.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern followed here is:-

A letter in the matrices is represented first by its row and then by its column.

Checking options one by one to identify the set for the word 'MAZE'

1) 22 → H ; 97 → T ; 43 → J ; 66 → W  (so, the letter cluster formed is HTJW)

2) 24 → L ; 76 → Z ; 12 → E ; 66 → W (so, the letter cluster formed is LZEW)

3) 31 → J ; 76 → Z ; 11 → G ; 58 → V (so, the letter cluster formed is JZGV)

4. 14 → M ; 41 → A ; 76 → Z ; 12 → E (so, the word formed is 'MAZE')

Hence, the correct answer is "14, 41, 76, 12".

Calculation:

Sum of n natural numbers = n(n + 1)/2

The sum of the first 20 multiples of 9 

⇒ 9(1 + 2 + 3 +…+ 20)

⇒ 9 × 20 × 21/2

⇒ 1890

Average of first 20 multiples of 9

⇒ 1890/20

⇒ 94.5

∴ The answer is 94.5.

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Step-1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and in the bracket,

Step-2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next,

Step-3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are calculated,

Step-4: Last but not least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and 'Subtraction' should be calculated

Calculation:

$\frac{{7\left| {2 - 6} \right| - 4\left| 5 \right| \div 5}}{{ - 7\left( 2 \right) - 2 \times 2; \div 2 + 2}}$

⇒ $\frac{{7\times 4 - 20 \div 5}}{{ - 14 - 2 \times 1 + 2}} = \frac{{28 - 4}}{{ - 14 - 2 + 2}} = - \frac{{24}}{{14}} = - \frac{{12}}{7}$

As we know, (a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc) = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca)

Given, a² + b² + c² = ab + bc + ca + 4

⇒ a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca = 4

∴ (a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc) = 4 × 4 = 16

x – intercept is the point at which the line crosses the x – axis, i.e. y = 0

Putting y = 0 in the equation,

⇒ 18x + 25(0) – 900 = 0

⇒ 18x = 900

⇒ x = 900/18 = 50

∴ x – intercept is 50

The given circles can be drawn as shown below

Let P be the intersection point of AB and OO’

AP = AB/2 = 10/2 = 5 cm

OP = OO’/2 = 24/2 = 12 cm

Considering ∆AOP,

AO² = OP² + AP²

⇒ AO² = 144 + 25 = 169

⇒ Radius of circle = AO = √169 = 13 cm

∴ Area of circle = πr² = 3.14 × 13 × 13 = 530.66 cm²

Let AB be the diameter of the circle with centre O and CD be the chord in the circle, as shown below

OC = OD = OA = OB = radius of circle = 10/2 = 5 cm

OE = Distance between chords and the centre of the circle

Perpendicular drawn from the center of the circle bisects the chord; radius always bisects the chord if perpendicular.

CE = CD/2 = 6/2 = 3 cm

Considering ∆OCE,

OE² = OC² – CE²

⇒ OE² = 25 – 9 = 16

∴ Distance between chord and centre = OE = √16 = 4 cm

Given, 60% of P = 50% of Q

But, Q = x% of P

⇒ 60% of P = 50% of x% of P

⇒ 60/100 × P = 50/100 × x/100 × P

⇒ x = 60 × 2

∴ x = 120

Part of profit received by Z = 1 – (1/4 + 1/5) = 1 – 9/20 = 11/20

⇒ 11/20 of Total profit = 22000

⇒ Total profit = 22000 × 20/11 = Rs. 40000

∴ Profit received by X = 1/4 × 40000 = Rs. 10000

P’s total investment = 50000 × 4 + (50000 – 20000) × 8 = 440000

Q’s total investment = 40000 × 6 + (40000 + 70000) × 6 = 900000

Ratio of their profit = ratio of their investments = 440000 ∶ 900000 = 22 ∶ 45

Sum of ratios = 22 + 45 = 67

P’s share = (22/67) × Total profit = 11000

∴ Total profit = 11000 × (67/22) = Rs. 33500

Weight of 25 candles = 25 × 40 = 1000 grams

Let ‘x’ candles of 50 grams each were removed

Weight of remaining (25 – x) candles = (25 – x) × 37.5

⇒ 1000 – 50x = (25 – x) × 37.5

⇒ 1000 – 50x = 937.5 – 37.5x

⇒ 50x – 37.5x = 1000 – 937.5

⇒ 12.5x = 62.5

⇒ x = 62.5/12.5 = 5

∴ 5 candles of 50 grams each were removed.

Let the sum be Rs. P

Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) /100

⇒ 270 = (P × 8 × 9/12) /100

⇒ P = (270 × 12 × 100) / (8 × 9) = Rs. 4500

∴ The sum is Rs. 4500

∵ Cost price + Profit = Selling price

⇒  Profit = Selling price – Cost price = Rs. 575

⇒  23% of Cost price = 575

⇒  Cost price = 575/0.23 = Rs. 2500

∴ Selling price = 2500 + 575 = Rs. 3075

Let the cost price be Rs. ‘x’

Marked price = (100 + 20)% of x = 1.2x

Discount price = 20% of Marked price = 0.2 × 1.2x = 0.24x

Selling price = Marked price – Discount price = 1.2x – 0.24x = 0.96x

∵ Selling price is less than the cost price, there is a loss

Loss % = [(x – 0.96x)/x] × 100 = 4%

∴ There is a loss of 4%

Let the number to be added by ‘x’

In order to make a perfect square of 5785, we can write,

⇒ (5785)² = 5786 × 5784 + x

⇒ (5785)² = (5785 + 1) × (5785 – 1) + x

⇒ (5785)² = (5785)² – 1 + x                  [∵ (a + b)(a – b) = a² – b²]

⇒ x = 1

∴ The least number to added is 1

20 boys’ 25 days’ work = 1/4

⇒ 20 boys’ 1 day work = 1/4 × 1/25 = 1/100

⇒ 1 boy 1 day work = 1/20 × 1/100 = 1/2000

⇒ 1 boy 50 days’ work = 50 × 1/2000 = 1/40

⇒ Remaining work = 1 – 1/4 = 3/4

⇒ No. of boys required to do remaining work in 50 days = (3/4) / (1/40) = 30

∴ No. of more boys required = 30 – 20 = 10

Time taken in walking from both sides = 75 min.

Time taken in walking from one side = 75/2 = 37.5 min.

Time taken in walking from one side + cycling from one side = 46 min

Time taken in cycling from one side = 46 – 37.5 = 8.5 min.

∴ Time taken in cycling from both sides = 2(8.5) = 17 min.

Average marks scored by division C = 50

If average marks increased by 10,

∴ Percentage increase = (10/50) × 100 = 20%

Average marked scored by division A = 25

Average marks scored by division C = 50

∴ Average marks of division A were lesser than that of Division C by = [(50 – 25)/50] × 100 = 50%

Average marked scored by division C = 50

Average marks scored by division G = 30

∴ Required ratio = 50 ∶ 30 = 5 ∶ 3

Given:

Calculation:

Highest average marks are scored by division E (i.e 60)

The second highest marks are scored by division C (i.e. 50)

Area of rhombus = 1/2 × product of diagonals

∴ Area of given rhombus = (8 × 15)/2 = 60 cm²

Given:

Radius = 35 cm

Formula used:

Area of semi-circle with radius ‘r’ = πr2/2

Calculation:

Area of given semi-circle = (22/7) × (35 × 35)/2 = 1925 cm2

∴ Area of given semi-circle is 1925 cm²

For a right circular cone with radius of ‘r’ units and slant height of ‘l’ units,

Total surface area = πr(l + r)

Radius of given cone = 14/2 = 7 cm      

∴ Total surface area = (22/7) × 7 × (10 + 7) = 374 cm²

Given:

ΔDEF is right angled traingle. 

∠D = 45°

Concept used:

Sum of angles of a triangle = 180°

Calculation:

⇒  ∠D + ∠E + ∠F = 180°

⇒  45° + 90° + ∠F = 180°

⇒  ∠F = 180° – 135° = 45°

(tan F + 1/3)

⇒ tan 45° + 1/3 

⇒ 1 + 1/3

⇒ 4/3

∴ The required value of (tan F + 1/3) is 4/3.

In ∆XYZ shown below,

cosec X = hypotenuse/opposite = XZ/YZ = 17/15

Let XZ be 17x and YZ be 15x

Given, XY = 4 cm

Using Pythagoras theorem,

XZ² = XY² + YZ²

⇒ (XY)² = (XZ)² - (YZ)2

⇒ (XY)2 = (17x)² - (15x)²

⇒ (XY)2 = 64x²

⇒ XY = 8x

⇒ 8x = 4

⇒ x = 1/2

⇒  YZ = 15 × 1/2

∴ YZ is 7.5 cm

The correct answer is Pension.

 Key PointsAssessment of National Income in India does not include pensions as there are three methods to assess it:

• It is straightway the national output that is evaluated.
• It is the income accruing from the production and sale of goods and services which is accounted for.
• It is the expenditure on these goods and services which is estimated.

Hence, pension is not included in the general methodology while assessing the national income.

The correct answer is Crude Petroleum.

Key Points

• Black Revolution:
• To increase petroleum production, the Government planned to accelerate the production of ethanol and to mix it up with petrol to produce biodiesel.
• Ethanol is a renewable source of energy and is a by-product of sugar production produced from molasses.
• The blending of ethanol with petrol has been practised in the USA and Brazil for over 70 years.
• The blending of ethanol with transport fuels would provide better returns to farmers, supplement scarce resources of hydrocarbons and environment-friendly by reducing pollutants as it helps combustion.​

Additional Information

• Colour revolutions:

The correct answer is Narasimha Varman I.

Key Points

• Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchipuram, the capital of Pallavas, during the reign of Narasimha Varman I.
• Narsimha Verman I was the most famous ruler of the Pallva Dynasty.
• He succeeded Mahendra Verman who was defeated by Pulkesin II.

Additional Information

• Mahendra Verman
• Mahendravarman was a Pallava king who ruled the Southern portion of the present-day Andhra region and Northern regions of what forms present-day Tamil Nadu in India.
• He was initially a patron of Jainism but he converted to the Saiva faith under the influence of the Saiva saint Appar.
• He was the son of Simhavishnu, who defeated the Kalabhras and re-established the Pallava kingdom.
• Mahendravarma was succeeded to the throne by his more famous son Narasimhavarman in 630 CE.

​The correct answer is Self-respect movement.

Key Points

• Erode Venkatappa Ramasamy was an Indian social activist, and politician who started the Self-Respect Movement.
• Self-respect movement was the movement to restore respect and honour for the backward classes.
• This movement was started against Brahmanism in 1921 by S. Ramanathan who called upon E.V. Ramasamy Naicker who was also called Periyar in Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

• Justice Movement
• The Justice Party was a political party in the Madras Presidency of British India.
• It was established on 20 November 1916 in Victoria Public Hallin Madras by Dr C. Natesa Mudaliar and co-founded by T. M. Nair, P. Theagaraya Chetty and Alamelu Mangai Thayarammal as a result of a series of non-Brahmin conferences and meetings in the presidency.
• Ezhava Movement 
• Shri Narayana Guru, a guru from the Ezhava caste in present-day Kerala proclaimed the ideals of unity for his people.
• He argued against treating people unequally on the basis of caste differences.
• According to him, all humankind belonged to the same caste.
• "Oru jati, oru matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (One caste, one religion, one god for humankind) is one of his famous statements.
• The Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) movement, among the Ezhavas of Kerala, is an example of a conflict between the depressed classes and the upper non-Brahmana castes.
• The Ezhavas were a caste of toddy tappers in Kerala. They were like the Nadars of Tamil Nadu and the **Idigas of Karnataka.**​

The correct answer is Potaro.

Key Points

• The largest single-drop waterfall is found at Kaieteur.
• It is situated in Kaieteur National Park beside the Potaro River.
• It is located in a portion of the Guyanan Potaro-Siparuni region, which is part of the Amazon rainforest.
• When measured from its descent over a sandstone and conglomerate cliff to the first break, it is 226 meters high.
• The falls were rediscovered by Europeans in 1870 by a group headed by British geologist Charles Barrington Brown.

Additional Information

• Mississippi:
• On the Mississippi River, Saint Anthony Falls is the only significant natural waterfall.
• St. Lawrence:
• On the St. Lawrence River, Montmorency Falls plunge 83 meters into a bowl-shaped basin.
• Zambezi:
• Southern Africa's Victoria Falls, a cascade on the Zambezi River, is home to a number of rare plant and animal species.

The correct answer is Gerosoppa Falls - Kaveri.

Key Points

• Jog Falls, Gerosoppa Falls, or Jogada Gundi Falls, situated in Sagara taluk in Karnataka, is India's second-highest plunge waterfall (after the Nohkalikai Falls).
• It is situated on the boundary between the Shimoga and Uttara Kannada districts.
• Gerosoppa Falls, formed by the Sharavati River dropping from a height of 253 meters, is a massive waterfall 30 km downstream (829 ft) with an elevation of 488 meters.
• Gerosoppa Falls is India's highest untiered waterfall i.e. it drops directly and does not stream onto rocks.

Additional Information

The correct answer is 1893 AD.

Key Points

• Swami Vivekananda participated in the 1893 World’s Religion Conference which was held in Chicago, USA.
• There he gave a path-breaking speech which was applauded around the world.
• Swami Vivekananda represented Hinduism at the World’s religions parliament.

Additional Information

• Swami Vivekananda was born on 12th January 1863.
• His birthday is celebrated as National youth day in India.
• Narendranath Datta is the original name of Swami Vivekananda.
• He is considered the patriotic saint of India.
• "Go back to Gita" is a famous slogan raised by Swami Vivekananda.
• Ramakrishna Mission was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897.
• The headquarters of Ramakrishna Mission is located at Belur Math in West Bengal.
• "Atmano mokshartham Jagat Hitaya cha" is the motto of Ramakrishna Mission.
• Swami Vivekananda died on 4th July 1902 at the age of 39.

The correct answer is Women First, Prosperity for All

Key Points

• Global Entrepreneurship Summit is an annual entrepreneurship gathering that witnesses emerging entrepreneurs, investors, and supporters from different fields around the world.
• It was organized in Hyderabad to highlight the issue of women's empowerment on the world-class platform.
• The theme of the Global Entrepreneurship Summit, 2017 organized in Hyderabad was ‘Women First, Prosperity for All’.

The correct answer is 120 Beats per Minute

Key Points

• 120 Beats per Minute won the best film award in the 48th International Film Festival of India (IFFI), organized from November 20 to 28, 2017 in Panaji, Goa.
• It is a drama film directed by Robin Campillo.
• This film is about homosexuality and AIDS.

The correct answer is 72%.

Key Points

• 72% of Bhutan is approximately covered with forest.
• Bhutan is a Himalayan Country located in Asia with Thimpu as its capital.
• Bhutan is one of the greenest countries in the world.

Important Points

• Bhutan:
• The national tree is Bhutan Cypress.
• The official language of Bhutan is Dzongkha.
• The capital of Bhutan is Thimphu.
• The national animal is Takin (cattle chamois or gnu goat)
• The national bird is Common Raven
• The national flower is the Blue poppy.
• The national sport is Archery.

The correct answer is Isotones.

Explanation:

Isotones:

• The atoms of the elements having the same difference between mass number and atomic number are called Isotones.
• Isotones are nucleoid which has different proton number and the same number of neutrons.
• For example, boron-12 and carbon-13 nuclei both contain 7 neutrons

Isobar:

• Isobars are those elements which have different atomic numbers but the same atomic mass.
• Their chemical property is different because there is a difference in the number of electrons.
• Example of two Isobars is Iron and Nickel.
• Both have the same mass number which is 58 whereas the atomic number of Iron is 26, and the atomic number of Nickel is 28.

Isotopes:

• They are variants of a particular chemical element.
• While all isotopes of a given element share the same number of protons and electrons, each isotope differs from the others in its number of neutrons.
• For example, Carbon-12, Carbon-13 and Carbon-14 are three isotopes of the element carbon with mass numbers 12, 13 and 14 respectively.

The Correct answer is In nuclear reactors.

Explanation:

Heavy Water:​

• Deuterium oxide, D2O.
• It is an oxide of the isotope of hydrogen, Deuterium.
• It is a colourless and odourless liquid.
• A molecule of heavy water has two deuterium atoms in place of the two normal hydrogen atoms of ordinary "light" water.
• The presence of deuterium gives the water different nuclear properties, and the increase in mass gives it slightly different physical and chemical properties when compared to normal water.
• Heavy water is not radioactive.
• Heavy water is not safe to drink.
• American scientist and Nobel laureate Harold Urey discovered the isotope deuterium in 1931.
• Argentina is the main producer of heavy water.
• Heavy water is used in certain types of nuclear reactors, where it acts as a neutron moderator to slow down neutrons so that they are more likely to react with the fissile uranium-235 than with uranium-238. ​
• Heavy water acts as a moderator when it is used in nuclear reactors.
• Moderators are used to containing the velocity of neutrons used in the nuclear reactions so that they do not react with Uranium-238.

The correct answer is Gram Sabha.

Key Points

• The Gram Sabha prevents the Panchayat from doing wrong things which may include misusing money or favouring certain people.
• It keeps an eye on the elected representatives and in making them responsible to the persons who elected them.
• According to the Constitution, Gram Sabha carries out any duties and wields any authority granted by a State's legislature at the local level. To aid in the Panchayat's development plans and programmes' implementation.

Additional Information

• Secretary of Gram Panchayat
• In India, there is a Panchayat Secretary for each village.
• The Gram Sabha will be in charge of the Secretary, and he will carry out any tasks that are given to him by the Gram Sabha. All obligations imposed by the Panchayat Raj Act are the responsibility of the Gram Panchayat Secretary.
• Sarpanch
• The Gram Panchayat is made up of the Ward Panch and the Sarpanch.
• A Sarpanch, who serves as the Panchayat President, is further chosen by all of the Gram Sabha members.
• Five years are up for election for the Gram Panchayat.
• The Secretary of the Gram Sabha also serves as the Secretary of the Gram Panchayat.
• District Collector
• ​The District Collector is the district's highest-ranking revenue official.
• The district collector is a member of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).
• District collector bears the responsibility of administering a district.
• The district collector is responsible for maintaining peace and order in the district, as well as issuing orders to prevent disorder and unrest.
• The main functions of the District Collector are:
• Supervise general administration.
• Collect land revenue.
• Maintain law and order in the district.
• Maintenance of land records.
• Providing relief work in case of emergencies like floods and famine.
• Supervision of the working of the Panchayati Raj System.

The correct answer is Constituency.

Key Points

• It is a delimited area in a specific region. It is delimited by the Election Commission of India. Members of Parliament represent a particular constituency in India.
• Currently, there are 543 constituencies in India.

The correct answer is Kidney shaped.

Explanation:

Stomata

• Stomata are the small openings found on the leaf epidermis.
• It can be found on stems and other plant parts.
• It can be seen beneath the light microscope.
• Stomata structure:
• Two guard cells surround each stoma.
• The kidney-shaped guards contain chloroplasts.
• In the stoma, there is a respiratory chamber.
• Guard cells are the cells in the epidermis of leaves which control gas exchange in plants.
• These are useful in the water retention of plants when they are in need of water and are kidney-shaped cells.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• The government wants to see 6-7 million electric and hybrid vehicles on Indian roads from 2020 onwards under the ‘National Electric Mobility Mission Plan’.
• This plan was launched to gain electric mobility by promoting electric and hybrid vehicles in the country. It was launched in 2013.

The correct answer is MIT- Media Lab

Key Points

• Shelley, the first horror writer in the field of Artificial Intelligence, was developed by MIT researchers.
• It learns by feeding on data and then processed into horror stories.

The correct answer is Rs 25 lakh.

 Key Points

According to the latest Housing Building Rules, an employee of the Government can borrow a maximum of 25 lacks to buy or build a house with 34 months of basic pay. B=HBA rules are decided by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

The correct answer is Millets

Key Points

• The Government of India has the approved year 2018 as the National year of Millet.
• Millet is a term to categorize the small grasses used to feed animals and people.
• Millets are high in fiber and gluten-free which are a good choice for the consumption of a healthy diet.

The correct answer is 2.5.

Calculation:

To find the acceleration of a moving body:

Here u=initial velocity; v = final velocity

Formula: v - u/t

Final velocity - initial velocity/ time

20 - 10/4 = 10/4 = 2.5 m/s2

The Correct answer is Pressure.

Explanation:

• Compression: Compression is a region in a longitudinal wave where the particles are closest together.
• Compression has high density and high pressure
• Rarefaction: A rarefaction is a region in a longitudinal wave where the particles are furthest apart.
• Rarefaction has a low density and low pressure
• The propagation of sound can be visualised as the propagation of pressure variations in the medium.
• Sound can propagate through solids, liquids and gases. Sound is a sequence of waves which pressurized through compressible media like air or water.

• Land breeze is a physical phenomenon which is local in nature as it depends upon the heating of the earth and seawater.
• During night times, when land is being cooled as it loses its heat more easily than seawater then wind direction gets reversed from land to sea.

Note:

• Sea Breeze:
• During the day the land heats up faster and becomes warmer than the sea.
• Therefore, over the land, the air rises giving rise to a low-pressure area, whereas the sea is relatively cool and the pressure over sea is relatively high.
• Thus, pressure gradient from sea to land is created and the wind blows from the sea to the land as the sea breeze.
• Land Breeze:
• In the night the reversal of condition takes place.
• The land loses heat faster and is cooler than the sea.
• The pressure gradient is from the land to the sea and hence land breeze results.

The correct answer is Both B and C

Key Points

• Only B and C statements are correct as World Women's Chess Championship was won by Anna Muzychuk in 2017.
• Anna Muzychuk is from Ukraine.​

Important Points

• Hopman Cup
• ​The Hopman Cup is an annual international team indoor tennis tournament held in Perth, Western Australia in early January every year.
• It was founded in 1989.
• ​FIDE​
• The International Chess Federation (FIDE) is the governing body of the chess sport, regulating all international competitions.
• Constituted as a non-governmental institution, it was recognized by the International Olympic Committee as a Global Sporting Organization in 1999.
• FIDE currently has its headquarters in Lausanne, Switzerland.