Given Series:

(Left) $ % B # Q J * C $ R @ * M V T $ # W X @ Z U (Right)

After dropping all the letters:

$ % # * $ @ * $ # @

Counting from the right:

@ → 1^st

→ 2^nd

$ → 3^rd

• → 4^th

@ → 5^th

$ → 6^th

• → 7^th

→ 8^th

% → 9^th

$ → 10^th

Therefore, the fifth symbol from the right is @.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Words:

1. Reversed
2. Rhythmic
3. Rippling
4. Realized
5. Railways

Arrangement in English dictionary order:

Step 1: Compare the first two letters.

Railways (Ra...) comes before Realized (Re...), Reversed (Re...), Rhythmic (Rh...), and Rippling (Ri...).

Step 2: Compare the words beginning with Re.

Realized (Rea...) comes before Reversed (Rev...) because 'a' comes before 'v'.

Step 3: Compare the remaining words.

Rhythmic (Rh...) comes before Rippling (Ri...) because 'h' comes before 'i'.

Final Dictionary Order:

Railways → Realized → Reversed → Rhythmic → Rippling

Corresponding order:

5, 4, 1, 2, 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Solution

Given Statements:

No doors are rings.

No logs are rings.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All logs are doors - Does not follow  (There is no direct relationship established between logs and doors in the statements, so we cannot definitively say all logs are doors.)

II. No doors are logs - Does not follow (Although they are separate in the least possible diagram, there is no statement that prevents doors and logs from overlapping, so it is not a definite conclusion.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Series:

(Left) I * J L U $ @ V Q M % B * U # @ X H $ C (Right)

After dropping all the symbols:

I J L U V Q M B U X H C

Counting from the left:

I → 1^st

J → 2^nd

L → 3^rd

U → 4^th

V → 5^th

Q → 6^th

M → 7^th

B → 8^th

U → 9^th

X → 10^th

H → 11^th

C → 12^th

Therefore, the sixth letter from the left is Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Words:

1. Spending
2. Spectral
3. Specimen
4. Safeguard
5. Stardust

Arrangement in English dictionary order:

Step 1: Compare the first letters.

Safeguard (Sa...) comes before all the words beginning with Sp and St.

Step 2: Compare the words beginning with Spe.

Specimen (Spec...) comes before Spectral (Spect...) because Spec comes before Spect.

Spectral (Spect...) comes before Spending (Spen...) because c comes before n.

Step 3: Stardust (St...) comes after all the Sp... words because t comes after p.

Final Dictionary Order:

Safeguard → Specimen → Spectral → Spending → Stardust

Corresponding order:

4, 3, 2, 1, 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Total people = 51

Veena is 17^th from the left end.

There are 18 people between Veena and Lokesh.

Formula Used:

Position of Lokesh from the left = Position of Veena + 18 + 1

Calculation:

Position of Lokesh from the left = 17 + 18 + 1 = 36^th

Position of Lokesh from the right = 51 − 36 + 1 = 16^th

Hence, Lokesh is 16^th from the right end.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

दी गई श्रृंखला है:

(बाएँ) 3 * 7 9 6 £ < 4 3 % * 3 4 Ω @ 1   7 9 ! # 5 2 (दाएँ)

हमें ऐसे प्रतीकों को खोजना है जिनके ठीक पहले एक विषम संख्या हो, लेकिन ठीक बाद में कोई सम संख्या न हो।

शर्त: विषम संख्या → प्रतीक → विषम संख्या/प्रतीक (जो सम संख्या नहीं है)

श्रृंखला का विश्लेषण करने पर:

यहाँ चार ऐसे प्रतीक समूह प्राप्त होते हैं:

1. 3 * 7 (विषम संख्या - प्रतीक - विषम संख्या)
2. **3 % *** (विषम संख्या - प्रतीक - प्रतीक)
3. 1 [प्रतीक] 7 (श्रृंखला के रिक्त स्थान में स्थित प्रतीक)
4. 9 ! # (विषम संख्या - प्रतीक - प्रतीक)

अतः, दी गई श्रृंखला में ऐसे चार प्रतीक हैं।

इसलिए, सही उत्तर चार है।

Given Series:

(Left) M = N & L K S = G A + E * B # @ V U % > F L U (Right)

Required pattern:

Symbol → Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) M = N & L K S = G A + E * B # @ V U % > F L U (Right)

Symbols satisfying the condition:

→ @ in (# @ V)

→ > in (% > F)

Therefore, there are 2 such symbols.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Based on the given information, we can determine the exam schedule for each person from Monday to Sunday by analyzing the constraints step-by-step.

1) D has an exam on the last day of the week, which is Sunday.

2) Only three people have exams between F and D. This means F must have an exam on Wednesday (since Thursday, Friday, and Saturday would be the three intervening days).

3) E has an exam on some day before G, and there is exactly one person between them. Also, N has an exam immediately the day before O.

4) Let's test the possible positions for E and G:

• If E is on Tuesday and G is on Thursday, then N and O must take the consecutive slots on Friday and Saturday. This leaves Monday for M.
• If E is on Thursday and G is on Saturday, then N and O must take Monday and Tuesday. This leaves Friday for M. However, the condition states M does not have an exam on Friday.

Therefore, the first case is the correct arrangement.

Final Exam Schedule:

Now, let's find how many people have exams between M and N:

M has an exam on Monday.

N has an exam on Friday.

The people with exams between them are on Tuesday, Wednesday, and Thursday, which are E, F, and G.

The number of people between M and N = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is to arrange seven people (A, B, C, D, E, F, and G) in a row facing north based on the provided constraints.

Step 1: Only two people sit to the left of C. This means C is in the 3rd position from the left.

Step 2: Only three people sit between C and F. Since C is at the 3rd position, F must be at the 7th position (as there is no space to the left).

Step 3: Only one person sits between F and B. Since F is at the 7th position, B must be at the 5th position.

Step 4: E sits to the immediate left of A. We need two adjacent vacant seats. The available positions are 1, 2, 4, and 6. The only adjacent vacant spots are 1 and 2. Therefore, E is at the 1st position and A is at the 2nd position.

Step 5: D is not an immediate neighbor of F. The remaining positions are 4 and 6. Since F is at the 7th position, D cannot be at the 6th position. Thus, D must be at the 4th position and the remaining person G will be at the 6th position.

The final linear arrangement is as follows:

Based on the arrangement, the people sitting to the right of D are B, G, and F.

Number of people to the right of D = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the given information, seven people are sitting in a row facing North. Let us determine their positions step-by-step from left to right (positions 1 to 7).

1. No one sits to the left of D:

This implies that D is sitting at the extreme left end of the row.

2. Only four people sit between D and G:

Since D is at position 1, counting four spaces (2, 3, 4, 5) leads G to be at position 6.

3. Only three people sit to the right of E:

In a row of seven, the position with exactly three seats to its right is position 4 (7 − 3 = 4). Therefore, E sits at position 4.

4. F sits to the immediate left of C:

We need two adjacent vacant seats for F and C. Currently, positions 2, 3, 5, and 7 are vacant. The only consecutive pair available is 2 and 3. Thus, F sits at position 2 and C sits at position 3.

5. B is not an immediate neighbor of E:

The neighbors of E (at position 4) are positions 3 and 5. Position 3 is already occupied by C. B cannot sit at position 5. Therefore, B must sit at the only other available spot, which is position 7.

6. Final Placement:

The remaining person A must occupy the remaining vacant seat at position 5.

The final seating arrangement is:

To find how many people sit to the right of A:

A is at position 5. The people to the right of A are G (position 6) and B (position 7).

Total count = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is the comparison of common words and their respective codes across the given statements to identify specific mappings.

Therefore, the code for ‘water’ is ‘hj’.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is the comparison method of coding, where each letter in a word is associated with a specific digit in its code.

Given:

MILK is coded as '8357'

LIKE is coded as '1857'

Therefore, the code for E is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is based on Blood Relation mapping and generation analysis.

Step-by-step breakdown of the relationships:

1. S is the wife of D: This establishes that S (−) is the female spouse and D (+) is the male spouse. They form a married couple.

2. D is the father of F: Since D is the husband of S, S must be the mother of F.

3. F is the brother of H: This indicates that F and H are siblings belonging to the same generation.

4. H is the sister of K: This indicates that H and K are also siblings. Thus, F, H, and K are all children of the couple S and D.

Relationship Summary:

According to the family structure, S is the parent of F, H, and K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Based on the information provided, we can determine the arrangement of the seven boxes (P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V) step by step.

1) Exactly 2 boxes are kept above V: This places V in the 3rd position from the top.

2) Exactly 2 boxes are kept below Q: This places Q in the 5th position from the top (as there are 7 boxes in total).

3) R is kept immediately below P: This means P and R must be in consecutive slots (P followed by R).

4) Exactly 2 boxes are kept between P and U, and 2 boxes are kept between U and T: Let's test the positions. If P is in the 1st position and R is in the 2nd position, then U must be in the 4th position (to have 2 boxes R and V between P and U). If U is in the 4th position, then T must be in the 7th position (to have 2 boxes Q and S between U and T).

The final arrangement is as follows:

The question asks how many boxes are kept below U.

From the table, the boxes below U are Q, S, and T.

Total number of boxes below U = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given statement: K > A ≤ Q > T = N

Conclusions:

i) Q < K → False (As K > A ≤ Q > T = N. We know that both K and Q are greater than A, but the exact relationship between K and Q cannot be determined. Therefore, Q < K does not definitely follow.)

ii) N < Q → True (As Q > T = N. Since T = N and Q > T, therefore Q > N, i.e., N < Q definitely follows.)

So, only Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is based on establishing a family tree from the given statements.

Breaking down the relationships:

1. C is the father of V.
2. V is the sister of H → This implies V and H are siblings (V is female).
3. H is the brother of J → This implies H and J are siblings (H is male).
4. From the points above, V, H, and J are all siblings and are the children of C.
5. J is the wife of L → This implies J is female and L is her husband.

Determining the relation between C and L:

Since J is the daughter of C and L is the husband of J, then C is the father of L's wife.

In terms of relationship, C is the father-in-law of L, which is specifically described as the Wife's father.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given statement: T > R = A ≥ C = E

Conclusions:

i) E ≤ R → True (As T > R = A ≥ C = E. Since R = A, A ≥ C, and C = E, therefore R ≥ E, i.e., E ≤ R definitely follows.)

ii) T > E → True (As T > R = A ≥ C = E. Since T > R and R ≥ E, therefore T > E definitely follows.)

So, both Conclusion I and Conclusion II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Based on the given information, we can determine the arrangement of boxes step-by-step by following the constraints:

1. Q is kept immediately above S.

2. Exactly 2 boxes are kept between P and S.

3. Exactly 1 box is kept between T and Q.

4. At least 3 boxes are kept above P.

5. R is kept immediately below V, and P is kept above V.

By analyzing these conditions, the only possible arrangement that satisfies all constraints is as follows:

Based on the final arrangement, we can see the number of boxes kept above S:

Position 1: Q (1 box)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is the comparison of codes for the given words to identify the specific digit assigned to each letter.

Given:

FIVE is coded as 3514

FINE is coded as 6514

Therefore, the code for 'N' is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Solution

Given Statements:

All stones are bricks.

All stones are pebbles.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. All bricks are stones - Does not follow (Because while all stones are bricks, it is not necessarily true that all bricks are stones.)

II. All pebbles are bricks - Does not follow (Because there is no direct relation given that all pebbles must be bricks; they only share the stones area.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Signs interchange:

The given equation is:

72 + 8 ÷ 11 − 2 × 18 = ?

After replacing the signs as per the rule, the modified equation becomes:

= 72 ÷ 8 + 11 × 2 − 18

= 9 + 11 × 2 - 18

= 9 + 22 - 18

= 31 - 18

= 13

Therefore, the value of the equation after interchanging the signs is 13.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Operator Mapping:

Given Expression:

78 Q 2 R 15 Q 3 S 4 P 2 S 10 Q 5 R 12 Q 6 S 3 = ?

Replacing the letters with operators, we get:

= 78 ÷ 2 − 15 ÷ 3 + 4 × 2 + 10 ÷ 5 − 12 ÷ 6 + 3

= 39 - 5 + 4 × 2 + 2 - 2 + 3

= 39 - 5 + 8 + 3

= 50 - 5

= 45

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 45.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Decoded Table:

Given Equation:

9 D 8 A 4 C 4 B 12 = ?

By replacing the letters with their respective mathematical operators, the expression becomes:

= 9 − 8 ÷ 4 + 4 × 12

= 9 - 2 + 4 × 12

= 9 - 2 + 48

= 57 - 2

= 55

Therefore, the value that will come in place of question mark is 55.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of the letters in the English alphabetical order and the difference between them.

Option 1: JEL

Option 2: DYT

Option 3: MHO

Option 4: RMT

The pattern followed in groups JEL, MHO, and RMT is (−5, +7). However, DYT follows the pattern (−5, −5).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For NJMR to TPSX

For LHKP to RNQV

The common pattern is that every letter in the group is shifted forward by 6 positions in the English alphabetical order.

For JFIN to ?

Applying the same logic, the related word for JFIN is PLOT.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (First number × 5) + 2 = Second number

For (5, 27) →

Calculation: 5 × 5 = 25 + 2 = 27 

For (7, 37) →

Calculation: 7 × 5 = 35 + 2 = 37

Similarly, checking for the Option 1) (9, 47):

Calculation: 9 × 5 = 45 + 2 = 47

Therefore, the number-pair (9, 47) follows the same relationship.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic: The letters in the second cluster are obtained by adding 1 to the positional values of the corresponding letters in the first cluster.

Checking the pairs:

1. RO-RR →

2. ZW-AX →

3. WT-XU →

4. IF-JG →

In all pairs except RO-RR, the pattern followed is +1 for both letters. In RO-RR, the additions are +0 and +3 respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For BEJF to HKPL

For FINJ to LOTP

The common pattern followed is a constant addition of +6 to the positional value of each letter in the English alphabetical series.

Similarly, for KNSO:

Following the same logic, KNSO is related to QTYU.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Logic followed here is:

The series follows a pattern where the difference between consecutive terms decreases by a constant value of 10.

Pattern analysis:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: In each letter-cluster pair, the difference between the positional values of the two letters in the first cluster is 1, and the difference between the positional values of the two letters in the second cluster is 9 (following a circular alphabetical order where necessary).

1. AB-QZ:

2. UV-KT:

3. FG-VE:

4) LM-BH:

The observed pattern is a difference of 1 for the first cluster and 9 for the second cluster. The pair LM-BH does not follow this pattern because its second cluster has a difference of 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First Number × 6) + Second Number = Third Number

For the set (2, 3, 15)

= (2 × 6) + 3 = 12 + 3 = 15

For the set (4, 8, 32)

= (4 × 6) + 8 = 24 + 8 = 32

Similarly, let us check the given options for the same pattern:

For the set (13, 4, 82)

= (13 × 6) + 4 = 78 + 4 = 82

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The main figure is a 2 × 2 grid. Each of the four quadrants must contain a circle with a vertical and horizontal line passing through its center to maintain the geometric symmetry of the overall pattern.

Therefore, the figure that will replace the question mark is Option (1).

Given:

Number = 1357483

Rule:

Add 1 to each odd digit.

Subtract 2 from each even digit.

Calculation:

New number = 2468264

Third digit from the left = 6

Second digit from the right = 6

Required sum = 6 + 6 = 12.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series follows a pattern where the difference between consecutive terms increases as consecutive multiples of 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is:

The difference between the consecutive terms in the given series follows the pattern of multiples of 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is based on the properties of a Water Image (reflection along a horizontal mirror).

Logic: When a mirror is placed horizontally along the X-Y line at the bottom of a figure, the resulting image is a Water Reflection. In this reflection, the top and bottom parts of the figure are interchanged, while the left and right sides remain in their original positions.

Therefore, the correct water reflection of the given figure is Option (4).

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First Number × 4) + 2 = Second Number

For the given sets:

7, 30 →

(7 × 4) + 2 = 28 + 2 = 30

11, 46 →

(11 × 4) + 2 = 44 + 2 = 46

The pattern observed is: The second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 4 and then adding 2 to the result.

Similarly, checking the options:

Option (1) 13, 53 → (13 × 4) + 2 = 52 + 2 = 54 ≠ 53

Option (2) 13, 54 → (13 × 4) + 2 = 52 + 2 = 54

Option (3) 14, 53 → (14 × 4) + 2 = 56 + 2 = 58 ≠ 53

Option (4) 14, 54 → (14 × 4) + 2 = 56 + 2 = 58 ≠ 54

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of the English alphabet:

For JORN to PUXT

For GLOK to MRUQ

The common pattern is a constant addition of +6 to the positional value of each letter.

Following the same logic for CHKG:

Applying the logic of adding 6 to each character, we get INQM.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

According to the question, the symbols are interchanged as follows:

Given Equation:

21 × 48 + 4 ÷ 6 − 3 = ?

After interchanging the symbols as per the table, the new equation becomes:

= 21 − 48 ÷ 4 + 6 × 3 

= 21 - 12 + 6 × 3

= 21 - 12 + 18

= 39 - 12

= 27

Therefore, the value that will come in the place of '?' is 27.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

सही उत्तर कविंदर गुप्ता है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• कविंदर गुप्ता को मार्च 2026 में हिमाचल प्रदेश के नए राज्यपाल के रूप में नियुक्त करने की घोषणा की गई है, जो राज्य के संवैधानिक प्रमुख के रूप में कार्यभार संभालेंगे।
• भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 155 के तहत, किसी राज्य के राज्यपाल की नियुक्ति भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा की जाती है।
• राज्यपाल राज्य का कार्यकारी प्रमुख होता है और वह केंद्र सरकार और राज्य सरकार के बीच एक महत्वपूर्ण सेतु के रूप में कार्य करता है।
• अनुच्छेद 157 के अनुसार, राज्यपाल बनने के लिए व्यक्ति का भारत का नागरिक होना और 35 वर्ष की आयु पूरी करना अनिवार्य योग्यता है।
• राज्यपाल का कार्यकाल सामान्यतः 5 वर्ष का होता है, लेकिन वह राष्ट्रपति के प्रसादपर्यंत (Pleasure of the President) पद धारण करता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• शिव प्रताप शुक्ला:
• इन्होंने फरवरी 2023 में हिमाचल प्रदेश के 29वें राज्यपाल के रूप में शपथ ली थी और वे उत्तर प्रदेश से राज्यसभा के पूर्व सदस्य रह चुके हैं।
• राजेंद्र अर्लेकर:
• इन्होंने जुलाई 2021 से फरवरी 2023 तक हिमाचल प्रदेश के राज्यपाल के रूप में कार्य किया, जिसके बाद उन्हें बिहार का राज्यपाल नियुक्त किया गया।
• जिष्णु देव वर्मा:
• वे त्रिपुरा के पूर्व उपमुख्यमंत्री हैं और उन्हें जुलाई 2024 में तेलंगाना के राज्यपाल के रूप में नियुक्त किया गया था।

The correct answer is Bhubaneswar.

Key Points

• The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) announced the hosting of the inaugural National Indoor Athletics Championships in March 2026.
• The event is scheduled to take place at the Kalinga Indoor Athletics Stadium in Bhubaneswar, the capital of Odisha, which houses India's first state-of-the-art indoor track.
• This championship marks a significant evolution in Indian sports, providing athletes a platform to compete in a temperature-controlled environment with standard 200-meter banked tracks.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to help Indian athletes qualify for prestigious international events such as the World Athletics Indoor Championships and the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships.
• The Odisha Government, in collaboration with the Reliance Foundation, has been instrumental in developing this infrastructure at the Kalinga Stadium complex, fostering a High-Performance Centre (HPC) for track and field athletes.

 Additional Information

• Bhubaneswar: The Sports Hub:
• Recognized as the Sports Capital of India, the city has successfully hosted the 2017 Asian Athletics Championships and the 2018 and 2023 FIH Men's Hockey World Cups.
• The Kalinga Stadium is a multi-purpose international complex that features world-class facilities for football, hockey, tennis, and athletics.
• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• Established in 1946, it is the peak body for athletics in India and is affiliated with World Athletics and the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
• The federation manages the selection and training of athletes for major global stages including the Summer Olympics and the Commonwealth Games.
• Nature of Indoor Athletics:
• Unlike outdoor tracks (400m), indoor tracks are 200m and require athletes to navigate steeper curves, often with hydraulic banking.
• Standard events include the 60m dash, 60m hurdles, and middle-distance races, while long-distance throws like Hammer and Javelin are typically excluded.

The correct answer is Photo-capacitor.

Key Points

• The Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences (CeNS), an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, announced the development of a highly efficient Photo-capacitor in January 2026.
• A Photo-capacitor is an integrated energy device that combines the functions of a solar cell (light harvesting) and a supercapacitor (energy storage) into a single, compact unit.
• This innovation addresses the intermittency of solar energy by allowing the device to capture photons and store the generated electrical charge simultaneously, ensuring a steady power supply even in the absence of light.
• The researchers utilized nanostructured materials and hybrid perovskites to enhance the photo-charging rate and the overall capacitance of the system, marking a breakthrough in sustainable electronics.
• By eliminating the need for external wires and separate battery components, this device significantly reduces energy dissipation and improves the efficiency of self-powered systems and wearable technology.

 Additional Information

• Photovoltaic Cell:
• Commonly known as a Solar Cell, it converts light energy directly into electricity via the photovoltaic effect.
• Unlike the photo-capacitor, it requires external batteries or grids for storing the electricity it generates.
• Fuel Cell:
• An electrochemical device that converts the chemical energy of a fuel, typically hydrogen, and an oxidizing agent into electricity.
• It is distinct from a capacitor as it produces electricity through a continuous chemical reaction rather than storing a static charge.
• Thermoelectric Generator:
• A solid-state device that converts heat flux (temperature differences) directly into electrical energy using the Seebeck effect.
• It is primarily used for waste heat recovery in industrial processes and deep-space missions.
• CeNS Bengaluru:
• Located in Karnataka, this premier research hub focuses on nanoscience, liquid crystals, and smart materials.
• It plays a pivotal role in the Nano Mission of India, fostering innovations in energy harvesting and optoelectronics.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The My Village, Healthy Village (Majha Gaon, Arogya Gaon) campaign was launched by the Government of Maharashtra in April 2026 to decentralize healthcare management and empower rural local bodies.
• The core objective of this initiative is to achieve universal health coverage at the grassroots level by transforming Gram Panchayats into self-sustaining units for health monitoring and disease prevention.
• The campaign focuses on the early detection of non-communicable diseases (NCDs), such as hypertension and diabetes, through organized village-level health camps and digital health registries.
• It mandates the active involvement of ASHA workers, Anganwadi Sevikas, and local health officials to ensure that medical services reach the last mile of the rural population.
• A significant component of the campaign includes the upgrading of Sub-Centres and Primary Health Centres (PHCs) to provide better diagnostic and emergency care services.

 Additional Information

• Haryana:
• The state is recognized for its e-Upchaar initiative, which provides a centralized platform for hospital management and electronic health records.
• Uttar Pradesh:
• Known for the Sanchari Rog Niyantran Abhiyan, a large-scale campaign dedicated to controlling vector-borne and communicable diseases.
• Punjab:
• Successfully implemented the Aam Aadmi Clinics model to provide free primary healthcare and essential medicines to urban and rural citizens.
• Maharashtra Health Infrastructure:
• The state effectively utilizes the Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jan Arogya Yojana (MJPJAY) to provide cashless insurance coverage for specialized medical procedures.
• Maharashtra ranks high in the Public Health Index due to its robust network of Community Health Officers (CHOs) and district-level wellness centers.

The correct answer is प्रकट बेरोजगारी.

मुख्य बिंदु

• प्रकट बेरोजगारी, जिसे खुली बेरोजगारी भी कहा जाता है, उस स्थिति को संदर्भित करती है जिसमें श्रमिक कार्य करने के लिए पूरी तरह से तैयार और सक्षम होता है, लेकिन उसे प्रचलित बाजार मजदूरी दर पर कोई रोजगार प्राप्त नहीं होता।
• यह स्थिति मुख्य रूप से उन विकासशील देशों में देखी जाती है जहाँ श्रम बल की वृद्धि दर, पूंजी निर्माण और रोजगार सृजन की दर से काफी अधिक होती है।
• प्रकट बेरोजगारी में व्यक्ति की बेरोजगारी स्पष्ट रूप से दिखाई देती है क्योंकि उसके पास आय का कोई नियमित स्रोत नहीं होता और वह सक्रिय रूप से काम की तलाश में लगा रहता है।
• भारत जैसे देशों में, यह समस्या ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों से शहरी क्षेत्रों की ओर पलायन करने वाले अकुशल और अर्द्ध-कुशल श्रमिकों में व्यापक रूप से पाई जाती है।
• इस प्रकार की बेरोजगारी का मापन राष्ट्रीय सांख्यिकीय कार्यालय (NSO) द्वारा समय-समय पर किए जाने वाले आवधिक श्रम बल सर्वेक्षण (PLFS) के माध्यम से किया जाता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• चक्रीय बेरोजगारी:
• यह अर्थव्यवस्था में आने वाले व्यापार चक्र के उतार-चढ़ाव से जुड़ी होती है।
• आर्थिक मंदी या मंदी के दौरान वस्तुओं की मांग कम होने पर उत्पादन घटता है, जिससे बड़े पैमाने पर श्रमिकों की छंटनी होती है।
• संरचनात्मक बेरोजगारी:
• यह तब उत्पन्न होती है जब बाजार में उपलब्ध नौकरियों के प्रकार और श्रमिकों के कौशल के बीच एक बड़ा अंतराल या बेमेल (Mismatch) होता है।
• नई प्रौद्योगिकी के आगमन या औद्योगिक ढांचे में बदलाव के कारण पुराने कौशल वाले लोग बेरोजगार हो जाते हैं।
• स्वैच्छिक बेरोजगारी:
• यह तब होती है जब कोई व्��क्ति काम करने के लिए शारीरिक रूप से सक्षम होता है, लेकिन वह प्रचलित वेतन दर पर काम नहीं करना चाहता।
• इसे वास्तविक बेरोजगारी की श्रेणी में नहीं गिना जाता क्योंकि व्यक्ति अपनी इच्छा से श्रम बाजार से बाहर रहता है।

The correct answer is Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Key Points

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and is famously recognized as the political mentor of Mahatma Gandhi.
• When Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915, Gokhale advised him to travel throughout the country for one year to understand the ground realities and the needs of the Indian people before joining active politics.
• Gokhale was a leading figure of the Moderate faction of the Congress, believing in constitutional agitation and peaceful negotiations with the British government.
• In his autobiography, Gandhi described Gokhale as pure as crystal, gentle as a lamb, brave as a lion and chivalrous to a fault, highlighting the deep respect he held for his mentor.
• Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 with the objective of training Indians to serve their motherland in a selfless manner.

 Additional Information

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Known as Lokmanya, he was a key leader of the Extremist faction and advocated for Swaraj (Self-rule).
• He launched the Home Rule League in 1916 and published the journals Kesari and Mahratta.
• Lala Lajpat Rai:
• Popularly known as Punjab Kesari, he was a prominent leader of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
• He played a vital role in the Arya Samaj and died while protesting against the Simon Commission in 1928.
• Bipin Chandra Pal:
• Often called the Father of Revolutionary Thoughts in India, he was a major proponent of the Swadeshi Movement.
• He used his journalism and oratory to awaken the masses against British imperialism during the Partition of Bengal.

The correct answer is Enhancing rural drinking water governance through real-time data and information access.

Key Points

• The Sujalam Bharat App was launched by the Union Government in December 2025 to serve as a digital backbone for monitoring the progress of rural water supply projects across the country.
• The primary objective of the application is to strengthen rural drinking water governance by utilizing real-time data to track the functionality of household tap connections.
• It provides a transparent information access portal for stakeholders, including the Ministry of Jal Shakti and local Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), to ensure the sustainability of water sources.
• The app incorporates Geospatial Mapping and Internet of Things (IoT) sensors to monitor water quality, quantity, and regularity of supply, directly supporting the goals of the Jal Jeevan Mission.
• By digitizing grievance redressal and project reporting, the app aims to reduce delays in infrastructure maintenance and ensure accountability at the village level.

 Additional Information

• Financial Inclusion:
• Involves providing affordable digital banking and financial services to the unbanked population through initiatives like PM Jan Dhan Yojana.
• Livelihood Opportunities:
• Focuses on skill development and vocational training under programs like PMKVY to improve employability and entrepreneurship in rural areas.
• Digital Education:
• Aims to bridge the digital divide using online learning platforms like SWAYAM and DIKSHA to provide quality education to remote locations.
• Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):
• A flagship central scheme aimed at providing Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural home, emphasizing community-led water management.

The correct answer is The proportion of total deposit to be kept in the form of cash.

Key Points

• The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a mandatory percentage of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that must be maintained as a reserve in the form of liquid cash.
• These reserves are kept with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which is the Central Bank of the country, ensuring the safety of the banking system and providing a buffer for liquidity.
• The CRR is a vital Quantitative Monetary Policy instrument used by the RBI to regulate the money supply, influence inflation, and manage the overall cost of credit in the economy.
• Commercial banks do not earn any interest income or profit on the amount held as CRR with the central bank, making it a non-earning asset for the banks.
• When the RBI aims to reduce excess liquidity (to curb inflation), it increases the CRR, which restricts the amount of funds banks have available for lending.
• Conversely, a reduction in the CRR injects more money into the system, allowing banks to offer more loans and stimulate economic investment.

 Additional Information

• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• While CRR is kept with the RBI in cash, the SLR is the reserve that banks must maintain with themselves in the form of gold, cash, or government-approved securities.
• Legal Mandate:
• The Reserve Bank of India derives its power to fix the CRR under Section 42(1) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• Credit Multiplier Effect:
• The CRR inversely affects the money multiplier; a higher ratio results in a lower multiplier, thereby limiting the credit expansion capabilities of the banking sector.
• Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL):
• NDTL represents the total demand deposits (like savings and current accounts) and time deposits (like fixed deposits) held by a bank, minus its deposits with other banks.

The correct answer is Growth is limited to industries that use machines instead of people.

Key Points

• The scenario described is a classic example of jobless growth, an economic condition where National Income or Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increases without a corresponding expansion in employment opportunities.
• When growth is concentrated in capital-intensive industries, businesses rely heavily on automation, robotics, and advanced technology to drive production, which minimizes the need for human labor.
• In such economies, labor productivity rises because machines can produce more output per hour than human workers. Consequently, National Income grows due to higher efficiency and corporate profits, but the unemployment rate remains stagnant.
• This trend is often reflected in a low employment elasticity of growth. For instance, in India during the 1990s and early 2000s, the economy experienced high GDP growth while the employment growth rate plummeted to near zero in the organized sector.
• Capital-biased technological change shifts the demand toward a small number of highly skilled technicians to maintain equipment, leaving the broader unskilled or semi-skilled labor force unemployed despite economic prosperity.

 Additional Information

• Sectors and Employment Dynamics
• Service Sector Hiring: If growth were led by massive hiring in services, the unemployment rate would drop significantly, as this sector includes labor-intensive areas like hospitality, retail, and education.
• Agricultural Employment: Increased hiring by farmers would directly absorb rural labor, reducing both open unemployment and disguised unemployment.
• Structural Unemployment: This situation is exacerbated by skill mismatches, where the workforce cannot transition from traditional sectors to high-tech industries due to a lack of technical education.
• Demographic Dividend: Sustained high unemployment during periods of growth prevents a nation from utilizing its young population, leading to economic inequality and potential social unrest.

The correct answer is Difference between the value of output and the value of intermediate consumption.

Key Points

• The Value Added Method, also known as the Product Method or Industrial Origin Method, is used to measure National Income by calculating the net contribution of every producing enterprise in the domestic territory of a country.
• Value Added is defined as the difference between the Value of Output (the market value of all goods and services produced) and the Intermediate Consumption (the cost of non-factor inputs like raw materials, fuel, and electricity used in the production process).
• The fundamental equation for this method is: Value Added = Value of Output − Intermediate Consumption.
• The sum total of the Gross Value Added at Market Price (GVA_MP) of all producing sectors (Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary) in an economy during an accounting year gives the Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_MP).
• This method effectively eliminates the problem of Double Counting, which occurs if the value of intermediate goods is included along with the value of the final product.

 Additional Information

• Value of Output:
• If the entire output of the year is sold, Value of Output = Sales.
• If some output remains unsold, Value of Output = Sales + Change in Stock.
• Change in Stock is calculated as Closing Stock − Opening Stock.
• Intermediate Consumption:
• It refers to the expenditure incurred by a production unit on purchasing goods and services from other production units which are meant for resale or for entire use in the same year.
• Alternative Methods:
• Expenditure Method: Calculates National Income by summing up all final expenditures in the economy, including Private Final Consumption Expenditure, Government Final Consumption Expenditure, Gross Domestic Capital Formation, and Net Exports.
• Income Method: Measures National Income from the side of payments made to the primary factors of production in the form of Rent, Wages, Interest, and Profit.

सही उत्तर बुनाई के लिए खरीदे गए सूती धागे की लागत है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• परिवर्ती लागत (Variable Cost) वह लागत होती है जो किसी फर्म के उत्पादन स्तर में बदलाव के साथ सीधे आनुपातिक रूप से बदलती रहती है। यदि उत्पादन बढ़ता है, तो यह लागत बढ़ जाती है, और यदि उत्पादन शून्य हो जाता है, तो यह लागत भी घटकर शून्य हो सकती है।
• एक कपड़ा मिल के लिए, सूती धागा एक प्राथमिक कच्चा माल (Raw Material) है। मिल जितना अधिक कपड़ा तैयार करेगी, उसे उतने ही अधिक धागे की आवश्यकता होगी, जिससे इस पर होने वाला खर्च उत्पादन की मात्रा के साथ घटता-बढ़ता रहता है।
• अर्थशास्त्र में, परिवर्ती लागतों में कच्चे माल की लागत, प्रत्यक्ष श्रम व्यय और उत्पादन प्रक्रिया में उपयोग की जाने वाली बिजली या ईंधन जैसे खर्च शामिल होते हैं।
• चूंकि सूती धागे की खरीद सीधे मिल के दैनिक उत्पादन आउटपुट से जुड़ी होती है, इसलिए इसे 'परिवर्ती लागत' का एक आदर्श उदाहरण माना जाता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• स्थिर लागत (Fixed Cost): यह वह लागत है जो उत्पादन के स्तर में होने वाले परिवर्तनों से प्रभावित नहीं होती है और इसे फर्म को उत्पादन न होने की स्थिति में भी भुगतान करना पड़ता है।
• दीर्घकालिक बैंक ऋण पर ब्याज: यह एक अनुबंधात्मक भुगतान है जो ऋण की राशि और ब्याज दर पर निर्भर करता है, न कि इस बात पर कि मिल ने कितना कपड़ा बनाया है।
• संपत्ति बीमा प्रीमियम: बीमा की किस्त एक नियत समय अंतराल पर दी जाती है और इसका उत्पादन की मात्रा से कोई सीधा संबंध नहीं होता है।
• स्थायी प्रबंधक का वेतन: स्थायी कर्मचारियों का वेतन निश्चित ऊपरी व्यय (Fixed Overhead) के अंतर्गत आता है, क्योंकि उन्हें उत्पादन कम होने पर भी पूरा वेतन देना पड़ता है।

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati.

Key Points

• Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati developed a high-efficiency, dual-purpose system that simultaneously generates clean hydrogen fuel and produces freshwater via seawater desalination.
• The innovation utilizes solar-driven interfacial evaporation, where a specialized nanocomposite material absorbs sunlight to heat a thin layer of water, converting it into steam for distillation.
• Integrated within this material are photocatalytic agents that leverage the same solar energy to facilitate water-splitting reactions, successfully producing hydrogen gas (H₂) without the need for external electricity.
• The material is designed with a porous structure to facilitate capillary action for water transport and features high light-to-heat conversion efficiency, often exceeding 85% in lab-scale prototypes.
• This technology addresses the critical global challenges of energy transition and water scarcity, providing a low-cost, decentralized solution for coastal and arid regions.

 Additional Information

• IIT Guwahati:
• Located in Assam, it was the sixth Indian Institute of Technology established in 1994.
• The institute is renowned for its research in Chemical Engineering, Nanotechnology, and Renewable Energy Systems.
• Seawater Desalination Processes:
• Traditional methods include Reverse Osmosis (RO) and Multi-Stage Flash (MSF) distillation, which are energy-intensive and rely heavily on fossil fuels.
• The solar-thermal approach developed by IIT Guwahati offers a carbon-neutral alternative by utilizing renewable solar flux.
• Hydrogen Fuel Properties:
• Green Hydrogen is an energy carrier produced with zero carbon emissions, making it essential for achieving Net Zero targets by 2070.
• It has a high energy density and produces only water vapor as a byproduct when combusted or used in fuel cells.

The correct answer is Calcutta.

Key Points

• On 15 August 1947, while the official independence celebrations were taking place in New Delhi, Mahatma Gandhi was stationed in Calcutta (now Kolkata).
• He chose to stay in the riot-affected area of Beliaghata at Hyderi Mansion, a building owned by a Muslim family, to appeal for peace and communal harmony between Hindus and Muslims.
• Instead of celebrating, Gandhi spent the day fasting, praying, and spinning yarn as a mark of protest against the Partition of India and the accompanying communal violence.
• His presence and moral influence were so effective in calming the riots that the last Viceroy, Lord Mountbatten, referred to him as a 'one-man boundary force' for maintaining peace in Bengal while Punjab faced massive bloodshed.

 Additional Information

• Regional Context of 1947:
• Delhi: The National Capital served as the stage for the formal transfer of power where Jawaharlal Nehru delivered the 'Tryst with Destiny' speech at midnight.
• Lahore: Once a center of the Indian National Congress (where the Purna Swaraj resolution was passed in 1929), it became part of Pakistan during the Partition and witnessed extreme violence.
• Bombay: This city was the birthplace of the Quit India Movement in 1942 but was not the primary site of Gandhi's activities during the final hours of August 1947.
• Communal Harmony: Gandhi's mission in Calcutta was driven by the Noakhali riots and the Direct Action Day (1946) consequences, which had deeply divided Bengal.

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

• The Amaravati Stupa, historically known as the Deepaladinne or the Mahachaitya, is located in the Amaravati village of Guntur district in Andhra Pradesh, situated on the banks of the Krishna River.
• The construction of the stupa began during the reign of Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE, but it reached its architectural zenith under the patronage of the Satavahana Dynasty and later the Ikshvaku Dynasty between the 2nd century BCE and 3rd century CE.
• It is the type-site for the Amaravati School of Art, which is distinguished by its narrative sculptures carved in white marble (palnad limestone) depicting the Jataka tales and various stages of the life of Lord Buddha.
• The structure is unique for its Ayaka platforms located at the four cardinal directions, which support five Ayaka pillars each, symbolizing the five major events in Buddha's life: Birth, Renunciation, Enlightenment, First Sermon, and Parinirvana.

 Additional Information

• River Systems and Locations:
• Godavari River: It is the largest peninsular river, often called Vriddha Ganga. While it flows through Andhra Pradesh, it is associated with other Buddhist sites like Guntupalli and Bavikonda rather than Amaravati.
• Kaveri River: Flowing through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, this river is central to the Chola and Hoysala civilizations, but it does not host the Amaravati Buddhist complex.
• Narmada River: This westward-flowing river moves through Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. It is geographically distant from the Buddhist cultural heartland of the Andhra region.
• Discovery and Preservation:
• The ruins were discovered in 1797 by Colonel Colin Mackenzie. Many of the intricate relief medallions and panels were later moved to the British Museum (known as the Amaravati Marbles) and the Government Museum in Chennai.

The correct answer is Sabarmati.

Key Points

• The Salt March, also known as the Dandi March or the Salt Satyagraha, was a major nonviolent protest action initiated by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930.
• The march commenced on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram located in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, which served as Gandhi's residence and headquarters for the freedom struggle.
• Gandhi was accompanied by 78 trusted volunteers (satyagrahis) representing different regions and religions of India to showcase national unity against British rule.
• The participants walked for 24 days, covering a total distance of approximately 240 miles (385 kilometers) through various villages of Gujarat to reach the coast.
• The protest targeted the Salt Act of 1882, which granted the British a monopoly over the manufacture and sale of salt, imposing a heavy tax on a commodity essential to every Indian household.
• On April 6, 1930, the march concluded as Gandhi picked up a handful of natural salt from the shores of the Arabian Sea, symbolically breaking the law and launching the Civil Disobedience Movement.

 Additional Information

• Dandi:
• This was the coastal destination in the Navsari district where the salt law was first defied by Gandhi, making it the symbolic epicenter of the Satyagraha.
• Wardha:
• In 1936, Gandhi established the Sevagram Ashram near Wardha, Maharashtra, which became his permanent residence after he vowed not to return to Sabarmati until India gained independence.
• Bardoli:
• A town in Gujarat famous for the 1928 Bardoli Satyagraha, a successful tax-resistance movement led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, which earned him the title Sardar.
• Lord Irwin:
• The then Viceroy of India who received Gandhi's 11-point demand letter before the march; the rejection of these demands led to the start of the protest.

The correct answer is Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Key Points

• Rabindranath Tagore, the renowned poet and Nobel laureate, was awarded the Knighthood (the title of 'Sir') by the British Crown in 1915 for his literary brilliance.
• He renounced this honor in May 1919 as a protest against the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, which occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab.
• During the massacre, British troops led by Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer opened fire on a peaceful, unarmed crowd of men, women, and children gathered at Jallianwala Bagh for the Baisakhi festival and to protest the Rowlatt Act.
• Tagore expressed his profound grief and outrage in a letter to the then Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford, stating that the time had come when badges of honor made our shame glaring in the context of humiliation.
• The assembly was also protesting the arrest of prominent nationalist leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal.

 Additional Information

• Lucknow Pact (1916):
• This was an agreement reached between the Indian National Congress and the All India Muslim League at a joint session held in Lucknow.
• It was a crucial step toward Hindu-Muslim unity and presented a set of common political demands to the British government.
• Chauri Chaura incident (1922):
• Occurred on February 4, 1922, in the United Provinces (modern Uttar Pradesh) when a large group of protesters set fire to a police station, killing 22 policemen.
• The violence led Mahatma Gandhi to immediately withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement as it violated his principle of Ahimsa (non-violence).
• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922):
• Launched by Mahatma Gandhi, this movement aimed at resisting British rule through non-violent means, including the boycott of British goods, courts, and educational institutions.
• During this movement, Mahatma Gandhi himself returned the 'Kaiser-i-Hind' gold medal awarded to him for his work in South Africa.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad.

Key Points

• The Asian Aquatics Championships is a premier continental-level tournament organized by Asia Aquatics, formerly known as the Asia Swimming Federation (AASF).
• In September 2025, the city of Ahmedabad in Gujarat was selected to host this prestigious event, highlighting the city's emergence as a major international sports hub in India.
• The championships encompass various aquatic disciplines, including Swimming, Diving, Water Polo, Artistic Swimming, and Open Water Swimming.
• The event serves as a critical platform for top athletes across the Asian continent to compete for titles and achieve qualifying standards for global competitions such as the World Aquatics Championships.
• The selection of Ahmedabad underscores the massive infrastructure development in the state, particularly the facilities at the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Sports Enclave, which are designed to meet Olympic standards.

 Additional Information

• New Delhi:
• The national capital has a long-standing history of hosting mega-events, including the 1951 and 1982 Asian Games and the 2010 Commonwealth Games.
• It houses the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Swimming Stadium, one of India's most iconic aquatic venues.
• Bengaluru:
• Widely regarded as the Swimming Capital of India, the city is home to the Basavanagudi Aquatic Centre and has produced numerous Arjuna Award winners and Olympians.
• Pune:
• This city features the Shree Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex in Balewadi, which is a key high-performance training center for various sports in Western India.
• Event History:
• The Asian Aquatics Championships were first inaugurated in 1980 in Dhaka, Bangladesh, aimed at fostering sporting excellence and regional cooperation within Asia.

The correct answer is Awadh.

Key Points

• Lord Dalhousie, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, was a key figure in the expansion of British territory through policies like the Doctrine of Lapse and direct annexation.
• The princely state of Awadh was formally annexed by the British East India Company in February 1856. Unlike many other states, it was not annexed due to a lack of an heir but on the specific grounds of maladministration and misgovernance.
• Wajid Ali Shah, the tenth and final Nawab of Awadh, was accused by the British of being an incompetent ruler who had allowed the state to fall into a condition of anarchy and corruption.
• The annexation was justified based on a detailed report submitted by James Outram, the then British Resident at Lucknow, which claimed that British intervention was necessary to relieve the people from the Nawab’s internal misrule.
• The forced removal of the Nawab and the annexation of Awadh caused widespread resentment among the taluqdars (landowners) and the sepoys of the Bengal Army, making it one of the most significant triggers for the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

 Additional Information

• Satara:
• This was the very first state to be annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse in 1848 after its ruler, Appa Sahib, died without a natural male heir.
• Kanpur:
• A major center during the 1857 Uprising, where the rebellion was led by Nana Sahib, the adopted son of the last Peshwa Baji Rao II, following the British refusal to continue his pension.
• Arrah:
• A key location in Bihar during the 1857 revolt, where the struggle was spearheaded by the venerable zamindar Kunwar Singh, who led successful military operations against British forces despite his advanced age.
• Doctrine of Lapse:
• An expansionist policy where the British claimed the right to annex any Indian princely state if the ruler died without a biological male heir, leading to the annexation of states like Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854).

The correct answer is MGNREGA.

Key Points

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) was passed in September 2005 and officially launched on 2nd February 2006.
• It is a demand-driven labor law and social security measure that provides a legal guarantee for at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household.
• The primary objective is to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing unskilled manual work to adult members who volunteer for it.
• Under the act, if an applicant is not provided employment within 15 days of submitting an application, they are entitled to a daily unemployment allowance paid by the State Government.
• The scheme prioritizes natural resource management, including water conservation, drought proofing, and land development, while mandating that at least one-third of the beneficiaries must be women.

 Additional Information

• PM Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA):
• Launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to provide fixed-day, free-of-cost, and quality antenatal care.
• It ensures that all pregnant women receive a minimum package of diagnostic and counseling services on the 9th day of every month during their second and third trimesters.
• PM Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY):
• Introduced in May 2016 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• It aims to safeguard the health of women and children by providing deposit-free LPG connections to households below the poverty line, replacing unclean cooking fuels.
• PM Poshan (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman):
• This is a centrally sponsored scheme, formerly known as the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, covering students in Government and Government-aided schools.
• It focuses on improving the nutritional status of children and encouraging school enrollment and retention.

The correct answer is Chandigarh.

Key Points

• The 13th Indian Open Race-Walking Competition was designated to be hosted in Chandigarh in February 2026, serving as a premier national-level athletics event.
• This competition is a flagship event under the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), designed to identify and nurture elite walking talent for international representation.
• The event typically features various distance categories, including the 20km race walk for senior men and women, alongside junior categories such as the 10km race walk.
• Hosting the event in Chandigarh provides athletes with a flat road circuit, which is essential for achieving the qualifying standards required for global championships like the World Athletics Race Walking Team Championships.
• Race walking is a specialized discipline where judges monitor ground contact and knee alignment to ensure athletes adhere to technical regulations.

 Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• It is the apex body for athletics in India and is responsible for organizing national championships and managing the National Coaching Camps.
• The federation is affiliated with World Athletics and the Asian Athletics Association.
• Technical Rules of Race Walking:
• Loss of Contact: A competitor must always have one foot in contact with the ground at all times.
• Bent Knee: The supporting leg must be straight from the point of contact with the ground until it passes under the body.
• Significance of the Venue:
• Ranchi and Patiala have also been prominent hubs for Indian athletics, with Patiala being home to the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (NSNIS).
• Chandigarh is frequently selected for its well-maintained road infrastructure and favorable climatic conditions during the month of February.

सही उत्तर भारत के प्रधानमंत्री है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 78 के अंतर्गत प्रधानमंत्री के कर्तव्यों का विशेष रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है, जो कार्यपालिका की सूचना प्रणाली को विनियमित करता है।
• यह प्रधानमंत्री का संवैधानिक उत्तरदायित्व है कि वे संघ (Union) के प्रशासन से संबंधित मंत्रिपरिषद के सभी निर्णयों और विधायी प्रस्तावों की जानकारी राष्ट्रपति को प्रदान करें।
• यदि राष्ट्रपति प्रशासन या कानून निर्माण से संबंधित किसी विशेष विषय पर जानकारी ���ांगते हैं, तो प्रधानमंत्री वह विवरण प्रस्तुत करने के लिए बाध्य हैं।
• प्रधानमंत्री राष्ट्रपति और मंत्रिपरिषद के बीच संचार के एकमात्र मुख्य माध्यम (Chief Link) के रूप में कार्य करते हैं, जिससे शासन व्यवस्था में समन्वय बना रहता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• लोकसभा अध्यक्ष:
• ये संसद के निचले सदन के प्रमुख होते हैं और सदन की कार्यवाही का संचालन करते हैं, न कि प्रशासनिक निर्णयों की रिपोर्ट राष्ट्रपति को देते हैं।
• मुख्य निर्वाचन आयुक्त:
• संविधान के अनुच्छेद 324 के तहत इनका कार्य भारत में स्वतंत्र और निष्पक्ष चुनाव प्रक्रिया स���निश्चित करना है।
• नियंत्रक एवं महालेखापरीक्षक (CAG):
• इनका पद अनुच्छेद 148 के तहत स्थापित है, और ये सरकार के व्यय की लेखापरीक्षा (Auditing) के लिए उत्तरदायी होते हैं।
• अनुच्छेद 74:
• यह प्रावधान करता है कि राष्ट्रपति को सहायता और सलाह देने के लिए एक मंत्रिपरिषद होगी जिसका प्रधान प्रधानमंत्री होगा।

The correct answer is Filtration.

Key Points

• Filtration is a physical separation method used to remove insoluble solid particles from a liquid by passing the mixture through a porous medium.
• A mixture of sand and water is classified as a heterogeneous mixture because the sand particles do not dissolve and remain suspended or settle at the bottom.
• In a kitchen setting, this process is highly efficient and accessible using everyday tools such as a fine-mesh strainer, cheesecloth, or coffee filters.
• The liquid that successfully passes through the filter medium is known as the filtrate, while the sand captured by the filter is called the residue.
• This method is preferred in domestic environments over others because it is instantaneous, requires no heat source, and effectively separates components without altering their chemical states.

 Additional Information

• Evaporation:
• This process involves heating a solution until the solvent (water) turns into gas, leaving the solute (sand) behind.
• In a kitchen, this is time-consuming and results in the loss of water unless condensation equipment is utilized.
• Magnetism:
• This separation technique requires one of the components to have ferromagnetic properties, such as iron or nickel.
• Since sand and water are non-magnetic, a magnet would have no effect on the mixture.
• Distillation:
• This is a dual-stage process of vaporization and condensation used to separate components based on different boiling points.
• It is primarily used to obtain pure distilled water from dissolved impurities rather than simple suspended solids like sand.
• Sedimentation and Decantation:
• A related kitchen technique where gravity pulls sand to the bottom (sedimentation), allowing the clear water to be carefully poured out (decantation).

सही उत्तर अनुच्छेद 21 है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारतीय संविधान का अनुच्छेद 21 यह मौलिक अधिकार प्रदान करता है कि किसी भी व्यक्ति को उसके जीवन या व्यक्तिगत स्वतंत्रता से विधि द्वारा स्थापित प्रक्रिया के अनुसार ही वंचित किया जाएगा, अन्यथा नहीं।
• यह अधिकार भारतीय संविधान के भाग III में निहित है और इसे लोकतंत्र की आधारशिला माना जाता है क्योंकि यह व्यक्ति की गरिमा और अस्तित्व की रक्षा करता है।
• मेनका गांधी बनाम भारत संघ (1978) के ऐतिहासिक मामले में, सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने इस अनुच्छेद की व्याख्या करते हुए कहा कि 'जीवन का अधिकार' केवल शारीरिक अस्तित्व तक सीमित नहीं है, बल्कि इसमें मानव गरिमा के साथ जीने का अधिकार भी शामिल है।
• 44वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1978 द्वारा यह सुनिश्चित किया गया कि राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल (���नुच्छेद 352) के दौरान भी अनुच्छेद 21 को निलंबित नहीं किया जा सकता है, जो इसकी सर्वोच्चता को दर्शाता है।
• यह अधिकार नागरिकों और विदेशियों दोनों को समान रूप से उपलब्ध है, जो राज्य की मनमानी कार्रवाई के खिलाफ एक सुरक्षा कवच के रूप में कार्य करता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• अनुच्छेद 19:
• यह स्वतंत्रता के अधिकार के अंतर्गत आता है और भारतीय नागरिकों को छह लोकतांत्रिक स्वतंत्रताओं (भाषण, सभा, संघ, संचरण, निवास और पेशा) की गारंटी देता है।
• अनुच्छेद 20:
• यह अपराधों के लिए दोषसिद्धि के संबंध में संरक्षण प्रदान करता है। इसमें दोहरे दंड से सुरक्षा और खुद के खिलाफ गवाही देने के लिए मजबूर न करने का अधिकार शामिल है।
• अनुच्छेद 23:
• यह शोषण के विरुद्ध अधिकार के अंतर्गत मानव तस्करी, बेगार और अन्य प्रकार के जबरन श्रम को प्रतिबंधित करता है।
• महत्वपूर्ण तथ्य: अनुच्छेद 21A को 86वें संशोधन अधिनियम द्वारा जोड़ा गया था, जो 6 से 14 वर्ष के बच्चों के लिए मुफ्त और अनिवार्य शिक्षा को मौलिक अधिकार बनाता है।

सही उत्तर सभी वर्गों क�� लिए समान अवसर है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारतीय संविधान का अनुच्छेद 16 सार्वजनिक नियोजन या सरकारी पदों पर नियुक्ति के मामलों में अवसर की समानता की गारंटी देता है।
• इसका तात्पर्य यह है कि राज्य के अधीन किसी भी कार्यालय में रोजगार के लिए सभी नागरिकों को उनकी पृष्ठभूमि की परवाह किए बिना समान पहुँच और अवसर प्राप्त होंगे।
• संविधान के अनुसार, राज्य किसी भी नागरिक के साथ केवल धर्म, मूलवंश, जाति, लिंग, वंश, जन्म स्थान, निवास या इनमें से किसी के आधार पर अपात्रता या भेदभाव नहीं कर सकता है।
• यह अवधारणा सुनिश्चित करती है कि समाज के सभी वर्गों को अपनी प्रतिभा, शैक्षणिक योग्यता और कौशल प्रदर्शित करने के लिए एक निष्पक्ष मंच मिले, ताकि वे राष्ट्र के विकास में योगदान दे सकें।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• समानता का अधिकार:
• यह भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 14 से 18 तक वर्णित एक मौलिक अधिकार है, जो कानून के समक्ष समानता और भेदभाव के निषेध की वकालत करता है।
• अनुच्छेद 16(4) एक महत्वपूर्ण अपवाद प्रदान करता है, जो राज्य को उन पिछड़े वर्गों के लिए आरक्षण का प्रावधान करने की शक्ति देता है जिनका राज्य की सेवाओं में पर्याप्त प्रतिनिधित्व नहीं है।
• 'अवसर की समानता' का अर्थ प्रतियोगिता की निष्पक्षता है, न कि 'समान परिणाम', क्योंकि परिणाम व्यक्ति की अपनी क्षमता और मेहनत पर आधारित होते हैं।
• यह अधिकार मुख्य रूप से सार्वजनिक संस्थानों और सरकारी नौकरियों पर लागू होता है, निजी क्षेत्र की नौकरियों में यह अनिवार्य रूप से लागू नहीं है।

The correct answer is Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Pir Panjal, Dhaula Dhar, and Mahabharat ranges are prominent subranges of the Lesser Himalayas, also known as the Middle Himalayas or Himachal.
• The Pir Panjal Range is the longest and most significant range of this section, extending from the Jhelum River to the upper Beas River for over 300 kilometers.
• The Dhaula Dhar Range, which translates to the 'White Range', is located primarily in Himachal Pradesh and towers over the Kangra Valley and Dharamshala.
• The Mahabharat Range, also referred to as the Lesser Himalaya, runs across Nepal and is characterized by elevations between 1,500 and 4,500 meters.
• Geologically, these ranges are situated between the Great Himalayas (Himadri) to the north and the Shiwalik Range (Outer Himalayas) to the south, separated by the Main Central Thrust and Main Boundary Fault.

 Additional Information

• Vindhya Range
• Located in central India, it serves as a traditional geographic divide between the Indo-Gangetic Plain and the Deccan Plateau.
• It consists of broken hill ranges and plateaus extending across Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Uttar Pradesh.
• Western Ghats
• Also known as Sahyadri, this range runs 1,600 kilometers parallel to the western coast of India.
• It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the world's eight 'hottest hotspots' of biological diversity.
• Aravalli Range
• Considered one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, it stretches across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Delhi.
• Its highest peak is Guru Shikhar located in Mount Abu at 1,722 meters.

The correct answer is The mouse will not survive due to the lethal gene.

Key Points

• The yellow coat color in mice is controlled by a specific mutation at the Agouti locus, denoted as the A^y allele.
• This gene is a classic example of a recessive lethal allele; while it is dominant for the expression of the yellow coat color, it is recessive regarding the survival of the organism.
• Inheriting two copies of the gene (the homozygous state, A^yA^y) causes the death of the mouse at an embryonic stage, typically during early gastrulation or implantation.
• As a result of this lethality, no living homozygous yellow mice exist in a population; all surviving yellow mice are heterozygous (carrying one yellow and one non-yellow allele).
• This genetic mechanism results in a modified phenotypic ratio of 2:1 (yellow to agouti) among the surviving offspring when two yellow mice are crossed, instead of the standard Mendelian 3:1 ratio.

 Additional Information

• Pleiotropy:
• This occurs when a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits. In this case, the A^y gene affects both pigmentation (yellow fur) and vitality (survival).
• The allele interferes with essential developmental processes, demonstrating that many genes required for morphological traits also serve critical roles in biological maintenance.
• Historical Context:
• The lethal nature of the yellow gene was first identified by the French geneticist Lucien Cuénot in 1905, shortly after the rediscovery of Mendel's Laws.
• His experiments showed that yellow mice never bred true, always producing some non-yellow offspring, which led to the understanding of lethal genotypes.
• Genotypic Combinations:
• Agouti (AA): Normal wild-type mouse with a brown/grey coat.
• Yellow (A^yA): Heterozygous mouse with a yellow coat; viable but often prone to obesity and tumors.
• Lethal (A^yA^y): Homozygous mouse; fails to survive past the womb.

The correct answer is Gelatinization of starch.

Key Points

• Starch gelatinization is a chemical process where starch granules, found in wheat flour, absorb water and swell when subjected to moist heat.
• Starch is composed of two primary polysaccharides: amylose (linear) and amylopectin (branched). Heating breaks the intermolecular hydrogen bonds within these granules.
• As the temperature reaches the gelatinization range (typically 58°C to 80°C for wheat), the granules undergo irreversible swelling, increasing the viscosity of the liquid.
• The leaching of amylose out of the swollen granules creates a sol, which traps water and results in the thickening characteristic of sauces and gravies.
• If the mixture continues to heat without agitation, it may form a gel upon cooling, provided the starch concentration is sufficient.

 Additional Information

• Gluten formation:
• Involves the hydration and kneading of gliadin and glutenin proteins.
• Creates an elastic network that provides structure and gas retention in dough, rather than thickening liquid sauces.
• Fermentation:
• A metabolic process where microorganisms like yeast convert carbohydrates into carbon dioxide and alcohol.
• Primarily used for leavening in bread making and brewing beverages.
• Caramelization:
• A non-enzymatic browning reaction caused by the pyrolysis of sugar at high temperatures (typically above 160°C).
• Results in color change and nutty flavors but does not rely on starch hydration or swelling.

The correct answer is 11.

Key Points

• In a landmark decision on October 3, 2024, the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the conferment of Classical Language status to five additional languages.
• The newly recognized languages are Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali, significantly expanding India's linguistic heritage representation.
• This major update increased the count from the previous six languages to a total of 11 officially recognized Classical Languages in India as of late 2024 and moving into 2025.
• The recognition follows strict criteria established by the Ministry of Culture, requiring a high antiquity of early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500–2000 years.
• To qualify, the language must possess a body of ancient literature or texts considered a valuable heritage by generations and must have an original literary tradition not borrowed from another speech community.

 Additional Information

• The timeline of recognition for the first six Classical Languages is as follows:
• Tamil: The first language to be accorded the status in 2004.
• Sanskrit: Recognized in 2005 due to its extensive and ancient liturgical and philosophical texts.
• Kannada and Telugu: Both were granted the status in 2008.
• Malayalam: Recognized in 2013.
• Odia: Added to the list in 2014.
• Benefits of Classical Language status include:
• Two major International Awards for scholars of eminence in the language are awarded annually.
• A Center of Excellence for Studies in the specific language is established.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) is requested to create a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages in Central Universities.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, is the upper house of India’s bicameral Parliament, where seats are allocated to States and Union Territories based on their population.
• The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha is governed by the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• Delhi, officially the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, is allocated exactly 3 seats in the Rajya Sabha.
• Representatives from Delhi are elected by the elected members of the Delhi Legislative Assembly through the system of proportional representation by means of a Single Transferable Vote (STV).
• As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, only those Union Territories that have a Legislative Assembly are provided representation in the Rajya Sabha.

 Additional Information

• Representation of other Union Territories:
• Jammu and Kashmir: Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, this Union Territory is allocated 4 seats in the Rajya Sabha.
• Puducherry (Pondicherry): This Union Territory has a Legislative Assembly and is allocated 1 seat in the Rajya Sabha.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: This territory, along with Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Ladakh, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, has no representation in the Rajya Sabha because they do not possess a local legislature.
• Article 80 of the Constitution stipulates that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of not more than 250 members, including 12 members nominated by the President and 238 representatives of the States and Union Territories.

The correct answer is My Plate for the Day.

Key Points

• The ICMR-National Institute of Nutrition (NIN), located in Hyderabad, developed the My Plate for the Day model to provide a simplified visual representation of a balanced diet for the Indian population.
• The project aims to provide the necessary proportions of different food groups required to meet a daily energy intake of approximately 2000 Kcal, which is suitable for a sedentary adult man or woman.
• According to this model, at least half of the total plate (by weight) should consist of vegetables and fruits, ensuring a rich supply of phytonutrients, vitamins, and minerals.
• The remaining half of the plate is distributed among cereals and millets (approx. 240g), pulses, eggs, or flesh foods (approx. 90g), and milk or curd (approx. 300ml) to maintain the required macronutrient balance.
• The model emphasizes that cereals should contribute no more than 45% of the total energy, while pulses and nuts should provide about 15% to 17% of the total daily calories.
• It serves as a practical application of the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA), helping to combat the triple burden of malnutrition, including undernutrition and lifestyle-related diseases.

 Additional Information

• ICMR-National Institute of Nutrition (NIN):
• Established in 1918 as the Beri-Beri Enquiry Unit, it is one of the oldest research centers under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
• The institute is responsible for drafting the Dietary Guidelines for Indians (DGI) and conducting the National Nutrition Monitoring Bureau (NNMB) surveys.
• Functional Objectives:
• The My Plate for the Day initiative focuses on dietary diversity to ensure the intake of antioxidants and bioactive compounds.
• It discourages the overconsumption of highly processed foods, saturated fats, and free sugars to prevent the rise of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) like Type-2 Diabetes and Hypertension.

असमिया भाषा की प्रत्यक्ष पूर्वज का सही उत्तर है- मागधी अपभ्रंश

मुख्य बिंदु

• असमिया भाषा का उद्भव और विकास मागधी अपभ्रंश से हुआ माना जाता है। यह भारत के पूर्वोत्तर राज्य असम की आधिकारिक भाषा है।
• व्याकरणिक दृष्टि से, मागधी अपभ्रंश मध्यकालीन भारतीय आर्य भाषा का एक रूप है जिससे आधुनिक पूर्वी आर्य भाषाओं का जन्म हुआ है।
• मागधी अपभ्रंश से विकसित अन्य भाषाओं के उदाहरण: बंगाली, ओड़िया और मैथिली।

अन्य विकल्प -

महत्वपूर्ण बिंदु 
 अपभ्रंश के प्रमुख भेद और उनसे विकसित आधुनिक भाषाएँ-

1. शौरसेनी: पश्चिमी हिंदी, राजस्थानी, गुजराती।
2. पैशाची: लहंदा, पंजाबी।
3. व्राचड़: सिंधी।
4. महाराष्ट्री: मराठी।
5. मागधी: बिहारी, बंगाली, ओड़िया, असमिया।
6. अर्धमागधी: पूर्वी हिंदी।

अतिरिक्त जानकारी

The correct answer is Roughage.

Key Points

• Roughage, commonly referred to as dietary fibre, is the indigestible portion of plant-based foods that passes relatively intact through the digestive system.
• It is primarily composed of cellulose, a complex carbohydrate that constitutes the structural framework of plant cell walls found in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
• Since humans lack the enzyme cellulase, roughage cannot be absorbed or digested to provide calories, but it remains essential for adding bulk to the diet.
• The presence of fibre facilitates peristalsis (the movement of food through the gut), thereby preventing constipation and promoting regular bowel movements.
• High-fibre diets are clinically linked to a reduced risk of cardiovascular diseases and help in managing blood glucose levels by slowing sugar absorption.

 Additional Information

• Chitin:
• It is a structural polysaccharide found in the exoskeletons of arthropods like crabs and insects, as well as in the cell walls of fungi.
• Unlike cellulose, chitin contains nitrogen and is a derivative of glucose known as N-acetylglucosamine.
• Lignin:
• A complex organic polymer that provides structural rigidity to woody plants and is a major component of vascular plant tissue.
• It is a type of non-carbohydrate dietary fibre that helps in water transport within the plant.
• Glycogen:
• Often called animal starch, it is the primary storage form of glucose in humans and other vertebrates.
• It is stored mainly in the liver and skeletal muscles to be converted back into glucose when the body requires energy.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Great Stupa at Sanchi is one of the oldest stone structures in India and a primary gem of Buddhist architecture, commissioned by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE.
• It is located on a hilltop at Sanchi in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh, approximately 46 kilometers from the state capital, Bhopal.
• The monument was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1989, recognizing its outstanding universal value and historical preservation.
• The core of the stupa consists of a simple hemispherical brick structure built over the relics of the Buddha, which was later encased in stone during the Shunga period.

 Additional Information

• Architectural Features:
• The stupa is famous for its four magnificent stone gateways, known as Toranas, which were added in the 1st century BCE and are covered with detailed relief carvings depicting Jataka tales.
• The structure includes a Harmika (a square railing on top) and a Chattra (a central pillar supporting three umbrellas), symbolizing high spiritual rank.
• Historical Evolution:
• While the foundations were laid by the Mauryas, significant expansions and decorative works were carried out by the Shunga and Satavahana dynasties.
• The site was hidden for centuries until its rediscovery in 1818 by British officer General Taylor, followed by extensive restoration by Sir John Marshall between 1912 and 1919.
• The Great Stupa is featured on the reverse side of the 200 rupee note of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series.

सही उत्तर नागालैंड है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• भारतीय संविधान का भाग IX, जिसे 73वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1992 द्वारा जोड़ा गया था, देश में पंचायती राज संस्थानों (PRIs) के गठन और संरचना से संबंधित है।
• संविधान का अनुच्छेद 243M कुछ राज्यों और क्षेत्रों को इन प्रावधानों के अनिवार्य प्रवर्तन से छूट प्रदान करता है।
• नागालैंड, मेघालय और मिजोरम राज्यों को पूरी तरह से भाग IX के प्रावधानों के दायरे से बाहर रखा गया है ताकि उनकी विशिष्ट सामाजिक-सांस्कृतिक पहचान और पारंपरिक प्रशासनिक प्रणालियों की रक्षा की जा सके।
• इन राज्यों के अलावा, यह भाग मणिपुर के उन पहाड़ी क्षेत्रों पर भी लागू नहीं होता है जहाँ कानून के तहत जिला परिषदें पहले से ही कार्यरत हैं।
• पश्चिम बंगाल राज्य का दार्जिलिंग जिला भी इससे मुक्त है, जहाँ दार्जिलिंग गोरखा हिल काउंसिल जैसी स्वायत्त संस्थाएं मौजूद हैं।
• छूट का प्राथमिक कारण इन क्षेत्रों में पहले से मौजूद पारंपरिक जनजातीय परिषदों और उनकी स्वायत्तता को संवैधानिक मान्यता देना है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• 73वां संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1992:
• इसने पंचायतों को संवैधानिक दर्जा दिया और त्रि-स्तरीय प्रणाली (ग्राम, मध्यवर्ती और जिला स्तर) की सिफारिश की।
• इसने संविधान में 11वीं अनुसूची जोड़ी, जिसमें पंचायतों के अधिकार क्षेत्र के तहत 29 विषयों को सूचीबद्ध किया गया है।
• अन्य राज्यों की स्थिति:
• गुजरात, राजस्थान और बिहार जैसे राज्यों में पंचायती राज व्यवस्था पूरी तरह से लागू है।
• राजस्थान भारत का पहला राज्य था जिसने 2 अक्टूबर 1959 को नागौर जिले में पंचायती राज व्यवस्था की शुरुआत की थी।
• PESA अधिनियम, 1996:
• इसका अर्थ 'पंचायत (अनुसूचित क्षेत्रों तक विस्तार) अधिनियम' है, जिसे पांचवीं अनुसूची के अंतर्गत आने वाले राज्यों के जनजातीय क्षेत्रों में पंचायत प्रणाली का विस्तार करने हेतु बनाया गया था।