DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 25 Feb, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given series: (Left) 1 4 7 4 4 9 6 6 4 4 7 1 2 3 6 5 6 9 (Right)

Here, we look for the pattern: Odd number — Even number — Even number

Now,

(Left) 1 4 7 4 4 9 6 6 4 4 7 1 2 3 6 5 6 9 (Right)

So, valid occurrences = 2

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

A, D, F, G, H and S live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. F lives on an odd numbered floor but not 5.
2. The sum of floors on which F and G live is 5.
3. Only 3 people live between G and A.
4. S lives immediately above D. 

Final Arrangement:

1 person lives above S.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: (Left) δ Z K X D R P & Y £ N A T £ D % V O ξ ψ P (Right)

Condition required: Symbol - Symbol - Letter.

(Left) δ Z K X D R P & Y £ N A T £ D % V O ξ ψ P (Right)

Thus, one symbol satisfies the condition.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Statement:

W > X > Y < Z = D

Conclusions:

I. W < Z → False (From the statement, W > X > Y and Z > Y. There is no definite relationship established between W and Z.)

II. D > Y → True (Since Z = D and Z > Y, therefore D > Y.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) C T R B Y A Q F H G Z M U E S D I W X K O (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Consonant → Consonant

Checking the series:

(Left) C T R B Y A Q F H G Z M U E S D I W X K O (Right)

Thus, there are 8 such consonants.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given: (Left) D R % Y & £ A ξ K $ Z Q & P Z £ D F δ # Ω (Right)

Now,

First, remove all the letters: D, R, Y, A, K, Z, Q, P, Z, D, F

The new series becomes: % & £ ξ $ & £ δ # Ω

Now, count the 6^th symbol from the right end: Ω, #, δ, £, &, $

Thus, the 6^th symbol from the right end is $.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

A, B, C, D and E are five friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. D is sitting second to the right of C.
2. B is sitting second to the right of D.
3. E sits second to the right of B. 

A is third to the right of C.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘flowers spread fragrance’ → ‘bi ta lu’

‘lavender good fragrance’ → ‘bi cy hd’

Therefore, fragrance → bi

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: D % G S # H @ O

It means: D is the father of G, G is the wife of S, S is the brother of H, and H is the daughter of O.

D is related to O as Son's wife's father.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: P ÷ Q + R − S

It means: P is the father of Q, Q is the mother of R, and R is the brother of S.

P is related to S as Mother's Father.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing the north.

1. F is immediately adjacent to D and E.
2. A is second to the left of B.
3. B is at one of the extreme ends. 

F is sitting second from the left end.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Six boxes F, G, H, I, Q, and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. No box is kept below R.
2. Only two boxes are kept between H and R.
3. Only I is kept above Q.
4. F is kept at some place above G. 

The final arrangement of the boxes from top to bottom is:

Three boxes are kept between G and I.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statements:

All Palladium are Gallium.

Some Gallium are Zinc.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Palladium are Zinc → Does not follow (There is no direct relation between Palladium and Zinc, so it is possible but not definite.)

II. No Zinc are Palladium → Does not follow (While they do not overlap in the least possible diagram, there is no negative statement restricting Zinc from being Palladium.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

Total number of students in the row = 32

Samir is 16^th from the left end.

Daniel is 10^th to the right of Samir.

Therefore, Daniel's position from the left end = 16 + 10

= 26^th

The formula for finding rank from the right is:

Rank from Right = Total Students - Rank from Left + 1

Daniel's position from the right end = 32 - 26 + 1

= 6 + 1

= 7^th

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Original Word: FASHION

Comparison of Original and Rearranged Word:

By comparing the Original Letter row with the Reverse Sorted Letter row, we can see that:

1. F → S (Changed)
2. A → O (Changed)
3. S → N (Changed)
4. H → I (Changed)
5. I → H (Changed)
6. O → F (Changed)
7. N → A (Changed)

Therefore, the positions of None of the letters remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

A, B, C, R, S and T live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. S lives on floor numbered 1.
2. Only two people live between A and S.
3. Only C lives between A and B.
4. R lives immediately below A. 

The final floor arrangement is:

Four people live above T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Original Word: OBJECTS

Now, let us compare the letters at each position:

1. O → B (Position changed)
2. B → C (Position changed)
3. J → E (Position changed)
4. E → J (Position changed)
5. C → O (Position changed)
6. T → S (Position changed)
7. S → T (Position changed)

The pattern observed is that no letter remains in its original position after the rearrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘dreams inspire minds’ → ‘rq fe gp’

‘follow your dreams’ → ‘rz gp wv’

Therefore, dreams → gp

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statement:

W < X < Y < Z > D

Conclusions:

I. D > X → False (From the given statement, we know that X < Z and D < Z, but no definite relationship can be established between D and X.)

II. W < Z → True (Since W < X < Y < Z, therefore W < Z.)

Therefore, only Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘game has rules’ → ‘gi fl cx’

‘cricket follows rules’ → ‘cx ko bg’

Therefore, rules → cx

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 11 ÷ 8 − 120 + 31 ÷ 4 − 126 × 9 = ?

After interchanging the symbols:

• + and − are interchanged.
• × and ÷ are interchanged.

⇒ 11 × 8 + 120 − 31 × 4 + 126 ÷ 9 = ?

⇒ 11 × 8 + 120 − 31 × 4 + 126 ÷ 9 = ?

⇒ 88 + 120 − 31 × 4 + 126 ÷ 9 = ?

⇒ 88 + 120 − 124 + 126 ÷ 9 = ?

⇒ 88 + 120 − 124 + 14 = ?

⇒ 208 − 124 + 14 = ?

⇒ 84 + 14 = ?

⇒ 98.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Here, YAWN → AYNW → NWAY

and VEAL → EVLA → LAEV

Now, checking options:

Option 1: MUSK → MSUK → MUKS

Option 2: LAZE → LAEZ → AZEL

Option 3: JEST → EJST → TESJ

Option 4: DISK → IDKS → KSID

So, DISK → IDKS → KSID matches the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Logic followed here is,

30 + 1² = 30 + 1 = 31

31 + 2² = 31 + 4 = 35

35 + 3² = 35 + 9 = 44

44 + 4² = 44 + 16 = 60

60 + 5² = 60 + 25 = 85

85 + 6² = 85 + 36 = 121

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 4 B 63 A 9 C 42 D 52 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 4 × 63 ÷ 9 + 42 - 52 = ?

⇒ 4 × 63 ÷ 9 + 42 - 52 = ?

⇒ 252 ÷ 9 + 42 - 52 = ?

⇒ 28 + 42 - 52 = ?

⇒ 70 - 52 = ?

⇒ 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

1. ES - JO

2. YC - DY

3. OK - TG

4) QU - VR

Therefore, the odd one out is QU - VR.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given number: 1374685

Now,

Now, the new number formed is: 3, 5, 9, 1, 3, 5, 7

Here, 3 appears 2 times

5 appears 2 times

So, total such digits = 2

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For, PAID → QBJF

For, TIRE → UJSG

Now, applying the same logic for SEAM:

So, SEAM → TFBO

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

Some tablets are medicines.

All medicines are injections.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some tablets are injections → Follow  (Because some tablets are medicines and all medicines are injections, the overlapping part of tablets and medicines will definitely be injections.)

II. All injections are medicines → Does not follow (All medicines are injections is given, but the reverse case 'All injections are medicines' is a possibility and not a definite conclusion.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number − Second number = Third number.

(129, 91, 38)

⇒ 129 − 91

⇒ 38.

(108, 62, 46)

⇒ 108 − 62

⇒ 46.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) (92, 54, 37)

⇒ 92 − 54

⇒ 38 ≠ 37.

Option 2) (95, 69, 26)

⇒ 95 − 69

⇒ 26.

Option 3) (121, 49, 74)

⇒ 121 − 49

⇒ 72 ≠ 74.

Option 4) (127, 96, 35)

⇒ 127 − 96

⇒ 31 ≠ 35.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second number × Third number = First number.

For, (165, 11, 15)

⇒ 11 × 15

⇒ 165.

For, (117, 9, 13)

⇒ 9 × 13

⇒ 117.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) (192, 13, 16)

⇒ 13 × 16

⇒ 208 ≠ 192.

Option 2) (125, 15, 9)

⇒ 15 × 9

⇒ 135 ≠ 125.

Option 3) (136, 8, 17)

⇒ 8 × 17

⇒ 136.

Option 4) (215, 15, 14)

⇒ 15 × 14

⇒ 210 ≠ 215.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

Given number: 276523185473

Now,

Now, the new number formed is: 1, 8, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 7, 6, 3, 8, 4

Third digit from the left = 5

Second digit from the right = 8

Sum = 5 + 8 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number − Second number = Third number.

For, (89, 51, 38)

⇒ 89 − 51

⇒ 38.

For, (116, 57, 59)

⇒ 116 − 57

⇒ 59.

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) (102, 38, 74)

⇒ 102 − 38

⇒ 64 ≠ 74.

Option 2) (122, 75, 47)

⇒ 122 − 75

⇒ 47.

Option 3) (93, 56, 35)

⇒ 93 − 56

⇒ 37 ≠ 35.

Option 4) (77, 46, 29)

⇒ 77 − 46

⇒ 31 ≠ 29.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

For PQ - ST:

For DE - CI:

For VW - YZ:

For IJ - LM:

Therefore, the odd letter-cluster pair is DE - CI.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

Here, SAIL → ILSA → AILS

and ROAM → AMRO → OAMR

Now, checking options:

Option 1: TEND → NDTE → ENDT

Option 2: BRIM → RMIB → MRIB

Option 3: CAST → ASTS → SATC

Option 4: PAIL → AILP → LIAP

So, TEND → NDTE → ENDT matches the pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 6 + 4 – 2 = ?

'+' and '–' are interchanged and '6' and '2' are interchanged.

Now, replacing the symbols and numbers:

⇒ 2 - 4 + 6 = ?

⇒ 2 - 4 + 6 = ?

⇒ -2 + 6 = ?

⇒ 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The option figure that will replace the question mark in the figure given below to complete the pattern is,

 + 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is,

15 + 1 = 16

16 − 2 = 14

14 + 1 = 15

15 − 2 = 13

13 + 1 = 14

14 − 2 = 12

12 + 1 = 13

13 − 2 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is,

9 + 1² = 9 + 1 = 10

10 + 2² = 10 + 4 = 14

14 + 3² = 14 + 9 = 23

23 + 4² = 23 + 16 = 39

39 + 5² = 39 + 25 = 64

64 + 6² = 64 + 36 = 100

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

• Element on upper right corner shifted to lower left corner and increased its size.
• New element added to upper right corner

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Nava Raipur, Chhattisgarh.

Key Points

• The state of Chhattisgarh is establishing India's first Artificial Intelligence (AI) Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in its planned capital city, Nava Raipur Atal Nagar.
• The project aims to create a dedicated hub for Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning, and Information Technology, positioning the state as a prime destination for global tech investments.
• This initiative is spearheaded by the Nava Raipur Atal Nagar Development Authority (NRANVP), which is providing the high-end smart infrastructure required for cutting-edge digital operations.
• The AI SEZ is strategically designed to provide financial incentives, tax exemptions, and a single-window clearance system to attract both multinational corporations and innovative tech startups.
• By focusing on AI, the government intends to generate high-skilled employment opportunities and shift the regional economic focus from heavy industries like mining and steel to the knowledge-based economy.

 Additional Information

• Special Economic Zone (SEZ):
• Governed by the SEZ Act, 2005, these are specifically delineated duty-free enclaves treated as foreign territories for trade operations and duties.
• The primary objectives include the promotion of exports, creation of infrastructure, and attraction of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
• Other Major Tech Hubs:
• Bengaluru, Karnataka: Widely known as the Silicon Valley of India, it is the country's leading exporter of software and a center for aerospace and defense research.
• Hyderabad, Telangana: Often called Cyberabad, it houses the HITEC City and major global development centers for companies like Google, Microsoft, and Amazon.
• Chennai, Tamil Nadu: Recognized as the SaaS Capital of India and a major electronics manufacturing hub, often referred to as the Detroit of Asia.
• Nava Raipur:
• It is India's first greenfield smart city, designed with sustainable urban planning and serves as the administrative core of Chhattisgarh.

The correct answer is Inflation in input prices.

Key Points

• The cost of production is the cumulative sum of all expenses incurred by a firm to produce a specific quantity of goods or services, including fixed costs (rent, salaries) and variable costs (raw materials, energy).
• Inflation in input prices occurs when the market cost of production factors—such as raw materials, fuel, transportation, and intermediate goods—increases over a period.
• When inputs become more expensive, firms must increase their capital outlay to maintain the same level of output, which directly drives up the total unit cost of production.
• In the Indian context, fluctuations in global crude oil prices often lead to a spike in logistics and manufacturing costs, as petroleum is a critical energy source and a base for various industrial chemicals.
• This increase in costs typically leads to Cost-Push Inflation, where producers pass on the burden to consumers by raising the Retail Price of finished goods to protect their profit margins.
• The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is a key indicator that tracks these input price movements, focusing heavily on Primary Articles, Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products.

 Additional Information

• Factors Reducing Production Costs:
• Labour Productivity: This refers to the volume of output produced per unit of labor input. When productivity is high, the cost per unit decreases because workers become more efficient through training or technological integration.
• Subsidies on Inputs: These are financial grants or tax breaks provided by the Government of India on essential inputs like fertilizers (Urea), seeds, or irrigation. Subsidies lower the effective price paid by producers, thereby reducing the overall cost of production.
• Electricity Charges: As a major component of operational overheads, a decrease in power tariffs directly improves the cost-competitiveness of energy-intensive industries such as steel, aluminum, and textiles.

The correct answer is Both I and II are Incorrect.

Key Points

• The Vande Mataram Movement, also known as the Swadeshi Movement, was officially launched on August 7, 1905, following a massive meeting at the Calcutta Town Hall. It was a reaction to the British decision to partition Bengal, announced by Lord Curzon in July 1905, making the date February 11, 1901, historically inaccurate. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• The historical visit to Vijayawada and Masulipatnam (modern-day Machilipatnam) in April 1907 was made by Bipin Chandra Pal, not Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. His tour of the Andhra region was pivotal in spreading the Swadeshi ideology and the message of national independence through his powerful speeches. Hence, statement II is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Vande Mataram Movement Features:
• It focused on the boycott of British goods and the promotion of Swadeshi (indigenous) products to strengthen the Indian economy.
• The partition of Bengal became effective on October 16, 1905, which was observed as a Day of Mourning across Bengal.
• The movement saw the rise of the extremist trio Lal-Bal-Pal (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal).
• Impact in Andhra:
• Bipin Chandra Pal was invited to Andhra by Mutnuri Krishna Rao, the editor of the influential journal Krishna Patrika.
• His speeches inspired the local youth and leaders, leading to the establishment of National Schools and Swadeshi industries in the region.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• He was a key leader of the Indian National Congress who rose to prominence later during the Kheda Satyagraha (1918) and the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), eventually becoming the Iron Man of India.

The correct answer is Namrata Batra.

Key Points

• Namrata Batra created history by becoming the first Indian athlete to secure a medal in Wushu at the World Games during the 2025 edition.
• The 2025 World Games were held in Chengdu, China, a city renowned for its deep cultural roots in martial arts, making the victory even more significant.
• This achievement is a landmark moment for the Wushu Association of India (WAI), as it represents the highest level of success for the sport in a multi-disciplinary event outside the Asian Games.
• The World Games serves as a premier international event for sports and disciplines that are not typically included in the Olympic Games, providing a global platform for elite martial artists.
• India's success in Wushu has been steadily rising, but Namrata Batra's medal serves as the definitive breakthrough in the World Games history for the nation.

 Additional Information

• Wushu (Chinese Martial Arts):
• It is divided into two primary disciplines: Taolu (performance routines) and Sanda (full-contact combat).
• The sport originated in China and has been part of the Asian Games since 1990.
• The World Games:
• Governed by the International World Games Association (IWGA), under the patronage of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The 12^th edition in Chengdu featured approximately 35 sports, emphasizing global athletic diversity.
• Other Contenders:
• Athletes like Shubham Bhaveshbhai Patel and Aron Gurung represent the rising talent in Indian combat sports, but Namrata Batra remains the specific record-holder for this 2025 milestone.

The correct answer is Omar Abdullah.

Key Points

• Omar Abdullah, the Vice President of the Jammu and Kashmir National Conference (JKNC), was appointed as the first Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir following the 2024 assembly elections.
• The 2024 elections were the first held in the region since the abrogation of Article 370 and Article 35A in August 2019, which led to the reorganization of the state into two Union Territories.
• The National Conference-Congress alliance secured a comfortable majority in the 90-member Legislative Assembly, with the JKNC winning 42 seats and the Indian National Congress winning 6 seats.
• The oath of office and secrecy was administered by the Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha at the Sher-i-Kashmir International Convention Centre (SKICC) located in Srinagar.
• This transition marked the restoration of a democratically elected government in the region after a period of President’s Rule that had been in effect since 2018.

 Additional Information

• Ghulam Nabi Azad:
• He is a veteran politician who served as the Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from 2005 to 2008.
• After leaving the Congress party, he founded the Democratic Progressive Azad Party (DPAP) in 2022.
• Mehbooba Mufti:
• She served as the last Chief Minister of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir from 2016 to 2018 in an alliance with the BJP.
• She is the President of the Jammu and Kashmir Peoples Democratic Party (JKPDP).
• Syed Mohammad Altaf Bukhari:
• He is a prominent businessman and politician who founded the Jammu and Kashmir Apni Party in March 2020.
• His party was established with the goal of providing a political alternative in the post-Article 370 landscape.

The correct answer is Economic recession or slowdown.

Key Points

• Cyclical unemployment refers to the component of overall unemployment that results directly from cycles of economic upturn and downturn.
• During an economic recession or slowdown, there is a substantial reduction in aggregate demand for goods and services across the market.
• When consumers and businesses spend less, companies experience a drop in revenue, prompting them to scale back production activities to avoid losses.
• To manage declining demand and reduce operating costs, firms reduce their workforce through layoffs and retrenchment, which leads to a spike in unemployment levels.
• This type of unemployment is temporary and typically reverses when the economy enters an expansionary phase or a recovery period.
• The relationship between unemployment and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is often explained through Okun's Law, which suggests that unemployment falls as GDP growth increases.

 Additional Information

• Technological changes in production:
• Leads to Structural Unemployment, where a worker's skill set becomes obsolete due to automation or digitization.
• It represents a long-term mismatch between labor supply and the requirements of the evolving job market.
• Seasonal nature of employment:
• Results in Seasonal Unemployment, commonly found in industries such as agriculture, hospitality, and tourism.
• Workers are only required during specific periods of the year and remain idle during the off-season.
• Frictional Unemployment:
• Occurs when individuals are voluntarily changing jobs or new entrants are looking for their first job.
• It is considered a natural part of a healthy economy as it reflects labor mobility.

The correct answer is V. D. Savarkar.

Key Points

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, popularly known as Veer Savarkar, authored the seminal work 'The Indian War of Independence, 1857' in 1909 while residing at the India House in London.
• The book was a revolutionary interpretation of the events of 1857, which Savarkar described as a planned and organized National War of Independence against British colonial rule.
• This publication challenged the then-prevailing British historiography, which largely dismissed the uprising as a localized and disorganized Sepoy Mutiny.
• Due to its provocative nature and its call for Indian liberation, the British government banned the book across India and Great Britain before its official release.
• Originally written in Marathi, the manuscript was translated into English and printed in Holland, eventually being smuggled into India to inspire the freedom struggle.

 Additional Information

• S. B. Chaudhuri:
• He was a prominent Indian historian known for his analytical work on the 1857 rebellion, specifically titled 'Civil Rebellion in the Indian Mutinies (1857-1859)'.
• His research emphasized the role of civilian populations and the socio-political impact of the revolt beyond the Bengal Army.
• Karl Marx:
• As a political theorist, he analyzed the Revolt of 1857 through a series of articles in the New York Daily Tribune.
• He viewed the event as a National Revolt and a consequence of the British East India Company’s exploitative economic policies.
• E. P. Thompson:
• A renowned British Marxist historian primarily famous for his study of social history and the English working class.
• While an influential intellectual, he is not the author of the specific historical text mentioned in the question.

The correct answer is Leh, Ladakh.

Key Points

• The fifth edition of the Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG) officially commenced on January 23, 2025, marking another milestone in India's winter sports development.
• The event was inaugurated in Leh, Ladakh, which served as the primary host for the initial phase of the competition, focusing on ice-based sporting disciplines.
• The NDS Sports Complex in Leh was a central venue, hosting high-intensity matches in Ice Hockey and Speed Skating competitions.
• This edition reflects the Government of India's commitment to promoting Ladakh as a global hub for winter sports and enhancing regional sports infrastructure.
• The games are organized under the Khelo India initiative by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, in collaboration with the Union Territory Administration of Ladakh and the Sports Authority of India (SAI).

 Additional Information

• Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG) History:
• The inaugural edition of the KIWG was held in 2020 to popularize winter sports across the country.
• Traditionally, the games have been split between Leh (Ladakh) and Gulmarg (Jammu and Kashmir) to utilize the unique geography of both Union Territories.
• The fourth edition in 2024 also featured Leh as a prominent venue, where Ladakh hosted events like Ice Hockey and Curling.
• Significance of Venues:
• Gulmarg: Recognized for its world-class slopes suitable for Alpine Skiing, Snowboarding, and Nordic Skiing.
• Leh: Distinguished by its natural frozen rinks and high-altitude terrain, making it the premier location for Ice Hockey in India.
• Auli: A noted winter sports destination in Uttarakhand, often considered for future expansions of the Khelo India framework.
• Objectives:
• To identify young talent for international competitions like the Winter Olympics.
• To boost sports tourism and the local economy in the Himalayan regions during the winter months.

The correct answer is 8^th April to 22^nd April.

Key Points

• The 7^th Poshan Pakhwada in 2025 is scheduled to be observed from 8^th April to 22^nd April, marking a critical period for nutritional advocacy in India.
• This fortnight-long initiative is organized annually by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to commemorate the anniversary of the POSHAN Abhiyaan.
• The primary objective of the campaign is to raise awareness about nutrition, health, and dietary diversity through Jan Andolan (people's movement) at the grassroots level.
• The 2025 edition focuses on sustainable health, the integration of traditional food systems, and promoting nutritional security for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
• Activities during this period are conducted nationwide, involving Anganwadi Centers, schools, and local bodies to perform growth monitoring and sensitization camps.

 Additional Information

• POSHAN Abhiyaan:
• Originally launched on 8^th March 2018 by the Prime Minister in Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan.
• It is India's flagship program to improve nutritional outcomes for adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers by leveraging technology and convergence.
• The mission aims to reduce stunting and under-nutrition by 2% annually and anaemia by 3% annually among the target groups.
• Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0:
• This is an integrated nutrition support program that seeks to address the challenges of malnutrition through a strategic shift in delivery mechanisms.
• It emphasizes the Poshan Tracker, an ICT-based application for real-time monitoring of nutritional service delivery across 13.9 lakh Anganwadi centers.
• Rashtriya Poshan Maah:
• While the Pakhwada is a bi-annual fortnight event, the National Nutrition Month is celebrated throughout the month of September every year.

The correct answer is 4.9%.

Key Points

• The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) was launched by the National Statistical Office (NSO) in April 2017 to provide more frequent updates on the Indian labour market status.
• The Unemployment Rate (UR) is a critical indicator defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the total persons in the labour force (those either working or seeking work).
• For the demographic group of rural males aged 15 years and above, the survey conducted for the period concluding in April 2025 reported an unemployment rate of 4.9%.
• The calculation is based on the Usual Status (ps+ss), which considers a reference period of 365 days preceding the date of the survey to determine the activity status of individuals.
• The formula used for this metric is: Unemployment Rate = (Number of unemployed persons / Labour Force) × 100.

 Additional Information

• National Statistical Office (NSO):
• Operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• Responsible for the conduct of large-scale sample surveys across India, ensuring data reliability for policy formulation.
• Labor Force Metrics:
• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): The percentage of the population that is either employed or actively seeking employment.
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR): The percentage of employed persons in the total population, serving as an indicator of employment generation.
• Current Weekly Status (CWS): A reference period of 7 days preceding the survey, primarily used for quarterly urban reports.

The correct answer is Agriculture and allied sectors.

Key Points

• The Production Method, also referred to as the Value Added Method, is a primary technique used to calculate National Income by summing the net value added by every producing enterprise within the domestic territory.
• In the Indian economy, this method is extensively applied to the Primary Sector, which includes Agriculture, Livestock, Forestry, and Fishing, as it effectively captures the tangible physical output produced.
• The estimation process involves calculating the Gross Value of Output (total production multiplied by market price) and subtracting Intermediate Consumption (cost of inputs like seeds, fertilizers, and electricity) to derive the Gross Value Added (GVA).
• The National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), utilizes this approach because agricultural production data is relatively well-documented through land records and crop surveys.
• For Agriculture and allied sectors, the method accounts for both marketed surplus and self-consumption of produce by farmers, ensuring a comprehensive valuation of the sector's contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

 Additional Information

• Income Method:
• This approach is primarily used for the Services Sector, including Banking and Insurance, where output is not easily measured in physical units. It sums the payments made to factors of production: Compensation of Employees, Rent, Interest, and Profit.
• Expenditure Method:
• This method measures national income by aggregating final expenditures on goods and services, comprising Consumption, Investment, Government Spending, and Net Exports.
• Sectors run by government:
• For Public Administration and Defence, the income method is typically preferred as these services are often provided for free or at non-market prices, making the cost of inputs (mainly salaries) the best proxy for value.

The correct answer is Pandita Ramabai.

Key Points

• Pandita Ramabai Sarasvati established the Sharada Sadan (Home for Learning) in Bombay on March 11, 1889, specifically to provide education and shelter to widows. Hence, the statement is correct.
• The institution was later shifted to Pune in 1890 and eventually became part of the Mukti Mission at Kedgaon, which aimed to provide a supportive environment for destitute women and children.
• She was a distinguished Sanskrit scholar and was the first woman to be awarded the titles of Pandita and Sarasvati by the University of Calcutta.
• Ramabai founded the Arya Mahila Samaj in 1882 in Pune to promote women's education and fight against the practice of child marriage.
• Her work was supported by the American Ramabai Association, which helped fund her initiatives for social reform in Maharashtra.

 Additional Information

• Savitribai Phule:
• Regarded as the mother of Indian feminism, she and her husband Jyotirao Phule opened the first school for girls at Bhide Wada in Pune in 1848.
• She worked tirelessly against caste discrimination and for the rehabilitation of widows, establishing the Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha.
• Tarabai Shinde:
• A prominent feminist activist who published Stri Purush Tulana (A Comparison Between Women and Men) in 1882.
• Her work is considered one of the first modern feminist texts in India, challenging the patriarchal norms and the treatment of women in Hindu scriptures.
• Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay:
• A social reformer and freedom fighter who played a pivotal role in the Salt Satyagraha and was the first woman to run for a legislative seat in India.
• She is celebrated for her contribution to the revival of Indian handicrafts, handlooms, and theatre through the All India Crafts Board.

The correct answer is Animesh Kujur.

Key Points

• Animesh Kujur, representing the state of Chhattisgarh, established himself as the premier sprinter in India by securing the gold medal in the men’s 100 m sprint at the 38^th National Games.
• He achieved this feat by outperforming a highly competitive field, demonstrating exceptional acceleration and explosive power during the final dash of the blue-riband event.
• The National Games are organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and serve as the highest level of domestic multi-sport competition, aiming to identify potential talent for the Olympics and Asian Games.
• The 38^th edition of the games, hosted in the state of Uttarakhand, focused on promoting sports infrastructure in the Himalayan region and providing a platform for emerging athletes like Kujur to showcase their skills on a national stage.
• Kujur’s victory is particularly significant as he surpassed seasoned athletes, highlighting the shifting landscape of Indian athletics and the emergence of new centers of excellence in states like Chhattisgarh.

 Additional Information

• Manikanta Hoblidhar:
• An elite sprinter from Karnataka who holds the current National Record in the men’s 100 m event.
• He set the record with a remarkable timing of 10.23 seconds at the National Open Athletics Championships in 2023.
• Amlan Borgohain:
• Representing the state of Assam, he is widely regarded as India’s fastest man in the 200 m category.
• He holds the national record for the 200 m sprint and has been a key figure in India’s 4 × 100 m relay team at international events.
• Pranav Gurav:
• A sprinter from Maharashtra who rose to prominence by winning the 100 m gold at the 37^th National Games held in Goa.
• He is known for his consistency in domestic circuits and has been a regular finalist in the Federation Cup and Inter-State Championships.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The FIBAC 2025 is a premier annual banking conference jointly organized by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) and the Indian Banks Association (IBA).
• The 2025 edition of this high-profile summit was held on August 25^th and 26^th, 2025, at the Jio World Convention Centre located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• The central theme of the conference was 'Charting new Frontiers', which underscored the transformative journey of the Indian banking sector through innovation and technology.
• The event served as a critical platform for policymakers, regulators, and industry leaders to deliberate on the future of digital public infrastructure, Generative AI, and sustainable financial practices.
• The discussions focused on strengthening India's position as a global financial hub and achieving a sustainable GDP growth rate through robust credit mechanisms.

 Additional Information

• Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI):
• Established in 1927, it is the oldest and largest apex business organization in India.
• It was founded on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi by G.D. Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas.
• It plays a pivotal role in policy advocacy and serves as a bridge between the business community and the government.
• Indian Banks Association (IBA):
• Formed on September 26, 1946, to manage and represent the interests of the Indian banking management.
• It facilitates the negotiation of wage settlements and coordinates between member banks for unified industry standards.
• Members include Public Sector Banks, Private Sector Banks, and Foreign Banks with operations in India.
• Mumbai (The Venue):
• Commonly referred to as the Financial Capital of India, it houses the headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• The city is home to major stock exchanges, including the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and the National Stock Exchange (NSE).

The correct answer is Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation.

Key Points

• The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched by the Government of India on June 25, 2015, under the aegis of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• The mission was designed to improve the quality of life in urban areas by providing basic services such as piped water supply, sewerage and septage management, stormwater drainage, and non-motorized transport.
• It primarily covers 500 cities, focusing on those with a population exceeding one lakh as per the 2011 Census, capital cities, and certain heritage and tourist destinations.
• Unlike previous urban schemes, AMRUT follows a reform-oriented approach where funds are linked to the implementation of urban reforms such as e-governance, professionalization of municipal cadre, and double-entry accounting systems.
• A core objective is to ensure that every household has a functional tap connection and access to a reliable sewage network, thereby reducing urban pollution and improving public health.

 Additional Information

• AMRUT 2.0:
• Launched in October 2021, this second phase aims to make Indian cities 'water secure' by providing universal coverage of water supply to all 4,700 plus statutory towns.
• It emphasizes a Circular Economy of water, focusing on the recycle and reuse of treated wastewater and the rejuvenation of water bodies.
• Implementation and Funding:
• The mission is implemented through a State Annual Action Plan (SAAP), which gives State Governments more flexibility in planning and execution.
• Funding is shared between the Central Government, State Governments, and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) based on city population; for instance, cities with a population up to 10 lakhs receive 50 percent central funding for projects.
• The scheme also encourages the creation of Green Spaces and Parks to enhance the amenity value of cities and reduce the carbon footprint of urban centers.

The correct answer is The Tamil New Year marking the first day of the month Chithirai.

Key Points

• Puthandu, also known as Puthuvarudam, is celebrated as the Tamil New Year. It marks the first day of the year on the Tamil calendar.
• The festival traditionally falls on the first day of the Tamil month of Chithirai, which usually corresponds to April 14 or April 15 in the Gregorian calendar.
• The date is determined by the solar cycle of the lunisolar Hindu calendar, specifically when the Sun enters the constellation of Aries (known as Mesha Rasi).
• The occasion is celebrated by Tamil people in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and among the Tamil diaspora in countries such as Sri Lanka, Malaysia, Singapore, and Mauritius.
• A core tradition involves the preparation of Mangai-pachadi, a dish made with raw mango, neem flowers, jaggery, and chili, symbolizing that life is a mixture of different emotions like sweetness, sourness, and bitterness.

 Additional Information

• Regional New Year Festivals:
• Vishu: Celebrated in Kerala around the same time as Puthandu, marking the Malayalam New Year.
• Baisakhi: Observed in Punjab, marking the Solar New Year and the formation of the Khalsa Panth in 1699.
• Ugadi: The lunar New Year celebrated in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka, typically occurring in March or April.
• Harvest Festivals in Tamil Culture:
• Thai Pongal: This is the major harvest festival of Tamil Nadu, dedicated to the Sun God (Surya), and is celebrated in the month of Thai (mid-January).
• Aadi Perukku: A festival celebrated on the 18^th day of the Tamil month of Aadi to honor the monsoon and the fertility of land through rising water levels in rivers like the Kaveri.

The correct answer is Space Applications Regional Meet.

Key Points

• The Space Applications Regional Meet was organized in Gandhinagar, Gujarat, in July 2025 to strengthen the synergy between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and state government departments.
• The primary objective of the meet was to promote satellite-based governance by integrating space technology into the planning and execution of government schemes.
• The event showcased geospatial services that utilize data from Earth Observation satellites for real-time monitoring of agricultural health, water bodies, and urban infrastructure.
• It serves as a platform for the Department of Space (DoS) to demonstrate customized SaaS (Space as a Service) solutions tailored for the specific geographic and administrative needs of the Western Region of India.
• The meet emphasized the use of the Bhuvan Geoportal for asset mapping and disaster management, ensuring that space-derived information reaches panchayat-level administrators.

 Additional Information

• Indian Space Conclave:
• Focuses on the commercial aspects of the space sector, primarily involving the Indian Space Association (ISpA) and private startups to increase Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
• Global Space Exploration Conference:
• An international forum that addresses interplanetary missions, lunar base construction, and international space laws, rather than regional governance.
• Geospatial Services:
• Includes technologies like GIS (Geographical Information Systems) and Remote Sensing which are vital for precision farming and smart city development.
• The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan is a prime example of satellite-based governance in India, using layers of geospatial data for multimodal connectivity.

The correct answer is Deeper and accumulated grievances against britishers.

Key Points

• Benjamin Disraeli, the then leader of the Conservative Opposition in the British Parliament, addressed the House of Commons on July 27, 1857, providing a critical perspective on the Indian uprising.
• He challenged the narrative of the Whig government, which dismissed the event as a mere Military Mutiny caused by the introduction of greased cartridges.
• Disraeli famously argued that the decline of empires is not caused by greased cartridges, asserting instead that the uprising was a National Revolt driven by systemic issues.
• The core of his argument was that the Revolt of 1857 was the result of deeper and accumulated grievances arising from the alienation of native princes and the disturbance of property rights.
• He identified three primary causes for this accumulation: the forcible destruction of native authority, the violation of the rights of property, and the interference with the religion of the people of India.
• By categorizing it as a national movement, he highlighted that the British East India Company had fundamentally shifted its policy from partnership to aggressive annexation and social engineering.

 Additional Information

• Contextual Grievances:
• Political Policies: The Doctrine of Lapse implemented by Lord Dalhousie led to the annexation of states like Satara, Nagpur, and Jhansi, causing widespread resentment among the Indian ruling class.
• Social and Religious Factors: The Religious Disabilities Act of 1850 and the legalizing of widow remarriage were perceived as direct threats to traditional Hindu and Muslim social fabrics.
• Economic Exploitation: Heavy land revenue systems like the Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems left the peasantry in a state of permanent debt and poverty.
• Immediate Trigger: While the greased cartridges (allegedly containing cow and pig fat) provided the spark at Meerut, historians agree with Disraeli that the foundation of the revolt was laid by decades of colonial exploitation.
• Transition of Power: Following the revolt, the Government of India Act 1858 was passed, transferring power from the Company to the British Crown.

The correct answer is Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).

Key Points

• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
• It is an integral part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• The board is primarily responsible for the administration of direct tax laws through the Income Tax Department, ensuring the collection of taxes like Income Tax and Corporate Tax.
• It provides essential inputs for the formulation of policies and planning related to direct taxation and assists in the preparation of the Union Budget.
• The CBDT is headed by a Chairman and comprises six members who oversee specific functional areas including Income Tax, Revenue, Legislation, and Investigation.

 Additional Information

• Stock Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
• Established as a statutory body on April 12, 1992, under the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992.
• Its core function is to regulate the securities market in India and protect the interests of investors.
• Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI):
• Formed as a statutory body under the IRDAI Act, 1999, following the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee.
• It serves as the apex body to regulate and develop the insurance and re-insurance industries in India.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• As India's central bank, it manages monetary policy, regulates the banking sector, and issues national currency.

The correct answer is 1905.

Key Points

• The Extremist Phase, also known as the era of Militant Nationalism, emerged within the Indian National Movement around 1905 as a reaction to the Moderate leadership's perceived failure to achieve significant political concessions from the British.
• The primary catalyst for this shift was the Partition of Bengal in 1905, orchestrated by Lord Curzon, which aimed to weaken the nationalist spirit by dividing the province on communal lines.
• Prominent leaders of this phase included Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal, collectively known as the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, along with Aurobindo Ghosh.
• Unlike the Moderates who relied on 'constitutional agitation' and 'Prayers and Petitions', the Extremists promoted Swadeshi (use of indigenous goods), Boycott of foreign goods, and National Education to achieve Swaraj (Self-rule).
• The ideological rift between the two factions culminated in the Surat Split of 1907, where the Indian National Congress formally divided into two separate groups.

 Additional Information

• 1885:
• This year marks the foundation of the Indian National Congress (INC) at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay.
• It initiated the Moderate Phase (1885−1905) under leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, and W.C. Bonnerjee.
• 1857:
• Refers to the Great Revolt of 1857, often called the First War of Indian Independence or the Sepoy Mutiny.
• It resulted in the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown via the Government of India Act 1858.
• 1942:
• The year the Quit India Movement (August Kranti) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi during the Gowalia Tank session in Bombay.
• The movement is famous for the slogan Do or Die and demanded an immediate end to British colonial rule in India.

The correct answer is Secret ballot with single transferable voting.

Key Points

• The President of India is elected indirectly by the members of an Electoral College in accordance with Article 54 of the Constitution of India.
• The specific method used is the system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV), as detailed under Article 55(3).
• The election is conducted through a Secret Ballot to maintain the confidentiality of the voters' choices and to prevent any undue influence or political pressure.
• In this system, voters do not just vote for one candidate but mark their preferences (1, 2, 3, etc.) on the ballot paper. If no candidate gets the required quota in the first count, the candidate with the least votes is eliminated, and their votes are transferred to others based on the next preference.
• The Electoral College consists of elected members of both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) of the States and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Alternative Voting Methods:
• Open Voting: This is a system where the choice of the voter is known to others. It was introduced in the Rajya Sabha elections in India in 2003 to prevent cross-voting and corruption, but it is strictly not used for Presidential elections.
• Hand Raise: This is a primitive form of voting usually employed in deliberative assemblies, small committees, or local Gram Sabha meetings for immediate decision-making, lacking the formal structure required for constitutional high offices.
• Preferential Voting: While the Presidential election is a form of preferential voting, the technical term defined in the Constitution specifically pairs it with the Single Transferable Vote and Secret Ballot to ensure mathematical precision in representation.
• Constitutional Qualifications:
• Under Article 58, a candidate must be a citizen of India, have completed 35 years of age, and must be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• The candidate must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Bagh Caves are a collection of nine rock-cut monuments situated on the southern slopes of the Vindhya Range in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh.
• These caves were discovered in 1818 by Lieutenant Dangerfield, revealing some of the most significant examples of ancient Indian mural art.
• The paintings are believed to have been executed during the 5^th to 6^th century CE, which aligns with the Gupta period, a timeframe often heralded as the Golden Age of Indian Art.
• The murals at Bagh are predominantly secular in nature, differing from the heavily religious themes of other contemporary sites; they depict music, dance, and social processions of the era.
• Architecturally, the caves are Buddhist monasteries (Viharas), featuring a central hall surrounded by cells for monks and a small shrine at the back.
• The paintings were created using the Tempera technique, which involved applying natural pigments over a lime-primed mud plaster surface.

 Additional Information

• Rang Mahal:
• Cave 4, popularly known as the Rang Mahal (Palace of Colors), contains the most famous and best-preserved murals among the group.
• Due to the fragile nature of the sandstone in which they were carved, many original murals were carefully stripped and moved to the Archaeological Museum in Gwalior.
• Comparison with Other States:
• Maharashtra: This state is home to the Ajanta Caves and Ellora Caves in the Aurangabad district, which are UNESCO World Heritage Sites and feature extensive Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain art.
• Tamil Nadu: Known for the Sittanavasal Caves, which contain exceptional Jain mural paintings dating back to the Pandya period (7^th to 9^th century).
• Gujarat: Host to the Junagadh Buddhist Caves and the Sana Caves, which represent early rock-cut architecture but are less known for mural paintings compared to Bagh.
• Baghani River: The caves are located on the banks of this seasonal stream, which provided a serene environment for the monastic community.

The correct answer is Vitamin C.

Key Points

• Vitamin C, also known as L-ascorbic acid, is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for humans as the body cannot synthesize it endogenously.
• Citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, limes, and grapefruits are among the most potent natural sources of this nutrient.
• It serves as a powerful antioxidant, neutralizing harmful free radicals and protecting cellular structures from oxidative stress, which is vital for maintaining a robust immune system.
• Vitamin C stimulates the production and activity of white blood cells (leukocytes), particularly lymphocytes and phagocytes, which are responsible for attacking foreign pathogens.
• It is a necessary cofactor for the synthesis of collagen, a structural protein that maintains the integrity of the skin, which acts as the body’s first physical barrier against infection.

 Additional Information

• Carbohydrates:
• These are primary macronutrients that provide the body with glucose, the main fuel source for the brain and muscles.
• Found in high concentrations in grains, legumes, and starchy vegetables.
• Vitamin B complex:
• Consists of eight distinct vitamins (such as B12, B6, and Folate) that are crucial for metabolism and the formation of red blood cells.
• Commonly found in meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products.
• Fats:
• Fats are essential for storing energy, protecting vital organs, and assisting the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins including A, D, E, and K.
• They are classified into saturated, unsaturated, and trans fats.
• Vitamin C Deficiency:
• A severe deficiency leads to Scurvy, a condition historically common among sailors, characterized by anemia, gum disease, and spontaneous skin hemorrhages.

The correct answer is proteins.

Key Points

• Carbohydrates and fats are the body's primary sources of fuel. Under normal physiological conditions, carbohydrates are preferred for immediate energy, while fats serve as the major energy reserve.
• When dietary intake of carbohydrates and fats is insufficient to meet metabolic requirements, the body begins to break down proteins to obtain energy.
• This metabolic shift occurs through a process known as gluconeogenesis, primarily in the liver, where amino acids are converted into glucose to maintain blood sugar levels and sustain vital organ functions.
• While the primary role of proteins is tissue repair, growth, and enzymatic functions, they provide approximately 4 kilocalories (kcal) of energy per gram when oxidized for fuel.

 Additional Information

• Vitamins and Minerals
• These are classified as micronutrients required in small quantities for biochemical reactions and hormonal regulation.
• Unlike macronutrients, they do not possess caloric value and cannot be metabolized to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
• Water
• Water is a vital inorganic nutrient that acts as a universal solvent, regulates body temperature, and facilitates nutrient transport.
• It does not contain carbon-hydrogen bonds that can be broken down for energy release, resulting in a zero-calorie profile.
• Energy Density
• Fats are the most energy-dense nutrient, yielding 9 kcal per gram, which is more than double the energy provided by carbohydrates or proteins.

The correct answer is Article 22.

Key Points

• Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides specific procedural safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention.
• It grants rights to an arrested person, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest, the right to consult a legal practitioner, and the right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours.
• While Article 21 protects the right to life and personal liberty, Article 22 specifically deals with the procedural aspects of arrest and detention.

 Additional Information

• Article 19:
• Guarantees six democratic freedoms to citizens, including freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly, and freedom of movement across the territory of India.
• Article 20:
• Provides protection against arbitrary conviction, specifically prohibiting Ex-post facto laws, Double Jeopardy (punishing twice for the same offense), and Self-incrimination.
• Article 21:
• Provides that 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law'.

The correct answer is Ajanta Caves.

Key Points

• The Ajanta Caves are situated in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra and consist of approximately 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments carved into the side of a basaltic horseshoe-shaped cliff along the Waghora River.
• These caves were constructed in two distinct phases: the first phase began around the 2^nd century BCE (associated with the Satavahana Dynasty and Hinayana Buddhism), while the second phase occurred between 400 and 650 CE (under the Vakataka Dynasty, particularly King Harishena, representing Mahayana Buddhism).
• The site features architectural marvels including Chaityas (prayer halls) and Viharas (monastic residences), which are renowned for their sophisticated structural engineering and rock-cut precision.
• The caves are globally celebrated for their fresco paintings, which utilize a tempera technique to depict the Jataka tales (stories of Buddha's previous lives) and the life of Gautama Buddha.
• Recognized for its immense historical and artistic value, the complex was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983.

 Additional Information

• Sudama Caves:
• Located in the Barabar Hills of Bihar, these are some of the earliest examples of rock-cut architecture in India, dedicated by Emperor Ashoka of the Maurya Empire in 261 BCE for the Ajivika sect.
• Tirumalai Caves:
• A significant Jain temple complex in Tamil Nadu, dating back to the 9^th century, which houses a massive 16-foot idol of Neminatha and ancient Jain paintings.
• Borra Caves:
• Located in the Ananthagiri Hills of Andhra Pradesh, these are primarily natural limestone caves famous for speleothems like stalactites and stalagmites, rather than man-made Buddhist architectural excavations.

The correct answer is Toranas.

Key Points

• Toranas are the monumental and ceremonial gateways that mark the entrance to the Great Stupa at Sanchi, located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
• These structures were primarily added to the stupa during the Satavahana dynasty rule in the 1^st century BCE, enhancing the original Mauryan structure commissioned by Emperor Ashoka.
• The Great Stupa features four Toranas situated at the cardinal directions (North, South, East, and West), representing the universal spread of Buddhist teachings.
• Each gateway is composed of two square pillars supporting three horizontal crossbeams known as architraves, which are intricately carved with narrative art.
• The carvings on the Toranas depict Jataka tales, significant events from the Buddha's life, and various symbolic motifs such as the Dharmachakra (Wheel of Law), Shalabhanjikas (yakshis), and the Triratna.

 Additional Information

• Chaityas
• These refer to Buddhist prayer halls or shrines used for congregational worship, often characterized by an apsidal (semi-circular) plan.
• Notable examples include the Karle Chaitya and those found in the Ajanta Caves, usually containing a small stupa as the focal point.
• Viharas
• Viharas are monasteries or residential quarters specifically built to house Buddhist monks during the rainy season (Varshavasa).
• They typically consist of a central courtyard surrounded by small individual cells or rooms for sleeping and meditation.
• Vedicas
• The Vedica is the protective stone railing or fence that encloses the Stupa, separating the sacred precinct from the secular world.
• It defines the Pradakshina Patha, the circumambulatory path where devotees walk in a clockwise direction to pay respects.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Based on the Census 2011 data, Bihar recorded the lowest percentage of Christian population among the given options, with approximately 0.12% of its total population identifying as Christian.
• In absolute figures, out of a total population of 10,40,99,452 in Bihar, the number of Christians was only 1,29,247.
• The demographic composition of Bihar is largely dominated by Hindus (approximately 82.69%) and Muslims (approximately 16.87%), leaving a very small margin for other religious minorities.
• The Census 2011 was the 15^th National Census of India and the 7^th after Independence, providing a detailed religious profile of every state and union territory.

 Additional Information

• The religious data for the other states mentioned in the options is as follows:
• Uttar Pradesh: The state has a Christian population of approximately 0.18%, which is the second lowest among the options provided.
• Karnataka: The percentage of Christians in this southern state is significantly higher, at approximately 1.87% of the total population.
• Andhra Pradesh: According to the 2011 Census (before the state reorganization), Christians accounted for about 1.34% of the population.
• At the national level, Christianity is the third largest religion in India, making up 2.3% of the total population (approximately 2.78 crore people).
• States with the highest concentration of Christian population by percentage are primarily located in the North-East, including Nagaland (87.93%), Mizoram (87.16%), and Meghalaya (74.59%).

The correct answer is Legal advisor to the Government of India.

Key Points

• The Attorney General of India is designated as the highest legal officer in the country and serves as the primary legal advisor to the Union Government.
• According to Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the President of India appoints the Attorney General based on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
• The primary responsibility of the AG is to advise the Government of India on legal matters and perform other duties of a legal character assigned by the President.
• To be eligible for the post, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, which requires being an Indian citizen with at least five years of experience as a High Court Judge or ten years as an Advocate.
• The Attorney General represents the government in all legal proceedings in the Supreme Court and various High Courts where the Government of India is a party.
• The term of office is not fixed by the Constitution; the AG holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives remuneration as determined by the President.

 Additional Information

• Parliamentary Rights:
• The AG has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, though without the right to vote.
• He/She is entitled to all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament.
• Clarification of Other Options:
• The Vice-President of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman (Speaker equivalent) of the Rajya Sabha.
• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces.
• The Chief Justice of India is the Head of the Judiciary and the administrative head of the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is To provide affordable housing to the urban poor.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban), or PMAY-U, was launched on 25^th June 2015 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) with the vision of ensuring Housing for All by the year 2022.
• Its primary objective is to provide pucca houses with basic amenities like water, toilets, and electricity to all eligible urban poor households, including those residing in slums.
• The mission targets specific socio-economic groups, primarily the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) with an annual income up to 3 lakh rupees and Low Income Groups (LIG) with an annual income between 3 to 6 lakh rupees.
• The scheme is implemented through four strategic verticals: In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR), Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS), Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP), and Beneficiary-led individual house construction (BLC).
• To promote women empowerment, the scheme mandates that the female head of the household must be the owner or co-owner of the house sanctioned under the mission.

 Additional Information

• Vertical Breakdown:
• In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR): Utilizes land as a resource to provide houses to eligible slum dwellers in collaboration with private developers.
• Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS): Offers interest subvention on home loans for construction or acquisition of houses, serving as a Central Sector Scheme.
• Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP): Provides central assistance of 1.5 lakh rupees per EWS house in projects where at least 35 percent of the houses are built for the EWS category.
• Beneficiary-led individual house construction (BLC): Financial assistance is extended to individual eligible families of EWS categories to construct or enhance their own houses.
• Geographical Scope: The mission covers the entire urban area of the country, including Statutory Towns, Notified Planning Areas, and Development Authorities.
• Timeline Extension: While originally set for 2022, the Union Cabinet extended the implementation period for PMAY-U (except CLSS) up to 31^st December 2024 to ensure the completion of all houses sanctioned by March 2022.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• Mangrove forests, also known as tidal forests or littoral forests, are primarily found in the coastal regions of India where tides accumulate silt and mud.
• The state of West Bengal houses the Sundarbans, which is the largest contiguous block of halophytic mangrove forest in the world and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, West Bengal has the largest mangrove cover in the country, spanning approximately 2,114 square kilometers, which is nearly 42.45% of India's total mangrove area.
• These ecosystems thrive in the intertidal zones where the freshwater from the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers meets the saline water of the Bay of Bengal.
• The vegetation is characterized by pneumatophores (breathing roots) and viviparity (seeds germinating while still attached to the parent tree) to survive in anaerobic and saline soil conditions.
• The Sundari tree (Heritiera fomes) is the most prominent species in these forests, providing durable timber and giving the Sundarbans its name.

 Additional Information

• Geographical Distribution in India:
• Gujarat: Holds the second-largest mangrove cover in India, mainly concentrated in the Kachchh region and the Marine National Park.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Home to highly diverse mangrove species due to their unique island topography and equatorial climate.
• Andhra Pradesh: Significant mangrove patches are found in the Godavari and Krishna river deltas.
• Ecological Significance:
• Mangroves act as a bio-shield against natural disasters such as cyclones, tsunamis, and storm surges by breaking the force of the waves.
• They serve as vital carbon sinks, sequestering carbon at rates much higher than terrestrial forests, and provide breeding grounds for marine biodiversity and the Royal Bengal Tiger.
• Landlocked States:
• States like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Madhya Pradesh are landlocked and lack the coastal salinity and tidal influence required for the growth of mangrove vegetation.

The correct answer is Question hr.

Key Points

• The Question Hour is the designated first hour of every parliamentary sitting in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, typically held from 11:00 AM to 12:00 PM.
• It serves as a powerful tool for parliamentary oversight, enabling Members of Parliament (MPs) to scrutinize the functioning of the Executive by asking questions to Ministers.
• The provision for Question Hour is enshrined in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of the respective Houses of Parliament.
• This session is crucial for ensuring transparency and accountability in government administration, as Ministers are obliged to provide information on various policies and grievances raised by the public through their representatives.

 Additional Information

• Zero Hour:
• This is an informal device and an Indian parliamentary innovation that started in 1962.
• It begins immediately after the Question Hour and ends when the regular agenda for the day starts.
• MPs can raise matters of urgent public importance during this time without any prior notice of ten days.
• Types of Questions:
• Starred Questions: These require an oral answer on the floor of the house, allowing members to ask supplementary questions based on the response.
• Unstarred Questions: These require a written reply to be laid on the table, and no supplementary questions are permitted.
• Short Notice Questions: These relate to matters of urgent importance and are asked with a notice of less than ten clear days.
• Motion hr:
• A Motion is a formal proposal made by a member to the house for taking a decision.
• Examples include the No-Confidence Motion, Adjournment Motion, and Censure Motion, which are used to debate specific issues of governance.

The correct answer is Nagara and Dravidian.

Key Points

• The Vesara style is a hybridized architectural tradition that combines the specific features of the Nagara style (prevalent in North India) and the Dravidian style (prevalent in South India).
• This style emerged and flourished primarily in the Deccan region, specifically in parts of modern-day Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• It was pioneered by the Badami Chalukyas around the 7^th century CE and further refined by the Rashtrakutas and the Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.
• In a typical Vesara temple, the Vimana (tower over the sanctum) combines the stepped, pyramidal profile of the Dravidian style with the curvilinear Shikhara elements of the Nagara style.
• The architecture reduces the height of the individual tiers of the tower while maintaining a greater number of stories, resulting in a unique stelar (star-shaped) or polygonal ground plan in later stages like the Hoysala architecture.

 Additional Information

• Nagara Style:
• Commonly found in North India, characterized by a curvilinear Shikhara.
• Key components include the Amalaka (ribbed stone disk) and Kalasha (pinnacle) at the top.
• Temples are often built on high stone platforms called Jagati.
• Dravidian Style:
• Commonly found in South India, characterized by pyramidal towers called Vimanas composed of several stories.
• Notable for its massive entrance gateways known as Gopurams and large Temple Tanks.
• The Chola and Pallava dynasties were major patrons of this style.
• Notable Examples:
• The Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal showcases the early transition and blending of styles.
• The Kailasa Temple at Ellora and the Chennakesava Temple at Belur are landmark representations of the evolved Vesara and Hoysala traditions.

The correct answer is A, B, AB, or O.

Key Points

• Human blood groups are determined by the ABO gene, which exhibits multiple allelism and codominance. This gene has three primary alleles: I^A, I^B, and i.
• A father with Type A blood can possess either a homozygous genotype (I^AI^A) or a heterozygous genotype (I^Ai).
• A mother with Type B blood can similarly have either a homozygous genotype (I^BI^B) or a heterozygous genotype (I^Bi).
• When both parents are heterozygous (I^Ai × I^Bi), the offspring inherit one allele from each parent, leading to four possible genetic combinations: I^AI^B, I^Ai, I^Bi, and ii.
• These four genotypes translate into the four distinct blood phenotypes: Type AB, Type A, Type B, and Type O, respectively.
• In the case of homozygous parents, the variety would be limited; however, the question asks for potential blood types, implying the broadest statistical possibility based on parental phenotypes.

 Additional Information

• Allelic Interaction:
• Dominance: Both I^A and I^B are completely dominant over the recessive allele i.
• Codominance: When I^A and I^B are present together, both are expressed, resulting in the AB blood group.
• Antigens: Type A blood contains A antigens, Type B contains B antigens, Type AB contains both, and Type O contains neither.
• Historical Fact: The ABO blood group system was discovered by Karl Landsteiner in 1900, for which he received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1930.
• Rh Factor: Blood type is further classified by the Rhesus (Rh) factor, a protein found on the surface of red blood cells, designated as positive (+) or negative (−).

The correct answer is Pyruvate.

Key Points

• The process of breaking down glucose to release energy starts in the cytoplasm of the cell through a metabolic pathway known as Glycolysis.
• Glucose is a six-carbon sugar molecule with the chemical formula C₆H₁₂O₆.
• During the enzymatic reactions of glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is split into two molecules of a three-carbon compound called pyruvate (or pyruvic acid).
• This conversion is an anaerobic process, meaning it does not require the presence of oxygen to proceed.
• The process results in a net production of energy in the form of two ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) molecules and two NADH (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide) molecules per glucose molecule.

 Additional Information

• Fate of Pyruvate:
• In aerobic respiration (in the presence of oxygen), pyruvate is transported into the mitochondria, where it is converted into Acetyl-CoA to enter the Krebs cycle for further oxidation.
• In anaerobic respiration or fermentation, pyruvate remains in the cytoplasm. In human muscle cells, it is converted into lactic acid during intense physical activity, leading to muscle fatigue.
• In microorganisms like yeast, pyruvate is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide in a process called alcoholic fermentation.
• Other Molecules:
• Acetylene: A hydrocarbon (C₂H₂) primarily used as a fuel and a chemical building block, not a standard intermediate in human respiration.
• Propane: A three-carbon alkane (C₃H₈) used as fuel; it is not produced during biological glucose metabolism.
• Benzene: A cyclic six-carbon aromatic hydrocarbon (C₆H₆) which is toxic and not a byproduct of cellular respiration.

The correct answer is Pyruvate.

Key Points

• Glycolysis is the initial stage of cellular respiration, occurring in the cytoplasm of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
• A single molecule of glucose, which is a six-carbon sugar (C₆H₁₂O₆), undergoes a series of ten enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
• The process breaks down the six-carbon chain into two identical three-carbon molecules called pyruvate (or pyruvic acid, C₃H₄O₃).
• During this conversion, there is a net production of two ATP molecules through substrate-level phosphorylation and the reduction of two NAD⁺ to two NADH molecules.
• Pyruvate acts as a metabolic crossroads; in the presence of oxygen, it enters the mitochondria for the Krebs cycle, whereas in anaerobic conditions, it undergoes fermentation.

 Additional Information

• Ethanol:
• A two-carbon compound (C₂H₅OH) produced during alcoholic fermentation in yeast and some bacteria.
• It is formed when pyruvate loses a carbon dioxide molecule to become acetaldehyde, which is then reduced.
• Acetic acid:
• A two-carbon organic acid (CH₃COOH) often resulting from the oxidation of ethanol.
• In cellular metabolism, it is typically found in the form of an acetyl group attached to Coenzyme A (Acetyl-CoA).
• Methane:
• The simplest one-carbon hydrocarbon (CH₄).
• It is a metabolic byproduct of methanogens (archaea) living in anaerobic environments, but it is not a direct product of the human glycolytic pathway.

The correct answer is Coal.

Key Points

• As of November 2025, Coal continues to be the single largest contributor to India's Total Energy Mix, accounting for nearly 50% of the total installed capacity and over 70% of the actual electricity generation.
• The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) and the Ministry of Power emphasize that while India is aggressively expanding its Renewable Energy portfolio, coal-fired thermal power remains essential for meeting the Base Load requirements of the national grid.
• India’s reliance on coal is driven by its vast domestic Coal Reserves, which provide Energy Security and help insulate the economy from the volatility of international fuel prices.
• Despite the Net Zero target by 2070, coal consumption has seen an absolute increase to support the rapid Industrialization and the Make in India initiative, ensuring a 24/7 Power Supply for the growing population.

 Additional Information

• Wind Energy:
• It is a key pillar of India's Non-Fossil Fuel targets, with major capacity concentrated in states like Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, and Karnataka.
• Although India ranks among the top countries for Installed Wind Capacity, it contributes much less to the total energy mix compared to fossil fuels.
• Nuclear Power:
• Operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), it currently contributes approximately 1.5% to 2% of the total capacity.
• Significant expansion is planned through the Indigenous 700 MW PHWRs to increase its share in the clean energy transition.
• Ethanol:
• Primarily relevant to the Transport Sector through the Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP), aiming for a 20% blend in petrol by 2025-26.
• It serves as a Biofuel to reduce Carbon Emissions and Oil Import Bills but is not a primary source for the national electricity grid.

The correct answer is Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India.

Key Points

• In the landmark case of Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court expanded the horizon of Article 21, which guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
• The Court ruled that any procedure established by law to deprive a person of their liberty must satisfy the requirement of being fair, just, and reasonable, and cannot be arbitrary, fanciful, or oppressive.
• This judgment fundamentally changed the constitutional landscape by linking Article 14, Article 19, and Article 21, collectively known as the Golden Triangle of the Indian Constitution.
• It effectively overruled the restrictive interpretation of the A.K. Gopalan case, establishing that law must also satisfy the principles of Natural Justice.
• The ruling introduced the concept of Substantive Due Process into Indian jurisprudence, ensuring that the judiciary can review the reasonableness of a law passed by the legislature.