Previous Year Paper

RRB NTPC CBT 2 (Level-3) Official Paper (Held On: 14 June 2022 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

120 questions90 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

Full Test (120 questions)

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a valid option in the 'Paragraph' setting window in MS-Word 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    Spacing

  2. BOption (b)

    Indentation

  3. COption (c)

    Effects

  4. DOption (d)

    Pagination

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Effects

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Effects.

Key Points

  • The formatting options available in the 'Paragraph' setting window in MS Word 2016 are:
  • Spacing.
  • Indentation.
  • Pagination under the option Line and Page breaks.
  • **Alignment.**​

Important Points

  • ​Paragraph formatting options are described as:
  • Alignment
  • Alignment or justification refers to the way in which the lines of a paragraph are aligned.
  • There are four types of alignment, namely, left, center, right, and justified.
  • Indentation
  • The value in the Before text box specifies the width of the additional empty space that is inserted between the margin and the text on the left-hand side of a paragraph of left-to-right text.
  • The value in the After text box specifies the width of the additional empty space that is inserted between the text and the margin on the right-hand side of a paragraph of left-to-right text.
  • A negative value specifies the distance by which the text extends beyond the respective margin.
  • Spacing
  • The spacing between two paragraphs is determined by the spacing before one paragraph and the spacing after the preceding paragraph, which are displayed and can be modified in the Before and After boxes.
  • Line spacing refers to the vertical distance between the lines within a paragraph.
  • It determines the location of each line relative to the line above it.
  • Line and Page Breaks tab (Pagination)
  • The paragraph formatting options on the Line and Page Breaks tab under pagination of the Paragraph dialog box can help you control where automatic page breaks occur in your document.

Question 2

One of the largest dams of the world, Hirakud Dam, is built across the _______ river.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mahanadi

  2. BOption (b)

    Narmada

  3. COption (c)

    Kaveri

  4. DOption (d)

    Beas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mahanadi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mahanadi.

Key Points

  • The dam is located across the Mahanadi river near the town of Sambalpur in the state of Orissa.
  • The length of its main section is about 4.8 kilometers and the whole dam spans 25.8 kilometers.
  • The dam was started in 1957 and is one of the first major multipurpose river valley projects started after India's independence.

Additional Information 

Name of the DamRiverState
Srisailam DamKrishna RiverAndhra Pradesh
Rajghat DamBetwa RiverUttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh Border
Hirakud DamMahanadi RiverOdisha
Gangapur Dam, Jayakwadi DamGodavari RiverMaharashtra

Question 3

If the difference between the mode and median is 2, then find the difference between the median and mean (in the given order) using empirical relation.

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mode - Median = 2

Concept used:

Mode = 3(Median) - 2(Mean)

Calculation:

Mode - Median = 2

⇒ Mode = 2 + Median      ---(1)

We know that,

Mode = 3(Median) - 2(Mean)

From equation (1)

⇒ 2 + Median = 3(Median) - 2(Mean) 

⇒ 2 + 2(Mean) = 3(Median) - Median

⇒ 2 + 2(Mean) = 2(Median)

1 + Mean = Median

So, Median - Mean = 1

∴ The difference between the median and mean (in the given order) using empirical relation is 1.

Question 4

From the given options, select the one that CANNOT be listed among the long-run effects of ozone depletion.

  1. AOption (a)

    Reduced growth of terrestrial plants

  2. BOption (b)

    Skin cancer

  3. COption (c)

    Increased amount of oxygen consumption in human beings

  4. DOption (d)

    Lowered production of aquatic animals

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increased amount of oxygen consumption in human beings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Increased amount of oxygen consumption in human beings.

Key Points

  • The long-run effects of ozone depletion are:-
  • Effects on Human Health
  • ​Ozone layer depletion increases the amount of UVB (ultraviolet B-rays) that reaches the Earth’s surface.
  • UVB causes non-melanoma skin cancer and plays a major role in malignant melanoma development.
  • In addition, UVB has been linked to the development of cataracts, a clouding of the eye’s lens.
  • Effects on Plants
  • ​UVB radiation affects the physiological and developmental processes of plants.
  • It also affects nutrient distribution within the plant, the timing of developmental phases, and secondary metabolism.
  • ​Effects on Marine Ecosystems
  • UVB radiation has been found to cause damage to the early developmental stages of fish, shrimp, crabs, amphibians, and other marine animals.
  • The most severe effects are decreased reproductive capacity and impaired larval development. ​
  • ​Effects on Biogeochemical cycles
  • ​Increases in UVB radiation could affect terrestrial and aquatic biogeochemical cycles.
  • ​Effects on Materials
  • ​Synthetic polymers, naturally occurring biopolymers, as well as some other materials of commercial interest are adversely affected by UVB radiation.

Question 5

Which of the following languages had a negative decadal (2001-11) growth rate (its speakers) according to Census of India, 2011?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bengali

  2. BOption (b)

    Telugu

  3. COption (c)

    Urdu

  4. DOption (d)

    Sanskrit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Urdu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Urdu.

Key Points

  • Urdu had a negative decadal (2001-11) growth rate (its speakers) according to the Census of India, 2011.
  • As per the language census data 2011:
  • Two scheduled languages, Urdu and Konkani, saw a fall in absolute numbers.
  • There are 50772631 Urdu speakers in India, a fall of about 1.5 percent since 2001.
  • The decline in Konkani speakers is 9.5 percent.
  • The Urdu language in modern India is associated only with Muslims.
  • This fall in Urdu speakers is strange as the Muslim population in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar has grown between 2001 and 2011.​

Additional Information

  • The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India June 26, 2018, released the 2011 Census data on Language and Mother Tongue.
  • Key Highlights of the 2011 Census data on Language and Mother Tongue
  • As per the 2011 census, 43.63 percent of Indians speak Hindi as their mother tongue.
  • Bengali, with 8.03 percent speakers, is second on the list.
  • Marathi at 3rd with 6.86 percent speakers, Telugu at 4th with 6.7 percent speakers, and Tamil at 5th with 5.7 percent speakers.
  • In all, 13 of the 22 scheduled languages were reported as the mother tongue by at least 1 percent of the population.
  • Except for Sanskrit, each of the 21 scheduled languages was reported as the mother tongue by at least 10 lakh people.
  • Sanskrit is the only language that is spoken by a set of around 25000 people.

Question 6

What is the sum of roots of the equation 2y2 - 6y - 7 = 0?

  1. AOption (a)

    −72 - \frac{7}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    -3

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    72 \frac{7}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The equation is 2y2 - 6y - 7 = 0

Concept used:

In a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 the Sum of roots

α + β = −ba-b\over a

Calculation:

According to the concept,

b = - 6

a = 2

So, The Sum of roots of the equation

⇒ α + β = -(−6)2(-6)\over 2

⇒ 626\over 2 = 3

∴ The required Sum of roots is 3.

Question 7

Rohan started from his home towards the east, and after walking for 5 m, turned left. From there, after walking for 15 m, he turned right and walked for 5 m to reach a flower shop. In which direction is his home with respect to the flower shop? (All turns are 90° turns only)

  1. AOption (a)

    North

  2. BOption (b)

    West

  3. COption (c)

    South-west

  4. DOption (d)

    South-east

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South-west

Why this answer is correct

According to given conditions,

  • Rohan started form his home toward the east, walking 5 m.

  • Turned left from there after waling for 15 m.

  • He turned right and walked for 5 m to reach flower shop.

Clearly,  At last Rohan's home is to the South-west of the flower shop.

Hence, ‘South-west’ is the correct answer.

Question 8

Lakshya Sen won the men's singles final at the India Open badminton tournament, 2022 by defeating _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Shi Yuqi

  2. BOption (b)

    Viktor Axelsen

  3. COption (c)

    Lee Chong Wei

  4. DOption (d)

    Loh Kean Yew

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Loh Kean Yew

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Loh Kean Yew.

Key Points 

  • Lakshya Sen won the Men's Singles title of the India open 2022 tournament.
  • He defeated the world champion, Loh Kean Yew of Singapore in straight games.
  • The men’s doubles pair of Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty defeated the top-seeded pair of Mohammad Ahsan and Hendra Setiawan of Indonesia.
  • The women's title was won by Busanan Ongbamrungphan of Thailand.
  • She defeated PV Sindhu in the finals.

Additional Information 

  • Badminton:
  • Its apex governing body is International Badminton Federation (IBF).
  • International Badminton Federation (IBF) was established in 1934.
  • It was later renamed as Badminton World Federation (BWF).
  • Its headquarters are in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
  • Badminton Association of India was formed in 1934.
  • Its headquarters is in New Delhi.
  • Himanta Biswa Sarma is the current president.

Important Points

  • The trophy for the international matches was named Thomas Cup after the name of the first president of the IBF Sir George Thomas.
  • Thomas Cup competition (for men) started in 1948-1949.
  • Uber Cup Championship (for women) was started in 1956.

Question 9

Vasco Da Gama landed at _______ in 1498.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cochin

  2. BOption (b)

    Calicut

  3. COption (c)

    Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Surat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Calicut

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calicut.

Key Points 

  • Portuguese explorer Vasco Da Gama discovered the sea route from Portugal to India and came to India in 1498 at Calicut.
  • He belonged to Portugal and the discovery of the sea route became essential as the Ottomans occupied Constantinople (present-day Istanbul) and stopped the trade through the land route.
  • Vasco da Gama’s fleet arrived in Kappadu near Kozhikode (Calicut), on the Malabar Coast (present-day the Kerala state of India).
  • The King of Calicut at that time was Samudiri (Zamorin).

Question 10

In a certain code language, 'ABSENCE' is written as 'DWVZQXH' and 'SERVICE is written as 'VZUQLXH. How will 'CONSENT' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    EJPNGIW

  2. BOption (b)

    FIQMHHQ

  3. COption (c)

    EIPMGHQ

  4. DOption (d)

    FJQNHIW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

FJQNHIW

Why this answer is correct

The pattern/logic followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

'ABSENCE' is written as 'DWVZQXH' 

And,

'SERVICE' is written as 'VZUQLXH'

Similarly,

'CONSENT' is written as 'FJQNHIW'

Hence, ‘FJQNHIW’ is the correct answer.

Question 11

Five colleagues, Chand, Chandini, Nidhi, Vikram and Ajay, are sitting in a row facing north. Nidhi and Chandini occupy the extreme ends of the row. Vikram is sitting exactly in the centre. No two people with the name starting with the same letter are immediate neighbours of each other. Ajay is sitting to the immediate left of Vikram. Who sits in the right extreme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ajay

  2. BOption (b)

    Chandini

  3. COption (c)

    Nidhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Chand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nidhi

Why this answer is correct

Five colleagues - Chand, Chandini, Nidhi, Vikram and Ajay, are sitting in a row facing north.

  1. Nidhi and Chandini occupy the extreme ends of the row.

  2. Vikram is sitting exactly in the centre.

  3. Ajay is sitting to the immediate left of Vikram.

4. No two people with the name starting with the same letter are immediate neighbours of each other.

Clearly, Chand and Chandini are not immediate neighbours of each other from the above statement. 

Case II is eliminated following the above statement.

So, the final arrangement will be as shown below:

Clearly, Nidhi sits in the right extreme.

Hence, 'Nidhi' is the correct answer.

Question 12

The liquid part of human blood, called _______ is made of water, salts and protein.

  1. AOption (a)

    Platelets

  2. BOption (b)

    RBC

  3. COption (c)

    Plasma

  4. DOption (d)

    WBC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Plasma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Plasma.

Key Points 

  • Plasma is the liquid part of the blood of which 90%- 92% is water and the remaining 7% - 8% is made up of proteins, minerals, hormones, enzymes, and so on.
  • Plasma is the clear liquid portion of blood that remains after red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and other cellular components are removed from the body.

Additional Information

Question 13

Which of the following is a noble gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ozone

  2. BOption (b)

    Helium

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Nitrogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Helium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Helium.

Key Points 

  • Inert gas or noble gas is gas that does not generally participate in chemical reactions and is always available in a free state.
  • All inert gases are colourless, odourless, and tasteless.
  • There are 7 elements in class 18(inert gases) of the periodic table- Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), Radon (Rn), and Oganesson (Og).
  • Helium is used in the treatment of Asthma, Balloons, welding, etc.
  • Xenon is used in Photographic flashes, high-pressure lamps, NMR Spectroscopy.
  • Neon is used in TV Tubes, Signboards, Laser, etc.

Question 14

In December 2021, with whose support did the Indian Army establish the Quantum Lab in Madhya Pradesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    National Informatics Centre (NIC)

  2. BOption (b)

    National Security Agency (NSA)

  3. COption (c)

    National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)

  4. DOption (d)

    Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS).

Key Points 

  • The Indian army, along with the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS), established a Quantum Lab to spearhead research and training at the Military College of Telecommunication and Engineering (MCTE) in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.
  • Indian Army has also established an Artificial Intelligence (AI) Centre at the same institution.
  • Based in Mhow, MCTE provides an array of academic courses.
  • The Army War College, a defence service training and research institution of the Indian Army, is located in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh.

Question 15

If '÷' is replaced with '+','×' is replaced with '-','+' is replaced with '×' and '-' is replaced with '÷', then what will be the value of the given expression?

8 + 5 × 54 - 9 ÷ 3 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    33

  2. BOption (b)

    37

  3. COption (c)

    44

  4. DOption (d)

    46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

37

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS RULE:-

Symbol÷×+-
Meaning+-×÷

Given equation: 8 + 5 × 54 - 9 ÷ 3 = ?

After replacing the symbols by their meaning, we get:

L.H.S = 8 × 5 - 54 ÷ 9 + 3

= 8 × 5 - 6 + 3

= 40 – 6 + 3

= 43 – 6

= 37

Hence, ‘37’ is the correct answer.

Question 16

The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 7 and the ratio of their savings is 2 : 3. If A and B spend ₹35,400 and ₹48,600, respectively, then what is the difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A?

  1. AOption (a)

    17,600

  2. BOption (b)

    20,000

  3. COption (c)

    18,600

  4. DOption (d)

    18,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

18,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5 : 7

The ratio of their savings is 2 : 3

A and B spend ₹35,400 and ₹48,600

Concept used:

Savings = Income - Expense

Caclulation:

Let the income of A and B be 5x and 7x and savings 2y and 3y

According to the question,

5x - 2y = 35400      ----(i)

7x - 3y = 48600      ----(ii)

By multiplying 3 with eq (i) and 2 with eq (ii) we get,

15x - 6y = 106200      ----(iii)

14x - 6y = 97200      ----(iv)

By subtracting eq (iv) from eq (iii) we get

x = 9000

So, incomes of A = 9000 × 5 = Rs. 45000

Income of B = 9000 × 7 = Rs. 63000

Difference = 63000 - 45000

⇒ Rs. 18000

∴ The difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A is 18000.

Alternate Method                           A            :            B

Income              5x          :            7x

Expend.           35400       :        48600


Saving        5x - 35400    :      7x - 48600

Now, according to the question,

(5x - 35400)/(7x - 48600) = 2/3

⇒ 15x - 106200 = 14x - 97200

⇒ x = 9000

Difference (in₹) between the incomes of B and A

7x - 5x = 2x = 2 × (9000) = 18000

Question 17

In ΔABC, the bisectors of ∠\angle B and ∠\angle C intersect at P inside the triangle. If ∠\angle BPC = 128°, then what is the measure of ∠\angle A?

  1. AOption (a)

    52°

  2. BOption (b)

    78°

  3. COption (c)

    76°

  4. DOption (d)

    82°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

76°

Why this answer is correct

Give:

∠BPC = 128°

Concept used:

In a ΔABC angle at the meeting points of internal angle bisectors of ∠B and ∠C = 90° + ∠A/2 

  

Calculation:

  

According to the concept,

∠A/2 + 90° = ∠BPC

⇒ ∠A/2 + 90° = 128°

⇒ ∠A/2 = 128° - 90°

⇒ ∠A/2 = 38°

⇒ ∠A = 38° × 2 = 76°

∴ The measure of ∠A is 76°.

Question 18

Infant mortality is the death of an infant before his or her _______birthday.

  1. AOption (a)

    tenth

  2. BOption (b)

    third

  3. COption (c)

    sixth

  4. DOption (d)

    first

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

first

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is first.

Key Points

  • Infant mortality is the death of an infant before his or her first birthday.
  • The infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths for every 1,000 live births.
  • India's infant mortality rate (IMR) has shown significant improvement, falling from 47 in 2010 to just 28 in 2020.
  • The decline in the infant mortality rate is seen over the past few decades.
  • One in every 36 infants still dies within the first year of their life in India, according to official data.
  • The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), is widely accepted as a crude indicator of the overall health scenario of a country or a region.
  • The corresponding decadal decline in IMR in rural areas is 48 to 31, and for urban areas, it is from 29 to 19.
  • In 2020, the maximum IMR has been reported for Madhya Pradesh (43) and the minimum for Mizoram (3).

Question 19

In a certain code language, the letters of the English alphabet are coded as per their alphabetical order (A as 1 and Z as 26). However, if a consonant is immediately followed as well as preceded by a vowel, its code would be '77'.

What will be the code for 'WHITEN' in this language?

  1. AOption (a)

    238772077514

  2. BOption (b)

    238920514

  3. COption (c)

    239877514

  4. DOption (d)

    238977514

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

238977514

Why this answer is correct

The pattern/logic followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

The code for T will be 77 as it is immediately followed as well as preceded by a vowel.

Hence, ‘238977514’ is the correct answer.

Question 20

If A : B = 1.2 : 2, B : C = 1.5 : 2, and C : D = 2 : 3, then B : D is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    5 : 6

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 2

  3. COption (c)

    3 : 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 : 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 : 2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

 A : B = 1.2 : 2, B : C = 1.5 : 2, and C : D = 2 : 3

Calculation:

1st case → A : B = 1.2 : 2

2nd case → B : C = 1.5 : 2

By equaling B in both the cases we get

3rd case → A : B : C = 1.8 : 3 : 4

Now,

4th case → C : D = 2 : 3

Again, by equaling C in both case 3rd and 4th we get,

A : B : C : D = 1.8 : 3 : 4 : 6

So, B : D = 3 : 6 or 1 : 2

∴ B : D is equal to 1 : 2.

Question 21

Gol Gumbaz is the mausoleum of the king Mohammed Adil Shah. It is a part of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bundelkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatpur

  3. COption (c)

    Panipat

  4. DOption (d)

    Bijapur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bijapur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bijapur.

Key Points

  • Gol Gumbaz is a 17th-century mausoleum located in Bijapur, a city in Karnataka, India.
  • It is the tomb of Mohammad Adil Shah and houses his mortal remains.
  • The mausoleum is notable for its scale and exceptionally large dome.
  • The building is on UNESCO's "tentative list" to become a World Heritage Site in 2014.
  • It is the second-largest dome ever built, next in size only to St Peter’s Basilica in Rome.
  • A particular attraction in this monument is the central chamber, where every sound is echoed seven times.
  • Another attraction at the Gol Gumbaz is the **Whispering Gallery, where even minute sounds can be heard clearly 37 meters away.**​

Additional Information

  • Mohammed Adil Shah
  • ​Mohammed Adil Shah was the son of Ibrahim Adil Shah II.
  • He was the seventh ruler of Bijapur, crowned in 1627 at the age of 15 years.
  • He assisted the Mughals with their campaigns against the Ahmednagar Sultanate.
  • He signed a peace treaty with the Mughals in 1636.
  • Kingdom attained its dominions stretched from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal.
  • Bijapur also attained peace and prosperity during Mohammed’s reign.
  • His kingdom yielded an annual revenue of seven crores and eighty-four lakh rupees.
  • He died in 1656 and was buried in the Gol Gumbaz.

Question 22

The value of 72 ÷ 4 × {8 × 4 - (14 - 19)} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    666

  2. BOption (b)

    1296

  3. COption (c)

    444

  4. DOption (d)

    222

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

666

Why this answer is correct

Given:

72 ÷ 4 × {8 × 4 - (14 - 19)}

Concept used:

Calculation:

72 ÷ 4 × {8 × 4 - (14 - 19)}

⇒ 72 ÷ 4 × {8 × 4 - (- 5)}

⇒ 72 ÷ 4 × {32 + 5}

⇒ 72 ÷ 4 × 37

⇒ 18 × 37

⇒ 666

∴ Required answer is 666.

Question 23

Sarala Das, whose 600th birth anniversary was addressed by the Vice President in April 2021,  was a great scholar of _______ literature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Odia

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengali

  3. COption (c)

    Kannada

  4. DOption (d)

    Malayalam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Odia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Odia.

Key Points

  • The Vice President addressed Odia Adikabi Sarala Das's 600th birth anniversary function in Cuttack.
  • Sarala Das was one of the great scholars of Odia literature.
  • He was the first scholar who wrote his works in Odia in the 15th century A.D.
  • Best known for three Odia books, Mahabharata, Vilanka Ramayana and Chandi Purana.
  • He also wrote the book Laxmi Narayana Vachanika.
  • He started writing his Mahabharata in the reign of Kapileswar, the famous Gajapati king of Odisha (AD 1435–67).
  • Odia is one of the six languages that got Classical Status in India.

Question 24

What is the mode of the observations 5, 4, 4, 6, 7, 6, 9, 7, 6, 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The observations are 5, 4, 4, 6, 7, 6, 9, 7, 6, 5

Concept used:

The number which appears most often in a set of numbers is called mode.

Calculation:

Here,

4, 5, 7 are given 2 times

9 is given 1 time

6 is given 3 times

So, the frequency of 6 is the highest among all

∴ The mode of the data is 6.

Question 25

A lawn in the shape of a rectangle has an area of 7260 m² and its sides are in the ratio 5 : 3. Its perimeter is equal to the perimeter of a circular garden. What is the area of the circular garden? (Take π = 22/7)

  1. AOption (a)

    8712 m2

  2. BOption (b)

    9856 m2

  3. COption (c)

    7260 m2

  4. DOption (d)

    9878 m2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9856 m2

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of sides = 5 : 3 ⇒ Ratio area = 5 × 3 = 15 units2.

15 units2 = 7260 ⇒ 1 unit = √(7260 ÷ 15) = 22.

Rectangle Perimeter = 2 × (5 + 3) × 22 = 16 × 22 = 352 m.

Circle Circumference = 2 × (22/7) × r = 352 ⇒ r = 56 m.

Circular Area = (22/7) × 56 × 56 = 9856 m2.

∴ The correct answer is 9856 m2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of rectangle = 7260 m2

Ratio of sides = 5 : 3

Perimeter of rectangle = Perimeter of circle

Formula Used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Circumference of circle = 2 × π × r

Area of circle = π × r2

Calculations:

⇒ Let length = 5x and breadth = 3x

⇒ Area = 5x × 3x = 15x2 = 7260

⇒ x2 = 7260 ÷ 15 = 484

⇒ x = √484 = 22 m

⇒ Length = 5 × 22 = 110 m, Breadth = 3 × 22 = 66 m

⇒ Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (110 + 66) = 2 × 176 = 352 m

⇒ Circumference of circular garden = 2 × (22/7) × r = 352

⇒ r = (352 × 7) ÷ 44 = 8 × 7 = 56 m

⇒ Area of circular garden = (22/7) × 56 × 56

⇒ Area = 22 × 8 × 56 = 176 × 56 = 9856 m2

∴ The correct answer is 9856 m2.

Additional Information

Rectangle Properties

A rectangle with sides a and b has area = a × b and diagonal = √(a2 + b2).

Circle Mensuration

For a circle of radius r, the ratio of Area to Circumference is r/2.

Square vs Circle

For a given perimeter, a circle encloses the maximum area compared to any other polygon or rectangle.

Question 26

The difference between 12% gain and 4% loss on sale of the item was ₹28. What was the cost price of the item?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹168

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹175

  3. COption (c)

    ₹196

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹189

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹175

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The difference between 12% gain and 4% loss on sale of the item was ₹28

Concept used:

SP = CP + CP × gain%

SP = CP - CP × loss%

Here

SP = selling price

CP = cost price

Calculation:

Let the CP of the item be 100a

SP at 12% gain on CP = 100a + 100a × 12%

⇒ 112a

SP at 4% of loss on CP = 100a - 100a × 4%

⇒ 96a

According to the question,

112a - 96a = 28

⇒ 16a = 28

⇒ a = 28/16

Now, CP = 100 × (28/16)

⇒ Rs. 175

∴ The cost price of the item is Rs. 175.

Question 27

Two statements A and B are given. There may be a cause-and-effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements and select the appropriate option.

Statements:

A) KBCL decided to sell their oil to Alliance.

B) Alliance has raised the procurement price of oil from the last month.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements, A and B, are effects of independent causes

  2. BOption (b)

    B is the cause and A is the effect

  3. COption (c)

    A is the cause and B is the effect

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the statements, A and B, are independent causes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B is the cause and A is the effect

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed is:

Seller will sell their commodities if the price of that commodities is higher than previous time. As Alliance has raised the procurement price or cost price of oil from the last month, KBCL decided to sell their oil to Alliance. So, statement B is the cause and statement A is the effect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 28

Name of the scheme launched in June 2021 by the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh to encourage digital learning among students and to bridge the digital divide between connected and unconnected sectors.

  1. AOption (a)

    YounTab

  2. BOption (b)

    Diksha

  3. COption (c)

    eVidya

  4. DOption (d)

    Pragyata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

YounTab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is YounTab.

Key Points

  • Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh RK Mathur launched the YounTab scheme for students and distributed 12,300 tablets among them virtually in Leh.
  • The scheme is an initiative of the Department of School Education with technical support from the Information Technology Department.
  • A total of 12 thousand 300 students of 6th to 12th class from government schools will benefit from the scheme.
  • Formulated to encourage digital learning, bridge the digital divide between connected and unconnected, and mitigate the Covid pandemic disruptions.

Additional Information

  • Diksha
  • ​DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) is a national platform for school education.
  • An initiative of the National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT).
  • The unique initiative leverages existing highly scalable and flexible digital infrastructures while keeping teachers at the center.
  • eVidya​
  • ​The Government of India has launched the PM eVIDYA program.
  • Under this scheme, the top hundred universities in the country will start educating students through online education after 30th May 2020.
  • PM eVIDYA will also be called a one Nation digital platform.
  • Other than that a TV channel called one class one channel will also be launched for students who are studying in class 1st to 12th.
  • Pragyata​
  • Recently, the Ministry of Education has released guidelines on digital education titled 'PRAGYATA'.
  • The guidelines have been prepared by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).
  • These are only advisory in nature and state governments can formulate their own rules, based on local needs.
  • The guidelines include eight steps of online/digital learning i.e. Plan- Review- Arrange- Guide- Yak (talk)- Assign- Track- Appreciate.

Question 29

The value of (919 + 9.019 + 0.919 + 9.0019) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    937.3999

  2. BOption (b)

    973.9399

  3. COption (c)

    937.9399

  4. DOption (d)

    973.9939

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

937.9399

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(919 + 9.019 + 0.919 + 9.0019)

Calculation:

919 + 9.019 + 0.919 + 9.0019

⇒ 919.0000 + 9.0190 + 0.9190 + 9.0019

⇒ 928.0190 + 0.9190 + 9.0019

⇒ 928.9380 + 9.0019

⇒ 937.9399

∴ Required answer is 937.9399.

Question 30

The volume of a solid cone is 96 π cm3 and its height is 8 cm. What is its total surface area (in cm²)?

  1. AOption (a)

    96 π

  2. BOption (b)

    36 π

  3. COption (c)

    37 π

  4. DOption (d)

    23 π

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

96 π

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The volume of a solid cone is 96 π cm3

Height = 8 cm

Formula used:

Volume of a cone = (1/3)πr2h

Total surface area = πr(r + l)

l = √(r2 + h2)

Here,

r = radius

h = height

l = slant height

Calculation:

Let the radius be r

According to the question,

(1/3)πr2 × 8 = 96π

⇒ (1/3)r2 = 12

⇒ r2 = 36

⇒ r = 6

Now,

l = √(62 + 82)

⇒ l = √(36 + 64)

⇒ l = √100

⇒ l = 10

Total surface area = π × 6(6 + 10)

⇒ π × 6 × 16

⇒ 96π

∴ Its total surface area (in cm²) is 96π.

Question 31

The selling price of 2 blankets are the same. One of the blankets is sold at 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\% profit and the CP of the other blanket is ₹400 less than its SP. If the total profit on selling both the blankets is 50%, then find the selling price of each blanket.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹ 1500

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹ 1510

  3. COption (c)

    ₹ 1530

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹ 1520

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹ 1500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The selling price of 2 blankets are the same.

One of the blankets is sold at 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\%  profit and the CP of the other blanket is ₹400 less than its SP

Overall profit on two blankets = 50%

Concept used:

SP = CP + CP × profit%

SP - CP = Profit

SP = selling price

CP = cost price

Calculation:

6623%66\frac{2}{3}\%  = 2/3

Let CP of 1st blanket be 3x and 2nd blanket be y

SP of 1st blanket = 3x + 3x × 2/3

⇒ 5x

SP of 2nd blanket = y + 400

According to the question,

5x = y + 400

⇒ 5x - y = 400      ----(i)

Again

(3x + y) × 3/2 = 5x + y + 400 [∵ Total profit on selling both the blankets is 50% and 50% profit on CP = CP × 3/2]

⇒ 9x + 3y = 10x + 2y + 800

⇒ x - y = - 800      ----(ii)

Subtracting eq (ii) from eq (i) we get

4x = 1200

⇒ x = 300

⇒ 5x = 300 × 5 = 1500

So, SP of 1st blanket = Rs. 1500

As both the blankets were sold on the same price

∴ The selling price of each blanket is Rs. 1500.

Alternate Method 

Here, as for first blanket Profit is 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\%

so assume, SP = 5x 

then CP of first Blanket = 3x 

SP of 2nd Blanket = 5x (as SP is Same) 

then CP of 2nd blanket = 5x - 400

Now, Overall profit = 50%

thus, 

Total SP = 1.5( Total CP)

5x + 5x = 1.5 (3x + 5x - 400)

x = 300

so SP = 5x = 1500

∴ The selling price of each blanket is Rs. 1500.

Question 32

In a circle, chords AB and CD are produced to meet at E. outside the circle. If AB = 9 cm and AE = 12 cm and ED = 4 cm, then what is the length of the chord CD?

  1. AOption (a)

    5.5 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    5 cm

  3. COption (c)

    4 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    4.5 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

According to the External Secant Segment Theorem, when two secants are drawn from an external point to a circle, the product of the length of one secant and its external part equals the product of the length of the other secant and its external part.

Logic: EA × EB = EC × ED

Given: EA = 12 cm, AB = 9 cm ⇒ EB = AE − AB = 12 − 9 = 3 cm

Also: ED = 4 cm, EC = ED + CD = 4 + CD

⇒ 12 × 3 = 4 × (4 + CD)

⇒ 36 = 16 + 4 × CD ⇒ 4 × CD = 20 ⇒ CD = 5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

AB = 9 cm

AE = 12 cm

ED = 4 cm

Concept Used:

If two chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at an external point E, then:

AE × BE = CE × ED

Calculation:

According to the concept,

AE × BE = CE × ED

⇒ 12 × 3 = CE × 4

⇒ 36 = 4 × CE

⇒ CE = 9 cm

Now,

CE = CD + ED

⇒ 9 = CD + 4

⇒ CD = 9 − 4

⇒ CD = 5 cm

∴ The length of chord CD is 5 cm.

Additional Information

Internal Chord Theorem

If two chords AB and CD intersect inside a circle at point P, then PA × PB = PC × PD.

Tangent-Secant Theorem

If a tangent segment ET and a secant segment EAB are drawn from an external point E, then ET2 = EA × EB.

Power of a Point

For a point E at distance d from the center of a circle with radius r, the value d2 − r2 is constant for any line through E and is equal to the product of the segments of any secant.

Question 33

Rohan started from his home to go to his school. He went 100 meters towards the South, then turned towards the West and walked 50 metres. He then turned right and walked 50 metres and finally he turned to his right and walked 100 metres to reach his school. In which direction is his house from the school? (All turns are 90° turns only)

×

something went wrong

  1. AOption (a)

    South-west

  2. BOption (b)

    South-east

  3. COption (c)

    North-west

  4. DOption (d)

    North-east

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

North-west

Why this answer is correct

According to given conditions,

  • Rohan started from his home to go his school. He went 100 meters towards the south.

  • He turned toward west and walked 50 meters.

  • He turned right and walked 50 meters.

  • Finally he turned to his right and walked 100 meters to reach his school

Clearly, Rohan's home is to the North-West of his school.

Hence, ‘North-west’ is the correct answer.

Question 34

Eight friends are sitting around a square table, four at the corners and four in the middle of the four sides, facing the centre. Isheen is an immediate neighbour of Manmeet and Jyoti. Only three people sit between Harsh and Rekha. Nandan is sitting third to the right of Isheen. Paresh is second to the left of Manmeet. Only three people sit between Meena and Isheen. Manmeet is sitting to the immediate right of Rekha. Who is sitting second to the right of Nandan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rekha

  2. BOption (b)

    Meena

  3. COption (c)

    Paresh

  4. DOption (d)

    Jyoti

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Paresh

Why this answer is correct

Eight friends are sitting around a square table, four at the corners and four in the middle of the four sides, facing the centre.

  1. Isheen is an immediate neighbour of Manmeet and Jyoti. 2. Nandan is sitting third to the right of Isheen.

  2. Paresh is second to the left of Manmeet.

The above condition cannot be satisfied in Case I, so it is eliminated.

  1. Only three people sit between Meena and Isheen.

  2. Manmeet is sitting to the immediate right of Rekha.

Clearly, Paresh is sitting second to the right of Nandan.

Hence, 'Paresh' is the correct answer.

Question 35

What had been the Global Birth Rate (crude) in the year 2020, according to World Bank?

  1. AOption (a)

    46.43

  2. BOption (b)

    20.56

  3. COption (c)

    11.20

  4. DOption (d)

    17.98

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

17.98

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 17.98.

Key Points

  • The Global Birth Rate (crude) in the year 2020 is 17.98, according to World Bank.
  • Birth rate of World went down by 1.13 % from 18.2 per 1,000 people in 2019 to 17.98 per 1,000 people in 2020.
  • The world's total crude birth rate was estimated at 3,713.07 births per thousand population in 2020.
  • **The Global Birth Rate is used to calculate another fundamental measure, the rate of natural increase.**​

Important Points

  • Crude birth rate
  • indicates the number of live births occurring during the year, per 1,000 population estimated at midyear.
  • Crude Death Rate
  • ​Calculated as the number of deaths in a given period divided by the population exposed to the risk of death in that period.
  • For human populations the period is usually one year.
  • Subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate provides the rate of natural increase, which is equal to the rate of population change in the absence of migration.

Question 36

Which of the following states has the highest child sex ratio in India according to the 5th National Family Health Survey (2019-21)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Bihar

  3. COption (c)

    Mizoram

  4. DOption (d)

    Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mizoram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

  • Among the given options, Mizoram has the highest child sex ratio in India according to the 5th National Family Health Survey (2019-21).
  • Sex ratio at birth for children born in the last five years in India and its states/UTs.
  • Child sex ratio 
  • the number of females per thousand males in the age group 0–6 years in a human population.
  • The child sex ratio in India decreased between 2001 to 2011.

Additional Information

Sl. No.States/UTsSex ratio at birth for children born in the last five years (female per 1,000 male)
NFHS-5 (2019-21)
1INDIA929
2Andaman & Nicobar Islands914
3Andhra Pradesh934
4Arunachal Pradesh979
5Assam964
6Bihar908
7Chandigarh838
8Chhattisgarh960
9DNH & DD817
10Goa838
11Gujarat955
12Haryana893
13Himachal Pradesh875
14Jammu & Kashmir976
15Jharkhand899
16Karnataka978
17Kerala951
18Ladakh1125
19Lakshadweep1051
20Madhya Pradesh956
21Maharashtra913
22Manipur967
23Meghalaya989
24Mizoram969
25Nagaland945
26NCT of Delhi923
27Odisha894
28Puducherry959
29Punjab904
30Rajasthan891
31Sikkim969
32Tamil Nadu878
33Telangana894
34Tripura1028
35Uttar Pradesh941
36Uttarakhand984
37West Bengal973

Question 37

In a school, 58\frac{5}{8} of the number of students are girls and the rest are boys. 25\frac{2}{5} of the number of girls are below 12 years of age and 49\frac{4}{9} of the boys are 12 years of age or above. If the total number of students is 288, how many students are below 12 years of age?

  1. AOption (a)

    124

  2. BOption (b)

    132

  3. COption (c)

    144

  4. DOption (d)

    140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

132

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total students = 288

Girls = 5/8th of the total

2/5th of the girls are below 12 age

4/9th of the boys are above 12 years

Calculation:

Number of girls = 288 × 5/8

⇒ 180

So, number of boys = 288 - 180 = 108

Now,

Number of girls below 12 years of age = 180 × 2/5

⇒ 72

Number of boys above 12 years of age = 108 × 4/9

⇒ 48

So, the number of boys below 12 years of age = 108 - 48 = 60

Total number of students below 12 years of age = 72 + 60 = 132

∴ 132 students are below 12 years of age.

Question 38

Which trio among the following is referred to as 'The Trinity of Carnatic music"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Subbaraya Sastri, Madurai Mani Iyer and Tyagaraja

  2. BOption (b)

    Manambuchavadi Venkatasubbayyar, Poochi Srinivasa Iyengar and Subbaraya Sastri

  3. COption (c)

    Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri

  4. DOption (d)

    Madurai Mani Iyer, Tiger Varadachariar and Syama Sastri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri.

Key Points 

  • Carnatic Music
  • The Tamil classic of the 2nd century AD. titled ‘Silappadhikaram’ contains a vivid description of the music of that period.
  • The Tolkappiyam, Kalladam and the contributions of the Saivite and Vaishnavite saints of the 7th and 8th centuries AD.
  • It also serves as resource material for studying musical history.
  • Trinity of Carnatic music:
  • It is a trio of composer-musicians of Carnatic music in the 18th century.
  • The trio consisted of Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Shyama Sastri.
  • Tyagaraja was a Telugu composer.
  • He is known for Pancharatna Kritis.
  • Muthuswami Dikshitar was a Sanskrit and Manipravalam composer.
  • Shyama Sastri was a Telugu, Sanskrit composer.

​

Question 39

In a certain code language, RAMESH is written as AREMHS and PRAKIL is written as 'RPKALI'. How will RISHIPAL be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    ALIPHSRI

  2. BOption (b)

    IRSHPILA

  3. COption (c)

    IRHSPILA

  4. DOption (d)

    RILAPISH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

IRHSPILA

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

RAMESH is written as AREMHS

And,

PRAKIL is written as RPKALI

 

Similarly,

RISHIPAL is written as IRHSPILA

Hence, 'IRHSPILA' is the correct answer.

Question 40

Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and fourth term related to the third term.

SUGAR : 11 :: PILOT : 12 :: HOTEL : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    19

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

The logic followed here is:

(Sum of  position value of consonant - sum of position value of vowel) ÷ 2 = code

SUGAR : 11

And,

PILOT : 12

Similarly,

HOTEL : ?

Hence, ‘10’ is the correct answer.

Question 41

What will be the total number of days from 20 February 2020 to 15 April 2020, by including both the days?

  1. AOption (a)

    55

  2. BOption (b)

    54

  3. COption (c)

    56

  4. DOption (d)

    57

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

56

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

In the month of February remaining day is:- 10 (Because 2020 is the leap year so, the month of February will be 29 Days)

In the month of March remaining day is:- 31

In the month of April the total day is:- 15

The total number of days from 20 February 2020 to 15 April 2020 = 10 + 31 + 15 = 56

Hence, ‘56’ is the correct answer.

Mistake Points

  • Here, 20 February and 15 April also have to be counted because the number of days counted from 20 February to 15 April to be told, so they do not have to be omitted.

Question 42

Which of the following numbers is divisible by 7, 11 and 13?

  1. AOption (a)

    1002001

  2. BOption (b)

    1003001

  3. COption (c)

    1005001

  4. DOption (d)

    1004001

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1002001

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

7 × 11 × 13 = 1001, when any 3 digit number multiplied by 1001 then it repeats itself and always completely divisible by 7,11 and 13.

Calculation:

Option 1:

1002001 is divisible by 1001

Option 2:

1003001 is not divisible by 1001

Option 3:

1005001 is not divisible by 1001

Option 4:

1004001 is not divisible by 1001

∴ Required answer is Option 1.

Question 43

A boat takes 7 hours to move 63 km downstream and 30 km upstream. The boat takes 6 hours to move 28 km downstream and 48 km upstream. How much time will it take to move 35 km downstream and 27 km upstream?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 hours 45 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    4 hours 50 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    5 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    5 hours 20 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4 hours 45 minutes

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Downstream Speed be D and Upstream Speed be U.

Equations: 63/D + 30/U = 7 and 28/D + 48/U = 6.

To eliminate U, multiply first equation by 8 and second by 5: (504/D + 240/U = 56) − (140/D + 240/U = 30).

364/D = 26 ⇒ D = 14 km/h; Then 63/14 + 30/U = 7 ⇒ 4.5 + 30/U = 7 ⇒ U = 12 km/h.

Required Time = 35/14 + 27/12 = 2.5 + 2.25 = 4.75 hours = 4 hr 45 min.

∴ The correct answer is 4 hr 45 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Case 1: Distance Downstream (d1) = 63 km, Distance Upstream (u1) = 30 km, Total Time (t1) = 7 hr.

Case 2: Distance Downstream (d2) = 28 km, Distance Upstream (u2) = 48 km, Total Time (t2) = 6 hr.

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

Let 1/D = x and 1/U = y.

⇒ 63x + 30y = 7 --- (Eq. 1)

⇒ 28x + 48y = 6 --- (Eq. 2)

Multiply Eq. 1 by 8: 504x + 240y = 56

Multiply Eq. 2 by 5: 140x + 240y = 30

Subtracting the two equations:

⇒ 364x = 26

⇒ x = 26/364 = 1/14

⇒ Downstream Speed (D) = 14 km/h

Substitute x = 1/14 in Eq. 2:

⇒ 28(1/14) + 48y = 6

⇒ 2 + 48y = 6 ⇒ 48y = 4

⇒ y = 4/48 = 1/12

⇒ Upstream Speed (U) = 12 km/h

Time for 35 km downstream and 27 km upstream:

⇒ T = 35/D + 27/U

⇒ T = 35/14 + 27/12

⇒ T = 2.5 + 2.25 = 4.75 hr

⇒ 0.75 hr = 0.75 × 60 = 45 min

∴ The correct answer is 4 hr 45 min.

Additional Information

Speed of Boat and Stream

Speed of boat in still water = (D + U) ÷ 2 | Speed of stream = (D − U) ÷ 2.

Relative Speed in Water

Downstream speed includes stream velocity helping the boat, while Upstream speed opposes it.

Average Speed for Round Trip

If distance is same both ways, Average Speed = (D × U) ÷ Speed in still water.

Question 44

The Provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief has been entrusted in the Indian Constitution as one of the:

  1. AOption (a)

    fundamental rights

  2. BOption (b)

    constitution and economic rights

  3. COption (c)

    directive principles of state policy

  4. DOption (d)

    fundamental duties

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

directive principles of state policy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is directive principles of state policy.

Key Points

  • Article 42 of the constitution under DPSP (directive principles of state policy)states:
  • The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
  • ​A welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social welfare of its citizens.
  • DPSPs promote the ideal of the welfare state by emphasizing the state **to promote the welfare of people by providing them with basic facilities like shelter, food, and clothing.**​

Additional Information

  • Directive principles of state policy
  • ​Articles 36-51 of Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • They are borrowed from the constitution of Ireland.
  • They act as directives to the government to create any law.
  • They act as the ‘instrument of instructions’.
  • Fundamental rights​
  • Articles 12-35 of Part - III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights.
  • Fundamental rights are enforceable in a court of law.
  • These human rights are conferred upon the citizens of India for the Constitution tells that these rights are inviolable.
  • Six main fundamental rights.
  • Fundamental Duties
  • 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
  • 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added the 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
  • Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties.
  • ​The Fundamental Duties are dealt with in Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
  • Non enforceable in a court of law.

Question 45

The value of 84 ÷ 32 × 8 - 15 ÷ 8 × (19 - 35) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    51

  4. DOption (d)

    42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

51

Why this answer is correct

Given:

84 ÷ 32 × 8 - 15 ÷ 8 × (19 - 35)

Concept used:

Calculation:

84 ÷ 32 × 8 - 15 ÷ 8 × (19 - 35)

⇒ 84 ÷ 32 × 8 - 15 ÷ 8 × (- 16)

⇒ 21/8 × 8 - (15/8) × (- 16)

⇒ 21 + 30

⇒ 51

∴ The required answer is 51.

Question 46

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

18, 27, 34, 39, 42, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    44

  3. COption (c)

    42

  4. DOption (d)

    43

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

43

Why this answer is correct

The logic is:

Hence, ‘43’ is the correct answer.

Question 47

If

'A # B' means 'A is the father of B',

'A $ B' means 'A is the mother of B',

'A @ B' means 'A is the husband of B',

'A % B' means 'A is the wife of B'

'A = B' means 'A is the brother of B',

then how is P related to V in the following expression?

P @ Q $ U = R % S # V

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother's brother

  2. BOption (b)

    Paternal grandfather

  3. COption (c)

    Father's brother

  4. DOption (d)

    Maternal grandfather

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maternal grandfather

Why this answer is correct

By using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

A is
Symbol#$@%=
MeaningFatherMotherHusbandWifeBrother
to B

 

P @ Q $ U = R % S # V → P is the husband of Q, Q is the mother of U, U is the brother of R, R is the wife of S, S is the father of V.

Clearly, P is the Maternal grandfather of V.

Hence, ‘Maternal grandfather’ is the correct answer.

Question 48

After the mid-term examination Rupesh ranked 10th from the top and Rachit ranked 21st from the bottom. If Rachit performed better than Rupesh and six students ranked between them, how many students appeared in the examination?

  1. AOption (a)

    29

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

23

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. Rupesh ranked 10th from the top and Rachit ranked 21st from the bottom.
  2. Rachit performed better than Rupesh and six students ranked between them.

​

Rupesh rank from the bottom: 21 -7 = 14th.

Therefore, total number students appeared  in the examination = 10 + 14 -1 = 23 .

Hence,, the correct answer is "Option (4): 23".

Question 49

In a certain code language, MAN is written as OCP and GEM is written as IGO. How will CAT be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    TAC

  2. BOption (b)

    ECV

  3. COption (c)

    VCE

  4. DOption (d)

    DBU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ECV

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘ECV’ is the correct answer.

Question 50

Vihaan and Nav Agarwal won the International Children's Peace Prize 2021 for which work?

  1. AOption (a)

    For making an anti-cyberbullying mobile app

  2. BOption (b)

    For building a school in a refugee camp

  3. COption (c)

    For tackling pollution in their home city by recycling household waste

  4. DOption (d)

    For peaceful fight against extremist violence and radicalisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

For tackling pollution in their home city by recycling household waste

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is For tackling pollution in their home city by recycling household waste.

Key Points

  • Two Indian teenage brothers Vihaan and Nav Agrawal have won the 2021 KidsRights International Children's Peace Prize for tackling pollution from household waste.
  • Vihaan (17) and Nav Agarwal (14) have developed the 'One Step Greener' initiative segregating recyclables and organising pickups for trash from thousands of homes.
  • From an impressive 169 applicants from 39 countries, the KidsRights’ Expert Committee selected Nav and Vihaan as winners.
  • They were **awarded by Nobel laureate Kailash Satyarthi.**​

Important Points

  • 'One Step Greener' initiative 
  • After seeing the link between waste and air pollution following Delhi’s Ghazipur landfill collapse.
  • Both boys were inspired to create One Step Greener – an initiative that began segregating rubbish and organizing waste pickup drives.
  • ​From just 15 homes, One Step Greener is now a city-wide operation collecting rubbish from more than 1,000 households, schools, and offices, and has recycled 173,630 kilograms of waste.
  • The entrepreneurial brothers often devote 4-5 hours per day to the organization and are **working to bring their sustainability message to children across India.**​

Additional Information

  • KidsRights International Children's Peace Prize 
  • ​The prestigious prize was launched in 2005 during the World Summit of Nobel Peace Laureates in Rome, chaired by Mikhail Gorbachev.
  • Since then, the prize has been presented by a Nobel Peace Prize Laureate every year.
  • In 2021 the 17th International Children’s Peace Prize was presented by Kailash Satyarthi, Nobel Peace Prize Laureate 2014.

Question 51

Nagananda, a Sanskrit play which tells the popular story of Vidyadhar King Jimutavahana's self-sacrifice to save the Nagas, is attributed to emperor ______

  1. AOption (a)

    Bindusara

  2. BOption (b)

    Ashoka

  3. COption (c)

    Harsha

  4. DOption (d)

    Chandra Gupta I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Harsha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Harsha.

Key Points

  • Nagananda is a Sanskrit play attributed to emperor Harsha.
  • Nagananda is among the most acclaimed Sanskrit dramas.
  • It tells the story of Vidyadhar King Jimutavahana's self-sacrifice to save the Nagas.
  • The unique characteristic of this drama is the invocation to Buddha in the Nandi verse.
  • The play depicts the story of how prince Jimutavahana gives up his own body to stop a sacrifice of a Naga prince to the divine Garuda.
  • The play was **first introduced in January 2008 at Panaji, Goa in Marathi by Prabhakar Sanskritic Sanstha.**​

Additional Information

  • Bindusara
  • ​Bindusara, also known as Amitrochates was the second Mauryan emperor of India.
  • He was the son of the dynasty's founder Chandragupta and the father of its most famous ruler Ashoka.
  • Ashoka
  • Ashoka the Great, was an Indian emperor of the Maurya Empire, son of Bindusara.
  • He conquered almost all of the Indian subcontinent from 268 to 232 BCE.
  • Ashoka promoted the spread of Buddhism across ancient Asia.
  • Chandra Gupta I
  • ​Chandragupta, I was a king of the Gupta Empire, who ruled northern and central India.
  • His title Maharajadhiraja suggests that he was the first emperor of the dynasty.
  • Harsha
  • ​Harsha, also spelled Harṣa, also called Harshavardhana, was the ruler of a large empire in northern India from 606 to 647 CE.
  • He was a Buddhist convert in the Hindu era.
  • He was a member of the Vardhana dynasty and was the son of Prabhakaravardhana.

Question 52

Begum Hazrat Mahal, the wife of the Nawab of ______ led the uprising at Lucknow in May, 1857.

  1. AOption (a)

    Awadh

  2. BOption (b)

    Meerut

  3. COption (c)

    Fatehpur Sikri

  4. DOption (d)

    Agra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Awadh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Awadh.

Key Points 

  • Begum Hazrat Mahal had a  leading role in the rebellion against the British East India Company during the Revolt of 1857.
  • Begum Hazrat Mahal also called Begum of Awadh was the second wife of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah.
  • Her real name was Muhammadi Khanum.
  • Awadh was annexed by the British East India Company in 1856.
  • Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh was sent into exile to Calcutta.
  • After her husband had been exiled to Calcutta and the Indian Rebellion broke out, she made her son, Prince Birjis Qadr, the Wali (ruler) of Awadh, with herself as regent during his minority.
  • However, she was forced to abandon this role after a short reign.
  • She finally found asylum in Nepal where she died in 1879.

Additional Information 

Leaders of Revolt of 1857Centres
General Bakht KhanDelhi
Nana SahebKanpur
Begum Hazrat MahalLucknow
Khan BahadurBareilly
Kunwar SinghBihar
Maulvi AhmadullahFaizabad
Rani LaxmibaiJhansi

Question 53

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster and the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.

TRIP : PIRT :: STRONG : GNORTS :: MOUNTAIN : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    NAITNUOM

  2. BOption (b)

    NIATUNOM

  3. COption (c)

    NIATNUOM

  4. DOption (d)

    NTIANUOM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

NIATNUOM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

TRIP : PIRT

STRONG : GNORTS

  • Similarly, MOUNTAIN

Hence, ‘NIATNUOM’ is the correct answer.

Question 54

If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is the number itself. The number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    200

  3. COption (c)

    250

  4. DOption (d)

    350

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

300

Why this answer is correct

Given:

If 75% of a number is added to 75, then the result is the number itself.

Calculation:

Let the number be 100a

According to the question,

100a × 75% + 75 = 100a

⇒ 75a + 75 = 100a

⇒ 75 = 100a - 75a

⇒ 75 = 25a

⇒ a = 75/25 = 3

So, the number = 100 × 3

⇒ 300

∴ The number is 300.

Question 55

A hundred rupee note measures 15 cm × 8 cm and a bundle of 125 such notes is 2 cm thick. Find the value of the hundred-rupee notes that can be contained in a box of size 48 cm × 36 cm × 30 cm, if the bundles are tightly packed in it without any empty space.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹36 Lakhs

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹33 Lakhs

  3. COption (c)

    ₹30 Lakhs

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹27 Lakhs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹27 Lakhs

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Volume of the box = 48 × 36 × 30 = 51840 cm3

Volume of 1 bundle = 15 × 8 × 2 = 240 cm3

Number of bundles = 51840 ÷ 240 = 216

Value per bundle = 125 × 100 = ₹12500

Total Value = 216 × 12500 = ₹27,00,000 = ₹27 Lakhs

∴ The correct answer is ₹27 Lakhs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Dimensions of a 100-rupee note = 15 cm × 8 cm

Thickness of a bundle of 125 notes = 2 cm

Dimensions of the box = 48 cm × 36 cm × 30 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of a cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Number of items = Total Container Volume ÷ Volume of 1 item

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of the box = 48 × 36 × 30 = 51840 cm3

⇒ Volume of 1 bundle = 15 × 8 × 2 = 240 cm3

⇒ Number of bundles = 51840 ÷ 240 = 216

⇒ Total notes in the box = 216 × 125 = 27000 notes

⇒ Total value of the notes = 27000 × ₹100 = ₹27,00,000

⇒ Total value in Lakhs = ₹27 Lakhs

∴ The correct answer is ₹27 Lakhs.

Additional Information

Cuboid Volume

The space occupied by a 3-dimensional solid with rectangular faces is its volume, calculated strictly as Length × Breadth × Height.

Packaging Optimization

When checking how many small items perfectly fit into a larger container without any gaps, divide the total volume of the container by the volume of a single small unit.

Number System Units

In the Indian numbering system, 1 Lakh equals 1,00,000 (one hundred thousand). This conversion simplifies managing large monetary values in competitive exams.

Question 56

The protection of interests of minorities under the Constitution of India lies under _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 20

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 16

  3. COption (c)

    Article 15

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Article 29

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 29.

Key Points

  • Article 29 protects the interests of the minorities by making a provision that any citizen/section of citizens having a distinct language, script, or culture have the right to conserve the same.
  • **Article 29 mandates that no discrimination would be done on the ground of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.**​

Important Points

  • Article 20
  • ​Protection in respect of conviction for offenses
  1. No person shall be convicted of any offense except for violation of the law nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offense.
  2. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offense more than once.
  3. No person accused of any offense shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.​
  • Article 16
  • ​Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
  • There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
  • Article 15
  • ​Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Question 57

Which of the following products has the highest share in India's imports according to the economic survey 2021-22?

  1. AOption (a)

    Plastic Raw Materials

  2. BOption (b)

    Crude Petroleum

  3. COption (c)

    Electronic Componets

  4. DOption (d)

    Gold

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Crude Petroleum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Crude Petroleum.

Key Points

  • The highest share in India's imports according to the economic survey 2021-22 was crude petroleum.
  • Crude petroleum imports more than doubled to US$ 73.3 billion in April-November, 2021 as compared to last year and continue to be the highest imported commodity.
  • Gold imports registered a sharp rise to US33.2billion,fromUS 33.2 billion, from US12.3 billion a year earlier.

Additional Information

  • Key highlights of the economic survey 2021-22.
  • The central theme of this year's Economic Survey is the “Agile approach”.
  • Indian economy (GDP) is estimated to grow by 9.2 percent in real terms in 2021-22.
  • GDP is projected to grow by 8- 8.5 percent in real terms in 2022-23.
  • The Central Government debt has gone up from 49.1 percent of GDP in 2019-20 to 59.3 percent of GDP in 2020-21 but is expected to follow a declining trajectory with the recovery of the economy.
  • Rs. 89,066 crores raised via 75 Initial Public Offering (IPO) issues in April-November 2021 is much higher than in any year in the last decade.
  • Foreign Exchange Reserves crossed US$ 600 billion in the first half of 2021-22 and touched US $ 633.6 billion as of December 31, 2021.
  • India’s overall score on the NITI Aayog SDG India Index and Dashboard improved to 66 in 2020-21 from 60 in 2019-20.

Question 58

According to the Economic Survey of India, which of the following states had the highest share in the overall production of sugarcane for the financial year 2020-21?

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Haryana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • Uttar Pradesh had the highest share in the overall production of sugarcane for the financial year 2020-21 according to the economic survey 2020-21.
  • UP’s districts known for sugarcane production are Meerut, Bareilly, Saharanpur, and Bulandshahr.
  • The annual output for the sugarcane production of Uttar Pradesh is 133.3 million tonnes which is the highest sugarcane production in India.
  • Maharashtra ranks 2nd in the top sugarcane-producing states in India with 9 lakh hectares of land is used to produce 75.3 MT of sugarcane in Maharashtra.
  • Tamil Nadu is in the third position, followed by Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Bihar.
  • India is the world's second-largest sugarcane-producing nation after Brazil.
  • It is estimated that sugar production will increase by 2.90 percent to 31.9 million tonnes in the ongoing 2021-22 marketing year.
  • India is the largest consumer of Sugar.

Question 59

_______ of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security.

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 43

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 50

  3. COption (c)

    Article 51

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 41

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 51

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 51.

Key Points

  • Arti cle 51: Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavor to:
  • promote international peace and security;
  • maintain just and honorable relations between nations;
  • foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international disputes by a rbitration Part IVA Fundamental DUties.

Additional Information 

ArticleWhat does it say
Article 41- Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases.
Article 43- Living wages, etc for workers. - And to promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas. - And a decent standard of living and social and cultural opportunity for all workers.
Article 50- Sepreparation of the judiciary from the executive in the public service of the state.

Question 60

A cylindrical bucket of height 150 cm and radius 50 cm is full of water. A person wants to fill spherical balloons of radius 5 cm each with the water in the bucket. How many balloons can he fill completely with the water present in the bucket?

  1. AOption (a)

    2250

  2. BOption (b)

    1753

  3. COption (c)

    1456

  4. DOption (d)

    1832

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2250

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A cylindrical bucket of height 150 cm and radius 50 cm is full of water.

It is needed to be filled with some spherical balloons of the radius of 5 each

Concept used:

Volume of a cylinder = πr2h

Volume of a sphere = (4/3)πr3

r = radius of sphere and base of the cylinder

h = height

Calculation:

Let n number of spherical balloons be required

According to the question,

π × 502 × 150 = (4/3) × π × 53 × n

⇒ 2500 × 150 = (4/3) × 125n

⇒ 20 × 150 = (4/3)n

⇒ 3000 = (4/3)n

⇒ n = (3/4) × 3000

⇒ n = 2250

So, a total of 2250 balloons are required

∴ 2250 balloons can he fill completely with the water present in the bucket.

Question 61

Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used in a Windows 10 system to switch between open applications?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alt + Tab

  2. BOption (b)

    Alt + S

  3. COption (c)

    Ctrl + S

  4. DOption (d)

    Ctrl + Tab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alt + Tab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alt + Tab.

Key Points

  • Alt+Tab
  • The keyboard shortcut is most often used to switch between open programs in Microsoft Windows 10.
  • Alt + S
  • ​Alt+S is a keyboard shortcut most often used to open the slide show settings in PowerPoint.
  • Ctrl + S​
  • ​In Microsoft Word and other word processors, pressing Ctrl + S saves the current document.
  • Ctrl + Tab​
  • ​ Ctrl+Tab is a keyboard shortcut most often used to switch between open tabs in a browser.​

Additional Information

Shortcut keysDescription
Alt+FFile menu options in the current program.
Alt+EOpen Edit options in the current program.
Alt+TabSwitch between open programs.
F1View help information (F1 is used by almost every Windows program to display help).
F2Rename a selected file.
F5Refresh the current program window.
Ctrl+DBookmark the current page in most Internet browsers.
Ctrl+NCreate a new or blank document in some software, or open a new tab in most Internet browsers.
Ctrl+OOpen a file in the current software.
Ctrl+ASelect all text.
Ctrl+BChange selected text to bold.
Ctrl+IChange selected text to be in italics.
Ctrl+UChange selected text to be underlined.
Ctrl+FOpen find window for current document or window.
Ctrl+SSave the current document file.
Ctrl+XCut selected item.
Shift+DelCut selected item.
Ctrl+CCopy selected item.
Ctrl+InsCopy selected item.
Ctrl+VPaste
Shift+InsPaste

Question 62

Which Mauryan emperor had his inscriptions engraved on rocks and pillars during his reign from c. 272/268-231 BCE?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ashoka

  2. BOption (b)

    Bindusara

  3. COption (c)

    Chandragupta Maurya

  4. DOption (d)

    Brihadratha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ashoka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ashoka.

Key Points 

  • Asoka was the first ruler who inscribed his messages on stone surfaces i.e. natural rocks and polished pillars.
  • Most of Ashoks's inscriptions were in Prakrit and were written in Brahmi script.
  • James Prinsep, a British antiquary and colonial administrator was the first person to decipher Ashoka’s edicts.
  • These Ashoka’s inscriptions are the first tangible evidence of Buddhism.
  • There are 33 inscriptions in total and are primarily classified into the following:
  • Major rock edicts.
  • Minor rock edicts.
  • Separate rock edicts.
  • Major pillar edicts.
  • Minor pillar edicts.​​

Additional Information 

  • Ashoka’s Major Rock Edicts
  • There are 14 major rock edicts:
EdictAshoka Inscription Details
Major Rock Edict I- Prohibition of animal sacrifice, especially during festive seasons.
Major Rock Edict II- Medical treatment of humans and animals, planting of fruits, and medicinal herbs, and the digging of wells. - Mentions the Pandyas, Satyapuras and Keralaputras of South India.
Major Rock Edict III- Generosity to Brahmins. - About Yuktas, Pradeshikas, and Rajukas who would go every five years to different parts of his empire to spread Dhamma.
Major Rock Edict IV- Dhammaghosha (sound of Dhamma/righteousness) over Bherighosha (sound of war). - King Ashoka attached the greatest value to his duty.
Major Rock Edict V- About Dhammamahamatras. - Talks about treating slaves right. - A special cadre of officials, Dhamma Gosha was appointed and entrusted with the duty of spreading Dhamma within the kingdom.
Major Rock Edict VI- King’s desire to know about his people’s conditions. - About welfare measures.
Major Rock Edict VII- Tolerance towards religions among all sects and welfare measures for the public in his as well as his neighboring kingdoms.
Major Rock Edict VIII- Ashoka’s first visit to Bodh Gaya and the Bodhi tree (his first Dhamma Yatra). - Gave importance to Dhamma tours.
Major Rock Edict IX- Condemns popular ceremonies. - Stresses on moral conduct.
Major Rock Edict X- Disapproves of the individual’s desire for fame and glory and stresses on Dhamma.
Major Rock Edict XI- Dhamma is the best policy to follow, which includes respect for elders and concern for slaves and servants.
Major Rock Edict XII- It mentions Mahamattas in charge of women’s welfare, Ithijika Mahamatta, and tolerance towards the dhamma of others.
Major Rock Edict XIII- Mentions victory over Kalinga. Mentions Ashoka’s Dhamma victory over Greek Kings Antiochus of Syria (Amtiyoko), Ptolemy of Egypt (Turamaye), Magas of Cyrene (Maka), Antigonus of Macedon (Amtikini), Alexander of Epirus (Alikasudaro). Also mentions Pandyas, Cholas, etc. - The thirteenth rock edict which was issued at the end of the Kalinga war gives a vivid picture of the change of Ashoka from an aggressive and violent warrior to a great lover and preacher of peace. The direct and immediate effect of the Kalinga war was the conversion of Ashoka to Buddhism.
Major Rock Edict XIV- Purpose of rock edicts.
  • Minor Rock Edict
  • Minor rock edicts are found on 15 rocks across the country and in Afghanistan also.
  • Ashoka uses his name only in four of these places namely:
  1. Maski,
  2. Brahmagiri (Karnataka),
  3. Gujjara (MP) and
  4. Nittur (AP)

Question 63

The second number in each of the number-pairs is obtained by performing certain mathematical operations on the first number. Three of the following four number-pairs follow the same pattern and thus form a group. Select the number-pair that does NOT belong to that group.

  1. AOption (a)

    18 : 321

  2. BOption (b)

    21 : 438

  3. COption (c)

    17 : 286

  4. DOption (d)

    19 : 357

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

19 : 357

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (first number)2 - 3 = second number

  1. 18 : 321 → 182 - 3 = 324 - 3 = 321

  2. 21 : 438 → 212 - 3 = 441 - 3 = 438

  3. 17 : 286 → 172 - 3 = 289 - 3 = 286

4) 19 : 357 → 192 - 3 = 361 - 3 = 358 ≠ 357

Hence, ‘19 : 357’ is the odd one out.

Question 64

A fraction becomes 23\frac{2}{3} when one is added to both the numerator and the denominator of the fraction, and it becomes 12\frac{1}{2}, when 2 is subtracted from both the numerator and denominator. What is the sum of the numerator and denominator of the original fraction?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    13

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A fraction becomes 23\frac{2}{3} when one is added to both the numerator and the denominator of the fraction,

It becomes 12\frac{1}{2}, when 2 is subtracted from both the numerator and denominator.

Calculation:

Let the fraction be x/y

According to the question,

x+1y+1=23\frac{x+1}{y+1}=\frac{2}{3}

⇒ 3x + 3 = 2y + 2

⇒ 2y - 3x = 3 - 2

⇒ 2y - 3x = 1      ----(i)

Again,

x−2y−2=12\frac{x-2}{y-2}=\frac{1}{2}

⇒ 2x - 4 = y - 2

⇒ 2x - y = 4 - 2

⇒ 2x - y = 2      ----(ii)

By multiplying eq (i) with 2 we get,

4y - 6x = 2

So,

4y - 6x = 2x - y

⇒ 5y = 8x

⇒ x/y = 5/8

So, the fraction is 5/8

Sum of the digits of the fraction = 5 + 8 = 13

∴ The sum of the numerator and denominator of the original fraction is 13.

Question 65

There are five friends, Deepu, Sonu, Tinku, Guddu and Innu. Innu is taller than Tinku. Among all, Tinku comes exactly in the middle on the basis of height. Guddu is shortest among all. Sonu is taller than Tinku but not the tallest in the group. Who comes at the 2nd position starting from the shortest to tallest?

  1. AOption (a)

    Innu

  2. BOption (b)

    Sonu

  3. COption (c)

    Guddu

  4. DOption (d)

    Deepu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Deepu

Why this answer is correct

Five friends - Deepu, Sonu, Tinku, Guddu and Innu.

  1. Innu is taller than Tinku.

Innu > Tinku

  1. Among all, Tinku comes exactly in the middle on the basis of height.

Case I: ____ > Innu > Tinku > _____ > _____ 

or

Case II: Innu > _____ > Tinku > _____ > _____ 

  1. Guddu is shortest among all.

Case I: ____ > Innu > Tinku > _____ > Guddu

or

Case II: Innu > _____ > Tinku > _____ > Guddu

  1. Sonu is taller than Tinku but not the tallest in the group.

The above condition cannot be satisfied in Case I, so it is eliminated.

Case II: Innu > Sonu > Tinku > _____ > Guddu

As Deepu is the only person left, Deepu will occupy the vacant position.

So, the final arrangement will be as shown below:

Innu > Sonu > Tinku > Deepu > Guddu

Clearly, Deepu comes at the 2nd position starting from the shortest to tallest.

Hence, ‘Deepu’ is the correct answer.

Question 66

Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.

  1. AOption (a)

    ROW

  2. BOption (b)

    OLT

  3. COption (c)

    VSA

  4. DOption (d)

    LIR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

LIR

Why this answer is correct

The logic is: -3 from first alphabet and + 8 in second alphabet.

1. 

Hence, 'LIR' is the odd one out.

Question 67

A question is given, followed by three statements labelled I, II and III. Identify which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Question:

How is P related to C?

Statements:

I: H is the only brother of S and P.

II: P is the wife of L, who is the son-in-law of D.

III: D is the mother of S and T is the son-in-law of C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data in statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    Data in statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Data in statements I, II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Data in statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Preparing the family tree diagram using the following symbols:

Statements:

I: H is the only brother of S and P.

II: P is the wife of L, who is the son-in-law of D.

III: D is the mother of S and T is the son-in-law of C.

The relation between P and C cannot be determined by using any combination of the statements or all the statements together as no common relation between P and C can be established using the information in the given statement.

Hence, Data in statements I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 68

Satyaram Reang of Tripura, who received The Padma Shri award in 2021, is a famous _______ dancer.

  1. AOption (a)

    Biraha

  2. BOption (b)

    Hojagiri

  3. COption (c)

    Dumhal

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hojagiri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hojagiri.

Key Points

  • Satyaram Reang is an Indian folk performer and folk artist from Tripura.
  • He is noted for his significant contribution to Hojagiri Dance.
  • In January 2021, he was awarded India's fourth-highest civilian award the Padma Shri in the Arts category.
  • In 1986, Satyaram Reang was conferred with the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi award, the highest award for performing artists.​

Additional Information

  • Biraha
  • It is an ethnic Bhojpuri folk genre of Ahir communities in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Jharkhand in India.
  • Its place in folk songs is as important as that of Dwipadi in Sanskrit, Gatha in Prakrit, and Barwai in Hindi.
  • Hojagiri 
  • ​Hojagiri is a folk dance, performed in the state of Tripura, India by the Tripuri people of the Reang clan.
  • It is performed by women and young girls, about 4 to 6 members in a team, singing, balancing on an earthen pitcher, and managing other props such as a bottle on the head and an earthen lamp on the hand.
  • Dumhal
  • ​The Dumhal dance is very popular among the people of not only Jammu & Kashmir but also of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.
  • Though it is a folk dance still its root of origin lies in the era of the Sufi movement.
  • It is said that Dumhal was invented by a Sufi saint.
  • The wardrobe of the Dumhal dance is quite colourful and robust.
  • Bihu
  • ​The Bihu dance is an indigenous folk dance from the Indian state of Assam related to the Bihu festival and an important part of Assamese culture.
  • The Bihu dancers are usually young men and women, and the dancing style is characterized by brisk steps and rapid hand movements.

Question 69

The ratio of the two numbers is 3 : 4 and their LCM is 480. Find their HCF.

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    160

  4. DOption (d)

    120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

40

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The LCM of two numbers is equal to the product of their ratio terms multiplied by their HCF.

Given Ratio = 3 : 4 and LCM = 480.

HCF = LCM ÷ (Product of ratio terms)

HCF = 480 ÷ (3 × 4) = 480 ÷ 12 = 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given:

The ratio of two numbers = 3 : 4

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) = 480

Formula Used:

If the ratio of two numbers is a : b and their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is x, then the numbers are ax and bx.

The LCM of ax and bx = a × b × x

Calculations:

Let the HCF of the two numbers be x.

⇒ The numbers are 3x and 4x.

⇒ LCM of (3x, 4x) = 3 × 4 × x = 12x

⇒ According to the question, 12x = 480

⇒ x = 480 ÷ 12

⇒ x = 40

Since x represents the HCF, the value of HCF is 40.

This matches the value given in Option (2).

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Product of Two Numbers

For any two numbers, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM (n1 × n2 = HCF × LCM).

HCF of Fractions

HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is 1. Their LCM is always equal to their product.

Relationship between HCF and LCM

The HCF of a group of numbers is always a factor of their LCM.

Question 70

If x = 23 ​× 32 ​× 5 ​× 73 ,y = 22 ​× 33 ​× 52 ​× 72 , and z = 24 ​× 3 ​× 53 ​× 7 ,

then the HCF of x, y and z is:

  1. AOption (a)

    420

  2. BOption (b)

    1260

  3. COption (c)

    840

  4. DOption (d)

    630

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

420

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find the HCF of numbers in prime factor form, identify the common prime bases and select the lowest power of each.

Common prime bases are 2, 3, 5, and 7.

Minimum powers: 22, 31, 51, and 71.

HCF = 22 × 31 × 51 × 71 = 4 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 420.

∴ The correct answer is 420.

Alternate Method

Given:

x = 23 × 32 × 51 × 73

y = 22 × 33 × 52 × 72

z = 24 × 31 × 53 × 71

Formula:

HCF = Product of the lowest powers of common prime factors.

Calculations:

⇒ For prime 2: Lowest power is 22

⇒ For prime 3: Lowest power is 31

⇒ For prime 5: Lowest power is 51

⇒ For prime 7: Lowest power is 71

⇒ HCF = 22 × 31 × 51 × 71

⇒ HCF = 4 × 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ HCF = 12 × 35 = 420

∴ The correct answer is 420.

Additional Information

LCM of Prime Factorizations

To find the LCM, take the highest power of every prime factor that appears in any of the numbers.

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, the product a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

HCF of Fractions

HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

Question 71

A can complete a piece of work in 10 days. B is 25% more efficient than A. How many days will B alone take to complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    7 days

  2. BOption (b)

    8 days

  3. COption (c)

    6 days

  4. DOption (d)

    9 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A can complete a piece of work in 10 days

B is 25% more efficient than A.

Concept used:

Total work = efficiency of the worker × time taken by him

Calculation:

Let A's efficiency is 4a

So, B's efficiency = 4a + 4a × 25%

⇒ 5a

Now,

total work = 4a × 10

⇒ 40a

So, B will take to complete the task = 40a/5a

⇒ 8 days

∴ B alone will take 8 days to complete the same work.

Question 72

What is the capacity of the recently commissioned supercomputer Param Pravega under the National Supercomputing Mission?

  1. AOption (a)

    1.3 petaflops

  2. BOption (b)

    2.3 petaflops

  3. COption (c)

    3.3 petaflops

  4. DOption (d)

    4.3 petaflops

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3.3 petaflops

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.3 petaflops.

Key Points

  • Recently, the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru installed the supercomputer 'Param Pravega'.
  • It has a supercomputing capacity of 3.3 petaflops.
  • It has been installed under the government’s National Supercomputing Mission.
  • India’s first supercomputer was PARAM 8000.
  • PARAM Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU), followed by PARAM Shakti, PARAM Brahma, PARAM Yukti, PARAM Sanganak at IIT-Kharagpur, IISER, Pune, JNCASR, Bengaluru and IIT Kanpur respectively.
  • In 2020, PARAM Siddhi, the High-Performance Computing-Artificial Intelligence (HPC-AI) supercomputer, achieved a global ranking of 62nd in the Top 500 most powerful supercomputer systems in the world.

Important Points

  • Petaflop is a measure of a Supercomputer’s processing speed.
  • It can be expressed as a thousand trillion floating-point operations per second.
  • FLOPS (floating-point operations per second) are typically used to measure the performance of a computer’s processor.
  • Supercomputers are primarily designed to be used in enterprises and organizations that require massive computing power.
  • For example weather forecasting, scientific research, intelligence gathering, and analysis, data mining, etc.
  • **China has the maximum number of supercomputers and maintains the top position in the world, followed by the US, Japan, France, Germany, Netherlands, Ireland, and the United Kingdom.**​

Additional Information

  • National Supercomputing Mission
  • In 2015, the National Supercomputing Mission was launched to enhance the research capacities and capabilities
  • To form a Supercomputing grid, with National Knowledge Network (NKN) as the backbone.
  • The NKN project is aimed at establishing a strong and robust Indian network that will be capable of providing secure and reliable connectivity.
  • It supports the government's vision of 'Digital India' and 'Make in India' initiatives.
  • The Mission is being jointly steered by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Question 73

The average of 6 numbers is 16. If one of the numbers is excluded, the average becomes 17. Find the excluded number.

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Excluded Number = Old Average − (Increase in Average × New Count of Numbers)

Old Average = 16

Increase in Average = 17 − 16 = 1

New Count = 5

Excluded Number = 16 − (1 × 5) = 16 − 5 = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of initial observations (n1) = 6

Average of initial observations (A1) = 16

Number of observations after exclusion (n2) = 5

Average after exclusion (A2) = 17

Formula Used:

Sum of observations = Average × Total Numbers

Excluded Number = (Sum of 6 numbers) − (Sum of 5 numbers)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of 6 numbers = 6 × 16 = 96

⇒ Sum of 5 numbers = 5 × 17 = 85

⇒ Excluded number = 96 − 85

⇒ Excluded number = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

Average Concept

Average is defined as the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations. Average = Σx / n.

Excluded Value Formula

When one value is excluded, the excluded value = (Old Average × Old Number of items) − (New Average × New Number of items).

Effect on Average

If the excluded number is greater than the original average, the average decreases. If it is smaller, the average increases.

Question 74

As of April 2022, India is NOT a permanent member of which of the following organisations?

  1. AOption (a)

    South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation

  2. BOption (b)

    G20

  3. COption (c)

    Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries

  4. DOption (d)

    World Trade Organization

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Key Points

  • India is not a permanent member of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries.
  • Headquartered in Vienna, Austria, although Austria is not an OPEC member state.
  • The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely the Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.
  • These countries were later joined by Qatar (1961), Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), the United Arab Emirates (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971), Ecuador (1973), Gabon (1975), Angola (2007), Equatorial Guinea (2017) and Congo (2018).
  • **It is now a 13 members organization.**​

Additional Information

  • South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
  • Formed on 8th December 1985, in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
  • The regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia.
  • Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
  • G20​
  • It works to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development.
  • ​The members of the G20 are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union.
  • World Trade Organization​
  • An intergovernmental organization that regulates and facilitates international trade.
  • The WTO has 164 members and 25 observer governments.
  • India is a permanent member of WTO.
  • India has been a WTO member since 1 January 1995 and a member of GATT since 8 July 1948.

Question 75

Each of the six people were watching a different movie. A finished before D, but after F. E finished before B, but after D. F finished after C, but before A. What was the finishing order?

  1. AOption (a)

    CAFEBD

  2. BOption (b)

    CFADEB

  3. COption (c)

    ACBDFE

  4. DOption (d)

    FACDEB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CFADEB

Why this answer is correct

  1. A finished before D, but after F.

F > A > D

  1. E finished before B, but after D.

D > E > B

  1. F finished after C, but before A.

C > F > A

From all the three statements, we get:

C > F > A > D > E > B

Clearly, CFADEB was the finishing order.

Hence, ‘CFADEB’ is the correct answer.

Question 76

The government deficit can be reduced by ________ taxes or _______ expenditure.

  1. AOption (a)

    increasing; increasing

  2. BOption (b)

    increasing; decreasing

  3. COption (c)

    decreasing; increasing

  4. DOption (d)

    maintaining; increasing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

increasing; decreasing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is increasing; decreasing.

Key Points

  • The government deficit can be reduced by increasing taxes or decreasing expenditure.
  • A deficit is an amount by which the expenditures in a budget exceed the income.
  • Government Deficit 
  • Amount of money in the set budget by which the government expenditure exceeds the government income amount.
  • **It is an indication of the financial health of the economy.**​

Important Points

  • Measures to Reduce Government Deficit
  • Increased emphasis on tax-based revenues and appropriate measures to reduce tax evasion.
  • Disinvestment should be done where assets are not being used effectively
  • A reduction in subsidies by the government will also help reduce the deficit.
  • Try and avoid unplanned expenditures.
  • Borrowing from domestic sources.
  • Borrowing from external sources.
  • A broadened tax base may also help in reducing the government deficit.

Question 77

Buddha delivered his first sermon which is called _______, at Sarnath to his five disciples.

  1. AOption (a)

    Niranjana

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahabhinishkramana

  3. COption (c)

    Maha parinirvana

  4. DOption (d)

    Dharmachakra Pravartana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dharmachakra Pravartana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dharmachakra Pravartana.

Key Points

  • Dharmachakra
  • After 49 consecutive days of meditation, Gautama attained Bodhi (enlightenment) under a pipal tree at Bodhgaya a village in Bihar.
  • Buddha gave his first sermon in the village of Sarnath, near the city of Benares in UP.
  • This event is known as Dhammacakkappavattana (The Setting in Motion of the Wheel of Dharma).
  • The Seated Buddha from Gandhara is an early statue of the Buddha made in Gandhara, in modern Pakistan, in the 2nd or 3rd century.
  • The pose shows Buddha as a teacher setting the wheel of Dharma in motion (Dharmachakra Mudra).
  • The mudra in Buddhism is a symbolic gesture of hands and fingers used in rituals and dances or sculptures and paintings.
  • Buddha's first sermon after his enlightenment is preserved in the Pali Sutta-Pitaka (Samyutta Nikaya 56.11) as the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta, which means "The Setting in Motion of the Wheel of Dharma." In Sanskrit, the title is Dharmacakra Pravartana Sutra.
  • In this sermon, the Buddha gave the first presentation of the Four Noble Truths, which are the foundational teaching, or primary conceptual framework, of Buddhism. Everything he taught after that ties back to the Four Truths.

Question 78

By which other name is the festival Gudi Padwa known in Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Baisakhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Ugadi

  3. COption (c)

    Akshay Tritiya

  4. DOption (d)

    Pongal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ugadi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ugadi.

Key Points

  • The festival Gudi Padwa is known in  Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh by the name of Ugadi.
  • Ugadi is celebrated as the New Year of the Telugu and Kannada people.
  • The festival is known by different names in different states.
  • It is known by the name of ‘Ugadi’ by the people of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
  • The name ‘Gudi Padwa’ is used by the people of Maharashtra and Cheti Chand by Sindhis.
  • The festival of Ugadi is celebrated in April every year.
  • The **festival falls according to the lunisolar calendar.**​

Additional Information

  • Baisakhi
  • ​Baisakhi has been a harvest festival in Punjab and also in northern India for a long time.
  • In 1699, Guru Gobind Singh chose the festival as the moment to establish the Khalsa.
  • Celebrated annually on 13 April and sometimes 14 April as a celebration of spring harvest primarily in Northern India.
  • Akshay Tritiya
  • The festival of Akshaya Tritiya is celebrated by Hindus and Jains around the world.
  • Also known as Akti or Akha Teej, this day is believed to be one of the most auspicious occasions.
  • ​According to the Hindu calendar, Akshaya Tritiya falls on the third tithi (lunar day) of Shukla Paksha of the Vaishakha month.
  • Going by the Gregorian calendar, it falls somewhere around April and May.
  • One of the most important rituals includes worshipping Lord Vishnu on this day.
  • As per common belief, buying gold and properties on this day brings prosperity and wealth in the future.
  • Pongal
  • ​Pongal is a harvest festival celebrated by the Tamil community.
  • It is a celebration to thank the Sun, Mother Nature, and the various farm animals that help to contribute to a bountiful harvest.
  • Celebrated over four days, Pongal also marks the beginning of the Tamil month called Thai, which is considered an auspicious month.
  • It usually falls on the 14th or 15th of January each year.

Question 79

Who among the following is considered as the father of Plate Tectonics?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alfred Wegener

  2. BOption (b)

    James Rennell

  3. COption (c)

    Antoine Lavoisier

  4. DOption (d)

    Antonie Philips Van Leeuwenhoek

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Alfred Wegener

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alfred Wegener.

Key Points

  • Continental Drift Theory (Alfred Wegener).
  • Continental drift theory was proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912.
  • It was first put forward by Abraham Ortelius in 1596 before fully being developed by Albert Wegener.
  • The theory deals with the distribution of the oceans and the continents*.*
  • According to Wegener’s Continental Drift theory, all the continents were one single continental mass (called a Supercontinent) – Pangaea and a Mega Ocean surrounded this supercontinent. The Mega Ocean is known by the name Panthalassa.
  • Although Wegener's initial theory did not cover mantle convection until Arthur Holmes later proposed the theory.
  • According to this theory, the supercontinent, Pangaea, began to split some two hundred million years back.
  • Pangaea first split into 2 big continental masses known as Gondwanaland and Laurasia forming the southern and northern modules respectively.
  • Later, Gondwanaland and Laurasia continued to break into several smaller continents that exist today.

Additional Information

Theory hypothesisScientist/Philosopher
- Gaseous Hypothesis- Immanuel Kant
- Nebular hypothesis- Laplace
- Planetesimal Hypothesis- Chamberlin and Moulton
- Tidal Hypothesis- Jeans and Jefferys
- Binary star Hypothesis- Russell
- Supernova Hypothesis- Hoyle
- Interstellar Dust Hypothesis- Otto Schmidt
- Big bang theory- Georges Henri Lemaitre

Question 80

X and Y can complete a certain work in 45 days and 60 days, respectively. They started the work together but X left after some days and Y alone completed the remaining work in 39 days. For how many days did X work?

  1. AOption (a)

    9 days

  2. BOption (b)

    10 days

  3. COption (c)

    6 days

  4. DOption (d)

    8 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9 days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(45, 60) = 180 units.

Efficiency: X = 4, Y = 3.

Y worked alone for 39 days: Work done = 39 × 3 = 117 units.

Remaining work done by X and Y together = 180 − 117 = 63 units.

Number of days X worked = 63 ÷ (4 + 3) = 9 days.

∴ The correct answer is 9 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by X = 45 days

Time taken by Y = 60 days

Remaining work completed by Y alone = 39 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Time × Efficiency

PersonTimeWorkEfficiency
X451804
Y603

Calculations:

⇒ Total Work = LCM of 45 and 60 = 180 units

⇒ Efficiency of X = 180 ÷ 45 = 4 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Y = 180 ÷ 60 = 3 units/day

⇒ Combined Efficiency of X + Y = 4 + 3 = 7 units/day

⇒ Work done by Y in the last 39 days = 39 × 3 = 117 units

⇒ Work done by X and Y together = 180 − 117 = 63 units

⇒ Days they worked together = 63 ÷ 7 = 9 days

⇒ Since X left after they worked together, X worked for 9 days.

∴ The correct answer is 9 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task (Efficiency ∝ 1/Time).

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed among workers in the ratio of the total work actually performed by each.

Combined Work Rate

If person A takes x days and B takes y days, together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days to finish the work.

Question 81

When 6892, 7105 and 7531 are divided by the greatest number x, then the remainder in each case is the same. The sum of the digits of x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    13

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Numbers are 6892, 7105, 7531

Concept used:

For this type of question,

The divisor = HCF of the difference between the numbers from one another

Calculation:

7105 – 6892 = 213

7531 – 7105 = 426

7531 – 6892 = 639

HCF of 213, 426 and 639 is 213

So, x = 213

Now, dividing any of 6892, 7105, or 7531 by 213 we get the remainder = 76

Sum of the digits of x = 2 + 1 + 3

⇒ 6

∴ The sum of the digits of x is 6.

Question 82

According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey of India (2019-20), what is the literacy rate among the Scheduled Tribes Population of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    70.10%

  2. BOption (b)

    65.30%

  3. COption (c)

    57.40%

  4. DOption (d)

    83.28%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

70.10%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 70.10%.

Key Points

  • According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey of India (2019-20), the literacy rate among the Scheduled Tribes Population of India is 70.10%.

Important Points

  • Periodic Labour Force Survey of India (2019-20)
  • Improvements in living conditions of the Scheduled Tribes (STs).
  • The literacy rate for STs has improved from 47.1% in 2001 to 59% in 2011.
  • Further, the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) report (July 2019 - June 2020) reveals that the literacy rate for STs increased to 70.1%.
  • According to the Unified District Information System for Education (UDISE) Plus reports published by the Ministry of Education
  • Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for ST students at Senior Secondary (classes IX-X) level has increased from 62.4% in 2012-13 to 76.7% in 2019-20.
  • As per National Family Health Surveys (NFHS) conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare,
  • For Scheduled Tribes, Infant Mortality Rate has declined from 62.1 (2005-06) to 44.4 (2015-16).
  • Under Five Mortality Rate has declined from 95.7 (2005-06) to 57.2 (2015-16).
  • Institutional Delivery has increased from 17.7% in 2005-06 to 68.0 % in 2015-16.
  • The percentage of Underweight (weight-for-age) ST children under the age of five years have declined from 54.5 in 2005-06 to 45.3 in 2015-16.
  • Erstwhile Planning Commission estimated:
  • The percentage of ST people living below the poverty line in rural areas has declined from 62.3% in 2004-05 to 45.3% in 2011-12.
  • Also, the percentage of ST people living below the poverty line in urban areas has **declined from 35.5% in 2004-05 to 24.1% in 2011-12.**​

Additional Information

  • Considering the importance of the availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, 
  • the NSO launched the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in April 2017.
  • The objective of PLFS is :
  • To estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the CWS.
  • To estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both usual Status and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.

Question 83

The role of the preparation of the electoral rolls for all the elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President lies with the ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cabinet

  2. BOption (b)

    Finance Commission

  3. COption (c)

    Election Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    Planning Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Election Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Election Commission.

Key PointsElection Commission

  • On January 25, 1950, the Election Commission of India was constituted in accordance with the Constitution.
  • Election Commission of India:
  • The Election Commission of India is a permanent and autonomous body constituted by the Indian Constitution to ensure free and fair elections.
  • According to the Indian Constitution, the Election Commission of India (ECI) is a self-governing constitutional body that regulates the election process in India.
  • The Constitution of India (Article 324) has vested in the Election Commission of India the superintendence, direction, and control of the entire process for conduct of elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and the offices of President and Vice-President of India.
  • Initially, there was only one Chief Election Commissioner on the board. There are currently two Election Commissioners and a Chief Election Commissioner.

Additional Information

  • Cabinet
  • The total number of ministers in the Cabinet, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 75 1(A) states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People.
  • Also, all ministers must be members of Parliament.
  • Finance Commission
  • The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the center of fiscal federalism.
  • Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body.
  • It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
  • N.K. Singh is the chairman of the 15th Finance Commission of India.
  • Planning Commission ​
  • The Planning Commission, although no longer active (since it was replaced by the NITI Aayog), was an important feature of policymaking and governance in India.
  • The Planning Commission was reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India.
  • The Planning Commission was established in March 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India, on the recommendation of the Advisory Planning Board constituted in 1946, under the chairman of KC Neogi. Thus the Planning Commission was neither constitutional nor a statutory body. It was an advisory body.
  • It is a non-constitutional (not created by the Constitution) and a non-statutory body (not created by an act of Parliament).

Question 84

During lunch break, eight colleagues, namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing the centre at equal distances. B is an immediate neighbor of both G and D. C is an immediate neighbour of both A and G. H is third to the left of B. E is not an immediate neighbour of A. Who is third to the right of E?

  1. AOption (a)

    G

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

G

Why this answer is correct

Eight colleagues - namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing the centre at equal distances.

  1. B is an immediate neighbor of both G and D.

  2. C is an immediate neighbour of both A and G.

  3. H is third to the left of B.

The above condition cannot be satisfied in Case II, so it is eliminated.

  1. E is not an immediate neighbour of A.

So, E sits between H and D.

Only person F is left and F will occupy the vacant position.

The final arrangement will be as shown below:

Clearly, G is third to the right of E.

Hence, ‘G’ is the correct answer.

Question 85

In economics, what does 'Budget Surplus' mean?

  1. AOption (a)

    When the amount spent is equal to the revenue collected

  2. BOption (b)

    When the revenue collected is negligible as compared to the expenditure

  3. COption (c)

    When the revenue collected exceeds the required expenditure

  4. DOption (d)

    When the expenditure exceeds income

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

When the revenue collected exceeds the required expenditure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is When the revenue collected exceeds the required expenditure.

Key Points

  • A budget surplus occurs when receipts exceed expenditures.
  • The term often refers to a government's financial state, as individuals have "savings" rather than a "budget surplus".
  • A surplus is an indication that a government's finances are being effectively managed.
  • A surplus implies the government has extra funds.
  • Advantages of a budget surplus:
  • These funds can be allocated toward public debt, which reduces interest rates and helps the economy.
  • A budget surplus can be used to reduce taxes, start new programs, or fund existing programs such as Social Security or Medicare.
  • The government might use a budget surplus to cut taxes to stimulate the supply-side of the economy.

Question 86

Raju travels 150 km in 7.5 hours moving downstream. The speed of the stream is 5 km/h. Find the speed with which Raju should row the boat to reach back in the same time.

  1. AOption (a)

    18 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    7.5 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    10 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    25 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

25 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Distance = 150 km

Time = 7.5 hours

Speed of the stream = 5 km/h

Concept used:

Speed = Distance/time

Downstream = u + v

Upstream = u - v

u = speed of the boat in still water

v = speed of the stream

Calculation:

Downstream speed of the boat = 150/7.5

⇒ 20 km/h

Here,

u + v = 20

⇒ u + 5 = 20

⇒ u = 15

∴ speed of the boat in still water = 15 km/h

Now,

Raju needs to cover the same distance in 7.5 hours upstream

Upstream speed should be 20 km/h

∴ u - v = 20

⇒ u - 5 = 20

⇒ u = 25

The speed of the boat in still water should be 25 km/h

∴ Raju should row the boat at 25 km/h to reach back at the same time.

Question 87

The area of a rectangular field, whose sides are in the ratio 13 : 5, is 260 m². What is the perimeter of the rectangular field?

  1. AOption (a)

    70 m

  2. BOption (b)

    72 m

  3. COption (c)

    66 m

  4. DOption (d)

    68 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

72 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Side ratio of the rectangle = 13 : 5

Area of the rectangle = 260 m2

Formula used:

Area of the rectangle = (l × b)

Perimeter of the rectange = 2(l + b)

l = length

b = breadth

Calculation:

Let the sides of the rectangle be 13a and 5a

According to the question,

13a × 5a = 260

⇒ 65a2 = 260

⇒ a2 = 4

⇒ a = 2

So, sides are 13 × 2 = 26, and 5 × 2 = 10

Now,

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(26 + 10)

⇒ 2 × 36 = 72 

So, perimeter of the rectangle = 72 m

∴ The perimeter of the rectangular field is 72 m

Question 88

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

a) Some suitcases are pouches.

b) Some bags are purses.

c) All pouches are purses.

Conclusions:

I. Some suitcases are purses.

II. Some purses are bags.

III. All purses are pouches.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusions I and II follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    All the conclusions follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusions I and III follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusions II and III follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only conclusions I and II follow.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram is:          

Conclusions:

I. Some suitcases are purses. → True (As, Some suitcases are pouches and All pouches are purses → Some suitcases are purses)

II. Some purses are bags. → True (As, Some bags are purses → Some purses are bags)

III. All purses are pouches. → False (As, All pouches are purses → Some purses are pouches)

Hence, only conclusions I and II follow.

Question 89

The Congress Working Committee adopted the Quit India Resolution at _______ in July 1942.

  1. AOption (a)

    Madras

  2. BOption (b)

    Wardha

  3. COption (c)

    Patna

  4. DOption (d)

    Lucknow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Wardha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Wardha.

Key Points

  • On 14 July 1942, the Congress Working Committee met again at Wardha and resolved that it would authorize Gandhi to take charge of the non-violent mass movement.
  • The Resolution, generally referred to as the 'Quit India' resolution, was to be approved by the All India Congress Committee meeting in Bombay in August.​

Additional Information

  • Quit India Movement
  • On 8th Aug 1942, India completed 80 years of the Quit India Movement also known as August Kranti.
  • Taking inspiration from the Quit India Movement, the Prime Minister gave a call for the revival of its spirit of the Quit India Movement by coining a new slogan karenge aur karake rahenge in place of Gandhi’s slogan of karo ya maro (Do or Die).
  • This slogan aims to achieve the goal of building a “New India” by 2022.
  • On 8th August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi gave a clarion call to end the British rule and launched the Quit India Movement at the session of the All-India Congress Committee in Mumbai.
  • Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” in his speech delivered at the Gowalia Tank Maidan, now popularly known as August Kranti Maidan.
  • Aruna Asaf Ali popularly known as the 'Grand Old Lady' of the Independence Movement is known for hoisting the Indian flag at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai during the Quit India Movement.
  • The slogan ‘Quit India’ was coined by Yusuf Meherally, a socialist and trade unionist who also served as Mayor of Mumbai.
  • Meherally had also coined the slogan “Simon Go Back”.

Question 90

The Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme (CCIS) was started from 1985 with the objective of providing _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    financial support to the farmers for educating their children

  2. BOption (b)

    financial support to the farmers in the event of crop failure due to drought, flood etc

  3. COption (c)

    financial support to the farmers to purchase tractors and other implements

  4. DOption (d)

    financial support to the farmers to buy HYV seeds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

financial support to the farmers in the event of crop failure due to drought, flood etc

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is financial support to the farmers in the event of crop failure due to drought, flood, etc.

Key Points

  • Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme (CCIS)
  • Started in 1985 with the objective of providing financial support to the farmers in the event of crop failure due to drought, flood, etc.
  • Since the inception of the scheme in 1985, about 5.82 crore farmers have been covered up to Rabi 1996- 97 season.
  • Participation in the scheme was voluntary and the States were free to opt for the scheme.
  • All farmers who availed of crop loans from:
  • Commercial Banks.
  • Regional Rural Bank.
  • Cooperative Banks.
  • For growing wheat, paddy, millets (including maize), oilseeds, and pulses were eligible for coverage under the scheme.
  • CCIS remained under implementation till Kharif 1999.

Question 91

Khan lends an amount of ₹10,000 to Irfan at 10% per annum compound interest for 5 years, compounded annually. What is the compound interest accrued for the 4th year?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹1,762

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1,331

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,745

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹1,540

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹1,331

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sum = Rs. 10000

Rate of interest = 10%

Time = 5 years

Concept used:

Amount = P(1 + r/100)t

Here,

P = Principal or sum

r = rate%

t = time

Interest = Amount - P

Calculation:

Interest for the 4th year = Amount of 4 years - Amount of 3 years

So,

10000(1 + 10/100)4 - 10000(1 + 10/100)3

⇒ 10000(1 + 1/10)4 - 10000(1 + 1/10)3

⇒ 10000(11/10)4 - 10000(11/10)3

⇒ 10000 × 14641/10000 - 10000 × 1331/1000

⇒ 14641 - 13310

⇒ 1331

So, the interest of the 4th year = Rs. 1331

∴ The compound interest accrued for the 4th year is Rs. 1331.

Question 92

Study the following arrangement of numbers and symbols and answer the question that follows:

(all numbers are single digit numbers only)

3 7 # 8 5 % 9 2 3 * 1 0 1 % 6 3 ? 9 3 5 ^ 2 7 & 3 5 4 @ 4 1 7

How many such even numbers are there in this arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given: 3 7 # 8 5 % 9 2 3 * 1 0 1 % 6 3 ? 9 3 5 ^ 2 7 & 3 5 4 @ 4 1 7

Arrangement: Symbol → Even Number

3 7 # 8 5 % 9 2 3 * 1 0 1 % 6 3 ? 9 3 5 ^ 2 7 & 3 5 4 @ 4 1 7

Clearly, four such even numbers are there in this arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol.

Hence, ‘4’ is the correct answer.

Mistake Points

Immediately preceded by means immediately before or to come just before.

Immediately followed by means immediately after or to come just after.

Question 93

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully, and decide which of the given conclusions follow(s) based on the given statements.

Statements:

A > B ≤ C

P < Q ≥ A

Conclusions:

I. B ≤ P

II. C < Q

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Both the conclusions follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Why this answer is correct

Statements:

A > B ≤ C

P < Q ≥ A

Combining both the statements together, we get:

P < Q ≥ A > B ≤ C

Conclusions:

I. B ≤ P → False (As, P < Q ≥ A > B ≤ C → There is no definite relation between B and P)

II. C < Q → False (As, P < Q ≥ A > B ≤ C → There is no definite relation between C and Q) 

Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Question 94

There are six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F. A, B, C and F are male and other two are female. The height of A is 5.2 feet, B is 5.7 feet, C is 5.9 feet, D is 5.4 feet, E is 6.0 feet and F is 6.1 feet. Out of these all, A, B, C and E like sugar, and D and F like salt. Persons who have a height of more than 5.5 feet wear black, and others wear white.

Who among these is the sugar-loving male who does NOT wear black?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A

Why this answer is correct

Six persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. A, B, C and F are male and other two are female.

The height of A is 5.2 feet, B is 5.7 feet, C is 5.9 feet, D is 5.4 feet, E is 6.0 feet and F is 6.1 feet.

Out of these all, A, B, C and E like sugar, and D and F like salt.

Persons who have a height of more than 5.5 feet wear black, and others wear white.

PersonsMale/FemaleHeight in feetSugar/SaltColor
AMale5.2SugarWhite
BMale5.7SugarBlack
CMale5.9SugarBlack
DFemale5.4SaltWhite
EFemale6.0SugarBlack
FMale6.1SaltBlack

Clearly, A is the sugar-loving male who does NOT wear black.

Hence, ‘A’ is the correct answer.

Question 95

Which politician was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award 2021 for 'Mirjafar O Anyanya Natak"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agnimitra Paul

  2. BOption (b)

    Bratya Basu

  3. COption (c)

    Abhishek Banerjee

  4. DOption (d)

    Tapas Mandal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bratya Basu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bratya Basu.

Key Points

  • The Sahitya Akademi Award 2021 will be bestowed on Bratya Basu in the genre of Play.
  • He has got this recognition for his book 'Mirjafar o Onyanyo Natok'.
  • Bratya Basu is a politician who is serving as the current Education Minister of West Bengal since 2021.
  • He was also present in the same office in the First Mamata Banerjee ministry.
  • His constituency is Dum Dum since 2011.
  • He has won many awards like - Satyen Mitra Puraskar, Banglar Gourab by Zee, Prachya Samman, etc.

Additional Information

  • Sahitya Akademi Award
  • Sahitya Akademi Award is given in the field of Literature.
  • This award is given annually by Sahitya Akademi (India's National Academy of Letters), New Delhi.
  • It is given in 24 languages including Hindi and English.
  • The award comprises a plaque and a cash prize of ₹ 1,00,000.
  • The award's purpose is to recognize and promote excellence in Indian writing and also acknowledge new trends.
  • Makhanlal Chaturvedi was the first recipient in the Hindi category in the year 1955.
  • RK Narayan was the first recipient in the English category in the year 1960.

Question 96

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the equation correct?

12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

  1. AOption (a)

    × and +

  2. BOption (b)

    ÷ and +

  3. COption (c)
    • and -
  4. DOption (d)

    × and ÷

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

× and ÷

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Rule:-

  1. × and +

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 + 3 ÷ 4 × 6 - 2

= 12 + 4.5 – 2

= 16.5 – 2

= 14.5 ≠ R.H.S

  1. ÷ and +

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 × 3 + 4 ÷ 6 - 2

= 36 + 0.67 – 2

= 36.67 – 2

= 34.67 ≠ R.H.S

    • and –

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 × 3 ÷ 4 - 6 + 2

= 9 – 6 + 2

= 11 – 6

= 5 ≠ R.H.S

  1. × and ÷

Given equation: 12 × 3 ÷ 4 + 6 - 2 = 20

After interchanging the signs, we get:

L.H.S = 12 ÷ 3 × 4 + 6 - 2

= 16 + 6 – 2

= 22 – 2

= 20 = R.H.S

Hence, ‘× and ÷’ is the correct answer.

Question 97

What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹19,500 invested for 1251\frac{2}{5} years at 10% p.a., interest compounded annually?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,608

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2,480

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2,808

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹2,880

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹2,808

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sum = Rs. 19500

Rate = 10%

Time =  1251\frac{2}{5} years

Concept used:

A = P(1 + r/100)n

Interest = A - P

A = amount

P = principal or sum

r = rate

n = time

Calculation:

Interest rate for 2/5 years = 10 × (2/5) = 4%

Now,

A = 19500(1 + 10/100)1 × (1 + 10/100)2/5

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 10/100) × (1 + 4/100)

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 1/10) × (1 + 1/25)

⇒ A = 19500(11/10) × (26/25)

⇒ A = 22308

So, interest of the given years = 22308 - 19500

⇒ Rs. 2808

∴ Required compound interest is Rs. 2808.

Question 98

Avinash is ranked 11th from the top in the class and Ira is ranked 7th from the bottom. If their positions get interchanged, Avinash will rank 15th from the top and Ira is ranked 11th from the bottom. How many total students appeared for the exam?

  1. AOption (a)

    23

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    21

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

21

Why this answer is correct

Given:

  1. Avinash is ranked 11th from the top in the class.
  2. Ira is ranked 7th from the bottom.

If their positions get interchanged, Avinash will rank 15th from the top and Ira is ranked 11th from the bottom.

Total students appeared for the exams :

Ira's rank from the bottom + After interchanged position Avinash's rank from the top (Ira's rank from the top) - 1

= 7 + 15 - 1 = 22 -1 = 21

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3): 21".

Question 99

The value of (1131\frac{1}{3} × 1451\frac{4}{5} ÷ 35\frac{3}{5}) × 38\frac{3}{8} - 23\frac{2}{3} is:

  1. AOption (a)

    32\frac{3}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    14\frac{1}{4}

  3. COption (c)

    56\frac{5}{6}

  4. DOption (d)

    72\frac{7}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

56\frac{5}{6}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(1131\frac{1}{3} × 1451\frac{4}{5} ÷ 35\frac{3}{5}) × 38\frac{3}{8} - 23\frac{2}{3}

Concept used:

Calculation:

(1131\frac{1}{3} × 1451\frac{4}{5} ÷ 35\frac{3}{5}) × 38\frac{3}{8} - 23\frac{2}{3}

⇒ (43\frac{4}{3} × 95\frac{9}{5} × 53\frac{5}{3}) × 38\frac{3}{8} - 23\frac{2}{3}

⇒ 4 × 38\frac{3}{8} - 23\frac{2}{3}

⇒ 32\frac{3}{2} - 23\frac{2}{3}

⇒ 9;−;46\frac{9 ;- ;4}{6}

⇒ 56\frac{5}{6}

∴ Required answer is 56\frac{5}{6}.

Question 100

According to the Industrial Policy Statement of 1973, the private sector was allowed to apply for the license of their industry only after having a total assets of ₹ ______ or more.

  1. AOption (a)

    2 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    20 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    2 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    20 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

20 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 20 crores.

Key Points

  • According to the Industrial Policy Statement of 1973:
  • **the private sector was allowed to apply for the license of their industry only after having total assets of Rs. 20 crores or more.**​

Important Points

  • Industrial Policy Statement, 1973
  • Core Industries
  • The policy introduced a new classification of ‘Core Industries’.
  • It included six industries that were of fundamental importance for developing other industries –  Iron & Steel, Cement, Coal, Crude Oil, Oil Refining & electricity.
  • Note: At that time, there were 6 Core Industries. Now there are 8:
  • Coal
  • Crude Oil
  • Cement
  • Fertilizer
  • Electricity
  • Refinery Products
  • Natural Gas
  • Steel

Additional Information

  • Private Companies
  • Private Companies may apply for licenses under Core industries if they aren’t covered under Schedule A.
  • They were eligible only if their total assets were above Rs. 20 crores.
  • Reserved List
  • Some industries were put under a reserved list in which only MSME could set up industry.
  • Joint Sector
  • It allowed partnership between the centre, states & private sector for setting up some industries.
  • The government had discretionary power to exit such ventures in the future.
  • The intention was to promote the private sector with government support.
  • FERA
  • Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was introduced to regulate foreign exchange in India.
  • According to experts, it was draconian law that hampered the country’s growth.
  • Foreign Investment
  • Limited permission for foreign investment was given, with MNCs being allowed to set up subsidiaries in India.

Question 101

First four terms of a series are 4, 12, 36, 108. What will be the 6th term of this series?

  1. AOption (a)

    624

  2. BOption (b)

    2916

  3. COption (c)

    324

  4. DOption (d)

    972

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

972

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the constant multiplier ratio in the series pattern directly.

Each term is multiplied by 3 (4 × 3 = 12, 12 × 3 = 36).

We already have the 4th term which is 108.

5th term = 108 × 3 = 324

6th term = 324 × 3 = 972

∴ The correct answer is 972.

Alternate Method

Given:

The number series: 4, 12, 36, 108...

Formula Used:

Nth term of a Geometric Progression = a × r(n − 1)

4

×3 →

12

×3 →

36

×3 →

108

×3 →

324

×3 →

972

The series is a geometric progression where every next term is exactly 3 times the previous term.

Calculations:

⇒ First term (a) = 4

⇒ Common ratio (r) = 12 ÷ 4 = 3

⇒ We need to find the 6th term, so n = 6

⇒ 6th term = a × r(6 − 1)

⇒ 6th term = 4 × 35

⇒ 6th term = 4 × (3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3)

⇒ 6th term = 4 × 243

⇒ 6th term = 972

∴ The correct answer is 972.

Additional Information

Geometric Progression (GP)

A sequence of numbers where each term after the first is found by multiplying the previous one by a fixed, non-zero number called the common ratio (r). The formula for finding the nth term is Tn = a × rn−1.

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

A sequence of numbers in which the difference between any two successive members is a constant. The formula for the nth term is Tn = a + (n − 1)d.

Number Series Patterns

Common patterns in examination series questions include constant difference, constant ratio (multiplication/division), squares, cubes, alternate sequences, and combined arithmetic operations.

Question 102

Select the number from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given series.

0,7, 26, 63, 124, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    214

  2. BOption (b)

    212

  3. COption (c)

    213

  4. DOption (d)

    215

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

215

Why this answer is correct

The logic is:

13 - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0

23 - 1 = 8 - 1 = 7

33 - 1 = 27 - 1 = 26

43 - 1 = 64 - 1 = 63

53 - 1 = 125 - 1 = 124

63 - 1 = 216 - 1 = 215

Hence, ‘215’ is the correct answer.

Question 103

If 64−643=y4\sqrt {64} - \sqrt[3]{{64}} = \sqrt[4]{y} , where y > 0, then the value of y is:

  1. AOption (a)

    256

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    625

  4. DOption (d)

    81

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

256

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

64−643=y4\sqrt {64} - \sqrt[3]{{64}} = \sqrt[4]{y}

⇒ 82−433=y4\sqrt {8^2} - \sqrt[3]{{4^3}} = \sqrt[4]{y}

⇒ 8−4=y48 - 4 = \sqrt[4]{y}

⇒ 4=y44 = \sqrt[4]{y}

⇒ 4=y144 = {y}^\frac{1}{4}

⇒ y = 44 = 256

∴ Required answer is 256.

Question 104

Which of the following river basins is the most populated in the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ganga

  2. BOption (b)

    Nile

  3. COption (c)

    Mississippi

  4. DOption (d)

    Amazon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ganga

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ganga.

Key Points

  • The Ganga System
  • The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and cultural significance.
  • It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi.
  • It cuts through the Central and the Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges.
  • At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga.
  • The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath.
  • The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag.
  • The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
  • The Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar. From here, it flows first to the south, then to the south-east and east before splitting into two distributaries, namely the Bhagirathi and the Padma.
  • The river has a length of 2,525 km.
  • It is shared by Uttarakhand (110 km) and Uttar Pradesh (1,450 km), Bihar (445 km) and West Bengal (520 km).

Additional Information

  • Nile
  • ​The Nile is the longest river in the world and is called the father of African rivers.
  • It rises south of the Equator and flows northward through northeastern Africa to drain into the Mediterranean Sea.
  • Drainage countries - Parts of Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Uganda, South Sudan, Ethiopia, Sudan, and the cultivated part of Egypt.
  • Lake Victoria, also called Victoria Nyanza, the largest lake in Africa and the chief reservoir of the Nile, lying mainly in Tanzania and Uganda but bordering on Kenya.
  • Mississippi
  • ​The Mississippi River is the 2nd longest river in North America.
  • Its source at Lake Itasca through the centre of the continental United States to the Gulf of Mexico.
  • The Missouri River is a tributary of the Mississippi River.
  • The Mississippi-Missouri River (5,970km), combination ranks 4th compared to other rivers of the World.
  • Amazon
  • It is the largest river by discharge volume of water in the world.
  • The Amazon river originates in the Andes Mountains of Peru.
  • It flows through the countries of Peru, Bolivia, Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, and Brazil.
  • Amazon river discharges its water into the Atlantic Ocean.
  • There are no bridges across the entire width of the Amazon river.

​

Question 105

Determine the number of months required to get ₹25.5 as simple interest on ₹850 at 3.6% per annum.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 months

  2. BOption (b)

    9 months

  3. COption (c)

    8 months

  4. DOption (d)

    11 months

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10 months

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sum = Rs. 850

Rate = 3.6%

Interest = 25.5

Concept used:

S.I = PTR/100

P = Principal or sum

R = rate

T = time

Calculation:

Let the time be a months

According to the question,

25.5 = [(850 × 3.6 × a)/(100 × 12)]

⇒ 25.5 = 2.55a

⇒ a = 25.5/2.55

⇒ a = 10

So, the actual time needs to get the interest = 10 months

∴ Required time to get the required interest is 10 months.

Question 106

Six boxes, M, N, O, P, Q and R, are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. There is only one box between box N and box R. Box Q is immediately below box N. There are only two boxes between box Q and box M. There is no box above box P. Box R is third from the bottom. Which box is third from the top?

  1. AOption (a)

    Q

  2. BOption (b)

    O

  3. COption (c)

    N

  4. DOption (d)

    R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Q

Why this answer is correct

Six boxes - M, N, O, P, Q and R, are kept one above the other but not necessarily in the same order.

  1. There is no box above box P.
  2. Box R is third from the bottom.
P
R
  1. There is only one box between box N and box R.
Case ICase II
PP
N
RR
N
  1. Box Q is immediately below box N.

The above condition cannot be satisfied in Case II, so it is eliminated.

Case I
P
N
Q
R
  1. There are only two boxes between box Q and box M.
Case I
P
N
Q
R
M

Only one box O is left and it will occupy the vacant position.

So, the final arrangement is shown below:

Case I
P
N
Q
R
O
M

Clearly, box Q is third from the top.

Hence, ‘Q’ is the correct answer.

Question 107

Which of the following mountain ranges is considered as the boundary between Asia and Europe?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alps

  2. BOption (b)

    The Great Dividing Range

  3. COption (c)

    Atlas

  4. DOption (d)

    Urals

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Urals

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Urals.

Key Points

  • Urals
  • The Urals or the Ural mountain forms a boundary between the continents of Europe and Asia.
  • It runs from north to south of Western Russia, from the coast of the Arctic Ocean to the river of Ural and northwestern Kazakhstan.
  • The length of the Urals is 2500 km and the elevation is 1895 m.
  • Asia is the largest continent. It covers about one-third of the total land area of the earth.
  • The continent lies in the Eastern Hemisphere.
  • The Tropic of Cancer passes through this continent.
  • Asia is separated from Europe by the Ural mountains on the west.​

Additional Information

Alp

  • The Alps are the highest and most extensive mountain range system that are located in Europe.
  • The mountain stretches approximately 1,200 kilometers across eight Alpine countries, namely: France, Switzerland, Italy, Monaco, Liechtenstein, Austria, Germany, and Slovenia.

The Great Dividing Range

  • The Great Dividing Range is located in Australia.
  • Its highest peak is Mount Kosciuszko, it is a Snowy Mountains which is 2800 meter high from the mainland of Australia.
  • The mountain range stretches up to 3500 km from North to South.

​Atlas

  • The Atlas Mountains, series of mountain ranges in northwestern Africa for more than 2,000 kilometres.
  • The highest peak in the Atlas Mountain ranges is Mt.Toubkal (4165 meters).

Question 108

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table; four of them sit at the 4 corners, while four sit at the middle of the sides. The ones who sit at the corners face the centre, while those who sit at the middle of the sides face outside. F sits fourth to the left of D. D faces outside.

C is immediate to the right of F. A sits third to the right of the H. Only two persons sit between G and B. E is to the immediate right of B and to the immediate left of F. H sits second to the right of the E. What is the position of A with respect to D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fourth to the right

  2. BOption (b)

    Second to the left

  3. COption (c)

    Third to the left

  4. DOption (d)

    Third to the right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Second to the left

Why this answer is correct

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table; four of them sit at the 4 corners, while four sit at the middle of the sides. The ones who sit at the corners face the centre, while those who sit at the middle of the sides face outside.

  1. F sits fourth to the left of D. D faces outside.
  2. C is immediate to the right of F.

3. E is to the immediate right of B and to the immediate left of F.

4. H sits second to the right of the E. 

 

  1. A sits third to the right of the H.
  2. Only two persons sit between G and B. 

Clearly, A is second to the left of D.

Hence, 'Second to the left' is the correct answer.

Question 109

Assuming 8th March 2013 was a Wednesday, what day of the week was 8th March 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tuesday

  2. BOption (b)

    Monday

  3. COption (c)

    Thursday

  4. DOption (d)

    Wednesday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Thursday

Why this answer is correct

The total number of odd days from 8th March 2013 to 8th March 2014 are

YearTypeOdd Days
2014Ordinary1

Total Odd days = 1

Given:

8th March 2013 → Wednesday

2014 is an ordinary year, so 8th March 2014 will be one day ahead of 8th March 2013.

Therefore, it will be Thursday on 8th March 2014.

Hence, ‘Thursday’ is the correct answer.

Question 110

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(1) from the statements

Statements:

a) Some sketch pens are ink pens

b) Some pencils are markers

c) All ink pens are markers

Conclusions:

I. Some markers are sketch pens

II. Some sketch pens are pencils

III. Some markers are ink pens

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusions II and III follow.

  2. BOption (b)

    All the conclusions follow.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusions I and II follow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusions I and III follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only conclusions I and III follow.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram is: 

Conclusions:

I. Some markers are sketch pens → True (As, Some sketch pens are ink pens and All ink pens are markers → Some markers are sketch pens)

II. Some sketch pens are pencils → False (As, there is no definite relation between sketch pens are pencils. Hence, false)

III. Some markers are ink pens → True (All ink pens are markers → Some markers are ink pens)

Hence, only conclusions I and III follow.

Question 111

Who among the following has been honoured with Sports Journalists Federation of India (SJFT) Sportswoman of the year 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saina Nehwal

  2. BOption (b)

    Pusarla Venkata Sindhu

  3. COption (c)

    Mirabai Chanu

  4. DOption (d)

    Lovlina Borgohain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mirabai Chanu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mirabai Chanu.

Key Points

  • Mira bai Chanu is also known as "Saikhom Mirabai Chanu" won the gold medal in 2017 at the World Weightlifting Championships in Anaheim (United States of America).
  • She won the Gold medal in the Women's 48kg category.
  • Mirabai Chanu was awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2018.
  • She was also honoured with Padam Shri in 2018.

Additional Information

  • Sports Journalists Federation of India
  • It was on 27 February 1976 that the Sports Journalists’ Federation of India (SJFI) was formed at the Eden Gardens, Calcutta, during the inaugural year of the J.K. Bose Cricket Tournament.
  • The cream of sports scribes from Delhi, Calcutta and Bombay were involved in forming the federation.
  • The Sports Journalists Federation of India (SJFI) has decided to confer the prestigious 'SJFI Medal' to legendary cricketer Sunil Gavaskar.
  • Neeraj Chopra was adjudged the SJFI Sportsman of the Year while weightlifter Mirabai Chanu was voted as the Sportswoman of the Year.
  • The Indian men's team that won the hockey bronze in Tokyo was declared the Team of the Year.
  • The body took the decision at its Annual General Meeting (AGM) in Guwahati.
  • The AGM also elected A Vinod as the new SJFI President, Prashant Keni as the Secretary, and Vidyut Kalita as the Treasurer.

Question 112

The Parliament of India comprises of:

  1. AOption (a)

    President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

  2. BOption (b)

    Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    President, Attorney General for India, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

  4. DOption (d)

    Prime Minister, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

  • Article- 79: There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.

Additional Information

  • Indian Parliament: 
  • Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India.
  • The Indian Parliament comprises the President and the two Houses - Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People).
  • The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
  • The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.
  • The first general elections under the new Constitution were held during the year 1951-52 and the first elected Parliament came into existence in April 1952.

Question 113

Which of the following was the leading oil producing country in the world for the year 2020, according to US Energy Information Administration?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Saudi Arabia

  3. COption (c)

    Qatar

  4. DOption (d)

    UAE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

USA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is USA.

Key Points

  • According to US Energy Information Administration, the USA is the leading oil-producing country in the world for the year 2020.
  • The 10 largest oil producers and share of total world oil production in 2020-21.
CountryMillion barrels per dayShare of the world's total consumption
United States18.8820%
Saudi Arabia10.8411%
Russia10.7811%
Canada5.546%
China4.995%
Iraq4.154%
United Arab Emirates3.794%
Brazil3.694%
Iran3.464%
Kuwait2.723%
Total top 1068.8272%

Additional InformationThe 10 largest oil consumers and share of total world oil consumption in 2020-21.

CountryMillion barrels per dayShare of the world's total
United States20.5420%
China14.0114%
India4.925%
Japan3.744%
Russia3.704%
Saudi Arabia3.183%
Brazil3.143%
Canada2.633%
South Korea2.603%
Germany2.352%
Total top 1060.8161%

Question 114

Phumdis, the floating islands are the unique features of which of the following lakes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chilika Lake

  2. BOption (b)

    Sambhar Lake

  3. COption (c)

    Loktak Lake

  4. DOption (d)

    Pangong Lake

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Loktak Lake

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Loktak Lake.

Key Points

  • Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in North-eastern region of the country.
  • It is famous for Phumdis.
  • It is located in Manipur.
  • Keibul Lamjao is the only floating national park in the world floats over it.
  • Area: 266 square kilometre.
  • Two wetlands of India are in Montreux Record: Keoladeo National Park(Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake(Manipur).
  • Montreux Record is also maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
  • It is under the Ramsar Convention is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance.

Additional Information

Chilika Lake

  • Chilika is Asia’s largest and world’s second-largest lagoon.
  • It spreads over Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha on the east coast of India, at the mouth of the Daya River.
  • It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian subcontinent.
  • In 1981, it was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
  • Nalbana Bird Sanctuary or Nalbana Island is the core area of the Chilika Lake.

Sambhar Lake

  • Sambhar Salt Lake, an ephemeral salt lake, the largest lake in India, is situated in east-central Rajasthan state, west of Jaipur.
  • It represents a depression of the Aravalli Range with 230 square km in area.
  • It is also known as the salt lake of Rajasthan.

Pangong Lake

  • Pangong Tso Lake located in Ladakh Union territory is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas situated at a height of about 4,350 m.
  • It is geographically situated in a disputed territory, claimed both by India and China.
  • This lake is about 5 km wide and about 134 km long with about 60% of the length extending into Tibet.
  • Pangong Lake in Kashmir is the world's highest brackish lake at 4,350 m above sea level.

Question 115

Which of the following dietary components per gram provides the highest energy in humans?

  1. AOption (a)

    Roughage

  2. BOption (b)

    Protein

  3. COption (c)

    Fat

  4. DOption (d)

    Carbohydrate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fat.

Key Points

  • Fats are the slowest source of energy but the most energy-efficient form of food.
  • Each gram of fat supplies the body with about 9 calories, more than twice that supplied by proteins or carbohydrates.
  • Because fats are such an efficient form of energy, the body stores any excess energy as fat.
  • Fats form the most concentrated source of energy in our diet.
  • 1 gram of fat yields 9.5 kcal of energy which is the highest among the food components.
  • 1 gram of carbohydrates and proteins yield an almost similar amount of energy which is equal to 4 kcal.

Additional Information

  • Fats and ethanol have the greatest amount of food energy per mass, 37 and 29 kJ/g (8.8 and 6.9 kcal/g), respectively.
  • Proteins and most carbohydrates have about 17 kJ/g (4.1 kcal/g).

Question 116

Which of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thermometer

  2. BOption (b)

    Odometer

  3. COption (c)

    Tetrameter

  4. DOption (d)

    Barometer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Barometer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Barometer.

Key Points

  • Barometer
  • A barometer is a scientific instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure, also called barometric pressure.
  • The mercury barometer is the oldest type of barometer, invented by the Italian physicist Evangelista Torricelli in 1643.
  • Torricelli conducted his first barometric experiments using a tube of water.
  • Water is relatively light in weight, so a very tall tube with a large amount of water had to be used in order to compensate for the heavier weight of atmospheric pressure.

Atmospheric Pressure:

  • The pressure of the atmosphere at any point is equal to the weight of a column of air of unit cross-sectional area extending from that point to the top of the atmosphere.
  • At sea level the atmospheric pressure is given as,

⇒ Pa = 1.013×105 Pa = 1.013 bar

⇒ 1 bar = 105 Pa

EXPLANATION:

  • Italian scientist Evangelista Torricelli (1608-1647) devised for the first time a method for measuring atmospheric pressure.
  • A long glass tube closed at one end and filled with mercury is inverted into a trough of mercury as shown in the figure.
  • This device is known as a ‘mercury barometer’.
  • In the experiment it is found that the mercury column in the barometer has a height of about 76 cm at sea level equivalent to one atmosphere (1 atm).

Additional Information

  • Thermometer
  • Mercury has been frequently used in thermometers because it remains in liquid form throughout a wide range of temperatures i.e -37.89 degrees Fahrenheit to 674.06 degrees Fahrenheit.
  • A thermometer with alcohol is used to measure low temperature because its freezing point is low i.e -1170C.
  • The thermometer with mercury can not be used to measure the very low temperature because its freezing point is high i.e -400C.
  • Odometer
  • An odometer is a device that is used for measuring the distance travelled by a vehicle.
  • The odometer is usually situated in the vehicle's dashboard.
  • Blaise Pascal invented the first modern prototype of an odometer in the 17th century.

Question 117

Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related with the Executive powers of the Union?

  1. AOption (a)

    53

  2. BOption (b)

    51

  3. COption (c)

    57

  4. DOption (d)

    55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

53

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 53.

Key Points Article 53: Executive Power of the Union

  • The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
  • Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union Shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.
  • Nothing in this article shall –
  • be deemed to transfer to the President any functions conferred by any existing law on the Government of any State or other authority; or
  • prevent Parliament from conferring by law functions on authorities other than the President.

Thus, we can conclude that under Article 53 of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the union is vested in the President.

Additional Information

ArticlesDetails
51The State shall endeavour to Promotion of international peace and security
57Eligibility for re election A person who holds, or who has held, office as President
55Manner of Election of President

Question 118

Which government has become the world's first government to turn 100% paperless?

  1. AOption (a)

    Moscow

  2. BOption (b)

    Berlin

  3. COption (c)

    New York

  4. DOption (d)

    Dubai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dubai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dubai.

Key Points

  • Dubai has become the first government in the world to turn 100 per cent paperless.
  • This was announced by Emirate's Crown Prince Sheikh Hamdan bin Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum.
  • The emirate has achieved the objectives of the ‘Dubai Paperless Strategy, which was launched in 2018.
  • The strategy was implemented in five consecutive phases.

Additional Information

CountryCapitalCurrency
RussiaMoscowRuble
GermanyBerlinEuro
USAWashington DCDollar

Question 119

At the same time A and B start moving towards each other from two different places, 240 km apart. The ratio of the speeds of A and B is 5 : 7, and the speed of B is 84 km/h. After how many minutes will A and B meet each other?

  1. AOption (a)

    80 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    100 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    120 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    90 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

100 minutes

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of speeds A : B = 5 : 7

Given speed of B = 84 km/h ⇒ 7 units = 84 ⇒ 1 unit = 12 km/h

Total speed (Relative) = (5 + 7) units = 12 × 12 = 144 km/h

Time = (Distance ÷ Relative Speed) × 60 = (240 ÷ 144) × 60 = 100 min

∴ The correct answer is 100 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Distance = 240 km, Speed Ratio (A:B) = 5 : 7, Speed of B = 84 km/h.

Formula Used: Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed; 1 hour = 60 minutes.

⇒ Speed of B = 84 km/h

⇒ Ratio A : B = 5 : 7

⇒ Speed of A = (84 ÷ 7) × 5 = 12 × 5 = 60 km/h

⇒ Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = Speed of A + Speed of B

⇒ Relative Speed = 60 + 84 = 144 km/h

⇒ Time to meet (in hours) = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

⇒ Time = 240 ÷ 144 = 5/3 hours

⇒ Time in minutes = (5 ÷ 3) × 60

⇒ Time = 5 × 20 = 100 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 100 min.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Opposite Direction

When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: Srel = S1 + S2.

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their speeds: Srel = |S1 − S2|.

Meeting Time Formula

Time taken to meet = (Initial distance between them) ÷ (Relative Speed).

Question 120

Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.A newspaper decided to bring out its golden jubilee issue of 60 pages. The proportion of different types of coverage in this issue was decided in advance and is given in the pie chart.

<br>

How many pages were dedicated to sports and editorial coverage?

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    20

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

21

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total number of pages = 60

Number of pages for sports = 60 × 28%

⇒ 16.8 pages

Number of pages for editorial = 60 × 7%

⇒ 4.2 pages

So, total pages in both = 16.8 + 4.2

⇒ 21

∴ Required answer is 21.

120 questions in the full paper