DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 02 Mar, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

Total students in the row = 97.

Manoj is 15th from the right end.

Bipul is 26 places to the left of Manoj.

Rank from Left = Total Students - Rank from Right + 1

Manoj's position from the left = 97 - 15 + 1

= 83

Therefore, Manoj is 83rd from the left.

Bipul is 26 places to the left of Manoj.

Bipul's position from the left = 83 - 26

= 57th.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series:

(Left) U V # G A * R T @ E Y ± J ≥ A & R Y Ω @ A ÷ D U (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Consonant → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) U V # G A * R T @ E Y ± J ≥ A & R Y Ω @ A ÷ D U (Right)

There are four such consonants that are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

‘property right claim’ is coded as ‘ub kc sp’  

‘sell the property’ is coded as ‘nv sp ty’. 

Code for "property" is "sp".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

I, J, K, O, P and Q live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. J lives immediately above Q.
2. No one lives below O.
3. Only three people live between O and J.
4. I lives immediately below P. 

Final Floor Arrangement:

Two people live between K and P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart:

Family tree,

M is P's brother's wife's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Six people, L, M, N, R, S and T, are sitting around a circular table, facing the center of the table.

1. N sits to the immediate left of M.
2. S sits to the immediate left of T.
3. T sits second to the left of N.
4. L sits second to the left of M. 

Four people sit between R and S when counted from the left of R

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) Z Q Y δ D F P £ R & Z K A £ ξ D # $ Ω & % (Right)

Drop all the symbols from the series and find the seventh element from the left.

Checking the series:

(Left) Z Q Y D F P R Z K A D (Right)

The 7th element from the left is R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: T ÷ U − V × W

It means: T is the father of U, U is the brother of V, and V is the wife of W.

T is related to W as Wife's Father.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statement:

Y > R < E ≤ P = T

Conclusions:

I: T ≥ E → True (Since P = T and E ≤ P, therefore E ≤ T, which means T ≥ E.)

II: Y > P → False (From the given statement, no definite relationship can be established between Y and P because Y is related to R, while P is related to E through R.)

Therefore, only Conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) * 5 # % 5 & * * 6 9 3 % # @ & % 5 9 # & € # (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) * 5 # % **5 & *** * * 6 9 3 % # @ & % 5 9 # & € # (Right)

There are four such symbols that are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statement:

U < B < A > L = W

Combined Statement: U < B < A > L = W

Conclusions:

I: W > B → False (Since L = W and A > L, we get A > W. Also, B < A. However, no definite relationship can be established between W and B.)

II: A > W → True (Since A > L and L = W, therefore A > W.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Six boxes G, H, I, J, K, and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. I is kept on an odd position but not on the lowermost position.
2. Only two boxes are kept between I and J.
3. Only one box is kept between J and G.
4. H is kept immediately above G.
5. K is kept immediately above L. 

No box is kept exactly between I and G.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) $ 6 % 6 7 * 4 9 2 4 © & 7 9 % $ 9 8 6 4 4 5 (Right)

Condition to be checked: Number ← Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) $ 6 % 6 7 * 4 9 2 4 © & 7 9 % $ 9 8 6 4 4 5 (Right)

There are two such symbol which follow the required condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

Some chalks are tables.

Some tables are pencils.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some chalks are pencils → Does not follow (In the least possible Venn diagram, there is no direct relation or intersection between chalks and pencils.)

II. All pencils are tables → Does not follow (The given statements only mention that some tables are pencils; we cannot definitively conclude that all pencils are tables.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only two people sit to the right of G.
2. Only four people sit to the right of F.
3. D is the immediate neighbour of B and F.
4. E sits to the immediate left of C. 

Two people sit between A and C.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘water feels cold’ is coded as ‘af rm iw’  

‘cold night came’ is coded as ‘pq gh rm’.

Code for "cold" is "rm".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) 7 6 2 4 2 8 6 7 4 9 2 9 3 6 2 8 4 1 3 7 9 7 4 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Odd digit ← Odd digit → Even digit

Checking the series:

(Left) 7 6 2 4 2 8 6 7 4 9 2 9 9 3 6 2 8 4 1 3 7 3 7 9 7 9 7 9 7 4 (Right)

There are two such odd digit each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an even digit.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

‘DAMS’ is coded as ‘2376’

‘MASK’ is coded as ‘2761’.

Code for "K" is "1".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given word: CODLING

The letters formed are: D, P, E, M, J, O, H

English alphabetical order: D, E, H, J, M, O, P

Fourth letter from right = J

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

S, T, U, V, Y and Z live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. Only two people live between S and Y.
2. Only two people live between T and Z.
3. Only one person lives between V and Z.
4. V lives on floor numbered 1.
5. S lives above Z.

The final arrangement is as follows:

One person lives between U and T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Number: 3684275

The new number formed is: 5462097

Highest digit = 9

Lowest digit = 0

Difference = 9 − 0 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For the triad MK - PR - WU:

For the triad IG - LN - SQ:

Similarly,

Option 1) XV - AC - HF

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

19 + 2 (Prime number) = 21

21 + 3 (Prime number) = 24

24 + 5 (Prime number) = 29

29 + 7 (Prime number) = 36

36 + 11 (Prime number) = 47

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For the number 8734165

The new number formed is 6842246.

Now, identify the highest and lowest digits in the new number:

Highest Digit = 8

Lowest Digit = 2

Difference = 8 − 2 = 6

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

logic followed here is,

10 + 5 = 15

15 + 6 = 21

21 + 7 = 28

28 + 8 = 36

36 + 9 = 45

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For SR - UT:

For GF - JI:

For ON - RQ:

For CB - FE:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

GF 16 is related to HI 5 → 

PE 20 is related to QH 9 →

Similarly,

 LQ 23 related to,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Mirror image of given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 5 B 336 A 8 C 13 D 205 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 5 × 336 ÷ 8 + 13 - 205 = ?

⇒ 5 × 336 ÷ 8 + 13 - 205 = ?

⇒ 1680 ÷ 8 + 13 - 205 = ?

⇒ 210 + 13 - 205 = ?

⇒ 223 - 205 = ?

⇒ 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

Some chairs are medicines.

All medicines are injections.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some chairs are injections → Follow  (Because some chairs are medicines and all medicines are injections, the overlapping part between chairs and medicines will definitely be injections.)

II. All injections are medicines → Does not follow (According to the statements, all medicines are injections, but the reverse is not necessarily true.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic: (First number − Second number) = Third number

For (119, 53, 66) →

119 − 53 = 66

For (127, 78, 49) →

127 − 78 = 49

Similarly,

Option (2): (99, 24, 75)

 99 − 24 = 75

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 99 × 9 ÷ 17 − 3 + 48 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 99 ÷ 9 + 17 × 3 - 48 = ?

⇒ 99 ÷ 9 + 17 × 3 - 48 = ?

⇒ 11 + 17 × 3 - 48 = ?

⇒ 11 + 51 - 48 = ?

⇒ 11 + 51 - 48 = ?

⇒ 62 - 48 = ?

⇒ 14.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

For ER 13 is related to GQ −2 →

For KI 19 is related to MH 4 →

Similarly, 

PT 23 related,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: (First number) × (Second number) = Third number.

For (12, 8, 96) →

12 × 8 = 96

For (21, 9, 189) →

21 × 9 = 189

Similarly, 

Option (4):  (17, 7, 119) →

17 × 7 = 119

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 10 ÷ 4 + 4 × 4 - 1 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 10 × 4 - 4 ÷ 4 + 1 = ?

⇒ 10 × 4 - 4 ÷ 4 + 1 = ?

⇒ 40 - 4 ÷ 4 + 1 = ?

⇒ 40 - 1 + 1 = ?

⇒ 40 - 1 + 1 = ?

⇒ 39 + 1 = ?

⇒ 40.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (First Number) − (Second Number) = (Third Number)

For (158, 84, 74) →

158 − 84 = 74

For (121, 62, 59) →

121 − 62 = 59

Similarly, 

Option (1): (123, 85, 38) →

123 − 85 = 38

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is Partition of Bengal.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement was a direct consequence of the British government's decision to partition Bengal, which was announced by Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India, on July 20, 1905.
• The movement was formally proclaimed on August 7, 1905, at a massive meeting held at the Calcutta Town Hall, where the Boycott Resolution was passed.
• The British justified the partition on grounds of administrative necessity, claiming the province of Bengal was too large (containing nearly 78 million people) to be governed effectively from a single center.
• The actual political motive was to divide the unified Bengali population along communal lines, creating a Muslim-majority Eastern wing and a Hindu-majority Western wing to weaken the rising tide of Indian nationalism.
• Prominent leaders of the movement, such as Surendranath Banerjee, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai, advocated for the use of indigenous goods and the total boycott of British imports, particularly Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt.
• The movement marked a transition from moderate methods of petitioning to more radical forms of protest, including the promotion of national education and economic self-reliance.

 Additional Information

• Partition of Bengal Details:
• The partition took effect on October 16, 1905, a day observed as a day of mourning across Bengal.
• People tied Rakhi on each other's wrists as a symbol of the unbreakable unity between Hindus and Muslims.
• The partition was eventually annulled in 1911 by Lord Hardinge during the Delhi Durbar visited by King George V.
• Defence of India Act (1915):
• An emergency criminal law passed during World War I to curtail nationalist and revolutionary activities, particularly the Ghadar conspiracy.
• Indian Press Act (1910):
• Legislated to suppress the growth of seditious publications by requiring printers to provide a financial security that could be forfeited if they published material critical of the British.
• Rowlatt Act (1919):
• Formally known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, it allowed the government to detain political activists without trial for up to two years, leading to the Rowlatt Satyagraha led by Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

Key Points

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was enacted in September 2005 and officially launched on February 2, 2006.
• It provides a legal guarantee for at least 100 days of unskilled manual work in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for it.
• A core feature of the program is its emphasis on Natural Resource Management (NRM); approximately 60 percent of the works are focused on activities such as water conservation, drought proofing, land development, and minor irrigation.
• The scheme acts as a demand-driven social security measure, ensuring livelihood security while simultaneously creating durable community assets that enhance agricultural productivity.
• It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development and includes mandatory provisions for social audits and the reservation of at least one-third of jobs for women.

 Additional Information

• Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY):
• Launched in 2014, it is a placement-linked skill training initiative targeting rural youth between 15 to 35 years of age.
• Its primary goal is to provide income diversity to poor families by preparing youth for jobs in the formal sector.
• National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS):
• Introduced in August 2016 to promote apprenticeship training across various industries.
• The scheme provides financial incentives to employers to encourage them to engage and train apprentices, thereby boosting employability.
• PM Vishwakarma Yojana (PMVY):
• Launched in September 2023, it supports artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools in 18 traditional trades.
• Key features include skill upgradation, toolkit incentives, and collateral-free credit support for traditional artisans.

The correct answer is Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Key Points

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy is recognized as the Father of the Indian Renaissance for his pioneering efforts in social, educational, and religious reforms in the early 19th century.
• He founded the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, which later became the Brahmo Samaj, emphasizing monotheism and the rejection of idol worship and meaningless rituals.
• The abolition of Sati (the practice of widows immolating themselves on their husband’s funeral pyre) was his most significant social contribution, driven by the personal trauma of witnessing his sister-in-law’s death in 1811.
• He launched a powerful campaign through his journal Sambad Kaumudi and wrote extensively to prove that Sati had no sanction in the ancient Hindu scriptures like the Vedas.
• His tireless advocacy and petitions to the British government led the Governor-General, Lord William Bentinck, to pass the Bengal Sati Regulation on December 4, 1829, which declared the practice illegal and punishable as culpable homicide.

 Additional Information

• Swami Vivekananda:
• He was the chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and established the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to perform social service.
• He gained global fame after his speech at the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago in 1893.
• B.R. Ambedkar:
• Known as the Father of the Indian Constitution, he served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
• He campaigned against caste-based discrimination and led the movement for Dalit rights, eventually converting to Buddhism.
• Swami Dayanand:
• The founder of the Arya Samaj in 1875, he promoted the slogan Back to the Vedas.
• He worked for widow remarriage and women’s education while opposing child marriage and idolatry.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• According to the Economic Survey of India 2024-2025 and the First Advance Estimates from the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Gujarat maintains its status as the leading producer of cotton in the country.
• The state is favored by the presence of Black Soil (also known as Regur Soil), which has an exceptional ability to retain moisture, making it ideal for Kharif crops like cotton.
• Gujarat contributes nearly 30 percent of India's total cotton production, with major cultivation hubs located in the Saurashtra and Kutch regions.
• The state's high productivity is driven by the extensive use of Bt cotton varieties and efficient micro-irrigation practices, distinguishing it from other states that rely more on rain-fed farming.
• India is currently one of the top two producers of cotton globally, and the textile industry in Gujarat (centered in Ahmedabad and Surat) provides a ready market for the raw produce.

 Additional Information

• Maharashtra:
• While it frequently possesses the largest area under cotton cultivation in India, its overall production often ranks second or third due to lower yields in the rain-dependent regions of Vidarbha and Marathwada.
• Telangana:
• It is the largest producer in the South Zone, where cotton is a significant commercial crop supported by MSP procurement via the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI).
• Tamil Nadu:
• Although its production volume is lower compared to western states, it is a crucial hub for the consumption of cotton, boasting the highest concentration of spinning mills in India, particularly in Coimbatore.
• Growth Requirements:
• Cotton requires a temperature between 21°C and 30°C, at least 210 frost-free days, and 50 to 100 cm of rainfall or irrigation during its 6 to 8 month maturation period.

The correct answer is 24.

Key Points

• The Indian athletics contingent delivered a stellar performance at the Asian Athletics Championships 2025, which was hosted in the city of Gumi, South Korea.
• India finished in the second position in the final medal standings, trailing only behind China, which traditionally dominates the continental track and field events.
• The total medal haul for India consisted of 24 medals, reflecting a balanced contribution from both track and field athletes across various technical disciplines.
• Out of the 24 medals won, India secured 9 gold medals, 10 silver medals, and 5 bronze medals, marking it as one of the nation's most successful outings in the history of the championships.
• The event showcased India's growing prowess in events like the Javelin Throw, Triple Jump, and 4×400m Relays, which were pivotal in securing the high rank on the leaderboard.

 Additional Information

• Asian Athletics Championships:
• This is a biennial event organized by the Asian Athletics Association (AAA) to crown continental champions.
• The 2025 edition in Gumi was the 26th edition of the championships, following the 2023 event held in Bangkok, Thailand.
• Host city Gumi is a major industrial hub in South Korea, and the event was held at the Gumi Civic Stadium.
• Performance in these championships often serves as a qualification pathway for the World Athletics Championships and provides critical World Ranking points for Olympic qualification.
• The rise in India's medal count from previous years is attributed to the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and enhanced training exposures provided by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).

The correct answer is NorthEast United.

Key Points

• NorthEast United FC clinched their first-ever Durand Cup title in the 2025 edition (134th edition) by defeating Mohun Bagan Super Giant in the final.
• The high-stakes final was held at the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan (Salt Lake Stadium) in Kolkata, where the Highlanders made a remarkable comeback to win via a penalty shootout.
• This victory marked a historic milestone for the club, as it was their first major domestic trophy since the franchise was established in the Indian Super League (ISL).
• The tournament, held during July-August 2025, featured a mix of clubs from the ISL, I-League, and the Indian Armed Forces, maintaining its prestige as a traditional season opener.

 Additional Information

• Durand Cup:
• Established in 1888 by Sir Henry Mortimer Durand in Shimla, it is the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest globally.
• The tournament is organized by the Durand Football Tournament Society (DFTS) in coordination with the Indian Armed Forces and the All India Football Federation (AIFF).
• The winners are traditionally presented with three distinct trophies: the Durand Cup, the Shimla Trophy, and the President's Cup.
• Other Participating Clubs:
• Mohun Bagan and East Bengal: These Kolkata-based giants are the most successful teams in the history of the competition, having won 17 titles each.
• Diamond Harbour: A rising club from West Bengal that has been making significant strides in the local and national football circuits.

The correct answer is Namrata Batra.

Key Points

• Namrata Batra secured a historic silver medal in the Wushu Sanda 52 kg weight category at the 2025 World Games.
• The event was hosted in Chengdu, China, marking a significant milestone for Indian combat sports on the international stage.
• With this achievement, she became the first Indian athlete ever to win a medal in the discipline of Wushu at the World Games.
• The World Games is an international multi-sport event held every four years, featuring sports and disciplines that are not currently included in the Olympic Games.
• Her performance in the Sanda discipline involved intense bouts combining techniques of striking and grappling, demonstrating elite tactical skill and physical endurance.

 Additional Information

• Wushu and Sanda:
• Wushu is a traditional Chinese martial art that has evolved into a global competitive sport categorized into Taolu (routine) and Sanda (combat).
• Sanda is a full-contact fighting system that allows punches, kicks, and throws, governed by the International Wushu Federation (IWUF).
• Other Athletes Mentioned:
• Seema Punia is a highly decorated Indian discus thrower and a four-time Olympian with multiple medals at the Asian Games.
• Kavita Raut is a celebrated long-distance runner and an Arjuna Award recipient who specialized in the 10,000 meters event.
• Sarita Devi is an acclaimed former World Champion in boxing and a multiple-time medalist at the Asian Championships.

The correct answer is Excess of government spending over revenue.

Key Points

• Fiscal Deficit is defined as the difference between the total expenditure of the government and its total receipts (excluding borrowings) during a given financial year. It indicates the total amount of money the government needs to borrow from the market to meet its expenses.
• It serves as a critical measure of the financial health and fiscal discipline of a country. A high fiscal deficit can lead to inflation, higher interest rates, and a potential debt trap if not managed effectively.
• The calculation follows the formula: Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure (Revenue + Capital) − (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts). Non-debt capital receipts include items like disinvestment proceeds and recovery of loans.
• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 was introduced in India to provide a legal framework for reducing the fiscal deficit to a sustainable level, originally targeting 3% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• Governments typically finance this deficit through market borrowings (issuing bonds/G-Secs), external debt from international agencies, or by drawing down cash balances with the central bank.

 Additional Information

• Trade Deficit:
• This occurs specifically in the Current Account when a country's total value of imports of goods and services exceeds the total value of its exports.
• Revenue Deficit:
• This refers to the gap between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts, indicating that the government's current earnings are insufficient to cover its day-to-day operational expenses.
• Primary Deficit:
• It is calculated by subtracting interest payments on previous debts from the current fiscal deficit. It shows the government's borrowing requirements for expenses excluding past interest liabilities.
• Foreign Debt:
• This represents the portion of a country's total debt that is owed to foreign creditors, including commercial banks, governments, or international financial institutions like the IMF or World Bank.

The correct answer is The Non-Cooperation Movement.

Key Points

• The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched in 1920 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, marked a significant shift in the Indian national struggle toward non-violent mass resistance.
• Following the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms and the implementation of the repressive Rowlatt Act, Gandhi persuaded extremist leaders and revolutionary groups to suspend their violent methods in favor of his promise to achieve Swaraj (self-rule) within one year.
• Prominent revolutionary figures, many of whom later became part of the Hindustan Republican Association, agreed to join the unified nationalist front, leading to a temporary cessation of individual heroic actions and armed conspiracies.
• The movement successfully integrated various factions of the Indian National Congress and the Khilafat Committee, creating a massive base of support that prioritized civil disobedience and the boycott of British institutions over secret militant activities.
• The temporary lull in revolutionary activities lasted until the movement was abruptly withdrawn in February 1922 due to the violent Chauri Chaura incident, which later caused disillusionment and a resurgence of radical militancy.

 Additional Information

• The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:
• Occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar when British troops under General Dyer fired on a peaceful gathering.
• Instead of a withdrawal, it served as a primary grievance and catalyst that fueled the start of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• The Simon Commission:
• An all-white commission sent to India in 1928 to review constitutional progress.
• Its arrival actually triggered a new wave of revolutionary activities and protests, notably leading to the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.
• The Lucknow Pact:
• An agreement signed in 1916 between the Indian National Congress and the All India Muslim League.
• It was a pre-1919 political development aimed at achieving a common set of demands for constitutional reforms.

The correct answer is Chenab River.

Key Points

• The Chenab Bridge is a massive steel and concrete arch bridge located in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir, designed to link the Kashmir Valley with the rest of the Indian rail network.
• Standing at a height of 359 meters (1,178 feet) above the riverbed, it is recognized as the world's highest railway bridge, rising approximately 35 meters higher than the Eiffel Tower in Paris.
• The bridge is a key component of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, which is a National Project aimed at providing all-weather connectivity to the northernmost regions of India.
• The structure has a total length of 1,315 meters and has been engineered to withstand extreme weather conditions, including wind speeds of up to 266 km/h and high-intensity seismic activity (Zone V).
• The construction involved the use of approximately 28,660 metric tonnes of steel, and it is designed for a functional lifespan of at least 120 years.

 Additional Information

• Chenab River:
• It is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers at Tandi in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh.
• In ancient times, it was known as the Asikni river in the Rigveda.
• Jhelum River:
• Originates from the Verinag Spring at the foot of the Pir Panjal range and is the lifeline of the Kashmir Valley.
• It flows through Srinagar and the Wular Lake before entering Pakistan.
• Beas River:
• A river in north India that rises in the Himalayas in central Himachal Pradesh at Beas Kund.
• It flows for some 470 kilometers to the Sutlej River at Harike Pattan in Punjab.
• Sutlej River:
• The longest of the five rivers that flow through the historic crossroads region of Punjab in northern India and Pakistan.
• It enters India through the Shipki La pass and is the site of the massive Bhakra-Nangal Dam.

The correct answer is Amrit Bharat Station Scheme.

Key Points

• On February 26, 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the redevelopment of 553 railway stations across the country.
• This initiative is a critical component of the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme, which aims to modernize Indian Railways infrastructure with a long-term vision.
• The redevelopment project for these stations is estimated to cost approximately Rs. 19,000 crores, spanning across 27 States and Union Territories.
• The scheme focuses on transforming stations into City Centres, ensuring they act as hubs for socio-economic activities by integrating both sides of the city areas.
• Proposed upgrades include modern passenger amenities, roof plazas, beautiful landscaping, intermodal connectivity, and dedicated kids play areas.
• Simultaneously, the Prime Minister inaugurated or laid the foundation for 1,500 road overbridges and underpasses to enhance safety and reduce traffic congestion.

 Additional Information

• Amrit Bharat Station Scheme:
• Launched by the Ministry of Railways in February 2023, the scheme initially identified 1,318 stations for comprehensive development.
• It emphasizes sustainable and environment-friendly solutions, including ballastless tracks where necessary and improved drainage systems.
• The stations are designed to be Divyangjan-friendly, ensuring accessibility for persons with disabilities through lifts, escalators, and tactile flooring.
• It incorporates One Station One Product stalls to promote local trade and indigenous craftsmanship.
• The scheme aligns with the broader Viksit Bharat @2047 goal, aiming to create a world-class transport network supporting India's economic growth.

The correct answer is Establishing swadeshi enterprises and promoting indigenous education.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement (1905–1911) was launched as a reaction to the Partition of Bengal initiated by Lord Curzon, shifting the Indian national struggle from constitutional agitation to a mass-based movement.
• The Extremists, led by the Lal-Bal-Pal trio (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal), advocated for Atmashakti (self-reliance) to build national strength and challenge British hegemony.
• A primary strategy for mass mobilization was the promotion of Swadeshi Enterprises to achieve economic independence; this saw the rise of indigenous textile mills, soap factories, tanneries, and the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company founded by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai.
• Indigenous Education became a vital tool for decolonizing the Indian mind; the National Council of Education was established on August 15, 1906, to provide technical and literary education through vernacular languages.
• To bridge the gap between the leadership and the masses, Extremists utilized Samitis (volunteer corps) like the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti of Ashwini Kumar Dutt, which engaged in social work, magic lantern lectures, and patriotic songs.
• Cultural symbols and festivals, such as the Ganpati and Shivaji Festivals popularized by Tilak, were leveraged to mobilize the peasantry and lower-middle classes who were previously untouched by political discourse.

 Additional Information

• Moderate Strategy:
• Relied on the '3Ps'—Prayer, Petition, and Protest—aimed at influencing the British Parliament and the British public rather than direct mass action.
• Their primary objective was Dominion Status and administrative reforms through constitutional means like resolutions and speeches.
• Boycott and Passive Resistance:
• Extremists introduced the concept of Boycott, which extended beyond foreign cloth to include government schools, courts, and titles to paralyze the colonial administration.
• Massive public bonfires of foreign goods became a hallmark of this period, symbolizing the rejection of British economic exploitation.
• Impact on Literature and Science:
• The period witnessed a surge in nationalist literature, with Rabindranath Tagore composing Amar Sonar Bangla, and scientists like Jagadish Chandra Bose and P.C. Ray contributing to national pride through their achievements.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• In January 2026, the Madhya Pradesh government announced a comprehensive agricultural MSP bonus scheme to enhance the financial stability of the farming community.
• The state government officially designated the calendar year 2026 as Krishak Kalyan Year (Farmer Welfare Year) to focus on multi-dimensional agricultural reforms.
• This scheme provides a state-funded bonus that is paid over and above the Minimum Support Price (MSP) set by the Central Government for crops like wheat and paddy.
• The initiative aims to safeguard farmers against market price fluctuations and ensure that the cost of production is adequately compensated through increased procurement prices.
• By designating 2026 as a special year for farmers, the administration intends to streamline the e-procurement process and ensure timely payments directly into the bank accounts of beneficiaries via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

 Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh Agriculture:
• The state is a consistent recipient of the Krishi Karman Award, highlighting its leadership in food grain production.
• It is the largest producer of soybean and pulses in India, often referred to as the Soya Bowl.
• Minimum Support Price (MSP):
• MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
• It is announced at the beginning of the sowing season based on recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• Krishak Kalyan Year Objectives:
• Apart from price bonuses, the year 2026 focuses on expanding micro-irrigation and providing subsidized fertilizers and seeds.
• The state aims to strengthen the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) to provide easier access to credit for small and marginal farmers.

The correct answer is Aryadan Shoukath.

Key Points

• The Nilambur Assembly constituency bypoll was conducted in June 2025 following a vacancy that necessitated a fresh mandate from the electorate.
• Aryadan Shoukath, representing the Indian National Congress (INC) and the United Democratic Front (UDF), emerged as the winner in this high-stakes election.
• He is the son of the late veteran leader Aryadan Mohammed, who was an eight-time Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) from the same constituency, signifying a continuation of the family political legacy.
• The victory is strategically important for the UDF in the Malappuram district, which remains a traditional stronghold for the coalition despite intense competition from the Left Democratic Front (LDF).
• The election focused on local development issues, the heritage of the Aryadan family, and the state level performance of the ruling and opposition fronts in Kerala.

 Additional Information

• Aryadan Shoukath:
• Beyond politics, he is a noted film producer and scriptwriter, having received critical acclaim for his works in the Malayalam film industry.
• He has previously served in various administrative roles, including as the Chairman of the Nilambur Municipality and the President of the Nilambur Grama Panchayat.
• M Swaraj:
• A prominent leader of the Communist Party of India (Marxist) (CPI-M) and a former MLA from the Tripunithura constituency, known for his oratorical skills.
• Nilambur Constituency:
• Located in the Malappuram district, it is globally renowned for the Conolly Plot, the world’s oldest man-made teak plantation established in 1842.
• The region is characterized by its proximity to the Western Ghats and its rich biodiversity.

The correct answer is SDG 13: Climate Action.

Key Points

• The State of India's Environment 2025 report, published annually by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) and Down To Earth, provides a critical assessment of India's environmental health and its progress toward the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• The report highlights that SDG 13 (Climate Action) is currently not on track in India, primarily due to the increasing frequency and intensity of extreme weather events such as heatwaves, cyclones, and unprecedented floods.
• Statistical data indicates that India experienced extreme weather on nearly 93 percent of the days in the first nine months of 2024, which resulted in significant casualties and economic losses, directly hindering the targets of climate resilience.
• The report notes that while India has set ambitious Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), the practical implementation of adaptation strategies at the grassroots level remains insufficient to meet the 2030 deadline.
• SDG 13 requires urgent measures to integrate climate change measures into national policies and strategies, but the rising greenhouse gas emissions and deforestation rates in specific regions continue to pose a major challenge.

 Additional Information

• SDG 1 (No Poverty):
• Aims to eradicate extreme poverty for all people everywhere by 2030.
• India has shown improvement through schemes like MGNREGA and PM-Kisan, though rural-urban gaps persist.
• SDG 4 (Quality Education):
• Focuses on ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities.
• Progress is monitored through the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 frameworks.
• SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy):
• Targets universal access to affordable, reliable, and modern energy services.
• India is performing relatively well in this sector due to the massive expansion of solar and wind power capacity.
• The NITI Aayog is the primary body in India that releases the SDG India Index to track the performance of various States and Union Territories.

The correct answer is Representation of Buddha as a symbol, not as a human figure.

Key Points

• Aniconism in the context of early Buddhism refers to the prohibition or avoidance of depicting the Buddha in physical human form. This practice dominated Buddhist art from approximately the 3rd century BCE to the 1st century CE.
• During this period, which is largely associated with the Theravada or Hinayana school of thought, artists used specific motifs to signify the presence of the Enlightened One. Key symbols included the Bodhi tree (representing his enlightenment), the Dharmachakra (Wheel of Dharma) representing his first sermon at Sarnath, and the Empty Throne.
• Other prominent aniconic representations included Buddhapada (Footprints), Chattra (Umbrellas), and the Stupa, which symbolized the Mahaparinirvana or his final liberation from the cycle of birth and death.
• The philosophical rationale behind this was the belief that since the Buddha had attained Nirvana and ceased to exist in a physical or mortal sense, representing him in human likeness would be doctrinally inaccurate.
• Evidence of this artistic style is most visible in the narrative reliefs found on the Toranas (gateways) and railings of the Sanchi Stupa and Bharhut Stupa, where crowds are shown worshipping a tree or a wheel instead of a person.

 Additional Information

• Iconic Phase:
• The transition from aniconic to anthropomorphic (human-shaped) art occurred around the 1st century CE during the Kushan Empire.
• The Gandhara School (heavily influenced by Hellenistic styles) and the Mathura School were the two primary centers that pioneered the creation of Buddha idols.
• Miniature Paintings:
• This style is not related to early Buddhist art; it developed much later in India, gaining prominence during the Pala period (11th century) and reaching its peak under Mughal patronage.
• Mahayana Buddhism:
• The shift toward iconism was fueled by the rise of Mahayana Buddhism, which emphasized the Bhakti (devotion) aspect and viewed the Buddha as a deity to be worshipped in physical form.

The correct answer is Penguin Books.

Key Points

• V. K. Krishna Menon played a pivotal role as the co-founding editor of the Pelican Books imprint, which was the non-fiction branch of Penguin Books, established in the late 1930s.
• He collaborated closely with Allen Lane, the founder of Penguin, to launch the series in May 1937 with the goal of providing high-quality, educational literature to the general public.
• The first title published under his editorship was George Bernard Shaw’s 'The Intelligent Woman’s Guide to Socialism and Capitalism', marking a shift toward making serious intellectual discourse accessible to the masses.
• During his early career in London, Menon was instrumental in commissioning authors and shaping the editorial direction of the imprint, which focused on subjects like economics, politics, and philosophy.
• The Pelican series was sold at the revolutionary price of sixpence, mirroring the Penguin fiction paperbacks, which democratized reading habits across Great Britain.

 Additional Information

• V. K. Krishna Menon’s Political Contributions:
• He served as the Secretary of the India League from 1929 to 1947, lobbying the British government for Indian independence.
• Post-independence, he was appointed the first High Commissioner of India to the United Kingdom and later served as the Minister of Defence from 1957 to 1962.
• He is famous for delivering the longest speech ever recorded in the United Nations Security Council, spanning nearly eight hours on the topic of Kashmir in 1957.
• Legacy of Pelican Books:
• The imprint became a symbol of the 'blue-collar intellectual' movement and was eventually integrated into the broader Penguin Group, continuing to influence global publishing standards for decades.

The correct answer is Meri Panchayat.

Key Points

• The Meri Panchayat mobile application was recognized as a Champion at the World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS) 2025 Prizes, an international competition that honors excellence in Information and Communication Technologies (ICT).
• The award was conferred during the WSIS+20 Forum High-Level Event in Geneva, Switzerland, specifically under the e-Governance category for its contribution to digital inclusion and rural empowerment.
• Developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) for the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, the application serves as a unified platform to promote transparency and accountability in 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India.
• It empowers rural citizens by providing direct access to information regarding Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP), budgetary allocations, and the status of ongoing development works via their smartphones.
• The application facilitates participatory democracy by allowing residents to attend Gram Sabhas virtually, provide feedback, and monitor government schemes, effectively bridging the gap between local authorities and the public.

 Additional Information

• WSIS Framework and Significance:
• The World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS) is a global platform coordinated by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), UNESCO, and UNDP to leverage ICT for the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• The recognition of the Meri Panchayat app aligns with the WSIS Action Lines, focusing on e-environment and e-health but primarily on e-governance (Action Line C7).
• Digital Governance Initiatives in India:
• The application is a critical component of the Digital India mission, specifically supporting the Localization of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs) in rural areas.
• It integrates with other digital ecosystems like e-GramSwaraj and the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) to ensure that social audits and geo-tagging of assets are conducted accurately at the grassroots level.
• This initiative helps in managing the data of over 600,000 villages, making India a global leader in ICT-driven grassroots development.

The correct answer is Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Key Points

• The Samudrayaan project is India's first unique manned deep-ocean mission, launched to conduct deep-sea exploration and study rare minerals.
• The mission is being implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) as part of the broader Deep Ocean Mission, which was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021.
• A key component of this project is the development of a self-propelled manned submersible named MATSYA 6000, which is designed to carry three human beings to a depth of 6000 meters.
• The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, is responsible for the design and development of the submersible.
• The primary scientific goal involves the exploration of Polymetallic Nodules, Gas Hydrates, and Hydrothermal Sulphides located in the deep ocean floor.
• This mission places India in an elite club of nations, including the USA, Russia, France, Japan, and China, that possess manned submersibles for deep-sea activities.

 Additional Information

• Deep Ocean Mission (DOM):
• It is a mission-mode project to support the Blue Economy initiatives of the Government of India.
• The total estimated cost of the mission is approximately 4,077 crore rupees for a period of five years.
• It includes six major components, such as development of technologies for deep-sea mining and ocean climate change advisory services.
• Polymetallic Nodules:
• These are potato-shaped mineral concentrations found on the sea bottom, containing Manganese, Nickel, Cobalt, and Copper.
• India has been allocated 75,000 square kilometers in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for exploration.
• Ministry of Jal Shakti:
• Created in May 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.

The correct answer is 2019.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) was officially launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment in February 2019.
• The scheme was first announced during the Interim Budget 2019 by the Government of India to provide financial security to workers in the unorganized sector.
• It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme where the central government provides a matching contribution equal to the amount paid by the worker.
• The primary target group includes home-based workers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, construction workers, and domestic workers.
• Eligibility for the scheme is restricted to unorganized workers in the age group of 18 to 40 years whose monthly income is 15,000 INR or less.

 Additional Information

• Core Features of PM-SYM:
• Assured Pension: Each subscriber receives a minimum assured pension of 3,000 INR per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
• Fund Management: The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) serves as the Pension Fund Manager and handles the disbursement of pensions.
• Family Pension: In the event of the subscriber’s death while receiving the pension, the spouse is entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension amount.
• Exclusions: Workers who are already covered under other statutory social security schemes such as the National Pension System (NPS), Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), or Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) are not eligible.
• Tax Status: Individuals who are income tax payers are also excluded from joining the scheme to ensure benefits reach the most vulnerable economic segments.

The correct answer is Barakar.

Key Points

• The Barakar River serves as the primary and longest tributary of the Damodar River, playing a crucial role in the drainage system of the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
• It originates in the Padma area of the Hazaribagh district in Jharkhand and flows for approximately 225 kilometers before joining the Damodar near Dishergarh in West Bengal.
• The river basin covers an area of about 6,159 square kilometers, traversing through major districts such as Koderma, Giridih, and Dhanbad in Jharkhand.
• It is the site of two major dams under the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC): the Tilaiya Dam and the Maithon Dam, which are vital for flood control, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.
• The Damodar River itself, once known as the Sorrow of Bengal, eventually joins the Hooghly River (a distributary of the Ganges) in West Bengal.

 Additional Information

• Mahananda River:
• It is a trans-boundary river originating in the Darjeeling Hills (Mahaldiram Hill) of West Bengal.
• It flows through Bihar and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh to join the Ganges.
• Subarnarekha River:
• This river originates near Nagri village in the Ranchi district of Jharkhand.
• It is an independent river that flows through Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, eventually draining directly into the Bay of Bengal.
• The famous Hundru Falls is located on the course of this river.
• Ajay River:
• The Ajay originates in the Jamui district of Bihar and flows through Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• It runs almost parallel to the Damodar for a significant distance and finally joins the Bhagirathi River near Katwa.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep Island.

Key Points

• The archipelago formerly known as the Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands was renamed Lakshadweep by an act of Parliament.
• The name change was formalised through the Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindivi Islands (Alteration of Name) Act, 1973.
• This legislation officially came into effect on November 1, 1973, providing a unified identity to the island groups.
• The name Lakshadweep literally translates to 'a hundred thousand islands' in Sanskrit and Malayalam.
• It is India's smallest Union Territory, consisting of 36 islands scattered over approximately 32 square kilometers in the Arabian Sea.
• The islands were originally constituted as a Union Territory in 1956 after being separated from the Malabar District of Madras State.

 Additional Information

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
• This is a distinct Union Territory located in the Bay of Bengal.
• It consists of two island groups, the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands, separated by the 10 Degree Channel.
• Pamban Island:
• Also known as Rameswaram Island, it lies between peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
• It is connected to mainland India by the historic Pamban Bridge in the state of Tamil Nadu.
• Divar Island:
• A prominent island located in the Mandovi River within the state of Goa.
• It is famous for its historical sites and the traditional Bonderam festival.
• Geography of Lakshadweep:
• The capital and administrative headquarters of the territory is Kavaratti.
• The region is renowned for its vast lagoon areas and rich coral reef ecosystems.

The correct answer is 1992.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was passed by the Parliament in 1992 to provide constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), facilitating local self-governance in rural India.
• The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act was similarly passed in 1992 to grant constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), ensuring democratic governance in cities and towns.
• These landmark legislations were introduced during the administration of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao to decentralize power to the grassroots level.
• The 73rd Amendment resulted in the insertion of Part IX and the 11th Schedule into the Indian Constitution, containing 29 functional items for Panchayats.
• The 74th Amendment led to the addition of Part IXA and the 12th Schedule, which lists 18 functional tasks for Municipalities.

 Additional Information

• 73rd Amendment Act Context:
• It came into effect on April 24, 1993, which is now officially observed as National Panchayati Raj Day in India.
• The Act established a mandatory three-tier system consisting of Gram Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samitis at the intermediate level, and Zila Parishads at the district level.
• It provided for mandatory reservation of at least one-third of the total number of seats for women.
• 74th Amendment Act Context:
• It came into legal force on June 1, 1993, standardizing the structure of urban governance across the country.
• It identified three types of municipalities: Nagar Panchayats for transitional areas, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas, and Municipal Corporations for large metropolitan areas.
• The Act necessitated the creation of State Finance Commissions every five years to review the financial position of local bodies and recommend the devolution of taxes.

The correct answer is Articles 32.

Key Points

• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which allows citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the father of the Indian Constitution, described this article as the most important provision, calling it the 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution' because it makes fundamental rights real and enforceable.
• Under this Article, the Supreme Court is empowered to issue directions, orders, or writs for the protection of rights, acting as the guarantor and protector of the individual liberties of Indian citizens.
• The five types of writs mentioned in the Constitution are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo-Warranto, each serving a specific judicial purpose to prevent the violation of rights by the State.
• Unlike other fundamental rights, Article 32 is itself a fundamental right, meaning that the right to approach the court for a remedy cannot be suspended except during a National Emergency as per Article 359.

 Additional Information

• Article 30:
• Focuses on the right of minorities (linguistic or religious) to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• It ensures that the State does not discriminate against any educational institution in granting aid on the ground that it is managed by a minority.
• Article 31:
• Originally dealt with the Right to Property.
• It was repealed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 and was converted into a legal right under Article 300A.
• Article 33:
• Empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of members of the Armed Forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, and intelligence agencies.
• This is done to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline within these specialized services.
• Article 226:
• While Article 32 allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court, Article 226 provides similar powers to the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other legal purpose.

The correct answer is sexual reproduction.

Key Points

• Sexual reproduction is a complex biological process that involves the production of offspring through the combination of genetic material from two different individuals of different sexes.
• The process fundamentally relies on the fusion of specialized reproductive cells called gametes. In animals, these are the sperm (male gamete) and the ovum or egg (female gamete).
• The act of fusion between these two haploid cells is termed fertilization, which results in the formation of a diploid zygote.
• This zygote undergoes subsequent cell divisions and differentiation to develop into a complete individual, carrying a unique set of DNA derived from both parents.
• A primary advantage of this mode of reproduction is the promotion of genetic variation, which is crucial for the evolution and adaptation of a species to changing environments.

 Additional Information

• Asexual reproduction:
• Involves a single parent without the production or fusion of gametes.
• The offspring produced are genetically identical to the parent and to each other, often referred to as clones.
• Binary fission:
• A specific form of asexual reproduction common in prokaryotes like bacteria and some unicellular eukaryotes like Amoeba.
• The parent organism replicates its genetic material and divides into two nearly equal daughter cells.
• Mitosis:
• A fundamental process of cell division where a single cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells.
• While it facilitates asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms, in multicellular organisms, its primary roles are growth, tissue repair, and asexual maintenance.

The correct answer is Amaravati Stupa.

Key Points

• The Amaravati Stupa, historically referred to as the Mahachaitya, is located in the Palnadu district (formerly Guntur) of Andhra Pradesh on the banks of the Krishna River.
• Construction began around the 2nd century BCE and underwent significant expansions during the Satavahana and Ikshvaku periods, reaching its zenith between 150 CE and 250 CE.
• It is the quintessential monument of the Amaravati School of Art, distinguished by its use of Palnadu limestone (white marble appearance) and intricate narrative panels depicting the Jataka tales and the Life of Buddha.
• Architecturally, it is unique for its Ayaka platforms topped with five Ayaka pillars facing the cardinal directions, symbolizing the five major events in Gautama Buddha’s life.
• The stupa was famously documented by Colonel Colin Mackenzie in 1797, though much of its sculptural wealth was later moved to museums in Chennai and London (the British Museum).

 Additional Information

• Kesariya Stupa:
• Located in the East Champaran district of Bihar.
• It is widely regarded as one of the tallest stupas in the world, with a height of approximately 104 feet.
• Chaukhandi Stupa:
• Situated in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh, it marks the location where Lord Buddha met his first five disciples after enlightenment.
• The structure features an octagonal tower built by the Mughals (Raja Todar Mal’s son) to commemorate the visit of Emperor Humayun.
• Dhamek Stupa:
• Located in Sarnath near Varanasi, it marks the Rishipattana (Deer Park) where Buddha preached his first sermon, known as the Dharmachakra Pravartana.
• The current structure dates back to the Gupta period and is famous for its massive stone base with exquisite floral carvings.

The correct answer is Cured meats.

Key Points

• Umami is scientifically classified as the fifth basic taste, joining sweet, sour, salty, and bitter; it is characterized by a savory or meaty flavor profile that lingers on the tongue.
• The taste is primarily elicited by the presence of L-glutamate, an amino acid, and specific ribonucleotides such as inosinate and guanylate.
• Cured meats, including prosciutto, ham, and salami, are rich in umami because the curing and aging process involves proteolysis, which breaks down muscle proteins into free glutamic acid.
• It was first identified in 1908 by the Japanese chemist Kikunae Ikeda, who isolated the flavor from Kombu (a type of kelp) used in traditional Japanese dashi.
• On the human tongue, umami is detected by specialized G protein-coupled receptors, specifically the TAS1R1 and TAS1R3 heterodimers, which respond to the carboxylate anion of glutamate.

 Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Analysis:
• Pickled dills: These foods primarily exhibit sour and salty taste profiles resulting from fermentation or preservation in acetic acid (vinegar) and sodium chloride (salt).
• Marmalade: This preserve is a combination of sweet (from high sugar content) and bitter flavors, the latter derived from naringin and limonene found in citrus rinds.
• Boiled potatoes: Plain potatoes are composed mostly of complex carbohydrates (starch) and have a neutral flavor with very low natural concentrations of glutamates.
• Other Umami-Rich Foods:
• Aged Cheeses: Varieties like Parmigiano-Reggiano contain high levels of free glutamate due to long maturation periods.
• Vegetables and Fungi: Ripe tomatoes, shiitake mushrooms, and asparagus are significant plant-based sources of savory flavor.
• Fermented Condiments: Soy sauce, fish sauce, and miso are concentrated umami sources used globally to enhance the palatability of dishes.

The correct answer is fiddlehead.

Key Points

• The term fiddlehead describes the young, coiled frond of a fern, specifically at the stage before it has unrolled and expanded into a mature leaf.
• This botanical structure is named for its visual resemblance to the scroll or decorative curved end of a fiddle or violin.
• Fiddleheads are the result of a unique growth pattern known as circinate vernation, where the sensitive apical meristem (the growing tip) is protected within the center of the coil.
• As the fern grows, the lower side of the frond grows faster than the upper side, causing the coil to gradually unfurl.
• In many cultures, particularly in North America and Asia, fiddleheads of the Ostrich fern (Matteuccia struthiopteris) are harvested during spring as a seasonal vegetable.
• They are highly nutritious, containing significant levels of antioxidants, omega-3 fatty acids, and iron, though they must be cooked properly to remove shikimic acid or other mild toxins found in certain species.

 Additional Information

• In botanical and morphological contexts, other terms describe specific shapes or structures:
• Helix: This refers to a three-dimensional spiral shape. While a fiddlehead is spiral-like, helix is a general geometric or structural term (such as in DNA) rather than a specific botanical name for fern fronds.
• Obcordate: This is a botanical term used to describe a heart-shaped leaf where the stem or petiole is attached at the narrow, pointed end. It is commonly observed in plants like Oxalis (wood sorrel).
• Crozier: This is another technical synonym for fiddlehead, also used to describe the hooked staff carried by bishops, which shares a similar curved aesthetic.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census of India, the state of Maharashtra recorded the highest population of Buddhists in the country, with approximately 6.53 million individuals identifying with the faith.
• This significant population is largely attributed to the Neo-Buddhist movement or the Dalit Buddhist movement, which saw a mass conversion of people under the leadership of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
• In October 1956, Dr. Ambedkar along with nearly 500,000 followers converted to Buddhism at Deekshabhoomi in Nagpur, Maharashtra, which remains a major pilgrimage site.
• Buddhists account for approximately 5.81% of the total population of Maharashtra, and the state alone hosts about 77% of the total Buddhist population in India.
• The 2011 Census data indicates that while Buddhism is a minority religion at the national level (approximately 0.7%), its concentration is highest in the Western and North-Eastern regions of India.

 Additional Information

• Buddhism in other States:
• Himachal Pradesh: It has a notable Buddhist presence, particularly in districts like Lahaul and Spiti and Kangra (Dharamshala), largely following Tibetan Buddhism, but the absolute numbers are much lower than Maharashtra.
• West Bengal: The Buddhist population is primarily concentrated in the Darjeeling and Kalimpong districts among the Himalayan ethnic groups.
• Assam: The state has a small Buddhist minority including the Tai-Phake, Khamti, and Barua communities, mostly following the Theravada tradition.
• Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh: While these states have a high percentage of Buddhists relative to their total population, their absolute headcount is lower due to smaller state populations.
• Historical Context:
• Buddhism originated in ancient India with Gautama Buddha and saw major patronage under Emperors like Ashoka and Kanishka before declining and later seeing a revival in the 20th century.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• In March 2018, the Government of West Bengal, led by the Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee, officially granted the status of official languages to Kamtapuri, Rajbanshi, and Kurmali.
• The recognition was facilitated through amendments to the West Bengal Official Language Act, aimed at protecting the linguistic rights of minority communities and ethnic groups within the state.
• This policy allows the use of these languages for official purposes, including public petitions, government advertisements, and administrative communication in areas where the speaking population exceeds 10 percent.
• The inclusion of Kamtapuri and Rajbanshi was a significant step toward addressing the long-standing cultural demands of the people in the North Bengal region.
• The Kurmali language recognition specifically benefited the Kudumi Mahato community, which is predominantly concentrated in the Junglemahal districts.

 Additional Information

• Kamtapuri and Rajbanshi:
• These languages belong to the Indo-Aryan family and are primarily spoken in the districts of Cooch Behar, Jalpaiguri, and Alipurduar.
• They represent a vital part of the identity for the Rajbanshi ethnic group, which has a distinct historical presence in the Kamtapuri region.
• Kurmali Language:
• It is an Indo-Aryan language spoken across the Chota Nagpur Plateau, specifically in the Junglemahal area of West Bengal.
• Key districts for this language include Purulia, Jhargram, Bankura, and West Midnapore.
• Linguistic Diversity in West Bengal:
• Apart from Bengali and English, the state recognizes several other languages like Hindi, Urdu, Santhali, Odia, Punjabi, and Telugu to ensure inclusive governance.
• Nepali holds official status specifically in the Darjeeling and Kalimpong hill areas under the West Bengal Official Language Act, 1961.

The correct answer is Idukki.

Key Points

• The Idukki Hydroelectric Project is a major power generation facility located in the state of Kerala, India, specifically built across the Periyar River.
• The project features the Idukki Arch Dam, which is the first double-curvature arch dam in Asia and one of the highest in the world, standing at a height of 168.91 meters (554 feet).
• The dam is uniquely constructed between two massive granite hills known as Kuravan Mala and Kurathi Mala, effectively narrowing the flow of the Periyar River.
• Commissioned in 1976, the project was developed with significant technical and financial assistance from the Government of Canada under the Colombo Plan.
• The Periyar River, often called the Lifeline of Kerala, is the longest river in the state with a length of 244 kilometers, originating from the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats.
• The power station associated with this project is located at Moolamattom; it is the largest underground power station in India, housing six generating units of 130 MW each, totaling a capacity of 780 MW.

 Additional Information

• Sardar Sarovar Project:
• Located on the Narmada River in the Kevadia colony of Gujarat.
• It is a concrete gravity dam that provides water and power to the states of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.
• Tehri Dam:
• Situated on the Bhagirathi River in the state of Uttarakhand.
• It is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the world, with a height of 260.5 meters.
• Koyna Hydroelectric Project:
• Built on the Koyna River, a tributary of the Krishna River, in the Satara district of Maharashtra.
• It is the largest completed hydroelectric power plant in India and is vital for the industrial development of the state.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Fatorpa Zatra is one of the most culturally significant and grand temple festivals celebrated in the coastal state of Goa.
• The festival is hosted at the Shri Shantadurga Kunkallikarin Temple, located in the village of Fatorpa within the Quepem Taluka of South Goa.
• It is dedicated to Goddess Shantadurga, a deity originally enshrined in Cuncolim; the idol was moved to Fatorpa during the 16th century to preserve it during the Portuguese colonial era.
• The Zatra is an annual six-day event held during the Hindu month of Pausha, typically coinciding with December or January in the Gregorian calendar.
• A major attraction of the festival is the nocturnal procession of the Rathas (chariots), including the Ambari (elephant chariot), Phuloncha Rath (flower chariot), and the massive Maharath.
• The event serves as a powerful symbol of communal harmony, as it traditionally draws participation from both the Hindu and Catholic communities of Goa.

 Additional Information

• Jharkhand:
• Home to the Sarhul festival, which marks the tribal New Year and involves the worship of the Sal tree.
• Celebrates Sohrai, a harvest festival famous for its traditional mural paintings on mud walls.
• Tamil Nadu:
• Renowned for Pongal, a multi-day harvest festival dedicated to the Sun God (Surya).
• Observes Thaipusam, a religious festival characterized by intense devotion and processions dedicated to Lord Murugan.
• Maharashtra:
• Celebrates Ganesh Chaturthi on a massive scale to honor the birth of Lord Ganesha.
• Marks Gudi Padwa, the Marathi New Year, with the hoisting of a decorated Gudi flag representing victory.

The correct answer is Transpiration.

Key Points

• Transpiration is the biological process of water loss from the internal tissues of living plants through the stomata, which are microscopic pores found primarily on the undersurface of leaves.
• The evaporation of water creates a negative pressure or transpiration pull within the xylem vessels, acting like a straw to draw water and dissolved minerals upwards from the roots.
• This mechanism is explained by the Cohesion-Tension Theory, where water molecules stick to each other (cohesion) and to the xylem walls (adhesion), forming a continuous, unbroken column.
• The process facilitates the distribution of essential nutrients to different plant parts and plays a critical role in osmotic regulation and the maintenance of cell turgidity.
• Additionally, transpiration serves as a cooling mechanism, protecting the plant from heat stress by lowering the temperature of the leaves via evaporative cooling.

 Additional Information

• Respiration:
• A metabolic process occurring in the mitochondria where plants convert glucose and oxygen into chemical energy (ATP), releasing carbon dioxide and water as byproducts.
• Excretion:
• The removal of metabolic waste products, such as oxygen during the day, carbon dioxide at night, and storage of resins or gums in old xylem or bark.
• Translocation:
• The physical transport of soluble organic compounds, specifically photosynthates like sucrose, from the source (leaves) to sinks (roots, fruits, and storage organs) through the phloem tissue.

The correct answer is 29.

Key Points

• The Eleventh Schedule was incorporated into the Constitution of India through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
• It specifies a total of 29 functional items or subjects that are placed under the purview of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
• These subjects are governed under Article 243-G, which empowers State Legislatures to endow Panchayats with the authority required to function as institutions of self-government.
• The list covers essential areas of rural development, including Agriculture, Land Reforms, Minor Irrigation, Animal Husbandry, Fisheries, Social Forestry, Small Scale Industries, and Rural Housing.
• The primary objective of listing these subjects is to facilitate decentralized planning and ensure social justice and economic development at the grassroots level.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Structure:
• The 73rd Amendment Act added Part IX to the Constitution, titled 'The Panchayats', which covers Article 243 to Article 243-O.
• The Act came into force on April 24, 1993, which is now celebrated annually as National Panchayati Raj Day.
• Comparison with Twelfth Schedule:
• While the Eleventh Schedule focuses on rural local bodies with 29 subjects, the Twelfth Schedule (added by the 74th Amendment Act) focuses on Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities) and contains 18 subjects under Article 243-W.
• Key Functional Domains:
• The 29 subjects also include Drinking Water, Fuel and Fodder, Roads, Rural Electrification, Poverty Alleviation Programmes, Education (including primary and secondary schools), and Public Distribution System (PDS).

The correct answer is Hampi.

Key Points

• The Vittala Temple, also known as the Vijaya Vittala Temple, is an architectural masterpiece located in Hampi, Karnataka, situated on the southern bank of the Tungabhadra River.
• Constructed in the 16th century during the reign of King Devaraya II, the temple underwent significant enhancements under Krishnadevaraya, the most famous ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• The temple is dedicated to Lord Vittala, an aspect of Lord Vishnu, and represents the pinnacle of the Vijayanagara style of architecture, which is a sub-set of the broader Dravidian tradition.
• It is globally renowned for its 56 musical pillars, located in the Maha Mantapa (Main Hall). These pillars, when tapped gently, produce melodic sounds corresponding to the seven notes (Saptaswara) of Indian classical music.
• The complex also houses the iconic Stone Chariot, a monumental sculpture that serves as a shrine for Garuda. This structure is so significant that it is depicted on the reverse side of the Indian 50 rupee note.

 Additional Information

• Badami:
• Located in the Bagalkot district, it was the regal capital of the Early Chalukyas from 540 to 757 AD.
• It is famous for its four rock-cut cave temples, which represent early examples of Hindu and Jain temple architecture.
• Pattadakal:
• A UNESCO World Heritage Site featuring a complex of 7th and 8th-century religious monuments.
• It is celebrated for its unique blend of Nagara (North Indian) and Dravida (South Indian) architectural styles, notably seen in the Virupaksha Temple.
• Belur:
• Located in Hassan district, it was the early capital of the Hoysala Empire.
• It is home to the Chennakesava Temple, commissioned by King Vishnuvardhana in 1117 AD to celebrate a military victory, showcasing intricate soapstone carvings.

The correct answer is Ministry of Culture.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry in the Government of India responsible for the preservation, promotion, and categorization of Classical Languages.
• The Linguistic Experts’ Committee (LEC) was established under the Sahitya Akademi, an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture, to examine and recommend languages for classical status based on specific criteria.
• The primary criteria for a language to be declared 'Classical' include a high antiquity of its early texts and recorded history over a period of 1500 to 2000 years.
• The language must possess a body of ancient literature or texts considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers, and the literary tradition must be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
• The Ministry of Culture processes these recommendations and submits them to the Union Cabinet for final approval and notification.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Classical Languages:
• The category was first created in 2004, with Tamil being the first language to receive the status, followed by Sanskrit in 2005.
• Other previously recognized languages include Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
• In October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved five new languages for the status: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali, bringing the total count to 11.
• Institutional Support:
• Once a language is designated as classical, the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD) provides benefits such as two major annual international awards for eminent scholars.
• It also facilitates the establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages and requests the University Grants Commission (UGC) to create Chairs of Excellence in Central Universities.

The correct answer is Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.

Key Points

• Carbohydrates serve as the primary and most immediate source of energy for the human body. During digestion, they are broken down into glucose, which is utilized by cells in cellular respiration to produce ATP. They provide approximately 4 kcal per gram.
• Fats, or lipids, represent the most concentrated form of energy. They provide about 9 kcal per gram, which is more than double the energy density of other nutrients. They are essential for long-term energy storage, cell membrane integrity, and the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
• Proteins are the building blocks of the body, primarily responsible for the growth, repair, and maintenance of tissues. While their main role is structural, the body can metabolize them for energy (providing 4 kcal per gram) during periods of starvation or insufficient carbohydrate intake.
• These three nutrients are classified as macronutrients because the body requires them in large quantities to sustain metabolic functions and provide the caloric intake necessary for daily physical activity.

 Additional Information

• Vitamins and Minerals:
• These are micronutrients required in small amounts.
• They do not yield energy directly but function as catalysts and cofactors in chemical reactions that extract energy from macronutrients.
• Water and Dietary Fibers:
• Water is vital for thermoregulation and as a solvent for biochemical reactions but has zero caloric value.
• Dietary Fiber (roughage) aids in peristalsis and digestive health; most types cannot be digested by humans to provide energy.
• Enzymes and Hormones:
• Enzymes are biological catalysts that accelerate metabolic pathways.
• Hormones act as chemical messengers to regulate homeostasis and growth but are not consumed as a fuel source.

The correct answer is Its proceedings are recorded as legal testimony and precedents.

Key Points

• Under Article 129 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court is explicitly designated as a Court of Record, which implies that its acts, proceedings, and judicial decisions are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony.
• The records of a Court of Record are admitted to be of conclusive evidentiary value. This means when these records are produced before any subordinate court, their veracity and authenticity cannot be questioned or challenged.
• The judgments of the Supreme Court serve as authoritative precedents. According to the principle of stare decisis, these recorded decisions are used as legal guides and references for deciding future cases with similar facts across the entire Indian Judiciary.
• A fundamental characteristic of being a Court of Record is the inherent power to punish for contempt of court. This includes the authority to penalize individuals for both civil contempt (disobedience of orders) and criminal contempt (scandalizing the court).
• This status ensures the uniformity of law throughout the country, as the documented rulings establish a stable legal framework that all lower courts are constitutionally mandated to follow.

 Additional Information

• Article 141 (Binding Nature of Law):
• This article stipulates that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
• It works in tandem with the Court of Record status to ensure that legal precedents are strictly followed by High Courts and Subordinate Courts.
• Article 215 (High Courts):
• Just like the Supreme Court, every High Court in India is also recognized as a Court of Record for its respective jurisdiction.
• This grants High Courts the power to maintain permanent records and punish for contempt within their state territories.
• Article 143 (Advisory Jurisdiction):
• While most Supreme Court rulings are binding, under Article 143, the President can seek the court’s opinion on specific matters.
• Such advisory opinions are not strictly binding judgments but carry significant persuasive value.
• Judicial Independence:
• The status of Court of Record is vital for maintaining judicial independence, as it allows the court to protect its dignity and enforce its decrees without interference from the Executive or Legislature.

The correct answer is Sugarcane.

Key Points

• Rabi crops are sown in the winter season from October to December and harvested in the spring season from April to June.
• The growth of Rabi crops requires a cool climate during the vegetative growth phase and a warm climate during the germination and harvesting stages.
• Mustard, Peas, and Linseed are classic examples of Rabi crops, along with Wheat, Barley, and Gram.
• Sugarcane (Saccharum officinarum) is a long-duration crop that typically takes 10 to 18 months to mature. It is generally classified as a Kharif crop or a perennial crop because it is often planted in the monsoon (July-October) or spring (February-March) and occupies the field for the entire year.
• Sugarcane requires a hot and humid climate with temperatures between 21°C to 27°C and annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm, which distinguishes its climatic needs from typical Rabi varieties.

 Additional Information

• Kharif Crops:
• These are sown with the onset of the monsoon in June-July and harvested in September-October.
• Examples include Rice, Maize, Jowar, Bajra, Tur (Arhar), Moong, Urad, Cotton, Jute, Groundnut, and Soyabean.
• Zaid Crops:
• These are short-duration crops grown during the summer months between the Rabi and Kharif seasons (typically March to June).
• Common examples are Watermelon, Muskmelon, Cucumber, Vegetables, and Fodder crops.
• Mustard, Peas, and Linseed:
• Mustard is a major oilseed crop of the Rabi category, particularly dominant in Rajasthan and Haryana.
• Peas are leguminous crops that help in nitrogen fixation in the soil during the winter cycle.
• Linseed (Flax) is grown for both industrial oil and fiber during the Rabi season.