DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 06 Mar, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given Statements:

Some flowers are puppies.

All puppies are cupboards.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are cupboards → Follow (Because some flowers are puppies and all puppies are cupboards, the part of flowers that overlaps with puppies will definitely be inside cupboards.)

II. All cupboards are puppies**→ Does not follow (**While all puppies are cupboards, the reverse is not necessarily true in the least possible diagram; we cannot definitively say all cupboards are puppies.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only five people sit to the right of D.
2. Only five people sit to the left of G.
3. F is the immediate neighbour of B and A.
4. E sits second to the right of B. 

Three people sit between C and B.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statement:

U = V > W ≥ X = Y

Conclusions:

I: V > X → True (From the given statement, V > W and W ≥ X, therefore V > X.)

II: Y = U → False (From the given statement, U = V > W ≥ X = Y, therefore U > Y, not U = Y.)

Therefore, only Conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Each of L, M, N, R, S, T and U has exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. S has exam on the second day of the week.
2. Only two people have exam between S and N.
3. Only four people have exam between T and S.
4. R has exam immediately after L.
5. U doesn’t have exam on Monday. 

Final Arrangement:

The number of people having exams between U and M is four.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘LADS’ is coded as ‘9641’ 

‘DASH’ is coded as ‘1695’. 

Code for "H" is "5".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) 6 2 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 6 2 7 5 2 4 1 3 4 8 7 6 4 2 4 1 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Perfect square ← Even digit → Odd digit

Checking the series:

(Left) 6 2 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 6 2 7 5 2 4 1 3 4 8 7 6 4 2 4 1 (Right)

There is one such even digits that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statement:

L = M > N ≥ O = P

Combined Statement: L = M > N ≥ O = P

Conclusions:

I: M > P → True (From the combined statement, M > N ≥ O = P, therefore M > P.)

II: L = N → False (From the combined statement, L = M and M > N, therefore L > N, not L = N.)

Therefore, only Conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line facing North.

1. Only three people sit between E and G.
2. B sits to the immediate left of G.
3. No one sits to the right of C.
4. Only two people sit between C and B.
5. A sits to the immediate right of F.

Two many people sit to the left of A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘TANK’ is coded as ‘7928’  

‘ANTI’ is coded as ‘7382’. 

Code for "I" is "3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) 4 2 8 1 5 7 3 7 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 7 9 8 5 1 8 7 6 2 5 2 4 1 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Perfect square ← Even digit → Odd digit

(Perfect square digits are 1, 4 and 9)

Checking the series:

(Left) 4 2 8 1 5 7 3 7 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 7 9 8 5 1 8 7 6 2 5 2 4 1 (Right)

There are two such even digits that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series:

(Left) B F & D % U A % K $ A Q & R Ω Y # & S # £ (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Letter → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) B F & D % U A % K $ A Q & R Ω Y # & S # £ (Right)

Hence, there are three such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Total students in the row = 52.

Mina is 33^rd from the left.

Roshni is 17 places to the right of Mina.

So, Roshni's position from the left = 33 + 17 = 50th.

The formula for finding rank from the right is:

Rank from Right = Total Students - Rank from Left + 1

Roshni's position from the right = 52 - 50 + 1

= 2 + 1

= 3^rd from the right.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Total people in the row = 70.

Tushki is 30^th from the right.

Lona is 27^th from the left.

First, find Tushki's position from the left:

Position from the left = Total people − Position from the right + 1

= 70 − 30 + 1

= 41

So, Tushki is 41^st from the left.

Lona is 27^th from the left.

Number of people between Tushki and Lona = Difference of their positions − 1

= 41 − 27 − 1

= 14 − 1

= 13 people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given word: LURCHES

After arranging in English alphabetical order, new letter cluster is: C, E, H, L, R, S, U.

The letter which is fourth from the left is L.

The letter which is second from the right is S.

The number of letters between L (12) and S (19) are: M, N, O, P, Q, R.

Therefore, there are 6 letters in the English alphabetical order between the letter which is fourth from the left and the one which is second from the right.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: B + U − N % C @ H

It means: B is the mother of U, U is the brother of N, N is the father of C, and C is the wife of H.

B is related to H as wife's father's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: R + Y ÷ H − S × L

It means: R is the son of Y, Y is the father of H, H is the brother of S, and S is the wife of L.

R is the brother of L's wife, R is L's wife's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) D K U Y E Z G E I X W U V T M O O K J O K P (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Vowel ← Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) D K U Y E Z G E I X W U V T M O O K J O K P (Right)

There is only one such consonant that satisfies the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. R has an exam on Tuesday.
2. Exactly 3 people have an exam between R and Q .
3. T has an exam immediately before U and P has an exam immediately after U.
4. Only 1 person has an exam between T and S.

Final Arrangement:

Four people have an exam after T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) R ? Q ! A L Ω M # H U S D > A B < E £ Y @ W F ± (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Symbol → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) R ? Q ! A L Ω M # H U S D > A B < E £ Y @ W F ± (Right)

There are three such symbols each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

‘PALM’ is coded as ‘8961’  

‘LAPS’ is coded as ‘9621’. 

Code for "S" is "2".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For TR 11 is related to XQ −3 →

For KG 15 is related to OF 1 →

Similarly,

OO 24 related to,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The given number is: 4718365

Arrange the digits in ascending order (from left to right):

The new number formed is 1345678.

The digit which is second from the left in the new number is 3.

The digit which is second from the right in the new number is 7.

Sum = 3 + 7 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here  is,

17 + 9 = 26

26 + 24 = 50

50 + 9 = 59

59 + 24 = 83

83 + 9 = 92

92 + 24 = 116

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The given number is 8431576.

Arrange the digits in ascending order: 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

 Compare the positions of each digit.

• Position 1: 8 changes to 1
• Position 2: 4 changes to 3
• Position 3: 3 changes to 4
• Position 4: 1 changes to 5
• Position 5: 5 changes to 6
• Position 6: 7 remains 7 (Unchanged)
• Position 7: 6 changes to 8

Therefore, the position of one digit will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number + Third number) + 7 = Second number

For (10, 18, 1):

(10 + 1) + 7 = 11 + 7 = 18

For (14, 31, 10):

(14 + 10) + 7 = 24 + 7 = 31

Similarly,

Option (3): (16, 46, 23)

(16 + 23) + 7 = 39 + 7 = 46

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The pattern observed is: (First Number × 2) + 7 = Second Number.

For (61, 129) →

(61 × 2) + 7 = 122 + 7 = 129

For (43, 93) →

(43 × 2) + 7 = 86 + 7 = 93

Similarly,

Option (2): (45, 97)

(45 × 2) + 7 = 90 + 7 = 97

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

For KF-IN:

For MH-KO:

For OJ-MQ:

For QL-OS:

Therefore, the odd one out is KF-IN.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

UT 18 is related to VX 6 →

NI 22 is related to OM 10 →

Similarly,

PL 25 related to:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 20 ÷ 5 − 7 + 80 × 8 = ?

Interchanging the symbols:

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 20 × 5 + 7 − 80 ÷ 8 = ?

⇒ 20 × 5 + 7 − 80 ÷ 8 = ?

⇒ 100 + 7 − 10 = ?

⇒ 107 − 10 = ?

⇒ 97.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic: (Second Number + Third Number) × 4 = First Number

For (120, 20, 10) →

(20 + 10) × 4 = 30 × 4 = 120

For (116, 15, 14) →

(15 + 14) × 4 = 29 × 4 = 116

Similarly, 

Option (1): (104, 19, 7)

(19 + 7) × 4 = 26 × 4 = 104

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 15 - 24 × 3 + 4 ÷ 2 = ?

Since '+' and '-' are interchanged, and '×' and '÷' are interchanged:

⇒ 15 + 24 ÷ 3 - 4 × 2 = ?

⇒ 15 + 24 ÷ 3 - 4 × 2 = ?

⇒ 15 + 8 - 4 × 2 = ?

⇒ 15 + 8 - 8 = ?

⇒ 23 - 8 = ?

⇒ 15.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements:

All onions are tomatoes.

All tomatoes are apples.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All onions are apples → Follow  (Since all onions are tomatoes and all tomatoes are apples, all onions are definitely inside the apples circle.)

II. Some apples are tomatoes → Follow  (Since all tomatoes are apples, the tomatoes circle is a subset of the apples circle, so some apples are definitely tomatoes.)

So, both conclusion I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

3

3 + 10 = 13

13 + 10 = 23

23 + 10 = 33

33 + 10 = 43

43 + 10 = 53

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 28 C 13 B 7 D 76 A 4 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 28 + 13 × 7 - 76 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 28 + 13 × 7 - 76 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 28 + 91 - 76 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 28 + 91 - 19 = ?

⇒ 28 + 91 - 19 = ?

⇒ 119 - 19 = ?

⇒ 100.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is,

888

888 + 84 = 972

972 + 84 = 1056

1056 + 84 = 1140

1140 + 84 = 1224

1224 + 84 = 1308

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

For KT − NW − QS

For MV − PY − SU

The common pattern in each triad is a shift of +3 for the first letter of each pair and a shift of +3 followed by −4 for the second letter.

Option 2) GP − JS − MO

This triad follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

1. FH - IK

2. KM - NP

3. QS - TV

4) FQ - RL

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Lord Curzon.

Key Points

• The 20^th Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay in December 1904. This session was presided over by Sir Henry Cotton, a former British official known for his sympathetic views toward Indian nationalism.
• Lord Curzon served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1899 to 1905, which covers the period when the 1904 Bombay session took place.
• During 1904, Curzon passed the controversial Indian Universities Act, which sought to bring universities under stricter government supervision. This move was strongly condemned by Indian leaders during the Congress session.
• His administration in 1904 also saw the passage of the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, a landmark legislation aimed at protecting and restoring India’s historical heritage through the Archaeological Survey of India.
• The year 1904 was critical as Curzon was formulating the administrative plan for the Partition of Bengal, which he eventually announced in 1905, triggering the Swadeshi Movement.
• Curzon is also noted for the Younghusband Expedition to Tibet (1903–1904), which was initiated to counter perceived Russian influence in the region.

 Additional Information

• Lord Lansdowne (1888−1894):
• He served as Viceroy well before the 1904 session and is remembered for the Indian Councils Act of 1892.
• He established the Durand Commission to define the border between British India and Afghanistan.
• Lord Minto (1905−1910):
• Succeeded Lord Curzon in November 1905 and witnessed the rise of the Extremist phase in the Indian National Congress.
• He is famous for the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909, which introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
• Lord Ripon (1880−1884):
• Regarded as the most liberal Viceroy, he introduced the Local Self-Government Act of 1882, earning the title Father of Local Self-Government in India.
• He repealed the Vernacular Press Act and was involved in the Ilbert Bill controversy.

The correct answer is Money value.

Key Points

• National income accounting is a bookkeeping system that governments use to measure the level of economic activity. It provides a numerical representation of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Gross National Product (GNP), and Net National Product (NNP).
• The primary challenge in accounting is the heterogeneity of goods and services; for instance, one cannot directly add 500 tons of coal to 1,000 liters of milk. Therefore, a common unit of measurement is required to aggregate these diverse items.
• The money value (market price) serves as this common denominator. By multiplying the physical quantity of each item by its respective market price, economists can calculate the total value of output in a standardized format.
• Using monetary terms allows for the comparison of economic performance across different time periods and different countries through exchange rates or Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
• This measurement is typically conducted over a specific accounting period, usually a financial year, to track the growth or contraction of the national economy.

 Additional Information

• Other Units and Concepts:
• Utility: This refers to the subjective satisfaction a consumer derives from a product. Since it cannot be objectively quantified or standardized across all individuals, it is not used for macroeconomic aggregates.
• Quantity: While physical volume is important for calculating Real GDP, the final aggregate must still be expressed in money value to be meaningful in a macroeconomic context.
• Labour Hours: This is a measure of input rather than output. While useful for measuring productivity or efficiency, it fails to account for the value added by capital, technology, and entrepreneurship.
• Nominal vs. Real Income: National income measured at current market prices is Nominal National Income, while income adjusted for inflation using constant prices (base year prices) is known as Real National Income.

The correct answer is Current account.

Key Points

• A Current account is a primary type of demand deposit account maintained by commercial banks, specifically structured for businessmen, joint-stock companies, and public enterprises who require high-frequency transactions.
• The defining feature of this account is the lack of restrictions on the number of deposits and withdrawals, allowing for seamless daily business operations and high liquidity.
• Unlike savings or term deposits, banks generally do not pay any interest on current account balances because the funds are highly volatile and the bank must maintain 100 percent liquidity for these liabilities.
• Current accounts often provide an Overdraft facility, where the account holder can withdraw funds beyond the available balance up to a limit sanctioned by the bank, acting as a short-term credit line.
• These accounts are governed by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, which mandate periodic Know Your Customer (KYC) updates to prevent money laundering and ensure financial transparency.

 Additional Information

• Savings account:
• Designed for individuals to encourage the habit of thrift and saving.
• Offers a modest interest rate but typically imposes limits on the number of free withdrawals or the total amount withdrawn in a month to maintain stability.
• Fixed deposit (FD):
• Classified as a time deposit where a specific sum is kept for a fixed tenure ranging from 7 days to 10 years.
• Provides a higher interest rate compared to other accounts, though premature withdrawal usually incurs a financial penalty.
• Recurring deposit (RD):
• Allows depositors to save a fixed amount regularly (usually monthly) over a specified period.
• It combines the features of savings and fixed deposits, helping users build a corpus for future financial goals with guaranteed returns.

The correct answer is Bharat@2026: Sewa, Sushasan and Samriddhi.

Key Points

• The Government of India unveils its annual calendar through the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting to reflect the nation's priorities and the administrative roadmap for the upcoming year.
• The 2026 theme, Sewa, Sushasan and Samriddhi, translates to Service, Good Governance, and Prosperity, which serve as the foundational pillars for the vision of Amrit Kaal.
• Sewa (Service) signifies the commitment to public welfare and the empowerment of the poor and marginalized through schemes like PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana and PM-JANMAN.
• Sushasan (Good Governance) highlights the focus on transparency, accountability, and the streamlining of government processes through Digital India and Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanisms.
• Samriddhi (Prosperity) emphasizes the goal of holistic economic growth, aiming to transform India into a Viksit Bharat (Developed India) and the world's third-largest economy by 2047.
• The calendar is designed and published by the Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) and is typically available in both a high-quality physical format and a digital mobile application.

 Additional Information

• The themes are strategically selected to align with the Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas philosophy and the target of reaching the last mile.
• Governance Innovations: The calendar often showcases milestones such as the expansion of 5G technology, the success of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), and the development of the Gati Shakti National Master Plan.
• Social Welfare: Specific months in the calendar highlight key sectors like Nari Shakti (Women Power), Yuva (Youth), and Annadata (Farmers).
• Viksit Bharat @ 2047: The 2026 theme acts as a crucial mid-term milestone in the 25-year journey toward India's centenary of independence.
• Historical Context: Previous themes have focused on Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav and the presidency of the G20, marking India's rising influence on the global stage.

The correct answer is Jasprit Bumrah.

Key Points

• Jasprit Bumrah etched his name in cricket history in early 2025 by becoming the first Indian bowler to claim 100 wickets in all three international formats: Tests, One Day Internationals (ODIs), and Twenty20 Internationals (T20Is).
• The premier fast bowler reached this unprecedented milestone for an Indian during a T20I series, having already surpassed the 100-wicket mark in the Test and ODI formats earlier in his career.
• Known for his unique sling-arm action and lethal yorkers, Bumrah has been a cornerstone of the Indian Cricket Team since his debut in 2016.
• This achievement highlights his versatility and consistency across different pitch conditions and match durations, making him one of the most successful all-format bowlers globally.
• By reaching 100 wickets in T20Is, he joined an elite group of international bowlers who have demonstrated dominance in both the longest and shortest versions of the game.

 Additional Information

• Jasprit Bumrah's Career Highlights:
• He is widely regarded as one of the best death-over bowlers in the world due to his ability to bowl under pressure.
• He played a pivotal role in India's victory in the 2024 ICC Men's T20 World Cup, where he was named the Player of the Tournament.
• Other Noted Indian Bowlers:
• Arshdeep Singh: A prolific left-arm pacer in T20Is, but he has not yet accumulated the required 100 wickets across Test matches to match this record.
• Ravindra Jadeja: A legendary all-rounder with over 200 wickets in both Tests and ODIs; however, he retired from T20Is after the 2024 World Cup without reaching the 100-wicket mark in that format.
• Bhuvneshwar Kumar: A specialist in swing bowling who has been highly successful in white-ball cricket but lacks the Test cricket wicket tally to qualify for this triple-format milestone.

The correct answer is DHRUV64 microprocessor.

Key Points

• The DHRUV64 microprocessor represents a landmark achievement in India's indigenous semiconductor design, officially launched in December 2025 to enhance national technological sovereignty.
• It is a 64-bit high-performance processor engineered to handle complex computational tasks, specifically targeting data centers, industrial IoT, and strategic defense systems.
• The development of this chip is a core part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative, reducing the nation's heavy reliance on imported silicon and proprietary architectures from foreign entities.
• The DHRUV64 utilizes advanced instruction set architecture (ISA), designed for high energy efficiency and robust cybersecurity features integrated at the hardware level.
• Its rollout marks the successful scaling of earlier research programs like DIR-V (Digital India RISC-V), transitioning from laboratory prototypes to commercially viable high-end computing solutions.

 Additional Information

• India Semiconductor Mission (ISM):
• A specialized business division within the Digital India Corporation aimed at building a vibrant semiconductor and display ecosystem.
• Provides financial incentives for Semiconductor Fabs, Display Fabs, and Compound Semiconductors to establish manufacturing units within India.
• PARAM 8000:
• Launched on July 1, 1991, it was India's first indigenous supercomputer developed by C-DAC after the denial of Cray supercomputer imports.
• Microprocessor Development History:
• The Shakti processor, developed by IIT Madras, and the Vega processor, developed by C-DAC, were the foundational predecessors that paved the way for the DHRUV64.
• Scientific Advancements:
• The launch in 2025 aligns with India's goal to account for a significant percentage of global electronics manufacturing by 2030.

The correct answer is United Nations Development Programme.

Key Points

• The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual publication released by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• Launched for the first time in 1990, the report was conceptualized by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.
• The primary objective of the HDR is to advocate for a development paradigm that focuses on human well-being rather than just economic growth or national income.
• A central feature of the report is the Human Development Index (HDI), a composite index measuring average achievement in three basic dimensions: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living.
• The UNDP uses this report to analyze global trends and provide evidence-based policy recommendations to address poverty, inequality, and sustainability.

 Additional Information

• Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• Founded in 1966 and headquartered in Manila, Philippines, it provides financial assistance to promote social and economic progress in Asia and the Pacific region.
• Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO):
• Established in 1945 with its headquarters in Rome, Italy, this UN specialized agency leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
• Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):
• An intergovernmental organization founded in 1961 and based in Paris, France, it consists of 38 member countries committed to democracy and the market economy.

The correct answer is 1915.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on January 9, 1915, ending a period of roughly 21 years spent abroad.
• He arrived at Apollo Bunder in Bombay (now Mumbai) via the steamship SS Arabia and was welcomed by prominent leaders and the general public.
• The decision to return was primarily influenced by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Gandhi's political mentor, who advised him to travel across India to understand its diverse issues before joining active politics.
• In honor of his arrival and his subsequent role in the Indian freedom struggle, January 9 is celebrated annually as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (NRI Day) since 2003.
• Upon his return, Gandhi established the Satyagraha Ashram at Kochrab in Ahmedabad in May 1915, which later moved to the Sabarmati area.

 Additional Information

• Foundations in South Africa:
• During his stay in South Africa (1893−1914), Gandhi founded the Natal Indian Congress in 1894 to organize resistance against racial discrimination.
• He developed the philosophy of Satyagraha (truth-force) to protest against laws like the Asiatic Registration Act.
• Major Milestones in the Freedom Struggle:
• Champaran Satyagraha: In 1917, Gandhi led his first major movement in Bihar to assist Indigo farmers against the exploitative Tinkathia system.
• Rowlatt Satyagraha: A nationwide protest launched in 1919 against the Rowlatt Act, which curtailed civil liberties.
• Non-Cooperation Movement: This mass movement was initiated in 1920 to demand Swaraj following the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
• Civil Disobedience Movement: Commenced with the Dandi March in 1930, this campaign focused on defying the British Salt Laws.

The correct answer is Nishad Kumar and Simran Sharma.

Key Points

• The 2025 World Para Athletics Championships were hosted for the first time in New Delhi, India, specifically at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, marking a landmark event for the nation.
• Nishad Kumar secured a prestigious Gold Medal in the Men’s High Jump T47 event on October 3, 2025, adding to his decorated career of international accolades.
• Simran Sharma clinched the second Gold Medal of the day for the Indian contingent in the Women’s 200m T12 sprint, showcasing exceptional speed and determination on the track.
• The date of October 3 is considered historic as it witnessed two Indian para-athletes reaching the top of the podium on a single day during a World Championship held on home soil.
• This double-gold achievement significantly boosted India’s standing in the Overall Medal Tally, highlighting the effectiveness of the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) in supporting elite para-athletes.

 Additional Information

• Nishad Kumar and Simran Sharma:
• Nishad Kumar hails from Himachal Pradesh and is a multiple-time Paralympic Silver Medalist known for his dominance in the high jump category for athletes with upper limb impairments.
• Simran Sharma, based in Ghaziabad, is a world-class sprinter in the T12 category (visual impairment) and has been a pioneer for female track athletes in India.
• Other Noted Para-Athletes:
• Sumit Antil: A world-record holder and Paralympic Gold Medalist in the Javelin Throw F64 classification.
• Deepa Malik: A trailblazer who became the first Indian woman to win a Paralympic medal and served as the President of the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI).
• Devendra Jhajharia: The first Indian para-athlete to win two Paralympic Gold Medals in the Javelin Throw F46 category.
• Mariyappan Thangavelu: A celebrated high jumper who won gold at the 2016 Rio Paralympics in the T42 category.
• Event Significance:
• The World Para Athletics Championships is a biennial event governed by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC), serving as a critical qualifier for the Paralympic Games.

The correct answer is Kannada, from the southern plateau.

Key Points

• The Kavirajamarga, which translates to 'Royal Path for Poets', is the earliest available literary work on rhetoric, poetics, and grammar in the Kannada language.
• This seminal text was composed in the 9^th century, approximately around 850 CE, during the peak of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty.
• While the work is traditionally attributed to the Rashtrakuta King Amoghavarsha I (also known as Nrupatunga), many scholars argue it was likely authored by the court poet Sri Vijaya under the king's patronage.
• The text is highly significant for historical geography as it defines the Kannada-speaking territory as the land extending from the Kaveri River in the south to the Godavari River in the north.
• It establishes that Kannada already possessed a rich tradition of literary styles and dialects by the 9^th century, referencing earlier poets whose works are now lost.

 Additional Information

• Classical Languages of India:
• Kannada was officially recognized as a Classical Language by the Government of India in 2008 due to its antiquity and independent literary tradition.
• Other options such as Sanskrit (declared in 2005), Telugu (declared in 2008), and Odia (declared in 2014) also hold this prestigious status.
• Sanskrit:
• Known as the Devavani, it is the primary liturgical language of Hinduism and has the oldest documented history among Indo-Aryan languages.
• Telugu:
• Prominent in the Southeast region (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana); its earliest major literary work is Nannaya's Mahabharatam from the 11^th century.
• Odia:
• The official language of the Eastern state of Odisha; it belongs to the Indo-Aryan family and features unique scripts derived from Kalinga characters.

The correct answer is Magna Pads.

Key Points

• Magna Pads are innovative smart sanitary pads developed by Vanama Vamsi, a student hailing from Andhra Pradesh, to address menstrual health challenges.
• The primary objective of this invention, introduced in June 2025, is to provide a non-invasive and drug-free solution to alleviate menstrual cramps (dysmenorrhea).
• These pads are engineered with a specialized magnesium coating that utilizes the mineral's natural properties to penetrate the skin and relax the uterine muscles.
• The use of magnesium in these pads serves as a localized therapy, targeting the site of pain to reduce the intensity of prostaglandin-induced contractions during the menstrual cycle.
• This development highlights the significant contribution of Indian students to FemTech (Female Technology), focusing on bio-material integration for personal hygiene products.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Menstrual Cramps and Magnesium:
• Menstrual cramps occur due to the excess production of prostaglandins, which cause the muscles of the uterus to contract and shed its lining.
• Magnesium is a vital mineral that acts as a calcium antagonist; it helps in blocking the calcium channels that trigger muscle contractions, thereby acting as a natural muscle relaxant.
• The transdermal absorption of magnesium via Magna Pads avoids the digestive side effects often associated with oral magnesium supplements or NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs).
• Innovations like these are part of a broader movement toward smart textiles and functionalized hygiene products that offer therapeutic benefits beyond simple absorption.
• The recognition of Vanama Vamsi underscores the importance of STEM education in regional Indian states like Andhra Pradesh in solving real-world biological and health problems.

The correct answer is Mahad.

Key Points

• The Mahad Satyagraha, also known as the Chavdar Tale Satyagraha, was a pioneering social movement led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on March 20, 1927, in the town of Mahad, located in the present-day Raigad district of Maharashtra.
• The primary objective of this protest was to assert the right of the Dalit community to access public water from the Chavdar Lake, which was previously restricted due to the discriminatory practice of untouchability.
• The movement was a direct response to the failure of local bodies to implement the Bole Resolution passed by the Bombay Legislative Council in 1923, which mandated that all public places maintained by the government should be open to all classes.
• During the event, Dr. Ambedkar and thousands of his followers marched to the lake, where he symbolically drank water, effectively challenging the caste-based social order and demanding human rights and dignity.

 Additional Information

• Manusmriti Dahan:
• In a second conference held at Mahad in December 1927, Dr. Ambedkar and his colleague G.N. Sahasrabudhe publicly burnt the Manusmriti to protest its justification of caste hierarchy and gender-based discrimination.
• Social Empowerment Day:
• To honor the legacy of the Mahad Satyagraha, March 20 is observed annually across India as Social Empowerment Day (Samajik Adhikarita Smriti Divas).
• Legal Victory:
• While the protest faced violent opposition from orthodox groups, it initiated a long legal battle. The Bombay High Court finally ruled in 1937 that untouchables had the legal right to use the water of the Chavdar Lake.

The correct answer is Long-term economic and social development planning.

Key Points

• The Viksit Bharat 2047 outreach campaign is part of a monumental initiative by the Government of India to transform the nation into a developed country by the year 2047, coinciding with its 100^th year of Independence.
• The primary focus of this campaign is long-term economic and social development planning, which involves drafting a comprehensive roadmap that targets sustained GDP growth and improved quality of life.
• The campaign emphasizes structural reforms in key sectors such as manufacturing, infrastructure, digital economy, and human capital to achieve high-income status.
• A crucial element is the concept of Jan Bhagidari (People's Participation), where the youth, academicians, and industry experts are encouraged to provide innovative ideas to shape national policies.
• The late 2025 outreach phase specifically aims to evaluate current growth trajectories and align social welfare schemes to ensure inclusive growth for all citizens.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Other Options:
• Military modernization: While the Ministry of Defence pursues Aatmanirbharta (self-reliance) through the Positive Indigenisation Lists, it is a specific sectoral security goal, not the primary objective of the 2047 socio-economic outreach.
• Sports infrastructure: This is managed under schemes like Khelo India and the National Sports Development Fund, focusing on athletic excellence rather than the broader economic vision of Viksit Bharat.
• Cryptocurrency regulation: This falls under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for financial stability, and is not the central theme of long-term national planning.
• Pillars of Viksit Bharat: The vision is built on Garib (Poor), Yuva (Youth), Annadata (Farmers), and Nari Shakti (Women Power), aiming for a multi-trillion dollar economy with a focus on Ease of Living and Ease of Doing Business.

The correct answer is Tejaswin Shankar.

Key Points

• Tejaswin Shankar is a prominent Indian athlete who specialized in the high jump before transitioning into combined events like the decathlon and heptathlon.
• He set a new national indoor record in the men's heptathlon by accumulating 5,437 points, a feat achieved during the 11^th Asian Indoor Athletics Championships held in Tehran, Iran.
• With this performance, Shankar broke the 16-year-old national record of 5,381 points previously held by P.J. Vinod, which had stood since 2008.
• The heptathlon in indoor athletics consists of seven distinct events staged over two days: the 60m dash, long jump, shot put, high jump, 60m hurdles, pole vault, and 1,000m run.
• Shankar secured the silver medal at the championships, demonstrating his versatility and dominance in multi-disciplinary track and field sports at the continental level.

 Additional Information

• Tajinderpal Singh Toor:
• He is India's leading shot putter and the current Asian record holder in the outdoor format.
• During the same championships in Tehran, he won the gold medal and set a national indoor record with a throw of 19.72 meters.
• Praveen Chithravel:
• An elite triple jumper who holds the Indian national record of 17.37 meters.
• He has consistently performed at the Diamond League and secured a bronze medal at the 2022 Asian Games in Hangzhou.
• Event Significance:
• The Asian Indoor Athletics Championships is a biennial competition organized by the Asian Athletics Association to promote indoor track and field disciplines across the continent.
• Success in these championships often serves as a qualification benchmark for the World Indoor Athletics Championships.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh maintains its status as the largest producer of wheat in India, accounting for approximately 30% of the total national output according to the Economic Survey 2024-2025.
• The state benefits from the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains and an extensive network of canals and tube wells, providing the necessary irrigation for high-yield wheat cultivation.
• Wheat is a Rabi crop sown during the winter months (October-December) and harvested in spring (March-April), thriving in the temperate climate of Northern India.
• In terms of acreage, Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under wheat cultivation in India, significantly contributing to the country reaching a record production of over 110 million tonnes in recent agricultural cycles.

 Additional Information

• Wheat Cultivation Parameters:
• Temperature: Requires a cool growing season with temperatures between 10°C to 15°C and bright sunshine during ripening (21°C to 26°C).
• Rainfall: Ideally needs 75 to 100 cm of annual rainfall; higher amounts can be detrimental during the harvest stage.
• Soil: Well-drained loamy and clayey soils are best suited for its growth.
• Regional Crop Leaders:
• West Bengal: While not a leader in wheat, it is the largest producer of Rice in India due to high humidity and heavy rainfall.
• Punjab and Madhya Pradesh: These states follow Uttar Pradesh as major wheat contributors, with Punjab often leading in terms of per-hectare productivity.
• Telangana and Tamil Nadu: These southern states primarily focus on tropical crops like paddy (rice), maize, and oilseeds, as the climate is generally too warm for large-scale wheat farming.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Kalai-II hydroelectric project is a major infrastructure initiative situated on the Lohit River in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The project features a massive installed capacity of 1,200 MW and is designed to generate approximately 4,834 million units of clean energy annually.
• In August 2023, the Government of Arunachal Pradesh signed a Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) with THDC India Limited, a subsidiary of NTPC, to expedite the development of this project.
• This project was originally allotted to a private developer but was later handed over to Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) to ensure timely completion and strategic energy security.
• The initiative aligns with India's national goal of reaching 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030, leveraging the high hydroelectric potential of the Brahmaputra river basin.

 Additional Information

• Lohit River:
• It is a significant tributary of the Brahmaputra River, originating in the Zayal Chu range in Tibet and flowing through the Mishmi Hills.
• The river is characterized by its turbulent flow and lateritic soil, which gives it a distinct reddish appearance during the monsoon season.
• Arunachal Pradesh Hydropower Status:
• The state is frequently described as the Power House of India due to its estimated hydropower potential of nearly 50,000 MW.
• Other notable projects in the state include the 2,880 MW Dibang Multipurpose Project and the 2,000 MW Subansiri Lower Project, both of which are critical for regional development.

The correct answer is Swami Dayananda Saraswati.

Key Points

• Swami Dayananda Saraswati was the first social reformer to give the call for Swaraj and coined the famous phrase India for Indians in 1876.
• He established the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875, in Bombay, to promote a return to the Vedic way of life and eliminate social evils.
• He authored the influential book Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Truth) in 1875, which advocated for monotheism and critiqued religious superstitions.
• Saraswati promoted the Shuddhi Movement to bring back individuals who had converted to other faiths into the Hindu fold, emphasizing social equality.
• He believed in the supreme authority of the Vedas, raising the slogan Back to the Vedas to reform Hinduism from within.

 Additional Information

• Swami Vivekananda
• He was a disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to provide social service.
• He gained international fame after his speech at the World Parliament of Religions in Chicago in 1893.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy
• Known as the Father of Modern India, he founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828.
• He played a pivotal role in the legal abolition of Sati in 1829 during the tenure of Lord William Bentinck.
• Jyotirao Phule
• He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 to advocate for the rights of lower castes and Dalits.
• Phule and his wife, Savitribai Phule, were pioneers of women education in India and he authored the famous book Gulamgiri.

The correct answer is Establishment of Chemical Parks.

Key Points

• The proposal for the Establishment of Chemical Parks in the Union Budget FY 2026-27 is a strategic move to create specialized industrial zones for the chemicals and petrochemicals sector.
• These parks are designed to provide plug-and-play infrastructure, which includes pre-cleared land, dedicated water and power supply, and integrated effluent treatment plants to minimize environmental impact and simplify the setup process.
• A primary objective is to lower logistics and manufacturing costs, which currently account for a significant portion of production expenses in India, thereby enhancing global export competitiveness for domestic manufacturers.
• The initiative seeks to attract both domestic private investment and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) by offering a predictable and efficient business environment, significantly reducing the turnaround time for establishing new industrial units.
• By clustering various manufacturing units, the government aims to achieve economies of scale and foster a collaborative ecosystem that supports research and development and sustainable chemical production.

 Additional Information

• Indian Chemical Industry:
• India is currently the 6^th largest producer of chemicals globally and the 3^rd largest in Asia, contributing nearly 7% to the national GDP.
• The sector is diverse, covering petrochemicals, specialty chemicals, agrochemicals, and dyes, with the market expected to grow as global supply chains shift toward diversification.
• Bulk Drug Manufacturing Hubs:
• These are specific industrial parks focused on the production of Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) and intermediates to reduce India's reliance on pharmaceutical imports from other nations.
• PCPIR Policy:
• The Petroleum, Chemicals and Petrochemicals Investment Region (PCPIR) policy provides a framework for massive investment hubs, usually exceeding 250 square kilometers, to promote synergy and shared resources.
• FDI Policy:
• The Government of India allows 100% FDI through the automatic route in the chemicals sector, except for certain hazardous chemicals regulated under the Industrial Development and Regulation Act.

The correct answer is Income adjusted for inflation.

Key Points

• Real income is an economic measure that provides an estimation of the purchasing power of an individual in the open market after accounting for inflation.
• Unlike nominal income, which is not adjusted for changes in prices, real income reflects the actual volume of goods and services one can afford to buy.
• The calculation of real income typically involves using a price index, such as the Consumer Price Index (CPI). The formula used is: Real Income = (Nominal Income / Price Index) × 100.
• It is a vital indicator for assessing the standard of living. If an individual's nominal salary increases by 3% while the inflation rate is 5%, their real income has actually decreased by approximately 2%, meaning their buying power has eroded.
• In macroeconomics, monitoring real income help policymakers and the Central Bank (like the RBI in India or the Federal Reserve in the US) determine if wage growth is keeping pace with the cost of living.

 Additional Information

• Nominal Salary:
• This represents the face value of the currency received by an employee as wages.
• It is the absolute amount mentioned in an appointment letter and does not reflect the economic reality of price hikes in the market.
• Income Before Taxes:
• Commonly referred to as Gross Income, it is the total earnings before any statutory deductions like Income Tax, Professional Tax, or Provident Fund (PF).
• While it indicates total earning capacity, it does not account for disposable income or purchasing power.
• Per Capita Income:
• A statistical measure calculated by dividing a country's National Income by its Total Population.
• It serves as an indicator of average prosperity but does not specify whether the income is real or nominal unless explicitly adjusted for inflation.

The correct answer is 1908.

Key Points

• The Alipore Bomb Conspiracy Case, also known as the Manicktolla Bomb Case or Muraripukur Conspiracy, was a major revolutionary trial that occurred in 1908 following the discovery of a bomb-making factory in Manicktolla, Bengal.
• The incident was triggered by the attempted assassination of Douglas Kingsford, the Chief Presidency Magistrate of Calcutta, in Muzaffarpur on April 30, 1908, by Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki.
• Following the assassination attempt, the British police raided various locations, including the Muraripukur garden house, leading to the arrest of several members of the Anushilan Samiti.
• Prominent revolutionary leader Aurobindo Ghosh and his brother Barindra Kumar Ghosh were among the primary accused individuals arrested during the investigation.
• The trial was conducted at the Alipore Sessions Court, where Chittaranjan Das (C.R. Das) successfully defended Aurobindo Ghosh, resulting in his acquittal while others faced deportation or imprisonment.

 Additional Information

• Anushilan Samiti:
• It was a secret revolutionary society established in the early 20^th century in Bengal to promote militant nationalism and end British rule through armed struggle.
• Key members like Barindra Kumar Ghosh and Bhupendranath Datta were instrumental in organizing young men for revolutionary activities.
• The Muzaffarpur Incident:
• Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki threw bombs at a carriage believed to be carrying Kingsford; however, it tragically killed two British women, the Kennedys.
• Khudiram Bose was subsequently hanged on August 11, 1908, becoming one of the youngest martyrs of the Indian independence movement.
• Narendra Goswami:
• He was an accused who turned approver (informant) for the British; he was later shot dead inside Alipore Jail by fellow revolutionaries Kanailal Dutt and Satyendranath Bose to prevent him from testifying.

The correct answer is Sporophore.

Key Points

• In the kingdom of Fungi, higher fungi such as Ascomycota and Basidiomycota develop complex, multicellular structures specialized for reproduction.
• A Sporophore is the general term for any structure that bears spores. In mycology, it is specifically the fruiting body that emerges from the vegetative mycelium.
• The primary biological role of the sporophore is sporogenesis, the production of spores, and their subsequent dispersal into the environment to colonize new substrates.
• Common examples of sporophores include mushrooms, toadstools, puffballs, and shelf fungi.
• Depending on the fungal group, these structures are more specifically known as ascocarps (in Ascomycetes) or basidiocarps (in Basidiomycetes).

 Additional Information

• Mycelium
• It represents the vegetative part of a fungus, consisting of a mass of branching, thread-like hyphae.
• Its main function is nutrient absorption from the organic substrate through the secretion of extracellular enzymes.
• Capsule
• In bryophytes (like mosses), the capsule is the portion of the sporophyte where spores are generated via meiosis.
• In bacteriology, it refers to a polysaccharide outer layer that protects the cell from phagocytosis and desiccation.
• Cone
• Also referred to as a strobilus, this is a reproductive organ found in gymnosperms (such as pines and firs) and certain pteridophytes.
• It contains reproductive units (seeds or spores) but is not a structure associated with the Kingdom Fungi.

The correct answer is Article 15.

Key Points

• Article 15 is a fundamental right enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, specifically falling under the Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18).
• It mandates that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them.
• The second provision of the article ensures that no citizen shall be subject to any disability or restriction regarding access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, and places of public entertainment.
• It further protects the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
• The article also contains clauses that allow the State to make special provisions for the advancement of women and children, as well as socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes (SC), and Scheduled Tribes (ST).

 Additional Information

• Article 12:
• Defines the term State for the purposes of Part III of the Constitution.
• It includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
• Article 13:
• Deals with laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights.
• It establishes the doctrine of Judicial Review, declaring that any law that violates fundamental rights shall be void.
• Article 14:
• Guarantees Equality before Law and Equal Protection of the Laws to every person within the territory of India.
• It is a broad guarantee that prohibits the State from denying any person equality before the legal system.

The correct answer is Pituitary gland.

Key Points

• The Pituitary gland, also known as the hypophysis, is a pea-sized endocrine gland located at the base of the brain in a bony structure called the sella turcica.
• It is frequently referred to as the Master Gland because it produces hormones that stimulate and regulate the activities of other major endocrine glands like the thyroid and adrenals.
• The specific hormone responsible for controlling overall body growth is the Growth Hormone (GH), or somatotropin, which is synthesized and secreted by the anterior pituitary lobe.
• GH promotes growth by stimulating protein synthesis and increasing the rate of mitosis (cell division) in skeletal muscles and long bones.
• The secretion of this hormone is strictly regulated by the hypothalamus through Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH) and Somatostatin.

 Additional Information

• Pancreas:
• Functioning as both an exocrine and endocrine gland, it contains the Islets of Langerhans.
• It primarily secretes insulin and glucagon to regulate blood glucose homeostasis rather than structural body growth.
• Adrenal Gland:
• Located superior to the kidneys, it consists of an outer cortex and an inner medulla.
• It secretes adrenaline (epinephrine) for emergency responses and cortisol for metabolism and stress management.
• Thyroid Gland:
• A butterfly-shaped gland in the neck that produces thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
• These hormones are crucial for regulating the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) and support the growth-promoting effects of GH.

The correct answer is Traffic congestion.

Key Points

• Traffic congestion is a critical issue in Indian urban centers, resulting from a massive gap between the growth rate of vehicles and the expansion of road infrastructure.
• The TomTom Traffic Index frequently ranks major Indian cities like Bengaluru, Mumbai, and Delhi among the most congested in the world, with commuters spending significantly more time in transit during peak hours.
• The high density of private automobiles and two-wheelers on narrow, often encroached roads leads to bottlenecks, reducing average speeds to less than 15-20 km/h in many central business districts.
• This problem causes immense economic drain due to fuel wastage and loss of man-hours, while simultaneously exacerbating air pollution and noise levels, impacting the quality of life in metropolitan areas.

 Additional Information

• Vehicle Ownership Trends:
• Contrary to being low, vehicle ownership in India has seen an exponential rise. Data from the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways indicates millions of new registrations annually, which saturates existing road capacity.
• Parking Infrastructure:
• Most Indian cities suffer from a deficit of parking space rather than a surplus. This leads to unauthorized parking on main roads, which further narrows the effective width of the carriageway.
• High-Speed Rail (HSR):
• While HSR projects like the Mumbai-Ahmedabad corridor are being developed, they primarily address inter-city connectivity and are not a solution for daily intra-city urban transportation hurdles.
• Government Initiatives:
• The National Urban Transport Policy (NUTP) and the Smart Cities Mission focus on Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) and Multi-modal Integration to promote public transport over private vehicle use.

The correct answer is Mandapa.

Key Points

• A Mandapa is a porch-like structure or a pillared outdoor hall that leads to the temple entrance, serving as a space for public rituals and religious gatherings.
• In the context of Hindu Temple Architecture, it acts as a transitional area for devotees between the exterior world and the sanctum sanctorum.
• The structure is common in both Nagara (North Indian) and Dravida (South Indian) styles, often housing elaborate carvings on its pillars and ceilings.
• Depending on the temple's scale, there may be multiple halls such as the Ardha-mandapa (entrance porch), Maha-mandapa (great hall), and Nandi-mandapa (pavilion for the Nandi bull).
• These halls were historically used not only for prayer but also as venues for classical dances, music performances, and community assemblies.

 Additional Information

• Garbhagriha:
• It is the innermost sanctuary or womb-chamber where the Idol (Murti) of the primary deity is enshrined.
• Entry is usually restricted to the priests, and the space is characterized by minimal lighting and decoration to focus energy on the deity.
• Shikhara:
• Refers to the rising tower or mountain-like spire located directly above the Garbhagriha in North Indian temples.
• It symbolizes Mount Meru, the mythical center of the universe, and its height often reflects the importance of the shrine.
• Kalasha:
• It is the finial or the decorative metal or stone pot placed at the very top of the temple spire.
• It is considered the crown of the temple and is formally consecrated during the Kumbhabhishekam ritual.

The correct answer is भारत के राष्ट्रपति.

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 61 में भारत के राष्ट्रपति पर महाभियोग चलाने की विस्तृत प्रक्रिया का वर्णन किया गया है।
• महाभियोग का आरोप संसद के किसी भी सदन (लोकसभा या राज्यसभा) में शुरू किया जा सकता है, जो इसे एक अर्ध-न्यायिक प्रक्रिया बनाता है।
• महाभियोग का प्रस्ताव पेश करने के लिए, उस सदन की कुल सदस्य संख्या के कम से कम एक-चौथाई (1/4) सदस्यों के हस्ताक्षर वाला एक लिखित नोटिस देना आवश्यक है।
• यह प्रस्ताव सदन में प्रस्तुत किए जाने से कम से कम 14 दिन पहले राष्ट्रपति को इस आशय की सूचना देना संवैधानिक रूप से अनिवार्य है।
• प्रस्ताव को पारित करने के लिए, इसे उस सदन की कुल सदस्य संख्या के कम से कम दो-तिहाई (2/3) बहुमत द्वारा स्वीकार किया जाना चाहिए।
• एक सदन द्वारा आरोप पारित होने के बाद, दूसरा सदन उन आरोपों की जांच करता है, जिसमें राष्ट्रपति को उपस्थित होने और अपना प्रतिनिधित्व करने का अधिकार होता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• भारत के प्रधानमंत्री:
• इनकी नियुक्ति अनुच्छेद 75 के तहत राष्ट्रपति द्वारा की जाती है; इन्हें हटाने के लिए लोकसभा में अविश्वास प्रस्ताव (No-Confidence Motion) पारित किया जाता है, न कि महाभियोग।
• राज्य के राज्यपाल:
• अनुच्छेद 156 के अनुसार, राज्यपाल राष्ट्रपति के प्रसादपर्यंत (Pleasure of the President) पद धारण करते हैं; संविधान में उनके निष्कासन के लिए महाभियोग जैसी किसी प्रक्रिया का उल्लेख नहीं है।
• लोकसभा के अध्यक्ष (स्पीकर):
• इन्हें अनुच्छेद 94 के तहत लोकसभा के तत्कालीन समस्त सदस्यों के बहुमत से पारित संकल्प द्वारा पद से हटाया जा सकता है, जिसके लिए भी 14 दिन की पूर्व सूचना आवश्यक है।
• महाभियोग का आधार:
• भारत के राष्ट्रपति को केवल संविधान के उल्लंघन (Violation of the Constitution) के आधार पर ही पद से हटाया जा सकता है।

The correct answer is Shaheedi Diwas.

Key Points

• Guru Arjan Dev was the fifth of the ten Sikh Gurus and became the first Sikh Guru to be martyred.
• His martyrdom is commemorated annually as Shaheedi Diwas, observed on the 24^th day of Jeth according to the Nanakshahi calendar (typically falling in May or June).
• In 1606, the Mughal Emperor Jahangir ordered his execution in Lahore after the Guru refused to modify the Adi Granth or convert to Islam.
• He was subjected to severe torture for five days, including being made to sit on a burning hot iron plate while boiling sand was poured over him.
• Guru Arjan Dev is profoundly remembered for compiling the first official edition of the Sikh scripture, the Adi Granth, and for completing the construction of the Harmandir Sahib in Amritsar.

 Additional Information

• Hola Mohalla:
• Established by Guru Gobind Singh in 1701 at Anandpur Sahib.
• It is a three-day festival held a day after Holi to showcase Sikh martial arts (Gatka), horse riding, and military exercises.
• Vaisakhi:
• Celebrated on April 13 or 14, it marks the Sikh New Year.
• It commemorates the formation of the Khalsa Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
• Bandi Chhor Divas:
• Known as the Day of Liberation, it coincides with Diwali.
• It celebrates the release of Guru Hargobind (the sixth Guru) from Gwalior Fort along with 52 Hindu kings.

The correct answer is Article 127 of the Constitution of India.

Key Points

• Article 127 of the Constitution of India provides the legal framework for the appointment of ad hoc judges in the Supreme Court.
• This provision is triggered when there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges required to conduct or continue any session of the Supreme Court.
• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the designated authority to make such requests. However, the CJI must obtain the previous consent of the President of India and consult with the Chief Justice of the High Court where the judge is currently serving.
• The judge selected must be duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Once designated, it is the legal duty of that judge to give priority to the sittings of the Supreme Court over their regular High Court duties.
• While performing these duties, the ad hoc judge possesses all the jurisdiction, powers, and privileges accorded to a permanent judge of the Supreme Court.

 Additional Information

• Article 125:
• Concerns the salaries, allowances, and pensions of Supreme Court judges.
• These financial provisions are determined by Parliament and are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Article 126:
• Deals with the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice.
• If the office of the CJI is vacant or the incumbent is unable to perform duties, the President appoints another Supreme Court judge to the role.
• Article 128:
• Relates to the attendance of retired judges at sittings of the Supreme Court.
• The CJI, with Presidential consent, can request a retired judge of the Supreme Court or Federal Court to act as a judge for a temporary period.

The correct answer is 1881.

Key Points

• The first synchronous census in India was conducted in the year 1881. This exercise marked the transition from fragmented, regional counts to a uniform, nationwide demographic survey.
• The census was carried out under the authority of W.C. Plowden, who was appointed as the Census Commissioner of India to oversee the systematic collection of data.
• Lord Ripon, the then Viceroy of India, was instrumental in implementing this synchronous system, which ensured that the data reflected the population status at a specific point in time across the country.
• Since the 1881 census, the process has been repeated every ten years (decennially), providing a continuous and comparable statistical record of Indian demographics for over a century.
• This census was highly detailed, categorizing the population based on demographic characteristics, literacy levels, occupations, and religious affiliations, which became a cornerstone for colonial administration and policy-making.

 Additional Information

• Significant Census Years:
• 1872: This year saw the first census conducted in India under Lord Mayo. However, it was non-synchronous, meaning it was not conducted at the same time across all regions and lacked comprehensive coverage.
• 1951: This was the first census of Independent India. It was conducted under the Census Act of 1948 and played a vital role in the planning of the First Five-Year Plan.
• 1901: This census is historically significant for its detailed attempt to classify the population according to caste and social hierarchy, directed by Sir Herbert Hope Risley.
• 1921: Known as the year of the Great Divide, as it was the only census period where India recorded a negative growth rate in population due to famines and the influenza epidemic.
• Administrative Authority:
• The modern census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
• This office operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

The correct answer is Pongal, the harvest thanksgiving.

Key Points

• Pongal is a major four-day harvest festival celebrated predominantly by the Tamil community in South India and Sri Lanka.
• The festival is dedicated to the Sun God (Surya) to express gratitude for a bountiful harvest and the energy provided for agriculture.
• The name of the festival is derived from the traditional dish Pongal, which consists of newly harvested rice boiled in milk and jaggery until it overflows from the pot.
• The act of the rice boiling over is a significant ritual symbolizing abundance and prosperity; it is traditionally greeted with the joyful chant 'Pongalo Pongal!'.
• It marks the start of the month of Thai in the Tamil calendar and coincides with Makara Sankranti, the sun's transit into the zodiac sign of Capricorn.

 Additional Information

• Ugadi:
• This festival marks the New Year for the people of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.
• A special preparation called Ugadi Pachadi is made, combining six flavors to represent the various emotions of life.
• Makar Sankranti:
• A harvest festival celebrated across India, marking the end of winter and the sun's journey northwards (Uttarayana).
• In states like Gujarat and Rajasthan, it is famously celebrated as a Kite Festival (Uttarayan).
• Onam:
• The primary harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated to welcome the spirit of the legendary King Mahabali.
• It is characterized by Pookalam (floral carpets), Vallam Kali (snake boat races), and the elaborate Onasadya feast.

The correct answer is Lord Vishnu.

Key Points

• The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh, situated in the Lalitpur district of Uttar Pradesh, is a seminal monument of the Gupta period, constructed during the early 6^th century CE.
• The Sheshashayana panel, located on the southern exterior wall, depicts Lord Vishnu reclining on the coils of the great serpent Shesha (Ananta) amidst the cosmic ocean.
• The relief captures Vishnu in Yoganidra (divine sleep) between the dissolution of the old world and the creation of a new one, showcasing the deity as the supreme Preserver.
• In the panel, Goddess Lakshmi is depicted at his feet, while Lord Brahma is seated on a lotus emerging from Vishnu's navel, symbolizing the birth of the universe.
• The lower register of the panel often features the Ayudha Purushas (personified weapons) or the demons Madhu and Kaitabha, adding complex mythological depth to the Gupta art style.

 Additional Information

• Temple Architecture:
• The temple follows the Panchayatana layout, characterized by a central main shrine and four smaller shrines at the corners.
• It is one of the earliest examples of a North Indian temple featuring a Shikhara (curvilinear spire), although it is now partially ruined.
• Major Panels:
• Gajendra Moksha: Found on the northern wall, this relief illustrates Vishnu descending on Garuda to save an elephant from a crocodile.
• Nara-Narayana: Located on the eastern wall, depicting the twin sages in deep meditation in the Himalayas.
• Historical Significance:
• Deogarh was a vital center on the ancient trade route, and the temple serves as a testament to the sophisticated Vaishnava iconography developed during the Gupta Dynasty.

The correct answer is Baking powder reacts with acid to release carbon dioxide.

Key Points

• Baking powder primarily consists of sodium bicarbonate (a base) mixed with a mild edible acid like tartaric acid.
• When baking powder is mixed with water or a liquid acid such as vinegar or lime juice, a chemical neutralization reaction occurs.
• This reaction results in the rapid evolution of carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas, which can be represented by the equation: $NaHCO_{3} + H^{+} \rightarrow Na^{+} + H_{2}O + CO_{2} \uparrow$.
• The CO₂ gas becomes trapped in the gluten network of the batter or dough, forming bubbles that expand during heating.
• The expansion of these gas bubbles causes the cake or bread to rise, giving it a soft, fluffy, and porous structure.
• Adding an external acid ensures that all the sodium bicarbonate reacts, preventing the formation of sodium carbonate, which would otherwise impart a bitter or soapy taste to the food.

 Additional Information

• Baking Soda vs. Baking Powder:
• Baking soda is pure sodium bicarbonate and requires an external acidic ingredient (like yogurt, buttermilk, or lemon juice) to react.
• Baking powder is a complete leavening agent because it contains both the base and the acid in dry form, reacting only when moisture is added.
• Properties of Carbon Dioxide in Baking:
• It is an odorless and colorless gas that is essential for the leavening process in the culinary industry.
• Unlike Oxygen, which is not typically produced in this reaction, CO₂ provides the necessary pressure to lift the heavy batter.
• Chemical Components:
• Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) is an alkaline white crystalline solid.
• Commonly used acids in commercial baking powder include sodium acid pyrophosphate or monocalcium phosphate.

The correct answer is Globular protein.

Key Points

• Insulin is a vital peptide hormone synthesized and secreted by the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
• It is classified as a globular protein because its polypeptide chains are folded into a compact, spherical (globular) shape, which is a characteristic feature of functional proteins like enzymes and hormones.
• The molecular structure of insulin consists of two polypeptide chains: Chain A (containing 21 amino acids) and Chain B (containing 30 amino acids), held together by disulfide bridges.
• Unlike structural proteins, globular proteins are typically soluble in water or aqueous solutions because their hydrophilic amino acid residues are oriented toward the exterior surface.
• Frederick Sanger was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1958 for determining the primary sequence of amino acids in insulin, proving it had a precise chemical structure.

 Additional Information

• Fibrous protein
• These proteins consist of linear, thread-like molecules that tend to lie side by side to form fibers.
• Examples include keratin (found in hair and nails) and collagen (found in connective tissues). They are generally insoluble in water and serve structural purposes.
• Polysaccharide
• These are complex carbohydrates formed by long chains of monosaccharide units linked by glycosidic bonds.
• Common examples include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. Insulin is a protein, not a carbohydrate.
• Monosaccharide
• These are the simplest form of sugars and the most basic units of carbohydrates.
• Examples include glucose, fructose, and galactose. They cannot be further hydrolyzed into simpler chemical compounds.

The correct answer is Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Key Points

• Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a complex organic chemical that provides energy to drive many processes in living cells, such as muscle contraction, nerve impulse propagation, and chemical synthesis.
• It is widely known as the energy currency of the cell because it stores energy in a form that is readily available for various metabolic activities.
• The structure of ATP consists of an adenosine nucleoside (comprising the nitrogenous base adenine and a ribose sugar) bound to three phosphate groups.
• Energy is captured in the high-energy phosphoanhydride bonds between the phosphate groups; when the terminal phosphate bond is broken via hydrolysis, it releases approximately 30.5 kJ/mol of energy.
• In plants, ATP is primarily produced during the Light-Dependent Reactions of photosynthesis in the chloroplasts and through cellular respiration within the mitochondria.
• This molecule is essential for active transport, allowing ions and molecules to move across cell membranes against their concentration gradients.

 Additional Information

• Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
• Formed when ATP undergoes dephosphorylation to release energy, leaving two phosphate groups.
• It acts as a precursor that is recycled back into ATP during oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation.
• Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
• A single-stranded nucleic acid containing ribose sugar, which plays a vital role in protein synthesis and gene expression.
• While it uses Adenosine triphosphate as a building block (as ATP is one of the four monomers), RNA itself is an information carrier rather than a primary energy storage unit.
• Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
• The hereditary material in almost all organisms, characterized by a double helix structure containing deoxyribose sugar.
• Its primary function is the long-term storage of genetic information necessary for the development and reproduction of life.

The correct answer is Indira Sagar.

Key Points

• The Indira Sagar Project is a prestigious multipurpose river valley project located in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is built on the Narmada River, which is the lifeline of Madhya Pradesh and the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India.
• The project foundation was laid by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1984, with the main dam construction beginning in 1992.
• It has an installed power generation capacity of 1000 MW, comprising 8 units of 125 MW each, contributing significantly to the state's energy grid.
• The Indira Sagar Reservoir is notable for having the largest storage capacity in India, holding approximately 12.22 billion cubic meters of water.

 Additional Information

• Idukki Dam:
• Located in the state of Kerala, it is constructed across the Periyar River.
• It is famous for being a double curvature arch dam, one of the highest in Asia, situated between two mountains known as Kuravan and Kurathi.
• Bhakra Nangal Project:
• This is a joint venture of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, built on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh.
• It is one of the highest concrete gravity dams in the world, and its reservoir is named Gobind Sagar Lake.
• Rihand Dam:
• Located in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh on the Rihand River, a tributary of the Son River.
• The reservoir of this dam, Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar, is India's largest artificial lake by surface area.

The correct answer is a-iii; b-ii; c-i; d-iv.

Key Points

• Bihu is the most prominent folk dance and festival of Assam, celebrated three times a year to mark different stages of the agricultural cycle, with the Rongali Bihu in April being the most significant. Hence, (a) matches with (III).
• Onam is the premier harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated in the month of Chingam to honor the homecoming of the legendary King Mahabali; it is famous for its elaborate Sadhya feast and Pookalam flower carpets. Hence, (b) matches with (II).
• Hemis is a world-renowned monastic festival held at the Hemis Gompa in the Union Territory of Ladakh, commemorating the birth of Guru Padmasambhava with traditional Cham (masked) dances. Hence, (c) matches with (I).
• Gochi is a unique traditional festival celebrated in the Lahaul Valley of Himachal Pradesh, specifically organized in houses where a male child was born during the preceding year to seek divine blessings. Hence, (d) matches with (IV).

 Additional Information

• Cultural Heritage of the Regions:
• Assam: Apart from its folk traditions, it is home to Sattriya, one of the eight Classical Dances of India, introduced by the 15^th-century saint Srimanta Sankardev.
• Kerala: Known for its diverse art forms including Kathakali (stylized dance-drama), Mohiniyattam (graceful classical dance), and Kalaripayattu (ancient martial art).
• Ladakh: Characterized by its Tibetan Buddhist culture, it hosts various festivals like Losar (New Year) and Ladakh Festival, showcasing its unique Himalayan identity.
• Himachal Pradesh: The state is famous for its vibrant Pahari culture, featuring folk dances like Nati and major celebrations like the Kullu Dussehra.

The correct answer is Konkan Coast.

Key Points

• The Western Coastal Plains is a narrow strip of land situated between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea, extending approximately 1,500 kilometers from the Gulf of Kutch in the north to Kanyakumari in the south.
• The Konkan Coast forms the northern part of this western stretch, primarily covering the coastal areas of Maharashtra, Goa, and the northern part of Karnataka.
• This region is geographically characterized as a submerged coastline, resulting in a highly indented profile that provides excellent conditions for natural harbors, including major ports like Mumbai and Marmagao.
• The width of the Konkan plain varies between 50 kilometers and 80 kilometers, and it is significantly narrower compared to the plains on the eastern side of the Indian peninsula.
• The region experiences high levels of orographic rainfall, ranging from 2,000 millimeters to over 3,000 millimeters annually, due to the moisture-laden winds of the Southwest Monsoon striking the Western Ghats.

 Additional Information

• Coromandel Coast
• Located on the Eastern Coastal Plain, it lies between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.
• It extends from the Krishna River delta to Kanyakumari, covering parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• Northern Circars
• This region refers to the northern part of the Eastern Coastal Plains situated between the Mahanadi and Krishna rivers.
• It is known for its wide alluvial deltas formed by major rivers like the Godavari and Krishna.
• Malwa Plateau
• A high-altitude region of Central India primarily of volcanic origin, characterized by black soil.
• It is bounded by the Vindhya Range in the south and the Aravali Range in the northwest, serving as a distinct physiographic unit from the coastal plains.

The correct answer is Article 79.

Key Points

• Article 79 of the Constitution of India provides the framework for the Constitution of Parliament.
• It explicitly states that the Parliament for the Union shall consist of the President and two Houses.
• The two Houses are formally known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Although the President is not a member of either House and does not sit in Parliament, they are considered an integral part because a bill passed by both Houses cannot become law without Presidential Assent.
• This provision establishes the Bicameral nature of the Indian Legislature, which is patterned after the Westminster model of government.

 Additional Information

• Article 74:
• Relates to the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head.
• Its core function is to aid and advise the President, who shall act in accordance with such advice.
• Article 80:
• Specifies the composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
• It sets a maximum strength of 250 members, of which 12 are nominated by the President for their excellence in Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service.
• Article 81:
• Defines the composition of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• It details the allocation of seats based on population to ensure uniform representation across States and Union Territories.
• Nomenclature:
• The Hindi names Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha were officially adopted for use in the Indian Parliamentary system on August 23, 1954.