DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 05 Mar, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Dictionary order of given words:

3. Kangaroo
4. Keyword
5. Kneeled
6. Kneeling
7. Knickers

Correct order is : 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) T N E X A T A A J S D A J O R P A P T A D H (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Vowel → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) T N E X A T A A J S D A J O R P A P T A D H (Right)

Only one vowel satisfies the given condition, i.e., it is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. Only one person sits between F and A when counted from the left of A.
2. G sits third to the right of C. D sits third to the left of E.
   

3. G sits to the immediate right of D.
4. B is not an immediate neighbour of D.

Three people sit between D and E when counted from the left of D.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given Statement:

A ≤ B = C < D < E

Combined Statement: A ≤ B = C < D < E

Conclusions:

I: A < E → True (Since A ≤ B, B = C, C < D and D < E, it is definite that A is less than E.)

II: C < D → True (This relation is directly given in the statement.)

Therefore, both I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘SAID’ is coded as ‘3157’ 

‘DOCK’ is coded as ‘2416’.

Code for "D" is "1".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Six boxes B, C, D, E, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only three boxes are kept below D.
2. Only one box is kept between O and D.
3. Only three boxes are kept between O and E.
4. E is kept at some place above D.
5. C is kept immediately below E.
6. B is kept at one of the places above P. 

The final arrangement is as follows:

One box is kept between B and P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) 3 4 7 % 6 9 # @ 1 5 * 8 & + (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Number → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) 3 4 7 % 6 9 # @ **1 5 *** 8 & + (Right)

Hence, there are three such numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

‘WEAR’ is coded as ‘7158’

‘AIRE’ is coded as ‘4817’

Code for "I" is "4".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) / F @ J ^ / G S + F L K N ^ H P ^ = Y J K (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) / F @ J ^ / G S + F L K N ^ H P ^ = Y J K (Right)

There are two such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

'smoking is bad habit' → 'ar by nm qj'

'you are bad boy' → 'by tg lo kp'

Therefore, the code for 'bad' in the given language is 'by'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) R U Q * T @ S % G # $ A M N C @ W % Z X Y (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) R U Q * T @ S % G # $ A M N C @ W % Z X Y (Right)

There is only one such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Family tree,

B is H's wife's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. C sits to the immediate left of E.
2. D sits to the immediate left of A.
3. A sits second to the left of G.
4. B sits third to the left of E.

Five people sit between A and B when counted from the left of A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statement:

A = B < C = D ≥ E

Conclusions:

I: A < D → True (Since A = B, B < C, and C = D, therefore A < D.)

II: C > E → False (Since C = D and D ≥ E, therefore C ≥ E. C could be grater or equal to E. it is not definite that C > E)

Therefore, Only I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) 2 3 1 6 8 3 9 4 7 8 5 2 3 6 7 9 3 6 8 9 6 8 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Even digit ← Even digit → Odd digit

Checking the series:

(Left) 2 3 1 6 8 3 9 4 7 8 5 2 3 6 7 9 3 6 8 9 6 8 (Right)

There are two such even digits that are immediately preceded by an even digit and immediately followed by an odd digit.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Makshad is 13th from the top.

Makshad is 9th from the bottom.

The formula for total students in the class is: Total students = (Rank from Top) + (Rank from Bottom) - 1

Number of students = 13 + 9 - 1

= 22 - 1

= 21 students.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Total people standing in the row = 66.

Sneha is 44th from the left end.

Rio is 8th from the right end.

First, find Rio's position from the left:

Position from the left = Total people − Position from the right + 1

= 66 − 8 + 1

= 59

So, Rio is 59th from the left.

People between Sneha and Rio = Difference between their positions − 1

= 59 − 44 − 1

= 15 − 1

= 14 people.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Six boxes B, C, D, E, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only E is kept above C.
2. Only two boxes are kept between E and P.
3. Only B is kept below D.

Final Arrangement:

Two boxes are kept above O.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Family chart:

Family tree,

F is Son of T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statements:

Some leopards are pigs.

Some pigs are cars.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some leopards are cars → Does not follow (Because there is no direct relationship between leopards and cars, so it is not a definite conclusion.)

II. All cars are pigs → Does not follow (Because the statement some pigs are cars only confirms a partial intersection; it does not imply that all cars are pigs.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 18 × 3 ÷ 7 - 11 + 6 = ?

Since '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged:

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 18 ÷ 3 × 7 + 11 - 6 = ?

⇒ 18 ÷ 3 × 7 + 11 - 6 = ?

⇒ 6 × 7 + 11 - 6 = ?

⇒ 42 + 11 - 6 = ?

⇒ 42 + 11 - 6 = ?

⇒ 53 - 6 = ?

⇒ 47.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

476 - 96 = 380

380 - 96 = 284

284 - 96 = 188

188 - 96 = 92

92 - 96 = -4

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Original Number: 789412536

Digits rearranged in descending order →

The new number formed is 987654321.

The digit third from the left is 7.

The digit second from the right is 2.

Sum = 7 + 2 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 165 A 11 D 14 C 18 B 4 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 165 ÷ 11 - 14 + 18 × 4 = ?

⇒ 165 ÷ 11 - 14 + 18 × 4 = ?

⇒ 15 - 14 + 18 × 4 = ?

⇒ 15 - 14 + 72 = ?

⇒ 15 - 14 + 72 = ?

⇒ 1 + 72 = ?

⇒ 73.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern observed is: (First Number × 5) − 2 = Second Number.

(31, 153) →

(31 × 5) − 2 = 155 − 2 = 153

(26, 128) →

(26 × 5) − 2 = 130 − 2 = 128

Similarly, for the set (51, 253):

(51 × 5) − 2 = 255 − 2 = 253

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The pattern observed is: First Number = (Second Number × 3) + 10.

For (115, 35) →

(35 × 3) + 10 = 105 + 10 = 115

For (61, 17) →

(17 × 3) + 10 = 51 + 10 = 61

Similarly, 

For (97, 29) →

 (29 × 3) + 10 = 87 + 10 = 97

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Original Number: 7854316

Arrange the digits in ascending order (1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8).

Compare the digits at each position.

• 1st position: 7 vs 1 (Changed)
• 2nd position: 8 vs 3 (Changed)
• 3rd position: 5 vs 4 (Changed)
• 4th position: 4 vs 5 (Changed)
• 5th position: 3 vs 6 (Changed)
• 6th position: 1 vs 7 (Changed)
• 7th position: 6 vs 8 (Changed)

The number of digits whose position remains unchanged is 0.

Therefore, None of the digits remain in the same position.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

1. HJ - MO

2) RP - SH

3. QS - VX

4. LN - QS

Therefore, the odd one out is RP - SH.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic: (First Number − Third Number) − 5 = Second Number

For the set (38, 23, 10) → 

(38 - 10)- 5 = 28 - 5 = 23

For the set (18, 1, 12) → 

(18 - 12) - 5 = 6 - 5 = 1

Similarly, let us check the given options:

For (34, 8, 21) → 

(34 - 21) - 5 = 13 - 5 = 8

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed here is:

For AHHC to VDMG

For QZRK to LVWO

The common pattern is a shift of −5, −4, +5, and +4 for each successive letter based on the English alphabetical order.

Similarly, for GRBS

Thus, the word GRBS is related to BNGW following the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

For HQ - KS - MO

For JS - MU - OQ

Similarly,

Option 2) LU-OW-QS

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 40 + 12 × 2 − 16 ÷ 4 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 40 − 12 ÷ 2 + 16 × 4 = ?

⇒ 40 − 12 ÷ 2 + 16 × 4 = ?

⇒ 40 − 6 + 16 × 4 = ?

⇒ 40 − 6 + 64 = ?

⇒ 40 − 6 + 64 = ?

⇒ 34 + 64 = ?

⇒ 98.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The option figure that will replace the question mark in the figure given below to complete the pattern,

 + 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

7 + 3 = 10

10 + 3 = 13

13 + 3 = 16

16 + 3 = 19

19 + 3 = 22

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

For Triad IR-LU-NP

For Triad KT-NW-PR

Similarly,

Checking Option 2) MV-PY-RT

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Statements:

All houses are sparrows.

Some houses are buttons.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some buttons are sparrows → Follow (As per the statements, some houses are buttons and all houses are sparrows, so the part of buttons that overlaps with houses must also be part of sparrows.)

II. All buttons are houses → Does not follow (The statements only confirm that some houses are buttons; we cannot definitively conclude that all buttons are houses.)

So, only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is Investment in building national highways.

Key Points

• Capital Expenditure (CapEx) represents the portion of government spending directed towards the creation of long-term assets or the reduction of financial liabilities.
• Investment in building national highways is a primary example of capital expenditure because it creates physical infrastructure that enhances the nation's productive capacity and generates economic value over many years.
• In the Union Budget of India, capital expenditure is considered non-recurring in nature and is vital for driving the multiplier effect, where one rupee of investment leads to a more than proportionate increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• Such expenditures are typically recorded in the Capital Account and involve substantial outlays for land acquisition, construction, and technological upgrades in sectors like transport, power, and telecommunications.
• Unlike consumption-oriented spending, capital outlays improve logistics efficiency and provide the structural foundation required for industrial growth and private sector investment.

 Additional Information

• Revenue Expenditure: This refers to the short-term expenses incurred by the government for its operational needs and social welfare, which do not result in the creation of assets.
• Interest payments on borrowings: These are contractual obligations to service existing debt and are categorized as revenue expenditure because they are recurring and do not build new infrastructure.
• Salaries paid to government employees: These constitute the administrative costs of the state machinery, required for the day-to-day maintenance of public services.
• Subsidies for food distribution: These are transfer payments intended for social protection and poverty alleviation; they facilitate immediate consumption rather than long-term investment.
• Fiscal Deficit: A significant portion of capital expenditure is often financed through borrowings, contributing to the fiscal deficit, but it is generally viewed as healthy debt if it leads to future revenue generation.

The correct answer is Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

Key Points

• The Khilafat Movement (1919−1924) was a significant socio-political agitation launched by Muslims in British India to pressure the British government to preserve the authority of the Ottoman Caliph.
• The movement was primarily led by two brothers, Mohammad Ali Jouhar and Shaukat Ali, collectively known as the Ali Brothers, who sought to protect the Caliphate after the defeat of the Ottoman Empire in World War I.
• In March 1919, the All India Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay (now Mumbai) to organize national protests and coordinate with other political entities.
• Mahatma Gandhi viewed the movement as a crucial platform to forge Hindu-Muslim unity, leading him to accept the presidency of the All India Khilafat Conference in November 1919 and eventually merging it with the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920.
• The movement demanded that the Sultan of Turkey, regarded as the Caliph or spiritual leader of the global Sunni Muslim community, should retain control over the Jazirat-ul-Arab (Arabian Peninsula) and other Islamic holy sites.

 Additional Information

• Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das:
• These leaders were prominent figures in the Indian National Congress who later founded the Swaraj Party in January 1923.
• Chittaranjan Das, also known as Deshbandhu, advocated for Council Entry to obstruct British governance from within the legislative system.
• Rajendra Prasad and Madan Mohan Malaviya:
• Rajendra Prasad was a key leader from Bihar and eventually the first President of Independent India.
• Madan Mohan Malaviya founded the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916 and was a four-time president of the Congress.
• Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai:
• Members of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, they represented the Extremist wing of the Congress.
• They were instrumental in the Swadeshi Movement of 1905, protesting the Partition of Bengal.

The correct answer is Champaran Satyagraha.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa on 9th January 1915, and his first major political intervention occurred in 1917 at Champaran, Bihar.
• The Champaran Satyagraha was organized to address the grievances of indigo farmers who were oppressed under the Tinkathia System, which mandated cultivation of indigo on 3/20th of their land.
• Gandhi was invited to the region by Raj Kumar Shukla, a local peasant who sought his help in fighting the exploitative British planters.
• During this movement, Gandhi was joined by prominent leaders such as Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha, and J.B. Kripalani.
• The struggle resulted in the appointment of the Champaran Agrarian Committee, leading to the abolition of the Tinkathia system and partial refund of the illegal dues collected from peasants.
• This event is widely recognized as the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi on Indian soil, serving as a laboratory for his techniques of Ahimsa and Non-violence.

 Additional Information

• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Launched in 1920 following the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the Khilafat Movement, it was the first Pan-India mass movement aimed at achieving Swaraj.
• Civil Disobedience Movement:
• Initiated in 1930 with the Dandi March, where Gandhi defied the Salt Laws by producing salt from seawater at the Gujarat coast.
• Quit India Movement:
• Launched on 8th August 1942 during the Gowalia Tank Maidan session in Bombay, where Gandhi gave the famous slogan 'Do or Die' to demand immediate British withdrawal.

The correct answer is Nitish Kumar.

Key Points

• Nitish Kumar took the oath as the Chief Minister of Bihar following the declaration of the 2025 Assembly Election results.
• He is a veteran politician and the prominent leader of the Janata Dal (United) (JD(U)) party, having served multiple terms as the head of the state government.
• The Bihar Legislative Assembly consists of 243 seats, and the formation of the government requires a majority of at least 122 seats.
• The oath of office was administered by the Governor of Bihar, who exercise powers under the Constitution of India to appoint the leader of the majority party or coalition.
• His leadership in the 2025 elections focused on the themes of Sushasan (good governance), infrastructure development, and social welfare schemes.

 Additional Information

• Tejashwi Yadav:
• He is a key leader of the Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) and has previously served as the Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar.
• He remains a significant figure in the Mahagathbandhan (Grand Alliance) in Bihar politics.
• Arvind Kejriwal:
• He is the National Convener of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) and formerly served as the Chief Minister of Delhi.
• His political influence is primarily centered in Delhi and Punjab.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• According to Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
• The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme was launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation on October 21, 2016, as a key component of the National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP).
• It is a Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) designed to stimulate regional air connectivity by making it financially viable and affordable for the general public.
• The scheme aims to revive unserved and underserved airstrips and airports to provide essential air travel access to previously isolated communities.
• The first flight under the scheme was inaugurated by the Prime Minister in April 2017, connecting Shimla to Delhi.
• The policy provides a market-based mechanism where airlines bid for routes, and the government provides Viability Gap Funding (VGF) to support operations on low-traffic routes.

 Additional Information

• Viability Gap Funding (VGF):
• Financial support is provided to Selected Airline Operators (SAO) to make flight operations profitable while keeping 50 percent of the seats at capped, affordable rates.
• The Regional Connectivity Fund (RCF) is utilized to provide this funding, largely sourced from a levy on scheduled flights on major domestic routes.
• Evolution of UDAN Phases:
• UDAN 1.0: Focused on connecting 36 unserved airports through 5 airline companies.
• UDAN 2.0: Addressed helipad connectivity for the first time in mountainous and remote areas.
• UDAN 3.0: Included seaplanes and tourist routes to boost the tourism sector.
• UDAN 4.0: Specifically targeted the North Eastern Region, Himalayan States, and Islands.
• UDAN 5.0: Removed the 600 km distance cap between the origin and destination to promote even wider regional access.
• Impact: The scheme has significantly increased the number of operational airports in India, jumping from 74 in 2014 to over 140 by 2023.

The correct answer is Drowning-monitor system.

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Technology (BHU) Varanasi announced the successful patenting of an innovative Drowning-monitor system in June 2025, designed to enhance the safety of individuals in aquatic environments.
• This system is specifically developed to address the high rate of fatalities among fishermen, swimmers, and water sports enthusiasts by providing a proactive monitoring solution.
• The device utilizes high-precision sensors to track real-time physiological data, such as heart rate and oxygen levels, alongside physical parameters like the duration of underwater submersion.
• When the system detects anomalies or a potential drowning scenario, it triggers an automated alert to nearby rescue teams or base stations, significantly reducing emergency response time.
• The invention highlights the progress of indigenous technology in India under the framework of safety engineering and Internet of Things (IoT) applications.

 Additional Information

• Related Technologies in Water Safety:
• GPS Rescue Beacon: A portable transmitter used in maritime distress situations to send location coordinates to satellites for Search and Rescue (SAR) operations.
• Smart Lifejacket: An advanced personal flotation device integrated with LED beacons, automatic CO2 inflation, and sometimes radio frequency identification (RFID) for tracking.
• Underwater Drone: Also known as Remotely Operated Vehicles (ROVs), these are used for underwater inspections, photography, and locating victims in deep-water recovery missions.
• IIT-BHU (Varanasi): Established as Benares Engineering College in 1919, it is one of the oldest and most prestigious technical institutes in India, gaining IIT status in 2012.
• Patent Protection: The granting of a patent by the Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trademarks ensures the legal protection of intellectual property for 20 years in India.

The correct answer is Marginal cost begins to rise.

Key Points

• The relationship between the Marginal Product of Labor (MP_L) and Marginal Cost (MC) is fundamentally inverse in the short-run production phase.
• In the Short Run, a firm typically has at least one Fixed Factor (such as machinery or land) and one Variable Factor (such as labor).
• The Marginal Cost is calculated by the formula MC = W / MP_L, where W represents the constant Nominal Wage. As the denominator (MP_L) decreases, the resulting value (MC) mathematically increases.
• When Marginal Product is increasing, it implies that each additional worker is more productive than the last, which leads to a decrease in the cost of producing an extra unit of output.
• Once the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns sets in, the MP_L begins to fall. At this inflection point, the firm must employ more labor to produce each subsequent unit of output, causing the Marginal Cost to trend upward.
• The point where MP_L is at its maximum corresponds exactly to the point where MC is at its minimum.

 Additional Information

• Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns:
• This economic law states that as more units of a Variable Input are added to Fixed Inputs, the Marginal Physical Product will eventually decline.
• It is a Short-Run phenomenon because in the long run, all factors of production are variable.
• Cost Curve Geometry:
• The Marginal Cost (MC) Curve is typically U-shaped. It falls initially due to Increasing Returns and rises later due to Diminishing Returns.
• The Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve is also inversely related to the Average Product (AP) curve; when AP is at its peak, AVC is at its minimum.

The correct answer is Ranchi, Jharkhand.

Key Points

• The 60th National Cross Country Championships in 2026 is designated to be hosted in Ranchi, the capital city of Jharkhand.
• This premier long-distance running event is organized under the jurisdiction of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), which governs track and field sports in the country.
• The selection of Ranchi underscores the city's growing status as a major sporting hub, utilizing its advanced infrastructure like the Mega Sports Complex at Hotwar.
• The championships serve as a critical platform for identifying elite talent for the Indian National Team, featuring categories for Senior Men and Women, as well as various Junior age groups.
• Participants from all States, Union Territories, and boards such as Services and Railways compete for top honors in this endurance-based discipline.

 Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• Established in 1946, it is the apex body for athletics in India and is affiliated with World Athletics and the Asian Athletics Association.
• It is responsible for conducting national championships and training athletes for global events like the Olympics and World Championships.
• Cross Country Running Features:
• Unlike track events, cross country is held on open-air courses over natural terrain such as grass, dirt, and woodland.
• The standard distance for the Senior category in national and international circuits is typically 10 kilometers.
• Jharkhand's Sporting Heritage:
• The state has a rich history of producing world-class athletes, particularly in Hockey, Archery, and Athletics.
• The Birsa Munda Athletics Stadium in Ranchi is one of the finest synthetic tracks in India, often hosting the National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships.

The correct answer is 11.

Key Points

• The Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC-2025) was organized to strategically align India’s research and development capabilities with the national vision of Viksit Bharat @ 2047.
• The conclave specifically identified and focused on 11 thematic areas that are deemed critical for driving the next phase of industrial and technological revolution in the country.
• These 11 themes include high-priority sectors such as Artificial Intelligence (AI), Quantum Technologies, and Space Exploration, which are essential for maintaining global competitiveness and national security.
• The selection of these specific areas was designed to support the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which aims to provide a unified direction for scientific funding and collaboration.
• The conclave serves as a platform for the Ministry of Science and Technology to bring together leaders from academia, industry, and government to create actionable roadmaps for each of the identified sectors.

 Additional Information

• The thematic focus of ESTIC-2025 extends beyond digital technologies to include foundational and sustainable sciences:
• Green Hydrogen and Energy Storage: Aimed at achieving energy independence and supporting the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
• Semiconductors: Focuses on building a robust indigenous ecosystem for electronics manufacturing and design to reduce global supply chain risks.
• Biotechnology and Bio-economy: Leverages biological innovations for advancements in healthcare, agriculture, and sustainable manufacturing.
• Cyber-Physical Systems: Integrating sensors, IoT, and computational intelligence to enhance Industrial 4.0 standards across Indian factories.
• Advanced Materials: Development of high-strength, lightweight materials for use in defense, aerospace, and infrastructure sectors.
• By concentrating on these 11 priority domains, the government intends to foster Deep Tech startups and encourage Private Sector investment in large-scale scientific research.

The correct answer is RBI.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Apex Monetary Institution of the country, acting as the Central Bank responsible for the regulation of the Indian Banking System and the formulation of Monetary Policy.
• It commenced its operations on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance).
• While it was initially established as a private shareholders bank, the RBI was Nationalised on January 1, 1949, making it fully owned by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• The primary functions of the RBI include the Issuance of Currency (except one-rupee notes and coins), acting as the Banker to the Government, managing Foreign Exchange Reserves, and maintaining Price Stability while ensuring Credit Flow to productive sectors.
• The central office of the bank was initially located in Calcutta but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937, where the Governor sits and policies are framed.

 Additional Information

• SBI (State Bank of India):
• It is the largest Public Sector Bank in India, which evolved from the Bank of Calcutta (1806) and the Imperial Bank of India before being renamed in 1955.
• SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India):
• Established as a Statutory Body on April 12, 1992, it serves as the regulator for the Securities and Commodity Market in India to protect investor interests.
• ICICI Bank:
• It is a leading Private Sector Bank that was originally promoted in 1955 as the Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India at the initiative of the World Bank.

The correct answer is PM-Vidyalaxmi Scheme.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet, led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the PM-Vidyalaxmi Scheme on November 6, 2024, as a new Central Sector Scheme.
• It is designed to provide financial assistance to meritorious students to ensure that financial constraints do not hinder anyone from pursuing higher education in top-tier institutions.
• The scheme specifically targets students securing admission in the top 800 Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) of the country, based on the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) rankings.
• Under this initiative, students can avail of collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans from banks to cover the full amount of tuition fees and other academic expenses.
• A crucial component includes a 3 percent interest subvention on loans up to 10 lakh rupees for students coming from families with an annual income of up to 7.5 lakh rupees.
• The scheme is expected to benefit over 22 lakh students every year who enroll in these premier higher educational institutions.

 Additional Information

• PM Svanidhi Scheme:
• Launched in June 2020 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• It provides affordable working capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods post-pandemic.
• PM Vidya Pravesh:
• A three-month play-based school preparation module for Grade 1 students.
• It was launched under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 to ensure students are ready for formal schooling.
• PM-SHRI Scheme:
• Stands for PM Schools for Rising India, launched in 2022.
• Aims to upgrade and develop more than 14,500 schools across India to provide high-quality education in a modern environment.

The correct answer is sec Round Table.

Key Points

• The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a milestone political agreement signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin, just before the second session in London.
• The main objective of the British government was to secure the participation of the Indian National Congress in the Second Round Table Conference, as the party had boycotted the first session.
• Under this pact, Mahatma Gandhi agreed to discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement, which had significantly challenged British authority through the Salt Satyagraha.
• The Congress agreed to join the constitutional discussions in London to represent Indian interests, making Gandhi the sole official representative of the party at the Second Round Table Conference.
• In return, the British agreed to release political prisoners who were not involved in violence, withdraw ordinances related to the movement, and allow peaceful picketing of shops selling foreign cloth and liquor.

 Additional Information

• First Round Table Conference
• Held between November 1930 and January 1931, it was the first time Indians and Britishers met as equals, but was ineffective due to Congress's absence.
• Third Round Table Conference
• Conducted in 1932, it saw minimal participation and was again boycotted by the Congress and the British Labour Party.
• Simon Commission
• A seven-member group led by Sir John Simon that arrived in India in 1928 to study constitutional reforms. It was met with 'Simon Go Back' protests because it lacked any Indian representation.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad.

Key Points

• Ahmedabad, a historic city in the state of Gujarat, was officially inscribed as India's first UNESCO World Heritage City during the 41st session of the World Heritage Committee held in Krakow, Poland, in July 2017.
• The city was founded by Sultan Ahmad Shah of the Gujarat Sultanate in 1411 on the eastern bank of the Sabarmati River.
• The Historic City of Ahmedabad was recognized for its unique Indo-Islamic architecture and urban planning, which features Pols (traditional gated residential units) and Khadees (inner courtyards).
• The heritage site covers an area of approximately 5.43 square kilometers and includes 28 ASI-protected monuments, such as the Bhadra Fort, Teen Darwaza, Jama Masjid, and the Sidi Saiyyed Mosque.
• The nomination was supported by the fact that the city has served as a center for various religions, including Hinduism, Jainism, and Islam, existing in a cohesive multi-cultural environment for over six centuries.

 Additional Information

• Jaipur:
• Commonly known as the Pink City, it became India's second city to be designated a UNESCO World Heritage City in 2019.
• It was established in 1727 by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II and is famous for its grid-iron plan and Vedic architectural principles.
• Varanasi:
• Recognized as one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities in the world, it is located on the banks of the Ganga River.
• In 2015, it was inducted into the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) under the category of Music.
• Hyderabad:
• Known as the City of Pearls, it was founded by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah in 1591.
• In 2019, it was designated as a UNESCO Creative City of Gastronomy, highlighting its diverse culinary heritage, specifically the Hyderabadi Biryani.

The correct answer is Trap Shooting.

Key Points

• Zoravar Singh Sandhu is a veteran Indian shotgun shooter who achieved a podium finish by clinching a Bronze Medal in the Men's Trap event at the 2025 ISSF World Championships.
• The Trap Shooting discipline requires the athlete to hit clay targets (clay pigeons) that are launched from a single trap house or bunker, generally moving away from the shooter at high speeds.
• His success at this elite level reinforces India's rising profile in Shotgun events, which are distinct from the precision-based rifle and pistol disciplines held in indoor ranges.
• Sandhu has been a consistent member of the Indian National Shooting Team, previously representing the country at the Asian Games, Commonwealth Games, and multiple ISSF World Cups.

 Additional Information

• Olympic Shooting Events:
• 10m Air Rifle: A precision event conducted in a standing position using a 0.177 caliber rifle, where the bullseye is only 0.5 mm in diameter.
• 25m Pistol: An Olympic discipline primarily for women and juniors, involving both precision and rapid-fire stages using 0.22 caliber pistols.
• Skeet Shooting: A shotgun discipline where targets are launched from two different houses (high and low) at fixed angles, crossing each other in a semicircular field.
• Governing Body: The International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF), based in Munich, Germany, is the global authority that regulates all Olympic and non-Olympic shooting sport disciplines.

The correct answer is Dolphin Lighthouse, Visakhapatnam.

Key Points

• The logo for MILAN 2026 was officially unveiled by Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi, the Chief of the Naval Staff, during the Mid-Planning Conference (MPC) held at Visakhapatnam in October 2024.
• The design features the Indian tricolour prominently, symbolizing the host nation's sovereignty, and a distinctive lighthouse that represents the Dolphin Lighthouse located in the host city, Visakhapatnam.
• The Dolphin Lighthouse is a critical maritime landmark situated on the Dolphin's Nose hill, a powerful rock promontory rising approximately 174 meters above sea level along the coast of the Bay of Bengal.
• This lighthouse serves as a vital navigational aid for vessels entering the Visakhapatnam Port and the Gangavaram Port, and its inclusion in the logo highlights the city's identity as the 'City of Destiny' and the permanent home of the MILAN series.
• The logo serves to unify the theme of international maritime cooperation and the strategic role of the Eastern Naval Command in the Indo-Pacific region.

 Additional Information

• MILAN Naval Exercise:
• MILAN is a biennial multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy, which began in 1995 with only four participating countries: Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• While it was originally conducted at the Andaman and Nicobar Command, the venue was shifted to Visakhapatnam (mainland) starting with the 11th edition in 2022 to accommodate more participants.
• The exercise aims to enhance interoperability, promote maritime security, and strengthen bonds between friendly foreign navies through sea and harbor phases.
• Visakhapatnam Strategic Significance:
• As the headquarters of the Eastern Naval Command, it is a hub for India's Look East and Act East policies.
• The city's natural harbor, protected by the Dolphin's Nose hill, makes it one of the most strategically important naval bases in South Asia.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The Expert Group to Review the Methodology for Measurement of Poverty was constituted by the Planning Commission in June 2012 under the chairmanship of Dr. C. Rangarajan, a former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
• The committee officially submitted its report on July 4, 2014, which revised the poverty estimates previously set by the Suresh Tendulkar Committee.
• The Rangarajan Group suggested that the poverty line should be based on a monthly per capita consumption expenditure of Rs 972 in rural areas and Rs 1,407 in urban areas at 2011−12 prices.
• This methodology calculated that 29.5 percent of the Indian population was living below the poverty line in 2011−12, significantly higher than the 21.9 percent estimated by the Tendulkar Committee for the same period.
• The group moved away from a purely calorie-centric approach, instead incorporating nutrition (proteins and fats), clothing, house rent, conveyance, and education into its basket of essential goods.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Poverty Estimation in India:
• Tendulkar Committee (2009): It shifted the focus from calorie intake to a Cost of Living Index and included private expenditure on health and education.
• Lakdawala Committee (1993): It recommended state-specific poverty lines and used the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL) and Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW).
• Alagh Committee (1979): It was the first to define a poverty line based on nutritional requirements, setting 2400 kcal for rural and 2100 kcal for urban areas.
• NITI Aayog Task Force: Established in 2015, it currently coordinates with the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to track poverty using the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) data.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• According to the Economic Survey of India 2024-25, Madhya Pradesh continues to maintain its status as the leading producer of Pulses (often categorized under 'g' for Gram in agricultural datasets) in the country.
• The state contributes approximately 23 percent to 25 percent of India's total pulse production, making it the most significant contributor to the national protein pool.
• Madhya Pradesh is the undisputed leader in the production of Gram (Chickpea), accounting for a massive share of the national output due to its expansive cultivation in the Malwa and Bundelkhand regions.
• The state's success is driven by its favorable Agro-Climatic conditions, particularly the presence of Black Cotton Soil, which is ideal for moisture retention required for leguminous crops during the Rabi season.
• Government initiatives such as the National Food Security Mission (NFSM) and the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanraksan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) have incentivized farmers in the state through better Minimum Support Price (MSP) procurement.

 Additional Information

• Rajasthan:
• Ranks as the second-largest producer of total pulses in India.
• It holds the top position in the production of Nutri-cereals like Bajra and is the leading producer of Rapeseed and Mustard.
• Maharashtra:
• A major producer of Pigeon Pea (Tur/Arhar) and Urad, typically ranking among the top three states for pulse production.
• The Vidarbha and Marathwada regions are the primary hubs for legume cultivation in this state.
• National Context:
• India is the world's largest producer (25 percent), consumer (27 percent), and importer (14 percent) of pulses.
• The Economic Survey 2024-25 emphasizes the goal of achieving Atmanirbharta (self-sufficiency) in pulses by 2027 to reduce the fiscal burden of imports.
• The total production of pulses in India has seen a steady rise, reaching approximately 27 to 28 million tonnes in recent agricultural cycles.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• The Khelo India Winter Games (KIWG) is a flagship multi-sport event organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to promote a culture of winter sports across India.
• The second chapter or second edition of the games, primarily hosted in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir, emphasized a specialized set of competitive winter sports to streamline talent identification.
• This specific chapter included 4 major disciplines: Alpine Skiing, Nordic Skiing, Snowboarding, and Ski Mountaineering, which form the core of high-altitude athletic competitions in the region.
• The Sports Authority of India (SAI) and the Winter Games Association of Jammu and Kashmir collaborated to ensure these four disciplines met international standards for the Khelo India mission.

 Additional Information

• Khelo India Program:
• The program was introduced to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroots level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• It identifies talented players in priority sports disciplines at various levels through a High-Powered Committee.
• Selected athletes receive annual financial assistance of 5 lakh rupees for 8 years.
• Geographical Significance:
• Gulmarg is recognized as the winter sports capital of India, providing the necessary geographical terrain and snow depth for professional skiing.
• The inclusion of Ladakh as a co-host in various editions has expanded the reach of the games to include disciplines like Ice Hockey and Ice Skating in specific regional legs.
• Strategic Objectives:
• Aims to prepare Indian athletes for global stages such as the Winter Olympics and Asian Winter Games.
• Promotes sports tourism in the Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, boosting the local economy and infrastructure development.

The correct answer is 1916.

Key Points

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 during the Belgaum session of the Provincial Conference.
• The primary objective of the league was to achieve Self-Government or Swaraj for India within the framework of the British Empire through constitutional means.
• Tilak’s league was assigned a specific geographical jurisdiction comprising Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, the Central Provinces, and Berar.
• The movement was organized into six branches and focused on promoting education in vernacular languages and the demand for the formation of linguistic states.
• It was during this movement that Tilak famously declared, 'Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it!', which galvanized the masses across the nation.

 Additional Information

• Annie Besant and the Home Rule Movement:
• Following Tilak, Annie Besant established her own All India Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras.
• Her league had a wider reach, covering the rest of India not handled by Tilak’s organization, with over 200 branches.
• She utilized her newspapers, New India and Commonweal, to propagate the ideas of self-rule and political reforms.
• Impact on National Politics:
• The Home Rule Movement created a sense of urgency for political reforms, leading to the Lucknow Pact of 1916, which saw a temporary alliance between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
• The intense pressure from the movement contributed to the August Declaration of 1917 by Edwin Montagu, which promised the gradual development of self-governing institutions in India.
• Prominent leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru, Muhammad Ali Jinnah, and B.H. Wadia were active participants or supporters of the movement.

The correct answer is Sarojini Naidu.

Key Points

• Sarojini Naidu holds the distinction of being the first Indian woman to serve as the President of the Indian National Congress (INC).
• She was elected to this prestigious position during the 1925 Kanpur Session of the Congress, representing a landmark moment for women in Indian politics.
• While Annie Besant was the first woman ever to head the INC in 1917 at the Calcutta Session, she was of British-Irish origin; hence, Naidu was the first indigenous Indian woman to achieve this feat.
• Popularly known as the Nightingale of India or Bharat Kokila, she was a renowned poet and a vital leader in the Indian independence movement.
• She worked closely with Mahatma Gandhi and played a significant role in the Civil Disobedience Movement, including the Dandi March.

 Additional Information

• Sarojini Naidu:
• Following India's independence, she became the first woman Governor of an Indian state, serving the United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh) from 1947 until her death in 1949.
• Sucheta Kriplani:
• A freedom fighter who became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state, leading Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967.
• Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit:
• The sister of Jawaharlal Nehru, she was the first woman to be elected as the President of the United Nations General Assembly in 1953.
• Nandini Satpathy:
• She was a prominent leader who served as the Chief Minister of Odisha and was a prolific writer in Odia literature.

The correct answer is NW-6.

Key Points

• National Waterway 6 (NW-6) is situated on the Aai River, a significant tributary of the Brahmaputra, located entirely within the state of Assam.
• The total length of this waterway is approximately 121 kilometers, stretching from the confluence of the Aai River with the Brahmaputra to the Indo-Bhutan border.
• It was officially designated as a national waterway under the National Waterways Act, 2016, which aimed to expand the inland water transport network across India.
• The development of NW-6 specifically benefits the Bongaigaon and Chirang districts of the Bodoland Territorial Region by facilitating the movement of local agricultural products and timber.
• Managed by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), this route is part of a larger initiative to provide cost-effective and fuel-efficient transport alternatives in the Northeast region.

 Additional Information

• NW-7:
• Location: This waterway is located on the Ajay River in the state of West Bengal.
• Length: It covers a total distance of approximately 96 kilometers.
• NW-8:
• Location: Situated in Kerala, it comprises the Alappuzha-Changanassery Canal.
• Purpose: It serves as a vital corridor for passenger traffic and tourism in the Kerala Backwaters, spanning 28 kilometers.
• NW-5:
• Coverage: This is a multi-state waterway encompassing the Brahmani River, Matai River, and the East Coast Canal.
• Geography: It spans approximately 623 kilometers across the states of Odisha and West Bengal, making it one of the longest waterways in the eastern sector.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) is a massive national highway network that connects the four major metropolitan and commercial hubs of India: Delhi (North), Mumbai (West), Chennai (South), and Kolkata (East).
• The project was officially launched in 1999 by the then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee as part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) and was fully completed in 2012.
• While Chennai, Mumbai, and Delhi serve as the primary vertices of the quadrilateral, Hyderabad is not part of this specific four-city circuit.
• Hyderabad is instead a vital node on the North-South Corridor, which is a separate highway project connecting Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
• The Golden Quadrilateral passes through 13 states in India, significantly reducing the travel time and distance between major industrial and agricultural centers.

 Additional Information

• Golden Quadrilateral Specifications:
• It has a total length of approximately 5,846 kilometers, making it the fifth-longest highway project in the world.
• The network includes major intermediate cities such as Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Pune, Surat, Jaipur, and Kanpur.
• The project is managed and maintained by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
• North-South and East-West Corridor (NS-EW):
• This project complements the GQ and consists of 7,300 kilometers of four-to-six-lane highways.
• The North-South Corridor passes through Hyderabad via National Highway 44 (formerly NH-7), which is the longest national highway in India.
• The two corridors (NS-EW) intersect at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh.

The correct answer is Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• The Nilgiri Hills, often referred to as the Blue Mountains, are a range of mountains spanning the borders of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• They serve as the geographical junction where the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet, creating a unique transition zone for biodiversity.
• The range is separated from the Karnataka Plateau to the north by the Moyar River and from the Anaimalai Hills and Palni Hills to the south by the Palghat Gap.
• The highest peak in the Nilgiris is Doddabetta, reaching an elevation of 2,637 meters, making it one of the highest points in South India.

 Additional Information

• Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:
• This was the first biosphere reserve in India, established in 1986 under the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere program.
• It includes famous national parks such as Mudumalai, Bandipur, Nagarhole, and Silent Valley.
• Flora and Fauna:
• The region is the primary habitat for the Nilgiri Tahr, an endangered mountain goat and the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
• It is also known for the Neelakurinji shrub, which blooms only once every 12 years.
• Geographical Context of Options:
• States like Gujarat and Maharashtra are part of the northern/central Western Ghats, while Rajasthan lies in the Aravalli range.
• Andhra Pradesh primarily hosts the Eastern Ghats, and Odisha or Chhattisgarh are located in East-Central India, far from the Nilgiri tri-junction.

The correct answer is Proteins.

Key Points

• Egg white, also known as albumen, is primarily composed of 90% water and 10% proteins, which are the fundamental agents responsible for its unique culinary properties.
• When egg whites are beaten or whipped, mechanical energy incorporates air bubbles into the liquid, causing the globule-shaped protein molecules to denature (unfold).
• The protein Ovalbumin, which constitutes about 54% of the total protein content, along with Ovotransferrin, plays a crucial role in creating the foam structure.
• These proteins are amphiphilic; their hydrophobic (water-repelling) amino acids align toward the air bubbles, while their hydrophilic (water-attracting) sections remain in the liquid.
• This alignment forms a protective, three-dimensional film that stabilizes the air bubbles, preventing them from merging and causing the foam to collapse.
• The process is finalized through coagulation, where the unfolded proteins bond together to form a rigid network that provides structural integrity to the foam.

 Additional Information

• Fats:
• Egg yolks contain high concentrations of lipids; even a trace amount of yolk can ruin a foam because fats compete with proteins for the surface of air bubbles but cannot provide structure.
• Stabilizing Agents:
• Acids, such as Cream of Tartar or lemon juice, are often added to lower the pH, which prevents the proteins from over-coagulating and becoming too brittle.
• Copper bowls are traditionally used to whip whites because the copper ions bond with ovotransferrin to create a extremely stable complex that resists over-beating.
• Temperature Effects:
• Whipping at room temperature (approximately 21°C) is ideal as the lower surface tension allows proteins to stretch and unfold more easily compared to cold eggs.

The correct answer is Eye.

Key Points

• The ciliary muscle is a vital circular ring of smooth muscle found within the middle layer (uvea) of the human eye, specifically forming part of the ciliary body.
• Its primary physiological role is to facilitate accommodation, which is the mechanism by which the eye changes its optical power to maintain a clear focus on an object as its distance varies.
• This muscle is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, receiving parasympathetic signals via the short ciliary nerves that arise from the ciliary ganglion (linked to the oculomotor nerve).
• When the ciliary muscle contracts, it reduces the diameter of the ciliary ring, causing the suspensory ligaments (zonules of Zinn) to slacken; this allows the crystalline lens to become more convex for near vision.
• During relaxation, the muscle increases the tension on the zonular fibers, which stretches and flattens the lens, enabling the eye to focus on distant objects.

 Additional Information

• Liver:
• The largest glandular organ in the body, primarily involved in detoxification, lipid metabolism, and the production of bile.
• It contains specialized cells called hepatocytes and Kupffer cells rather than ciliary muscles.
• Kidney:
• A critical organ for osmoregulation and waste excretion, containing millions of nephrons.
• It regulates blood pressure through the renin-angiotensin system and does not have a role in visual focus.
• Heart:
• A hollow muscular organ composed of cardiac muscle (myocardium) that acts as a pump for blood circulation.
• It functions through involuntary contractions triggered by the sinoatrial (SA) node.

The correct answer is Mendel.

Key Points

• Gregor Johann Mendel, an Austrian monk, is honored as the Father of Genetics due to his pioneering studies on the mechanism of inheritance.
• He conducted his experiments on Pisum sativum (garden pea plants) for seven years between 1856 and 1863, observing how specific traits were passed down through generations.
• Mendel proposed three fundamental laws: the Law of Dominance, the Law of Segregation, and the Law of Independent Assortment, which form the bedrock of classical genetics.
• He introduced the concept of factors (now known as genes) as the discrete units of heredity that do not blend but remain distinct.
• His work was published in 1866 but remained largely ignored until it was rediscovered in 1900 by scientists Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns, and Erich von Tschermak.

 Additional Information

• Charles Darwin:
• Known as the Father of Evolution for his theory of Natural Selection.
• He authored the landmark book On the Origin of Species in 1859.
• Jean-Baptiste Lamarck:
• A French biologist best known for the theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics (Lamarckism).
• He suggested that organs used frequently become more developed, while those not used disappear (use and disuse theory).
• Rosalind Franklin:
• A British biophysicist whose X-ray crystallography data was essential in identifying the Double Helix structure of DNA.
• Her famous Photo 51 provided the structural evidence needed for the Watson-Crick model.

The correct answer is Article 139A(1).

Key Points

• Article 139A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, to enhance the efficiency of the higher judiciary.
• Under Article 139A(1), if the Supreme Court is satisfied that cases involving the same or substantial questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts, or before two or more High Courts, it may withdraw those cases to itself.
• The Supreme Court can exercise this power either suo motu (on its own motion) or on an application by the Attorney-General of India or a party involved in the litigation.
• The primary objective of this provision is to ensure uniformity in judicial decisions and to prevent the possibility of conflicting interpretations of the law by different High Courts on matters of national importance.
• After deciding the question of law, the Supreme Court may return the case to the respective High Court for disposal in conformity with its judgment, or it may dispose of the case itself.

 Additional Information

• Article 132:
• Pertains to the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts.
• It applies specifically to civil, criminal, or other proceedings where the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
• Article 136:
• Empowers the Supreme Court with Special Leave to Appeal (SLP) against any judgment, decree, or order passed by any court or tribunal in India (except military tribunals).
• It is a discretionary power intended to be used in exceptional circumstances to prevent the miscarriage of justice.
• Article 129:
• Declares the Supreme Court to be a Court of Record, meaning its acts and proceedings are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony.
• It grants the court the inherent power to punish for contempt of itself, maintaining its dignity and authority.

The correct answer is Article 14.

Key Points

• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution declares that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• The concept of Equality before Law is of British origin (derived from A.V. Dicey’s Rule of Law) and implies that no man is above the law and every person, regardless of rank, is subject to the jurisdiction of ordinary courts.
• The concept of Equal Protection of Laws is taken from the American Constitution (14th Amendment) and provides for the equality of treatment under equal circumstances, allowing for reasonable classification by the state.
• This right is available to all persons, including citizens, foreigners, and legal persons such as statutory corporations or registered companies.
• The Supreme Court has established that the Rule of Law as embodied in Article 14 is a basic feature of the Constitution, meaning it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment under Article 368.

 Additional Information

• Article 12:
• Defines the term State for Part III of the Constitution.
• It includes the Government and Parliament of India, the State Government and Legislature, and all local or other authorities like municipalities and panchayats.
• Article 13:
• Provides for Judicial Review of all legislations in India.
• It states that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the Fundamental Rights shall be void.
• Article 15:
• Prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It ensures equal access to public places like shops, restaurants, and wells maintained out of State funds.

The correct answer is Chandela Dynasty.

Key Points

• The Lakshmana Temple is a monumental 10th-century Hindu temple located in the Khajuraho complex in the Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It was commissioned by the Chandela king Yashovarman (also known as Lakshavarman) around 930−950 AD to symbolize his political independence from the Gurjara-Pratiharas.
• Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, the temple is renowned for its Panchayatana architectural layout, where a central shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines at the corners of the Jagati (platform).
• The primary deity is a rare Vaikuntha Vishnu idol, which features three heads: a human head in the center, flanked by a lion (Narasimha) and a boar (Varaha).
• The structure is a masterpiece of Nagara architecture, characterized by its intricate Shikhara (towering spire), Mahamandapa, and stone-carved friezes depicting social, military, and erotic themes.

 Additional Information

• Chola Dynasty:
• Predominant in South India, they are famous for Dravidian architecture, seen in monuments like the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur.
• Gupta Dynasty:
• Known as the Golden Age of India, they initiated early temple construction like the Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh during the 6th century.
• Paramara Dynasty:
• They ruled the Malwa region and are credited with building the massive unfinished Bhojeshwar Temple at Bhojpur.
• Khajuraho Group of Monuments:
• Built between 950 and 1050 AD by the Chandelas, these temples were collectively designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1986.

The correct answer is The excessive usage of coal and petroleum.

Key Points

• Greenhouse gases (GHGs) such as Carbon Dioxide (CO₂), Methane (CH₄), and Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) are the primary substances responsible for the Greenhouse Effect, which warms the Earth's surface.
• The excessive usage of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum is the leading cause of the increase in atmospheric CO₂ concentrations since the start of the Industrial Revolution.
• When these carbon-rich fuels are burned for industrial manufacturing, electricity generation, and vehicular transport, they release stored carbon into the atmosphere in the form of CO₂.
• Data from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) indicates that global CO₂ levels have risen from roughly 280 ppm in the pre-industrial era to over 410 ppm today.
• This imbalance in the carbon cycle traps outgoing long-wave radiation, leading to Global Warming and significant shifts in the global climate system.

 Additional Information

• Planting Trees (Afforestation):
• Trees act as carbon sinks that absorb CO₂ from the atmosphere during their growth cycle.
• Increasing forest cover is a recognized strategy to reduce the concentration of greenhouse gases.
• Photosynthetic Activity:
• Plants convert CO₂ and water into glucose and oxygen using solar energy.
• An increase in this biological process typically lowers the amount of Carbon Dioxide in the environment.
• Hydrogen as Fuel:
• Hydrogen is considered a green fuel because its combustion produces only water vapor (H₂O) and no carbon emissions.
• The shift toward a Hydrogen Economy is intended to mitigate the environmental impact of fossil fuel dependency.

The correct answer is 73rd Amendment.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, was enacted to grant constitutional status and protection to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India.
• This amendment inserted a new Part IX to the Constitution, titled 'The Panchayats', which includes provisions from Article 243 to 243O.
• It added the 11th Schedule to the Constitution, which contains 29 functional items that are to be handled by the Panchayats, such as agriculture, land improvement, and primary education.
• The act established a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj: the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the intermediate (block) level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level.
• It mandated the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population, and a minimum of one-third reservation for women in all tiers.
• The 73rd Amendment came into force on April 24, 1993, which is celebrated annually as National Panchayati Raj Day.

 Additional Information

• 42nd Amendment (1976):
• Commonly referred to as the Mini-Constitution, it brought massive changes, including the addition of the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble.
• It also introduced Fundamental Duties for citizens under Article 51A.
• 86th Amendment (2002):
• This amendment made Right to Education a Fundamental Right by inserting Article 21A.
• It provides for free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
• 61st Amendment (1989):
• This amendment lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies.
• The age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years to encourage youth participation in the democratic process.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of the Union consists of the President and the two Houses known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament even though they are not a member of either House and do not sit in the Parliament to attend its meetings.
• The primary reason for this inclusion is that no Bill passed by both the Houses can become Law or an Act without receiving the President's Assent.
• Under Article 85, the President possesses the constitutional power to summon and prorogue both Houses of Parliament and has the authority to dissolve the Lok Sabha.
• The President also addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each General Election and at the commencement of the first session of each year under Article 87.
• Furthermore, the President has the power to promulgate Ordinances under Article 123 when the Parliament is not in session, which have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

 Additional Information

• Attorney General of India:
• Established under Article 76, the Attorney General is the Chief Legal Advisor to the Government and the primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
• While they have the Right to Speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses, they do not have the Right to Vote and are not a constituent part of the Parliament.
• Governor:
• The Governor is the executive head of a state under Article 153 and is an integral part of the State Legislature (Article 168), similar to the President's role at the Union level.
• They are appointed by the President and hold office during the Pleasure of the President.
• Finance Commission:
• A Constitutional Body constituted by the President under Article 280 every five years or earlier.
• Its main function is to recommend the distribution of Financial Resources and tax proceeds between the Union and the States.

The correct answer is 933 females per thousand males.

Key Points

• The Sex Ratio is an essential demographic metric defined as the number of females per 1,000 males in a specific population.
• According to the Census of India 2001, the national sex ratio was recorded as 933, reflecting a slight improvement compared to the 927 reported in the 1991 Census.
• The 2001 Census represented the 14th official census of the country and the first one conducted in the 21st century.
• Data collection was carried out under the authority of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, operating under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• This indicator is crucial for understanding the socio-economic status of women and the prevailing gender balance within the Indian sub-continent at the turn of the millennium.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Sex Ratio (1901-2011):
• In the Census 2011, the sex ratio showed a positive trend, increasing to 943 females per 1,000 males.
• Historically, the sex ratio was significantly higher at the beginning of the 20th century, recorded at 972 in 1901.
• State-level Observations in 2001:
• Kerala maintained the highest sex ratio in the country with 1,058 females per 1,000 males.
• Haryana recorded a notably low sex ratio of 861, highlighting significant regional disparities.
• Among Union Territories, Puducherry had the highest ratio at 1,001, while Daman and Diu recorded the lowest at 710.
• Child Sex Ratio:
• While the overall sex ratio improved, the Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years) declined from 945 in 1991 to 927 in 2001, and further to 919 in 2011.

The correct answer is 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.

Key Points

• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 was enacted by the Janata Party government, led by Prime Minister Morarji Desai, to restore the democratic structure of the Constitution after the Emergency.
• Prior to this amendment, the Right to Property was classified as a Fundamental Right under two provisions: Article 19(1)(f), which guaranteed citizens the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property, and Article 31, which protected against compulsory acquisition.
• The amendment repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III of the Constitution, thereby removing the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
• A new provision, Article 300A, was inserted into Part XII of the Constitution under a separate chapter titled 'Property'. This article states that 'no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law'.
• This change transformed the nature of the right from a Fundamental Right to a Legal Right (also referred to as a Constitutional Right), meaning it is protected by ordinary law but not by the special constitutional remedies provided under Article 32.

 Additional Information

• 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975:
• This amendment granted full statehood to Sikkim, making it the 22nd state of the Indian Union.
• It also eliminated the status of Sikkim as an 'Associate State' and omitted the Tenth Schedule (as it existed then).
• 41st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
• This act raised the retirement age of members of the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) and the Joint Public Service Commission from 60 to 62 years.
• The retirement age for members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) remained unchanged at 65.
• 34th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974:
• This amendment was focused on land reforms and included 20 different State Land Reform Acts in the Ninth Schedule.
• By placing these acts in the Ninth Schedule, the government aimed to protect them from judicial scrutiny regarding violations of fundamental rights.

The correct answer is Wood.

Key Points

• Early Indian architecture, especially during the Vedic period and the early Mauryan Empire, was predominantly based on wood, bamboo, and thatch.
• Historical accounts by the Greek diplomat Megasthenes describe the magnificent palace of Chandragupta Maurya at Pataliputra as being constructed mainly of timber, rivaling the palaces of Susa and Ecbatana.
• The transition from organic materials to lithic (stone) construction was a gradual process; early stone architecture often mimicked carpentry techniques, a phenomenon known as the wood-copying stage.
• Significant evidence of this wooden tradition is seen in early Buddhist rock-cut architecture, such as the Lomas Rishi Cave and the Chaitya halls at Karle and Bhaja, which feature stone-carved ribs and latticework designed to resemble wooden frameworks.
• Due to the perishable nature of wood in the tropical climate of the Indian subcontinent, very few physical remnants of these early structures survive, leading to a reliance on literary descriptions and sculptural reliefs for historical reconstruction.

 Additional Information

• Stone:
• Became the dominant medium for monumental architecture during the reign of Emperor Ashoka (3rd Century BCE) to ensure the durability of Dhamma edicts and Stupas.
• Brick:
• Extensively used during the Indus Valley Civilization (c. 2500 BCE) for urban planning and later during the Gupta period for temples like the Bhitargaon Temple in Kanpur.
• Concrete:
• A modern building material composed of cement and aggregates; it was not utilized in the Ancient Indian architectural landscape.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• Bathukamma is a vibrant and colorful floral festival celebrated predominantly by the women of Telangana and some parts of Andhra Pradesh.
• The festival is observed for nine days during the monsoon's end, typically starting on the day of Mahalaya Amavasya and concluding on Durgashtami, known as Saddula Bathukamma.
• In the Sathavahana calendar, it begins on Bhadrapada Amavasya and is a symbol of the state's cultural identity and heritage.
• The term Bathukamma translates to 'Mother Goddess, come alive', and the festival is dedicated to Goddess Gauri, who is worshipped in the form of a beautiful floral stack.
• Following the formation of the state in 2014, the Government of Telangana officially declared Bathukamma as the State Festival.

 Additional Information

• Floral Arrangement:
• The Bathukamma is a beautiful conical arrangement made of seasonal flowers with medicinal values, such as Tangedu (Senna auriculata), Gunugu (Celosia), Gummadi (Pumpkin), and Katla.
• The women gather in circles, singing folk songs and moving rhythmically around the floral stacks to celebrate nature's bounty and water conservation.
• Other South Indian States:
• Kerala: Primarily known for Onam, a harvest festival featuring Pookalam (floral carpets) and the Vallam Kali (boat race).
• Karnataka: Famous for the grand Mysuru Dasara and the harvest festival Ugadi.
• Tamil Nadu: Celebrates Pongal, a four-day harvest festival, and Puthandu (Tamil New Year).

The correct answer is Golgi Apparatus.

Key Points

• The Golgi Apparatus, also referred to as the Golgi complex or Golgi body, was first identified by the Italian biologist Camillo Golgi in 1898.
• It consists of a series of flattened, membrane-bound sacs called cisternae, typically stacked in a parallel fashion with a distinct polarity featuring a cis face (forming face) and a trans face (maturing face).
• The primary biochemical function of this organelle is the post-translational modification of proteins and lipids that are synthesized in the Endoplasmic Reticulum.
• It is the definitive site for glycosylation, a process where carbohydrate chains are enzymatically attached to proteins and lipids to form glycoproteins and glycolipids respectively.
• These modified molecules are crucial for cell signaling, cell-to-cell recognition, and the structural integrity of the plasma membrane.
• Beyond modification, the Golgi acts as a packaging and dispatching center, sorting materials into vesicles for secretion or delivery to other intracellular locations like lysosomes.

 Additional Information

• Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER):
• Rough ER (RER): Studded with ribosomes and is the primary site for protein synthesis.
• Smooth ER (SER): Lacks ribosomes and is involved in lipid synthesis, steroid production, and detoxification of drugs.
• Lysosomes:
• Often termed suicidal bags, these are membrane-bound vesicles formed by the Golgi apparatus.
• They contain a variety of hydrolytic enzymes (acid hydrolases) such as lipases, proteases, and carbohydrases active at acidic pH.
• Ribosomes:
• Known as protein factories, they are non-membrane bound organelles composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
• They are found in both prokaryotic (70S) and eukaryotic (80S) cells and are the site of mRNA translation.

The correct answer is Terracotta.

Key Points

• Bengal is situated in the Gangetic delta, a region dominated by alluvial plains formed by the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers, which results in a natural scarcity of stone deposits.
• Due to the unavailability of igneous or metamorphic rocks, early builders in Ancient Bengal utilized the abundant fine-grained riverine clay to create burnt bricks and terracotta for construction.
• Terracotta, meaning baked earth, served as the primary medium for both structural stability and architectural ornamentation in temple architecture until and well beyond the seventh century.
• Historical sites such as Chandraketugarh and Pandu Rajar Dhibi provide archaeological evidence of the extensive use of terracotta plaques and bricks in early Bengali structures.
• These terracotta plaques were intricately carved with religious motifs, mythological scenes, and depictions of daily life, making them a central element of the regional artistic identity.

 Additional Information

• Sandstone:
• Commonly utilized in North Indian Nagara style temples, particularly during the Gupta Empire, it was largely absent in Bengal due to geological constraints.
• Granite:
• A hard igneous rock used extensively in South Indian Dravidian architecture by dynasties like the Cholas and Pallavas, as it was readily available in the Deccan Plateau.
• Marble:
• A metamorphic rock that gained significant prominence in Indian architecture much later, especially for Jain temples in Rajasthan and Gujarat and later during the Mughal era for monumental tombs.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Sun Temple at Konark is located in the coastal district of Puri in the Indian state of Odisha.
• It was built in the 13th century, approximately around 1250 CE, by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
• The temple is a pinnacle of Kalinga architecture, meticulously designed in the shape of a colossal chariot for the Sun God, Surya.
• The structure features 24 stone wheels, which are intricately carved and serve as sundials to calculate time accurately, pulled by seven horses.
• It was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 for its outstanding universal value and artistic grandeur.
• Historically, the temple was referred to as the Black Pagoda by European sailors because its dark facade served as a prominent landmark in the Bay of Bengal.

 Additional Information

• Kerala: Famous for temples like Sree Padmanabhaswamy, showcasing Dravidian and indigenous Kerala-style architecture.
• Rajasthan: Known for the Dilwara Temples at Mount Abu and the Sun Temple in Jhalrapatan, highlighting Maru-Gurjara styles.
• Maharashtra: Home to the Ajanta and Ellora Caves and the Kailasa Temple, which are famous rock-cut UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
• Architectural Symbolism: The seven horses represent the days of the week, while the 12 pairs of wheels correspond to the 12 months of the Hindu calendar.
• Location Context: The temple was originally built at the mouth of the Chandrabhaga River, though the waterline has since receded.

The correct answer is Igneous and Metamorphic.

Key Points

• The Peninsular Plateau is a massive tableland and is considered one of the oldest and most stable landmasses on Earth, having been part of the ancient Gondwana land.
• Geologically, the entire plateau is primarily composed of crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks, which provide it with a solid and rigid structural base.
• This region was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana shield, leading to the exposure of deep-seated rocks like granite, gneiss, and schist.
• The plateau is characterized by broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills, contrasting sharply with the high, jagged peaks of the younger Himalayan mountains.
• The Deccan Trap, a significant sub-division of the plateau, is specifically known for its volcanic origin, consisting of thick layers of basaltic igneous rocks formed during the Cretaceous period.
• The structural composition of the plateau makes it a rich source of minerals, as metamorphic rocks often host valuable deposits of iron ore, manganese, and mica.

 Additional Information

• Sedimentary Rocks:
• These are formed by the accumulation and lithification of organic or mineral particles over millions of years.
• While found in the Vindhyan and Cuddapah systems within the plateau, they are not the primary constituent of the entire landmass.
• Alluvial Deposits:
• These represent the youngest geological formations in India, created by the deposition of silt and clay by river systems like the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra.
• They are the defining feature of the Northern Plains and do not form the bedrock of the Peninsular Plateau.
• Geographical Divisions:
• The plateau is broadly divided by the Narmada River into the Central Highlands to the north and the Deccan Plateau to the south.
• The Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats mark the western and eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively, with the Western Ghats being higher and more continuous.