DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 26 Apr, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Statements:

Some leaves are trees.

All trees are branches.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusion:

(I) Some leaves are branches. — Follow (Since some leaves are trees and all trees are branches, the part of leaves that overlaps with trees is inevitably within the branches circle.)

(II) All branches are trees. — Does not follow (While all trees are branches, the reverse is not necessarily true in the least possible diagram; branches can have area outside the trees circle.)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Let us analyze the relationships provided between M, N, O, and P to draw the family tree.

On checking the relationships: M is the wife of N, N is the son of O, P is the daughter of M

1. M is the wife of N - This means M is the wife (female) and N is the husband (male).

2. N is the son of O - This means N is the male child of O.

3. P is the daughter of M - Since M and N are married, P is the daughter of both M and N.

​Therefore, P is the daughter of N, who is the son of O → P is the Son's daughter of O.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given Series:

N O O B J Q Z O N P Q I G W L W E I G O C C

Condition:

Count the vowels which are immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a consonant.

Checking the vowels: (Left) N O O B J Q Z O N P Q I G W L W E I G O C C (Right)

→ O in (Z O N)

→  I in (Q  I G)

→  O in (G O C)

Total such vowels = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

1. B has an exam on Friday.

2. Only two people have exams between D and B.

3. Only four people have exams between H and D.

4. J has an exam immediately after K.

5. C does not have an exam on Monday.

Final Arrangement Table:

Thus, the people having exams between C (Saturday) and I (Monday) are D, K, J, and B.

The total number of people between them is four.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Statement:

A < B < C = D < E = F

Conclusions:

I. A = D

II. A = F

Analysis:

From the statement:

A < B < C = D < E = F

So,

A < B < C

and

C = D < E = F

Thus, A is less than D and A is also less than F.

Checking the conclusions:

I. A = D → False (A < D)

II. A = F → False (A < F)

Therefore, neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Seven people (A, E, I, O, U, X, Z) have exams from Monday to Sunday.

1. A has an exam on Thursday.

2. O has an exam on Saturday.

3. U has an exam immediately before X, and Z has an exam immediately after X.

So, the consecutive order is: U → X → Z.

4. I has an exam on one of the days after E (E → I).

Based on the fixed positions of A and O, we check the possible placement for the U-X-Z triplet:

The people between them are: A (Thursday), E (Friday), and O (Saturday).

Thus, there are Three people between I and Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

1. Since all persons face the centre: right = counterclockwise, left = clockwise. Fix C at pos(1). D sits second to the left of C (clockwise): C(1) → pos(2) → D(3).

2. A sits second to the right of E. Fix E at pos(2). Right = counterclockwise: E(2) → pos(1)=C → A(6).

3. B is on the immediate right of A. Right = counterclockwise: A(6) → B(5).

4. F fills the remaining position at pos(4). Final arrangement: C(1), E(2), D(3), F(4), B(5), A(6).

To find who is sitting on the immediate left of F, move clockwise from F(4). Clockwise from F(4) is pos(5), where B is sitting. Thus, B is on the immediate left of F.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given:

KNIT is coded as '5397'

PINK is coded as '9536'

Therefore, the code for 'P' is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Series:

(Left) C F ^ L Q F G P A E T W E = H N @ M $ (Right)

Condition: Count the letters which are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter.

Symbol → Letter → Letter

Checking the letters: (Left) C F ^ L Q F G P A E T W E = H N @ M $ (Right)

→ L in (^ L Q)

→ H in (= H N)

Total such letters = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Let us first decode the given symbols and then draw a family tree.

On checking: R S # T @ U − V

1. R S - 'R S' means 'R is the wife of S'.

2. S # T - 'S # T' means 'S is the son of T'.

3. T @ U - 'T @ U' means 'T is the father of U'.

4. U − V - 'U − V' means 'U is the brother of V'.

Based on the tree, S, U, and V are the children of T. R is the wife of S. Therefore, R is the Brother's wife of V.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given statement: R > T < W < Y = S

Conclusions:

i) R < W → False (As R > T < W. We know that both R and W are greater than T, but the exact relationship between R and W cannot be determined. Therefore, R < W does not definitely follow.)

ii) S < R → False (As W < Y = S, so S > W. However, no definite relationship can be established between R and W. Hence, the exact relationship between S and R cannot be determined. Therefore, S < R does not definitely follow.)

So, neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Series:

(Left) X S I Z W Y W O S O A U Q J Z L U C H O T P (Right)

Required pattern:

Consonant → Vowel → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) X S S I Z Z W Y W O S S O A O A U A U Q J Z L U C H O T P (Right)

Vowels satisfying the condition:

→ O in (S O A)

Therefore, there is 1 such vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2 — 1".

Given:

EARN is coded as '5279'

FEAR is coded as '7492'

Therefore, the code for 'F' is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Word:

ANYWISE

Arrange the letters in reverse alphabetical order:

Y W S N I E A

Comparison:

Only the letter I remains at the same position.

Therefore, the number of letters whose positions remain unchanged is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2 (One)".

Given Word:

SUGHING

Rule:

• Each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet.
• Each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet.

Conversion:

New Group of Letters:

R V F G J M F

Here, only the letter F appears exactly twice.

Therefore, the number of letters appearing exactly twice is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

CARE is coded as '1973'

RISK is coded as '4621'

Therefore, the code for the letter R is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

1. A, E, I, O, U and V live on floors 1 to 6.
2. O lives on an even-numbered floor but not on floor 4.
3. There are two people between O and I.
4. A lives on an odd-numbered floor but not on floor 1.
5. There are two people between A and V.
6. U lives immediately below A.

Final Vertical Floor Arrangement:

Required:

People between E (Floor 1) and U (Floor 4) are:

→ V (Floor 2), I (Floor 3)

Therefore, 2 people live between E and U.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Seven people (A, E, I, O, U, X, Z) have exams from Monday to Sunday.

1. Only two people have an exam before O. (So, O is on Wednesday)

2. Only one person has an exam after X. (So, X is on Saturday)

3. Only three people have an exam between O and I. (O is on Wednesday, counting three days forward: Thursday, Friday, Saturday. So, I is on Sunday)

4. U has an exam immediately before E.

5. Only one person has an exam between E and Z.

Thus, the final arrangement is:

Now, we need to find the number of people between A and E.

E is on Tuesday and A is on Friday.

The people between them are O (Wednesday) and Z (Thursday).

So, there are two people between A and E.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

According to the given information, we need to arrange six people, A, B, C, D, E, and F, in a row facing North.

Only two people sit to the right of F.

A sits second to the left of D and E sits to the immediate right of A.

B sits to the immediate right of C.

Only positions 5 and 6 are left. To satisfy the condition, C must be at position 5 and B at position 6.

The final linear arrangement is:

Now, we need to find who sits second to the left of B.

1. The person to the immediate left of B is C.
2. The person second to the left of B is F.

Therefore, F sits second to the left of B.

Given Series:

(Left) F O E P E U P A A G F O K T W E U B P U Z J (Right)

Required pattern:

Consonant → Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) F O E P E U P A A G F O O K T W E U U B P B P U Z Z J (Right)

Consonants satisfying the condition:

→ F in (G F O)

→ W in (T W U)

→ P in (B P U)

Therefore, there are 3 such consonants.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3 — 3".

Original Number:

8543297

Arrange the digits in ascending order:

Original Number   : 8  5  4  3  2  9  7

Ascending Order : 2  3  4  5  7  8  9

Compare the positions:

Only the digit 4 remains in the same position.

Therefore, 1 digit remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2 — One".

Given logic:

BE 11 : FI 13

RU 22 : VY 24

Applying the same logic for GJ 33:

The related term is KN 35.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Original Number:

6249135

Arrange the digits in ascending order:

Original Number   : 6  2  4  9  1  3  5

Ascending Order : 1  2  3  4  5  6  9

Compare the positions:

Only the digit 2 remains in the same position.

Therefore, 1 digit remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3 — One".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 8

For the first set 39, 31

⇒ 39 − 8 = 31.

For the second set 24, 16

⇒ 24 − 8 = 16.

Applying the same logic to the options:

Checking Option 1: 52, 44

⇒ 52 − 8 = 44.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given:

Statements:

All teachers are drivers.

All drivers are scientists.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

(I) Some scientists are drivers — Follow (Since the entire set of drivers is contained within scientists, that shared region ensures that at least some scientists are drivers.)

(II) Some teachers are scientists — Follow (Because all teachers are inside drivers and all drivers are inside scientists, all teachers are scientists, which logically implies that some teachers are scientists.)

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in this pattern is a combination of positional interchanging and string reversal of the letters within each triad.

For the triad 'POST - OPST - TSOP':

In this triad, the second word (OPST) is obtained by swapping the first and second letters of the first word (POST). The third word (TSOP) is obtained by reversing the letters of the first word (P-O-S-T becomes T-S-O-P).

For the triad 'BULK - UBLK - KLUB':

Similarly, the third word (KLUB) is the reverse of the first word (B-U-L-K becomes K-L-U-B).

Applying the same logic to 'WAGE':

The second word is AWGE and the third word (reverse of WAGE) is EGAW.

Thus, WAGE - AWGE - EGAW follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Logic: The series follows a pattern where the squares of consecutive natural numbers starting from 2 are alternately added and subtracted.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the question mark is 65.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is:

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the '?' in the series is 186.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of the English alphabetical order (A = 1, B = 2, ..., Z = 26):

Logic:

1. 1^st letter of the first cluster + 6 = 1^st letter of the second cluster.
2. 2^nd letter of the first cluster + 11 = 2^nd letter of the second cluster.

Option 1) DG − JR,

Option 2) WZ − CL,

This pair does not follow the logic.

Option 3) HK − NV,

Option 4) FI − LT,

Therefore, the letter-cluster pair that is different from the others is WZ − CL.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed in this pattern is based on alphabetical shifts where the positional values of the letters are increased alternately by 2 and 1.

For 'VIEW' related to 'XJGX':

For 'GROW' related to 'ISQX':

Applying the same logic to 'ROSE':

Thus, ROSE is related to TPUF.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given sign interchanges:

• + and × are interchanged.
• − and ÷ are interchanged.

The original equation is:

54 − 9 × 5 + 4 ÷ 15 = ?

Replacing the signs as per the interchange rules, the equation becomes:

= 54 ÷ 9 + 5 × 4 − 15 

= 6 + 5 × 4 - 15

= 6 + 20 - 15

= 26 - 15

= 11

The final value of the expression is 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is the principle of Water Reflection.

Logic: A water image is a vertical inversion of an object. When a mirror or water surface is placed horizontally at the bottom of a figure (along the X-Y line), the reflection undergoes specific changes.

Therefore, the correct water reflection is shown in Option (1).

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number)²

For the pair on the left side X : 36

⇒ X² = 36

⇒ X = √36 = 6.

Applying the same logic to the pair on the right side

3 : Y

⇒ 3² = 9

⇒ Y = 9.

By comparing the results, we get X = 6 and Y = 9.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given Number:

2137685

Rule:

• Add 2 to each odd digit.
• Subtract 1 from each even digit.

Apply the rule to each digit:

New Number formed:

1359577

From the right, the digits are:

7, 7, 5, 9, 5, 3, 1

Therefore, the second digit from the right is 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1 — 7".

The correct answer is Option 2.

Given Question Figure

→

Correct Figure (Option 2)

According to the question, the signs are interchanged as follows:

The given equation is:

21 × 3 + 12 ÷ 2 − 17 = ?

After interchanging the signs, the equation becomes:

= 21 ÷ 3 − 12 × 2 + 17

= 7 - 12 × 2 + 17

= 7 - 24 + 17

= 24 - 24

= 0

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 0.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is

Logic: Each letter of the second cluster is obtained by shifting the corresponding letter of the first cluster forward by 3 positions based on the English alphabetical order.

Option 1)  CH-FK,

Option 2) LQ-OT,

Option 3) KP-NT

This pair does not follow the rule.

Option 4) PU-SX,

Therefore, the letter-cluster pair that is different from the others is KP-NT.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 2) + 1

For the first set 114, 229

⇒ (114 × 2) + 1

⇒ 228 + 1 = 229.

For the second set 123, 247

⇒ (123 × 2) + 1

⇒ 246 + 1 = 247.

Applying the same logic to the option sets:

Checking Option 2: 101, 203

⇒ (101 × 2) + 1

⇒ 202 + 1 = 203.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is

Logic: Second letter = First letter + 2 and Third letter = Second letter + 4 (based on their alphabetical positions).

Option 1) JLP,

Option 2) MOS,

Option 3) ACG,

Option 4) FHK

This letter cluster does not follow the rule.

Therefore, the letter cluster that is different from the others is FHK.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Logic followed here is:

Logic: (Previous number × 3) + 1.

Therefore, the number that should come in place of the question mark (?) is 76.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Bharat Mata.

Key Points

• In October 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi released a special commemorative coin to celebrate the centenary year (100^th anniversary) of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS).
• The RSS was founded on the day of Vijayadashami in 1925 by Dr. Keshav Baliram Hedgewar in Nagpur, Maharashtra, with the aim of character-building and promoting Hindutva ideology.
• The release of this coin is historically significant as it marks the first instance where the personified image of Bharat Mata (Mother India) has appeared on Indian currency.
• The Bharat Mata icon, depicting the nation as a goddess, is a central symbol in RSS prayer (Prarthana) and their vision of cultural nationalism.
• These commemorative coins are issued under the Coinage Act, 2011, and are minted by the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL) to honor major historical milestones.

 Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Known as the Iron Man of India, he was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India.
• He was instrumental in the political integration of over 500 princely states into the Indian Union.
• Swami Vivekananda:
• A disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa, he founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to propagate Vedanta philosophy.
• He is celebrated for his Chicago Speech at the Parliament of the World Religions in 1893.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
• Commonly referred to as Babasaheb, he served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution.
• He was a prominent social reformer who fought against caste discrimination and eventually converted to Buddhism in 1956.

The correct answer is Joint Liability Group Model.

Key Points

• The Joint Liability Group (JLG) is an informal group consisting of 4 to 10 individuals who come together to avail of bank loans against a mutual guarantee.
• The fundamental principle of this model is collective responsibility, where members are jointly and severally liable for the repayment of the loan amount, ensuring that if one member defaults, the others fulfill the obligation.
• This model utilizes social collateral to replace traditional physical assets, making it an effective tool for providing credit to landless laborers, tenant farmers, and sharecroppers.
• The JLG model was officially launched in India by NABARD during the 2004-05 period to improve the flow of institutional credit to the underserved agricultural and non-farm sectors.
• By fostering peer pressure and group monitoring, the model significantly reduces the transaction costs for banks and minimizes the risk of default in unsecured lending.

 Additional Information

• Individual Lending Model
• Involves a direct contract between the financial institution and a single borrower.
• Requires the borrower to provide tangible collateral or demonstrate a strong individual credit score and repayment capacity.
• Institutional Model
• Refers to the structured framework where entities like Microfinance Institutions (MFIs), Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) act as intermediaries to deliver financial services.
• Self-Help Group (SHG) Model
• A larger group typically comprising 10 to 20 members, primarily focusing on thrift and savings before transitioning to internal lending and external bank linkage.
• While similar to JLG, the SHG model is often more focused on holistic empowerment and long-term savings habits.

The correct answer is Ensure direct transfer of benefits to eligible beneficiaries.

Key Points

• The JAM Trinity is a strategic initiative by the Government of India that integrates three distinct systems: Jan Dhan bank accounts, Aadhaar biometric identification, and Mobile telecommunication.
• The fundamental objective of this framework is to enable Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), which ensures that government subsidies and financial aid are credited directly into the bank accounts of the intended beneficiaries.
• By linking accounts with Aadhaar, the system effectively eliminates ghost beneficiaries, duplicates, and intermediaries, thereby reducing corruption and fiscal leakages in the welfare delivery mechanism.
• The use of Mobile technology facilitates last-mile connectivity, allowing citizens to receive real-time alerts and access Digital Banking services, which is crucial for promoting financial inclusion in rural and semi-urban areas.
• This technological convergence was prominently highlighted in the Economic Survey 2014-15 as a tool to shift from a system of price subsidies to a more efficient cash transfer model.

 Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
• Launched in August 2014, it aims to provide universal banking access to every household, including facilities like RuPay Debit Cards, accident insurance, and overdraft facilities.
• Aadhaar (UIDAI)
• A 12-digit unique identity number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India, which serves as a permanent digital identity for biometric and demographic authentication.
• Mobile Penetration
• Leverages the high density of mobile phone users in India to bridge the digital divide, enabling UPI transactions and mobile-based verification for various government schemes like PAHAL (LPG subsidy).
• Cryptocurrency Regulation
• While not a part of the JAM Trinity, this refers to the legal frameworks governing digital assets and blockchain technology to prevent money laundering and ensure financial stability.

The correct answer is Average propensity to consume.

Key Points

• The Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is an economic concept that measures the fraction of total income that is spent on consumption rather than saved.
• It is mathematically defined as the ratio of total consumption expenditure (C) to total income (Y), represented by the formula APC = C / Y.
• In Keynesian Economics, the APC is expected to be higher for low-income earners compared to high-income earners because a larger share of their income is required to meet basic necessities.
• As disposable income rises, the APC typically declines, as households tend to allocate a greater proportion of their additional income toward savings.
• The break-even point occurs when APC = 1, signifying that the entire income is consumed and savings are zero.

 Additional Information

• Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC):
• This refers to the ratio of the change in consumption to the change in income.
• It is a key component in determining the Investment Multiplier and is expressed as MPC = Change in C / Change in Y.
• Average Propensity to Save (APS):
• This represents the ratio of total savings (S) to total income (Y).
• Fundamental identity: The sum of APC and APS is always equal to 1 (APC + APS = 1).
• Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS):
• It defines the ratio of the change in savings resulting from a change in income.
• It is mathematically expressed as MPS = Change in S / Change in Y, and the relation MPC + MPS = 1 holds true for any change in income.

The correct answer is Harmanpreet Kaur.

Key Points

• Harmanpreet Kaur is the Captain of the Indian Women's National Team in One Day Internationals (ODIs) and T20 Internationals.
• She is a powerful all-rounder who became the first Indian cricketer (male or female) to play in 100 Twenty20 International matches.
• She gained global recognition during the 2017 ICC Women's World Cup semi-final, where she scored an unbeaten 171 runs against Australia, the highest individual score for India in Women's World Cup history.
• In recognition of her outstanding contributions to sports, she was previously honored with the Arjuna Award in 2017.
• She holds the distinction of being the first Indian woman to score a century in a Women's T20I match, achieving this feat against New Zealand in 2018.

 Additional Information

• Mithali Raj:
• She is the highest run-scorer in women's international cricket and the only female cricketer to surpass the 7,000 run mark in Women's One Day Internationals.
• She was conferred with the Padma Shri in 2015 and the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna in 2021.
• Jhulan Goswami:
• Known as the Chakdaha Express, she is the leading wicket-taker in the history of Women's ODIs.
• She was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2010 and the Padma Shri in 2012.
• Smriti Mandhana:
• An elegant left-handed opening batter, she was named the ICC Women's Cricketer of the Year in both 2018 and 2021.
• She received the prestigious Arjuna Award in 2018.

The correct answer is Swadeshi Movement.

Key Points

• The Swadeshi Movement was formally proclaimed on August 7, 1905, during a massive protest meeting held at the Calcutta Town Hall to oppose the British government's decision to partition Bengal.
• The movement was a direct reaction to Viceroy Lord Curzon's announcement of the Partition of Bengal in July 1905, which was perceived as an attempt to weaken Indian nationalism by creating a communal divide.
• During the Town Hall meeting, the Boycott Resolution was officially passed, marking the first time that the boycott of British goods, specifically Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt, was used as a political tool.
• The movement emphasized Atmashakti (self-reliance), leading to the creation of indigenous enterprises, including Swadeshi textile mills, soap factories, tanneries, and national educational institutions.
• Key nationalist leaders such as Surendranath Banerjee, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Ananda Mohan Bose were instrumental in organizing this phase of the Anti-Partition agitation.
• It served as a catalyst for the transition from Moderate constitutional methods to Extremist political action, setting the stage for future mass movements in the Indian Independence struggle.

 Additional Information

• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Launched in 1920 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, it aimed to obtain Swaraj following the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the Khilafat Movement.
• Civil Disobedience Movement:
• Initiated in 1930 with the Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha), where Mahatma Gandhi challenged the British Salt Law by producing salt from the sea.
• Quit India Movement:
• Also known as the August Movement of 1942, it was a demand for the immediate end of British rule in India, characterized by the slogan 'Do or Die'.

The correct answer is Jyotirao Phule.

Key Points

• Jyotirao Govindrao Phule, also known as Mahatma Phule, founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers Society) on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra.
• The primary objective of the society was to liberate the depressed classes, including Shudras and Ati-Shudras, from the exploitation of the priestly classes and upper-caste hegemony.
• Phule advocated for social equality and challenged the existing caste hierarchy, emphasizing that no intermediary was required between man and the Creator for religious rites.
• He authored the seminal work Gulamgiri in 1873, which he dedicated to the American movement to abolish slavery, drawing parallels between the plight of lower castes in India and black slaves in America.
• The Satyashodhak Samaj encouraged the practice of marriage ceremonies without Brahmin priests, conducting rituals in the mother tongue to ensure accessibility and dignity for all members.

 Additional Information

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Commonly known as Lokmanya, he was a prominent leader of the Extremist faction of the Indian National Congress.
• He launched the Home Rule League in 1916 and utilized festivals like Ganesh Chaturthi to foster national unity.
• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• Often called the Grand Old Man of India, he was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons.
• He proposed the Drain of Wealth theory in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
• A Moderate leader and the political mentor of Mahatma Gandhi, he founded the Servants of India Society in 1905.

The correct answer is To support girl students in STEM higher education.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2026-27, presented on 1 February 2026, prioritizes human capital development by focusing on the advancement of Nari Shakti (women power) in specialized fields.
• The proposal to establish one girls' hostel in every district across India is specifically designed to facilitate the transition of female students into STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) higher education.
• Providing safe and dedicated residential facilities at the district level aims to mitigate geographical barriers and security concerns that often lead to high dropout rates among girls after secondary schooling.
• This initiative supports the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 objective of increasing the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for women in technical and vocational streams to achieve gender parity in the digital economy.
• By reducing the out-of-pocket expenditure for families on lodging, the government seeks to foster a conducive learning ecosystem for young women from rural and marginalized backgrounds to enter research and innovation sectors.

 Additional Information

• STEM Higher Education for Women:
• India currently accounts for nearly 43 percent of the total STEM graduates in the country, yet a leaky pipeline exists between education and workforce participation.
• Dedicated hostel infrastructure is a proven catalyst in maintaining academic continuity for women pursuing labor-intensive laboratory and research work.
• Viksit Bharat @2047:
• The budget proposal aligns with the long-term vision of a Developed India, where technological self-reliance is driven by an inclusive workforce.
• Complementary schemes like Vigyan Jyoti and CURIE (Consolidation of University Research for Innovation and Excellence in Women Universities) also work towards similar objectives of empowering women in science and technology.

The correct answer is Viksit Bharat- Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill.

Key Points

• The Viksit Bharat- Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill was enacted in December 2025 as a comprehensive replacement for the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005.
• The primary objective of this new legislation is to transition from a demand-driven manual wage employment model to a livelihood-graduation framework, focusing on sustainable income for rural households.
• It integrates the wage guarantee with skill development and entrepreneurship, aligning with the national goal of Viksit Bharat @ 2047 to transform India into a developed nation.
• The bill mandates the creation of climate-resilient assets and durable infrastructure in rural areas, moving away from temporary earthwork to high-utility projects like smart irrigation and rural warehouses.
• Enhanced digital governance through Blockchain-based payment systems and Real-time AI monitoring was introduced to ensure 100% transparency and eliminate leakages in the wage distribution process.
• The mission strengthens the role of Gram Sabhas in planning and execution, emphasizing decentralized decision-making to address local socio-economic disparities effectively.

 Additional Information

• National Rural Livelihood Promotion Programme:
• Commonly known as DAY-NRLM, it aims at mobilizing rural poor households into Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to provide them with sustainable livelihood opportunities through financial inclusion and capacity building.
• Deen Dayal Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY):
• Launched in September 2014, this is a placement-linked skill training program under the Ministry of Rural Development, targeting rural youth between 15 and 35 years of age to enhance their employability in the global market.
• Atmanirbhar Bharat Employment Generation Scheme:
• Refers to initiatives like the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana (ABRY), which were designed to incentivize employers for new hiring and to protect existing jobs during and after the COVID-19 pandemic economic recovery.

The correct answer is Indian Space Research Organization.

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) officially launched the RESPOND Basket 2025 initiative in December 2025 to strengthen its collaboration with Indian academia.
• The RESPOND (REsearch SPOnsored) program is a flagship initiative designed to invite research proposals from universities and academic institutions across India to support the nation"s space program.
• The RESPOND Basket consists of a curated list of specialized research topics and challenges identified by various ISRO centers, such as the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) and the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC).
• The primary objective is to harness the intellectual potential of researchers to develop innovative technologies, materials, and scientific models required for future missions like Gaganyaan and Lunar exploration.
• This initiative promotes indigenous development and self-reliance in space technology, aligning with the broader Atmanirbhar Bharat vision by reducing dependency on foreign technical expertise.

 Additional Information

• Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO):
• Established in 1969, it operates under the Department of Space (DOS) and is headquartered in Bengaluru.
• The RESPOND Program was started in the 1970s to involve academic institutions in space research and capacity building.
• Research focus areas typically include Satellite Communication, Remote Sensing, Space Weather, Launch Vehicle Technology, and Aerospace Engineering.
• Selected proposals receive financial grants and technical guidance from ISRO scientists, fostering a robust industry-academia ecosystem.
• The Space Technology Cell (STC) established at premier institutes like IITs and IISc often serves as a focal point for these RESPOND activities.

The correct answer is Sarnath, with its Dhamek Stupa.

Key Points

• Sarnath, situated approximately 10 kilometers from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh, is one of the four most sacred Buddhist pilgrimage centers in the world.
• The site marks the event of Dharmachakra Pravartana (Turning the Wheel of Dharma), which refers to the first sermon delivered by Lord Buddha to his five original disciples after attaining enlightenment.
• The Dhamek Stupa is a massive, solid cylindrical structure built of bricks and stone, reaching a height of 43.6 meters. It was originally commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in 249 BCE and later rebuilt during the Gupta period around 500 CE.
• The Ashoka Pillar at Sarnath features the Lion Capital, which was adopted as the National Emblem of India in 1950.
• Historically, Sarnath was also known as Isipatana (the place where holy men landed) and Mrigadava (deer park), where the Buddhist Sangha was first established.

 Additional Information

• Kushinagar:
• Located in Uttar Pradesh, it is the site where Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana (death).
• It features the Parinirvana Stupa and a 6.1-meter-long Reclining Buddha statue made of monolithic red sandstone.
• Bodh Gaya:
• Located in Bihar, it is the most important pilgrimage site where Siddhartha Gautama achieved Enlightenment under the Bodhi Tree.
• The Mahabodhi Temple complex is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located here.
• Ajanta Caves:
• Located in Maharashtra, these are 29 rock-cut Buddhist caves dating from the 2^nd century BCE to 480 CE.
• They are famous for their fresco paintings and sculptures depicting Jataka tales and the life of Buddha.

The correct answer is ₹800 crores.

Key Points

• A commercial bank operates under a fractional reserve banking system, where it is required to keep a specific percentage of its total demand and time liabilities as reserves.
• In this scenario, the bank receives Total Deposits amounting to ₹1,000 crores from its depositors.
• The Reserve Requirement (often determined by the Central Bank as the Cash Reserve Ratio) is set at 20%. This represents the non-lendable portion of the deposits.
• The Required Reserves are calculated by multiplying the total deposits by the reserve ratio: ₹1,000 crores × 0.20 = ₹200 crores.
• The Maximum Lending Capacity of the bank is the surplus remaining after setting aside the mandatory reserves.
• Mathematically, the potential maximum amount the bank can lend is: Total Deposits − Required Reserves, which is ₹1,000 crores − ₹200 crores = ₹800 crores.

 Additional Information

• Money Multiplier Effect
• The Money Multiplier is the inverse of the Reserve Requirement Ratio (1 / RRR). With a 20% requirement, the multiplier is 1 / 0.20 = 5.
• This means that the initial deposit of ₹1,000 crores can potentially lead to a total increase in the Money Supply of ₹5,000 crores across the entire banking system.
• Credit Creation Process
• Banks create credit by lending out their Excess Reserves (the ₹800 crores). This amount, once spent by borrowers, eventually returns to the banking system as new deposits.
• This cycle continues, restricted only by the mandatory Reserve Requirement, until the total reserves in the system equal the initial deposit.
• Monetary Policy Implications
• The Central Bank uses the reserve ratio as a tool to control Liquidity. Increasing the ratio reduces the amount banks can lend, helping to curb Inflation.
• Conversely, lowering the ratio increases the Loanable Funds, encouraging investment and economic growth during periods of Deflation or recession.

The correct answer is 50m Rifle 3 Positions.

Key Points

• Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar is a premier Indian sport shooter who clinched the gold medal in the 50m Rifle 3 Positions event at the Asian Shooting Championships.
• The 50m Rifle 3 Positions is often regarded as the marathon of shooting disciplines, requiring athletes to fire shots from three different stances: kneeling, prone, and standing.
• Each position demands distinct technical skills and physical stability, as the shooter must transition between them while maintaining extreme mental focus and breath control.
• Tomar has a history of excellence in this specific event, having previously secured gold at the Hangzhou Asian Games with a remarkable World Record score of 460.6 points.
• Hailing from Khargone, Madhya Pradesh, he has been a consistent performer at the ISSF World Cups and represented India at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• The competition involves using a 0.22 caliber rimfire rifle at a distance of 50 meters, where the inner-most ring (the 10) is only 10.4 mm in diameter.

 Additional Information

• 10m Air Rifle:
• This event uses 4.5 mm (0.177 in) caliber air rifles to fire at a stationary target at a 10-meter distance.
• It is conducted in an indoor range and requires shooters to hit a 0.5 mm center to score a perfect 10.
• 25m Rapid Fire Pistol:
• A men's Olympic event where shooters use semi-automatic pistols to engage five targets in quick succession.
• The time limits for firing five shots are 8 seconds, 6 seconds, and 4 seconds, testing reflexes and precision.
• Trap Shooting:
• A shotgun discipline where targets (clay pigeons) are thrown from a single 'trap' or house, away from the shooter.
• It is a clay pigeon shooting variant where the flight path of the target mimics the flight of a bird, requiring rapid tracking and lead-shooting techniques.

The correct answer is Dilip Tirkey.

Key Points

• The Calcutta Sports Journalists’ Club (CSJC), one of the premier sports media bodies in India, conferred the lifetime achievement award upon Dilip Tirkey in October 2025.
• Dilip Tirkey is a former Indian hockey captain and a legendary full-back, widely celebrated for his impeccable penalty corner defense and field leadership.
• He holds the prestigious distinction of being the first Indian to surpass 400 international appearances, finishing his career with 412 caps for the national team.
• The award recognizes his lifelong dedication to the sport, spanning his transition from a world-class athlete to his current role as the President of Hockey India.
• During his tenure as an administrator, he has been instrumental in hosting major international tournaments in Odisha and promoting grassroots hockey across the country.

 Additional Information

• Dilip Tirkey's Accolades:
• He represented India in three Olympic Games: Atlanta 1996, Sydney 2000, and Athens 2004.
• He was honored with the Padma Shri in 2004 and the Arjuna Award in 2002 for his outstanding sporting achievements.
• Tirkey was a key member of the Indian squad that secured a gold medal at the 1998 Asian Games.
• Other Noted Figures:
• Dhanraj Pillay: A legendary forward who represented India in four World Cups and four Olympics, receiving the Khel Ratna in 1999.
• Sardar Singh: A versatile midfielder who captained India to a gold medal at the 2014 Asian Games.
• Balbir Singh Sr.: A three-time Olympic gold medalist (1948, 1952, 1956) and one of the greatest strikers in hockey history.

The correct answer is Every five years.

Key Points

• The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) is the primary agency in India responsible for conducting large-scale nationwide household surveys on various socio-economic subjects.
• Official poverty estimates in India are traditionally derived from the Household Consumer Expenditure Survey (CES) data, which is collected by the NSSO.
• These large-scale surveys for poverty estimation are typically conducted at regular intervals of five years, which are formally known as the Quinquennial rounds.
• The NITI Aayog (and formerly the Planning Commission) uses this consumption data to calculate the poverty line and the poverty ratio for rural and urban populations.
• The estimation is based on the Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE), which tracks the spending required to access a basic basket of goods, including food to meet nutritional requirements and essential non-food items.

 Additional Information

• Organisational Structure:
• The NSSO was established in 1950 and was later merged with the Central Statistics Office (CSO) in 2019 to form the National Statistical Office (NSO).
• It functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and operates through specialized divisions like the Field Operations Division (FOD).
• Expert Committees on Poverty:
• Various committees such as the Lakdawala Committee (1993), Tendulkar Committee (2009), and Rangarajan Committee (2014) have provided frameworks to analyze NSSO data for poverty line determination.
• The Tendulkar Committee notably shifted the focus from a purely calorie-based poverty line to an expenditure-based model that includes health and education costs.

The correct answer is Department of Telecommunications.

Key Points

• The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), which operates under the Ministry of Communications, Government of India, is the primary authority responsible for organizing the 5G Innovation Hackathon 2025.
• The objective of this nationwide initiative is to identify and scale innovative 5G-based solutions and use cases specifically tailored to the Indian market across sectors like Healthcare, Agriculture, Smart Cities, and Disaster Management.
• This hackathon serves as a platform for startups, MSMEs, academic institutions, and individual innovators to demonstrate the capabilities of 5G technology, including its low latency, high bandwidth, and massive machine-type communications (mMTC).
• The event is aligned with the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision, seeking to reduce dependency on foreign technology and promote indigenous development of telecom software and hardware components.
• Winning participants are often provided with monetary rewards, mentorship from industry experts, and access to 5G Testbeds to further refine and commercialize their technological prototypes.

 Additional Information

• Department of Telecommunications (DoT):
• Responsible for the formulation of policies, licensing, and development of telecommunication services across India.
• It manages the allocation of spectrum, a critical resource for wireless communications, and oversees the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
• The department is currently spearheading the Bharat 6G Vision, aiming for India to become a global leader in 6G technology by the year 2030.
• It manages the Digital Bharat Nidhi (formerly Universal Service Obligation Fund) to ensure digital connectivity in rural and remote regions.
• 5G Infrastructure in India:
• India completed one of the world's fastest 5G rollouts, reaching thousands of towns and cities within a year of the service launch in October 2022.
• The government has established 100 5G Use Case Labs in engineering institutions to foster a culture of innovation and Research and Development (R&D) among students.

The correct answer is 1946.

Key Points

• The Interim Government of India was formed on September 2, 1946, to manage the transition of power from British colonial rule to independence.
• This government was established from the members of the Constituent Assembly, which was elected in July 1946 through indirect elections by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
• The structure and formation of the Constituent Assembly were based on the recommendations of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, which aimed to resolve the constitutional deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
• The Indian National Congress secured a massive victory in these elections, winning 208 out of the 296 seats allotted to British India, while the Muslim League won 73 seats.
• The Interim Government functioned like a cabinet, with Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru serving as the Vice President of the Executive Council, effectively exercising the powers of a Prime Minister.

 Additional Information

• Cabinet Mission Plan 1946:
• The mission consisted of three British cabinet members: Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.
• It proposed a Federal Union with three groups of provinces and a Constituent Assembly to frame the new constitution.
• Composition of the Interim Cabinet:
• While Nehru led the council, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel held the Home Affairs, Information and Broadcasting portfolio.
• The Muslim League initially boycotted the government but joined on October 26, 1946, with Liaquat Ali Khan taking charge of the Finance portfolio.
• Other notable members included Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Food and Agriculture) and C. Rajagopalachari (Education and Arts).
• Role of the Constituent Assembly:
• The assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, in New Delhi.
• Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first temporary President, later succeeded by Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the permanent President.

The correct answer is Repo Rate.

Key Points

• The term Repo Rate stands for Repurchasing Option or Repurchase Agreement. It is the fixed interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provides overnight liquidity to commercial banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities.
• This mechanism is primarily used by commercial banks to meet short-term imbalances in their liquidity or to fulfill legal requirements such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
• The Repo Rate serves as a powerful Monetary Policy tool. When the RBI increases the rate, borrowing becomes expensive for banks, which subsequently increases interest rates for consumers, thereby reducing money supply and controlling inflation.
• Conversely, a reduction in the Repo Rate encourages banks to borrow more, injecting liquidity into the market and stimulating economic growth by making loans cheaper for businesses and individuals.
• In the transaction, banks sell Government Securities to the RBI with a legal agreement to repurchase them at a predetermined price and date.

 Additional Information

• Reverse Repo Rate:
• It is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks within the country.
• It is used to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system, effectively reducing the inflationary pressure.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Rate:
• The SLR is the minimum percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that a commercial bank must maintain in the form of liquid assets.
• These assets include cash, gold, or unencumbered government-approved securities before they can provide credit to customers.
• Lending Rate:
• This generally refers to the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) or the Base Rate.
• It represents the minimum interest rate below which a bank is not permitted to lend, except in specific cases allowed by the RBI.

The correct answer is Shyamji Krishna verma.

Key Points

• Shyamji Krishna Varma founded India House in Highgate, London, in 1905 to serve as a residence for Indian students and a center for nationalist activism.
• The primary objective of India House was to promote the cause of Indian Home Rule in the heart of the British Empire and provide scholarships to Indian students.
• He established the Indian Home Rule Society in February 1905, which served as the organizational backbone for the activities centered at India House.
• Varma also edited and published a monthly journal called The Indian Sociologist, which became a powerful platform for critiquing British rule and advocating for Swaraj.
• The institution offered fellowships named after prominent figures like Herbert Spencer and Swami Dayanand Saraswati to attract brilliant Indian minds to the nationalist cause.

 Additional Information

• VD Savarkar:
• He was a key resident and leader at India House who wrote the seminal work The Indian War of Independence 1857.
• He organized the Abhinav Bharat Society and radicalized the student movement in London before his arrest.
• Madanlal Dhingra:
• A student associated with India House who assassinated Sir Curzon Wyllie in 1909 as a protest against British atrocities.
• His action led to the eventual crackdown on India House by British authorities.
• Har Dayal:
• A brilliant scholar who was involved with India House and later became a founding member of the Ghadar Party in the United States.
• He was instrumental in spreading revolutionary ideas among the Indian diaspora globally.

The correct answer is The Chauri Chaura incident.

Key Points

• The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant phase of the Indian independence struggle, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 following the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress.
• On February 4, 1922, a violent clash occurred at Chauri Chaura, a village in the Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces (modern-day Uttar Pradesh).
• During a procession of volunteers, the local police opened fire on the crowd; in retaliation, the enraged demonstrators set the police station ablaze, leading to the death of 22 to 23 policemen.
• Mahatma Gandhi, an advocate of Ahimsa (non-violence), was devastated by the violence and believed that the Indian masses were not yet sufficiently trained for a disciplined Satyagraha.
• As a result, Gandhi undertook a five-day fast as penance and convinced the Congress Working Committee to pass the Bardoli Resolution on February 12, 1922, which officially suspended the movement nationwide.

 Additional Information

• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:
• This occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, where General Dyer ordered troops to fire on a peaceful gathering.
• This event was one of the primary reasons for the commencement of the movement, not its end.
• Rowlatt Act Protests:
• The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, known as the Rowlatt Act, allowed the British to detain political prisoners without trial.
• The Rowlatt Satyagraha was the first pan-India political campaign organized by Gandhi against this 'Black Act'.
• Khilafat Conference Decision:
• The Khilafat Movement, led by Shaukat Ali and Mohammad Ali, aimed to protect the Caliphate in Turkey.
• Gandhi aligned the Non-Cooperation Movement with the Khilafat cause to strengthen Hindu-Muslim unity against British rule.

The correct answer is Elected by the Members of the Lok Sabha.

Key Points

• According to Article 93 of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) must choose two of its members to be the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
• The Speaker is elected by the newly constituted House of the People from among its members by a simple majority of those present and voting.
• While the Constitution does not specify criteria for eligibility, the Speaker is generally a senior member of the ruling party or the largest coalition.
• The date of the Speaker's election is fixed by the President of India, usually occurring during the first session after General Elections.
• The Speaker remains in office even after the Lok Sabha is dissolved, continuing until the first meeting of the new House to maintain legislative continuity.

 Additional Information

• Powers and Functions:
• The Speaker is the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill under Article 110, and this decision cannot be challenged in a court of law.
• He or she presides over the Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament, which is summoned by the President to resolve deadlocks on bills (Article 108).
• The Speaker maintains order and decorum in the House and can adjourn or suspend proceedings in the absence of a Quorum (one-tenth of total membership).
• Independence:
• To ensure impartiality, the Speaker does not vote in the first instance but can cast a Casting Vote in case of a tie.
• The Speaker can only be removed by a resolution passed by an effective majority of the Lok Sabha after giving 14 days' prior notice.
• The Speaker is not appointed by the President or Prime Minister to preserve the autonomy of the legislature from executive control.

The correct answer is Bicuspid valve.

Key Points

• The human heart is a myogenic muscular organ divided into four chambers, where blood flow is strictly regulated by valves to maintain unidirectional circulation.
• The Bicuspid valve, technically known as the Mitral valve, is the atrioventricular valve located at the opening between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
• It is composed of two flaps (leaflets or cusps) that open to permit the passage of oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins into the left ventricle.
• During ventricular systole (contraction), the bicuspid valve closes to prevent the regurgitation of blood back into the left atrium, ensuring blood is directed into the aortic arch.
• The structural integrity of this valve is supported by chordae tendineae, which are fibrous strings that anchor the leaflets to the papillary muscles of the ventricular wall.

 Additional Information

• Tricuspid valve:
• Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
• Consists of three cusps and prevents the backflow of deoxygenated blood into the right atrium.
• Aortic valve:
• A semilunar valve situated at the base of the aorta.
• It guards the exit from the left ventricle, preventing blood from returning to the heart from the systemic circulation.
• Pulmonary valve:
• A semilunar valve positioned between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
• It ensures that blood travels toward the lungs for oxygenation and does not leak back into the right ventricle.

The correct answer is Lakshadweep Islands.

Key Points

• The Lakshadweep Islands are a group of 36 islands situated in the Arabian Sea, off the coast of Kerala. These islands are entirely of coral origin.
• The islands are formed from atolls, which are ring-shaped or horseshoe-shaped coral reefs that develop around a central lagoon. They are built up over thousands of years through the accumulation of calcium carbonate secreted by coral polyps.
• Geographically, the archipelago is divided into three main groups: Amindivi Islands, Laccadive Islands, and Minicoy Island. They were officially renamed Lakshadweep in 1973.
• The total land area of this Union Territory is just 32 square kilometers, making it the smallest Union Territory of India. The administrative capital is Kavaratti.

 Additional Information

• Majuli Island:
• Located in the Brahmaputra River in Assam, it is known as the world's largest river island. It was formed due to the course changes of the river and is a significant cultural hub of Neo-Vaishnavism.
• Sunderbans Islands:
• These form part of the world's largest delta created by the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. The region is famous for halophytic mangrove forests and the Royal Bengal Tiger.
• Andaman & Nicobar Islands:
• Situated in the Bay of Bengal, these are primarily the elevated portions of submerged mountain ranges (an extension of the Arakan Yoma). While they possess fringing reefs, their primary geological formation is tectonic and volcanic.

The correct answer is a-i; b-ii, c-iii; d-iv.

Key Points

• Jagannath Temple: Located in Puri, Odisha, this temple was built by Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, the first king of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, in the 12^th century. Hence, a matches with i.
• Shore Temple: Situated in Mahabalipuram, it was constructed during the reign of the Pallava King Narasimhavarman II, also known as Rajasimha, between 700 and 728 CE. Hence, b matches with ii.
• Hazara Rama Temple: This temple is an architectural marvel located in Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, and is attributed to Devaraya II who ruled during the 15^th century. Hence, c matches with iii.
• Brihadeeswara Temple: Located in Thanjavur, this Dravidian style masterpiece was commissioned by the Chola emperor Raja Raja I and completed around 1010 CE. Hence, d matches with iv.

 Additional Information

• Temple Architectural Styles:
• Kalinga Architecture: The Jagannath Temple is a prime example of this style, featuring a massive Sikhara and distinct sections like the Vimana and Mukhashala.
• Pallava Architecture: The Shore Temple represents the transition from rock-cut architecture to structural stone temples, utilizing granite blocks.
• Vijayanagara Style: The Hazara Rama Temple is famous for its intricate bas-reliefs depicting scenes from the Ramayana on its exterior walls.
• Chola Architecture: The Brihadeeswara Temple, also known as Rajarajeswaram, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site featuring one of the tallest Vimanas in the world and a massive monolithic Nandi.

The correct answer is Acetyl choline.

Key Points

• Acetyl choline (ACh) is the primary neurotransmitter utilized by the somatic nervous system to transmit signals from motor neurons to skeletal muscle fibers.
• The process begins when an action potential travels down the motor neuron and reaches the presynaptic terminal (axon bulb).
• The arrival of the electrical impulse triggers the opening of voltage-gated calcium (Ca²⁺) channels, causing an influx of calcium into the neuron.
• This calcium influx promotes the fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane, releasing ACh into the synaptic cleft through the process of exocytosis.
• ACh molecules diffuse across the narrow synaptic cleft and bind to specialized nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChR) located on the motor end plate of the sarcolemma (muscle cell membrane).
• The binding of ACh opens ligand-gated ion channels, allowing sodium (Na⁺) to rush into the muscle cell and a smaller amount of potassium (K⁺) to exit, leading to a local depolarization called the end-plate potential (EPP).
• Once the EPP reaches the threshold, it triggers a muscle action potential that propagates along the T-tubules, eventually resulting in the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and initiating the sliding filament mechanism of contraction.

 Additional Information

• Adrenaline (Epinephrine):
• Produced by the adrenal medulla, it acts as both a hormone and a neurotransmitter during the sympathetic response (fight-or-flight).
• It increases heart rate and redirects blood flow to muscles but is not the specific chemical that initiates skeletal muscle contraction at the neuromuscular junction.
• Serotonin (5-Hydroxytryptamine):
• Mainly found in the central nervous system and the digestive tract, it is derived from the amino acid tryptophan.
• It regulates mood, sleep cycles, and intestinal movements rather than somatic motor signals.
• Dopamine:
• Functions as a chemical messenger in the brain involved in motor control, motivation, and reward.
• A deficiency of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra is a primary cause of Parkinsons disease, which manifests as tremors and difficulty in movement coordination.

The correct answer is Gandhara style.

Key Points

• The Kushana dynasty, particularly under the patronage of Emperor Kanishka, was instrumental in the evolution of Buddhist architecture, leading to the birth of the Gandhara style.
• Gandhara stupas evolved from the simple hemispherical mounds of the Mauryan period into more elaborate, tall, tower-like structures with increased verticality.
• A defining feature of this style is the high square platform or pedestal upon which the stupa was built, often decorated with niches containing Buddha images.
• This architectural movement flourished in the North-Western frontier of the Indian subcontinent, encompassing regions like Taxila, Peshawar, and Swat Valley.
• The style is famously known as Greco-Buddhist art because it combined Hellenistic and Roman artistic techniques with Indian Buddhist iconography and themes.

 Additional Information

• Dravidian style:
• Primarily found in South India, characterized by pyramidal towers (Vimanas) and massive entrance gateways called Gopurams.
• Nagara style:
• Common in North India, distinguished by a curvilinear spire known as the Shikhara and a square base for the sanctum.
• Indo-Aryan style:
• A classification often used for early Northern Indian temple architecture, largely synonymous with the Nagara style during the Gupta and post-Gupta eras.

The correct answer is 1973.

Key Points

• The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala judgment was delivered on April 24, 1973, after a marathon hearing of 68 days.
• A 13-judge Constitutional Bench, the largest in the history of the Supreme Court of India, delivered the verdict with a narrow majority of 7:6.
• The judgment propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine, which asserts that while the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter, destroy, or abrogate its basic structure or essential features.
• The Court clarified that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and its basic elements can be used to interpret ambiguous areas of the document.
• The ruling effectively limited the absolute power of the legislature, ensuring that the Rule of Law and the Separation of Powers remain fundamental to Indian democracy.

 Additional Information

• Legal Context and Evolution:
• The case challenged the validity of the 24^th, 25^th, and 29^th Constitutional Amendments, which sought to give the Parliament unfettered power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
• It overruled the earlier Golaknath Case (1967), which had prohibited Parliament from amending Fundamental Rights altogether.
• Identifying the Basic Structure:
• The Supreme Court did not provide an exhaustive list of basic features but identified several key components through various subsequent judgments.
• Core elements include Secularism, Federalism, Democracy, Judicial Review, Equality, and the Parliamentary System.
• The doctrine was later used to strike down sections of the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) in the Minerva Mills Case (1980), further cementing judicial supremacy in constitutional matters.

The correct answer is 200 GW.

Key Points

• India achieved a significant landmark in its sustainable energy journey by officially surpassing the 200 GW mark of total installed renewable energy capacity as of October 2024.
• According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), the cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources reached 201.45 GW, which accounts for nearly 45% of India's total installed power capacity.
• The total capacity is a combination of Solar Power (approximately 90.76 GW), Wind Power (approximately 47.36 GW), Large Hydro Projects (approximately 46.92 GW), and Biomass/Small Hydro Power (approximately 16.41 GW).
• This rapid growth represents a 13.5% increase in renewable capacity compared to the previous year, highlighting India's aggressive transition toward clean energy.
• The inclusion of Large Hydro projects within the renewable energy category, a policy change implemented in 2019, was instrumental in crossing the 200 GW threshold.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Targets and Global Standing:
• India is committed to achieving 500 GW of installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030, as part of the Panchamrit commitments made at COP26 in Glasgow.
• Globally, India currently ranks 4^th in total Renewable Energy installed capacity, 4^th in Wind Power, and 5^th in Solar Power capacity.
• The National Green Hydrogen Mission, with an outlay of Rs. 19,744 crore, is another pillar intended to decarbonize the industrial and mobility sectors.
• Policy drivers such as the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for high-efficiency solar modules and the PM-KUSUM scheme for solarizing agriculture have accelerated site-specific developments.

The correct answer is Genetic variation provides differences for natural selection.

Key Points

• Genetic variation refers to the diversity in gene frequencies and the differences in DNA sequences between individuals within a population. It serves as the fundamental raw material for evolution.
• The process of natural selection requires phenotypic variation to operate. If all individuals in a population were genetically identical, no single individual would have a survival advantage over another when environmental conditions change.
• Individuals possessing beneficial alleles are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass those advantageous traits to their offspring. This leads to a change in the allele frequency of the population over successive generations.
• The primary drivers of this variation include mutations, which create new alleles, and genetic recombination during sexual reproduction, which reshuffles existing genes into new combinations.
• Without such variation, a population lacks the resilience needed to adapt to stressors like climate change, pathogens, or predators, increasing the risk of extinction.

 Additional Information

• Mechanisms of Variation:
• Mutation: A permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can result in new functional traits or neutral changes.
• Gene Flow: The transfer of genetic material between populations through migration, which introduces new alleles into a gene pool.
• Meiosis: During gamete formation, processes like crossing over and independent assortment ensure that offspring are genetically distinct from their parents.
• Evolutionary Concepts:
• Adaptation: A characteristic that improves an individual's evolutionary fitness in a specific environment, made possible only by existing genetic diversity.
• Genetic Drift: A mechanism of evolution where allele frequencies change due to random sampling or chance events, rather than selection.
• Speciation: The formation of new and distinct species, which often begins with the accumulation of genetic variations in isolated populations.

The correct answer is Pallava dynasty.

Key Points

• The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram (now known as Mamallapuram) was constructed during the reign of the Pallava dynasty under King Narasimhavarman II, popularly known as Rajasimha, between 700 and 728 AD.
• It represents a significant milestone in South Indian architecture as it is one of the earliest examples of a structural temple built with blocks of granite, moving away from the earlier rock-cut cave traditions.
• The temple complex is located on the edge of the Bay of Bengal in Tamil Nadu and was designed to withstand the harsh coastal environment, though it has suffered erosion over centuries.
• It consists of three distinct shrines: two dedicated to Lord Shiva (including the Kshatriyasimnesvara) and one dedicated to Lord Vishnu, who is depicted in a reclining posture (Anantashayi Vishnu).
• The Shore Temple is part of the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, which was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 due to its cultural and historical significance.

 Additional Information

• Chola Dynasty:
• Famous for the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, built by Rajaraja I, which features a massive Vimana (tower).
• They perfected the Dravidian style and were known for their exquisite bronze sculptures, particularly the Nataraja.
• Pandya Dynasty:
• Prominent in the far south, they were responsible for building massive Gopurams (ornate gateways) that often surpassed the main temple towers in height.
• The Meenakshi Amman Temple in Madurai is a prime example of their architectural influence.
• Hoysala Dynasty:
• Known for their unique Stellate (star-shaped) temple plans and intricate carvings using soapstone (chloritic schist).
• Key examples include the temples at Belur, Halebidu, and Somanathapura.

The correct answer is Twelve members.

Key Points

• According to Article 80 of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
• These nominations are made from individuals possessing special knowledge or practical experience in the fields of Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service.
• The purpose of this provision is to provide distinguished persons a seat in the Upper House of Parliament without them having to undergo the process of an election.
• The Rajya Sabha has a maximum sanctioned strength of 250 members, out of which 238 represent the States and Union Territories through indirect election, and 12 are nominated.

 Additional Information

• Rajya Sabha Structure:
• The Rajya Sabha is a Permanent Body and is not subject to dissolution; however, one-third of its members retire every second year.
• The total term for an individual member of the Rajya Sabha is six years.
• The Vice-President of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories is laid down in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution.
• While the President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha, the provision to nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha was discontinued by the 104^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
• The criteria for nomination (Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service) are strictly defined under Article 80(3).

The correct answer is Cultural and educational rights.

Key Points

• Cultural and Educational Rights are enshrined in Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution to protect the interests of religious and linguistic minorities.
• Article 30 specifically grants all minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, allowing them to preserve and develop their own culture, language, and script.
• The Constitution ensures that the State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority.
• These rights are crucial for maintaining the secular fabric of the nation by preventing the forced assimilation of minority groups into the majority culture.
• While Article 29 protects the interests of minorities (rights of conservation), Article 30 is a right to establish institutions, which is available only to minorities and not to all sections of citizens.

 Additional Information

• Other Fundamental Rights:
• Right to Constitutional Remedies: Mentioned in Article 32, it allows citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described it as the Heart and Soul of the Constitution.
• Right to Equality: Spanning Articles 14 to 18, it includes equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination, and abolition of untouchability.
• Right to Freedom: Enshrined in Articles 19 to 22, it covers freedom of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Kamakhya Temple is a prestigious Hindu shrine situated atop the Nilachal Hills in Guwahati, Assam.
• It is regarded as one of the oldest and most powerful of the 51 Shakti Peethas in the Indian subcontinent, marking the spot where the Yoni (genitals) of Goddess Sati fell during the Shiva Tandava.
• The temple serves as a focal point for Tantric Shaktism practitioners and is dedicated to Goddess Kamakhya, an aspect of Devi.
• Every year during the monsoon season, the temple hosts the Ambubachi Mela, a major festival celebrating the goddess's annual menstruation period, during which the Brahmaputra River near the temple is believed to turn red.
• The architectural style of the temple is a unique combination of the traditional Nagara style and local Saracenic influences, often referred to as the Nilachal type, featuring a polygonal dome.
• The current structure was rebuilt in 1565 by Chilarai of the Koch dynasty after the original temple was destroyed in the early 16^th century.

 Additional Information

• Tripura:
• Home to the Tripura Sundari Temple in Udaipur, which is also identified as one of the 51 Shakti Peethas.
• Odisha:
• Famous for the Jagannath Temple at Puri and the Biraja Temple in Jajpur, the latter being a significant Shakti Peetha.
• West Bengal:
• Contains several important Shakti Peethas, including Kalighat in Kolkata and Tarapith in Birbhum.
• Assam (Supplementary Context):
• The state is well-known for the Kaziranga National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for the Great Indian One-horned Rhinoceros.
• Assam is the largest producer of Tea in India and is home to the oldest oil refinery in Asia at Digboi.

The correct answer is 1210 million.

Key Points

• The Census of India 2011 represents the 15^th official census in the country since the first non-synchronous census in 1872 and the 7^th since India achieved independence.
• According to the final data released by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, the total population was counted at 1,210,854,977, which approximates to 1210 million or 1.21 billion.
• This figure confirmed that India was the second most populous nation globally at the time, sustaining about 17.5% of the world's total human population on just 2.4% of the world's land area.
• The decadal growth rate for the period 2001 to 2011 was 17.7%, indicating a slight decline in the rate of growth compared to the 21.5% recorded in the previous decade.
• The census also highlighted that the population of males stood at approximately 623.2 million, while the female population was around 587.5 million.

 Additional Information

• Key Demographic Metrics from the 2011 Census:
• Sex Ratio: The national average was 943 females per 1000 males, which was a significant increase from the 933 reported in the 2001 Census.
• Literacy Status: The overall Literacy Rate was 74.04%. State-wise, Kerala maintained the highest literacy at 94.00%, while Bihar was at the bottom with 61.80%.
• Population Density: It was measured at 382 persons per square kilometer, with Bihar being the most densely populated state and Arunachal Pradesh having the lowest density.
• Urban-Rural Split: The data showed that 68.84% of Indians lived in rural areas, while 31.16% resided in urban centers.
• Motto: The official slogan for the 2011 Census was Our Census, Our Future.