Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier-II 2023 Official Paper-I (Held On: 26 Oct, 2023) (Previous Year Paper)

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Section I (60 questions)

Question 1

The average of 25, 46 and ‘y’ is 11. What is the value of ‘y’?

  1. AOption (a)

    -38

  2. BOption (b)

    -34

  3. COption (c)

    -36

  4. DOption (d)

    -37

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

-38

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total sum of 3 numbers = Average × 3 = 11 × 3 = 33

Sum of given numbers = 25 + 46 = 71

Value of y = Total sum − Sum of given numbers

y = 33 − 71 = −38

∴ The correct answer is −38.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers: 25, 46, and y

Average of these 3 numbers = 11

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ Average = (25 + 46 + y) ÷ 3

⇒ 11 = (71 + y) ÷ 3

⇒ 11 × 3 = 71 + y

⇒ 33 = 71 + y

⇒ y = 33 − 71

⇒ y = −38

∴ The correct answer is −38.

Additional Information

Sum of Observations

The sum of n observations is always equal to the product of their average and the total count n. Sum = Average × n.

Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean (average) is always zero. ∑(xi − Average) = 0.

Weighted Average

When different groups have different averages, the combined average is (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Question 2

From the top of a tower, the angle of depression of the top of a 10 m high building is 60°. If the distance between the tower and the building is 50√3 m, find the height of the tower. 

  1. AOption (a)

    150 m

  2. BOption (b)

    100 m

  3. COption (c)

    160 m

  4. DOption (d)

    140 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

160 m

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Angle of depression (θ) = 60° and horizontal distance (d) = 50√3 m.

Height difference between tower and building = d × tan(θ).

Height difference = 50√3 × √3 = 50 × 3 = 150 m.

Total tower height = Building height + Height difference = 10 + 150 = 160 m.

∴ The correct answer is 160 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of building (h) = 10 m

Distance between tower and building (d) = 50√3 m

Angle of depression = 60°

Formula Used:

tan θ = Perpendicular / Base

Calculations:

⇒ Let the height of the tower be H.

⇒ Let x be the height of the tower above the building level.

⇒ The angle of depression of the top of the building from the tower top is 60°.

⇒ This is equivalent to the angle of elevation of the tower top from the building top.

⇒ In the right-angled triangle formed above the building level:

⇒ tan 60° = x / 50√3

⇒ √3 = x / 50√3

⇒ x = 50√3 × √3

⇒ x = 50 × 3 = 150 m

⇒ Total height of tower (H) = x + height of building

⇒ H = 150 + 10 = 160 m

∴ The correct answer is 160 m.

Additional Information

Angle of Depression and Elevation

The angle of depression from point A to point B is numerically equal to the angle of elevation from point B to point A because they are alternate interior angles.

Common Trigonometric Ratios

For height and distance problems: tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, and tan 60° = √3.

Standard Height Formula

If two objects are separated by distance d, the height difference is given by h = d × tan(θ), where θ is the angle of elevation/depression between their tops.

Question 3

 A merchant fixes the sale price of his goods at 42% above the cost price. He sells his goods at a 15% discount marked price. His percentage of profit (rounded off to the nearest integer) is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    21%

  2. BOption (b)

    42%

  3. COption (c)

    35%

  4. DOption (d)

    27%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Apply effective percentage change formula: Profit % = a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100

Here, Markup (a) = +42 and Discount (b) = −15

Profit % = 42 − 15 + (42 × (−15)) ÷ 100

Profit % = 27 − 6.3 = 20.7%

Rounding off to the nearest integer, we get 21%.

∴ The correct answer is 21%.

Alternate Method

Given values:

Markup percentage = 42%

Discount percentage = 15%

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) be ₹100.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = CP + 42% of CP = 100 + 42 = ₹142.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = MP − 15% of MP.

⇒ SP = 142 − (15 ÷ 100) × 142.

⇒ SP = 142 − 21.3 = ₹120.7.

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 120.7 − 100 = ₹20.7.

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (20.7 ÷ 100) × 100 = 20.7%.

⇒ Rounded to nearest integer = 21%.

∴ The correct answer is 21%.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP) and Discount

Marked price is the price displayed on a product. Discount is always calculated on the MP: SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of CP to MP is given by: CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%).

Successive Percentage Formula

If a value is changed by x% and then by y%, the net change is [x + y + (xy ÷ 100)]%. This is useful for markup and discount problems.

Question 4

A set of data presented in the form of a frequency distribution table with class intervals and their respective frequencies had a mode of 48.5. The lower boundary of the modal class was 46.5; the frequency of the modal class was 34; the frequency of the class interval just preceding the modal class was 32 and the frequency of the class interval just succeeding the modal class was 25. What was the width of the modal class?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    10.5

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Difference between Mode and Lower limit = (f1 − f0) ÷ (2f1 − f0 − f2) × h

48.5 − 46.5 = (34 − 32) ÷ (2 × 34 − 32 − 25) × h

2 = (2 ÷ 11) × h

h = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Alternate Method

Given:

Mode (Mo) = 48.5

Lower boundary of modal class (l) = 46.5

Frequency of modal class (f1) = 34

Frequency of preceding class (f0) = 32

Frequency of succeeding class (f2) = 25

Formula Used:

Mode = l + [ (f1 − f0) ÷ (2f1 − f0 − f2) ] × h

Calculations:

⇒ 48.5 = 46.5 + [ (34 − 32) ÷ (2 × 34 − 32 − 25) ] × h

⇒ 48.5 − 46.5 = [ 2 ÷ (68 − 57) ] × h

⇒ 2 = (2 ÷ 11) × h

⇒ 2 × 11 = 2h

⇒ 22 = 2h

⇒ h = 22 ÷ 2

⇒ h = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

Median for Grouped Data

Median = l + [ (N/2 − cf) ÷ f ] × h, where l is lower limit of median class and cf is cumulative frequency of preceding class.

Empirical Relationship

Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean. This formula is used for moderately skewed distributions.

Mean for Grouped Data (Direct Method)

Mean = Σfixi ÷ Σfi, where xi is the class mark (mid-value) of each interval.

Question 5

An equilateral triangle ABC surmounts a square BCDE. The value of ∠EAB + 3∠AEB is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    60°

  2. BOption (b)

    80°

  3. COption (c)

    280°

  4. DOption (d)

    240°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

60°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Side AB = BC (triangle) and BE = BC (square) ⇒ AB = BE.

∠ABE = ∠ABC + ∠CBE = 60° + 90° = 150°.

In isosceles ΔABE, ∠EAB = ∠AEB = (180° − 150°) ÷ 2 = 15°.

Value of ∠EAB + 3∠AEB = 15° + 3(15°) = 15° + 45° = 60°.

∴ The correct answer is 60°.

Alternate Method

Given: ABC is an equilateral triangle and BCDE is a square.

Formula: Sum of angles in a triangle = 180°; Angles in square = 90°; Angles in equilateral triangle = 60°.

⇒ In equilateral ΔABC, AB = BC = AC and ∠ABC = 60°.

⇒ In square BCDE, BC = CD = DE = BE and ∠EBC = 90°.

⇒ Total ∠ABE = ∠ABC + ∠EBC = 60° + 90° = 150°.

⇒ Since AB = BC and BE = BC, we have AB = BE.

⇒ In ΔABE, ∠EAB = ∠AEB (angles opposite to equal sides).

⇒ ∠ABE + ∠EAB + ∠AEB = 180°

⇒ 150° + 2 × ∠AEB = 180°

⇒ 2 × ∠AEB = 30° ⇒ ∠AEB = 15°

⇒ Similarly, ∠EAB = 15°.

⇒ Required value = ∠EAB + 3∠AEB = 15° + 3(15°) = 60°.

∴ The correct answer is 60°.

Additional Information

Equilateral Triangle Properties

All three sides are equal in length, and each internal angle measures exactly 60°.

Square Properties

A square is a regular quadrilateral with four equal sides and four equal angles of 90°.

Isosceles Triangle Theorem

If two sides of a triangle are equal, then the angles opposite those sides are also equal.

Angle Sum Property

The sum of all interior angles of any triangle is always 180°.

Question 6

The marks obtained by 15 students out of a maximum of 25 in a test are given as 13, 11, 16, 15, 18, 12, 13, 14, 10, 22, 15, 21, 20, 17 and 24. Find the product of the modes of this set of data.  

  1. AOption (a)

    192 

  2. BOption (b)

    210 

  3. COption (c)

    182 

  4. DOption (d)

    195

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

195

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify frequencies: 13 appears 2 times, 15 appears 2 times.

All other numbers (10, 11, 12, 14, 16, 17, 18, 20, 21, 22, 24) appear only once.

The highest frequency is 2, so the modes are 13 and 15.

Product of modes = 13 × 15 = 195.

∴ The correct answer is 195.

Alternate Method

Given: Data set = {13, 11, 16, 15, 18, 12, 13, 14, 10, 22, 15, 21, 20, 17, 24}

Formula: Mode is the observation(s) with the highest frequency in the data set.

⇒ Arranging the data in ascending order: 10, 11, 12, 13, 13, 14, 15, 15, 16, 17, 18, 20, 21, 22, 24.

⇒ Frequency count:

⇒ 10, 11, 12, 14, 16, 17, 18, 20, 21, 22, 24 → 1 time each.

⇒ 13 → 2 times.

⇒ 15 → 2 times.

⇒ Since 13 and 15 have the highest frequency (2), there are two modes.

⇒ Modes = 13 and 15.

⇒ Product of modes = 13 × 15 = 195.

∴ The correct answer is 195.

Additional Information

Mode of a Dataset

The mode is the value that occurs most frequently in a data set. A set can have one mode (unimodal), two modes (bimodal), or more (multimodal).

Empirical Relationship

For a moderately skewed distribution: Mode = 3 × Median − 2 × Mean.

Mean and Median

Mean is the average (sum ÷ count). Median is the middle value when data is arranged in ascending or descending order.

Question 7

Two friends A and B started a business by investing Rs. 1,50,000 and Rs. 2,50,000, respectively. They agreed to distribute their earnings in the same ratio of their investments. After an year, the profit earned was Rs. 6,00,000. Each of them added Rs. 50,000 to their respective profits and invested in a different project. If this project gave an yield of Rs. 4,20,000, then A’s share in the profit is:  

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2,35,000 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1,65,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1,97,000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1,84,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 1,65,000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of investments A : B = 1,50,000 : 2,50,000 = 3 : 5.

Divide profit ₹6,00,000 in 3 : 5 → A = ₹2,25,000 and B = ₹3,75,000.

New investment ratio = (2,25,000 + 50,000) : (3,75,000 + 50,000) = 2,75,000 : 4,25,000 = 11 : 17.

A’s share in new profit = (11 ÷ 28) × 4,20,000 = 11 × 15,000 = ₹1,65,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,65,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial investment A = ₹1,50,000 | Initial investment B = ₹2,50,000

Profit Project 1 = ₹6,00,000 | Profit Project 2 = ₹4,20,000

Formula Used:

Profit Ratio = (Capital1 × Time1) : (Capital2 × Time2)

⇒ Investment Ratio A : B = 1,50,000 : 2,50,000 = 3 : 5

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 3 + 5 = 8 units

⇒ 8 units = ₹6,00,000

⇒ 1 unit = 6,00,000 ÷ 8 = ₹75,000

⇒ A’s profit share (Project 1) = 3 × 75,000 = ₹2,25,000

⇒ B’s profit share (Project 1) = 5 × 75,000 = ₹3,75,000

⇒ A’s investment (Project 2) = 2,25,000 + 50,000 = ₹2,75,000

⇒ B’s investment (Project 2) = 3,75,000 + 50,000 = ₹4,25,000

⇒ New Ratio A : B = 2,75,000 : 4,25,000 = 11 : 17

⇒ Total ratio units (Project 2) = 11 + 17 = 28 units

⇒ A’s share in Project 2 profit = (11 ÷ 28) × 4,20,000

⇒ A’s share = 11 × 15,000 = ₹1,65,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,65,000.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Sharing Rule

Profit is always distributed in the ratio of the product of Investment (Capital) and Time: Profit Ratio = (C1 × T1) : (C2 × T2).

Types of Partnership

Simple Partnership occurs when all partners invest for the same time period; Compound Partnership occurs when partners invest for different time durations.

Working vs Sleeping Partner

A working partner manages the business and may receive a salary or extra commission from the profit before the remaining profit is shared according to investment ratios.

Question 8

The ratio of the length, width and height of a closed cuboid is given as 6 ∶ 3 ∶ 2. The total surface area of this cuboid is given as 1800 cm2. Find the volume (in cm3) of this cuboid.

  1. AOption (a)

    4650

  2. BOption (b)

    4800

  3. COption (c)

    4500

  4. DOption (d)

    4200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4500

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of dimensions L : W : H = 6 : 3 : 2.

TSA ratio units = 2 × (6×3 + 3×2 + 2×6) = 2 × (18 + 6 + 12) = 72 units2.

72 units2 = 1800 cm2 ⇒ 1 unit2 = 25 ⇒ 1 unit = 5 cm.

Volume = (6 × 3 × 2) × (5)3 = 36 × 125 = 4500 cm3.

∴ The correct answer is 4500 cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of length (l), width (w), and height (h) = 6 : 3 : 2

Total Surface Area (TSA) = 1800 cm2

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area of Cuboid = 2(lw + wh + hl)

Volume of Cuboid = l × w × h

Let the length, width, and height be 6x, 3x, and 2x respectively.

⇒ TSA = 2[(6x × 3x) + (3x × 2x) + (2x × 6x)]

⇒ 1800 = 2[18x2 + 6x2 + 12x2]

⇒ 900 = 36x2

⇒ x2 = 900 ÷ 36

⇒ x2 = 25

⇒ x = √25 = 5

Now, dimensions of the cuboid are:

⇒ Length (l) = 6 × 5 = 30 cm

⇒ Width (w) = 3 × 5 = 15 cm

⇒ Height (h) = 2 × 5 = 10 cm

Volume of the cuboid:

⇒ V = l × w × h

⇒ V = 30 × 15 × 10

⇒ V = 4500 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 4500 cm3.

Additional Information

Lateral Surface Area of Cuboid

It is the area of the four side walls of the cuboid, calculated as LSA = 2h(l + w).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The length of the longest rod that can be placed inside a cuboid is given by d = √(l2 + w2 + h2).

Cube Properties

For a cube of side 'a', Volume = a3 and Total Surface Area = 6a2.

Question 9

B purchased 15 kg apples at the rate of Rs. 180 per kg from a wholesaler who uses a weight of 950 grams for the kg weight. B sold all these apples at Rs. 180 per kg but used a weight of 750 grams for the kg weight. Find the percentage profit earned by B in the transaction (correct to 2 places of decimal).

  1. AOption (a)

    22.55%

  2. BOption (b)

    25.75%

  3. COption (c)

    33.33%

  4. DOption (d)

    26.67%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

26.67%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In dishonest dealer problems where buying and selling rates are same:

Profit % = [(Wholesaler Weight − B's Weight) ÷ B's Weight] × 100

Profit % = [(950 − 750) ÷ 750] × 100

Profit % = [200 ÷ 750] × 100 = (4 ÷ 15) × 100 = 26.666...

∴ The correct answer is 26.67%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate of purchase = ₹180/kg | Weight received from wholesaler = 950 g for every 1000 g

Rate of sale = ₹180/kg | Weight given to customer = 750 g for every 1000 g

Total apples purchased = 15 kg

Calculations:

⇒ Actual quantity received by B = 15 kg × (950/1000) = 14.25 kg

⇒ Total Cost Price (CP) for B = 15 × ₹180 = ₹2700 (since B pays for 15kg)

⇒ B sells 750 g as 1 kg. So, 14.25 kg is sold as = 14.25 ÷ 0.750 = 19 units of 1 kg

⇒ Total Selling Price (SP) for B = 19 × ₹180 = ₹3420

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 3420 − 2700 = ₹720

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (720 ÷ 2700) × 100 = 72000 ÷ 2700 = 720 ÷ 27 = 80 ÷ 3

⇒ Profit % = 26.666...

∴ The correct answer is 26.67%.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Concept

When a dealer cheats while buying and selling, the overall profit multiplier is (Buying Factor × Selling Factor). Profit % = [(&text{True Weight} + &text{Gain while buying}) ÷ (&text{True Weight} − &text{Loss while selling}) − 1] × 100.

Ratio Method for Profit

For dishonest weights, CP : SP = Weight Given : Weight Charged. If the price per kg also changes, multiply the ratios accordingly.

Effective Profit %

If a person uses x% less weight, the profit % is [x ÷ (100 − x)] × 100. In this case, B uses 25% less weight (250g/1000g) on his end, but he also received 5% less weight from the wholesaler.

Question 10

If P(A∪B)=59\rm P(A \cup B)=\frac{5}{9}, P(Aˉ∪Bˉ)=1327\rm P(\bar{A} \cup \bar{B})=\frac{13}{27}, P(A)=1118\rm P(A)=\frac{11}{18}, then the odds against the event B are:

  1. AOption (a)

    3817\frac{38}{17}

  2. BOption (b)

    757 \frac{7}{57}

  3. COption (c)

    2925\frac{29}{25}

  4. DOption (d)

    477 \frac{47}{7}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2925\frac{29}{25}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Find P(A ∩ B) using De Morgan Law: P(A ∩ B) = 1 − P(Ā ∪ B̄) = 1 − 13/27 = 14/27.

Calculate P(B) using Addition Rule: P(B) = P(A ∪ B) + P(A ∩ B) − P(A) = 5/9 + 14/27 − 11/18.

Using LCM 54: P(B) = (30 + 28 − 33) / 54 = 25/54.

Odds against B = P(B̄) : P(B) = (54 − 25) : 25 = 29 : 25.

∴ The correct answer is 29/25.

Alternate Method

Given:

P(A ∪ B) = 5/9

P(Ā ∪ B̄) = 13/27

P(A) = 11/18

Formula Used:

  1. De Morgan's Law: P(Ā ∪ B̄) = P((A ∩ B)̄) = 1 − P(A ∩ B)
  2. Addition Theorem: P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B)
  3. Odds against event B = P(B̄) / P(B) = (1 − P(B)) / P(B)

Calculations:

⇒ P(A ∩ B) = 1 − P(Ā ∪ B̄)

⇒ P(A ∩ B) = 1 − 13/27 = 14/27

⇒ P(B) = P(A ∪ B) − P(A) + P(A ∩ B)

⇒ P(B) = 5/9 − 11/18 + 14/27

⇒ LCM of 9, 18, 27 is 54.

⇒ P(B) = (30 − 33 + 28) / 54 = 25/54

⇒ P(B̄) = 1 − 25/54 = 29/54

⇒ Odds against B = P(B̄) / P(B) = (29/54) / (25/54)

⇒ Odds against B = 29/25

∴ The correct answer is 29/25.

Additional Information

De Morgan's Laws

For any two events A and B, P(Ā ∩ B̄) = P((A ∪ B)̄) and P(Ā ∪ B̄) = P((A ∩ B)̄).

Odds in Favor vs Odds Against

Odds in favor of an event E are P(E) : P(Ē). Odds against an event E are P(Ē) : P(E).

Probability Addition Theorem

For any events A and B, P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B). If they are mutually exclusive, P(A ∩ B) = 0.

Question 11

The average weight of the first thirteen persons among fourteen persons is 78 kg. The weight of the 14th person is 39 kg more than the average weight of all the fourteen persons. Find the weight of the 14th person.

  1. AOption (a)

    118 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    98 kg

  3. COption (c)

    110 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    120 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

120 kg

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The extra weight of the 14th person (39 kg) is distributed among the first 13 persons to equalize their average to the overall average.

Total Average = Average of 13 persons + (Extra weight ÷ 13)

Total Average = 78 + (39 ÷ 13) = 78 + 3 = 81 kg

Weight of 14th person = Total Average + Extra = 81 + 39 = 120 kg

∴ The correct answer is 120 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of 13 persons = 78 kg

Weight of 14th person = Average of 14 persons + 39 kg

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Number of observations

Calculations:

Let the average weight of all 14 persons be x kg.

⇒ Total weight of 14 persons = 14 × x = 14x

⇒ Weight of 14th person = x + 39

⇒ Sum of weights of 13 persons = 13 × 78 = 1014 kg

⇒ Total Weight = Sum of 13 persons + Weight of 14th person

⇒ 14x = 1014 + (x + 39)

⇒ 14x − x = 1053

⇒ 13x = 1053

⇒ x = 1053 ÷ 13

⇒ x = 81 kg

⇒ Weight of 14th person = 81 + 39 = 120 kg

∴ The correct answer is 120 kg.

Additional Information

Average Concept

Average is the central value of a set of data. Formula: Average = Total Sum ÷ Total Number.

Deviation Method

If a new member joins and the average increases, the new member's value = Old Average + (Increase in Average × New Strength).

Sum of Observations

Sum = Average × Number of observations. Any change in sum directly impacts the average by Change ÷ n.

Question 12

What is the single discount equivalent to the successive discounts of 20%, 35%, and 10%?

  1. AOption (a)

    53.2%

  2. BOption (b)

    65.4%

  3. COption (c)

    48.7%

  4. DOption (d)

    42.3%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

53.2%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net Multiplier = (1 − 0.20) × (1 − 0.35) × (1 − 0.10)

Net Multiplier = 0.8 × 0.65 × 0.9 = 0.468

Equivalent Discount = (1 − 0.468) × 100 = 53.2%

∴ The correct answer is 53.2%.

Alternate Method

Given:

First discount (d1) = 20%

Second discount (d2) = 35%

Third discount (d3) = 10%

Formula Used:

Successive discount of x% and y% = [x + y − (x × y)/100]%

Calculations:

⇒ Equivalent discount for 20% and 35%:

⇒ D12 = 20 + 35 − (20 × 35)/100

⇒ D12 = 55 − 7 = 48%

⇒ Now, equivalent discount for 48% and 10%:

⇒ Net Discount = 48 + 10 − (48 × 10)/100

⇒ Net Discount = 58 − 4.8

⇒ Net Discount = 53.2%

∴ The correct answer is 53.2%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

For two successive discounts a% and b%, the single equivalent discount is (a + b − ab/100)%.

Relation between MP and SP

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (100 − d1)/100 × (100 − d2)/100 × ...

Effective Percentage Change

This method can also be used for successive population increases or area changes where x and y are positive for increase and negative for decrease.

Question 13

Three cards are drawn one after another with replacement from a pack of cards. What is the probability of getting first card a Jack, second card a black card, and third card an even numbered card?

  1. AOption (a)

    5338 \frac{5}{338}

  2. BOption (b)

    20338\frac{20}{338}

  3. COption (c)

    2526\frac{25}{26}

  4. DOption (d)

    5169 \frac{5}{169}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5338 \frac{5}{338}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Probability of independent events with replacement = P(A) × P(B) × P(C)

P(Jack) = 4/52 = 1/13

P(Black Card) = 26/52 = 1/2

P(Even Numbered Card) = 20/52 = 5/13 (Even cards are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 per suit)

Total Probability = (1/13) × (1/2) × (5/13) = 5/338

∴ The correct answer is 5/338.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total cards in a pack = 52

Condition: With replacement (Events are independent)

Formula Used:

Probability P(E) = Number of favorable outcomes ÷ Total number of outcomes

For independent events, P(A and B and C) = P(A) × P(B) × P(C)

Calculations:

⇒ Total cards in a pack = 52

⇒ Number of Jacks = 4 (Jack of Spades, Clubs, Hearts, Diamonds)

⇒ P(First card is a Jack) = 4/52 = 1/13

⇒ Number of black cards = 26 (13 Spades + 13 Clubs)

⇒ P(Second card is black) = 26/52 = 1/2

⇒ Numbered cards are 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10. Even numbered cards = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}

⇒ Total even numbered cards = 5 per suit × 4 suits = 20

⇒ P(Third card is an even numbered card) = 20/52 = 5/13

⇒ Combined Probability = (1/13) × (1/2) × (5/13)

⇒ Combined Probability = 5 / (13 × 2 × 13) = 5 / (26 × 13)

⇒ Combined Probability = 5/338

∴ The correct answer is 5/338.

Additional Information

Independent Events with Replacement

When objects are replaced, the total number of outcomes remains the same for every draw, making the events independent.

Dependent Events without Replacement

If cards were drawn without replacement, the denominator would decrease: P(A) × P(B|A) × P(C|A,B) with totals 52, 51, and 50 respectively.

Face Cards and Numbered Cards

A standard deck has 12 face cards (J, Q, K) and 36 numbered cards (2 to 10). Ace is usually not counted as a numbered card in competitive exams unless specified.

Question 14

At a certain time in a park, the number of heads and the number of legs of monkeys and human visitors were counted, and it was found that there were 54 heads and 148 legs. Find the number of monkeys in the park.

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find the number of 4-legged animals (Monkeys) in a group of 2-legged and 4-legged animals:

Number of Monkeys = (Total Legs − 2 × Total Heads) ÷ 2

⇒ Number of Monkeys = (148 − 2 × 54) ÷ 2

⇒ Number of Monkeys = (148 − 108) ÷ 2 = 40 ÷ 2 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 monkeys.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of heads = 54

Total number of legs = 148

Number of legs for a human = 2

Number of legs for a monkey = 4

Calculations:

⇒ Let the number of monkeys be M and humans be H.

⇒ Total heads: M + H = 54 → (Eq. 1)

⇒ Total legs: 4M + 2H = 148 → (Eq. 2)

⇒ Multiply (Eq. 1) by 2: 2M + 2H = 108 → (Eq. 3)

⇒ Subtract (Eq. 3) from (Eq. 2): (4M − 2M) + (2H − 2H) = 148 − 108

⇒ 2M = 40

⇒ M = 40 ÷ 2 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 monkeys.

Additional Information

Alligation Method for Heads/Legs

Ratio of 4-legged to 2-legged animals = (Average legs per head − 2) : (4 − Average legs per head).

Linear Equation Method

Solving systems of equations x + y = Total Heads and Ax + By = Total Legs, where A and B are the number of legs per animal.

Assumption Shortcut

Assume all animals have 2 legs: Total legs would be 2 × Heads. Any excess legs (Total Legs − Calculated Legs) belong to the 4-legged animals in pairs.

Question 15

Vipin travels one-third of the distance of a journey at a speed of 30 km/h and the remaining distance at a speed of 40 km/h. If he took a total of 12 hours to complete the journey, what was the total distance (in km) of the journey?

  1. AOption (a)

    432

  2. BOption (b)

    450

  3. COption (c)

    445

  4. DOption (d)

    412

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

432

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

LCM of speeds 30 and 40 = 120.

Let 1/3 distance = 120 km, then 2/3 distance = 240 km.

Total hypothetical distance = 120 + 240 = 360 km.

Total time taken = (120 ÷ 30) + (240 ÷ 40) = 4 + 6 = 10 hours.

Given time is 12 hours ⇒ Actual distance = (360 ÷ 10) × 12 = 432 km.

∴ The correct answer is 432 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Time = 12 hours

Speed 1 (for 1/3 distance) = 30 km/h

Speed 2 (for 2/3 distance) = 40 km/h

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total distance be x km.

⇒ Distance 1 = x/3 km and Distance 2 = 2x/3 km.

⇒ Time 1 + Time 2 = 12

⇒ (x/3) ÷ 30 + (2x/3) ÷ 40 = 12

⇒ x/90 + 2x/120 = 12

⇒ x/90 + x/60 = 12

⇒ (2x + 3x) ÷ 180 = 12

⇒ 5x ÷ 180 = 12

⇒ x ÷ 36 = 12

⇒ x = 36 × 12 = 432 km.

∴ The correct answer is 432 km.

Additional Information

Average Speed Formula

Average speed is calculated as Total Distance ÷ Total Time. If the distances are equal, the formula is 2uv ÷ (u+v).

Distance, Speed, and Time Relation

Distance = Speed × Time. When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (S1 ÷ S2 = T2 ÷ T1).

Conversion of Units

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Question 16

80 litres of a mixture of spirit and water in the ratio 7 ∶ 9 is present in a container A. 20 litres of the mixture is transferred to another container B. Then the container A is filled with 20 litres of water. Then 32 litres of the mixture is again transferred to container B. The ratio of water to spirit of the mixture in container B is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    41 ∶ 87

  2. BOption (b)

    87 ∶ 41

  3. COption (c)

    131 ∶ 77

  4. DOption (d)

    77 ∶ 131

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

131 ∶ 77

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Transfer 1 (20L to B): Ratio Spirit(S) : Water(W) is 7 : 9 ⇒ S = 8.75, W = 11.25.

In A: Remaining 60L (S=26.25, W=33.75) + 20L W ⇒ S=26.25, W=53.75 (Ratio 21 : 43).

Transfer 2 (32L to B): Ratio S : W is 21 : 43 ⇒ S = 10.5, W = 21.5.

Total in B: S = 8.75 + 10.5 = 19.25 and W = 11.25 + 21.5 = 32.75.

Ratio Water : Spirit in B = 32.75 : 19.25 = 131 : 77.

∴ The correct answer is 131 ∶ 77.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Volume (A) = 80 litres | Initial Ratio (S : W) = 7 : 9

Initial S = (7 ÷ 16) × 80 = 35 litres | Initial W = (9 ÷ 16) × 80 = 45 litres

Step 1: First transfer to B

⇒ Quantity transferred = 20 litres

⇒ S in B1 = (7/16) × 20 = 8.75 litres

⇒ W in B1 = (9/16) × 20 = 11.25 litres

Step 2: Change in Container A

⇒ Remaining S in A = 35 − 8.75 = 26.25 litres

⇒ Remaining W in A = 45 − 11.25 = 33.75 litres

⇒ After adding 20L water: Total W in A = 33.75 + 20 = 53.75 litres

⇒ New ratio S : W in A = 26.25 : 53.75 = 2625 : 5375 = 21 : 43

Step 3: Second transfer to B

⇒ Quantity transferred = 32 litres

⇒ S in B2 = (21/64) × 32 = 10.5 litres

⇒ W in B2 = (43/64) × 32 = 21.5 litres

Step 4: Final Ratio in B

⇒ Total Spirit in B = 8.75 + 10.5 = 19.25 litres

⇒ Total Water in B = 11.25 + 21.5 = 32.75 litres

⇒ Water : Spirit = 32.75 : 19.25 = 3275 : 1925

⇒ Dividing by 25: 131 : 77

∴ The correct answer is 131 ∶ 77.

Additional Information

Ratio Distribution Rule

When a part of a mixture is removed, the ratio of ingredients in the removed portion and the remaining portion remains the same as the original ratio.

Replacement Formula

Quantity of original liquid remaining after n replacements: Cn = C0(1 − x/V)n, where x is volume replaced and V is total volume.

Compound Ratio of Mixtures

If two mixtures with ratios a:b and c:d are mixed in ratio x:y, the final ratio of the first component is (ax/(a+b) + cy/(c+d)) / (bx/(a+b) + dy/(c+d)).

Question 17

A solid cube, whose each edge is of length 48 cm, is melted. Identical solid cubes, each of volume 64 cm3, are made out of this molten cube, without any wastage. How many such small cubes are obtained?

  1. AOption (a)

    1728

  2. BOption (b)

    1718

  3. COption (c)

    1748

  4. DOption (d)

    1738

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1728

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Edge of small cube = 3√64 = 4 cm.

Number of cubes = (Large Edge ÷ Small Edge)3

Number of cubes = (48 ÷ 4)3 = 123 = 1728.

∴ The correct answer is 1728 cubes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Edge of large cube = 48 cm

Volume of each small cube = 64 cm3

Formula Used:

Volume of a cube = (Edge)3

Number of cubes = Total Volume ÷ Volume of each small cube

⇒ Volume of the large cube = 48 × 48 × 48

⇒ Volume of the large cube = 110592 cm3

⇒ Volume of one small cube = 64 cm3

⇒ Number of small cubes (n) = 110592 ÷ 64

⇒ n = 1728

∴ The correct answer is 1728 cubes.

Additional Information

Melting and Recasting Rule

When a solid is melted and recast into another shape (or multiple smaller shapes) without wastage, the total volume remains constant.

Properties of a Cube

For a cube of side 'a', Volume = a3, Total Surface Area = 6a2, and Diagonal = a√3.

Scaling Factor in Volume

If the dimensions of a 3D object are scaled by a factor 'k', its volume is scaled by a factor of k3.

Question 18

What is the value of \left[\frac{1}{8}+\left{\frac{1}{6} \times\left(\frac{36}{45} \div \frac{24}{25}\right) \right. \right.- \left. \left. \left(\frac{12}{21} \times \frac{14}{15} \div \frac{24}{45}\right)\right}+\frac{27}{36}\right] ?

  1. AOption (a)

    136\frac{1}{36}

  2. BOption (b)

    172\frac{1}{72}

  3. COption (c)

    1108\frac{1}{108}

  4. DOption (d)

    127\frac{1}{27}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

172\frac{1}{72}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

[18+16×(3645÷2425)−(1221×1415÷2445)+2736][\frac{1}{8}+{\frac{1}{6} \times(\frac{36}{45} \div \frac{24}{25}) - (\frac{12}{21} \times \frac{14}{15} \div \frac{24}{45})}+\frac{27}{36}]

Formula used:

BODMAS rule (Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

Calculation:

[18+16×(3645×2524)−(1221×1415×4524)+2736][\frac{1}{8}+{\frac{1}{6} \times (\frac{36}{45} \times \frac{25}{24}) - (\frac{12}{21} \times \frac{14}{15} \times \frac{45}{24})} + \frac{27}{36}]

⇒ [18+16×(45×2524)−(47×1415×158)+34][\frac{1}{8}+{\frac{1}{6} \times (\frac{4}{5} \times \frac{25}{24}) - (\frac{4}{7} \times \frac{14}{15} \times \frac{15}{8})} + \frac{3}{4}]

⇒ [18+16×56−(1×1×1)+34][\frac{1}{8}+{\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} - (1 \times 1 \times 1)} + \frac{3}{4}]

⇒ [18+536−1+34][\frac{1}{8}+{\frac{5}{36} - 1} + \frac{3}{4}]

⇒ [18−3136+2736][\frac{1}{8} - \frac{31}{36} + \frac{27}{36}]

⇒ [18−436][\frac{1}{8} - \frac{4}{36}]

⇒ [18−19][\frac{1}{8} - \frac{1}{9}]

⇒ 9−872\frac{9-8}{72}

⇒ 172\frac{1}{72}

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 19

Two pillars of equal height stand on either side of a roadway which is 150 m wide. At a point in the road between pillars, the elevations of the pillars are x° and y° so that tan x° = 25\frac{2}{5}, tan y° = 35\frac{3}{5}, then the height of each pillar is:

  1. AOption (a)

    39 m

  2. BOption (b)

    36 m

  3. COption (c)

    42 m

  4. DOption (d)

    33 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36 m

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Height of pillars (h) = Road Width ÷ (cot x + cot y)

Given tan x = 2/5 → cot x = 5/2

Given tan y = 3/5 → cot y = 5/3

h = 150 ÷ (5/2 + 5/3) = 150 ÷ (25/6) = 150 × 6 ÷ 25

h = 6 × 6 = 36 m

∴ The correct answer is 36 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Road width (W) = 150 m

Angle of elevation 1 = x, where tan x = 2/5

Angle of elevation 2 = y, where tan y = 3/5

⇒ Let the height of each pillar be h.

⇒ Let d1 be the distance from the point to the first pillar and d2 be the distance from the point to the second pillar.

⇒ d1 + d2 = 150

⇒ In first triangle: tan x = h/d1 ⇒ 2/5 = h/d1 ⇒ d1 = 5h/2

⇒ In second triangle: tan y = h/d2 ⇒ 3/5 = h/d2 ⇒ d2 = 5h/3

⇒ 5h/2 + 5h/3 = 150

⇒ 5h × (1/2 + 1/3) = 150

⇒ 5h × (5/6) = 150

⇒ 25h/6 = 150

⇒ h = (150 × 6) ÷ 25

⇒ h = 6 × 6 = 36 m

∴ The correct answer is 36 m.

Additional Information

Height and Distance Relation

For a point between two objects of same height h at distance W, h = W ÷ (cot α + cot β), where α and β are angles of elevation.

Angle of Elevation

The angle between the horizontal line of sight and the object when the object is above the observer level.

Standard Trig Ratios

tan θ = Opposite / Adjacent and cot θ = Adjacent / Opposite. They are reciprocals of each other.

Question 20

The cost of 2 pencils and 3 pens is Rs. 55 and the cost of 7 pencils and 2 pens is Rs. 65. What is the total price (in Rs.) of one pen and one pencil?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let cost of Pencil = x and Pen = y.

Equations: 2x + 3y = 55 and 7x + 2y = 65.

Subtracting both: (7x − 2x) − (3y − 2y) = 65 − 55 ⇒ 5x − y = 10 ⇒ y = 5x − 10.

Substitute y in first: 2x + 3(5x − 10) = 55 ⇒ 17x = 85 ⇒ x = 5 and y = 15.

Total cost (x + y) = 5 + 15 = 20.

∴ The correct answer is ₹20.

Alternate Method

Given: Cost of 2 Pencils and 3 Pens is ₹55. Cost of 7 Pencils and 2 Pens is ₹65.

⇒ Let cost of 1 pencil = ₹x and 1 pen = ₹y.

⇒ 2x + 3y = 55 ... (1)

⇒ 7x + 2y = 65 ... (2)

⇒ Multiply (1) by 2 and (2) by 3 to eliminate y:

⇒ 4x + 6y = 110 ... (3)

⇒ 21x + 6y = 195 ... (4)

⇒ Subtract (3) from (4): (21x − 4x) = (195 − 110) ⇒ 17x = 85

⇒ x = 85 ÷ 17 = 5

⇒ Put x = 5 in (1): 2(5) + 3y = 55 ⇒ 10 + 3y = 55 ⇒ 3y = 45 ⇒ y = 15

⇒ Total price of one pen and one pencil = x + y = 5 + 15 = 20

∴ The correct answer is ₹20.

Additional Information

Simultaneous Linear Equations

Equations involving two variables (x, y) can be solved by making the coefficients of one variable the same and subtracting/adding the equations.

Substitution Method

Express one variable in terms of the other from one equation (e.g., y = 5x − 10) and substitute it into the second equation.

Cost Calculation Rule

Total Price = (Quantity1 × Price1) + (Quantity2 × Price2). To find individual prices, at least two independent conditions are required.

Question 21

If P ∶ Q = 3 ∶ 4 and Q ∶ R = 4 ∶ 7, then find the value of (P + Q) ∶ (Q + R) ∶ (R + P).

  1. AOption (a)

    11 ∶ 4 ∶ 7

  2. BOption (b)

    10 ∶ 3 ∶ 11

  3. COption (c)

    3 ∶ 4 ∶ 7

  4. DOption (d)

    7 ∶ 11 ∶ 10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7 ∶ 11 ∶ 10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Given P ∶ Q = 3 ∶ 4 and Q ∶ R = 4 ∶ 7.

Since the value of Q is common (4 units) in both ratios, we can directly write P ∶ Q ∶ R = 3 ∶ 4 ∶ 7.

Now, calculate the required terms: (P + Q) = 3 + 4 = 7; (Q + R) = 4 + 7 = 11; (R + P) = 7 + 3 = 10.

The ratio (P + Q) ∶ (Q + R) ∶ (R + P) = 7 ∶ 11 ∶ 10.

∴ The correct answer is 7 ∶ 11 ∶ 10.

Alternate Method

Given:

P ∶ Q = 3 ∶ 4

Q ∶ R = 4 ∶ 7

Formula Used:

If a ∶ b and b ∶ c are given, and the value of 'b' is same in both, then a ∶ b ∶ c = a ∶ b ∶ c.

Calculations:

⇒ Let P = 3x, Q = 4x, and R = 7x.

⇒ (P + Q) = 3x + 4x = 7x

⇒ (Q + R) = 4x + 7x = 11x

⇒ (R + P) = 7x + 3x = 10x

⇒ Ratio = (P + Q) ∶ (Q + R) ∶ (R + P)

⇒ Ratio = 7x ∶ 11x ∶ 10x

⇒ Ratio = 7 ∶ 11 ∶ 10

∴ The correct answer is 7 ∶ 11 ∶ 10.

Additional Information

Compounded Ratio

The compounded ratio of two ratios a ∶ b and c ∶ d is found by multiplying the corresponding terms: (a × c) ∶ (b × d).

Duplicate and Sub-duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a ∶ b is a2 ∶ b2, and the sub-duplicate ratio is √a ∶ √b.

Normalization of Ratios

To combine ratios like a ∶ b and b ∶ c where 'b' values are different, multiply each ratio by a constant to make the 'b' terms equal.

Question 22

A six-digit number 11p9q4 is divisible by 24. Then the greatest possible value for pq is:

  1. AOption (a)

    56

  2. BOption (b)

    68

  3. COption (c)

    42

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

56

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For divisibility by 24, the number must be divisible by both 8 and 3.

Last three digits 9q4 ÷ 8 ⇒ 904, 944, 984 are divisible by 8, so q ∈ {0, 4, 8}.

Sum of digits (1+1+p+9+q+4) = 15+p+q must be divisible by 3 ⇒ (p+q) must be a multiple of 3.

Case 1: If q = 8, max p = 7 (as 7+8=15) ⇒ pq = 7 × 8 = 56.

Case 2: If q = 4, max p = 8 (as 8+4=12) ⇒ pq = 8 × 4 = 32.

Case 3: If q = 0, max p = 9 (as 9+0=9) ⇒ pq = 9 × 0 = 0.

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 11p9q4, Divisor = 24.

Property: A number is divisible by 24 if it is divisible by 8 (last 3 digits) and 3 (sum of digits).

⇒ Divisibility by 8: The last three digits 9q4 must be divisible by 8.

⇒ 900 + 10q + 4 = 904 + 10q. Since 904 is divisible by 8 (904 = 8 × 113), 10q must be divisible by 8.

⇒ Possible values for q are 0, 4, and 8.

⇒ Divisibility by 3: Sum of digits = 1 + 1 + p + 9 + q + 4 = 15 + p + q.

⇒ For (15 + p + q) to be divisible by 3, (p + q) must be 0, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, or 18.

⇒ If q = 8: p + 8 = 9, 12, 15 ⇒ p = 1, 4, 7. Max pq = 7 × 8 = 56.

⇒ If q = 4: p + 4 = 6, 9, 12 ⇒ p = 2, 5, 8. Max pq = 8 × 4 = 32.

⇒ If q = 0: p + 0 = 0, 3, 6, 9 ⇒ p = 0, 3, 6, 9. Max pq = 9 × 0 = 0.

⇒ Comparing all products, the greatest value is 56.

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 8

A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8 or are zeros.

Divisibility by 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of all its individual digits is divisible by 3.

Composite Divisibility Rule

If a number is divisible by two co-prime numbers a and b, then it is also divisible by their product (a × b).

Question 23

The compound interest on Rs. 10,000 at 20% per annum is Rs. 4,641. If the compounding is done half-yearly, then for how many years was the sum invested?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective rate for half-yearly compounding = 20% ÷ 2 = 10%.

Ratio of Amount to Principal (A/P) = 14,641 / 10,000 = (1.4641/1).

Since (1 + 10/100)n = 1.1n, we observe that 1.14 = 1.4641.

Total periods (n) = 4 half-years.

Time in years = 4 ÷ 2 = 2 years.

∴ The correct answer is 2 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 10,000

Compound Interest (CI) = Rs. 4,641

Rate (R) = 20% per annum (Compounded half-yearly)

Formula Used: Amount (A) = P × (1 + r/100)n, where r is the rate per period and n is the number of periods.

Calculations:

⇒ Amount (A) = Principal + Compound Interest

⇒ A = 10,000 + 4,641 = 14,641

⇒ For half-yearly compounding, Rate (r) = 20% ÷ 2 = 10% per half-year.

⇒ Let the total periods be n.

⇒ 14,641 = 10,000 × (1 + 10/100)n

⇒ 14,641 / 10,000 = (11/10)n

⇒ 1.4641 = (1.1)n

⇒ (1.1)4 = (1.1)n

⇒ n = 4 periods

⇒ Since each period is 6 months, Total Time = 4 × 6 = 24 months = 2 years.

∴ The correct answer is 2 years.

Additional Information

CI Compounded Half-Yearly

When interest is compounded half-yearly, the annual rate is divided by 2 and the time (in years) is multiplied by 2.

CI Compounded Quarterly

When interest is compounded quarterly, the annual rate is divided by 4 and the time (in years) is multiplied by 4.

Effective Rate Formula

For two periods with rate r%, the effective rate is [r + r + (r × r)/100] %.

Difference between CI and SI

For 2 years, CI − SI = P × (R/100)2. For 3 years, CI − SI = P × (R/100)2 × (3 + R/100).

Question 24

Hari, Kamal and Lalit contested an election in which 6050 votes were polled and none of the votes were invalid. Kamal got 42% more votes than the total votes obtained by Hari and Lalit together. If Lalit obtained only 8% of the total polled votes, find the number of votes obtained by Hari.

  1. AOption (a)

    2016

  2. BOption (b)

    1668

  3. COption (c)

    1912

  4. DOption (d)

    1556

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2016

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Kamal : (Hari + Lalit) = 142 : 100 = 71 : 50.

Total parts = 71 + 50 = 121 units.

121 units = 6050 ⇒ 1 unit = 50.

Hari + Lalit = 50 × 50 = 2500.

Lalit = 8% of 6050 = 484.

Hari = 2500 − 484 = 2016.

∴ The correct answer is 2016 votes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total polled votes = 6050

Lalit's share = 8% of total votes

Kamal's share = (Hari + Lalit) + 42% of (Hari + Lalit)

Calculations:

⇒ Votes obtained by Lalit = 8% of 6050

⇒ Lalit = (8 × 6050) ÷ 100 = 484

⇒ Let votes obtained by (Hari + Lalit) = x

⇒ Kamal's votes = x + 0.42x = 1.42x

⇒ Total votes = Kamal + (Hari + Lalit)

⇒ 6050 = 1.42x + x

⇒ 6050 = 2.42x

⇒ x = 6050 ÷ 2.42 = 2500

⇒ Hari + Lalit = 2500

⇒ Hari + 484 = 2500

⇒ Hari = 2500 − 484 = 2016

∴ The correct answer is 2016 votes.

Additional Information

Election Vote Concepts

Total Votes Polled = Valid Votes + Invalid Votes. In this case, all polled votes are valid.

Percentage Comparison

If A is r% more than B, then A = B × (1 + r/100). If A is r% less than B, then A = B × (1 − r/100).

Ratio Partitioning

To divide a total 'T' into a ratio a : b, the first part is [a / (a+b)] × T and the second part is [b / (a+b)] × T.

Question 25

A and B can complete a job together in 12.5 days; B and C can complete the same job together in 18.75 days, while C and A can complete the same job together in 15 days. In how many days will A, B and C together be able to complete the same job alongside D, who is only 40% as efficient as C?

  1. AOption (a)

    9139 \frac{1}{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    9239 \frac{2}{3}

  3. COption (c)

    97279 \frac{7}{27}

  4. DOption (d)

    917279 \frac{17}{27}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

97279 \frac{7}{27}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(12.5, 18.75, 15) = 75 units.

Eff(A+B) = 6, Eff(B+C) = 4, Eff(C+A) = 5.

Combined Eff(A+B+C) = (6 + 4 + 5) ÷ 2 = 7.5 units/day.

Eff(C) = 7.5 − 6 = 1.5 units/day | Eff(D) = 40% of 1.5 = 0.6 units/day.

Total Time = 75 ÷ (7.5 + 0.6) = 75 ÷ 8.1 = 250/27 = 9 7/27 days.

∴ The correct answer is 9 7/27 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time (A + B) = 12.5 days = 25/2 days

Time (B + C) = 18.75 days = 75/4 days

Time (C + A) = 15 days

Efficiency of D = 40% of Efficiency of C

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A + B12.5756
B + C18.754
C + A155

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of (A+B), (B+C), and (C+A) = 6 + 4 + 5 = 15

⇒ 2 × Efficiency (A + B + C) = 15

⇒ Efficiency (A + B + C) = 15 ÷ 2 = 7.5 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of C = Efficiency (A + B + C) − Efficiency (A + B)

⇒ Efficiency of C = 7.5 − 6 = 1.5 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of D = 40/100 × 1.5 = 0.6 units/day

⇒ Combined efficiency (A + B + C + D) = 7.5 + 0.6 = 8.1 units/day

⇒ Total days = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency = 75 ÷ 8.1

⇒ Total days = 750 ÷ 81 = 250 ÷ 27 = 9 7/27 days

∴ The correct answer is 9 7/27 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. If a person takes 'n' days to complete a work, their efficiency is 1/n per day.

Combined Work Formula

For pairs (A+B, B+C, C+A), individual efficiency of A = [Eff(A+B) + Eff(C+A) − Eff(B+C)] ÷ 2.

Efficiency Ratios

If X is k% as efficient as Y, then Efficiency(X) = (k/100) × Efficiency(Y).

Question 26

The average age of A, B and C is 20 years. Two years ago the sum of the ages of A and B was 6 more than that of C. Find the present age of C.

  1. AOption (a)

    25 years

  2. BOption (b)

    29 years

  3. COption (c)

    28 years

  4. DOption (d)

    26 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

26 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total present age of A, B and C = 20 × 3 = 60 years.

Two years ago, (A − 2) + (B − 2) = (C − 2) + 6 ⇒ (A + B) − C = 8.

We have: (A + B) + C = 60 and (A + B) − C = 8.

By subtracting the equations: 2C = 60 − 8 = 52 ⇒ C = 26 years.

∴ The correct answer is 26 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average age of A, B, C = 20 years.

Condition 2 years ago: (Sum of A & B) = (Age of C) + 6.

Formula Used:

Total Age = Average × Number of persons.

Calculations:

⇒ Present sum A + B + C = 20 × 3 = 60 --- (i)

⇒ Ages 2 years ago: (A−2), (B−2), (C−2)

⇒ According to question: (A − 2) + (B − 2) = (C − 2) + 6

⇒ A + B − 4 = C + 4

⇒ A + B − C = 8 --- (ii)

⇒ From (i), A + B = 60 − C

⇒ Substitute in (ii): (60 − C) − C = 8

⇒ 60 − 2C = 8

⇒ 2C = 52

⇒ C = 26 years.

∴ The correct answer is 26 years.

Additional Information

Average Age Concept

If the average age of n persons is X years, then after t years, the average age will be (X + t) years.

Sum of Ages

To find the sum of ages of a group, multiply the average age by the number of members in that group (Sum = Average × n).

Age Difference

The difference between the ages of two individuals remains constant regardless of the number of years passed.

Question 27

Find the value of 

1.24×2.792.64×5.94 \frac{\sqrt{1.24} \times \sqrt{2.79}}{\sqrt{2.64} \times \sqrt{5.94}}

  1. AOption (a)

    3166 \frac{31}{66}

  2. BOption (b)

    3144\frac{31}{44}

  3. COption (c)

    3364\frac{33}{64}

  4. DOption (d)

    3331\frac{33}{31}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3166 \frac{31}{66}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

1.24×2.792.64×5.94 \frac{\sqrt{1.24} \times \sqrt{2.79}}{\sqrt{2.64} \times \sqrt{5.94}} = ?

Formula used:

a×b=a×b \sqrt{a} \times \sqrt{b} = \sqrt{a \times b}

ab=ab \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{b}} = \sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}

Calculation:

1.24×2.792.64×5.94 \frac{\sqrt{1.24} \times \sqrt{2.79}}{\sqrt{2.64} \times \sqrt{5.94}}

⇒ 1.24×2.792.64×5.94 \sqrt{\frac{1.24 \times 2.79}{2.64 \times 5.94}}

⇒ 124×279264×594 \sqrt{\frac{124 \times 279}{264 \times 594}}

⇒ (4×31)×(9×31)(4×66)×(9×66) \sqrt{\frac{(4 \times 31) \times (9 \times 31)}{(4 \times 66) \times (9 \times 66)}}

⇒ 4×9×3124×9×662 \sqrt{\frac{4 \times 9 \times 31^2}{4 \times 9 \times 66^2}}

⇒ 312662 \sqrt{\frac{31^2}{66^2}}

⇒ 3166 \frac{31}{66}

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 28

If A=582−252462−372A=\frac{58^2-25^2}{46^2-37^2}, B=262−152562−152B=\frac{26^2-15^2}{56^2-15^2}, then the value of 1B−20A\frac{1}{{B}}-\frac{20}{{A}} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    -1

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Apply the algebraic identity a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b) to simplify the terms.

A = (58 − 25)(58 + 25) / (46 − 37)(46 + 37) = (33 × 83) / (9 × 83) = 33 / 9 = 11 / 3.

B = (26 − 15)(26 + 15) / (56 − 15)(56 + 15) = (11 × 41) / (41 × 71) = 11 / 71.

Expression = 1/B − 20/A = 71 / 11 − 20 × (3 / 11) = 71/11 − 60/11 = 11/11 = 1.

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Alternate Method

Given:

A = (582 − 252) / (462 − 372)

B = (262 − 152) / (562 − 152)

Formula Used:

x2 − y2 = (x − y)(x + y)

Calculations:

⇒ A = ((58 − 25)(58 + 25)) / ((46 − 37)(46 + 37))

⇒ A = (33 × 83) / (9 × 83)

⇒ A = 33 / 9 = 11 / 3

⇒ B = ((26 − 15)(26 + 15)) / ((56 − 15)(56 + 15))

⇒ B = (11 × 41) / (41 × 71)

⇒ B = 11 / 71

⇒ Required Expression = 1/B − 20/A

⇒ Required Expression = 1 / (11/71) − 20 / (11/3)

⇒ Required Expression = 71 / 11 − (20 × 3) / 11

⇒ Required Expression = 71 / 11 − 60 / 11

⇒ Required Expression = 11 / 11 = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares

The formula a2 − b2 = (a − b)(a + b) is essential for simplifying fractions where numerator and denominator are differences of squares.

Fraction Reciprocals

The reciprocal of a fraction x/y is y/x. When finding 1/B, you simply flip the numerator and denominator of B.

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) to ensure calculations are performed in the correct sequence.

Question 29

The simple interest earned on Rs. 2,800 at a rate of 10% per annum for 3 years is Rs. x and Rs. 1,736 is the simple interest earned on Rs. 6,200 at a rate of 14% for y years, then the value of x/y is:

  1. AOption (a)

    140

  2. BOption (b)

    380

  3. COption (c)

    550

  4. DOption (d)

    420

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

420

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Value of x = 30% of 2800 = 840

Value of y = 1736 ÷ (14% of 6200) = 1736 ÷ 868 = 2

Required ratio x/y = 840 ÷ 2 = 420

∴ The correct answer is 420.

Alternate Method

Case 1: P = Rs. 2800, R = 10%, T = 3 years SI = x = 840

Case 2: P = Rs. 6200, R = 14%, SI = Rs. 1736 T = y = 2 Result: x / y = 840 / 2 = 420

Given:

First case: Principal (P1) = Rs. 2800, Rate (R1) = 10%, Time (T1) = 3 years, SI1 = Rs. x

Second case: Principal (P2) = Rs. 6200, Rate (R2) = 14%, Time (T2) = y years, SI2 = Rs. 1736

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ First, we calculate the value of x:

⇒ x = (2800 × 10 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ x = 28 × 30

⇒ x = 840

⇒ Now, we calculate the value of y:

⇒ 1736 = (6200 × 14 × y) ÷ 100

⇒ 1736 = 62 × 14 × y

⇒ 1736 = 868y

⇒ y = 1736 ÷ 868

⇒ y = 2

⇒ The required value of x/y is:

⇒ x/y = 840 ÷ 2 = 420

∴ The correct answer is 420.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

It is calculated only on the principal amount for the entire period. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Amount in SI

The total accumulated sum at the end of the time period. Formula: A = P + SI = P(1 + (R × T) ÷ 100).

Difference between SI and CI

In simple interest, interest remains constant every year, whereas in compound interest, interest is calculated on the principal and the accumulated interest of previous years.

Question 30

One chord of a circle is given as 20.5 cm. Then the radius (r) of the circle must be:

  1. AOption (a)

    r = 10 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    r < 10.25

  3. COption (c)

    r > 10.25

  4. DOption (d)

    r ≥ 10.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

r ≥ 10.25

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In a circle, the diameter is the longest possible chord.

Any other chord must be less than or equal to the diameter.

Mathematically, Diameter (2r) ≥ Chord length.

2r ≥ 20.5 ⇒ r ≥ 10.25.

∴ The correct answer is r ≥ 10.25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of chord = 20.5 cm

Radius of the circle = r

Formula/Property Used:

Diameter of a circle (D) = 2 × radius (r)

Geometric Property: Diameter ≥ Any Chord of the circle.

Calculations:

⇒ Diameter ≥ Chord

⇒ 2r ≥ 20.5 cm

⇒ r ≥ 20.5 ÷ 2

⇒ r ≥ 10.25

∴ The correct answer is r ≥ 10.25.

Additional Information

Longest Chord Property

The diameter is the unique chord that passes through the center of the circle and is the maximum length of any chord.

Chord Perpendicularity

A perpendicular drawn from the center of a circle to a chord bisects the chord into two equal halves.

Chord Distance from Center

Longer chords are always closer to the center of the circle compared to shorter chords. The diameter (the longest chord) has a distance of zero from the center.

Question 31

A statement is followed by four conclusions. Which of the conclusions is/are true based on the given statement?

Statement:

I < M < F ≤ D ≤ S = J

Conclusions:

I) S < M

II) F = S

III) I > J

IV) M < D

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion IV is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    Conclusions I and III are true.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Conclusions IV and II are true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusion IV is true.

Why this answer is correct

Given Statement: I < M < F ≤ D ≤ S = J

Now,

Conclusions:

Conclusion I: S < M → False (S = J ≥ D ≥ F > M > I It gives S > M)

Conclusion II: F = S → False (F ≤ D ≤ S = J It gives F ≤ S)

Conclusion III: I > J → False (I < M < F ≤ D ≤ S = J It gives I < J)

Conclusion IV: M < D → True (M < F ≤ D It gives M < D)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1: Only conclusion IV is true.".

Question 32

Given below is a statement followed by two possible reasons numbered I and II. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the two explains (s) the event/observation/information given in the statement.

statement:

In India, large cities have attracted migrant population from across rural parts of the country. According to 2011 census, in India’s six largest metros (Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru, Kolkata and Hyderabad), approximately 48% of the residents were migrants.

reasons:

I) Migration happens due to availability of better career and economic prospects in cities.

II) Migration happens because people like travelling and exploring new cities.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I is a possible reason.

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither I nor II is a possible reason.

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are possible reasons.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II is a possible reason.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only I is a possible reason.

Why this answer is correct

Analysis:

  • Reason I: This reason is highly plausible as a major driving force for migration, especially in the context of India. People often move from rural to urban areas primarily for better job opportunities, higher incomes, and improved living standards, which are more readily available in metropolitan areas.
  • Reason II: While some individuals might migrate for the experience of travel and exploration, this is not a common or primary reason for large-scale migration patterns, especially those captured in census data, which reflect more permanent or long-term residency changes driven by economic factors rather than leisure or travel interests.

Correct Answer:

  1. Only reason I explains the migration to large cities in India.

Question 33

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

18, 74, 298, 1194, 4778, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    19116

  2. BOption (b)

    19112

  3. COption (c)

    19114

  4. DOption (d)

    19110

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

19114

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

So, '19114' will come in place of question mark.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Question 34

Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of (?) will logically complete the series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

Logic: The letters and symbols are getting shifted it's position as shown below.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 35

What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

49.85 – 5.31 + 9.97 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    37

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

55

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Rule:

According to the given question:

Given equation : 49.85 – 5.31 + 9.97 = ?

To simplify, we perform the operations in order:

⇒ 49.85 – 5.31 = 44.54

⇒ 44.54 + 9.97 = 54.51

Rounding 54.51 to the nearest whole number:

⇒ 54.51 ≈ 55

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Question 36

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 5, 25)

(2, 5, 10)

  1. AOption (a)

    (3, 3, 9)

  2. BOption (b)

    (4, 4, 20)

  3. COption (c)

    (7, 3, 14)

  4. DOption (d)

    (9, 3, 26)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(3, 3, 9)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number × 2nd number = 3rd number.

Now,

(5, 5, 25)

⇒ 5 × 5 = 25.

(2, 5, 10)

⇒ 2 × 5 = 10.

Similarly, for (3, 3, 9)

⇒ 3 × 3 = 9.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 37

Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in a logical and meaningful order.

  1. Shirt piece

2.Thread

  1. Fabric
  2. Shirt
  3. Cotton
  1. AOption (a)

    5, 2, 3, 1, 4

  2. BOption (b)

    3, 5, 1, 2, 4

  3. COption (c)

    5, 3, 1, 2, 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3, 1, 2, 4, 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5, 2, 3, 1, 4

Why this answer is correct

To determine the logical and meaningful order of the given words related to the making of a shirt,

let's consider the sequence of production from raw material to the finished product:

  • Cotton (raw material)
  • Thread (spun from cotton)
  • Fabric (woven from thread)
  • Shirt piece (cut from fabric)
  • Shirt (sewn from shirt piece)

So, the correct order is:  5. Cotton, 2.Thread, 3. Fabric, 1. Shirt piece, 4. Shirt

Hence, the correct option is: 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

Question 38

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

A_DF GI_L MOP_ _UVX YA_D

  1. AOption (a)

    BJQRB

  2. BOption (b)

    CJRSB

  3. COption (c)

    BJRSB

  4. DOption (d)

    CJQRB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CJRSB

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

So, 'CJRSB' will be the correct alternative that will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 39

Each of the digits in the number 7148356 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?

  1. AOption (a)

    None

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Two

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One

Why this answer is correct

Given Number → (Left) 7148356 (Right) 

Arrangement of digits in the ascending order from left to right:-

(Left) 1345678 (Right)

Digit 4's Position are remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number 

(Left) 7148356 (Right) → (Left) 1345678 (Right)

Hence, the correct answer is "One".

Question 40

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

163 ÷ 3 + 147 × 7 – 1 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    489

  2. BOption (b)

    459

  3. COption (c)

    479

  4. DOption (d)

    469

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

469

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Rule:

According to the given question:

SymbolsInterchanged with
+–
–+
÷×
×÷

 

Given equation : 163 ÷ 3 + 147 × 7 – 1 = ?

Now if '+' and '–' are interchanged with '÷' and '×' respectively then:

⇒ 163 × 3 - 147 ÷ 7 + 1 = ?

⇒ 163 × 3 - 21 + 1 = ?

⇒ 489 - 20 = ?

⇒ 469 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Question 41

A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north. N is sitting third to the left of P. M is sitting third to the left of N. O is sitting third to the left of M. M is sitting between O and N. N is sitting between M and P. If no other person is sitting in the row, what is the total number of persons seated?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given: A certain number of people are sitting in a row, facing north.

  1. N is sitting third to the left of P.

  2. M is sitting third to the left of N.

  3. O is sitting third to the left of M.

  4. M is sitting between O and N.

  5. N is sitting between M and P.

If no other person is sitting in the row, Total '10' persons seated in the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 42

Three of the following word pairs are alike in some manner and hence form a group.

Which word pair does not belong to that group?

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

  1. AOption (a)

    Travel : Tour

  2. BOption (b)

    Close : Distant

  3. COption (c)

    Look : See

  4. DOption (d)

    Carry : Lift

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Close : Distant

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) Travel : Tour → "Tour" is a type of "Travel".

Option 2) Close : Distant → "Close" and "Distant" are antonyms.

Option 3) Look : See → "See" is synonymous with "Look".

Option 4) Carry : Lift → "Lift" can be synonymous with "Carry".

Here, 'Close : Distant' is odd among the options as it pairs antonyms, whereas the others pair synonyms or represent a subset of the other

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 43

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

113 ÷ 4 – 217 × 7 + 4 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    467

  2. BOption (b)

    459

  3. COption (c)

    477

  4. DOption (d)

    479

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

479

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Rule:

According to the given question:

SymbolsInterchanged with
+–
–+
÷×
×÷

 

Given equation : 113 ÷ 4 – 217 × 7 + 4 = ?

Now if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’and ‘÷’ are interchanged

⇒ 113 × 4 + 217 ÷ 7 - 4 = ?

⇒ 113 × 4 + 31 - 4 = ?

⇒ 452 + 31 - 4 = ?

⇒ 479 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Question 44

A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:

A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table. Each of them faces either the centre of the table or outside (i.e., opposite to the centre). In which direction is D facing?

Statements:

(I) B sits second to the right of F and both are facing the centre. Only two people are sitting between A and E from the either sides. Both A and E are facing the same direction. A is not an immediate neighbor of B.

(II) C is facing the opposite direction of B. D is sitting to the second left of C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement II is not.

  2. BOption (b)

    Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while statement I is not.

  4. DOption (d)

    Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given: A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table. Each of them faces either the centre of the table or outside.

Explanation:

Statement I: B sits second to the right of F and both are facing the centre. Only two people are sitting between A and E from the either sides. Both A and E are facing the same direction. A is not an immediate neighbor of B.

So, No statement given regarding D.

Hence, Statement I is not sufficient to answer the Question.

Statement II: C is facing the opposite direction of B. D is sitting to the second left of C.

The facing direction of C does not given, so Statement II is not sufficient to answer the Question.

Combining both the statements :Statement I + Statement II

(I) B sits second to the right of F and both are facing the centre. Only two people are sitting between A and E from the either sides. Both A and E are facing the same direction. A is not an immediate neighbor of B.

(II) C is facing the opposite direction of B. D is sitting to the second left of C.

Here, Facing direction of 'D' is also not confirmed on combining the both statements.

Therefore, Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Question 45

Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    D

  3. COption (c)

    B

  4. DOption (d)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: All the figures having circle between the images except figure B.

So, figure 'B' is odd among the given figures.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 46

One statement is given, and it is followed by two inferences numbered I and II. Read the statement and decide which of the inferences is/are true for the given statement.

Statements: Fuel prices in India are inflating day by day, and there is no upper limit in its price increase.

Inferences:

I. Central and State governments have not cut down their respective taxes on fuel.

II. Inflation in the international market is influencing the rising fuel prices.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both inferences I and II are true.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only inference II is true.

  3. COption (c)

    Neither inference I nor II is true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only inference I is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither inference I nor II is true.

Why this answer is correct

To answer the question, we examine if each inference can be directly drawn from the statement about rising fuel prices in India:

Inference I: This suggests that the tax rates by central and state governments have remained the same. While it's possible, the statement about the rising fuel prices doesn't specifically attribute the rise to taxation policies, nor does it imply that taxes have remained unchanged. It's an assumption without direct support from the statement.

Inference II: This suggests that international market inflation affects fuel prices, which is a common and plausible reason for changes in fuel prices, given that they often correlate with international oil market trends. However, the original statement does not specifically mention international market conditions affecting the prices. It's again an assumption, though somewhat reasonable.

Since neither inference can be directly concluded from the statement given.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3: Neither inference I nor II.

Question 47

In this question, a question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and decide the appropriate answer.

Question: How is Kishore related to Sujata?

(I) Navya is the daughter of Kishore. Vinita is the wife of Kishore.

(II) Aman is the brother of Navya. Sujata is the only daughter of Aman.

  1. AOption (a)

    (II) alone is sufficient while (I) alone is not sufficient.

  2. BOption (b)

    (I) alone is sufficient while (II) alone is not sufficient.

  3. COption (c)

    Both (I) and (II) together are needed.

  4. DOption (d)

    Either (I) alone or (II) alone is sufficient.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both (I) and (II) together are needed.

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: Navya is the daughter of Kishore. Vinita is the wife of Kishore.

So, according to statement (I), No information given about Sujata.

So, Statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II: Aman is the brother of Navya. Sujata is the only daughter of Aman.

So, according to statement (II), No information is given about Kishore.

So, Statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Now using both the statements:

Statement (I) + Statement (II) → Navya is the daughter of Kishore. Vinita is the wife of Kishore. Aman is the brother of Navya. Sujata is the only daughter of Aman.

So, using both the statements, Kishore is the 'Grandfather' of Sujata..

Thus, Both (I) and (II) together are needed.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Question 48

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Crowd : Dense :: Slope : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plain

  2. BOption (b)

    Tight

  3. COption (c)

    Fill

  4. DOption (d)

    Steep

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Steep

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The second word describes a characteristic of the first word.

Here,

Crowd : Dense → 'Dense' describes the characteristic of being closely packed, which is typical of a crowd.

Similarly,

Slope : ? → 'Steep' describes the characteristic of a sharp gradient, which is typical of some slopes.

Hence, the correct answer is "Steep".

Additional Information

  • Plain is not characteristic of slopes as it implies flatness or lack of elevation, which is opposite to what a slope is.
  • Tight does not directly relate to the concept of a slope.
  • Fill is not a descriptive characteristic of a slope.

Question 49

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

161 ÷ 4 + 75 × 5 – 4 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    533

  2. BOption (b)

    633

  3. COption (c)

    643

  4. DOption (d)

    543

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

633

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Rule:

According to the given question:

SymbolsInterchanged with
+–
–+
×÷
÷×

 

Given equation : 161 ÷ 4 + 75 × 5 – 4 = ?

Now if '+' and '–' are interchanged with '–' and '+' respectively and '×' and '÷' are interchanged then:

⇒ 161 × 4 – 75 ÷ 5 + 4 = ?

⇒ 644 – 15 + 4 = ?

⇒ 629 + 4 = ?

⇒ 633 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Question 50

Q is the mother of R. P is the husband of Q. S is the brother of R. How is P related to S?

  1. AOption (a)

    Father

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother

  3. COption (c)

    Son

  4. DOption (d)

    Wife’s brother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Father

Why this answer is correct

Family Chart:

Given: 

Q is the mother of R.

P is the husband of Q.

S is the brother of R.

So, P is 'Father' of S.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 51

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only three people sit to the left of D. Only two people sit between D and A. B sits fifth to the right of C. G sits to the immediate right of E but somewhere to the left of A. Who sits to the extreme right?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    E

  4. DOption (d)

    G

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A

Why this answer is correct

Given: Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line, facing north.

  1. Only three people sit to the left of D.

  2. Only two people sit between D and A.

There are two cases possible as we do not know whether A will sit to the right of D or left of D.

3)  B sits fifth to the right of C.

4)  G sits to the immediate right of E but somewhere to the left of A.

So, in the case 2, there will on place left for E if we place G to the left of A.

Thus, it will be eliminated. So, we will continue with case 1.

And, F will sit on the remaining place.

So, 'A' sits to the extreme right end.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 52

Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will make it logically complete.

P R _ Y _ _ R A _ Z P _ A _ Z

  1. AOption (a)

    AZYZRY

  2. BOption (b)

    APYZZY

  3. COption (c)

    AZPYRY

  4. DOption (d)

    APYZRY

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

AZPYRY

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: P R _ Y _ _ R A _ Z P _ A _ Z

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1)  A, Z, Y, Z, R, Y  →  P R A Y Z / Y R A Z Z / P R A Y Z

Option 2)  A, P, Y, Z, Z, Y  →  P R A Y P / Y R A Z Z / P Z A Y Z

Option 3)  A, Z, P, Y, R, Y  →  P R A Y Z / P R A Y Z / P R A Y Z

Option 4)  A, P, Y, Z, R, Y  →  P R A Y P / Y R A Z Z / P R A Y Z

Here, 'PRAYZ' followed a pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 53

Figure A is related to B in a certain pattern. Following the same pattern, figure C is related to D. Study the pattern and select the figure which should be placed in place of D.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Figure A and B: the figure A is getting rotated 180o to form figure B.

Similarly, C and D: the figure C is getting rotated 180o to form figure D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 54

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the second, fourth, fifth, and sixth letters of the word HOCKEY (when counted from left to right) using each letter only once in each word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Three

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Zero

  4. DOption (d)

    One

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

One

Why this answer is correct

Let's identify the second, fourth, fifth, and sixth letters of the word "HOCKEY":

Second letter: O, Fourth letter: K, Fifth letter: E, Sixth letter: Y

So, the letters we have are: O, K, E, and Y.

Now, let's see if we can form meaningful English words with these letters:

OKEY - Not a standard English word.

YOKE - A meaningful English word (a wooden crosspiece fastened over the necks of two animals and attached to the plow or cart that they are to pull).

KEYO - Not a standard English word.

Therefore, only one meaningful English word can be formed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 55

Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the pair that does not belong to that group?

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    13 - 117

  2. BOption (b)

    11 - 89

  3. COption (c)

    18 - 162

  4. DOption (d)

    15 - 135

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11 - 89

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first number multiplied by 9 equals the second number.

Now, check the options:

Option 1) 13 - 117 → 13 × 9 = 117.

Option 2) 11 - 89 → 11 × 9 = 99 ≠ 89.

Option 3) 18 - 162 → 18 × 9 = 162.

Option 4) 15 - 135 → 15 × 9 = 135.

So, '11 - 89' does not follow the same logic as the other options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 56

In a certain code language, ‘BUTTER’ is coded as ‘CWWSCO’ and ‘THEORY’ is coded as ‘UJHNPV’. How will ‘LATENT’ be coded in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    MDXCLQ

  2. BOption (b)

    MCWDLQ

  3. COption (c)

    MEVCKR

  4. DOption (d)

    MCWDMP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

MCWDLQ

Why this answer is correct

For ‘BUTTER’ → ‘CWWSCO’:

For ‘THEORY’ → ‘UJHNPV’:

When applying the same logic to ‘LATENT’:

Using the correct pattern: ‘LATENT’ would be coded as ‘MCWDLQ’.

Hence, the correct option is: 2) MCWDLQ

Question 57

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:

Some pens are books.

All book are cars.

Some cars are spoons.

Conclusions:

(I) : Some spoons are pens.

(II) : Some books are pens.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (I) follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion (II) follows

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only conclusion (II) follows

Why this answer is correct

Given Statements:

Some pens are books.

All book are cars.

Some cars are spoons.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some spoons are pens - False (Because, No definite relation given between spoons and pens, so it can be possible).

II. Some books are pens - True (Because, Some pens are books also implies that Some books are pens).

So, Only conclusion (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 58

Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The image that completes the pattern is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 59

In a certain code language, ‘CARD’ is coded as ‘7359’, ‘SERV’ is coded as ‘1256’and ‘PACK’ is coded as ‘8497’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

‘CARD’ is coded as ‘7359' 

'SERV’ is coded as ‘1256’

‘PACK’ is coded as ‘8497’

So, 'D' will be coded as '3'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 60

When the below given diagram is folded in the shape of a cube which symbol will face opposite to '

' ?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

From the given open Dice:

and  

is the opposite sides.

 

and  

is the opposite sides.

 and  

is the opposite sides.

So, the face of '

' is opposite to the face showing '

'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Section II (70 questions)

Question 61

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

This is the book whom I wanted to buy.

  1. AOption (a)

    the book

  2. BOption (b)

    wanted to buy.

  3. COption (c)

    whom I

  4. DOption (d)

    This is

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

whom I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. 'whom I'.

Key Points

  • The pronoun "whom" is incorrectly used in this sentence.
  • "Whom" is used as the object of a verb or preposition.
  • In this sentence, "that" should be used as it introduces a defining clause describing "the book."
  • Thus, the correct sentence should be "This is the book that I wanted to buy."

Therefore, the correct answer is 'whom I'.

Additional Information

  • Option (1) 'the book': This is a correct phrase and there is no grammatical error in it. It correctly identifies the noun being discussed.
  • Option (2) 'wanted to buy.': This phrase is also grammatically correct and maintains the intended meaning of the sentence, expressing the desire to purchase.
  • Option (4) 'This is': This phrase is correct as it properly introduces the sentence and gives context, indicating what is being referenced.

Question 62

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

Everyone should respect those parents, teachers, and elders.

  1. AOption (a)

    and elders.

  2. BOption (b)

    parents, teachers,

  3. COption (c)

    respect those

  4. DOption (d)

    Everyone should

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

respect those

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. respect those has an error.

Key Points

  • The phrase "respect those" is incorrect because it implies that "those" is necessary, which it is not.
  • In context, the sentence should simply be "Everyone should respect parents, teachers, and elders" without the word "those."
  • Using "those" unnecessarily complicates the sentence and makes it awkward.
  • Correcting the sentence improves its readability and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct sentence: Everyone should respect parents, teachers, and elders.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 ("and elders.") is correct as it is appropriately punctuated and completes the list.
  • Option 2 ("parents, teachers,") is correct as it appropriately lists the nouns in the series.
  • Option 4 ("Everyone should,") is correct as the introductory phrase of the sentence.

Question 63

The following sentence has been divided into four parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. 

They were / married happily / before she / quit her job.

A B C D

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    D

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'B' i.e. this part of the sentence has an error.

Key Points

  • In the second part of the given sentence, the phrase 'married happily' is incorrect.
  • The correct form should be 'happily married', as the adverb should come before the adjective.
  • Adverbs generally modify adjectives, verbs, or other adverbs, and in this case, it should modify the adjective 'married'.
  • Therefore, 'happily married' is the grammatically correct form.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: They were happily married before she quit her job.

Additional Information

  • Option 2 (D): 'quit her job' is correct as it properly indicates the action taken by 'she'.
  • Option 3 (C): 'before she' is correct as it introduces the clause that follows.
  • Option 4 (A): 'They were' is correct as it is the proper subject and verb agreement for a plural subject.

Question 64

Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The speaker’s emphasiss is on the present-day problems that are being faced by ordinary men of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    that are being faced

  2. BOption (b)

    on the present-day problems

  3. COption (c)

    by ordinary men of India

  4. DOption (d)

    The speaker’s emphasiss is

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The speaker’s emphasiss is

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'The speaker’s emphasiss is' has an error.

Key Points

  • The word "emphasiss" is incorrect and should be corrected to "emphasis".
  • The sentence requires "emphasis" which is the correct spelling.
  • "Emphasiss" is not a recognized word in the English language.
  • Therefore, the correct sentence should read: "The speaker’s emphasis is on the present-day problems that are being faced by ordinary men of India."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "that are being faced" is grammatically correct and does not contain any errors.
  • Option 2: "on the present-day problems" is also correct as it indicates the focus of the speaker.
  • Option 3: "by ordinary men of India" is correctly phrased and does not have any grammatical errors.

Question 65

The given sentence has an error which has been underlined. The underlined word is given as options with some changes. Select the option that rectifies the error.

She vaccillates a lot while making any decision.

  1. AOption (a)

    vasillates

  2. BOption (b)

    vacillattes

  3. COption (c)

    vacillates

  4. DOption (d)

    vacilates

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

vacillates

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. vacillates rectifies the error.

Key Points

  • The underlined word in the sentence, "vaccillates," is spelled incorrectly.
  • The correct spelling of the word is "vacillates," which means to waver between different opinions or actions.
  • Option 3 provides the correct spelling of the word "vacillates."
  • Using the correct spelling ensures that the sentence is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct sentence: She vacillates a lot while making any decision.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "vasillates" - This is an incorrect spelling and does not correct the error.
  • Option 2: "vacillattes" - This is an incorrect spelling due to the extra 't' and does not correct the error.
  • Option 4: "vacilates" - This is an incorrect spelling due to the missing 'l' and does not correct the error.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

By this time tomorrow, I _______ the work assigned to me.

  1. AOption (a)

    will have did

  2. BOption (b)

    will do

  3. COption (c)

    will have done

  4. DOption (d)

    will be done

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

will have done

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. will have done.

Key Points

  • The sentence is in the future perfect tense, which indicates that an action will be completed before a specified time in the future.
  • The structure of the future perfect tense is: "will have" + past participle of the verb.
  • The past participle of "do" is "done."
  • The phrase "By this time tomorrow" sets a future point by which the action will be completed, which aligns with the future perfect tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is: will have done.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "will have did" is incorrect because "did" is the simple past form, not the past participle.
  • Option 2: "will do" is the simple future tense, which does not indicate the completion of the action before a specified future time.
  • **Option 4: "**will be done" is passive voice and does not fit the context where the subject "I" should be performing the action.

Question 67

Select the most appropriate phrasal verb to fill in the blank. 

_________ that thought. It will be a great idea someday.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hold onto

  2. BOption (b)

    Hold to

  3. COption (c)

    Hold on

  4. DOption (d)

    Hold against

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hold onto

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Hold onto.

Key Points

  • The sentence indicates that the thought should be kept or remembered because it may be useful in the future.
  • The phrase "Hold onto" means to keep or maintain something, which fits the context of preserving a thought for future use.
  • The other options do not fit the context as well:
  • "Hold to" usually means to adhere to or follow a principle, which does not fit the context of keeping a thought.
  • "Hold on" generally means to wait or to hang on, which is not appropriate here.
  • "Hold against" means to have a grudge or resentment, which is not relevant in this context.
  • Understanding the meaning of "Hold onto" in the context of the sentence helps to clarify that the idea should be preserved for potential future use.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Hold onto.

Additional Information

  • Hold onto (सहेजना) means to keep or maintain something.
  • Hold to (पालन करना) means to adhere to or follow a principle.
  • Hold on (रुको) means to wait or to hang on.
  • Hold against (विरोध करना) means to have a grudge or resentment against someone.

Question 68

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, “Two and two make four.”

  1. AOption (a)

    He says that two and two made four.

  2. BOption (b)

    He said that two and two make four.

  3. COption (c)

    He says that two and two make four.

  4. DOption (d)

    He said that two and two made four.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

He said that two and two make four.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: He said that two and two make four..

 Key Points

  • The sentence in the Direct Speech is a universal truth or a general statement.
  • Universal truths or general statements remain unchanged in Indirect Speech.
  • Present tense remains in the present tense to convey the general fact.
Direct SpeechIndirect Speech
“Two and two make four.”two and two make four
He said,He said that

Therefore, the correct answer is: He said that two and two make four.

Question 69

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.

The award was presented to her by the director.

  1. AOption (a)

    She presented the award to the director.

  2. BOption (b)

    The award presented to her by the director.

  3. COption (c)

    The director presented the award to her.

  4. DOption (d)

    She was presenting the award to the director.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The director presented the award to her.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: The director presented the award to her.

Key Points

  • The subject of the Active Voice is changed into the object of the Passive Voice. Also, the object of the Active Voice is changed into the subject of the Passive Voice.
  • The usage of a helping verb is necessary while changing the voice of the sentence from Active to Passive.
  • The preposition “by” is used before the object made in Passive Voice. However, it is optional in some cases.
  • The sentence provided in the question is in Passive Voice.
  • To change the sentence to Active Voice, use the format: Subject + Verb + Object.

Therefore, the correct answer is: The director presented the award to her.

Question 70

Read the given sentence carefully and fill in the blank by selecting the correct synonym of the word given in the brackets.

The authority refused to pay any heed to the _________ demands made by the workers. (Trivial)

  1. AOption (a)

    conceited

  2. BOption (b)

    idiotic

  3. COption (c)

    insignificant

  4. DOption (d)

    majestic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

insignificant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. insignificant.

Key Points

  • The word "trivial" means of little value or importance.
  • The synonym for "trivial" that fits the context of the sentence is "insignificant".
  • ​Insignificant means too small or unimportant to be worth consideration.
  • "Conceited", "idiotic", and "majestic" do not convey the same meaning as "trivial" and thus are incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is- insignificant.

Additional Information

  • Conceited (अभिमानी) means having an excessively high opinion of oneself.
  • Idiotic (मूर्खतापूर्ण) means very stupid.
  • Majestic (शानदार) means having or showing impressive beauty or dignity.

Question 71

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined part of the given sentence.

There is a place for grains in the backyard of this house.

  1. AOption (a)

    apiary

  2. BOption (b)

    archive

  3. COption (c)

    granary

  4. DOption (d)

    dormitory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

granary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. granary.

Key Points

  • The word "granary" refers to a storehouse for threshed grain. (अनाज का भंडार)
  • Example: The farmer stored the harvested wheat in the granary to keep it dry and safe.
  • "Granary" is used to describe a place where grains are stored, which matches the context of the sentence given. (अनाज का भंडार)
  • Example: There is a granary in the backyard of this house where they keep their grains.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. granary.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Apiary (मधुमक्खी पालन गृह): A place where bees are kept; a collection of beehives.
  • Example: The beekeeper checks the apiary every morning to ensure the bees are healthy.
  • Archive (अभिलेखागार): A place where public records or historical documents are kept.
  • Example: The historical documents were stored in the national archive.
  • Dormitory (छात्रावास): A large bedroom for a number of people in a school or institution.
  • Example: The students returned to their dormitory after the evening classes.

Question 72

Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.

By whom were you taught English grammar and composition?

  1. AOption (a)

    Who has taught you English grammar and composition?

  2. BOption (b)

    Whom taught you English grammar and composition?

  3. COption (c)

    Who had taught you English grammar and composition?

  4. DOption (d)

    Who taught you English grammar and composition?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Who taught you English grammar and composition?

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Who taught you English grammar and composition?

Key Points

  • The subject of the Active Voice is usually changed into the object of the Passive Voice, and vice versa.
  • The usage of a helping verb is necessary while changing the voice of the sentence from Active to Passive and vice versa.
  • The provided sentence is in Passive Voice.
  • To change it to Active Voice, identify the subject (who) and place it at the beginning.
  • The format for the active voice is: Who + (past tense of verb) + you + (object).

Therefore, the correct answer is: Who taught you English grammar and composition?

Question 73

Select the most appropriate option in direct speech.

  1. AOption (a)

    The principal said to me, “You are in-charge of the admission cell.”

  2. BOption (b)

    The principal say me, “You are in-charge of the admission cell.”

  3. COption (c)

    The principal said to I, “You are in-charge of the admission cell.”

  4. DOption (d)

    The principal said me, You are in-charge of the admission cell.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The principal said to me, “You are in-charge of the admission cell.”

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: The principal said to me, “You are in-charge of the admission cell.”.

 Key Points

  • When converting a sentence to Direct Speech, ensure the correct punctuation and structure are used.
  • The introductory phrase should use "said to" when addressing someone directly.
  • The pronoun "me" is correctly used after "said to".
  • The quoted speech should be enclosed in quotation marks.
Correct Direct SpeechIncorrect Submission
The principal said to me, “You are in-charge of the admission cell.”All other options

Therefore, the correct answer is: The principal said to me, “You are in-charge of the admission cell.”.

Question 74

Select the sentence which gives the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Bite the bullet

  1. AOption (a)

    The children played in the park on a sunny day.

  2. BOption (b)

    Despite the pain, Sarah decided to go ahead with the surgery.

  3. COption (c)

    The chef prepared a delicious meal for the guests.

  4. DOption (d)

    Jack and Jill went up the hill to fetch a pail of water.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Despite the pain, Sarah decided to go ahead with the surgery.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The idiom "Bite the bullet" means to endure a painful or otherwise unpleasant situation that is seen as unavoidable. (कठिन परिस्थिति का सामना करना)
  • Example: Knowing that the project was due soon, she decided to bite the bullet and start working on it immediately.
  • Option 2 explains the idiom correctly as it describes Sarah deciding to go ahead with the surgery despite the pain, which is an unavoidable situation. (कठिन परिस्थिति का सामना करना)
  • Example: Despite the pain, Sarah decided to go ahead with the surgery.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: The children played in the park on a sunny day. (बच्चे धूप वाले दिन पार्क में खेले।)
  • Example: The children played in the park on a sunny day.
  • Option 3: The chef prepared a delicious meal for the guests. (शेफ ने मेहमानों के लिए एक स्वादिष्ट भोजन तैयार किया।)
  • Example: The chef prepared a delicious meal for the guests.
  • Option 4: Jack and Jill went up the hill to fetch a pail of water. (जैक और जिल पानी की बाल्टी लाने के लिए पहाड़ी पर गए।)
  • Example: Jack and Jill went up the hill to fetch a pail of water.

Question 75

Select the option that arranges the given words to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.

The students eagerly their awaited results.

  1. AOption (a)

    The students their eagerly awaited results.

  2. BOption (b)

    The awaited eagerly results their students.

  3. COption (c)

    Eagerly awaited the students their results.

  4. DOption (d)

    The students eagerly awaited their results.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The students eagerly awaited their results.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. The students eagerly awaited their results.

Key Points

  • The sentence needs to be arranged in a grammatically correct and meaningful way.
  • In English, the subject typically comes first, followed by the verb, and then the object.
  • The word "eagerly" is an adverb and should be placed before the verb "awaited" to describe how the action was performed.
  • The word "their" is a possessive pronoun and should be placed before "results" to show ownership.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct sentence: The students eagerly awaited their results.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The students their eagerly awaited results." - The placement of "their" and "eagerly" is incorrect, disrupting the grammatical structure.
  • Option 2: "The awaited eagerly results their students." - This option is completely jumbled and does not form a meaningful sentence.
  • Option 3: "Eagerly awaited the students their results." - The adverb "eagerly" is correctly placed, but the structure is incorrect because the subject should come first.

Question 76

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Robin watched as the smoke _________ steadily from the chimney.

  1. AOption (a)

    hung

  2. BOption (b)

    rose

  3. COption (c)

    left

  4. DOption (d)

    went

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

rose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. rose.

Key Points

  • The sentence describes the movement of smoke from the chimney.
  • The word "rose" (उठना) means to move upward, which fits the context of smoke moving up from the chimney.
  • The words "hung," "left," and "went" do not accurately describe the upward movement of smoke.
  • Understanding the meaning of "rose" in the context of the sentence helps to clarify that the smoke is moving upward from the chimney.

Therefore, the correct answer is- rose.

Additional Information

  • Hung (लटकना) means to be suspended from above with the lower part dangling.
  • Left (छोड़ना) means to go away from.
  • Went (गया) is the past tense of "go" and means to move from one place to another.

Question 77

Select the most appropriate option in the superlative degree that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

This is the challenge task I have ever encountered.

  1. AOption (a)

    more challenging

  2. BOption (b)

    most challenging

  3. COption (c)

    challenging

  4. DOption (d)

    much challenging

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

most challenging

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. most challenging.

Key Points

  • The given sentence uses the phrase "challenge task," which is grammatically incorrect. The correct phrase should be "challenging task."
  • The sentence is attempting to express the superlative degree, indicating the highest level of challenge encountered.
  • The appropriate superlative form of "challenging" is "most challenging."
  • Using "most challenging" correctly conveys that this task is the highest degree of challenge compared to all others encountered.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: This is the most challenging task I have ever encountered.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: more challenging
  • This is the comparative form of "challenging" and is used to compare two things. It is not suitable for expressing the highest degree among many.
  • Option 3: challenging
  • This is the base form of the adjective and does not convey any degree of comparison.
  • Option 4: much challenging
  • This phrase is grammatically incorrect as "much" is not used directly with adjectives in this manner. The correct usage would be "much more challenging."

Question 78

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

They want to live in first floor of this building.

  1. AOption (a)

    They want to

  2. BOption (b)

    of this building

  3. COption (c)

    No error

  4. DOption (d)

    live in first floor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

live in first floor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. live in first floor has an error.

Key Points

  • The error in the sentence is in the phrase "live in first floor."
  • In English, when referring to a specific floor in a building, the correct preposition to use is "on" rather than "in."
  • The correct phrase should be "live on the first floor."
  • The definite article "the" is also needed before "first floor."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct sentence: They want to live on the first floor of this building.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: They want to - This part of the sentence is correct and does not contain any errors.
  • Option 2: of this building - This part of the sentence is correct and does not contain any errors.
  • Option 4: live in first floor - This part contains the error. The correct phrase should be "live on the first floor."

Question 79

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined phrase in the following sentence.

She was known for her ability to communicate effectively and express herself clearly in writing and speaking.

  1. AOption (a)

    incoherence

  2. BOption (b)

    articulation

  3. COption (c)

    mumbling

  4. DOption (d)

    rambling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

articulation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

  • The word "articulation" means the act of expressing something in a coherent verbal form; the ability to speak clearly and effectively. (स्पष्टता)
  • Example: Her articulation during the presentation impressed everyone in the room.
  • "Articulation" refers to the clear and effective expression of ideas in speech or writing. (स्पष्टता)
  • Example: Good articulation is crucial for public speakers and educators.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Incoherence (असंगति): Lack of clarity or organization in thought or speech.
  • Example: His incoherence made it difficult to understand his point.
  • Mumbling (बड़बड़ाना): Speaking in a quiet and unclear manner.
  • Example: He was mumbling so softly that no one could hear him.
  • Rambling (असंगत बात करना): Talking or writing in a lengthy and confused way.
  • Example: His speech was so rambling that it was hard to follow his main points.

Question 80

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.

He said, “I bought this book for my brother.”

  1. AOption (a)

    He said that he buy this book for his brother.

  2. BOption (b)

    He said that he had bought that book for his brother.

  3. COption (c)

    He said that he has bought this book for his brother.

  4. DOption (d)

    He said that he bought this book for his brother.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

He said that he had bought that book for his brother.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: He said that he had bought that book for his brother..

 Key Points

  • The sentence in the Direct Speech is in the Past Simple Tense.
  • When converting a sentence from Direct Speech to Indirect Speech, the Past Simple Tense changes to Past Perfect Tense.
  • The following changes occur when transforming the sentence:
  • This changes to that.
Direct SpeechIndirect Speech
I bought this book for my brother.he had bought that book for his brother.
He said,He said that

Therefore, the correct answer is: He said that he had bought that book for his brother.

Question 81

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Access denied.

  1. AOption (a)

    Let the access be denied.

  2. BOption (b)

    Let it be known that access will be denied.

  3. COption (c)

    Access has been denied.

  4. DOption (d)

    Access is being denied.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Let the access be denied.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Let the access be denied.

Key Points

  • The original sentence "Access denied" is in a command form, which translates into passive voice differently.
  • To change it into Passive Voice, we often use the structure: Let + object + be + past participle.
  • In this context, "Access denied" becomes "Let the access be denied."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Let the access be denied.

Question 82

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

We / has seen / that movie / before.

  1. AOption (a)

    has seen

  2. BOption (b)

    before

  3. COption (c)

    that movie

  4. DOption (d)

    We

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

has seen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. has seen has an error.

Key Points

  • The verb "has" is incorrect when used with the subject "We," which is plural.
  • The correct verb form to use with "We" is "have."
  • The correct form of the sentence should be "We have seen that movie before."
  • Using "has" with "We" breaks the subject-verb agreement rule in English grammar.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Correct sentence: We have seen that movie before.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: before - This is a preposition indicating a point in time, and it is correctly used here.
  • Option 3: that movie - This phrase correctly identifies the object of the verb "seen."
  • Option 4: We - This is the subject of the sentence and is correctly used.

Question 83

Select the option that rectifies the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no correction is needed, select ‘No correction required’.

Ashoka was not only a great warrior but also a very wiser ruler.

  1. AOption (a)

    more wise

  2. BOption (b)

    No correction required

  3. COption (c)

    wisest

  4. DOption (d)

    wise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

wise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. wise .

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the phrase 'not only... but also' is used to show a contrast or addition between two qualities or actions.
  • When using the structure 'not only... but also', the parallelism rule should be followed. This means that the words or phrases following 'not only' and 'but also' should be grammatically similar.
  • The word 'wiser' is a comparative adjective. However, the sentence already uses 'great' (a positive adjective), so the parallel structure requires another positive adjective.
  • The correct word to use is 'wise', which is the positive form of the adjective, maintaining the parallel structure with 'great'.

Therefore, the correct answer is wise.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: more wise - This is incorrect because 'more wise' is not a standard comparative form in English. The correct comparative form is 'wiser'.
  • Option 3: wisest - This is incorrect because 'wisest' is the superlative form, which does not fit the parallel structure with 'great'.

Question 84

The given sentence has an error. Choose the option that corrects the error

Throw a rounder stone to create ripples in the water.

  1. AOption (a)

    Throw the roundest stone to create ripples in the water.

  2. BOption (b)

    Throw a more round stone to create ripples in the water.

  3. COption (c)

    Throw a more rounder stone to create ripples in the water.

  4. DOption (d)

    Throw a round stone to create ripples in the water.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Throw a round stone to create ripples in the water.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Throw a round stone to create rip'ples in the water' is correct.

Key Points

  • The original sentence uses the phrase "a rounder stone," which implies a comparison. However, no comparison is being made in the context of the sentence.
  • "Rounder" is a comparative adjective, which is used to compare two things. Since no comparison is being made, the use of "rounder" is incorrect.
  • Option 4, "Throw a round stone," correctly uses the adjective "round" to describe the stone without implying a comparison.
  • The sentence's meaning remains clear and grammatically correct when "round" is used instead of "rounder."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct sentence: Throw a round stone to create ripples in the water.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Throw the roundest stone to create ripples in the water." - "Roundest" is a superlative adjective, which implies that the stone is the most round out of a group. This doesn't fit the context of the sentence.
  • Option 2: "Throw a more round stone to create ripples in the water." - "More round" implies a comparison between stones, which is not necessary in this context.
  • Option 3: "Throw a more rounder stone to create ripples in the water." - This option is grammatically incorrect because "more rounder" is a redundancy; you should use either "more round" or "rounder," not both.

Question 85

Select the option that rectifies the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no correction is needed, select ‘No correction required’.

Cinema provides the most universal entertainment.

  1. AOption (a)

    No correction required

  2. BOption (b)

    a universal

  3. COption (c)

    an universal

  4. DOption (d)

    more universal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a universal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. a universal entertainment.

Key Points

  • The given sentence uses the phrase "the most universal," which is incorrect because "universal" itself means applicable everywhere or to everyone, making it non-comparable.
  • In English, adjectives that describe an absolute state (like "universal") do not usually take comparative or superlative forms.
  • The correct form should be "a universal entertainment," which fits the context and meaning of the sentence.
  • Using "a universal" correctly implies that cinema provides a type of entertainment that is applicable to everyone without implying a comparison.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: Cinema provides a universal entertainment.

Additional Information

  • Option 3: an universal - Incorrect because "universal" begins with a consonant sound, so "a" should be used instead of "an."
  • Option 4: more universal - Incorrect for the same reason as "the most universal"; "universal" cannot be compared.

Question 86

Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the following sentence.

He is taller and most handsome than his friend.

  1. AOption (a)

    very more

  2. BOption (b)

    more

  3. COption (c)

    the more

  4. DOption (d)

    the most

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

more

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. more.

Key Points

  • The original sentence incorrectly uses "most handsome" instead of the correct comparative form.
  • The sentence is making a comparison between two people: "He" and "his friend."
  • When comparing two entities, the comparative form of the adjective should be used.
  • The correct form for "handsome" when making a comparison is "more handsome."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct sentence: He is taller and more handsome than his friend.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: very more - This is grammatically incorrect. "Very" is used to intensify adjectives but does not combine with "more" in this context.
  • Option 3: the more - This phrase is used in different contexts, often to indicate a proportional relationship, e.g., "the more you read, the more you learn."
  • Option 4: the most - This is a superlative form used when comparing more than two entities. It is not suitable for comparing two people.

Question 87

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The girl was ________ as she was drenched in the rain.

  1. AOption (a)

    bolt

  2. BOption (b)

    gold

  3. COption (c)

    cold

  4. DOption (d)

    tight

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cold

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. cold.

Key Points

  • The sentence indicates that the girl was affected by being drenched in the rain.
  • The word "cold" means feeling low temperature, which fits the context of being wet from the rain.
  • The words "bolt," "gold," and "tight" do not convey the physical sensation of being wet and chilly, making them incorrect choices based on the sentence's context.
  • Understanding the meaning of "cold" in the context of the sentence helps to clarify that the girl felt cold because she was drenched in the rain.

Therefore, the correct answer is- cold.

Additional Information

  • Bolt can mean a metal pin or a sudden movement, but does not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Gold refers to a precious metal, which is irrelevant to the context.
  • Tight refers to something being firmly held or fixed, which does not fit the context of feeling cold due to rain.

Question 88

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

You use an ________ to steer a boat.

  1. AOption (a)

    are

  2. BOption (b)

    or

  3. COption (c)

    oar

  4. DOption (d)

    ore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

oar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. oar.

Key Points

  • The sentence indicates that to steer a boat, one uses an object.
  • The word **"oar" (**चप्पू) refers to a tool used for rowing or steering a boat, which fits the context of the sentence.
  • The words "are," "or," and "ore" do not fit in the context of steering a boat, making them incorrect choices.
  • Understanding the meaning of "oar" in the context of the sentence helps to clarify that it is the correct tool used for steering a boat.

Therefore, the correct answer is- oar.

Additional Information

  • Are  is a form of the verb "to be" used with plural subjects.
  • **Or (**या) is a conjunction used to link alternatives.
  • **Ore (**अयस्क) refers to a naturally occurring solid material from which a metal or valuable mineral can be extracted.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

Despite their differences, the two politicians decided to ________ and work together for the greater good.

  1. AOption (a)

    bury the hatchet

  2. BOption (b)

    burn the midnight oil

  3. COption (c)

    bark up the wrong tree

  4. DOption (d)

    blow off steam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

bury the hatchet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

  • The idiom "bury the hatchet" means to make peace or to stop fighting and become friendly. (शांति बनाना)
  • Example: After years of rivalry, the two companies decided to bury the hatchet and collaborate on a new project.
  • "Bury the hatchet" refers to resolving differences and working together harmoniously. (शांति बनाना)
  • Example: Despite their differences, the two politicians decided to bury the hatchet and work together for the greater good.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Burn the midnight oil (देर रात तक काम करना): To work late into the night.
  • Example: She had to burn the midnight oil to finish her project on time.
  • Bark up the wrong tree (गलत दिशा में प्रयास करना): To pursue a mistaken or misguided course of action.
  • Example: If you think I'm the one who broke the vase, you're barking up the wrong tree.
  • Blow off steam (गुस्सा निकालना): To release pent-up energy or emotion.
  • Example: He went for a run to blow off steam after the stressful meeting.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.

The ongoing fight for social justice and equality continues to be a significant global 1. _____________. Movements advocating for racial, gender and LGBTQ+ equality, as well as addressing systemic discrimination and injustice, have 2. _____________ momentum in recent years. People are increasingly recognising the importance of dismantling structures that 3. ________________ inequality and fostering inclusivity in all aspects of society. Calls for justice, representation and equal opportunities have sparked conversations and initiatives aimed at creating a more equitable world. It is crucial to 4. __________ in meaningful dialogue, challenge biases and actively promote diversity and to build a society where everyone has equal rights and opportunities.

Question 90

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

  1. AOption (a)

    drift

  2. BOption (b)

    focus

  3. COption (c)

    divergence

  4. DOption (d)

    dispersion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

focus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. focus.

Key Points

  • The context of the passage is discussing the ongoing fight for social justice and equality, indicating that it is a central and significant issue.
  • The word "focus" appropriately conveys the idea of attention and concentration on a significant global issue.
  • "Drift," "divergence," and "dispersion" do not correctly express the idea of a primary concern or central issue.

Therefore, the correct answer is focus.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: drift. This word implies a gradual or aimless movement or course, which does not fit the context of a significant global issue.
  • Option 3: divergence. This word refers to a difference or variation, which does not align with the idea of a concentrated issue.
  • Option 4: dispersion. This word suggests spreading or scattering, which does not describe the concentrated attention on social justice and equality.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    invoked

  2. BOption (b)

    scattered

  3. COption (c)

    provided

  4. DOption (d)

    gained

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

gained

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. gained.

Key Points

  • The sentence describes the recent developments in movements advocating for equality and justice.
  • The word "momentum" refers to the driving force gained by the development of a process or course of events.
  • "Gained" appropriately fits with "momentum," indicating that these movements have progressively gathered strength and support.

Therefore, the correct answer is gained.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: invoked. This word means to call upon something, such as a concept or authority, which does not fit the context of accumulating momentum.
  • Option 2: scattered. This word means spread out over a large area, which would be inappropriate to describe gathering strength.
  • Option 3: provided. While it means supplied or made available, it does not correctly convey the notion of accumulating force or support.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

  1. AOption (a)

    cease

  2. BOption (b)

    perpetuate

  3. COption (c)

    refract

  4. DOption (d)

    terminate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

perpetuate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. perpetuate.

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the recognition of the importance of dismantling structures that uphold or maintain inequality.
  • "Perpetuate" means to cause something to continue indefinitely, which makes sense in the context of maintaining systems of inequality.
  • The phrase "structures that perpetuate inequality" accurately conveys systems that sustain or prolong inequality.

Therefore, the correct answer is perpetuate.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: cease. This means to bring to an end, which is the opposite of what the passage intends to convey.
  • Option 3: refract. This means to change the direction of light or sound, which does not fit the context of inequality.
  • Option 4: terminate. This means to bring to an end, similar to "cease," and does not match the intended message.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

  1. AOption (a)

    engage

  2. BOption (b)

    coincide

  3. COption (c)

    evolve

  4. DOption (d)

    manifest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

engage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. engage.

Key Points

  • The sentence talks about the importance of participating in meaningful activities to promote social justice, challenge biases, and foster diversity.
  • "Engage" appropriately fits the context of actively participating in dialogue and initiatives.
  • The phrase "engage in meaningful dialogue" is commonly used to convey active involvement in discussions.

Therefore, the correct answer is engage.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: coincide. This means to occur at the same time, which does not fit the context of participating in dialogue and actions.
  • Option 3: evolve. This means to develop gradually, which does not directly relate to participating in dialogue or actions.
  • Option 4: manifest. This means to display or show, which does not fit the context of actively participating in meaningful dialogue.

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

Steel is tough, and it can easily be shaped, cut or made into wire. Special alloys of steel can be made by adding small amounts of other metals such as aluminium, nickel and copper. Alloys give steel unusual hardness, toughness or ability to resist rust. Steel is often called the backbone of modern industry. Almost everything we use is either made of iron or steel or has been made with tools and machinery of these metals. Ships, trains, trucks and autos are made largely of steel. Even the safety pins and the needles you use are made from steel. Oil wells are drilled with steel machinery. Steel pipelines transport oil. Minerals are mined with steel equipment. Farm machines are mostly steel. Large buildings have steel framework.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Identify the structure of the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cause and effect

  2. BOption (b)

    Sequential

  3. COption (c)

    Classification

  4. DOption (d)

    Descriptive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Descriptive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Descriptive.

Key Points

  • The passage provides detailed information about the properties, uses, and significance of steel.
  • It describes various characteristics of steel and its alloys, emphasizing their importance in modern industry.
  • The passage lists examples of how steel is used in different sectors, such as transportation, drilling, mining, and construction.

Therefore, the correct answer is descriptive.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Cause and effect. This structure explains reasons and outcomes, which is not the main focus of this passage.
  • Option 2: Sequential. This structure arranges information in chronological or logical order, which is not applicable here.
  • Option 3: Classification. This structure sorts information into categories, which does not describe the way the passage is organized.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Why is steel often called the backbone of modern industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    Steel is used in almost every tool and machinery.

  2. BOption (b)

    Steel can be added with any material.

  3. COption (c)

    It is easy to make steel alloys.

  4. DOption (d)

    Steel is tough.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Steel is used in almost every tool and machinery.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Steel is used in almost every tool and machinery.

Key Points

  • The passage mentions that almost everything we use is either made of iron or steel or has been made with tools and machinery of these metals.
  • It highlights the extensive use of steel in transportation (ships, trains, trucks, and autos), household items (safety pins and needles), industrial applications (oil wells and steel machinery), mining, farming (farm machines), and construction (large buildings).
  • This extensive application of steel across various industries justifies why it’s considered the backbone of modern industry.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Steel is used in almost every tool and machinery.'

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Steel can be added with any material. This statement is incorrect as the passage talks about the creation of steel alloys by adding small amounts of specific metals, not any material.
  • Option 3: It is easy to make steel alloys. While making alloys might be an important aspect, it is not the main reason steel is considered the backbone of modern industry.
  • Option 4: Steel is tough. Although steel's toughness is a key property, it is not the sole reason for it being termed as the backbone of modern industry.

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the tone of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Critical

  2. BOption (b)

    Informative

  3. COption (c)

    Judgemental

  4. DOption (d)

    Ironical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Informative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. Informative.

Key Points

  • The passage provides factual information about the properties of steel, its alloys, and its wide-ranging applications in various industries.
  • There is no indication of criticism, judgment, or irony. The passage aims to convey knowledge about the importance and uses of steel in a straightforward manner.

Therefore, the correct answer is informative.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Critical. A critical tone would involve pointing out faults or shortcomings, which is not present in the passage.
  • Option 3: Judgemental. A judgemental tone would involve expressing opinions about right and wrong, which the passage does not do.
  • Option 4: Ironical. An ironical tone would involve saying something in a way that usually means the opposite, often to convey sarcasm, which is not applicable here.

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select an appropriate title for the passage from the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    Steel Industry

  2. BOption (b)

    Mineral ores

  3. COption (c)

    Manufacturing

  4. DOption (d)

    Resources of Steel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Steel Industry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Steel Industry.

Key Points

  • The passage extensively discusses the properties, production, and numerous applications of steel in various industries.
  • It highlights the central role of steel in modern industrial practices, making it a comprehensive overview of the steel industry's significance.
  • The other options either focus on too narrow an aspect (e.g., "Resources of Steel") or unrelated topics (e.g., "Mineral ores," "Manufacturing").

Therefore, the correct answer is Steel Industry.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Mineral ores. This is misleading as the passage does not focus on the sources of steel (mineral ores) but rather on steel itself and its applications.
  • Option 3: Manufacturing. This option is too broad and does not specifically highlight the key focus of the passage on steel.
  • Option 4: Resources of Steel. While relevant, this title does not capture the full scope of the passage which covers more than just the resources.

Read the given passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

The discovery of a new bird species has sparked excitement among ornithologists and bird enthusiasts worldwide. The bird, named the Sapphire-winged Warbler, discovered in a remote tropical island's rainforests, is a unique bird with vibrant blue feathers and a distinctive melodic song. Birdwatchers and nature enthusiasts have been flocking to the island in hopes of catching a glimpse of this elusive and captivating creature. The discovery of the Sapphire winged Warbler highlights the importance of preserving and protecting habitats. Amidst the excitement surrounding the discovery of the Sapphire-winged Warbler, researchers have embarked on a mission to uncover the bird's migratory patterns. Equipped with satellite tracking devices, they aim to trace the remarkable journey of this species across vast distances. By unravelling its migratory routes and stopover locations, scientists hope to gain insight into the challenges the Sapphire-winged Warbler faces during its arduous travels. The local community on the tropical island has embraced the newfound avian resident with great enthusiasm. Efforts are underway to raise awareness about the importance of conservation and to create protected areas that ensure the continued existence of this exquisite species.

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    The Migratory Journey of the Sapphire-winged Warbler

  2. BOption (b)

    Conservation Efforts in Tropical Rainforests

  3. COption (c)

    The Unique Features of the Sapphire-winged Warbler

  4. DOption (d)

    The Curious Behaviour of Birds in Remote Islands

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Migratory Journey of the Sapphire-winged Warbler

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. The Migratory Journey of the Sapphire-winged Warbler.

Key Points

  • The passage primarily focuses on the excitement and subsequent research surrounding the discovery of the Sapphire-winged Warbler.
  • A significant portion of the passage is dedicated to describing researchers' efforts to trace the bird's migratory patterns with satellite tracking devices. This is a central aspect of the narrative.
  • While the passage does mention the bird's unique features and conservation efforts, these elements are part of the broader context of studying its migratory journey.

Therefore, the correct answer is "The Migratory Journey of the Sapphire-winged Warbler."

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Conservation Efforts in Tropical Rainforests. While conservation is mentioned, it is not the main focus of the passage.
  • Option 3: The Unique Features of the Sapphire-winged Warbler. This is part of the passage but doesn't capture the central narrative about migration research.
  • Option 4: The Curious Behaviour of Birds in Remote Islands. This is too general and does not specify the unique discovery and research efforts discussed.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which statement best reflects a fact mentioned in the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Sapphire-winged Warbler is the largest bird species in the avian kingdom.

  2. BOption (b)

    Schools on the island organise annual bird-watching competitions.

  3. COption (c)

    The Sapphire-winged Warbler is the only bird species on the tropical island.

  4. DOption (d)

    Researchers are using satellite tracking devices to study the bird's migratory patterns.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Researchers are using satellite tracking devices to study the bird's migratory patterns.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Researchers are using satellite tracking devices to study the bird's migratory patterns.

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly mentions that researchers have equipped the Sapphire-winged Warbler with satellite tracking devices to study its migratory patterns.
  • This is a verifiable fact stated directly in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Researchers are using satellite tracking devices to study the bird's migratory patterns."

Additional Information

  • Option 1: The Sapphire-winged Warbler is the largest bird species in the avian kingdom. This is not mentioned in the passage.
  • Option 2: Schools on the island organise annual bird-watching competitions. This statement is not found in the passage.
  • Option 3: The Sapphire-winged Warbler is the only bird species on the tropical island. The passage does not claim that it is the only bird species on the island.

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘stare’ from the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Arduousness

  2. BOption (b)

    Vibrancy

  3. COption (c)

    Excitement

  4. DOption (d)

    Glimpse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Glimpse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Glimpse.

Key Points

  • The word "stare" implies looking at something for an extended period of time, often with intensity.
  • "Glimpse" means to see something briefly or in passing, which is the opposite of staring.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Glimpse."

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Arduousness. This refers to something being difficult and strenuous, not related to sight or looking.
  • Option 2: Vibrancy. This refers to being full of energy and life, not related to sight or looking.
  • Option 3: Excitement. This refers to a state of enthusiasm or eagerness, not related to sight or looking.

Question 101

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Based on the given passage, which of the following inferences can be made?

  1. AOption (a)

    The discovery of the Sapphire-winged Warbler has sparked global interest in birdwatching.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Sapphire-winged Warbler is an aggressive and territorial bird species.

  3. COption (c)

    Conservation efforts are solely focused on protecting the Sapphire-winged Warbler.

  4. DOption (d)

    The scientific community has lost interest in studying avian species.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The discovery of the Sapphire-winged Warbler has sparked global interest in birdwatching.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. The discovery of the Sapphire-winged Warbler has sparked global interest in birdwatching.

Key Points

  • The passage mentions that the discovery of the Sapphire-winged Warbler has sparked excitement among ornithologists and bird enthusiasts worldwide, indicating a global interest.
  • Birdwatchers and nature enthusiasts flocking to the island further support the inference of increased interest in birdwatching.

Therefore, the correct answer is "The discovery of the Sapphire-winged Warbler has sparked global interest in birdwatching."

Additional Information

  • Option 2: The Sapphire-winged Warbler is an aggressive and territorial bird species. This is not supported by any information in the passage.
  • Option 3: Conservation efforts are solely focused on protecting the Sapphire-winged Warbler. While conservation efforts are mentioned, the passage does not state that they are solely focused on this species.
  • Option 4: The scientific community has lost interest in studying avian species. The passage describes active research and interest, contradicting this statement.

Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.

On woody plants known as vines, luscious, smooth-skinned berries called grapes grow in dense clusters. In particular, grapes are grown in France, Italy, Spain, Australia, Chile, Romania, Georgia, South Africa and California, all of which have warm summers and moderate winters. Table grapes are larger and sweeter grapes that are intended for fresh consumption. To create wine, 80% of the grapes are crushed. The fermentation process turns grapes into wine. To make raisins, grapes must also be dried.

Grapes ripen in the area of California in August. They are cut from the vines and left on trays to dry for two to three weeks. So, to transform them into raisins, they are further cooked and steeped in particular treatments. According to studies, one acre of grapes can make roughly 15,000 glasses of wine on average. Grapes of the Thompson, Flame, Ruby, Perlette and Tokay varieties are popular.

Question 102

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What does the fermentation process do?

  1. AOption (a)

    Turns grapes into raisins

  2. BOption (b)

    Makes grapes larger

  3. COption (c)

    Crushes the grapes

  4. DOption (d)

    Turns grapes into wine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Turns grapes into wine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e**. Turns grapes into wine.**

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly states, "The fermentation process turns grapes into wine."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Turns grapes into wine."

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Turns grapes into raisins. The passage states that grapes must be dried to make raisins, not fermented.
  • Option 2: Makes grapes larger. This is not mentioned in the passage regarding the fermentation process.
  • Option 3: Crushes the grapes. Grapes are crushed as part of the winemaking process, but the specific role of fermentation is to turn the grapes into wine, not to crush them.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Based on your reading of the passage, select the most appropriate word which best describes ‘luscious’.

  1. AOption (a)

    Smooth

  2. BOption (b)

    Soft

  3. COption (c)

    Juicy

  4. DOption (d)

    Large

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Juicy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Juicy.

Key Points

  • The word "luscious" commonly describes something that is rich, sweet, and juicy, especially in reference to food like fruits.
  • The passage describes grapes as "luscious, smooth-skinned berries," indicating they are appealing and juicy.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Juicy."

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Smooth. While grapes are described as smooth-skinned in the passage, "luscious" refers more to their rich and juicy quality.
  • Option 2: Soft. This is not a primary descriptor for "luscious."
  • Option 4: Large. This does not capture the richness or juiciness implied by "luscious."

Question 104

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In which region do grapes ripen in August?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chile

  2. BOption (b)

    California

  3. COption (c)

    France

  4. DOption (d)

    Australia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

California

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. California.

Key Points

  • The passage specifically states, "Grapes ripen in the area of California in August."

Therefore, the correct answer is "California."

Additional Information

  • The passage does not mention the exact ripening period for grapes in Chile, France, or Australia.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate title for the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Grapes and its uses

  2. BOption (b)

    Grapes and world

  3. COption (c)

    Wine making

  4. DOption (d)

    Varieties of grapes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Grapes and its uses

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Grapes and its uses.

Key Points

  • The passage discusses various aspects of grapes, including where they are grown, their use in wine-making, the drying process to make raisins, and the different varieties grown.
  • It covers multiple uses of grapes: fresh consumption (table grapes), wine production, and raisin production.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Grapes and its uses'.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Grapes and world. This is too vague and does not specifically highlight the comprehensive discussion on the uses of grapes.
  • Option 3: Wine making. While the passage does mention wine-making, it is not solely about this topic; it also covers other uses of grapes such as making raisins.
  • Option 4: Varieties of grapes. Although different varieties of grapes are mentioned, this is only a part of the broader discussion in the passage.

Question 106

Who was the second vice-President of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    VV Giri

  2. BOption (b)

    Krishna Kant

  3. COption (c)

    Dr Zakir Hussain

  4. DOption (d)

    Dr S Radhakrishnan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dr Zakir Hussain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zakir Hussain.

Key Points

  • The second  vice president of India was Dr. Zakir Hussain (1897-1969)
  • Tenure-1962-1967

Additional Information

  • The first vice president of India was Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1888-1975)
  • Tenure- 1952-1962
  • Varahagiri Venkatagiri (V V Giri)  (1884-1980)
  • Third vice president of India
  • Tenure- 1967-1969
  • Gopal Swarup Pathak (1896-1982)
  • Fourth vice president of India
  • Tenure- 1969-1974
  • B.D. Jatti (1913-2002)
  • Fifth vice president of India
  • Tenure- 1974-1979
  • Current (Incumbent) vice president of India (as of 2024)
  • Jagdeep Dhankhar
  • He is the 14th vice president of India
  • Source:-https://knowindia.gov.in/general-information/vice-presidents-of-india.php

Question 107

Match the following

Characteristics/Other NameName of River
A.Area of Badland topography1.Godavari
B.Vridh Ganga2.Brahmaputra
C.Tsangpo3.Kosi
D.Sorrow of Bihar4.Chambal
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

  3. COption (c)

    A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3​

Key PointsTo match the characteristics or other names with the correct rivers, let's look at each pair individually:

  • Area of Badland topography - This characteristic is associated with the Chambal River, which flows through the Chambal valley known for its badland topography.
  • Vridh Ganga - This name refers to the Godavari River. Vridh Ganga means "Old Ganga," and the Godavari is often called the Vridh Ganga.
  • Tsangpo - This name refers to the Brahmaputra River. In Tibet, the Brahmaputra is known as the Tsangpo.
  • Sorrow of Bihar - This name refers to the Kosi River, which is notorious for causing floods in Bihar.​

​Therefore, the correct matching is:

4.A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

Question 108

Which of the following options represents the total income earned by individuals from all the sources before deduction of personal income taxes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Disposable income

  2. BOption (b)

    Personal income

  3. COption (c)

    Gross income

  4. DOption (d)

    National income

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gross income

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gross income

Key Points

  • Gross income represents the total income earned by individuals from all sources before deduction of personal income taxes.
  • It includes wages, salaries, bonuses, rental income, interest earnings, and other sources of revenue.
  • Gross income is crucial for determining an individual's tax liability and eligibility for various financial programs and services.
  • It is different from net income, which is the income remaining after all deductions and taxes have been subtracted.

Additional Information

  • Disposable income is the amount of money that households have available for spending and saving after income taxes have been accounted for.
  • Personal income includes all income received by individuals, including wages, dividends, and interest, before personal taxes are deducted.
  • National income is the total value of all goods and services produced by a country over a specific period, usually a year.

Question 109

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Chemical compound)List-II (Spices)
A.Curcuminoids1.Cardamom
B.1, 8-cineole2.Black pepper
C.Eugenol3.Turmeric
D.Piperine4.Cloves
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

  3. COption (c)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

Key Points to match the chemical compounds with the corresponding spices, let's look at each pair individually:

  • Curcuminoids - These are the active compounds found in Turmeric.
  • 1, 8-cineole - This compound is found in Cardamom.
  • Eugenol - This compound is the main component of Cloves.
  • Piperine - This compound is found in Black pepper​

Additional Information

Curcuminoids

  • Turmeric (Haldi)
  • Details: Curcuminoids are a group of compounds that include curcumin, demethoxycurcumin, and bisdemethoxycurcumin.
  • These compounds are responsible for the bright yellow color of turmeric and are known for their anti-inflammatory, antioxidant, and potential anti-cancer properties.
  • Turmeric is widely used in Indian cuisine and traditional medicine.

1, 8-cineole

  • Cardamom (Elaichi)
  • 1, 8-cineole, also known as eucalyptol, is a compound found in cardamom, as well as in eucalyptus, bay leaves, tea tree, sweet basil, and sage.
  • It has a distinctive, fresh, and camphor-like aroma. 1, 8-cineole is used in aromatherapy and has medicinal properties, including anti-inflammatory and antimicrobial effects.
  • Cardamom is used to flavor sweet and savory dishes and is a key ingredient in many Indian and Middle Eastern cuisines.

Eugenol

Cloves (Laung)

  • Eugenol is a phenolic compound that gives cloves their distinctive aroma and flavor.
  • It is known for its analgesic (pain-relieving) and antiseptic properties and is used in dentistry for temporary fillings and to relieve toothache.
  • Eugenol also has anti-inflammatory and antimicrobial properties. Cloves are used in both sweet and savory dishes, and in spice blends like garam masala.

Piperine

Black Pepper (Kali Mirch)

  • Piperine is an alkaloid responsible for the pungency of black pepper. It enhances the bioavailability of various nutrients and drugs, meaning it helps the body absorb them more efficiently.
  • Piperine has antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, and potential anti-cancer properties.
  • Black pepper is one of the most commonly used spices worldwide and is essential in numerous culinary traditions.

Question 110

According to which of the following foreign travellers did Dhruvasena II attend Harsha’s assembly at Prayag (Allahabad)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Marco Polo

  2. BOption (b)

    Hiuen Tsang

  3. COption (c)

    Fa-Hien

  4. DOption (d)

    Itsing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hiuen Tsang

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hiuen Tsang.

Key Points

  • Hiuen Tsang, also known as Xuanzang, was a Chinese Buddhist monk, scholar, traveller, and translator who visited India during the reign of King Harshavardhana.
  • He came to India in the 7th century (precisely around 630 AD) to acquire Buddhist texts and to study at the ancient university of Nalanda.
  • Hiuen Tsang's detailed accounts provide valuable insights into the political, social, and religious life of India during this period.
  • He attended the assembly at Prayag (Allahabad) organized by King Harsha, which was a significant religious gathering attended by scholars, monks, and dignitaries from different parts.
  • His works, especially the Si-Yu-Ki or the Records of the Western World, are crucial sources of historical information not only about India but also about other regions in Central Asia.

Additional Information

AspectDescription
Prayag AssemblyOrganized by King Harsha, it was a grand religious gathering that attracted scholars, monks, and dignitaries, showcasing the religious tolerance and patronage of Buddhism.
Nalanda UniversityAn ancient center of higher learning in Bihar, India, famous for its Buddhist scholarship but also taught other subjects.
Buddhist PilgrimageHiuen Tsang's journey to India was part of a broader tradition of Buddhist monks travelling to gain knowledge and religious texts.
Translation WorkAfter returning to China, Hiuen Tsang dedicated his life to translating the Buddhist scriptures he had collected into Chinese, significantly influencing Chinese Buddhism.
LegacyHiuen Tsang is remembered for his contributions to the spread of Buddhism and for his detailed accounts that offer insights into medieval Indian history.

Question 111

The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2022 was passed in Rajya Sabha in December 2022. It seeks to amend the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, with respect to its application to the State of _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Karnataka

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Manipur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2022 aims to amend the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950.
  • The amendment specifically pertains to its application to the state of Karnataka.
  • The bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha in December 2022.
  • The amendment aims to include certain communities in the list of Scheduled Tribes in Karnataka.
  • This move is intended to provide these communities with the benefits and protections accorded to Scheduled Tribes under the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

Scheduled Tribes in India are specific indigenous communities that are recognized by the Indian Constitution. They are provided with certain benefits and protections to promote social and economic development. These communities are identified in the Scheduled Tribes list which is periodically updated by the government.

TermDescription
Scheduled TribesIndigenous communities recognized by the Indian Constitution for special benefits.
Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950An order that lists the recognized Scheduled Tribes across various states in India.
Rajya SabhaThe upper house of India's Parliament where the bill was passed.
Amendment BillA formal change or addition proposed during the process of legislation.
KarnatakaA state in India to which the amendment bill pertains.

Question 112

Match the following subject matters with their concerned Articles.

ab
1.Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election commissionA.Article 329
2.Power of parliament to make provision with respect to election to legislatureB.Article 324
3.Bar of interference by courts in electoral mattersC.Article 327
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - B

  3. COption (c)

    1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A.

Key Points

  • Article 324 pertains to the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
  • Article 327 deals with the power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to the legislature.
  • Article 329 establishes a bar of interference by courts in electoral matters.

Additional Information

ArticleDescription
Article 324Provides the Election Commission the authority to direct, control, and conduct elections to Parliament and to the legislatures of the states, and elections to the offices of President and Vice-President.
Article 327Empowers Parliament to make laws concerning the conduct of elections to both Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State.
Article 329Bars courts from interfering in electoral matters, especially once the writs for elections have been issued.

Question 113

Match the positions in List I with the states in List II, related to the 36th National Games 2022, and select the correct answer from the codes below.

List I (Positions)List II (States)
AI position in medal tally(i)Maharashtra
BII position in medal tally(ii)Haryana
CIII position in medal tally(iii)Karnataka
DIV position in medal tally(iv)Services sports control board
  1. AOption (a)

    A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv

  2. BOption (b)

    A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii

  3. COption (c)

    A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv

  4. DOption (d)

    A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii.

Key Points

  • Services Sports Control Board took the I position in the medal tally.
  • Maharashtra secured the II position in the medal tally.
  • Haryana was in the III position in the medal tally.
  • Karnataka achieved the IV position in the medal tally.

Additional Information

  • The 36th National Games 2022 was hosted by Gujarat, India, marking the return of the event after a seven-year break.
  • It featured participation from all Indian states and union territories, as well as teams from various Indian Armed Forces.
  • The event spanned across six cities in Gujarat including Ahmedabad, Surat, and Vadodara, featuring competitions in over 30 sports.
  • The Services Sports Control Board dominated the games, finishing at the top of the medal tally, while Maharashtra and Haryana followed in second and third places, respectively.

Question 114

Which of the following are some regions in the world, known for their thriving citrus fruit production?

  1. AOption (a)

    Africa

  2. BOption (b)

    Equatorial regions

  3. COption (c)

    Caribbean

  4. DOption (d)

    Mediterranean regions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mediterranean regions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mediterranean regions.

Key Points

  • Mediterranean regions are known for their ideal climate for citrus fruit production, which includes warm, sunny days and cool nights.
  • These regions provide a long growing season with sufficient rainfall and well-drained soil, which are critical for citrus growth.
  • Countries like Spain, Italy, and Greece in the Mediterranean basin are among the top producers of citrus fruits globally.
  • Citrus fruits, including oranges, lemons, limes, and grapefruits, are significant agricultural exports for these countries.

Additional Information

Citrus fruits are not only vital for the economy of Mediterranean regions but also have numerous health benefits, such as being rich in vitamin C, dietary fiber, and various antioxidants. They play a crucial role in human nutrition and the prevention of diseases. Citrus farming also supports millions of jobs in agriculture, processing, and distribution, highlighting its importance beyond just food production.

Question 115

Based on current scientific knowledge, it is currently postulated that the Earth has an estimated age of:

  1. AOption (a)

    about 4,50,00,00,000 years

  2. BOption (b)

    about 95,00,00, 00 years

  3. COption (c)

    about 45,00,000 years

  4. DOption (d)

    about 65,00,000 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

about 4,50,00,00,000 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is about 4,50,00,00,000 years.

Key Points

  • Scientific consensus estimates the age of the Earth to be about 4.5 billion years.
  • This age is determined using radiometric age dating of meteorite material and Earth's oldest rocks.
  • The age of the Earth is consistent with the age of the solar system, which is also about 4.5 billion years.
  • Techniques such as uranium-lead dating are commonly used to determine these ages.

Additional Information

The age of the Earth is a critical piece of information for understanding the history and formation of our planet. The estimation of Earth's age has evolved over centuries through advancements in scientific techniques and understanding.

MethodDescription
Radiometric DatingUses the decay of radioactive isotopes to date materials and determine the age of rocks and fossils.
Uranium-Lead DatingA radiometric dating method that uses the decay of uranium isotopes into lead to determine the age of a mineral.
Carbon DatingUsed to date organic materials by measuring the decay of carbon-14, effective for up to 50,000 years.
Geological StratigraphyStudies the layers of rock (strata) to understand the sequence of geological events and the relative age of rocks.

Question 116

What kind of energy is associated with falling coconuts, speeding cars, rolling stones and flying aircraft?

  1. AOption (a)

    Potential energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Kinetic Energy

  3. COption (c)

    Radiant energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Elastic energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kinetic Energy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kinetic Energy.

Key Points

  • Kinetic energy is the energy that an object possesses due to its motion.
  • It depends on the mass of the object and the square of its velocity, showing a direct proportionality to both.
  • The formula for kinetic energy is KE = 1/2 mv^2, where m is mass and v is velocity.
  • Objects like falling coconuts, speeding cars, rolling stones, and flying aircraft all have kinetic energy because they are in motion.
  • Kinetic energy can be transformed into other forms of energy, such as potential energy, but cannot be destroyed.

Additional Information

Kinetic Energy plays a crucial role in various physical phenomena and engineering applications:

  • It is a key factor in the work-energy principle, which is used in physics to solve problems related to motion and force.
  • In renewable energy technologies, such as wind turbines, kinetic energy from wind is converted into electrical energy.
  • In automobile safety, understanding kinetic energy helps in designing more effective safety features like airbags and crumple zones, which absorb kinetic energy during a crash.
  • The concept of kinetic energy is also applied in sports science to enhance the performance of athletes by optimizing their motion.
  • In astrophysics, kinetic energy is a key factor in understanding celestial phenomena, such as the impact of meteorites on planets.

Question 117

Match the following details regarding Phase-I of Bharatmala Project.

SchemeTargeted Length (in km)
A.Economic corridors1.9000
B.Border and international connectivity roads2.2000
C.Expressways3.800
D.Inter-corridors and feeder roads4.6000
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4.

Key Points

  • Bharatmala Pariyojana:
  • It is an umbrella program for the highways sector envisaged by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Under Phase-I of Bharatmala Pariyojana, implementation of 34,800 km of national highways in 5 years (from 2017 to 2022) has been approved at an estimated outlay of Rs. 5,35,000 crore.
  • National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has mandated the development of about 27,500 km of national highways under Phase-I.
  • However, as per ICRA Limited, Phase-I is likely to be delayed by four years due to the prevailing uncertainty due to Covid-19 and the consequent impact on valuations.
  • ICRA Limited is an Indian independent and professional investment information and credit rating agency.
  • Phase-II envisages around 48,000 km of road network across India by 2024.​

Additional Information

  • Objectives of Bharatmala Pariyojana:
  • To optimize the efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps through effective interventions.
  • The effective interventions include the development of economic corridors, inter corridors and feeder routes, national corridor efficiency improvement, border, and international connectivity roads, coastal and port connectivity roads, and greenfield expressways.
  • Economic Corridors: These are integrated networks of infrastructure within a geographical area designed to stimulate economic development.
  • Greenfield Projects: They lack constraints imposed by prior work on the site. Typically, it entails development on a completely vacant site and architects start completely from scratch.
  • Brownfield Projects: They carry constraints related to the current state of the site and might be contaminated or have existing structures that architects have to tear down or modify in some way before the project can move forward.
  • To generate a large number of direct and indirect employment opportunities in the construction and infrastructure sector and also as part of the enhanced economic activity resulting from better road connectivity across the country.
  • To connect 550 districts in the country through national highway linkages.

Question 118

In September 2022, the Government of _____________ decided to launch a campaign aimed at women’s safety titled ‘Hamar Beti Hamar Maan’ (our daughter, our honour). Its focus will be creating awareness on safety measures among school- and college going girls and prioritising registration and investigation of women-related crimes.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Jharkhand

  4. DOption (d)

    Chhattisgarh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chhattisgarh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

  • Chhattisgarh launched the 'Hamar Beti Hamar Maan' campaign in September 2022.
  • The campaign aims to create awareness on women's safety among school and college-going girls.
  • It emphasizes the registration and investigation of women-related crimes.
  • The initiative reflects the state's commitment to prioritizing women's safety and addressing gender-based violence.

Additional Information

KeywordDescription
Women's SafetyRefers to measures and policies aimed at protecting women from violence and ensuring their safety in public and private spaces.
Gender-Based ViolenceAny harmful act directed at an individual based on their gender, including physical, sexual, and psychological abuse.
Awareness CampaignA series of activities and initiatives designed to inform and educate the public about a specific issue.
Registration of CrimesThe official recording of a crime by the authorities, which is the first step in the investigation process.
InvestigationThe process of inquiring into a crime or incident to gather evidence and determine the facts.

Question 119

According to Census of India 2011, in which of the following states was the gap in the literacy rates of males and females, highest?

  1. AOption (a)

    Meghalaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Mizoram

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rajasthan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Rajasthan had the highest gender gap in literacy rates according to the Census of India 2011.
  • The male literacy rate in Rajasthan was significantly higher compared to the female literacy rate.
  • This gap highlights the issue of gender inequality in education within the state.
  • Efforts have been made to improve female literacy through various government schemes and initiatives.

Additional Information

StateLiteracy Rate
RajasthanMale: 80.51%, Female: 52.66%
KeralaMale: 96.11%, Female: 92.07%
MizoramMale: 93.35%, Female: 89.27%
MeghalayaMale: 77.17%, Female: 72.89%

Literacy Rate is defined as the percentage of people who are able to read and write with understanding in a given population. It is an important indicator of the educational level of a population. The Census of India collects data on literacy rates during its decennial surveys, providing a comprehensive overview of literacy across different states and demographic groups.

Question 120

Match the following Prime Ministers of India with the Five-Year Plans they initiated.

List-1 (Prime Ministers)List-2 (Five-Year Plans)
i.Jawaharlal Nehru(a)Second Five-Year Plan
ii.Manmohan Singh(b)Tenth Five-Year Plan
iii.Atal Bihari Vajpayee(c)Eleventh Five-Year Plan
  1. AOption (a)

    i - b, ii - c, iii - a

  2. BOption (b)

    i - c, ii - b, iii - a

  3. COption (c)

    i - b, ii - a, iii - c

  4. DOption (d)

    i - a, ii - c, iii - b

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

i - a, ii - c, iii - b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i - a, ii - c, iii - b.

Key Points

  • Second five-year plan
  • The Second five-year plan was based on the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953.
  • PC Mahalanobis established the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in Calcutta in 1931 and for the same reason, he is known as the father of Indian Statistics. He was a member of the first Planning Commission of free India.
  • The second five-year plan was for the year 1956-1961, this plan was based on the Russian model of industrialization.
  • The second five-year plan focused on the development of the public sector and rapid Industrialisation. The plan attempted to determine a balanced allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximize long-run economic growth.
  • ​ Tenth Five Year Plan (2002-07):
  • Its duration was from 2002 to 2007, under the leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Manmohan Singh.
  • This plan aimed to double the Per Capita Income of India in the next 10 years.
  • The features of this plan were to promote inclusive growth and equitable development.
  • It intended for an 8% GDP growth per year.
  • It aimed at reducing the poverty by half and creating employment for 80million people.
  • Further, it aimed to reduce regional inequalities.
  • It also emphasised reducing the gender gaps in the field of education and wage rates by 2007.
  • The target growth rate was 8.1% while the actual growth was 7.6%.
  • ​Eleventh Five Year Plan​
  • The duration of the "Eleventh Five Year Plan" was from 2007 to 2012, under the leadership of Manmohan Singh.
  • It was prepared by the C. Rangarajan.
  • It achieved a growth rate of 8% against a target of 9% growth.

Question 121

Which Committee had suggested a penalty or punishment for the non-performance of Fundamental Duties?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indira Gandhi Committee

  2. BOption (b)

    Morarji Desai Committee

  3. COption (c)

    Verma Committee

  4. DOption (d)

    Swaran Singh Committee

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Swaran Singh Committee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

  • The Swaran Singh Committee was constituted by the Government of India in 1976.
  • It was formed to study the Constitution of India and suggest amendments.
  • One of the notable recommendations was the inclusion of a list of Fundamental Duties for the citizens of India.
  • The committee suggested that there should be a penalty or punishment for the non-performance of these duties.
  • Based on its recommendations, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 was enacted, which added the Fundamental Duties to the Constitution under Article 51A.

Additional Information

AmendmentDescription
42nd Amendment Act, 1976Known as the "Mini-Constitution", it made significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of Fundamental Duties.
Article 51ASpecifies the Fundamental Duties of the citizens of India, encouraging respect for the Constitution, national symbols, and promoting harmony.
Penalty for Non-PerformanceAlthough suggested by the Swaran Singh Committee, no direct penalty or punishment was incorporated for non-performance of Fundamental Duties.
Constitutional AmendmentsThe introduction of Fundamental Duties was part of broader efforts to amend the Constitution to address emerging challenges and strengthen the nation's fabric.
Current ScenarioAs of now, Fundamental Duties are considered moral obligations for all citizens but are not enforceable by law.

Question 122

Among the choices listed, which one is NOT a form of cancer?

  1. AOption (a)

    Glaucoma

  2. BOption (b)

    Carcinoma

  3. COption (c)

    Lymphoma

  4. DOption (d)

    Sarcoma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Glaucoma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Glaucoma.

Key Points

  • Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve, crucial for good vision.
  • This damage is often caused by an abnormally high pressure in your eye.
  • Glaucoma is one of the leading causes of blindness for people over the age of 60.
  • It can occur at any age but is more common in older adults.
  • The most common form of glaucoma, primary open-angle glaucoma, has no noticeable signs or symptoms except gradual vision loss.

Additional Information

Glaucoma is often called the "silent thief of sight" because in its early stages, it may not show symptoms and can gradually lead to loss of vision without warning. Early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent optic nerve damage and protect vision.

Question 123

In September 2022, the _____________ Assembly sets aside one day for women MLAs to speak about women issues such as safety, health, hygiene and education.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajasthan

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Uttar Pradesh Assembly reserved a day in September 2022 for women MLAs to discuss issues related to women.
  • This initiative was aimed at addressing crucial topics such as safety, health, hygiene, and education of women.
  • It provided a platform for women MLAs to voice their concerns and contribute to policy-making.
  • This move was widely appreciated as a step towards gender inclusivity in the legislative process.

Additional Information

TopicDescription
Women SafetyMeasures and policies to protect women from violence and harassment.
HealthInitiatives aimed at improving the overall health and well-being of women.
HygienePrograms focused on menstrual hygiene and sanitation for women.
EducationEfforts to enhance educational opportunities and literacy rates among women.

Question 124

Who among the following has written the ‘Badshah Nama’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Babur

  2. BOption (b)

    Abdul Hamid Lahori

  3. COption (c)

    Inayat Khan

  4. DOption (d)

    Abul Fazl

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Abdul Hamid Lahori

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abdul Hamid Lahori.

Key Points

  • Abdul Hamid Lahori was a court historian during the reign of Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan.
  • He is best known for writing the 'Badshah Nama', an official history of Shah Jahan's reign.
  • The 'Badshah Nama' is written in Persian and is considered an important source of information about the Mughal Empire.
  • It provides detailed accounts of Shah Jahan's administration, military campaigns, and architectural projects, including the construction of the Taj Mahal.

Additional Information

TermDescription
Badshah NamaA historical account of the reign of Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan, written by Abdul Hamid Lahori.
Shah JahanThe fifth Mughal Emperor, known for commissioning the Taj Mahal.
Mughal EmpireA major empire in Indian history, known for its rich cultural and architectural achievements.
Persian LanguageThe language in which the 'Badshah Nama' was written; it was the official language of the Mughal court.
HistorianAn expert in or student of history, especially that of a particular period, geographical region, or social phenomenon.

Question 125

What will be the average kinetic energy per molecule in SI units for an ideal gas at a temperature of 25°C?

  1. AOption (a)

    9.17 × 10−22 J

  2. BOption (b)

    6.17 × 10−21 J

  3. COption (c)

    7.17 × 10−20 J

  4. DOption (d)

    8.17 × 10−22 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6.17 × 10−21 J

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.17 × 10^-21 J.

Key Points

  • Temperature Conversion: The temperature of 25ºC needs to be converted to Kelvin, which is 25 + 273.15 = 298.15 K.
  • Formula: The average kinetic energy per molecule in an ideal gas is given by (3/2)kT, where k is the Boltzmann constant (1.38 × 10^-23 J/K).
  • Calculation: Substituting the values, KE = (3/2) × 1.38 × 10^-23 J/K × 298.15 K.
  • Result: After performing the multiplication, KE ≈ 6.17 × 10^-21 J.

Additional Information

Ideal Gas: An ideal gas is a theoretical gas composed of many randomly moving point particles that interact only through elastic collisions.

ParameterDescription
Pressure (P)The force exerted by the gas particles per unit area on the walls of the container.
Volume (V)The space occupied by the gas.
Temperature (T)A measure of the average kinetic energy of the gas particles.
Boltzmann Constant (k)A physical constant relating the average kinetic energy of particles in a gas with the temperature of the gas.
Ideal Gas LawPV = nRT, where n is the number of moles and R is the universal gas constant.

Question 126

Which of the following is a possible criticism of privatisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Expansion of bureaucracy and efficiency in public enterprises

  2. BOption (b)

    Excessive government interference into private businesses

  3. COption (c)

    Limited access to essential services for marginalised populations

  4. DOption (d)

    Reduced competition and innovation in the market

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Limited access to essential services for marginalised populations

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Limited access to essential services for marginalised populations.

Key Points

  • Equity Issues: Privatisation can lead to inequitable access to essential services, as private entities may prioritize profit over service provision to marginalized groups.
  • Service Costs: Private companies may increase the cost of services, making them less affordable for low-income populations.
  • Quality of Service: There is a risk that private companies may cut corners in service quality to maximize profits.
  • Accountability: Public accountability might decrease, as private companies are not subject to the same level of scrutiny as public entities.

Additional Information

AspectDescription
PrivatisationThe transfer of ownership, property, or business from the government to the private sector.
Public ServicesServices provided by the government to its citizens, either directly or through financing private provision of services.
Market EfficiencyThe extent to which market prices reflect all available, relevant information.
Profit MotiveThe intent to achieve monetary gain in a transaction or material endeavor.
RegulationRules or directives made and maintained by an authority to regulate private sector activities.

Question 127

What are the elements in group zero commonly known as?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reactive

  2. BOption (b)

    Inert gases

  3. COption (c)

    Radioactive

  4. DOption (d)

    Volatile

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Inert gases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Inert gases.

Key Points

  • Group 0 elements are located at the far right of the periodic table.
  • These elements are also known as noble gases due to their lack of reactivity under most conditions.
  • They have a complete valence shell of electrons, making them very stable and unlikely to participate in chemical reactions.
  • The group includes Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), and Radon (Rn).

Additional Information

  • Helium (He) has the lowest boiling and melting points among the elements, making it useful in cryogenics and as a cooling medium for nuclear reactors.
  • Neon (Ne) is widely used in advertising signs due to its ability to emit bright light when electrified.
  • Argon (Ar) is commonly used in welding and in incandescent light bulbs to prevent the tungsten filament from oxidizing.
  • Krypton (Kr) and Xenon (Xe) are used in lighting and photography. Xenon is also used in ion propulsion systems for spacecraft.
  • Radon (Rn), being radioactive, poses health risks and is a concern in homes as it can accumulate in basements.

Question 128

Match List-I with List-II.

List - I (Acid)List - II (Food Source)
A.Carbonic acid1.Mustard oil
B.Lauric acid2.Butter
C.Butyric acid3.Soda Water
D.Erucic acid4.Coconut milk
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 4

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1.

Key Points

  • Carbonic acid
  • Carbonic acid is a chemical compound with the chemical formula H2CO3 (equivalently OC(OH)2).
  • It is also a name sometimes given to solutions of carbon dioxide in water (carbonated water) because such solutions contain small amounts of H2CO3.
  • In physiology, carbonic acid is described as volatile acid or respiratory acid, because it is the only acid excreted as a gas by the lungs.
  • Lauric acid
  • It ​is a saturated medium-chain fatty acid with a 12-carbon backbone.
  • It is found in many vegetable fats and in coconut and palm kernel oils.
  • It is a solid at room temperature but melts easily in boiling water, so liquid lauric acid can be treated with various solutes and used to determine their molecular masses.
  • Butyric acid:
  • Butyric  acid is  a colourless liquid.
  • It is soluble in ethanol, water, and ether.
  • Butyric acid is found in rancid butter.
  • It is also found in milk and parmesan cheese.
  • Butyric acid is used to make esters.
  • It is also used as a fishing bait additive.

Thus, butyric acid is  found in butter.

 

  • Erucic acid
  • Mustard oil contains Erucic Acid, which is a monounsaturated omega-9 fatty acid.
  • Erucic Acid is also found in rapeseed oil and is used in the production of industrial lubricants and in the manufacture of biodiesel.

Question 129

Identify the INCORRECTLY matched pair(s) of the British Governor-Generals of India and the events with which they are associated.

(i) Lord Dalhousie - Revolt of 1857

(ii) Lord Auckland - First Afghan War

(iii) Lord Canning - Wood's Despatch 1854

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (ii) and (iii)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (i) and (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only (i) and (iii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only (i) and (iii).

Key Points

  • Revolt of 1857
  • The Revolt of 1857 was the first rebellion against the British East India Company.
  • The first war of Indian Independence started on 10th May 1857.
  • The revolt was started at Meerut.
  • It began as a revolt of the sepoys of the British East India Company’s army but eventually secured the participation of the masses.
  • The issue of greased cartridges and military grievances has been over-emphasized as the factor for the Revolt of 1857.
  • In March 1857, Mangal Pandey, a sepoy in Barrackpore, refused to use the cartridge and attacked his senior officers.
  • He was hanged to death on 8th April 1857.​

Additional Information

  • First Afghan War
  • The Anglo-Afghan Wars were wars in which Great Britain, from its base in India, sought to extend its control over neighbouring Afghanistan and to oppose Russian influence there.
  • There had been three Anglo-Afghan wars. The first, second and the third Anglo Afghan War taking place respectively in (1839–42), (1878–80) and (1919).
  • The British, feeling that the then ruler of Afghanistan, DōstMoḥammad was either hostile to them or unable to resist the Russian penetration, moved to take a direct role in Afghan affairs.
  • The then Governor-general of India, Lord Auckland ordered an invasion of Afghanistan.
  • Wood's Despatch:
  • In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a Despatch on an educational system for India. It was considered the "Magna Carta of English Education in India".
  • This document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India.

Question 130

Among the following diseases, which one is NOT inherited?

  1. AOption (a)

    Down syndrome

  2. BOption (b)

    Cystic fibrosis

  3. COption (c)

    Malaria

  4. DOption (d)

    Muscular dystrophy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Malaria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Malaria.

Key Points

  • Down syndrome, Cystic fibrosis, and Muscular dystrophy are genetic disorders passed from parents to children through genes.
  • Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium parasites, which are transmitted to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
  • Genetic disorders are inherited and are part of an individual's genetic makeup, whereas malaria is an infectious disease not determined by genetics.
  • Understanding the difference between genetic and infectious diseases is crucial for diagnosis, treatment, and prevention strategies.

Additional Information

Disease TypeDescription
Genetic DisordersConditions caused by abnormalities in genes or chromosomes. Some may be inherited, while others occur due to mutations or changes in genes.
Infectious DiseasesDiseases caused by pathogenic microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, parasites, or fungi; can be spread, directly or indirectly, from one person to another.
MalariaAn infectious disease caused by Plasmodium parasites, transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes.

Computer Knowledge (20 questions)

Question 131

A/An _______ is an organisation that connects its subscriber's computer using modem to the Internet. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Uniform Resource Locator

  2. BOption (b)

    Web Browser

  3. COption (c)

    Web Server

  4. DOption (d)

    Internet Service Provider

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Internet Service Provider

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Internet Service Provider

Key Points Internet Service Provider (ISP):

  • An ISP is an organization that provides services for accessing, using, or participating in the Internet.
  • ISPs supply Internet access, employing a range of technologies to connect users to their network.
  • They use modem and broadband links to provide the connection needed for accessing the internet.

Uniform Resource Locator (URL):

  • A URL is a reference or address used to access resources on the internet.
  • This might include websites, files, or other data.
  • It specifies the location of a resource as well as the protocol used to access it, such as HTTP, HTTPS, or FTP.

Web Browser:

  • A web browser is a software application used to access and view websites.
  • Common web browsers include Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, and Safari.
  • Browsers interpret and display HTML documents and allow users to navigate between them using hyperlinks.

Web Server:

  • A web server is a computer system that hosts websites.
  • It delivers content to users' computers over the internet when requested through a web browser.
  • This content typically includes web pages, images, and other types of files.

Question 132

Which of the following is an example of GUI-based user agent in email?

  1. AOption (a)

    Elm

  2. BOption (b)

    Mail

  3. COption (c)

    Pine

  4. DOption (d)

    Netscape

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Netscape

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Netscape

Key Points Netscape:

  • Netscape refers to Netscape Navigator, which was a popular web browser that included a built-in email client called Netscape Messenger.
  • Netscape Messenger was a GUI-based email client, providing a graphical interface where users could interact with buttons, menus, and other graphical elements

Elm:

  • Elm is a text-based email client used on Unix systems. It provides a simple, menu-driven system for managing email, and it operates entirely in the terminal or console window.
  • Elm uses a text-based user interface, not a graphical one

Mail:

  • This is a bit ambiguous as "Mail" could refer to several different programs.
  • However, in most contexts, especially older ones, "Mail" refers to a simple command-line-based mail program on Unix-like systems.
  • This is also text-based and operates via command line without a graphical interface.

Pine:

  • Pine, like Elm, is another text-based email client for Unix-like systems.
  • It offers a slightly more user-friendly approach compared to older text-based email clients but still operates within a text-based environment.

Question 133

In MS Office 365, the Page Setup dialog box can be found under which of the following tabs? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Home

  2. BOption (b)

    Draw

  3. COption (c)

    Layout

  4. DOption (d)

    Insert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Layout

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Layout 

Key Points Layout:

  • This is the correct tab for accessing the Page Setup dialog box.
  • It includes options to set margins, orientation, size, columns, spacing, breaks, line numbers, and hyphenation, among other layout-related settings.

Home:

  • This tab includes basic formatting options such as font style, size, color, paragraph alignment, and other text formatting tools.
  • It's primarily used for editing and styling the content of the document.

Draw:

  • This tab is available in newer versions of Office and is used for drawing, annotating, and handwriting within the document, utilizing various pens and drawing tools.

Insert:

  • This tab allows you to add various elements to your document such as tables, pictures, charts, links, headers, footers, text boxes, and other media files.

Question 134

When the sender and receiver of an email are on the same system, we need only _______ user agents. 

  1. AOption (a)

    two

  2. BOption (b)

    three

  3. COption (c)

    four

  4. DOption (d)

    six

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

two

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Two

Key Points

  • "two" might suggest that each user operates a separate user agent even on the same system, perhaps due to user profiles or account settings that segregate their activities for privacy or organizational purposes.
  • However, it's important to note that technically, only one user agent is required to handle both sending and receiving emails for multiple users on the same system.
  • The choice of "two" in this context serves as an assumption to fit the available options and is not a reflection of actual necessity.

Question 135

In File Explorer of Windows 11, which of the following tabs includes the 'hidden items' option?

  1. AOption (a)

    Home

  2. BOption (b)

    File

  3. COption (c)

    View

  4. DOption (d)

    Share

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

View

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is View

Key Points View:

  • This is the correct tab for accessing display options in File Explorer.
  • The 'hidden items' checkbox is located here, along with other view-related settings like 'details pane', 'preview pane', file and folder layout options (e.g., list, tiles, icons), and other tools to customize how contents are displayed in File Explorer.

Home:

  • This tab features commands for common tasks such as Copy, Paste, Move to, Delete, Rename, and New Folder.
  • It focuses on file and folder management actions but does not include options related to the display or visibility settings of files and folders.

File:

  • This tab typically provides access to file-specific actions and settings such as opening a new window, changing folder and search options, and accessing properties.
  • It’s more about global settings and less about specific file visibility.

Share:

  • This tab is used for sharing files and folders with other users.
  • It includes options like share, email, zip, print, etc., focusing on how files can be distributed or accessed by others, not on how they are displayed in the explorer.

Question 136

What is the primary purpose of RAM (Random Access Memory) in a computer? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Storing permanent data and files

  2. BOption (b)

    Providing long-term storage for programs

  3. COption (c)

    Providing temporary storage for data that the CPU is currently processing

  4. DOption (d)

    Managing peripheral devices

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Providing temporary storage for data that the CPU is currently processing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Providing temporary storage for data that the CPU is currently processing.

Key Points

  • This memory allows writing as well as reading of data, unlike ROM which does not allow writing of data on to it.
  • It is volatile storage because the contents of RAM are lost when the power (computer) is turned off.
  • If we want to store the data for later use, we have to transfer all the contents to a secondary storage device.
  • Hence, RAM is a temporary memory device.

Additional Information

The memory of the computer is divided into two categories:

  1. Primary Memory

  2. Secondary Memory

  3. Primary memory also called main memory or internal memory provides temporary storage of programs in execution and the data being processed. It is known as immediate access storage as this is the portion of the CPU that can be accessed directly. 

Primary memory can be further grouped into Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read-Only Memory (ROM).

  1. Secondary or backing Memory

It maintains a permanent record of data and programs, maintains a store for the program and data being processed if the main memory cannot accommodate the data and program, and acts as an input/output device.

Question 137

What is a cell in Microsoft Excel?

  1. AOption (a)

    A separate file used to store data.

  2. BOption (b)

    A single worksheet within a workbook.

  3. COption (c)

    The intersection of a row and a column in a worksheet.

  4. DOption (d)

    A small diagram or chart.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The intersection of a row and a column in a worksheet.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The intersection of a row and a column in a worksheet.

Key Points

Concept:-

you can activate a cell in Excel.

  • By pressing the Tab key
  • By pressing the cell.
  • Utilizing the arrow keys.

Additional Information

  • A cell is simply activated and made editable by double-clicking on it. Additionally, you can change a cell by clicking on the formula bar.
  • The cell next to the active cell will become active when you press the Tab key. The cell you want to activate can be clicked to do so.
  • Go to the Formulas tab, the Formula Auditing group, and click the Show Formulas button in your Excel worksheet.
  • Microsoft Excel does not immediately show the results of formulas in cells. Toggle the Show Formulas button back off to restore the calculated values.

Question 138

Which networking device operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model and forwards data based on MAC addresses?

  1. AOption (a)

    Switch

  2. BOption (b)

    Hub

  3. COption (c)

    Firewall

  4. DOption (d)

    Router

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Switch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Switch.

Key Points

  • Switch
  • A switch operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, known as the Data Link layer.
  • It uses MAC addresses to forward data packets between devices on the same network.
  • Switches create a separate collision domain for each port, which helps in reducing packet collisions, leading to an efficient handling of network traffic.
  • This device enhances network performance by learning the MAC addresses of connected devices and selectively forwarding data to the intended recipient.

Additional Information

  • Hub
  • A hub operates at Layer 1 of the OSI model, the Physical layer. It does not perform any data filtering or addressing, simply rebroadcasting incoming data packets to all connected devices, except the sender.
  • Hubs create a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain, which can lead to network inefficiencies and higher collision rates.
  • They are less intelligent than switches and routers and are generally used in small or less complex networks.
  • firewall 
  • A firewall operates at various layers of the OSI model, primarily between Layer 3 (Network layer) and Layer 7 (Application layer), depending on its configuration.
  • It is designed to block unauthorized access while permitting outward communication.
  • Firewalls use predetermined security rules to inspect incoming and outgoing traffic and make decisions about which traffic is allowed through based on these rules.
  • They are crucial for network security.
  • Router
  • A router operates at Layer 3, the Network layer. It uses IP addresses to route packets between different networks.
  • Routers are responsible for making decisions about which of several paths network traffic will follow. By doing so, they connect different subnets and manage traffic within a large or complex network by using routing tables and policies.
  • They create and manage a routing table that keeps track of paths and uses protocols such as ICMP to communicate with other routers.

Question 139

Which backup device provides a convenient way to create system images and complete backups, but may require a lengthy restoration process? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Tape drive

  2. BOption (b)

    Network-attached storage (NAS)

  3. COption (c)

    Solid-state drive (SSD) 

  4. DOption (d)

    DVD-RW disc

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tape drive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tape drive.

Key Points

  • Tape drive
  • A tape drive provides a convenient way to create system images and complete backups.
  • ​It is known for its high storage capacity and cost-effectiveness for long-term data storage.
  • However, restoration from tape drives can be lengthy due to the sequential nature of data access.​

Additional Information

  • Network-attached storage (NAS)
  • NAS devices are dedicated file storage units that provide fast and easy access to stored data over a network.
  • They are ideal for data backup and file sharing within a network.
  • NAS offers relatively quick data restoration compared to tape drives due to random access capabilities.
  • Solid-state drive (SSD)
  • An SSD is a high-speed storage device that provides faster read and write speeds than traditional hard drives. It is suitable for creating system images and backups, with quick restoration times due to its random access nature. SSDs, however, are typically more expensive per gigabyte than other storage options.
  • DVD-RW disc
  • DVD-RW discs are rewritable optical discs used for data storage and backups. They provide a convenient, though limited, storage capacity for smaller backup needs. Restoration from DVD-RWs can be time-consuming and is less suitable for large-scale backups compared to other methods.

Question 140

In MS-Excel 2019, what does the SUM function do? 

  1. AOption (a)

    It multiplies the values in a range. 

  2. BOption (b)

    It adds up the values in a range.

  3. COption (c)

    It counts the number of cells in a range.

  4. DOption (d)

    It finds the average of values in a range.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It adds up the values in a range.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It adds up the values in a range.

Key Points

  • The SUM function adds values.
  • You can add individual values, cell references or ranges or a mix of all three.
  • For example: =SUM(A2:A10) - Adds the values in cells A2:10.

Question 141

Which of the following is NOT an example of web browser?

  1. AOption (a)

    Facebook

  2. BOption (b)

    Apple Safari

  3. COption (c)

    Google Chrome

  4. DOption (d)

    Opera

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Facebook

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Facebook.

Key Points Browser:

  • A web browser is a software application for accessing the information on the World Wide Web.
  • When a user requests a web page from a particular website, the web browser retrieves the necessary content from a web server and then displays the page on the user's device.
  • It is an application used to access and view websites.
  • Microsoft Internet Explorer, Maxthon 6 Cloud Browser, Google Chrome, Opera, Mozilla Firefox, Apple Safari, etc. are some of examples of web browser
  • A web browser is a computer program you use to view web pages
  • A web browser helps in receiving the web-page matter through the internet.

Question 142

What is the function of the cache memory in a computer's memory hierarchy?  

  1. AOption (a)

    To provide permanent storage for data and files.

  2. BOption (b)

    To store frequently used data for faster access by the CPU. 

  3. COption (c)

    To control the flow of data between the CPU and memory.

  4. DOption (d)

    To manage the allocation of memory resources to different programs.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To store frequently used data for faster access by the CPU. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To store frequently used data for faster access by the CPU. 

Key Points

The ability of cache memory to improve a computer's performance relies on the concept of locality of reference.

Locality of reference refers to the tendency of the computer program to access the same set of memory locations for a particular time period.

Cache memory creates a pattern in which CPU, While accessing or requesting data first checks with cache memory.

Let's analyze the options one by one.

 

Option 1-It's the correct answer as explained above.

 

Option 2- It's a concept of software engineering, which states that 90 % of program execution time is spent executing 10% of code.

 

Option 3- References do not cluster all the time. So, if they cluster also it's not guaranteed that the CPU will request the same cluster address.

Question 143

What is the keyboard shortcut for 'Copy' in most Windows applications? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Ctrl + Z

  2. BOption (b)

    Ctrl + C

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + X

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ctrl + C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ctrl + C.

Key Points

  • Ctrl + C
  • Ctrl + C is the keyboard shortcut for 'Copy' in most Windows applications.
  • This command copies the selected text, image, or other data to the clipboard, allowing it to be pasted elsewhere.
  • It is an essential shortcut for efficiently moving or duplicating data within and between applications.

Additional Information

  • Ctrl + Z
  • Ctrl + Z is the keyboard shortcut for 'Undo' in most Windows applications. This command reverts the last action taken by the user, effectively undoing mistakes or unwanted changes. It is a useful shortcut for quickly correcting errors without navigating through menus.
  • Ctrl + X
  • Ctrl + X is the keyboard shortcut for 'Cut' in most Windows applications. This command removes the selected text, image, or other data from its original location and copies it to the clipboard. It allows users to move data from one place to another.
  • Ctrl + V
  • Ctrl + V is the keyboard shortcut for 'Paste' in most Windows applications. This command inserts the data from the clipboard into the current cursor location. It works in conjunction with the 'Copy' and 'Cut' commands to place the copied or cut data into a new location.

Question 144

What is a 'Firewall' in the context of network security? 

  1. AOption (a)

    A software application for managing files and folders.

  2. BOption (b)

    A type of malware that spreads through email attachments.

  3. COption (c)

    A security mechanism that filters and controls network traffic. 

  4. DOption (d)

    A hardware device used to boost network performance.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A security mechanism that filters and controls network traffic. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​A security mechanism that filters and controls network traffic. 

Key Points

  • A firewall is a system that prevents unauthorized access to a private network.
  • It is a type of cybersecurity tool that is used to filter traffic on a network.
  • A firewall will create a barrier between a secured internal network and an unsafe external network.

Additional Information

  • Firewalls are of two types namely
  • Network firewalls: Use to protect whole computer networks from attacks.
  • Host-based firewalls.: Installed on servers or host computers to protect them from attacks.

Question 145

A high speed memory is placed between the Central Processing Unit (CPU) and the primary memory known as _______ memory. 

  1. AOption (a)

    read only

  2. BOption (b)

    virtual

  3. COption (c)

    cache

  4. DOption (d)

    secondary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cache

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is cache.

Key Points

  • Cache
  • Cache me mory is a high-speed memory located between the CPU and primary memory (RAM).
  • It stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to access this information more quickly than it could from RAM.
  • Cache memory significantly improves the overall speed and efficiency of the computing process by reducing the time needed to access data.

Addition al Information

  • Read only
  • Read Only Memory (ROM) is a type of non-volatile memory that is used to store firmware or software that is rarely changed.
  • ROM retains its data even when the computer is turned off, making it useful for permanent storage of critical programs.
  • It is not typically used for the high-speed memory placed between the CPU and primary memory.
  • Virtual
  • Virtual memory is a memory management technique that uses a portion of the computer's hard drive as an extension of RAM.
  • This allows a system to compensate for physical memory shortages by temporarily transferring data from RAM to disk storage.
  • It is not the high-speed memory situated between the CPU and primary memory.
  • Secondary
  • Secondary memory refers to external storage devices such as hard drives, SSDs, CDs, and USB drives.
  • These devices provide large storage capacity but are slower compared to primary memory (RAM) and cache memory.
  • Secondary memory is used for long-term data storage rather than high-speed, temporary storage.

Question 146

In computer registers, MAR stands for __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Main Access Register

  2. BOption (b)

    Memory Access Register 

  3. COption (c)

    Memory Address Register 

  4. DOption (d)

    Main Address Register

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Memory Address Register 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Memory Address Register.

Key Points

Memory Address Register:

  • The ‘MAR’ (Memory Address Register) is the CPU register that either stores the memory address from which data will be fetched to the CPU or the address to which data will be sent and stored.
  • MAR holds the address of the location to be accessed from memory.

Question 147

What is a 'Trojan' in the context of network security?

  1. AOption (a)

    A protocol used for secure communication between devices on a network.

  2. BOption (b)

    A program that monitors network traffic for security breaches.

  3. COption (c)

    A type of firewall that protects against viruses and malware.

  4. DOption (d)

    Malicious software disguised as legitimate software to gain unauthorised access.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Malicious software disguised as legitimate software to gain unauthorised access.

Why this answer is correct

the correct answer is Malicious software disguised as legitimate software to gain unauthorised access.

Key Points Trojan Horse:

  • ​A Trojan horse is a hidden piece of code.
  • Viruses enter a system secretly where the Trojan horse enters by deceiving a user.
  • A user allows or invites a Trojan into the system, believing in it, but actually, the Trojan horse contains some malicious code to perform some malicious activity.
  • Before a Trojan can attack, it must find a way to entice the victim to copy, download, and run it.
  • Trojan horse is not sent as an email attachment.
  • Since few people would knowingly run a malicious program, Trojan must disguise themselves as other programs that the victim believes to be harmless (such as games, utilities, or popular applications).​

Additional Information

  • A computer virus is a type of malevolent code or program written to alter the way a computer operates and is designed to spread from one computer to another.
  • A virus is corporate by inserting or attaching itself to a lawful program or document that supports macros in order to execute its code.
  • In the procedure, a virus has the prospective to cause unannounced or damaging effects, such as harming the system software by corrupting or destroying data.
  • Common types of Computer Viruses are:
  • File Infecting Virus
  • Macro Virus
  • Trojan Horse
  • Browser Hijacker
  • Web Scripting Virus
  • Boot Sector Virus
  • Polymorphic Virus
  • Resident Virus
  • Multipartite Virus

Question 148

In Microsoft Word, what is the purpose of the 'Print Preview' feature? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To insert images and graphics into the document.

  2. BOption (b)

    To format the font and style of the document.

  3. COption (c)

    To check the spelling and grammar of the document.

  4. DOption (d)

    To view how the document will appear when printed.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To view how the document will appear when printed.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To view how the document will appear when printed.

Key Points

  • Print Preview is a feature that displays on the screen what a hard copy would look like when printed.
  • Press Ctrl + F2 to open the print preview for the document.
  • By using the print preview, you can find any errors that may exist or fix the layout before printing, which can save ink or toner and paper by not having to print more than once.

Additional Information

  • To open the print preview feature, click the print preview icon on the toolbar, like that shown in the picture, or click File and choose the Print Preview option.
  • Some programs, like newer versions of Microsoft Office applications, show a print preview on the Print page.
  • In these cases, there is no Print Preview option in the program's menu.
  • Many programs do not have a shortcut key for the print preview feature.
  • However, you can press Alt+F to open the file menu and press V, R, or the other underlined character (Mnemonic) for the Print Preview option.
  • In programs like Microsoft Word, while in the print preview, you can change the page orientation from Portrait Orientation to Landscape.
  • Orientation to view the page in landscape.
  • Unfortunately, not all programs support this ability.
  • If the program you're using has no settings or options in print preview, you cannot view how your page would print in landscape mode.

Question 149

In File Explorer of Windows 10, the keyboard shortcut 'Num Lock + Asterisk sign (*)' is used to ___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    display all subfolders under the selected folder

  2. BOption (b)

    open the properties dialog box for the selected item

  3. COption (c)

    display the contents of the selected folder

  4. DOption (d)

    collapse the selected folder

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

display all subfolders under the selected folder

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is display all subfolders under the selected folder.

Key Points

  • Expand all subfolders under the selected folder
  • Num Lock + Asterisk sign (*) in File Explorer is used to expand all subfolders under the selected folder.
  • This shortcut allows users to view the entire directory structure within a folder quickly.
  • It is especially useful for navigating complex directory trees with many nested subfolders.
  • By expanding all subfolders at once, users can efficiently locate specific files or folders without manually opening each subfolder.
  • This shortcut saves time and effort, enhancing the user experience when managing files.
  • It is an effective way to get an overview of the folder structure and contents.

Question 150

Which of the following is an example of the input device in a computer? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Monitor

  2. BOption (b)

    Touchscreen

  3. COption (c)

    Printer

  4. DOption (d)

    Speaker

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Touchscreen

Why this answer is correct

the correct answer is Touchscreen.

Key Points

  • Touchscreen
  • A touchscreen is an input device that allows users to interact with the computer by touching the screen.
  • It combines the functions of a display (output) and input by detecting touch gestures.
  • Touchscreens are used in various devices such as smartphones, tablets, and some laptops.

Additional Information

  • Monitor
  • A monitor is an output device that displays visual information from the computer.
  • It shows images, videos, and the graphical user interface (GUI) for user interaction.
  • Monitors do not input data into the computer; they only present data to the user.
  • Printer
  • A printer is an output device that produces a physical copy of digital documents.
  • It transfers text and images from the computer to paper or other media.
  • Printers do not input data into the computer; they output data in a printed format.
  • Speaker
  • A speaker is an output device that produces audio signals from the computer.
  • It converts digital audio data into sound waves that can be heard by the user.
  • Speakers do not input data into the computer; they output sound.

150 questions in the full paper