DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 06 Mar, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. E is kept fifth from the bottom.
2. D is kept fourth from the top.
3. Only two boxes are kept between A and E.
4. G is kept immediately below C.
5. F is not kept above B. 

Final Arrangement Table:

Three boxes are kept between B and C.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only six boxes are kept below G.
2. B is kept fourth from the bottom.
3. D is kept immediately below C but above A.
4. E is kept below F but above B.

Final Arrangement:

Four boxes are kept between G and D.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. Some sharpeners are erasers → Follows (As some sharpeners are books and all books are erasers, therefore those sharpeners which are books will definitely be erasers.)

II. All erasers are books → Does not follow (The statement says that all books are erasers, but it does not mean that all erasers are books. Hence, the converse is not true.)

Only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Family Chart:

Family tree,

B is H's mother's Mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statement:

X ≥ Y > Z = W < V

Conclusions:

I: Z < X → True (From the statement, X ≥ Y > Z, therefore X is definitely greater than Z, so Z < X is true.)

II: Y > W → True (Since Z = W and Y > Z, therefore Y > W.)

Therefore, both I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘EACH’ is coded as ‘9763’ 

‘HEAT’ is coded as ‘8976’.

Code for "T" is "8".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘BEAR’ is coded as ‘7542’ 

‘AIDS’ is coded as ‘1367’.

Code for "A" is "7".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Each of L, M, N, R, S, T and U has interview on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. Only three people have interview between U and R.
2. U has interview on the third day of the week.
3. Only one person has interview between T and M.
4. L has interview immediately the day before N.
5. S doesn't have interview on Friday

Final Arrangement Table:

Six people have an interview after S.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘SEAT’ is coded as ‘3157’  

‘BIDS’ is coded as ‘2416’.

Code for "S" is "1".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given word:  INCAGED

The group of letters formed is: J, M, B, B, F, F, C.

Now, let's count the frequency of each letter:

• J appears 1 time.
• M appears 1 time.
• B appears 2 times.
• F appears 2 times.
• C appears 1 time.

The letters that appear exactly twice are B and F.

Therefore, there are Two such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven people, E, F, G, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only five people sit between T and S.
2. F sits to the immediate left of S.
3. Only one person sits between F and G.
4. U sits at some place to the left of V but at some place to the right of E.

U sits third from the left end of the line.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) / # = $ F P ? % ? U C * O M S Y G \ X H L (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Letter → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) / # = $ F P ? % ? **U C *** O M S *Y G * X H L (Right)

The letters P, C, and G are each immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol.

Hence, there are three such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given word: FRIENDS

The letter N is at the 5th position in both cases.

The letter S is at the 7th position in both cases.

The positions of two letters (N and S) remain unchanged after the rearrangement.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statement:

T ≥ U = V < W ≤ X

Conclusions:

I: T < W → False (From the given statement, T ≥ V and V < W. Hence, no definite relationship can be established between T and W.)

II: V < X → True (From the given statement, V < W and W ≤ X. Therefore, V is definitely less than X.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: Z × M ÷ U − K + L

It means: Z is the wife of M, M is the father of U, U is the brother of K, and K is the sister of L.

Z is related to L as Mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) G U K O W C X Z M R A Q Y E S F H T B D I (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Vowel ← Consonant → Consonant

Checking the series:

(Left) G U K O W C X Z M A Q Y E S F H T B D I (Right)

The consonants W, Q, and S are each immediately preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a consonant.

Hence, there are three such consonants.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series:

(Left) C # * C Y A \ # Z K + F S = & K N ^ C & S (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) C # * C Y A \ # Z K + F S = & K N ^ C & S (Right)

There are three such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Seven people, E, F, G, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only T sits to the left of E.
2. Only four people sit between T and V.
3. Only F sits between U and S and U is not an immediate neighbour of V. 

G sits at the extreme right of the line.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) E T A Q H G U K M S W D F I C X Z R B Y O (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) E T A Q H G U K M S W D F I C X Z R B Y O (Right)

Three such consonants are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Each of F, G, H, I, U, V and W has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. F has exam on Thursday. U has exam two days before F.
2. Only four people have exams between G and U.
3. I has exam on one of the days after U.
4. V has exam on the day immediately before W.

Final Arrangement:

The number of people having exams between W and I is Two.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 37 C 125 A 5 B 8 D 204 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 37 + 125 ÷ 5 × 8 - 204 = ?

⇒ 37 + 125 ÷ 5 × 8 - 204 = ?

⇒ 37 + 25 × 8 - 204 = ?

⇒ 37 + 200 - 204 = ?

⇒ 37 + 200 - 204 = ?

⇒ 237 - 204 = ?

⇒ 33.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The pattern observed is: (First number × 5) + Second number = Third number.

For (9, 25, 70) →

9 × 5) + 25 = 45 + 25 = 70

For (12, 11, 71) →

(12 × 5) + 11 = 60 + 11 = 71

Similarly**, for the set (18, 21, 111):**

 (18 × 5) + 21 = 90 + 21 = 111

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

I. No park is a hill → Follows (Since all parks are forests and no forest is a hill, therefore no park can be a hill.)

II. All hills are forests → Does not follow (The statement only says that no forest is a hill. It does not imply that all hills are forests.)

Hence, only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The option figure that will replace the question mark in the figure given below to complete the pattern,

 + 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

For SHIP - ISHP - PIHS

For KNOT - OKNT - TONK

Similarly,

option (2): FOND - NFOD - DNOF

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Number: 134756455738

**Logic:**​

The transformed number is: 2 4 2 8 6 4 2 6 6 8 4 6

The second digit from the left in the new sequence is 4.

The second digit from the right in the new sequence is 4.

Sum = 4 + 4 = 8

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 12 − 4 ÷ 17 + 28 × 4 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 12 × 4 + 17 - 28 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 12 × 4 + 17 - 28 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 48 + 17 - 7 = ?

⇒ 48 + 17 - 7 = ?

⇒ 65 - 7 = ?

⇒ 58.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 128 A 8 C 106 D 14 B 8 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 128 ÷ 8 + 106 - 14 × 8 = ?

⇒ 128 ÷ 8 + 106 - 14 × 8 = ?

⇒ 16 + 106 - 14 × 8 = ?

⇒ 16 + 106 - 112 = ?

⇒ 16 + 106 - 112 = ?

⇒ 122 - 112 = ?

⇒ 10.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

**Original Number:**3815476

Arrange the digits in ascending order:

The second digit from the left in the new number is 3.

The second digit from the right in the new number is 7.

Sum = 3 + 7 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: (First Number × 4) − 6 = Second Number

For (65, 254) →

 (65 × 4) − 6 = 254

For (32, 122) →

(32 × 4) − 6 = 122

Similarly, 

Option (4): (35, 134)

(35 × 4) − 6 = 134

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part  is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

732 + 91 = 823

823 + 91 = 914

914 + 91 = 1005

1005 + 91 = 1096

1096 + 91 = 1187

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1^st number − 2^nd number) − 3 = 3^rd number

For (33, 22, 8) →

(33 − 22) − 3 = 11 − 3 = 8

For (49, 25, 21) →

(49 − 25) − 3 = 24 − 3 = 21

Similarly,

Option (4): (28, 9, 16) →

(28 − 9) − 3 = 19 − 3 = 16

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For JS-SZ:

For NI-ID:

For DM-MT:

For ZI-IP:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

12 + 2 = 14

14 + 3 = 17

17 + 4 = 21

21 + 5 = 26

26 + 6 = 32

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is:

For HNF to KQI

For GOR to JRU

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +3 for each letter in the pair.

Option 1) PJS to TNW

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +4, +4, +4.

Option 2) QBZ to TEC

This pair follows the same logic as the shifts are +3, +3, +3 (Note: Z(26) + 3 = 29; 29 − 26 = 3, which is C).

Option 3) AVM to DZR

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +3, +4, +5.

Option 4) CKA to GNC

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +4, +3, +2.

Thus, the pair QBZ : TEC follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

1. OS-VP

2) JN-QL

3. LP-SM

4. RV-YS

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

KH 15 is related to ML 8: 

TG 20 is related to VK 13: 

Similarly,

PR 21 related,

Therefore, PR 21 is related to RV 14.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

(1) FJ - KO

(2) XS - TL

(3) QU - VZ

(4) KO - PT

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Old-age pension.

Key Points

• Transfer payments are defined as unilateral transfers or one-way payments for which no productive service or current output is rendered in return.
• According to the System of National Accounts (SNA), National Income only includes factor incomes, which are payments made to the owners of factors of production (land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship).
• Old-age pension is a social security payment made by the government to senior citizens. It is considered a redistribution of income already earned by others (taxpayers) rather than a reward for current economic activity.
• If transfer payments were included in National Income, it would lead to double counting, as the funds used for these payments are already counted when the taxpayers earn their original factor income.
• Other common examples of transfer payments that are excluded from National Income and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) include scholarships, unemployment allowances, and pocket money.

 Additional Information

• Factor Incomes (Included in National Income calculation):
• Profit earned by a company: This is the factor reward for entrepreneurship. It represents the surplus generated after paying all other factors of production and is a core component of the Income Method of calculating GDP.
• Interest on savings account: This is a factor payment for the use of capital. When capital is utilized for productive investment, the interest paid to households or firms is included in National Income.
• Salary of a teacher: This falls under Compensation of Employees (COE). It is a direct payment for the labor service provided in the production of educational services, contributing to the Gross Value Added (GVA).

The correct answer is Hola Mohalla.

Key Points

• Hola Mohalla is a prominent three-day Sikh festival celebrated annually in the month of Phalguna, typically falling in March, a day after the Hindu festival of Holi.
• The festival was established by the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh, in 1701 at Anandpur Sahib to provide a platform for Sikhs to demonstrate their martial arts and military preparedness.
• The term Hola is a masculine variation of Holi, while Mohalla translates to an organized procession or an army column, signifying a military-style exercise or mock battle.
• It is famously characterized by the participation of the Nihang Sikhs, also known as the Akalis, who dress in traditional dark blue attire and peaked turbans decorated with steel rings.
• During the festivities, the Nihangs display their skills in Gatka (traditional martial art), tent pegging, bareback horse riding, and sword fighting, moving away from the traditional color-throwing of Holi toward a celebration of valor and physical strength.

 Additional Information

• Baisakhi:
• Celebrated on April 13th or 14th, it marks the Sikh New Year and commemorates the formation of the Khalsa Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
• It is also a significant harvest festival in Punjab, where farmers offer prayers and perform Bhangra and Gidda to celebrate successful yields.
• Lohri:
• A popular folk festival celebrated on January 13th, marking the end of peak winter and the passing of the winter solstice.
• It involves lighting bonfires, singing folk songs, and distributing traditional sweets like rewri, gajak, and peanuts.
• Gurpurab:
• This term refers to the birth anniversaries or martyrdom days of the ten Sikh Gurus, celebrated with religious fervor and Akhand Path (continuous reading of Guru Granth Sahib).
• The most widely celebrated ones are the birth anniversaries of Guru Nanak Dev Ji and Guru Gobind Singh Ji, involving massive Nagar Kirtans and Langar (community kitchens).

The correct answer is 1 April to 31 March of the following year.

Key Points

• The Financial Year (FY) in India, often referred to as the Fiscal Year, starts on 1 April and concludes on 31 March of the subsequent year. All government accounts, taxation cycles, and financial reporting follow this specific period.
• This cycle was formally adopted by the British Government in 1867 to synchronize the Indian Financial System with that of the United Kingdom. Before this transition, the Indian financial year commenced on 1 May and ended on 30 April.
• Under Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the budget is officially termed the Annual Financial Statement (AFS). It serves as a detailed document showcasing the estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of India for the duration of the financial year.
• Since 2017, the Union Budget is presented on the first day of February by the Finance Minister. This allows the Parliament enough time to complete the legislative process, including the passage of the Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill, before the new fiscal year begins.

 Additional Information

• Proposals for Change:
• The Shankar Acharya Committee and the L.K. Jha Committee (2016) examined the feasibility of shifting the fiscal year to the Calendar Year (1 January to 31 December) to align with the Monsoon Cycle and international practices.
• Madhya Pradesh was the first state in India to announce the transition to a January to December financial year in 2017.
• Other Accounting Cycles:
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) previously followed a July to June accounting year but transitioned to the April to March cycle in 2021 to ensure consistency with the government’s fiscal reporting.
• The Agricultural Year in India typically follows the July to June period, coinciding with the Kharif and Rabi crop seasons.

The correct answer is All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi.

Key Points

• In September 2025, the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi, inaugurated the highly advanced da Vinci surgical robot at its dedicated SET (Skills, Education and Training) Centre.
• The SET Centre is a state-of-the-art facility designed to provide simulation-based training to surgical residents and faculty, ensuring they gain proficiency in modern techniques before performing actual surgeries.
• The integration of the da Vinci system allows for robotic-assisted training, which offers superior precision, 3D visualization, and enhanced dexterity compared to traditional laparoscopic or open surgeries.
• This initiative is part of a broader mission to standardize robotic surgery education in India, positioning AIIMS New Delhi as a central hub for training the next generation of surgeons in minimally invasive technology.
• The move reflects the growing trend of utilizing artificial intelligence and robotics in the Indian healthcare sector to improve surgical outcomes and reduce patient recovery times.

 Additional Information

• da Vinci Surgical System:
• Developed by Intuitive Surgical, it features a surgeon console, a patient-side cart with interactive robotic arms, and a high-performance vision system.
• It utilizes EndoWrist technology, providing instruments with a range of motion far exceeding the human hand, which helps in performing intricate maneuvers in urology, cardiology, and gynecology.
• AIIMS New Delhi:
• Established in 1956 as an Institute of National Importance, it consistently ranks at the top of the NIRF (National Institutional Ranking Framework) in the medical category.
• The institute has been a pioneer in robotic surgery in the public sector, having performed thousands of successful robotic procedures over the last decade.

The correct answer is ₹40,000 crore.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2026-27 of India prioritized the expansion of the domestic electronics ecosystem by significantly increasing the outlay for the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme to ₹40,000 crore.
• This substantial fiscal allocation is aimed at reducing import dependency for critical inputs such as Printed Circuit Boards (PCBs), active components, and mechanical assemblies, which currently form a major portion of the electronics bill of materials.
• The move aligns with the National Policy on Electronics (NPE), which seeks to position India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM) by fostering a competitive environment for local players.
• By allocating ₹40,000 crore, the government intends to address the disability gap (cost disadvantages) faced by Indian manufacturers compared to global competitors due to higher logistics and power costs.
• This funding is expected to catalyze large-scale investments from both Domestic and Global companies, contributing to the broader target of achieving $300 billion in electronics production by the end of the fiscal year 2026-27.

 Additional Information

• Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:
• Offers an incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales of goods manufactured in India.
• Covers sectors like Mobile Phones, IT Hardware, and Semiconductors to boost manufacturing capacity.
• Scheme for Promotion of Manufacturing of Electronic Components and Semiconductors (SPECS):
• Provides a financial incentive of 25% on capital expenditure for the manufacturing of electronic components and semiconductors.
• Focuses on strengthening the supply chain for downstream electronics manufacturing.
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY):
• The nodal ministry responsible for the implementation of Digital India and electronics manufacturing policies.
• Oversees the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) to develop a sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem.

The correct answer is Pooja Singh.

Key Points

• Pooja Singh scripted history by setting a new Indian national indoor record in the women's high jump event at the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships.
• The young athlete cleared a remarkable height of 1.85 meters, which not only secured her a podium finish but also surpassed the previous national best in the indoor category.
• The achievement took place during a major continental event sanctioned by the Asian Athletics Association, where elite athletes from across Asia compete in specialized indoor tracks.
• This record-breaking performance highlights the rapid progression of vertical jump disciplines in India, moving closer to the Olympic and World Championship qualification standards.
• Her success is attributed to rigorous training under the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) programs designed to improve performance in field events.

 Additional Information

• Pooja Singh:
• She is a teenage prodigy from Haryana, a state known for producing world-class Indian athletes.
• She previously held the National Under-20 record, demonstrating a consistent upward trajectory in the High Jump discipline.
• Her technique involves the Fosbury Flop, which is the standard high jump style used by modern professional athletes.
• Ancy Sojan:
• She is a specialized long jumper from Kerala who won the silver medal at the 2022 Asian Games (held in 2023).
• She is recognized for her consistency in the horizontal jump category rather than the high jump.
• Asian Indoor Athletics Championships:
• A biennial competition that serves as a vital qualification window for the World Indoor Championships.
• Indoor records are tracked separately from outdoor records due to the lack of wind assistance and controlled atmospheric conditions in indoor arenas.

The correct answer is Skilling for AI Readiness (SOAR) initiative.

Key Points

• The Skilling for AI Readiness (SOAR) initiative was officially launched by President Droupadi Murmu in January 2026 as a strategic move to future-proof the Indian workforce.
• This nationwide program is designed to bridge the gap between traditional education and the rapidly evolving requirements of the Artificial Intelligence sector.
• The initiative targets the integration of AI literacy, machine learning, and computational thinking into the vocational training modules of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
• The core objective is to ensure that the youth are equipped with advanced technical skills to meet the demands of Industry 4.0, thereby boosting India's global competitiveness.

 Additional Information

• Significance of the SOAR Initiative:
• Focuses on AI ethics, data privacy, and the responsible use of autonomous technologies.
• Promotes Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) to facilitate internships and placement opportunities in tech giants and startups.
• Aligns with the broader vision of Viksit Bharat @ 2047, emphasizing digital transformation and economic self-reliance.
• Technological Landscape in India:
• India is currently one of the largest providers of IT talent globally, and the SOAR initiative helps maintain this lead in the AI domain.
• Complementary schemes like PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana provide the foundational infrastructure for such specialized training programs.
• Impact on Employment:
• The initiative aims to mitigate the risk of job displacement caused by automation by upskilling and reskilling employees across various sectors.

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

• The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was a major peasant uprising in the Kheda district of Gujarat, organized to protest against the British Government for collecting land revenue during a severe famine.
• According to the Revenue Code of the time, if the crop yield was less than 25 percent of the normal produce, farmers were entitled to a complete remission of the land revenue.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, under the guidance of Mahatma Gandhi, emerged as the primary organizer, touring the district to mobilize peasants and encourage them to withhold tax payments despite threats of property seizure.
• Patel played a critical role in bridging the Indian National Congress with the rural masses, specifically the Patidar community, turning the movement into a mass struggle for agrarian rights.
• The movement concluded successfully when the British authorities issued a directive stating that revenue should only be collected from those farmers who could afford to pay, while the rest were granted a stay.

 Additional Information

• Motilal Nehru:
• He was a prominent lawyer who served as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1919 and 1928.
• He co-founded the Swaraj Party in 1923 and chaired the committee that drafted the Nehru Report in 1928.
• Subhas Chandra Bose:
• Known as Netaji, he served as the Congress President during the Haripura (1938) and Tripuri (1939) sessions.
• He founded the All India Forward Bloc and later led the Indian National Army (INA) to fight for independence.
• Lala Lajpat Rai:
• A veteran leader known as the Punjab Kesari, he was a member of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio and a key figure in the Arya Samaj.
• He passed away in 1928 following injuries sustained during a lathi charge while protesting against the Simon Commission.

The correct answer is 13th April 1919.

Key Points

• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13th April 1919. This tragic event occurred on the day of the Baisakhi festival, a significant harvest festival in Punjab.
• A large, peaceful crowd had gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar to protest against the arrest of two prominent nationalist leaders, Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal.
• The protest was also directed against the repressive Rowlatt Act of 1919, which allowed the British government to imprison individuals without trial.
• Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer entered the enclosed ground, blocked the sole narrow exit, and ordered his troops to open fire on the unarmed crowd without any warning.
• The firing lasted for about 10 minutes, resulting in the deaths of hundreds of innocent people and injuring thousands, marking a significant turning point in the Indian Independence Movement.

 Additional Information

• Rowlatt Act (1919):
• Formally known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, it was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council to curb political activities.
• It was famously called the 'Black Act' and described by Indian leaders as 'No Dalil, No Vakil, No Appeal'.
• Nationalist Reactions:
• Rabindranath Tagore renounced his Knighthood title in protest against the British brutality.
• Mahatma Gandhi gave up his Kaiser-i-Hind gold medal, which he had received for his contribution during the Boer War.
• Investigation and Revenge:
• The British government formed the Hunter Commission (Disorders Inquiry Committee) in October 1919 to investigate the massacre.
• In 1940, the Indian revolutionary Udham Singh assassinated Michael O'Dwyer, the former Lieutenant Governor of Punjab, who had endorsed Dyer's actions.

The correct answer is Bharatmala.

Key Points

• Bharatmala Pariyojana is a centrally-sponsored and funded flagship program of the Government of India, launched to overhaul the road network and improve the efficiency of freight and passenger movement.
• The project is managed by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) and aims to bridge critical infrastructure gaps through the development of Economic Corridors, Inter-corridors, and Feeder Routes.
• Phase I of the program focuses on constructing approximately 34,800 km of roads, including Border and International connectivity roads and Coastal and Port connectivity roads.
• It emphasizes a scientific corridor-based approach to road development, replacing the older piece-meal project selection method to ensure seamless connectivity across the country.
• The program also integrates the development of Multimodal Logistics Parks and the removal of traffic bottlenecks to reduce logistics costs, which currently stand high in India compared to global benchmarks.

 Additional Information

• AMRUT Mission:
• Stands for Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation, launched in June 2015.
• Focuses on urban infrastructure like water supply, sewerage management, and stormwater drainage to improve the quality of life in 500 selected cities.
• Make in India:
• Launched in September 2014 to encourage companies to manufacture their products in India.
• Aims to increase the manufacturing sector's share in the GDP and create millions of jobs in 25 key sectors.
• Sagarmala:
• A strategic initiative for port-led development along India's 7,517 km coastline.
• Focuses on port modernization, port connectivity, and port-linked industrialization to optimize maritime logistics.

The correct answer is RBI Act, 1934.

Key Points

• Scheduled banks in India refers to those banks which have been included in the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• To qualify for this list, a bank must have a paid-up capital and raised funds of at least 5 Lakhs.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) must be satisfied that the affairs of the bank are not being conducted in a manner detrimental to the interests of its depositors.
• Scheduled banks are entitled to certain facilities such as obtaining refinance from the RBI at the Bank Rate and acquiring membership of clearing houses.
• These banks are required to maintain a Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with the RBI as per the prescribed norms to ensure liquidity and solvency.

 Additional Information

• Banking Regulation Act, 1949:
• This primary legislation governs the licensing, management, and operations of all banking companies in India.
• It empowers the RBI to inspect bank books, give directions for audit, and control the appointment of Chairman and directors.
• Companies Act, 2013:
• It provides the legal framework for the incorporation and governance of companies in India, including the duties of directors and financial reporting requirements.
• Banks are usually registered as companies under this act before seeking a banking license from the RBI.
• Income Tax Act, 1961:
• This act outlines the taxation rules for individuals and corporate entities, including Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) on interest earned from bank deposits.

The correct answer is E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.

Key Points

• The Self-Respect Movement was a transformative socio-political movement started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as Periyar, in 1925 in Tamil Nadu.
• Its primary objective was to achieve a society where backward castes enjoyed equal human rights and to encourage them to live with self-respect in a social hierarchy dominated by Brahminical orthodoxy.
• The movement strongly advocated for Dravidian upliftment, the abolition of the caste system, and the rejection of superstitious religious practices through rationalism.
• Periyar used his journal, Kudi Arasu, to propagate the ideals of the movement, which eventually laid the foundation for Dravidian politics in South India.
• It also played a crucial role in advocating for women's rights, supporting widow remarriage, and protesting against the devadasi system and child marriage.

 Additional Information

• VO Chidambaram Pillai:
• Known as Kappalottiya Thamizhan, he was a prominent freedom fighter who established the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to challenge British maritime monopoly.
• Tirupur Kumaran:
• A brave revolutionary also known as Kodi Kaatha Kumaran, who died in 1932 while protecting the Indian National Flag from being dishonored by the British police during a protest.
• Perumal Varadarajulu Naidu:
• An influential leader and journalist who served as the President of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee and was involved in the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam controversy regarding caste discrimination.

The correct answer is Bande Mataram.

Key Points

• Bande Mataram was an English-language weekly newspaper founded by Bipin Chandra Pal in 1906, emerging from the political ferment of the Partition of Bengal in 1905.
• The publication served as the chief organ for the Extremist (Garam Dal) faction of the Indian National Congress, openly advocating for Absolute Autonomy and Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) rather than colonial self-rule.
• Sri Aurobindo Ghose served as its primary editor shortly after its launch, where he published his influential series of articles on Passive Resistance, outlining a strategy of non-cooperation and boycott against British administration.
• The newspaper played a vital role in transforming Indian Nationalism from a petition-based movement into a popular mass movement, utilizing the slogan Vande Mataram to unify the masses.
• Due to its radical stance and provocative content, the British government frequently targeted the paper, leading to the Sedition Trial of Aurobindo Ghose in 1907 and its eventual closure in 1908.

 Additional Information

• Indian Mirror:
• Founded in 1861 by Devendranath Tagore and Manmohan Ghosh in Calcutta.
• It was later edited by Keshab Chandra Sen and became a significant platform for the Brahmo Samaj and social reform movements.
• Independent:
• Established by Motilal Nehru in 1919 from Allahabad.
• It was launched to counter the moderate views of The Leader and to support the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.
• Lal-Bal-Pal:
• Bipin Chandra Pal was a member of the famous triumvirate alongside Lala Lajpat Rai and Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who pioneered the militant nationalist phase in India.

The correct answer is 2000.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched on 25th December 2000 by the then Prime Minister of India, Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• It was initiated as a 100 percent Centrally Sponsored Scheme to provide all-weather road connectivity to eligible unconnected habitations in rural sectors.
• Phase I of the scheme targeted habitations with a population of 500 persons and above in plain areas as per the Census 2001.
• In Special Category States, including the North-East, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, and Uttarakhand, the population threshold was set at 250 persons and above.
• The criteria of 250 persons also extended to Desert areas (as identified in the Desert Development Programme), Tribal areas (Schedule V), and Selected Tribal and Backward Districts.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of PMGSY Phases:
• PMGSY-II: Approved in May 2013, this phase focused on upgrading 50,000 km of the existing rural road network to improve its efficiency as a provider of transportation services to growth centers.
• PMGSY-III: Launched in 2019, it aims at consolidating 1,25,000 km of Through Routes and Major Rural Links connecting habitations to Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs), schools, and hospitals.
• Financial and Governance Structure:
• The Ministry of Rural Development acts as the nodal agency for the implementation of this flagship program.
• The funding pattern was revised in 2015-16 to a ratio of 60:40 between the Central Government and State Governments, while for 8 North Eastern states and 3 Himalayan states, it remains 90:10.
• The scheme utilizes OMMAS (Online Management, Monitoring and Accounting System) for real-time tracking of project progress and e-Marg for the maintenance of rural roads.

The correct answer is Gold in novice girls’ category.

Key Points

• Hiya Adlakha emerged as a standout performer at the Khelo India Winter Games 2026, where she secured the Gold medal in the novice girls’ figure skating event.
• The novice girls’ category is a competitive division designed for young athletes to demonstrate their technical proficiency, including precise footwork, spins, and jumps on the ice.
• This victory at a national-level event like Khelo India highlights the growing talent pool in winter sports within India, particularly in non-traditional disciplines like figure skating.
• Winning the Gold signifies achieving the highest score based on technical execution and program components, outperforming other regional participants in her age and skill bracket.

 Additional Information

• Khelo India Winter Games:
• An integral part of the Khelo India mission organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Sports Authority of India (SAI).
• The games are typically held in high-altitude regions such as Gulmarg, Jammu & Kashmir, or Leh, Ladakh, which offer the necessary climate for ice and snow sports.
• The event encompasses various disciplines, including Alpine Skiing, Nordic Skiing, Snowboarding, and Ice Hockey.
• Impact on Athletes:
• Performances in these games often lead to inclusion in the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) or other financial assistance programs for further training.
• Athletes like Hiya Adlakha serve as inspirations for the youth in urban and rural centers to explore winter disciplines that require specialized infrastructure like indoor ice rinks.

The correct answer is The Boycott resolution of August 7, 1905.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement was formally proclaimed on August 7, 1905, following a massive meeting held at the Calcutta Town Hall.
• During this historic meeting, the Boycott Resolution was passed, which marked the official beginning of the movement as a response to the British decision to partition Bengal.
• The movement was a reaction to the Partition of Bengal announced by Viceroy Lord Curzon, which aimed to divide the province along communal lines to weaken the nationalist spirit.
• Key leaders like Surendranath Banerjee, Ananda Mohan Bose, and Bipin Chandra Pal mobilized the masses to adopt Swadeshi (indigenous) goods and boycott British-made items, especially Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt.
• The resolution emphasized economic self-reliance and served as a powerful tool of political protest, transforming a regional agitation into a pan-Indian nationalist movement.

 Additional Information

• Partition of Bengal (1905):
• Announced in July 1905 and implemented on October 16, 1905.
• The day of implementation was observed as a Day of Mourning, where people fasted and sang Amar Sonar Bangla.
• The Swaraj Resolution of 1916:
• This refers to the period of the Home Rule League movement led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant.
• In 1916, the Lucknow Pact was also signed, bringing the Muslim League and Indian National Congress together.
• The Quit India Resolution:
• Passed on August 8, 1942, at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
• Launched by Mahatma Gandhi, it demanded an immediate end to British rule in India under the slogan 'Do or Die'.

The correct answer is Bio-manufacturing.

Key Points

• In June 2025, India inaugurated its first DST-ICGEB Bio-foundry at the New Delhi campus of the International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology.
• The facility is a strategic collaboration between the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and ICGEB, aimed at creating a robust ecosystem for synthetic biology.
• The primary function of this bio-foundry is to accelerate the Bio-manufacturing sector by automating the Design-Build-Test-Learn (DBTL) cycle for biological systems.
• It utilizes high-throughput technology and robotic platforms to engineer microbial strains, which significantly reduces the time and cost involved in developing bio-based products.
• This initiative is a critical step toward achieving India's goal of a USD 300 billion bio-economy by 2030, positioning the country as a global leader in biotechnology.

 Additional Information

• Bio-manufacturing and Bio-E3 Policy:
• The bio-foundry aligns with the Bio-E3 Policy (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment), which focuses on High-Performance Bio-manufacturing.
• It supports the production of bio-pharmaceuticals, bio-plastics, specialty chemicals, and bio-fuels using sustainable biological pathways.
• ICGEB Context:
• The ICGEB is an autonomous intergovernmental organization that provides a scientific environment of excellence for researchers from developing countries.
• The New Delhi component is one of the three global seats of the ICGEB, focusing on agricultural biotechnology, human health, and synthetic biology.
• Strategic Importance:
• By integrating Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) with biology, the bio-foundry facilitates precision fermentation and scale-up operations for Indian start-ups and industries.

The correct answer is England.

Key Points

• The Indian Women's Cricket Team created history in July 2025 by securing their first-ever T20I bilateral series win against England.
• This victory is considered a landmark achievement as England has historically been one of the most formidable opponents in the T20 International format, often maintaining a superior head-to-head record over India.
• The series win reflects the significant progress made by Indian women cricketers in terms of tactical execution, power-hitting, and death-over bowling on the international stage.
• The triumph in July 2025 followed a period of intense preparation and domestic structural reforms that aimed at narrowing the gap between India and top-tier teams like Australia and England.

 Additional Information

• Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI):
• The BCCI is the primary governing body for cricket in India, headquartered in Mumbai.
• It has played a pivotal role in promoting the women's game through the introduction of the Women's Premier League (WPL), which has helped uncover local talent and provide them with international-standard exposure.
• England and Wales Cricket Board (ECB):
• The ECB governs cricket in England and Wales and was a pioneer in professionalizing women's cricket.
• The England Women's Team, often referred to as the Three Lions, has won multiple ICC Women's World Cups and is known for its strong domestic structure like The Hundred.
• Growth of Women's Cricket:
• The landscape of women's T20I cricket has evolved with increased viewership, higher sponsorship deals, and the inclusion of the sport in multi-sport events like the Commonwealth Games and the Asian Games.

The correct answer is Gyanesh Kumar.

Key Points

• Gyanesh Kumar assumed charge as the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India on 19 February 2025, succeeding Rajiv Kumar.
• He is a retired Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer belonging to the 1988 batch of the Kerala cadre.
• Before his elevation to the top post, he served as an Election Commissioner within the three-member body of the Election Commission of India.
• The appointment was made by the President of India following the recommendations of a selection committee chaired by the Prime Minister, as per the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023.
• During his administrative career, he played a pivotal role in the Ministry of Home Affairs, particularly during the abrogation of Article 370, and served as Secretary in the Ministry of Cooperation.

 Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• It is a permanent Constitutional Body established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution to ensure free and fair elections.
• The commission originally had only one Chief Election Commissioner but became a multi-member body effective from 16 October 1989.
• The CEC and Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65 years.
• Dr. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu:
• An IAS officer of the 1988 batch from the Uttarakhand cadre, he currently serves as an Election Commissioner. He previously served as the Chief Secretary of Uttarakhand and Chairman of NHAI.
• Dr. Vivek Joshi:
• A 1989-batch IAS officer of the Haryana cadre, he is currently the Secretary of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT); he formerly served as the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, serves as the Central Bank of the nation.
• It is designated as the Banker's Bank because it performs the same functions for commercial banks as those banks perform for their customers, including maintaining Current Accounts and statutory reserves.
• The RBI acts as the Lender of Last Resort, providing emergency liquidity and financial accommodation to scheduled banks during times of insolvency or financial stress.
• Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the RBI exercises supervisory control over all banks in India, regulating the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to maintain monetary stability.
• It manages the clearinghouse system, facilitating the efficient settlement of inter-bank transactions and the transfer of funds across the domestic banking network.
• The bank also acts as the Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves and is the sole authority for Currency Issuance in the country.

 Additional Information

• State Bank of India (SBI):
• It is the largest Public Sector Bank in India, formed on July 1, 1955, after the nationalization of the Imperial Bank of India.
• It serves as a commercial bank and acts as an agent for the RBI in locations where the central bank does not have its own offices.
• Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI):
• Founded in 1955 as a development financial institution at the initiative of the World Bank to provide medium and long-term project financing.
• It transformed into a full-service Private Sector Bank in the 1990s and is now a Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB).
• Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC):
• Established in 1977, it was the first specialized mortgage company in India focused on Housing Finance.
• Its subsidiary, HDFC Bank, was incorporated in 1994 and currently stands as the largest private sector bank by market capitalization in India.

The correct answer is Articles 52 to 78.

Key Points

• The Union Executive of India is detailed under Part V of the Constitution of India, specifically covering the range from Article 52 to Article 78.
• It comprises the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General for India.
• Article 52 mandates that there shall be a President of India, while Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, to be exercised directly or through subordinate officers.
• Articles 74 and 75 deal with the Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister, establishing a Parliamentary system where the executive is responsible to the Lok Sabha.
• Article 78 defines the duties of the Prime Minister in respect of furnishing information to the President regarding administration and legislative proposals.

 Additional Information

• Articles 1 to 51:
• Covers Part I (The Union and its Territory), Part II (Citizenship), Part III (Fundamental Rights), and Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy).
• Article 51A specifically introduces Fundamental Duties for citizens.
• Articles 79 to 122:
• These provisions govern the Union Legislature (Parliament), detailing the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People).
• They cover legislative procedures, the Speaker, the Chairman, and the conduct of business in the houses.
• Article 76:
• Focuses on the Attorney General for India, who is the highest legal officer in the country and a component of the Union Executive.

The correct answer is 2, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the Fundamental Rights shall be void; while it is part of Part III, it is not categorized under the specific cluster of the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Article 14 mandates that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, serving as the foundational pillar of the Right to Equality. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Article 15 secures citizens against discrimination by the State on specific grounds, namely religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, ensuring equal access to public places like shops, restaurants, and wells. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State, prohibiting discrimination in public service. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Classification of Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18):
• Article 17: Focuses on the social dimension of equality by the abolition of untouchability and forbidding its practice in any form.
• Article 18: Abolishes titles (except military or academic) to maintain social equality and prevent the creation of a privileged class.
• Fundamental Rights Context:
• Contained in Part III of the Indian Constitution, which is often referred to as the Magna Carta of India.
• Originally, the Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property (Article 31) was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
• These rights are justiciable, meaning they are enforceable by the courts under Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article 226 (High Courts).

The correct answer is To ensure stringent environmental standards and public good.

Key Points

• Public participation acts as a democratic safeguard, ensuring that large-scale energy infrastructure projects, such as hydroelectric dams or thermal power plants, are developed in a way that prioritizes the well-being of the local community and the environment.
• By involving stakeholders, project developers can identify unique ecological risks and socio-economic impacts that might be overlooked during the technical planning phase, leading to more robust environmental standards.
• Meaningful engagement creates a social license to operate, which minimizes legal disputes and public protests that can otherwise delay critical energy transitions.
• It ensures the equitable distribution of benefits, confirming that the project serves the public good by providing reliable energy while protecting natural resources and public health.

 Additional Information

• Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA):
• A formal process used to predict the environmental consequences of a project.
• Public hearings are a mandatory component of EIA in many countries to ensure transparency and accountability.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• Public participation in infrastructure aligns with SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy) and SDG 11 (Sustainable Cities and Communities).
• It promotes inclusive governance as outlined in SDG 16.
• Transparency vs. Cost:
• While participation may require initial time investment, it prevents long-term costs associated with project failure, environmental remediation, and reputational damage.
• Reducing transparency or limiting technology are counterproductive to modern governance and industrial growth.

The correct answer is 19.

Key Points

• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc., and is a cornerstone of individual liberty in India.
• Specifically, Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the freedom of speech and expression to all citizens, allowing them to express their thoughts, opinions, and convictions freely through various mediums such as writing, printing, or visual representation.
• The Fundamental Rights under this article are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions mentioned in Article 19(2), which include interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, and public order.
• Originally, Article 19 provided seven freedoms, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
• Currently, it protects six freedoms: speech and expression, peaceful assembly, forming associations, free movement, residing and settling in any part of India, and practicing any profession.

 Additional Information

• Article 14:
• Ensures Equality before law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• It prohibits the State from denying any person equality based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 21:
• Guarantees the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.
• States that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• The Supreme Court has expanded this to include the Right to Privacy and Right to Clean Environment.
• Article 32:
• Provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing citizens to approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called this article the Heart and Soul of the Constitution.

The correct answer is Bihu.

Key Points

• Bihu is the most significant cultural and secular festival of Assam, representing the state's identity and its agrarian way of life.
• It is celebrated thrice a year, marking different stages of the agricultural cycle: Rongali, Kongali, and Bhogali Bihu.
• Rongali Bihu (or Bohag Bihu) is celebrated in mid-April. It marks the Assamese New Year and the beginning of the seeding season. It is characterized by the Bihu dance, folk songs (Husori), and great merriment.
• Kongali Bihu (or Kati Bihu) is observed in mid-October. It is a somber occasion when the crops are in the growing stage and granaries are empty. People light earthen lamps (Saki) at the foot of Tulsi plants and in the fields to pray for protection against pests.
• Bhogali Bihu (or Magh Bihu) occurs in mid-January, coinciding with Makar Sankranti. It marks the end of the harvest season and is a festival of feasting. Communities build Bhelaghars and Mejis (thatch structures) and burn them as a tribute to the Fire God (Agni).

 Additional Information

• Bwisagu:
• It is the primary seasonal festival of the Bodo community of Assam, celebrated in mid-April to welcome the New Year.
• The festival features the traditional Bagurumba dance and the worship of the supreme deity Bathou.
• Ali-Ai-Ligang:
• A spring festival celebrated by the Mising tribe, marking the start of the Ahu paddy sowing season.
• The name is derived from 'Ali' (root/seed), 'Ai' (fruit), and 'Ligang' (sowing). It always begins on the first Wednesday of the month of Gimur (February).
• Ambubachi Mela:
• A major Hindu festival held at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati during the monsoon month of Ahaar (June).
• It commemorates the annual menstruation cycle of the Goddess Kamakhya and is often referred to as the 'Mahakumbh of the East'.

The correct answer is Heterozygous.

Key Points

• In Mendelian genetics, the term heterozygous describes an organism that has two different alleles at a specific gene locus on homologous chromosomes.
• The concept was pioneered by Gregor Mendel in the 1860s through his systematic hybridization experiments with Pisum sativum (garden pea plants).
• A heterozygous genotype is typically denoted by a combination of a capital letter and a lowercase letter, such as Rr, where R represents the dominant allele and r represents the recessive allele.
• According to the Law of Dominance, a heterozygous individual will display the phenotype of the dominant allele, effectively masking the presence of the recessive trait in its physical appearance.
• During the process of gametogenesis (meiosis), these dissimilar alleles separate into different gametes with a 50% probability for each allele, a fundamental principle known as the Law of Segregation.
• In a classic F2 generation resulting from self-pollinating F1 hybrids, the heterozygous individuals constitute 50% of the offspring population in a 1:2:1 genotypic ratio.

 Additional Information

• Homozygous:
• Refers to a genotype consisting of two identical alleles for a particular trait, such as RR (homozygous dominant) or rr (homozygous recessive).
• These organisms are considered pure-breeding or true-breeding because they produce identical offspring when self-crossed.
• Dominant:
• Refers to the allele that is expressed in the phenotype even if only one copy is present (as seen in the heterozygous state).
• It is the trait that appeared in all of Mendel’s F1 generation plants.
• Monogenic:
• Refers to a characteristic or trait that is determined by a single gene locus rather than multiple genes.
• This is distinct from polygenic inheritance, where multiple genes contribute to a single trait like human skin color or height.

The correct answer is Nagarjuna Sagar Hydroelectric Project.

Key Points

• The Nagarjuna Sagar Hydroelectric Project is built across the Krishna River, not the Sutlej River. It is situated on the border between the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh and the Nalgonda district of Telangana.
• The Sutlej River, known as Langqen Zangbo in Tibet, is the longest of the five tributaries of the Indus River and originates from the Rakas Tal lake.
• Karcham Wangtoo Hydroelectric Project is a 1000 MW operational run-of-the-river plant located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh on the Sutlej River.
• The Bhakra Nangal Hydroelectric Project is one of the earliest river valley development schemes in India, involving the Bhakra Dam and the Nangal Dam, both constructed on the Sutlej River to generate power and provide irrigation.
• Nathpa Jhakri Hydroelectric Project is a major 1500 MW power station located on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh, known for its massive underground power house.

 Additional Information

• Krishna River Basin:
• The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam was inaugurated in 1967 and is recognized as one of the world's largest masonry dams.
• It facilitates the irrigation of over 10 lakh acres of land and has an installed capacity of approximately 816 MW.
• Sutlej River Basin Features:
• The river enters India through the Shipki La pass and flows through the Himalayan ranges.
• Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the waters of the Sutlej are allocated to India for exclusive use.
• The Kol Dam and the Luhri Hydroelectric Project are other significant power projects situated on this river.

The correct answer is Nagamese, from the northeast.

Key Points

• Nagamese is a creole language that functions as the primary lingua franca in the state of Nagaland, enabling communication among more than 16 major Naga tribes who speak distinct and often mutually unintelligible Sino-Tibetan languages.
• The language evolved historically as a market language to facilitate trade and social interaction between the hill tribes of Nagaland and the Assamese-speaking populations of the Brahmaputra Valley during the pre-colonial era.
• It is predominantly based on Assamese but features a simplified grammatical structure and a vocabulary heavily influenced by Hindi, Bengali, and various indigenous Naga dialects such as Ao, Angami, and Sumi.
• Nagamese possesses a vibrant oral tradition, serving as the medium for folk songs, proverbs, and storytelling that reflect the diverse tribal cultures and unique social fabric of the northeast region.
• While English is the official state language used for administration and education, Nagamese remains the most widely spoken language in daily life, commerce, and inter-tribal public discourse.

 Additional Information

• Hindi:
• An Indo-Aryan language primarily spoken in North and Central India; though it is one of the official languages of India and taught in schools in Nagaland, it is not the indigenous cultural language of the Naga tribes.
• Bengali:
• An Indo-Aryan language native to the Bengal region (West Bengal and Tripura); while its vocabulary has influenced Nagamese through regional proximity, it does not serve as the primary tribal medium in Nagaland.
• Marathi:
• The official language of Maharashtra in Western India; it has no geographical, historical, or linguistic connection to the tribal traditions or the northeastern frontier of India.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The Charminar is an iconic monument and mosque located in Hyderabad, which serves as the capital of the state of Telangana.
• It was constructed in 1591 by Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the fifth ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, following the shifting of his capital from Golconda to the newly founded city of Hyderabad.
• The monument was built to commemorate the end of a devastating plague epidemic that had affected the region, serving as a symbol of the citys resilience.
• Architecturally, it is a square structure with four grand arches and four minarets, each standing approximately 56 meters tall, featuring a mosque on the top floor.
• It is situated on the east bank of the Musi River and is surrounded by the bustling Laad Bazaar and Makkah Masjid.

 Additional Information

• Significant Landmarks in Other Options:
• Chennai: Known for the Government Museum, Fort St. George, and the Marina Beach, the second longest urban beach in the world.
• Mumbai: Features the Gateway of India, built to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary in 1911.
• Kolkata: Famous for the Victoria Memorial, a large marble building dedicated to Queen Victoria, and the Howrah Bridge.
• Architectural Features of Charminar:
• The structure is built using granite, limestone, mortar, and pulverized marble, reflecting a fusion of Indo-Islamic and Persian architectural styles.
• It is often referred to as the Arc de Triomphe of the East due to its magnificent arched design and historical significance.

The correct answer is Capricorn.

Key Points

• Makar Sankranti is a prominent harvest festival that marks the specific day the Sun transits into the zodiac sign of Makara, which is the Sanskrit term for Capricorn.
• The word Sankranti denotes the movement of the Sun from one Rashi (zodiac sign) to another; there are 12 Sankrantis in a year, each marking the start of a new month in the Hindu solar calendar.
• This festival is significant because it marks the end of the Winter Solstice period and the commencement of the Sun’s northward journey, known as Uttarayana.
• Unlike most Indian festivals that follow the Lunar calendar (and thus change dates), Makar Sankranti follows the Solar cycle and almost always falls on January 14th or January 15th.
• It is dedicated to the Sun God (Surya), symbolizing the arrival of longer days and the beginning of the harvest season across the Indian subcontinent.

 Additional Information

• Regional Names:
• Pongal: In Tamil Nadu, it is celebrated as a four-day harvest festival where traditional dishes are cooked.
• Lohri: Observed in Punjab and Haryana a day before Sankranti, characterized by bonfires and folk songs.
• Magh Bihu: Celebrated in Assam with community feasts and the burning of Mejis (bamboo huts).
• Uttarayan: In Gujarat, the sky is filled with thousands of kites during this festival.
• Other Zodiac Options:
• Sagittarius (Dhanu): The transition into this sign occurs during Dhanu Sankranti in mid-December.
• Aries (Mesha): Mesha Sankranti occurs in mid-April and marks the start of the Solar New Year in many regional calendars (e.g., Vaisakhi, Pohela Boishakh).
• Scorpio (Vrischika): The entry into this sign is known as Vrischika Sankranti, typically occurring in November.

The correct answer is Bhabar.

Key Points

• The Northern Plains of India are physiographically divided into four distinct regions based on relief: Bhabar, Tarai, Bhangar, and Khadar.
• The Bhabar belt is the northernmost zone, lying immediately at the foot of the Shiwalik foothills. It stretches from the Indus river in the west to the Teesta river in the east.
• This zone has a narrow width of approximately 8 to 16 kilometers and runs parallel to the slopes of the Shiwalik Range.
• Geologically, it consists of porous and rocky beds comprising pebbles, boulders, and gravel deposited by Himalayan rivers as they descend from the mountains.
• The porosity of the Bhabar belt is so high that most streams and rivers disappear underground upon entering this region, flowing beneath the surface.
• Due to its coarse and stony nature, the Bhabar region is generally unsuitable for agriculture, though large trees with deep roots can thrive here.

 Additional Information

• Tarai:
• Located south of the Bhabar, it is a wet, swampy, and marshy region.
• In this zone, the underground streams from Bhabar re-emerge to the surface.
• It was historically covered with dense forests and rich biodiversity, though much of it in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand has been reclaimed for sugarcane and wheat farming.
• Bhangar:
• This represents the older alluvium and forms the largest part of the Northern Plains.
• It lies above the floodplains of the rivers and presents a terrace-like appearance.
• The soil contains calcareous deposits known as Kankar, which are less fertile than the newer deposits.
• Khadar:
• It consists of newer, younger alluvium found in the low-lying floodplains.
• The soil is renewed almost every year by floods, making it extremely fertile.
• It is ideal for intensive agriculture due to its fine texture and high mineral content.

The correct answer is 73rd Amendment.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, formally recognized the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) as the third tier of government in India, decentralizing power to the grassroots level.
• This amendment added a new Part IX to the Constitution, titled 'The Panchayats', which contains provisions from Article 243 to 243-O.
• It introduced the 11th Schedule, which enumerates 29 functional items including agriculture, rural housing, and poverty alleviation programs that fall under the jurisdiction of Panchayats.
• The act mandates a uniform three-tier system of Panchayati Raj across the country: Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level, and Zilla Parishad at the district level.
• It established the State Election Commission for conducting fair elections every five years and a State Finance Commission to oversee the financial health and revenue-sharing mechanisms of these bodies.
• Mandatory reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women and proportional reservation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) was institutionalized through this act.

 Additional Information

• 44th Amendment Act, 1978:
• Enacted by the Janata Government, it aimed to undo several changes made by the 42nd Amendment and provided safeguards against future misuses of Emergency powers.
• It notably removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights, making it a legal right under Article 300A.
• 74th Amendment Act, 1992:
• This amendment provided constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) or Municipalities to improve urban governance.
• It added Part IXA and the 12th Schedule, which consists of 18 functional subjects relevant to urban planning and public health.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976:
• Known as the Mini-Constitution, it was the most comprehensive amendment enacted during the National Emergency under Indira Gandhi.
• It inserted the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' into the Preamble and introduced Fundamental Duties for citizens under Article 51A.

The correct answer is Dominant.

Key Points

• A dominant trait is an inherited characteristic that appears in an offspring if it is contributed by at least one parent through a dominant allele.
• In the field of Genetics, alleles are different versions of a gene. When an organism is heterozygous for a specific gene (carrying one dominant and one recessive allele), the dominant allele is the one that is expressed in the phenotype.
• This concept is rooted in the Law of Dominance, which is the first law of inheritance proposed by Gregor Mendel, often referred to as the Father of Genetics.
• Mendel's experiments with Pisum sativum (pea plants) demonstrated that certain traits, such as purple flowers or yellow seeds, would consistently mask their alternative forms (white flowers or green seeds) in the first generation of offspring.
• In genetic notation, dominant traits are conventionally represented by uppercase letters (e.g., 'T' for tallness), while recessive traits use lowercase letters.

 Additional Information

• Recessive:
• A recessive trait is only expressed when an organism has two copies of the recessive allele (homozygous recessive).
• If a dominant allele is present, the recessive trait remains hidden in the genotype but does not appear in the physical appearance.
• Heterozygous:
• This term refers to an individual having two different alleles for a particular gene (e.g., 'Aa').
• In this state, the dominant phenotype is typically observed unless the trait follows patterns of incomplete dominance or codominance.
• Homozygous:
• This refers to an organism that has two identical alleles for a specific gene.
• It can be homozygous dominant (e.g., 'AA') or homozygous recessive (e.g., 'aa').

The correct answer is Rigveda.

Key Points

• The Rigveda is the oldest known Vedic Sanskrit text and stands as one of the most ancient extant pieces of literature within the Indo-European language family.
• It provides the primary linguistic evidence for the Indo-Iranian language phase, which is the common ancestor of the Indo-Aryan languages of South Asia and the Iranian languages of West Asia.
• Composed between approximately 1500 BCE and 1200 BCE, the text consists of 1,028 hymns (Suktas) divided into ten books known as Mandalas.
• The linguistic structure of the Rigveda is remarkably similar to the Old Avestan language, proving that the speakers of these languages shared a common geographic and cultural origin before the Indo-Aryan migration into the Indian subcontinent.

 Additional Information

• Zend-Avesta:
• The sacred scripture of Zoroastrianism, composed in the Avestan language.
• While the Gathas (oldest part of the Avesta) are linguistically very close to the Rigveda, the Rigveda is generally considered to contain the earliest recorded evidence of this specific language branch.
• Mahabharata:
• A major Sanskrit epic of ancient India, traditionally attributed to the sage Vyasa.
• It belongs to the later Classical Sanskrit period, with its core composition estimated between 400 BCE and 400 CE.
• Ramayana:
• Attributed to Valmiki, this epic tells the story of Rama and is known as the Adi Kavya.
• It was composed significantly later than the Vedas, likely between the 5th century BCE and 3rd century CE.

The correct answer is Article 83(2).

Key Points

• Article 83 of the Constitution of India specifically outlines the duration of Houses of Parliament.
• According to Article 83(2), the House of the People (Lok Sabha), unless sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
• The expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as a dissolution of the House.
• The proviso to this article stipulates that while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time.
• Such an extension cannot, in any case, extend beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.

 Additional Information

• Article 172:
• This article provides for the duration of State Legislatures.
• It mirrors the provisions of Article 83 but applies to the Legislative Assembly of a State, fixing its term at five years with similar emergency extension clauses.
• Article 81:
• Deals with the Composition of the House of the People.
• It specifies the maximum number of members (550) and the manner of their election through direct election from territorial constituencies in the States and Union Territories.
• Article 85:
• Addresses the Sessions of Parliament, prorogation, and dissolution.
• It empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament, prorogue the Houses, and dissolve the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is All were tall.

Key Points

• In Gregor Mendel’s pioneering genetic experiments with Pisum sativum (garden pea plants), a monohybrid cross was used to study the inheritance of a single characteristic, specifically stem height.
• The parent generation (P generation) consisted of a pure-breeding tall plant (genotype TT) and a pure-breeding short plant (genotype tt).
• During reproduction, the tall parent produced gametes with the T allele, while the short parent produced gametes with the t allele.
• The F1 generation (First Filial generation) resulted from the cross-pollination of these parents, yielding offspring that were all heterozygous with the genotype Tt.
• According to the Law of Dominance, the allele for tallness (T) is dominant over the allele for shortness (t), meaning the tall trait completely masks the short trait in the phenotype.
• Consequently, 100% of the plants in the F1 generation expressed the tall phenotype, showing no intermediate or short individuals.

 Additional Information

• F2 Generation Outcomes: When Mendel allowed the F1 plants to self-pollinate, the recessive trait (shortness) reappeared in the F2 generation.
• The phenotypic ratio observed was 3:1 (three tall plants for every one short plant).
• The genotypic ratio was 1:2:1, consisting of one homozygous tall (TT), two heterozygous tall (Tt), and one homozygous short (tt).
• Law of Segregation: This principle explains that the two alleles for a trait segregate during gamete formation, so each gamete carries only one allele. This ensures that the recessive allele is preserved and can reappear in subsequent generations.
• Incomplete Dominance: If the offspring had shown a medium height, it would have suggested a pattern of incomplete dominance, where neither allele is completely dominant over the other; however, this was not the case in Mendel’s pea plant height experiments.
• Alleles and Genes: Mendel referred to these as 'factors.' Alleles are alternative forms of a gene located at the same position on homologous chromosomes.

The correct answer is Stomata.

Key Points

• Stomata are microscopic, pore-like structures primarily located on the lower epidermis of leaves, though they can also be found on young stems and other aerial parts of a plant.
• The central function of these pores is to facilitate gas exchange between the internal tissues of the plant and the external atmosphere, allowing Carbon Dioxide (CO2) to enter for photosynthesis and Oxygen (O2) to be released.
• In addition to gas exchange, stomata are the main sites for transpiration, the process by which water vapor escapes from the plant, which helps in pulling water and minerals from the roots to the leaves via the xylem.
• The opening and closing of the stomatal pore are regulated by the change in turgor pressure within the surrounding specialized cells, ensuring the plant balances the need for CO2 with the risk of excessive dehydration.
• While most plants have stomata on the underside of leaves to minimize water loss, aquatic plants like lilies often have them on the upper surface to facilitate gas exchange with the air.

 Additional Information

• Guard Cells
• These are specialized epidermal cells that occur in pairs surrounding each stoma.
• In dicots, they are typically bean-shaped or kidney-shaped, whereas in monocots (like grasses), they are dumbbell-shaped.
• They contain chloroplasts and control the size of the stomatal opening by swelling with water or shrinking.
• Lenticels
• These are lens-shaped openings found in the periderm or bark of woody stems and roots of dicotyledonous plants.
• Unlike stomata, lenticels are generally permanently open and allow for the exchange of gases in parts of the plant where the epidermis has been replaced by cork.
• Cuticle
• This is a protective, waxy, and hydrophobic layer secreted by the epidermal cells of leaves and shoots.
• Its primary role is to reduce water loss through non-stomatal transpiration and protect the plant from pathogens and mechanical damage.

The correct answer is SDG-4.

Key Points

• The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 was launched by the Government of India on July 29, 2020, to replace the 34-year-old National Policy on Education (NPE), 1986.
• This policy is fundamentally aligned with the Global Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG-4), which aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all by 2030.
• The NEP 2020 introduces a 5+3+3+4 pedagogical structure, replacing the traditional 10+2 system to cover children in the age group of 3 to 18 years.
• It emphasizes the Universalization of Education from pre-school to secondary level with a 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030.
• The policy focuses on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN), multidisciplinary studies, and the integration of vocational education starting from Class 6.

 Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Adopted by the United Nations in 2015, these 17 goals are a universal call to action to end poverty and protect the planet.
• SDG-1 (No Poverty): Targets the eradication of extreme poverty for all people everywhere, currently measured as people living on less than $1.90 a day.
• SDG-7 (Affordable and Clean Energy): Focuses on ensuring universal access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy, increasing the global share of renewable energy.
• SDG-12 (Responsible Consumption and Production): Aims at ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns, reducing ecological footprints, and managing natural resources efficiently.
• Ministry of Education: Under NEP 2020, the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) was officially renamed the Ministry of Education to refocus on the core objective of learning.