SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 29 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Foeticide.

Key Points

• The word "Foeticide" refers to the act of killing an unborn baby or fetus. (भ्रूण हत्या)
• Example: The government has strict laws against foeticide to prevent illegal abortions.
• The word "Foeticide" is specific to the termination of a fetus and is used in medical and legal contexts. (भ्रूण हत्या)
• Example: Foeticide is a serious crime in many countries and is punishable under law.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Foeticide.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Homicide (हत्या): The deliberate and unlawful killing of one person by another.
• Example: The detective investigated the case of homicide that occurred last night.
• Paternity (पितृत्व): The state or quality of being a father.
• Example: A DNA test was conducted to establish paternity in the legal dispute.
• Maternity (मातृत्व): The state or quality of being a mother.
• Example: She is on maternity leave after giving birth to her baby.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Analyze the consequences before making a decision.

Key Points

• The phrase "Look before you leap" means to carefully consider the consequences or outcomes of an action before proceeding. (पहले सोचे, फिर करे)
• Example: Before investing all her savings in the stock market, she remembered the advice to look before she leaped.
• Analyze the consequences implies thinking about possible outcomes of a decision or action before committing to it. (परिणामों का विश्लेषण करना)
• Example: He analyzed the consequences of switching jobs before making the final decision.
• Hence, "Analyze the consequences before making a decision" best expresses the meaning of the idiom "Look before you leap."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Analyze the consequences before making a decision.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Hide something (कुछ छुपाना): To keep something hidden or out of sight.
• Example: She tried to hide her disappointment from everyone.
• Option 3: Depending on others for task completion (दूसरों पर निर्भर होना): Relying on others to complete a task or achieve a goal.
• Example: He is depending on his teammates to finish the project on time.
• Option 4: Always be humble to people of lower designation (निचले पद के लोगों के प्रति हमेशा विनम्र रहना): To treat people in lower positions with respect and humility.
• Example: A good leader is always humble to people of lower designation.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is grammatically correct as written and follows the rules of the Present Perfect Continuous tense.
• The phrase "have been doing" is used correctly to describe an action that started in the past and continues into the present, which is reinforced by the duration "all my working life."
• The relative clause "I enjoy" (modifying "job") is in the simple present tense to indicate a current, ongoing state or preference.
• The adverbial of time "all my working life" is placed at the end of the sentence to modify the main verb phrase, which is a standard and acceptable structure in English.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "I'm lucky that I have been doing a job I enjoy all my working life."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "I'm lucky that" – This is a correct introductory phrase. Using "that" to introduce a noun clause is standard.
• Option 2: "I have been doing a job" – This part is grammatically sound. The use of the continuous form emphasizes the ongoing nature of the career.
• Option 3: "I enjoy all my working life." – While "all my working life" appears in this segment, it functions as a modifier for the action of doing the job. There are no spelling or syntax errors here.
• No correction required – Since there are no errors in subject-verb agreement, tense usage, or punctuation, this is the appropriate choice.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error lies in the use of the conjunction "when" in the third part of the sentence.
• The expression "No sooner" is a correlative conjunction that is always paired with "than," not "when."
• When a sentence begins with "No sooner," it requires inversion, where the auxiliary verb (had) comes before the subject (she). This part is correctly written as "had she left."
• To rectify the error, "when" must be replaced with "than" to complete the structure "No sooner... than."

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "No sooner had she left the room than the lights went out."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "No sooner" – This is the correct starting phrase for indicating that one event happened immediately after another.
• Option 2: "had she left" – This maintains the necessary inversion (Auxiliary + Subject + Main Verb) for sentences starting with negative adverbs.
• Option 4: "the lights went out" – This is a grammatically correct clause in the simple past tense, describing the second action.
• Confusing Pairs: Remember that "Hardly," "Scarcely," and "Barely" are the words that are paired with "when." (e.g., Hardly had she left the room when the lights went out.)

The correct answer is 'by'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "taken aback by" is a standard expression used to indicate surprise or shock caused by something.
• The preposition "by" is the correct choice here, as it is commonly used with the verb "taken aback" to specify the cause of the surprise.
• Options 2 (at), 3 (for), and 4 (over) are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The manager was taken aback by the sudden resignation of three key employees."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "at" is incorrect because "at" does not convey the correct relationship between the manager and the cause of surprise.
• Option 3: "for" is incorrect because it does not fit the standard usage of the phrase "taken aback."
• Option 4: "over" is incorrect because "over" does not work in this construction.

The correct answer is 'bridge'.

 

Key Points

• The correct word to complete the sentence is "bridge," which refers to a structure built to span a physical obstacle, such as a river.
• The other options are either misspelled or unrelated to the context of the sentence.
• Option 1: "bred" is incorrect as it refers to breeding animals or plants.
• Option 2: "bread" is incorrect as it refers to food made from flour and water.
• Option 3: "bredge" is incorrect as it is not a valid word.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "They built a bridge to cross the river."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "bred" is unrelated to the context of building a structure to cross a river.
• Option 2: "bread" is a food item and does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 3: "bredge" is not a valid word in English.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word is 'Sacrilegious.'
• 'Sacrilegious' is an adjective that means showing disrespect or irreverence for something sacred. (अपवित्र)
• For example: It is considered sacrilegious to damage or disrespect religious artifacts.

Additional Information

Explanation for Incorrect Options:

• Option 2 (Sacriligious): Incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is 'Sacrilegious.'
• Option 3 (Sacreligous): Incorrect spelling. It omits the 'i' in the correct word and rearranges letters incorrectly.
• Option 4 (Secreligeous): Incorrect spelling. It introduces an unnecessary 'e' and misplaces letters.

The correct answer is 'over the city'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "over the city" is the correct preposition to describe the plane flying above or across the city, offering a great view.
• The preposition "on" is incorrect in this context as it implies physical contact, which is not suitable for describing a plane in flight.
• Options 2 ("in the city") and 3 ("at the city") are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The plane flew over the city, offering a great view."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "in the city" is incorrect because it implies the plane was located inside the city, which is illogical for describing flight.
• Option 3: "at the city" is incorrect because "at" is used for specific points or locations, not for describing aerial movement.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence uses an inappropriate preposition ("on"), which needs correction.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The phrasal verb "done away with" is the correct form to indicate the removal or elimination of something.
• In the given sentence, the context refers to eliminating unnecessary paperwork, so "done away with" is the appropriate replacement.
• Options 2 ("done off"), 3 ("done in for"), and 4 ("No substitution") do not fit the context or are grammatically incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The company has done away with unnecessary paperwork by going completely digital."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "done off" is incorrect because "done off" does not exist as a proper phrasal verb.
• Option 3: "done in for" is incorrect because "done in for" is not a valid or meaningful phrase in this context.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the phrase "done away for" in the original sentence is grammatically incorrect.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "The students were imitating the way of the description by the teacher."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the way of the description by the teacher" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "were imitating" to "was being imitated" (past continuous passive voice).
• Ensure the subject "the students" is preceded by the preposition "by" in the passive voice sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The way of the description by the teacher was being imitated by the students."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The way of the description by the teacher was imitated by the students." – Incorrect tense (past simple passive).
• Option 2: "The way of the description by the teacher were being imitated by the students." – Incorrect subject-verb agreement (plural "were" is incorrect for singular "way").
• Option 3: "The way of the description by the teacher had been imitated by the students." – Incorrect tense (past perfect passive).

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The given sentence is in passive voice: "All the arrangements had been made by the organizers before we arrived."
• To convert this sentence into active voice, the subject "the organizers" will be placed at the beginning.
• The verb "had been made" in passive voice changes to "had made" in active voice (past perfect tense).
• The object "all the arrangements" remains after the verb.
• The time clause "before we arrived" remains unchanged.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The organizers had made all the arrangements before we arrived."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The organizers made all the arrangements before we arrived." – Incorrect as it uses simple past instead of past perfect tense.
• Option 2: "The organizers will have made all the arrangements before we arrive." – Incorrect as it uses future perfect tense.
• Option 4: "The organizers have made all the arrangements before we arrived." – Incorrect as it uses present perfect tense instead of past perfect.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: Snigdha exclaimed that that day was a very beautiful day.
• Key Conversions:
• "What a beautiful day today is!" becomes "that day was a very beautiful day"
• Exclamation is converted to a declarative sentence in indirect speech.
• Pronoun "today" changes to "that day" to reflect the perspective of indirect narration.
• Verb "is" changes to "was" to match the past tense required in reported speech.
• Reporting verb:
• Direct: "said"
• Converted to: "exclaimed" to convey the emotional expression of the original exclamation.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Indirect speech does not use quotation marks.
• The sentence is structured with proper tense and pronoun changes to reflect the indirect narration.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: Snigdha exclaimed that that day was a very beautiful day.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Snigdha exclaimed that that day has been a very beautiful day."
• Incorrect tense usage. "Has been" is present perfect, which does not match the past tense required in indirect speech.
• Option 2: "Snigdha exclaimed that that day a very beautiful day was."
• Incorrect word order. The sentence structure is awkward and does not follow proper English grammar.
• Option 3: "Snigdha exclaimed that day was a very beautiful day."
• Missing the pronoun "that" before "day," resulting in incomplete conversion.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: They asked if I knew the way to the museum.
• Key Conversions:
• "They asked if I knew" becomes "Do you know"
• Indirect question "if I knew" is converted to direct question "Do you know."
• Pronoun "I" is changed to "you" to match direct speech.
• Verb "knew" is changed to "know" to match the present tense in direct questions.
• "the way to the museum" remains the same
• The object of the question does not change in direct speech.
• Reporting verb:
• Indirect: "They asked"
• Converted to: "They asked," maintaining the inquiry tone.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• Starts with a capital letter "Do" and ends with a question mark "?".
• Reporting clause follows the quoted speech, starting with a lowercase letter after the comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "They asked, “Do you know the way to the museum?”"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "They asked, ‘Did you know the way to the museum?’"
• Incorrect tense: "Did you know" implies a past inquiry, whereas the original sentence uses "knew" in a general sense.
• Option 3: "They ask, ‘If I know the way to the museum?’"
• Incorrect reporting verb: "They ask" changes the tense and does not match the original sentence.
• Incorrect word order: "If I know" is not proper direct speech format.
• Option 4: "They said, ‘Did you know the way to the museum?’"
• Incorrect reporting verb: "They said" changes the tone from a question to a statement.
• Incorrect tense: "Did you know" implies a past inquiry, altering the meaning.

The correct answer is '2'with, through'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence describes a relationship between the subject’s fascination and exposure to ancient texts, which makes the prepositions "with" and "through" the most suitable choices.
• The preposition "with" indicates the subject’s fascination is associated with mythology.
• The preposition "through" indicates the means by which the fascination developed, i.e., exposure to ancient texts.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not convey the correct meaning in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "His fascination with mythology grew through exposure to ancient texts."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "of, by" is incorrect as "of" does not correctly describe the subject’s fascination and "by" does not indicate the means of development.
• Option 3: "for, from" is incorrect as "for" implies a different type of relationship and "from" does not express the growth of fascination.
• Option 4: "at, under" is incorrect as these prepositions do not fit the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Direct Speech: In direct speech, the exact words of the speaker are enclosed in quotation marks.
• Key Conversions:
• "By the time she arrived, the guests had already started leaving" remains unchanged.
• The original sentence uses the correct past tense "arrived" and "had already started leaving," which matches the grammatical structure of direct speech.
• Reporting verb:
• Indirect: "He said that..."
• Converted to: "He said," followed by the quoted speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• Starts with a capital letter "By" and ends with a period inside the quotation marks.
• The reporting clause precedes the quoted speech, separated by a comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: He said, "By the time she arrived, the guests had already started leaving."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "By the time she has arrived, the guests were already leaving."
• Incorrect tense usage: "has arrived" is present perfect, which doesn't match the original sentence.
• "were already leaving" changes the meaning from "started leaving" to ongoing action.
• Option 2: "By the time she had arrived, the guests had already started leaving."
• Tense mismatch: "had arrived" implies an earlier past action than "arrived," which alters the timeline of events.
• Option 4: "By the time she arrived, the guests had already started to leave."
• "Started to leave" is acceptable but less natural than "started leaving" in this context.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• To change the sentence from passive to active voice, the subject of the passive sentence must become the object in the active sentence.
• In the given passive sentence, "It was widely considered that the ancient ruins were believed to have been constructed by a previously unknown civilization," the action centers around the belief of construction.
• The active sentence must focus on "People" or "They," who considered or believed the construction of the ancient ruins.
• The correct active voice structure should express the hypothetical situation of belief directly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "People widely considered that a previously unknown civilization had constructed the ancient ruins."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "They widely considered that a previously unknown civilization believed to have constructed the ancient ruins." – Incorrect tense usage and unclear grammatical structure.
• Option 2: "People widely considered that a previously unknown civilization was believed to have constructed the ancient ruins." – Still passive in nature and does not fully convert to active voice.
• Option 4: "It was believed that a previously unknown civilization had constructed the ancient ruins, it was widely considered." – Passive voice structure retained and redundant phrasing.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Perseverence'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Perseverance'.
• The word 'Perseverance' is a noun which means 'persistence in doing something despite difficulty or delay in achieving success'. (दृढ़ता)
• For Example -
• With perseverance, she completed the marathon despite the challenges.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Perseverence'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Acknowledgment - recognition or acceptance of something (स्वीकृति)
• Proficiency - (निपुणता)
• Reputable - having a good reputation and respect (प्रतिष्ठित)

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "Bob was drawing the portrait."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the portrait" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "was drawing" to "was being drawn" (past continuous passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "Bob."
• Ensure the sentence retains its original meaning and tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The portrait was being drawn by Bob."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The portrait is being drawn by Bob." – Incorrect tense (present continuous passive).
• Option 3: "The portrait has been drawn by Bob." – Incorrect tense (present perfect passive).
• Option 4: "The portrait was drawn by Bob." – Incorrect tense (past simple passive).

The correct answer is 'Option 3 (Noun)'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Verb
• This is incorrect. “Punctuality” does not denote an action; it names a quality.
• Option 2: Adjective
• This is incorrect. The adjective form is “punctual,” not “punctuality.”
• Option 3: Noun
• This is correct. “Punctuality” is a noun that refers to the quality or state of being punctual (on time). In the sentence, it functions as the object of the verb “value.”
• Option 4: Adverb
• This is incorrect. The adverb form would be “punctually,” not “punctuality.”

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 (Noun).

 

Additional Information

• Punctuality is derived from the adjective punctual + suffix -ity, which forms abstract nouns denoting qualities.
• Examples: “responsible → responsibility,” “active → activity.”
• In the passage, “value punctuality” means to appreciate or respect the quality of being on time.

The correct answer is 'Option 2 (Because "system" is a singular subject)'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Because "training" is the object
• This is incorrect. The verb form is determined by the subject, not the object. “Training” is the object of the verb “focuses.”
• Option 2: Because "system" is a singular subject
• This is correct. The subject of the sentence is “The Japanese education system,” which is singular. Therefore, the verb must agree in the singular form: “focuses.”
• Option 3: Because "education" is uncountable
• This is incorrect. While “education” is uncountable, the subject is “system,” not “education.” The verb agreement depends on “system.”
• Option 4: Because the sentence is in passive voice
• This is incorrect. The sentence is in active voice (“system focuses”), not passive. Passive would be “is focused on.”

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Because "system" is a singular subject.

 

Additional Information

• Subject-verb agreement rule: A singular subject takes a singular verb form (with -s or -es in present tense).
• Example: “The committee decides the rules.” / “The system works efficiently.”
• If the subject were plural (“systems”), the verb would be “focus.”

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Effectiveness.

Key Points

• The word "efficiency" means:
• The ability to accomplish a job with the minimum expenditure of time and effort. (समय और प्रयास के न्यूनतम खर्च पर किसी काम को पूरा करने की क्षमता)
• Example: The efficiency of the new software has improved productivity at the company.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured her a perfect score.

Therefore, the closest synonym for "efficiency" in the given sentence is: Effectiveness.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Freedom (स्वतंत्रता): The power or right to act, speak, or think without hindrance or restraint.
• Example: The country fought hard to gain freedom from colonial rule.
• Popularity (लोकप्रियता): The state or condition of being liked, admired, or supported by many people.
• Example: The singer's popularity soared after the release of her new album.
• Ambition (महत्वाकांक्षा): A strong desire to achieve something, typically requiring determination and hard work.
• Example: His ambition to become a renowned scientist motivated him to work tirelessly.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Special importance or attention.

Key Points

• The word "emphasis" means:
• Special importance, value, or prominence given to something. (किसी चीज़ को दिया गया विशेष महत्व, मूल्य, या प्रमुखता)
• Example: The teacher laid emphasis on the need for regular practice in order to improve skills.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured her a perfect score.

Therefore, the word “emphasis” in the given sentence means: Special importance or attention.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Opposition (विरोध): Resistance or dissent expressed in action or argument.
• Example: The opposition to the new policy was evident at the meeting.
• Rejection (अस्वीकार): The dismissing or refusing of a proposal or idea.
• Example: Her application faced rejection due to missing documents.
• Lack of interest (रुचि की कमी): Absence of enthusiasm or concern about something.
• Example: His lack of interest in the project was obvious from his indifferent attitude.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Japanese people dislike rules
• This is incorrect. The passage emphasizes that Japanese people respect rules and discipline, not dislike them.
• Option 2: Discipline is deeply rooted in Japanese culture and benefits society
• This is correct. The passage highlights how discipline is taught from childhood, reflected in everyday life, and evident during crises. It shows that discipline strengthens society and enhances Japan’s global reputation.
• Option 3: Japan struggles to maintain cleanliness
• This is incorrect. The passage states the opposite—streets remain clean despite few dustbins, showing discipline, not struggle.
• Option 4: Japan does not value teamwork
• This is incorrect. The passage explicitly mentions teamwork as a focus of the Japanese education system.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Discipline is deeply rooted in Japanese culture and benefits society.

 

Additional Information

• The passage illustrates discipline in everyday life (queues, cleanliness, respect for public spaces).
• It emphasizes education’s role in teaching teamwork, responsibility, and moral values.
• During crises, discipline ensures calmness and cooperation, strengthening recovery efforts.
• Overall, discipline is portrayed as a cultural cornerstone that benefits both Japanese society and its global image.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Overt.

Key Points

• The word "Surreptitious" means something done secretly or stealthily, especially because it would not be approved. (गुप्त, चोरी-छिपे)
• Example: They had a surreptitious meeting to discuss the confidential matter.
• "Overt" refers to something that is open and not hidden; it is done or shown publicly without concealment. (स्पष्ट, खुला)
• Example: His overt display of emotions showed everyone how much he cared.
• Hence, the antonym of 'Surreptitious' is 'Overt'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Overt.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Covert (गुप्त): Refers to something that is hidden or secret, not openly acknowledged.
• Example: The spy carried out a covert operation to gather intelligence.
• Furtive (चोरी-छिपे): Refers to actions done in a sneaky or stealthy manner, often to avoid being noticed.
• Example: She cast a furtive glance at the clock during the meeting.
• Stealthy (गुप्त रूप से): Refers to actions performed in a cautious and secretive manner to avoid detection.
• Example: The cat moved in a stealthy way to catch the mouse.

The correct answer is: Fragrant.

Key Points

• The word "Noisome" refers to something that is unpleasant or offensive, especially to the sense of smell. (अप्रिय, दुर्गंधयुक्त)
• Example: The noisome odor from the garbage dump made it impossible to stay nearby.
• "Fragrant" refers to something that has a pleasant and sweet smell. (सुगंधित)
• Example: The garden was fragrant with the scent of blooming roses.
• Hence, the antonym of "Noisome" is "Fragrant."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Fragrant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Rancid (दुर्गंधयुक्त): Refers to food or substances that have gone bad and emit an unpleasant smell due to decomposition.
• Example: The butter had turned rancid after being left out for too long.
• Putrid (सड़ा-गला): Refers to something that is decayed and emits a foul smell.
• Example: The putrid smell of the decaying fish was unbearable.
• Malodorous (दुर्गंधयुक्त): Refers to something that has a bad or unpleasant smell.
• Example: The room was malodorous due to the wet carpet.

Given: 6, 23, 74, 227, ?

The logic followed here is:

6 

6 × 3 + 5 = 18 + 5 = 23

23 × 3 + 5 = 69 + 5 = 74

74 × 3 + 5 = 222 + 5 = 227

227 × 3 + 5 = 681 + 5 = 686

Thus, 686 is the next element.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: In a queue, John is 13^th from the front and Mary is 15^th from the back. If there are 5 people between them, and John is ahead of Mary.

John is 13^th from the front

Mary is 15^th from the back

So, Mary's position from front = N - 14

There are 5 people between them and John is ahead of Mary:

⇒ (N - 14) - 13 - 1 = 5

⇒ (N - 14) - 14 = 5

⇒ N - 14 - 14 = 5

⇒ N - 28 = 5

⇒ N = 5 + 28

⇒ N = 33

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: In a row, Ram is 12^th from the front and Shyam is 18^th from the back. If there are 4 persons between them, and Shyam is ahead of Ram.

Let total number of persons = N

Ram is 12^th from the front

Shyam is 18^th from the back →  from front = N − 17

Shyam is ahead of Ram and there are 4 persons between them:

⇒ 12 − (N − 17) − 1 = 4

⇒ 12 − N + 17 − 1 = 4

⇒ 28 − N = 4

⇒ N = 28 − 4

⇒ N = 24

Thus, total number of persons in the row is 24.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: a * b = c → (a - b) ÷ 3 = c

Given:

117 * 78 = 13 → (117 - 78) ÷ 3 = 39 ÷ 3 = 13

192 * 9 = 61 → (192 - 9) ÷ 3 = 183 ÷ 3 = 61

Similarly,

114 * 12 ? → (114 - 12) ÷ 3 = 102 ÷ 3 = 34

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: a | b = c → a × 6 × b = c

3 ∣ 50 = 900 → 3 × 6 × 50 = 900

19 ∣ 27 = 3078 → 19 × 6 × 27 = 3078

Similarly,

38 ∣ 49 ?  → 38 × 6 × 49 = 228 × 49 = 11172

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 990, 1321, 1718, 2187, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, '2734' is the next element that replaces the ?.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 5, 12, 21, 32, 45, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 60 is the next number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1^st box: 4 + (5 × 2) = 4 + 10 = 14

2^nd box: 4 + (6 × 3) = 4 + 18 = 22

Similarly,

3^rd box: 4 + (? × 2) = 12

⇒ (? × 2) = 12 - 4

⇒ (? × 2) = 8

⇒ ? = 8 ÷ 2

⇒ ? = 4

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Number of triangles in the given figure is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 

 

I. Number of wickets which are only chairs are 10. - True

II. Total number of balls are 14 less than the total number of wickets. - False

Number of balls are 12 and number of wickets are 13.

So, number of balls are 1 less than the total number of wickets.

Thus, only I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 5 persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. B is sitting second to the right of D.

        D ? ? B ?
   

2. A is sitting second to the right of B.

        D A ? B ?
   

3. C is not an immediate neighbour of A.

        D A ? B C
   

4. The remaining person E must occupy the last remaining position.

        D A E B C
   

So, E sits third to the right of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: A certain number of persons are standing in a row facing south (not necessarily in the same order).  A is 9^th person from left end. Five people stand between A and Z. Z is second person from one of the end.

A is 9^th from the left. There are 5 people between A and Z, so the position difference between A and Z is 6.

So, Z can be at position 9 + 6 = 15 or 9 - 6 = 3.

Z is second from one of the ends, so its position must be either 2 (from left) or N - 1 (from right).

Position 3 is not possible.

So Z is at position 15.

If Z is second from the right, then

⇒ N - 1 = 15

⇒ N = 15 + 1

⇒ N = 16

Thus, 16 persons are standing in the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

 

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

• The figure is rotated by 180°.
• Positions of all elements change accordingly.
• Triangle gets inverted.
• Letters are replaced with corresponding transformed letters (case change + substitution pattern).

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The figure which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives is:

Line with square inside the quadrilateral and arrow attached to the quadrilateral pointing outwards - shifting it's position in clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Rule:

Given equation: 36 - 31 + 48 ÷  8 ×  10 = ?

After interchanging the given two signs of the given equation - and +, we get:

⇒ 36 + 31 − 48 ÷ 8 × 10 = ?

⇒ 36 + 31 − 6 × 10 = ?

⇒ 36 + 31 − 60 = ?

⇒ 67 − 60 = ?

⇒ 7 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

Given equation: 18 * 3 * 20 * 5 * 14 = 44

Let's check each option one by one.

1. ×, +, ÷, −

Given equation: 18 * 3 * 20 * 5 * 14 = 44

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 18 × 3 + 20 ÷ 5 − 14 = 44

⇒ 18 × 3 + 4 − 14 = 44

⇒ 54 + 4 − 14 = 44

⇒ 58 − 14 = 44

⇒ 44 = 44

⇒ LHS = RHS

2. ÷, +, −, ×

Given equation: 18 * 3 * 20 * 5 * 14 = 44

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 18 ÷ 3 + 20 − 5 × 14 = 44

⇒ 6 + 20 − 5 × 14 = 44

⇒ 6 + 20 − 70 = 44

⇒ 26 − 70 = 44

⇒ −44 ≠ 44

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

3. ×, ÷, −, +

Given equation: 18 * 3 * 20 * 5 * 14 = 44

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 18 × 3 ÷ 20 − 5 + 14 = 44

⇒ 18 × 0.15 − 5 + 14 = 44

 ⇒ 2.7 + 14 − 5 = 44

⇒ 16.7 − 5 = 44

⇒ 11.7 ≠ 44

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

4. +, ÷, ×, −

Given equation: 18 * 3 * 20 * 5 * 14 = 44

After replacing the signs we get;

⇒ 18 + 3 ÷ 20 × 5 − 14 = 44

⇒ 18 + 0.15 × 5 − 14 = 44

⇒ 18 + 0.75 − 14 = 44

⇒ 18.75 − 14 = 44

⇒ 4.75 ≠ 44

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: 

The pattern followed here is:

Each letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -1, -2, +294.

1. SA287 - RY581

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -1, -2, +294.

2. PK320 - OI614

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -1, -2, +294.

3. GE231 - DZ525

This letter-number cluster pair does not follow the pattern -1, -2, +294.

4. TG410 - SE704

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -1, -2, +294.

Thus, GE231 - DZ525 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Letters: Each letter shifts by a fixed position value.

Numbers: Right number = (Left number × 3) − 1

For 'SD206 - PX617':

For 'MB194 - JV581':

For 'LT187 - IN560':

For 'FS313 - CO938':

'FS313 - CO938' is the ODD ONE OUT.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number ÷ 3 = Second number

1. 1989 ÷ 3 = 663 
2. 1161 ÷ 3 = 387 
3. 1752 ÷ 3 = 584  
4. 1496 ÷ 3 ≠ 492 

Thus, '1496 - 492' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number × 2 = Second number; Second number × 1.25 = Third number

1. [64, 128, 160]

64 × 2 = 128; 128 × 1.25 = 160 

2. [72, 144, 190]

72 × 2 = 144; 144 × 1.25 = 180 ≠ 190 

3. [84, 168, 210]

84 × 2 = 168; 168 × 1.25 = 210 

4. [50, 100, 125]

50 × 2 = 100; 100 × 1.25 = 125

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For the Letters: The first letter is the Opposite Letter (or -1 in a circular shift for A→Z), and the second letter is shifted by +1.

For the Numbers: (Number + 450) = Resultant Number (Wait, looking at 112 to 562, the logic is 112 + 450 = 562).

For AL112 to ZM562

For FW96 to ?

Applying the consistent letter-shift logic (A-1=Z, B-1=A, so F-1=E) and the number logic from the first cluster ((96 + 450) = 546):

1. First letter: F(6) - 1 = E(5)
2. Second letter: W(23) + 1 = X(24)
3. Number: (96 + 450) = 546

The resulting cluster is EX546.

Hence, the correct answer is "EX546".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The pattern followed here is:

Each letter-number luster pair follows the pattern -6, -6 and number follows the pattern - (first number)² + 2 = second number.

1. UQ173 

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -6, -6 and number follows the pattern - (first number)2 + 2 = second number.

2. UR173

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -6, -6 and number follows the pattern - (first number)2 + 2 = second number.

3. UR171

This letter-number cluster pair follows the pattern -6, -6 and number follows the pattern - (first number)2 + 2 = second number.

4. UQ171

This letter-number cluster pair does not follows the pattern -6, -6 and number follows the pattern - (first number)2 + 2 = second number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 96

Loss Percentage = 20%

Formula Used:

Loss Percentage = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Selling Price = Cost Price − Loss

Calculation:

⇒ Loss Percentage = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100

⇒ Loss = (Loss Percentage × Cost Price) ÷ 100

⇒ Selling Price = Cost Price − Loss

⇒ SP = CP − (Loss Percentage × CP ÷ 100)

⇒ 96 = CP − (20 × CP ÷ 100)

⇒ 96 = CP − (0.2 × CP)

⇒ 96 = 0.8 × CP

⇒ CP = 96 ÷ 0.8

⇒ CP = 120

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 120.

Given:

Speed = 50 km/h

Distance = 300 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Time = 300 ÷ 50

⇒ Time = 6 hours

∴ The correct answer is 6 hours.

Given:

A time = 20 days

B time = 30 days

Working together = 6 days

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

Total work = Sum of individual works

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 20 and 30 = 60

⇒ Rate A = 3 ÷ 60

⇒ Rate B = 2 ÷ 60

⇒ Combined rate = (3 + 2) ÷ 60 = 5 ÷ 60

⇒ Work done in 6 days = 5 ÷ 60 × 6 = 30 ÷ 60

⇒ Remaining work = 60 ÷ 60 − 30 ÷ 60 = 30 ÷ 60

⇒ Time taken by B = (30 ÷ 60) ÷ (2 ÷ 60)

⇒ Time taken by B = 30 ÷ 2

⇒ Time taken by B = 15 days

∴ The correct answer is 15 days.

Given:

Wall dimensions = 6 m × 3 m

Panel dimensions = 2 m × 1 m

Formula Used:

Area = Length × Breadth

Number of panels = Wall area ÷ Panel area

Calculation:

⇒ Wall area = 6 × 3 = 18

⇒ Panel area = 2 × 1 = 2

⇒ Number of panels = 18 ÷ 2

⇒ Number of panels = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Given:

Parallel sides of trapezoid = 6 cm and 10 cm

Height of trapezoid = 4 cm

Prism height = 12 cm

Formula Used:

Area of trapezoid = (1 ÷ 2) × (sum of parallel sides) × height

Volume of prism = Base area × height

Calculation:

⇒ Base area = (1 ÷ 2) × (6 + 10) × 4

⇒ Base area = (1 ÷ 2) × 16 × 4

⇒ Base area = 32

⇒ Volume = 32 × 12

⇒ Volume = 384

∴ The correct answer is 384 cm³.

Concept Used:

AAA (Angle-Angle-Angle): If the corresponding angles of two triangles are equal, the triangles are similar.

SSS (Side-Side-Side): If the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional, the triangles are similar.

SAS (Side-Angle-Side): If two sides are proportional and the included angle is equal, the triangles are similar.

Calculation:

⇒ AAA, SSS, and SAS are all valid criteria for proving triangle similarity.

⇒ Therefore, all options are sufficient to prove the similarity of two triangles.

∴ The correct answer is Option 4.

Shortcut Trick

Outer radius = 4.2 cm, thickness = 2.8 cm ⇒ Inner radius = 1.4 cm

Volume = π × 30 × (4.2² − 1.4²)

= 22 ÷ 7 × 30 × (17.64 − 1.96) = 22 ÷ 7 × 30 × 15.68

Volume = 1478.4 cm³

Weight = 1478.4 × 0.5

∴ Answer = 739.2 kg

Alternate Method

Given:

Outer radius R = 4.2 cm, Inner radius r = 1.4 cm

Length h = 30 cm

Density = 0.5 kg per cm³

Formula used:

Volume = π × h × (R² − r²)

        Length = 30 cm R = 4.2 cm r = 1.4 cm

Calculations:

⇒ R² = 17.64, r² = 1.96

⇒ Difference = 15.68

⇒ Volume = 22 ÷ 7 × 30 × 15.68 = 1478.4 cm³

⇒ Weight = 1478.4 × 0.5 = 739.2 kg

∴ The correct answer is 739.2 kg.

Given:

√5 + 2

√5 - 2

Formula Used:

(a + b)² - (a - b)² = 4ab

Calculation:

⇒ (√5 + 2)² - (√5 - 2)²

⇒ 4 × √5 × 2

⇒ 8√5

∴ The correct answer is 8√5.

Given:

Investment of A = Rs. 50,000

Investment of B = Rs. 40,000

Investment of C = Rs. 30,000

Total Profit = Rs. 90,000

Formula Used:

Profit Share = (Individual Investment ÷ Total Investment) × Total Profit

Total Investment = Investment of A + Investment of B + Investment of C

Calculation:

⇒ Total Investment = Rs. 50,000 + Rs. 40,000 + Rs. 30,000

⇒ Total Investment = Rs. 1,20,000

⇒ Profit Share of B = (Rs. 40,000 ÷ Rs. 1,20,000) × Rs. 90,000

⇒ Profit Share of B = (1 ÷ 3) × Rs. 90,000

⇒ Profit Share of B = Rs. 30,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 30,000.

Given:

Total = 148

First : Second = 2 : 3

Second : Third = 5 : 4

Formula Used:

Convert ratios to a common ratio

Calculation:

⇒ First : Second = 2 : 3 = 10 : 15

⇒ Second : Third = 5 : 4 = 15 : 12

⇒ First : Second : Third = 10 : 15 : 12

⇒ Sum of ratio = 10 + 15 + 12 = 37

⇒ First number = (10 ÷ 37) × 148

⇒ = 1480 ÷ 37

⇒ = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Given:

Height increase = 96%

Radius decrease = 25%

Formula Used:

Volume of cylinder = π × r² × h

Calculation:

⇒ New height = 1.96h

⇒ New radius = 0.75r

⇒ New volume = π × (0.75r)² × 1.96h

⇒ = π × 0.5625r² × 1.96h

⇒ = π × r² × h × (0.5625 × 1.96)

⇒ = Original volume × 1.1025

⇒ Percentage change = (1.1025 − 1) × 100

⇒ = 0.1025 × 100 = 10.25%

⇒ ≈ 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10% increase.

Given:

Single discount = 25%

Successive discounts = 20% and x%

Formula Used:

Equivalent discount = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ 25 = 20 + x − (20 × x) ÷ 100

⇒ 25 = 20 + x − 0.2x

⇒ 25 = 20 + 0.8x

⇒ 5 = 0.8x

⇒ x = 5 ÷ 0.8

⇒ x = 6.25%

∴ The correct answer is 6.25%.

Given:

Discount = 20%

Selling price = 1500

Formula Used:

Selling price = Marked price × (1 − Discount)

Calculation:

⇒ 1500 = Marked price × (1 − 20 ÷ 100)

⇒ 1500 = Marked price × 0.8

⇒ Marked price = 1500 ÷ 0.8

⇒ Marked price = 1875

∴ The correct answer is 1875.

Given:

Total volume = 40

Milk removed each time = 4

Number of operations = 2

Formula Used:

Remaining milk = Initial × (1 − removed ÷ total)ⁿ

Calculation:

⇒ Remaining milk = 40 × (1 − 4 ÷ 40)²

⇒ = 40 × (36 ÷ 40)²

⇒ = 40 × (9 ÷ 10)²

⇒ = 40 × 81 ÷ 100

⇒ = 32.4

⇒ Water = 40 − 32.4 = 7.6

⇒ Ratio = 32.4 : 7.6

⇒ = 324 : 76

⇒ = 81 : 19

∴ The correct answer is 81 : 19.

Given:

Radius = 17 cm

Distance between chords = 23 cm

Length of first chord = 30 cm

Formula Used:

Chord length = 2 × √(r² − d²)

Calculation:

⇒ 30 = 2 × √(17² − d₁²)

⇒ 15 = √(289 − d₁²)

⇒ 225 = 289 − d₁²

⇒ d₁² = 64

⇒ d₁ = 8

⇒ d₂ = 23 − 8 = 15

⇒ Length of second chord = 2 × √(17² − 15²)

⇒ = 2 × √(289 − 225)

⇒ = 2 × √64

⇒ = 2 × 8 = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Given:

Radius = 6 cm

Tangent length = 8 cm

Formula Used:

OA² = AB² + OB²

Calculation:

⇒ OA² = 8² + 6²

⇒ OA² = 64 + 36 = 100

⇒ OA = 10 cm

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Given:

Area of larger garden = 75 m²

Side ratio = 1 ÷ 3

Formula Used:

Area ratio = (Side ratio)²

Calculation:

⇒ Area ratio = (1 ÷ 3)² = 1 ÷ 9

⇒ Area of smaller garden = 75 × (1 ÷ 9)

⇒ = 75 ÷ 9

⇒ = 25 ÷ 3 m² = 8.33

∴ The correct answer is 8.33 m².

Given:

x + y = 11

x − y = 5

Formula Used:

x² − y² = (x + y)(x − y)

x² + y² = ((x + y)² + (x − y)²) ÷ 2

x⁴ − y⁴ = (x² − y²)(x² + y²)

Calculation:

⇒ x² − y² = 11 × 5 = 55

⇒ (x + y)² = 11² = 121

⇒ (x − y)² = 5² = 25

⇒ x² + y² = (121 + 25) ÷ 2 = 146 ÷ 2 = 73

⇒ x⁴ − y⁴ = 55 × 73 = 4015

∴ The correct answer is 4015.

Given:

Expression = $\frac{(3.57)^{2} + (4.54)^{2} + 32.4156}{(4.54)^{2} - (3.57)^{2}} = ?$

Formula used:

a² + b² + 2ab = (a + b)²

b² − a² = (b − a)(b + a)

3.57 4.54 Sum & Difference concept

Calculations:

⇒ Let a = 3.57, b = 4.54

⇒ Numerator = a² + b² + 2ab = (a + b)²

⇒ Denominator = (b − a)(b + a)

⇒ Expression = (a + b)² ÷ [(b − a)(b + a)]

⇒ = (a + b) ÷ (b − a)

⇒ = (3.57 + 4.54) ÷ (4.54 − 3.57)

⇒ = 8.11 ÷ 0.97 ≈ 8.36

∴ The correct answer is 8.36.

Given:

x = √32 + √8

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation:

⇒ x² = (√32 + √8)²

⇒ x² = 32 + 8 + 2 × √32 × √8

⇒ x² = 40 + 2 × √(32 × 8)

⇒ x² = 40 + 2 × √256

⇒ x² = 40 + 2 × 16

⇒ x² = 40 + 32

⇒ x² = 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Given:

P = 6000

R = 20%

Formula Used:

Amount = P × (1 + R ÷ 100)ⁿ

CI of a year = Amount of that year − Amount of previous year

Calculation:

⇒ A₁ = 6000 × 1.2 = 7200

⇒ A₂ = 6000 × (1.2)² = 6000 × 1.44 = 8640

⇒ A₃ = 6000 × (1.2)³ = 6000 × 1.728 = 10368

⇒ CI in 2^nd year = 8640 − 7200 = 1440

⇒ CI in 3^rd year = 10368 − 8640 = 1728

⇒ Difference = 1728 − 1440 = 288

∴ The correct answer is 288.

Given:

P = 15000

A = 21000

R = 8%

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × t) ÷ 100

A = P + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ Simple Interest = 21000 − 15000 = 6000

⇒ 6000 = (15000 × 8 × t) ÷ 100

⇒ 6000 = 1200t

⇒ t = 6000 ÷ 1200 = 5 years

∴ The correct answer is 5 years.

Given:

Average of 5 consecutive odd numbers = 47

Formula Used:

For consecutive odd numbers, average = middle term

Calculation:

⇒ Middle number = 47

⇒ 5 numbers = 43, 45, 47, 49, 51

⇒ Previous 5 numbers = 33, 35, 37, 39, 41

⇒ Average = (33 + 35 + 37 + 39 + 41) ÷ 5

⇒ = 185 ÷ 5 = 37

∴ The correct answer is 37.

Given:

Initial number of players = 14

Average age = x

New total players = 19

Average remains = x

Formula Used:

Total age = Average × Number of players

Calculation:

⇒ Initial total age = 14 × x = 14x

⇒ New total age = 19 × x = 19x

⇒ Total age of 5 players = 19x − 14x

⇒ = 5x

∴ The correct answer is 5x.

Given:

A + B = 1 ÷ 12

B + C = 1 ÷ 15

C + A = 1 ÷ 20

Time after A and B opened = 5

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 12, 15, 20 = 60

⇒ (A + B) work = 60 ÷ 12 = 5

⇒ (B + C) work = 60 ÷ 15 = 4

⇒ (C + A) work = 60 ÷ 20 = 3

⇒ A = (5 + 3 − 4) ÷ 2 = 2

⇒ B = (5 + 4 − 3) ÷ 2 = 3

⇒ C = (4 + 3 − 5) ÷ 2 = 1

⇒ Total work = 60 units

⇒ Work done in last 5 min by A + B + C = (2 + 3 + 1) × 5 = 6 × 5 = 30

⇒ Remaining work before last 5 min = 60 − 30 = 30

⇒ Work by C alone per min = 1

⇒ L = 30 ÷ 1 = 30 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 30 minutes.

The correct answer is Shah Rukh Khan.

Key Points

• Shah Rukh Khan was awarded the Best Actor at the 71^st National Film Awards for his remarkable performance in his latest film.
• The National Film Awards are among the most prestigious awards in India, recognizing excellence in the Indian film industry across various categories.
• The 71^st National Film Awards ceremony celebrated films released in the year 2023, with winners chosen by a distinguished jury comprising experts from the film industry.
• Shah Rukh Khan’s performance was acknowledged for its depth, emotional range, and the ability to connect with audiences on a profound level.
• The award highlights Shah Rukh Khan as one of the most versatile actors in the Indian film industry, having consistently delivered stellar performances across different genres.

Additional Information

• National Film Awards:
• The National Film Awards were established in 1954 and are administered by the Directorate of Film Festivals, under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India.
• These awards aim to promote good cinema and recognize outstanding contributions to the Indian film industry.
• Categories include awards for acting, directing, cinematography, music, screenplay, and more.
• Shah Rukh Khan:
• Often referred to as the "King of Bollywood," Shah Rukh Khan is one of the most prominent and influential actors in the Indian film industry.
• He has appeared in over 80 films and has received numerous accolades, including 14 Filmfare Awards.
• Shah Rukh Khan is also known for his contributions to the global promotion of Indian cinema.
• Other Nominees:
• Ranbir Kapoor: Known for his versatile performances, Ranbir Kapoor has won critical acclaim and several awards for his work in films such as Barfi! and Sanju.
• Vikrant Massey: An emerging actor in Indian cinema, Vikrant Massey is known for his impactful performances in films and web series.
• Ayushmann Khurrana: A critically acclaimed actor and singer, Ayushmann Khurrana is known for choosing socially relevant and unconventional scripts.
• Significance of the Award:
• The National Film Awards are considered the highest honor in Indian cinema and hold immense prestige in the industry.
• Winning this award solidifies an actor’s reputation and acknowledges their contribution to Indian cinema.

The correct answer is Ashok Singh Thakur.

Key Points

• Ashok Singh Thakur was appointed as the Chairman of the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) in March 2025.
• INTACH is a prominent non-governmental organization in India founded in 1984 with a mission to conserve and protect India’s vast heritage.
• As Chairman, Ashok Singh Thakur is responsible for overseeing INTACH’s efforts in heritage conservation and promoting awareness about India’s cultural legacy.
• INTACH focuses on various heritage-related activities such as the preservation of monuments, natural heritage, material heritage, and intangible heritage.
• This appointment reflects the organization’s commitment to involving experienced professionals to lead its initiatives in cultural preservation.

Additional Information

• Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH):
• Founded in 1984, INTACH is one of the largest heritage organizations in India, with over 200 chapters across the country.
• Its primary focus is on conserving and restoring India’s cultural and natural heritage, including monuments, historical sites, arts, crafts, and traditions.
• INTACH also undertakes educational initiatives to promote heritage awareness among students and the general public.
• The organization collaborates with both government and private entities to execute heritage conservation projects.
• Role of the Chairman:
• The Chairman of INTACH leads the organization’s efforts in advocating for heritage conservation policies and initiatives.
• They oversee projects, guide research, and ensure the organization remains aligned with its mission to preserve India’s cultural heritage.
• The position requires a deep understanding of heritage conservation and strong leadership skills to mobilize resources and manage operations.
• Importance of Heritage Conservation:
• Heritage conservation is crucial for preserving historical, cultural, and architectural landmarks for future generations.
• It helps maintain the identity and legacy of a nation, showcasing its rich traditions and history.
• Conservation efforts contribute to tourism, local economies, and community development.

Important Points

• INTACH’s Conservation Initiatives:
• INTACH runs various programs including Heritage Walks, School Outreach Programs, and Heritage Documentation Projects.
• It has been instrumental in restoring iconic heritage sites such as Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi and Mehrangarh Fort in Rajasthan.
• Global Recognition:
• INTACH has received accolades for its work in heritage conservation and is recognized internationally for its expertise.
• It collaborates with organizations like UNESCO and World Monuments Fund on heritage preservation projects.

The correct answer is 3 years.

Key Points

• Salman Ranjan has been appointed as the Secretary-General of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Secretariat in Mauritius starting from 1^st January 2025.
• The appointment is valid for a term of 3 years, as per the regulations governing the tenure of the Secretary-General within the IORA framework.
• The Indian Ocean Rim Association is an intergovernmental organization aimed at fostering regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region.
• The Secretariat, located in Mauritius, serves as the operational hub for coordinating activities and implementing policies decided by member states.
• The 3-year term ensures stability and continuity in leadership, allowing the Secretary-General to implement long-term strategies effectively.

Additional Information

• Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):
• IORA is a regional organization established in 1997 to promote economic cooperation, maritime safety, and sustainable development among countries bordering the Indian Ocean.
• The association has 23 member states, including India, Australia, South Africa, Indonesia, and Mauritius, and 10 dialogue partners, such as the USA, UK, and China.
• Key focus areas include maritime security, trade facilitation, disaster risk management, and fisheries development.
• Role of the Secretary-General:
• The Secretary-General is responsible for overseeing the operations of the IORA Secretariat and ensuring effective coordination among member states.
• The position is crucial for implementing strategic initiatives and fostering collaboration in areas like economic growth and environmental sustainability.
• Location of Secretariat:
• The IORA Secretariat is headquartered in Mauritius, symbolizing the strategic importance of the Indian Ocean region.
• It serves as the administrative and logistical center for facilitating communication and managing projects under the IORA framework.
• Key Achievements of IORA:
• IORA has played a vital role in enhancing regional trade and investment opportunities, with initiatives like the Blue Economy and Sustainable Development programs.
• The association actively works on improving maritime security through joint exercises and capacity-building workshops.
• IORA also addresses pressing challenges such as climate change and promotes disaster risk reduction in vulnerable coastal areas.

Important Points

• Term Duration: The 3-year term for the Secretary-General is designed to ensure continuity in leadership while allowing sufficient time for implementing strategic initiatives.
• Leadership Rotation: The position often rotates among member states, reflecting the collaborative nature of IORA and ensuring equal representation.
• IORA's Strategic Priorities: The association focuses on areas like security, economic development, and environmental sustainability, which are vital for the growth of the Indian Ocean region.
• International Collaboration: Dialogue partners play a significant role in supporting IORA's goals, providing expertise, funding, and technical assistance.

The correct answer is Madras High Court.

Key Points

• In May 2025, the Supreme Court of India set aside an order passed by the Madras High Court that had denied maternity leave to a government school teacher for the birth of her third child.
• The teacher had previously been denied maternity leave citing the two-child policy, which is a guideline followed in some government sectors to limit benefits to employees with only two children.
• The Supreme Court ruled in favor of the teacher, emphasizing the importance of maternity rights and the welfare of children irrespective of birth order.
• The judgment reaffirmed the principles of gender equality and women's rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution, including Article 42, which directs the state to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
• This decision has significant implications for maternity leave policies and reinforces the need to balance population control policies with the fundamental rights of individuals.

Additional Information

• Madras High Court:
• The Madras High Court is one of the oldest High Courts in India, established in 1862, and it has jurisdiction over the state of Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• It has been involved in several landmark cases, shaping the interpretation of laws and constitutional provisions in India.
• Maternity Benefits in India:
• The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, as amended in 2017, provides women with 26 weeks of paid maternity leave for the first two children and 12 weeks for subsequent children.
• It applies to all establishments employing 10 or more workers, aiming to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and child.
• Supreme Court's Role in Protecting Women's Rights:
• The Supreme Court of India has consistently upheld women's rights, including maternity leave, as part of the fundamental rights under Articles 14, 15, and 21 of the Constitution.
• In past rulings, the Court has highlighted the need for a supportive work environment for women to balance their professional and personal responsibilities.
• Two-Child Policy:
• Some government policies in India, particularly in the past, have implemented a two-child norm to control population growth.
• This norm has been criticized for being discriminatory and violating fundamental rights, especially when linked to eligibility for government benefits or employment.

Important Points

• Significance of Maternity Leave:
• Maternity leave is essential to ensure the health and well-being of the mother and child during and after pregnancy.
• It also promotes gender equality in the workplace and encourages women’s participation in the workforce.
• Role of Judiciary:
• The judiciary plays a crucial role in interpreting and enforcing laws to protect women's rights, including maternity benefits.
• Judgments such as this one set precedents that influence policies and promote social justice.

The correct answer is Option 1: 27.

Key Points

• As of December 2024, approximately 27 million women in India were actively monitoring their credit. This indicates a significant rise in financial literacy and awareness among women in the country.
• This data reflects the growing participation of women in managing personal finances, which marks a transformative shift in financial inclusion and empowerment.
• Credit monitoring is crucial for individuals to understand their financial health and maintain a good credit score, which directly impacts loan approvals and interest rates.
• The number 27 million signifies an increasing trend among women to take control of their financial decisions, enabled by initiatives promoting financial literacy.
• This growth can be attributed to various governmental and non-governmental programs encouraging women to adopt financial tools like credit monitoring and budgeting.

Additional Information

• Importance of Credit Monitoring:
• Credit monitoring allows individuals to track their credit history and credit score, which are critical for securing loans, credit cards, and mortgages.
• It helps detect fraudulent activities or errors in the credit report, ensuring financial security.
• Regular credit monitoring can improve financial planning by providing insights into spending patterns and debt management.
• Financial Inclusion in India:
• Financial inclusion refers to providing affordable financial services to underprivileged and low-income groups, including women.
• Government schemes like Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) have played a significant role in increasing access to financial products and services.
• Role of Technology:
• The rise in credit monitoring among women is facilitated by the availability of digital platforms and mobile apps.
• Technological advancements have made financial tools more accessible and user-friendly for individuals, contributing to increased participation.
• Government and NGO Initiatives:
• Programs like Financial Literacy Camps conducted by banks and NGOs aim to educate women about financial management and credit awareness.
• Collaborations between private organizations and the government have further enhanced financial education efforts.

Important Points

• Gender Gap in Financial Literacy:
• Historically, there has been a significant gender gap in financial literacy, with women being less likely than men to access financial services or monitor their credit.
• Efforts to close this gap are crucial for achieving gender equality in financial empowerment.
• Credit Score and Its Implications:
• A credit score is a numerical representation of an individual’s creditworthiness, ranging from 300 to 900.
• Higher scores indicate better financial health and improve the chances of securing loans with favorable terms.
• Global Comparisons:
• India's progress in financial inclusion among women is notable, but there is still room for improvement compared to developed countries where financial literacy rates are higher.
• Global initiatives like the World Bank’s Financial Inclusion Support Framework are instrumental in driving such progress worldwide.

The correct answer is PM Vishwakarma Scheme.

Key Points

• The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a central government initiative launched to empower artisans and preserve traditional crafts.
• The scheme provides a ₹500 daily stipend to artisans as financial support during skill training and development programs.
• It also includes toolkit vouchers, enabling artisans to procure essential tools and equipment required for their trade.
• The scheme primarily targets individuals involved in traditional crafts such as carpentry, blacksmithing, pottery, weaving, and other similar trades.
• It aims to enhance livelihoods by boosting the productivity and income levels of artisans, ensuring the sustainability of their crafts.

Additional Information

• PM Vishwakarma Scheme Features:
• The scheme emphasizes the revival of traditional skills and crafts that form an integral part of India's cultural heritage.
• It promotes the use of modern technology alongside traditional techniques to improve efficiency and quality.
• The initiative provides access to credit facilities, enabling artisans to expand their businesses.
• It includes provisions for market linkages to help artisans sell their products in both domestic and international markets.
• Other Relevant Government Schemes:
• PM Kisan Samman Nidhi: A scheme providing income support of ₹6,000 annually to farmers in three equal installments.
• PM SVANidhi: A micro-credit scheme aimed at supporting street vendors by providing loans of up to ₹10,000 for business continuity.
• NPS Vatsalya: A pension scheme focusing on financial security for senior citizens under the National Pension System.
• Artisan Empowerment in India:
• Artisans form the backbone of India's cultural economy, with over 7 million artisans contributing significantly to the handicrafts sector.
• The government has introduced schemes like Ambedkar Hastshilp Vikas Yojana and Handicrafts Mega Clusters to support artisans.
• These initiatives focus on skill development, financial aid, and market accessibility for artisans.

Important Points

• The scheme aligns with the Make in India initiative by promoting indigenous crafts and skills.
• It ensures social security for artisans by integrating them into the formal economy.
• The scheme includes workshops and training programs to enhance the entrepreneurial capabilities of artisans.
• The focus on traditional crafts ensures the preservation of India’s cultural heritage while creating sustainable livelihoods.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Odisha topped the Fiscal Health Index 2025, reflecting its strong financial management and sustainable economic practices.
• The index evaluates the fiscal performance of Indian states based on parameters like revenue generation, expenditure management, and fiscal deficit.
• Odisha's achievement is attributed to its robust implementation of fiscal responsibility and budget management (FRBM) policies.
• It has successfully maintained a low fiscal deficit while focusing on key developmental activities and infrastructure projects.
• The state's proactive measures to enhance revenue through mining royalties and its emphasis on industrial growth have significantly contributed to its fiscal health.
• Odisha's financial planning has ensured better allocation of resources to sectors such as healthcare, education, and rural development, aligning with sustainable growth objectives.

Additional Information

• Fiscal Health Index:
• Developed to measure the financial health of Indian states based on their fiscal performance and sustainability.
• It considers parameters such as fiscal deficit, debt-to-GDP ratio, revenue mobilization, and expenditure efficiency.
• The index helps policymakers and administrators identify areas of improvement in fiscal management.
• Odisha’s Fiscal Performance:
• The state has demonstrated prudent financial management by adhering to fiscal discipline and minimizing wasteful expenditure.
• Significant revenue is generated from mining activities, especially from iron ore and other minerals.
• Odisha has also attracted investment in sectors like steel, aluminum, and renewable energy, contributing to its economic growth.
• Comparison with Other States:
• Haryana: While Haryana has a strong industrial base, its fiscal deficit and debt levels have limited its ranking.
• Goa: Goa's economy relies heavily on tourism, but its revenue base is relatively smaller compared to larger states.
• Uttar Pradesh: Despite being one of the largest states, UP faces challenges in fiscal management due to high population and expenditure pressures.
• Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act:
• The FRBM Act was enacted in 2003 to ensure fiscal discipline and promote long-term economic stability in India.
• It mandates that states maintain a fiscal deficit within 3% of their GDP and work towards reducing their debt-to-GDP ratio.
• Odisha’s adherence to FRBM norms has been a key factor in its strong fiscal performance.

Important Points

• Revenue Generation: Odisha's strategy to enhance revenue through mining royalties and taxes has been a critical factor in its fiscal success.
• Expenditure Focus: The state has prioritized sectors like healthcare, education, infrastructure, and rural development, ensuring inclusive growth.
• Debt Management: Odisha has maintained a low debt-to-GDP ratio, showcasing responsible borrowing and repayment practices.
• Policy Initiatives: Proactive policies and reforms, such as industrial promotion and ease of doing business, have strengthened Odisha's economic base.
• Recognition: Topping the Fiscal Health Index 2025 is a testament to Odisha’s commitment to sustainable financial management and development.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• Hesaraghatta Grasslands are located near Bengaluru, the capital city of Karnataka, India.
• These grasslands are an ecologically sensitive area and serve as an essential habitat for various species of flora and fauna.
• The region is known for its open grassland ecosystem, which is rare in the area and is crucial for biodiversity conservation.
• Hesaraghatta is also home to the Hesaraghatta Lake, a man-made reservoir built in 1894 to supply water to Bengaluru.
• It is a popular destination for bird watchers, as the grasslands attract numerous species of migratory and resident birds.
• Threats such as urbanization and encroachment have raised concerns about the protection of the grasslands and its biodiversity.

Additional Information

• Location and Geography:
• Hesaraghatta Grasslands are situated approximately 30 km northwest of Bengaluru city, Karnataka.
• The area covers hundreds of acres and includes both grasslands and a freshwater lake.
• The grasslands are part of the semi-arid ecosystem typical of the Deccan Plateau region.
• Biodiversity:
• The grasslands support a variety of species, including mammals, birds, insects, and reptiles.
• It is especially famous for attracting bird species like Black Drongo, Indian Roller, and Brahminy Kite.
• The area also has a significant population of grassland-dependent insects, which contribute to the ecosystem's health.
• Hesaraghatta Lake:
• The lake was built in 1894 under the supervision of Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a renowned engineer.
• It was designed to supply drinking water to Bengaluru and is fed by the Arkavathy River.
• Over the years, the lake has dried up due to declining water levels and silt deposition.
• Conservation Concerns:
• Rapid urbanization and illegal encroachments pose significant threats to the grasslands.
• Environmental activists have called for the protection and restoration of the area to prevent biodiversity loss.
• The Karnataka government has proposed ecotourism initiatives, but these have been met with concerns about potential ecological damage.
• Importance of Grasslands:
• Grasslands play a crucial role in carbon sequestration, helping to combat climate change.
• They are vital for sustaining livestock grazing and supporting rural livelihoods.
• Grasslands act as a natural water recharge zone, contributing to groundwater replenishment.

Important Points

• Hesaraghatta Grasslands:
• The grasslands have been a focal point of conservation debates in Karnataka due to their ecological significance.
• Efforts are being made to prevent the conversion of grasslands into urban or industrial areas.
• Local communities often depend on the grasslands for agriculture and livestock grazing.
• Biodiversity Significance:
• Grasslands like Hesaraghatta are crucial for migratory bird species and act as stopovers during seasonal movements.
• They provide habitat for endemic species that are not found in other ecosystems.
• Conservation Efforts:
• NGOs and environmental activists are advocating for legal protection under wildlife conservation laws.
• Public awareness campaigns highlight the importance of preserving such ecosystems to avoid irreversible damage.

The correct answer is 8 percent.

Key Points

• According to the report "EnviStats India 2024: Environment Accounts", the coverage of mangroves in India has seen an increase of approximately 8 percent over the period 2013 to 2021.
• Mangroves are coastal ecosystems found in tropical and subtropical regions, and they play a critical role in protecting shorelines, supporting biodiversity, and acting as carbon sinks.
• The increase in mangrove coverage can be attributed to conservation programs, afforestation efforts, and the implementation of various environmental policies by the government and NGOs.
• India's mangrove forests cover an area of approximately 4,992 square kilometers, as per the latest data, with states such as West Bengal, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh contributing significantly to this ecosystem.
• These ecosystems are protected under various initiatives such as the National Mangrove Conservation Program and are also highlighted in international agreements like the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.

Additional Information

• Mangroves in India:
• India accounts for around 3% of the world's mangrove forests, making them essential for the country's coastal ecology.
• The Sundarbans in West Bengal is the largest mangrove forest in India and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Other significant mangrove regions include the Gujarat coastline and Andhra Pradesh, among others.
• Importance of Mangroves:
• Mangroves act as natural barriers against coastal erosion, storms, and tsunamis.
• They serve as a vital habitat for a wide range of species, including fish, amphibians, and birds.
• They are highly efficient in carbon sequestration, making them critical in mitigating climate change.
• The roots of mangroves help in filtering pollutants and maintaining water quality.
• Threats to Mangroves:
• Human activities such as urbanization, industrialization, and aquaculture have led to significant loss of mangroves globally.
• Rising sea levels due to climate change pose a major threat to these ecosystems.
• Unregulated tourism and the illegal cutting of mangroves for firewood and construction are other key challenges.
• Conservation Measures:
• The National Mangrove Conservation Program in India focuses on the conservation and sustainable management of mangroves.
• Several mangrove regions in India are designated as Protected Areas under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• Community-driven initiatives and afforestation efforts have significantly contributed to the restoration of degraded mangrove ecosystems.
• India is a signatory to international frameworks such as the Ramsar Convention and the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, which emphasize mangrove conservation.

Important Points

• The global loss of mangroves is estimated to be around 1-2% annually, making their conservation a priority for countries with significant coastlines.
• West Bengal accounts for the largest share of mangrove forests in India, with 42.45% of the total area.
• Increased awareness and education among coastal communities are essential for sustainable mangrove management.
• Technological tools like GIS mapping and satellite imagery are being increasingly used to monitor mangrove cover and health.

The correct answer is Pava.

Key Points

• Pava is a traditional wind instrument that belongs to the family of musical instruments that produce sound by the vibration of air, typically using a player's breath.
• It is commonly used in various folk and classical performances and is known for its melodious and soothing sound.
• Unlike percussion instruments like Dhol or Nagara, which rely on striking a surface, wind instruments like the Pava generate sound through the manipulation of air.
• Wind instruments have a long history and are deeply embedded in cultural and musical traditions across the world. The Pava specifically is a part of traditional and cultural Indian music.
• Other examples of wind instruments include the flute, clarinet, and shehnai. These instruments often require a great deal of skill and breath control.

Additional Information

• Dhol:
• Dhol is a percussion instrument and not a wind instrument. It is widely used in folk music and celebrations, especially in North India, Punjab, and Pakistan.
• It consists of a cylindrical wooden shell covered with animal skin or synthetic material and is played using sticks.
• It is integral to Bhangra and other traditional dance forms.
• Manjira:
• Manjira is a traditional Indian percussion instrument made of a pair of small metallic cymbals.
• It is used to provide rhythmic accompaniment in devotional and folk music.
• Manjira is not a wind instrument as it produces sound through the striking of metal surfaces.
• Nagara:
• Nagara is a large drum that is also categorized as a percussion instrument.
• It is commonly used in religious ceremonies, folk performances, and traditional Indian music.
• Sound is generated by striking the drumhead with sticks, which makes it distinct from wind instruments.
• Wind Instruments:
• Characteristics: Wind instruments produce sound by the vibration of air inside a tube or body of the instrument.
• Examples: Flute, clarinet, saxophone, shehnai, and Pava.
• Function: The player blows air into or across an opening, and different notes are produced by changing the length of the air column inside the instrument.
• Applications: These instruments are widely used in classical, folk, and modern music across various cultures globally.

Important Points

• Historical Significance: Wind instruments have been used for centuries in rituals, religious ceremonies, and entertainment, showcasing their cultural importance.
• Scientific Basis: The sound in wind instruments is produced by the vibration of air columns, which is manipulated by changing the length of the column using finger holes or valves.
• Global Examples: Instruments like the flute (India), bagpipes (Scotland), and pan pipes (South America) highlight the diversity of wind instruments worldwide.

The correct answer is Congregational halls for teaching and interaction.

Key Points

• Chaityas were an essential part of Buddhist architecture, primarily serving as congregational halls where monks and followers gathered for teaching, interaction, and prayers.
• The term "Chaitya" is derived from the Sanskrit word meaning a sacred space or shrine. It was a place where devotees worshipped stupas or relics of the Buddha.
• These halls were characterized by their apsidal (semi-circular) design and often featured a stupa at the center, which served as the focal point of worship and meditation.
• Unlike viharas (which were primarily living quarters for monks), chaityas were designed for communal activities, including religious discourse and rituals.
• The most famous example of a chaitya hall is the Great Chaitya at Karle in Maharashtra, India, which is renowned for its intricate carvings and grand architectural style.

Additional Information

• Chaityas vs. Viharas:
• Chaityas: Used as prayer halls for congregational purposes. They contained stupas and were places for worship and teaching.
• Viharas: Primarily used as monastic living quarters for Buddhist monks, with small cells arranged around a central courtyard.
• Architectural Features of Chaityas:
• Typically built in rock-cut caves, especially in Western India.
• Included a vaulted roof with wooden ribs and a large open space for gatherings.
• Featured a stupa at one end, which served as the central object of worship.
• Often decorated with intricate carvings, sculptures of Buddha, and motifs depicting Buddhist teachings.
• Examples of Famous Chaityas:
• The Ajanta Caves (Maharashtra): A UNESCO World Heritage Site with beautifully painted chaityas.
• The Karle Chaitya (Maharashtra): One of the largest and most well-preserved rock-cut chaityas in India.
• The Bhaja Caves (Maharashtra): Among the earliest rock-cut Buddhist chaityas in India.
• Significance of Chaityas in Buddhism:
• They served as spiritual centers where monks and followers could gather for teachings and rituals.
• Helped in spreading Buddhist philosophy and teachings to the masses.
• Provided spaces for meditation, discussions, and congregation during festivals and ceremonies.

Important Points

• Option 1 (Living quarters for monks): Incorrect, as this refers to viharas, not chaityas. Viharas were used for residential purposes by monks.
• Option 2 (Storehouses for grains): Incorrect, as Buddhist architecture does not associate chaityas with grain storage.
• Option 3 (Decorative gateways to monasteries): Incorrect, as decorative gateways are referred to as toranas in Buddhist architecture.
• Option 4 (Congregational halls for teaching and interaction): Correct, as chaityas primarily served this function, providing a sacred space for collective worship and teachings.