DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 25 Apr, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given Word:

Q U I L T E D

Arranging the letters in reverse alphabetical order:

Original Word     : Q U I L T E D

Reverse Order  : U T Q L I E D

Comparing positions:

Letters at positions 4, 6, and 7 remain unchanged.

Therefore, the positions of 3 letters remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2 — Three".

Solution

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: C @ F * K L = G: C is the wife of F, F is the father of K, K is the brother of L, and L is the sister of G.

⇒ C is the wife of F.

⇒ F is the father of K, L, and G.

⇒ K, L, and G are siblings and children of F and C.

⇒ Therefore, C is the mother of G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Series:

(Left) 2 4 7 1 5 8 2 4 7 9 1 5 4 8 2 4 3 9 4 3 5 7 3 9 6 3 2 (Right)

Required pattern:

Prime Number → Odd Digit → Perfect Square

Prime numbers: 2, 3, 5, 7

Perfect squares (single digits): 1, 4, 9

(Note: 1 is also a perfect square.)

Checking the series:

(Left) 2 4 7 1 5 8 2 4 7 9 1 5 4 8 2 4 3 9 4 3 5 7 3 9 6 3 2 (Right)

Odd digits satisfying the condition:

→ 9 in (7 9 1)

→ 9 in (3 9 4)

→ 3 in (7 3 9)

There are 3 such odd digits.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Solution

⇒ E, F, P, Q, R, D and T are seven people sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

⇒ Only two people sit between E and R when counted from the right of E. (Facing centre, Right is anti-clockwise. E and R have two seats between them in the anti-clockwise direction).

⇒ Only two people sit between R and F. (From R, going clockwise, two seats are empty/filled by others before F).

⇒ Only three people sit between E and Q. (Counting anti-clockwise from E, Q is placed after three people).

⇒ D sits to the immediate left of T. (Facing centre, Left is clockwise. This means T → D is a clockwise movement).

⇒ The remaining person P occupies the only empty seat between F and Q.

⇒ Counting from the left (clockwise) of T, the people between P and T are D, E, and F.

⇒ Therefore, there are 3 people between them.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

INKS is coded as '2348'

KIND is coded as '5432'

Therefore, the code for 'D' is 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Word:

Q U A N T I Z I N G

Rule:

Vowel → Second letter following it in the English alphabet

Consonant → Letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabet

Transformation:

Q → P

U → W

A → C

N → M

T → S

I → K

Z → Y

I → K

N → M

G → F

New Group of Letters:

P W C M S K Y K M F

Counting repeated letters:

K appears 2 times

M appears 2 times

All other letters appear only once.

Therefore, 2 letters appear exactly twice.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2 — Two".

Given:

BACT is coded as '5976'

CAST is coded as '6789'

Therefore, the code for 'S' is 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

GODS is coded as '5921'

DOES is coded as '1249'

Therefore, the code for E is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Word:

H U M B L E D

Arranging the letters in English alphabetical order:

Original Word   : H U M B L E D

Alphabetical Order : B D E H L M U

Comparing positions:

Only the letter at Position 5 remains unchanged.

Therefore, the position of 1 letter remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1 — 1".

Based on the given conditions, the floor-wise arrangement of six people (A, B, C, D, E, and F) living on six different floors (numbered 1 to 6) is determined as follows:

1) Only two people live above D: This implies that D must live on the 4th floor (as only floors 5 and 6 are above it).

2) Only two people live between C and D: With D on the 4th floor, counting two floors downwards (3rd and 2nd), C must live on the 1st floor. (Counting upwards is not possible as there are only 6 floors).

3) F lives below D but above A: The available floors below D (4th floor) are the 3rd and 2nd (since 1st is occupied by C). Since F lives above A, F must live on the 3rd floor and A must live on the 2nd floor.

4) E lives in an odd numbered floor: The remaining vacant floors are the 5th and 6th. Since 5 is an odd number, E lives on the 5th floor.

5) Remaining Person: The only remaining person, B, must live on the remaining 6th floor.

The final arrangement is:

To find the number of people living above A:

A lives on the 2nd floor. The people living above him are on floors 3, 4, 5, and 6.

These people are F, D, E, and B.

Total count = 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Based on the information provided, let us arrange the seven boxes (A, B, C, D, E, F, and G) from top to bottom (7 to 1).

1. Only five boxes are kept above D: This means D must be at the 2nd position from the bottom (Position 2).

2. Only three boxes are kept below B: This means B must be at the 4th position from the bottom (Position 4).

3. G is kept immediately above F but below E: This implies a sequence of E...G, F where G and F are adjacent. Looking at the available positions (7, 6, 5, 3, and 1):

• If we place G at 6 and F at 5, then E must be at 7 (as E is above G).

4. A is not kept below C: This means A is kept above C. The remaining positions are 3 and 1. Therefore, A is at position 3 and C is at position 1.

The final arrangement is as follows:

Now, let us find the number of boxes kept below A:

The boxes below A (at position 3) are D (at position 2) and C (at position 1).

Total boxes below A = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Series:

(Left) £ Q & R % K G @ U $ D C & Ω T Y E # B * A V (Right)

Required pattern:

Letter → Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) £ Q & R % K G @ U $ D C & Ω T Y E # B * A V (Right)

Symbols satisfying the condition:

→ & in (C & Ω)

Only 1 symbol satisfies the condition of being immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a symbol.

Therefore, there is One such symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1 — One".

Logic followed here is to arrange the people according to their exam days based on the given conditions.

1. Q has the exam on Saturday.

2. Only two people have exams between S and Q.

Since Q is on Saturday, counting back two people (Friday and Thursday), S must have the exam on Wednesday.

3. R has the exam after P but before S.

The days before Wednesday (S) are Monday and Tuesday. Since R is after P but before S, P must be on Monday and R must be on Tuesday.

4. U has the exam immediately after T.

The remaining days are Thursday, Friday, and Sunday. The only consecutive days available for T and U are Thursday and Friday. Therefore, T is on Thursday and U is on Friday.

5. The remaining person, V, must have the exam on the remaining day, Sunday.

Final Arrangement Table:

The question asks for the number of people having exams between V and R.

The people between R (Tuesday) and V (Sunday) are S (Wednesday), T (Thursday), U (Friday), and Q (Saturday).

Total count = 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given statement: G > A > M < D = E

Conclusions:

i) G < D → False (As G > A > M < D = E. We know that G and D are both greater than M, but the exact relationship between G and D cannot be determined. Therefore, G < D does not definitely follow.)

ii) E > M → True (As D = E and M < D. Therefore, E > M definitely follows.)

So, only Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given statement: D = C < T < F > V

Conclusions:

i) V > C → False (As D = C < T < F > V. Both C and V are less than F, but the exact relationship between V and C cannot be determined. Therefore, V > C does not definitely follow.)

ii) D > F → False (As D = C < T < F. Therefore, D is less than F, not greater than F.)

So, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Statements:

All marbles are pebbles.

All pebbles are stones.

Conclusions:

(I) All stones are pebbles.

(II) All marbles are stones.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

(I) All stones are pebbles — Does not follow (According to the diagram, the Stones circle is the largest; while all pebbles are inside stones, there is a region of stones that lies outside the pebbles circle.)

(II) All marbles are stones — Follow (Since the marbles circle is entirely contained within the pebbles circle, and the pebbles circle is entirely contained within stones, all marbles are definitely stones.)

Only conclusion (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Series:

L Q C F H K M S A N E J T M P B D G I L R V

Find:

4th letter from the left end = F

4th letter from the right end = I

English Alphabet:

F G H I

Letters between F and I = G, H

Number of letters between F and I = 2

Therefore, the required number of letters is Two.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

YZ ranked 39^th from the top.

YZ ranked 37^th from the bottom.

Formula:

Total students = Rank from top + Rank from bottom − 1

Calculation:

= 39 + 37 − 1

= 76 − 1

= 75

Therefore, the total number of students in the class is 75.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Based on the relationships described in the question, we can determine the family structure as follows:

1. W is the daughter of R - This indicates that W is female and R is her parent.

2. R is the wife of L - This means R is the mother (female) and L is the father (male). They are a married couple.

3. L is the father of D - Since L is the father of D and R is L's wife, R is also the mother of D. This makes W and D siblings.

From the family tree, it is clear that W and D are children of the same parents (R and L). Since W is the daughter, she is the sister of D.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Solution

⇒ A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

⇒ G sits second to the left of C.

⇒ B sits third to the left of G.

⇒ D sits to the immediate left of F.

⇒ A sits second to the right of E.

⇒ G sits second to the left of C (Moving clockwise from C).

⇒ B sits third to the left of G (Moving clockwise from G).

⇒ F and D are placed such that D is to the immediate left of F (Clockwise adjacency).

⇒ E and A occupy the remaining seats such that A is second to the right of E (Moving anti-clockwise from E).

⇒ To find people between F and C from the left of C, we count clockwise from C: E and G sit before reaching F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given signs interchange:

The original equation is: 5 − 3 × 21 + 3 ÷ 10 = ?

After interchanging the signs, the new equation becomes:

= 5 × 3 − 21 ÷ 3 + 10

= 5 × 3 - 7 + 10

= 15 - 7 + 10

= 25 - 7

= 18

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Therefore, the correct cluster to replace the question mark is MKO 720.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series is formed by subtracting the squares of consecutive natural numbers in descending order starting from 9.

Therefore, the code for the missing term ‘?’ is 755.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

The series progresses by multiplying the terms alternately by 3 and 5.

Therefore, the value that should come in place of the question mark is 2700.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is that the letters in the second cluster are obtained by subtracting a constant value from the positional values of the corresponding letters in the first cluster.

Option 1: XY − UV

Option 2: IJ − FG

Option 3: NO − KL

Option 4: ST − PR

In ST − PR, the second letter is obtained by subtracting 2 instead of 3. This does not follow the constant pattern observed in the other options.

The pattern observed is that the positional values are decreased by 3 in all options except ST − PR.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given mathematical symbols:

Given Equation: 9 B 4 D 17 C 36 A 4 = ?

After replacing the letters with their respective signs, the equation becomes:

= 9 × 4 − 17 + 36 ÷ 4

= 9 × 4 − 17 + 9

= 36 - 17 + 9

= 45 - 17

= 28

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 28.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is to identify the option figure in which Figure (X) is embedded as a part of its structure. The primary condition is that rotation is NOT allowed, meaning the orientation of the triangles must remain exactly as shown in the question.

The pattern observed in Option (3) is an exact match for the lines and vertices of Figure (X).

Therefore, the given figure is embedded in Option (3).

Statements:

Some cutters are wrenches.

All wrenches are saws.

Conclusions:

(I) Some cutters are saws.

(II) All saws are wrenches.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

(I) Some cutters are saws — Follow (Because some cutters must overlap with wrenches, and all wrenches are entirely within the saws circle, those cutters that are wrenches are also saws.)

(II) All saws are wrenches — Does not folllow (While all wrenches are saws, the least possible diagram shows a portion of the saws set existing outside the wrenches set; therefore, we cannot conclude that all saws are wrenches.)

Therefore, the correct answer is Only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Mapping of Letters to Operators:

Given Expression:

18 B 2 D 30 A 5 C 6

Replacing the letters with their corresponding mathematical operators:

= 18 × 2 − 30 ÷ 5 + 6

= 18 × 2 - 5 + 6

= 36 - 6 + 6

= 42 - 6

= 36

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark (?) is 36.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of letters in the English Alphabetical Series.

Logic: The pattern followed in the groups is (1st letter + 2) = 2nd letter and (2nd letter − 4) = 3rd letter.

Let's check the options one by one:

1. QSP:

2. JLH:

3. OQM:

4. MOK:

Here, the letter-cluster QSP does not follow the (+2, −4) pattern observed in the other groups.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Deciphering the signs:

Given Equation: 119 B 5 D 48 A 6 C 25

Replacing the letters with mathematical signs:

= 119 × 5 − 48 ÷ 6 + 25

= 119 × 5 - 8 + 25

= 595 - 8 + 25

= 620 - 8

= 612 

Therefore, the value that will come in place of the question mark is 612.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: When the mirror or water source is placed horizontally at the bottom of a figure (along the X-Y line), the resulting image is its Water Reflection. In a water reflection, the figure undergoes a vertical inversion.

Therefore, the figure in Option (4) accurately represents the water reflection of the given figure.

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of the letters in the English alphabetical series.

Pattern: The second letter cluster is obtained by subtracting 3 from the positional value of each letter in the first letter cluster.

(1) IK − FH:

(2) SU − PR:

(3) MN − LP:

This does not follow the −3 pattern.

(4) EG − BD:

Therefore, the letter cluster pair MN − LP does not belong to the group.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (1st Number × 5 = 2nd Number) and (2nd Number + 10 = 3rd Number).

For (12, 60, 70) →

Calculation 1: 12 × 5 = 60

Calculation 2: 60 + 10 = 70

For (7, 35, 45) →

Calculation 1: 7 × 5 = 35

Calculation 2: 35 + 10 = 45

Similarly, let's find the matching set among the options:

For (6, 30, 40) →

Calculation 1: 6 × 5 = 30

Calculation 2: 30 + 10 = 40

Therefore, the set (6, 30, 40) follows the same logic as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Word:

VOYAGER

Arrange the letters in alphabetical order:

A E G O R V Y

Comparison:

No letter remains at the same position.

Therefore, the number of letters whose positions remain unchanged is 0.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4 (None)".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The second number is obtained by cubing the first number and then adding 2 to the result.

Pattern: (First number)³ + 2 = Second number

Checking for Option (1): X = 3, Y = 127

For the first pair X : 29 →

(3)³ + 2 = 27 + 2 = 29

Here, the value of X is 3.

For the second pair 5 : Y →

(5)3 + 2 = 125 + 2 = 127

Here, the value of Y is 127.

Therefore, the numbers that should replace X and Y are 3 and 127 respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series follows an addition pattern where a constant difference of 16 is added to each preceding term to obtain the next term.

Therefore, the value that should come in place of ‘?’ is 89.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is based on separate patterns for the letters and the numbers in each cluster.

Therefore, the correct cluster to replace the question mark is KDG 769.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is:

Logic: First Number = Second Number × 12.

For the first pair

X : 13 →

Value of X = 13 × 12 = 156

For the second pair

216 : Y →

Value of Y = 216 ÷ 12 = 18

Similarly, by substituting the values, we find that X = 156 and Y = 18 satisfies the given numerical analogy.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Decoding the letters:

Given Equation: 211 B 3 D 54 A 2 C 32 = ?

After replacing the letters with their respective mathematical operators, the equation becomes:

= 211 × 3 − 54 ÷ 2 + 32

= 211 × 3 - 27 + 32

= 633 - 27 + 32

= 665 - 27

= 638

Therefore, the value of the expression is 638.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Zorawar Light Tank.

Key Points

• The Zorawar Light Tank is an indigenous armored platform developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration with private sector partner Larsen & Toubro (L&T) to meet the Indian Army's requirements.
• In 2025, the project reached a critical phase involving the test-firing of an indigenous Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) to validate the tank's weapon system integration and tactical lethality.
• This platform was specifically conceptualized for high-altitude warfare, addressing the operational challenges faced in terrains like Eastern Ladakh along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
• The tank is equipped with state-of-the-art technologies, including Artificial Intelligence (AI), integration with swarm drones, and a high power-to-weight ratio for superior mobility in mountainous regions.

 Additional Information

• Zorawar Project Specifications:
• The tank weighs approximately 25 tonnes, making it air-transportable by the C-17 Globemaster for rapid strategic deployment.
• It is named after General Zorawar Singh, the legendary 19th-century military commander who led successful expeditions in Ladakh and Tibet.
• Technical Context of Other Options:
• The Arjun MBT and T-90 Bhishma are Main Battle Tanks (MBT) weighing significantly more (approx 45 to 68 tonnes), which limits their agility in narrow mountain passes.
• The Kestrel Armoured Vehicle, also known as WhAP (Wheeled Armoured Platform), is an 8×8 amphibious infantry combat vehicle, distinct from the tracked light tank category.

The correct answer is International Monetary Fund.

Key Points

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) provides emergency financial assistance through two specific mechanisms: the Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) and the Rapid Credit Facility (RCF).
• The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) was established in 2011 to provide rapid financial assistance to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need without the requirement of a full-fledged economic program.
• The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid, concessional financial assistance with zero percent interest rates specifically to low-income countries (LICs) facing urgent BoP needs, such as those caused by natural disasters or commodity price shocks.
• Both instruments are designed for situations where a full economic program is either not necessary (due to the transitory nature of the shock) or not feasible (due to urgent capacity constraints or domestic instability).
• These facilities were heavily utilized during the COVID-19 pandemic, where the IMF doubled the annual access limits to meet the unprecedented global demand for emergency liquidity.

 Additional Information

• International Monetary Fund (IMF):
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it is headquartered in Washington, D.C. and works to foster global monetary cooperation and financial stability.
• It manages the Special Drawing Rights (SDR), an international reserve asset used to supplement the official reserves of member countries.
• World Bank:
• Focuses primarily on long-term economic development and poverty reduction through project loans for infrastructure, health, and education.
• Asian Development Bank (ADB):
• A regional development bank founded in 1966 to promote social and economic development in Asia and the Pacific.
• UNEP Finance Initiative:
• A partnership between the United Nations Environment Programme and the financial sector to encourage sustainable investment and green banking.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• The Cabinet Mission was a high-powered delegation dispatched to India in March 1946 by the British Labour Government under the leadership of Prime Minister Clement Attlee.
• The mission was composed of exactly three British Cabinet ministers: Lord Pethick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for India), Sir Stafford Cripps (President of the Board of Trade), and A.V. Alexander (First Lord of the Admiralty).
• The primary objective of sending these three members was to hold discussions with Indian leaders to reach an agreement on the constitutional future of India and the transfer of power from British to Indian hands.
• Upon its arrival in Delhi on March 24, 1946, the mission held extensive negotiations with the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League to resolve the deadlock over the demand for a separate state of Pakistan.
• The mission aimed to assist in the formation of a Constituent Assembly and an Interim Government that would manage the country during the transition to independence.

 Additional Information

• Roles of the Mission Members:
• Lord Pethick-Lawrence: Acted as the leader of the mission and was the chief negotiator representing the British crown.
• Sir Stafford Cripps: He had prior experience with Indian constitutional matters, having led the Cripps Mission in 1942.
• A.V. Alexander: Represented the British military interests and the Admiralty during the strategic discussions.
• Key Proposals of the Cabinet Mission Plan:
• The mission officially rejected the Muslim League demand for a fully sovereign Pakistan on the grounds of administrative and economic viability.
• It proposed a Three-Tier Federal Structure where the central Union of India would control Defense, Foreign Affairs, and Communications.
• Provinces were divided into three groups: Section A (Hindu-majority provinces), Section B (Muslim-majority provinces in the Northwest), and Section C (Muslim-majority provinces in the Northeast).
• The plan allowed for the grouping of provinces, a clause that later became a major point of contention between Jawaharlal Nehru and Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

The correct answer is Net Domestic Product (NDP).

Key Points

• Net Domestic Product (NDP) is defined as the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a nation minus the depreciation on its capital goods. It represents the net value of goods and services produced within a country after accounting for the wear and tear of fixed assets.
• The fundamental formula used in national income accounting is: NDP = GDP − Depreciation. This metric helps economists understand how much the country needs to spend to maintain its current GDP.
• Depreciation, often termed as Consumption of Fixed Capital (CFC), refers to the decrease in the monetary value of an asset over time due to use, wear and tear, or obsolescence.
• In India, these economic aggregates are compiled and released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• While GDP indicates the total production scale, NDP provides a more realistic picture of sustainable economic growth as it considers the capital consumption required to keep the economy running.

 Additional Information

• Net National Product (NNP)
• It is calculated by subtracting depreciation from the Gross National Product (GNP).
• When NNP is calculated at factor cost, it is officially recognized as the National Income of a country.
• Gross National Income (GNI)
• This represents the total income earned by a nation residents and businesses, including Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA).
• It differs from GDP as it includes income earned by citizens working abroad and excludes income earned by foreigners within the country.
• Personal Income
• This refers to the total money income received by individuals or households from all sources before personal income taxes are paid.
• It includes transfer payments such as pensions and unemployment benefits but excludes undistributed corporate profits.

The correct answer is Dayanand Saraswati.

Key Points

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati (born Mool Shankar) authored the influential work Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Truth) in 1875.
• The book was originally written in Hindi to make Vedic teachings accessible to the common public, marking a shift from the traditional use of Sanskrit for religious texts.
• The central theme of the book is the slogan Back to the Vedas, asserting that the four Vedas are the ultimate source of infallible knowledge and divine revelation.
• It provides a detailed critique of contemporary social evils, specifically targeting idol worship, polytheism, animal sacrifice, and the caste system based on birth rather than merit.
• Satyarth Prakash serves as the foundational theological document for the Arya Samaj, a reformist movement founded by Saraswati on April 7, 1875, in Bombay.
• The text also introduces the concept of Shuddhi, a process aimed at reconverting individuals back to Hinduism, which significantly influenced the socio-religious landscape of British India.

 Additional Information

• Jyotirao Phule
• He was a prominent social reformer from Maharashtra who founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 to advocate for the rights of Dalits and lower castes.
• His most famous literary work is Gulamgiri (Slavery), published in 1873, which critiqued the Brahminical hegemony.
• Gopal Hari Deshmukh
• Popularly known by his pen name Lokhitwadi, he was a rationalist thinker who advocated for social reform through his writings.
• He is famous for the Shatapatre (Hundred Letters), a series of essays published in the Marathi weekly Prabhakar between 1848 and 1850.
• Baba Amte
• A 20th-century social activist known for his selfless service towards the rehabilitation and empowerment of leprosy patients.
• He founded the Anandwan ashram in Chandrapur, Maharashtra, and was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award.

The correct answer is Dravidian styles.

Key Points

• The Vesara style represents a unique hybrid form of Indian temple architecture that emerged as a synthesis of the Nagara style (Northern) and the Dravidian style (Southern).
• It is predominantly found in the Deccan region of India, specifically in the area between the Vindhya mountains and the Krishna River.
• The style originated under the patronage of the Early Chalukyas of Badami during the 7th century AD, who experimented with both Northern and Southern architectural elements.
• A defining feature of Vesara architecture is the Vimana (tower), which combines the curvilinear shape of the Nagara Shikhara with the tiered, horizontal layers of the Dravidian Vimana.
• The Chalukyas of Kalyani and the Hoysalas later refined this style, leading to highly ornate and complex structures known for their stellate (star-shaped) ground plans.
• Prominent examples of this architectural fusion can be seen at Pattadakal, Aihole, and the Chennakesava Temple at Belur.

 Additional Information

• Nagara Style:
• Primarily developed in North India, characterized by a curvilinear Shikhara and a square base.
• It lacks the elaborate Gopurams (gateway towers) and boundary walls typically seen in Southern temples.
• Dravidian Style:
• Flourished in South India under the Pallavas, Cholas, and Pandyas.
• Key features include pyramidal towers (Vimanas), large temple tanks, and massive Gopurams.
• Western Chalukya Style:
• Often considered a sophisticated evolution of the Vesara style, known for using soapstone (chloritic schist) which allowed for intricate carvings.
• Key sites include Lakkundi and Itagi, bridging the gap between early Chalukyan and late Hoysala architecture.

The correct answer is Elavenil Valarivan.

Key Points

• Indian Olympian Elavenil Valarivan demonstrated exceptional skill to win the bronze medal in the women's 10m air rifle event at the ISSF World Cup held in Munich, Germany.
• In a highly competitive final, she registered a total score of 230.1 to secure the third spot on the podium, maintaining her consistency at the international level.
• The gold medal in this event was won by China's Huang Yuting, who achieved a world record score of 252.7, while the silver medal went to another Chinese shooter, Han Jiayu, with a score of 252.6.
• This victory was significant as it was part of the ISSF World Cup series in 2024, serving as a crucial preparatory event for elite shooters heading toward the Paris 2024 Olympic Games.
• Elavenil Valarivan remains one of India's top-ranked shooters, having previously held the World Number 1 spot in the 10m air rifle category.

 Additional Information

• Sift Kaur Samra:
• She is a specialist in the 50m rifle 3 positions event rather than the 10m air rifle.
• She gained international fame by winning the individual gold medal at the 2022 Asian Games with a world record score of 469.6.
• Anjum Moudgil:
• A veteran Indian shooter and an Arjuna Award recipient who competes in both 10m air rifle and 50m rifle 3 positions.
• She won the silver medal at the 2018 ISSF World Shooting Championships, which secured India's first quota place for the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
• Suruchi Singh:
• She is an emerging talent in the Indian shooting circuit, primarily competing in pistol events.
• She previously won a bronze medal for India in the 10m air pistol mixed team event at the ISSF World Cup in Cairo.

The correct answer is Smriti Mandhana.

Key Points

• The Orange Cap is a prestigious individual award in the Women’s Premier League (WPL), presented to the player who finishes as the leading run-scorer of the tournament.
• Smriti Mandhana, a prolific left-handed opening batter, serves as the captain of the Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) franchise in the WPL.
• Mandhana made history during the inaugural WPL auction in 2023 when she became the most expensive player, being signed by RCB for a staggering 3.4 crore.
• Winning the Orange Cap signifies batting consistency and technical excellence, as the recipient must maintain a high scoring rate and average across the group stages and the knockout phase of the league.

 Additional Information

• Meg Lanning:
• She is a former Australian captain and a legendary figure in women’s cricket, known for leading the Delhi Capitals (DC) in the WPL.
• Lanning was the first-ever recipient of the Orange Cap in the 2023 season, where she scored 345 runs.
• Harmanpreet Kaur:
• The captain of the Mumbai Indians (MI) and the Indian National Team, she is celebrated for her aggressive middle-order batting.
• She led the Mumbai Indians to the inaugural WPL title in 2023, making them the first-ever champions of the league.
• Liesel Lee:
• Commonly known as Lizelle Lee, she is a former South African opening batter renowned for her power-hitting capabilities.
• She has been a consistent performer in various global T20 leagues, including the Women’s Big Bash League (WBBL) and The Hundred.

The correct answer is Life Insurance Corporation of India.

Key Points

• The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) was established on September 1, 1956, through the Life Insurance Corporation Act passed by the Parliament of India earlier that year.
• The formation of LIC marked the nationalisation of the Indian life insurance industry, which saw the merger and takeover of 245 private insurance companies and provident societies.
• Specifically, this consolidation included 154 Indian insurers, 16 non-Indian insurers, and 75 provident societies that were operating in the country prior to the nationalisation.
• The Government of India took this step to protect the interests of policyholders from the frequent failures of private insurers and to ensure that insurance coverage reached the rural masses.
• By centralising the life insurance business, the government aimed to mobilize public savings for nation-building and social welfare activities, significantly supporting India's Five-Year Plans.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Insurance Entities:
• Private players such as HDFC Life Insurance Company Limited, ICICI Prudential Life Insurance Company Limited, and Aditya Birla Sun Life Insurance Company Limited entered the market after 2000.
• The re-entry of private companies followed the Malhotra Committee Report (1994) and the subsequent passing of the IRDA Act in 1999, which ended the state monopoly over the insurance sector.
• Historical Milestones:
• The Oriental Life Insurance Company, founded in 1818 in Calcutta, was the first life insurance company to operate on Indian soil.
• The Insurance Act of 1938 was the first comprehensive legislation to govern both life and non-life insurance to ensure state supervision.
• Regulatory Framework:
• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) was constituted as a statutory body in April 2000 to regulate and promote the insurance and re-insurance industries.
• LIC is headquartered in Mumbai and remains the largest institutional investor in the Indian economy.

The correct answer is 2 million.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is a flagship credit scheme launched by the Government of India on April 8, 2015, to provide institutional finance to micro and small enterprises.
• As of the Union Budget 2024-25, the maximum loan limit under this scheme has been increased to 20 lakh (equivalent to 2 million) to further support burgeoning entrepreneurs.
• The enhanced limit of 2 million is specifically available for those borrowers who have successfully availed and repaid their previous loans under the Tarun category, demonstrating a strong credit history.
• The scheme is managed by the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency, which operates as a subsidiary of the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
• These loans are categorized as MUDRA loans and are disbursed through various intermediaries, including Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks, MFIs, and NBFCs.

 Additional Information

• Categorization of PMMY Loans:
• Shishu: This initial tier covers loans up to 50,000, focusing on entrepreneurs in the very early stages of business setup.
• Kishore: This mid-tier category covers loans ranging from above 50,000 up to 5 lakh, targeting established units seeking expansion.
• Tarun: Traditionally the highest tier, it covered loans above 5 lakh up to 10 lakh, which has now been extended to 20 lakh (2 million) for eligible proven borrowers.
• Collateral-Free Nature: MUDRA loans are typically collateral-free, as the credit risk is mitigated through the Credit Guarantee Fund for Micro Units (CGFMU).
• Eligible Activities: Loans are provided for income-generating activities in the Manufacturing, Trading, and Service sectors, including allied agricultural activities such as poultry, dairy, and beekeeping.

The correct answer is It assured equal treatment and non-interference in religious practices.

Key Points

• The Queen's Proclamation, issued on November 1, 1858, was formally announced by Lord Canning at a Grand Darbar in Allahabad. It signified the end of the British East India Company's rule and the direct assumption of Indian administration by the British Crown.
• A primary objective of the proclamation was to pacify the Indian population following the Revolt of 1857. To achieve this, it explicitly guaranteed that the British Government would abstain from all interference with the religious beliefs and traditional worship of its Indian subjects.
• It emphasized the principle of equality before the law, promising that Indians would be admitted to offices in government service based on their qualifications, education, and integrity, without discrimination based on race, creed, or caste.
• The document pledged to respect the rights, dignity, and honor of the Princely States. It officially withdrew the Doctrine of Lapse, ensuring that the British Crown would honor all existing treaties and refrain from further territorial expansion.

 Additional Information

• Government of India Act 1858:
• This Act established the office of the Secretary of State for India, a member of the British Cabinet, who was assisted by a 15-member Council of India.
• The Governor-General was given the title of Viceroy, serving as the personal representative of the Sovereign in India. Lord Canning became the first Viceroy.
• Context of Other Options:
• Universal Suffrage: Voting rights were not introduced by this proclamation; limited franchise only began to develop much later through acts in 1892, 1909, and 1919.
• Princely States: Instead of being abolished, these states were integrated into the subsidiary alliance framework under British Paramountcy, serving as 'breakwaters to the storm' for the British Raj.
• Independence: The proclamation was a colonial instrument designed to strengthen British control for the next 90 years, rather than granting sovereignty to India.

The correct answer is Being denied basic amenities that others use.

Key Points

• Social Exclusion is a conceptual framework in Economics and Sociology that views poverty as a process where individuals or groups are systematically blocked from various rights, opportunities, and resources that are normally available to members of a different group.
• In the context of Poverty Analysis, it refers to the situation where the poor are forced to live in poor surroundings with other poor people, excluded from enjoying the Social Equality and facilities experienced by the better-off sections of society.
• This concept identifies that the denial of Basic Amenities—including Quality Education, Healthcare Services, Safe Drinking Water, and Sanitation—is both a cause and a consequence of poverty, leading to a cycle of deprivation.
• A primary historical example in the Indian context is the Caste System, where individuals from specific communities were excluded from equal opportunities and denied access to public resources, thereby institutionalizing poverty through social barriers.
• Modern metrics like the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the UNDP, use social exclusion indicators to provide a more comprehensive view of poverty than traditional Income-based Metrics.

 Additional Information

• Vulnerability to Poverty:
• It is a measure that describes the greater probability of certain communities (such as Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) or individuals (such as widows or the physically challenged) becoming, or remaining, poor in the coming years.
• It is determined by the availability of assets, Human Capital (education and health), and the ability to handle risks like Natural Disasters or economic slumps.
• Poverty Line in India:
• Traditionally calculated using a Consumption-based Approach, specifically the minimum level of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel, and light.
• The NITI Aayog (formerly the Planning Commission) estimates the poverty line based on data collected by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), currently emphasizing calorie requirements of 2,400 calories in rural areas and 2,100 calories in urban areas.

The correct answer is Sale of steel to car manufacturers.

Key Points

• National Income is defined as the total market value of all final goods and services produced by a country's residents within a specific period, typically a financial year.
• Intermediate goods are products used as inputs in the production of other goods. Steel sold to car manufacturers is a classic example of an intermediate good because it undergoes further processing to become part of a finished car.
• The value of intermediate goods is already included in the price of the final product. Therefore, counting the sale of steel separately would lead to the problem of double counting, which provides an exaggerated figure of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• In national accounting, only the value added at each stage of production or the final sale price to the end consumer is considered to ensure the accuracy of the National Income calculation.

 Additional Information

• Final Goods vs. Intermediate Goods:
• Final Goods: These are goods purchased for direct consumption by households (e.g., furniture, cars) or for investment by firms. They are the end products of the production chain.
• Capital Goods: A computer sold to a business is classified as a final good because it is an investment in fixed capital. It is used in the production process for many years and is not 'used up' or transformed into another product within a single accounting cycle.
• Methods of Calculation:
• Product Method (Value Added Method): Calculates the sum of Value Added by all producing enterprises in the economy.
• Expenditure Method: Sums up all final expenditures on goods and services, including Private Final Consumption Expenditure and Gross Domestic Capital Formation.

The correct answer is Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Key Points

• The Servants of India Society was founded on June 12, 1905, by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress.
• The society was formally inaugurated at Fergusson Hill in Pune, Maharashtra, with the intent of training 'national missionaries' for the service of India.
• The primary objective of the organization was to promote social and humanitarian development, focusing on education, sanitation, and healthcare while disregarding distinctions of caste and creed.
• Members of the society were required to take a vow of poverty and lead a life dedicated to the public good, often working in the fields of tribal welfare and the upliftment of the underprivileged.
• The society published a newsletter titled The Hitavada (The People’s Paper) starting from 1911 to propagate its views on social reform and political education.
• Under Gokhale’s leadership, the society remained non-political and secular, aiming to create a cadre of selfless workers who would work toward national integration.

 Additional Information

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
• Commonly regarded as the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi, he presided over the Banaras Session of the Indian National Congress in 1905.
• He was a leading figure of the Moderate faction, advocating for constitutional agitation and administrative reforms within the British framework.
• Bipin Chandra Pal:
• A key member of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, he was a staunch advocate of Swadeshi and the boycott of British goods.
• He is often hailed as the Father of Revolutionary Thoughts in India and edited the journal New India.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
• Known as Lokmanya, he was a radical nationalist who famously stated, Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.
• He founded the Home Rule League in April 1916 and utilized the Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English) newspapers to mobilize the public.
• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• Revered as the Grand Old Man of India, he formulated the Drain of Wealth theory in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.
• He was the first Indian to be elected as a member of the British Parliament (House of Commons) in 1892.

The correct answer is Gaganyaan-G1 mission.

Key Points

• The Gaganyaan-G1 mission is the first uncrewed test flight under India’s ambitious Gaganyaan programme, aimed at demonstrating the nation’s human spaceflight capability.
• Scheduled for launch by ISRO around late 2024 or early 2025, this mission is a vital stepping stone before the crewed mission targeted for 2026.
• The mission will utilize the Human-rated LVM3 (HLVM3) launch vehicle, which has been re-engineered to meet stringent safety standards for carrying humans.
• The primary objective of G1 is to validate the Orbital Module, consisting of the Crew Module (CM) and Service Module (SM), and to test the Crew Escape System.
• The spacecraft will carry the humanoid robot Vyommitra, designed to monitor microgravity parameters and simulate human functions to ensure the safety of future Gaganyatris (Indian astronauts).
• Successful completion involves a controlled re-entry into the Earth's atmosphere followed by a safe splashdown in the Indian Ocean.

 Additional Information

• Shukrayaan-1 Orbiter:
• This is ISRO's planned scientific mission to Venus to study its atmospheric composition and surface features.
• While initially planned for earlier, current projections place the launch window around 2028.
• Chandrayaan-4:
• A successor to the successful Chandrayaan-3, this mission aims for Lunar Sample Return.
• It involves a multi-module spacecraft and is expected to be launched around 2027 or 2028.
• Aditya-L2 Telescope:
• Following the Aditya-L1 solar observatory launched in 2023, an L2 mission is a conceptual successor for deeper solar and space observation.
• The Lagrange Point 2 offers a stable environment for telescopes to observe the universe without interference from the Sun and Earth.

The correct answer is To create holistic model villages.

Key Points

• The Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11 October 2014, commemorating the birth anniversary of the renowned social reformer Lok Nayak Jayaprakash Narayan.
• The primary goal of the scheme is the holistic development of identified Gram Panchayats, which involves not only physical infrastructure but also social and cultural development.
• Under the guidelines, every Member of Parliament (MP) is expected to adopt one village and develop it into a Model Village (Adarsh Gram) by the year 2016, and two more by 2019.
• The program emphasizes convergence of existing government schemes such as MGNREGA, Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), and National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) to ensure resources are utilized effectively without requiring a separate dedicated budget.
• Key focus areas include improving basic amenities, promoting livelihood opportunities, enriching social capital, and ensuring environmental sustainability within the rural ecosystem.

 Additional Information

• Implementation Framework:
• The District Collector serves as the nodal officer at the district level, responsible for coordinating the implementation of the Village Development Plan (VDP).
• MPs identify the Gram Panchayat (other than their own or their spouse’s village) to be developed, fostering a sense of ownership and personal involvement in rural progress.
• The scheme aims to create vibrant villages that serve as training grounds and inspiration for other nearby Panchayats to replicate the model.
• Broader Targets:
• Following the initial phases, the initiative was expanded with a target to develop five more Adarsh Grams (one per year) between 2019 and 2024.
• The values promoted include Antyodaya, community spirit, gender equality, and transparency in local governance through the Gram Sabha.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Madhya Pradesh State Government, led by Chief Minister Mohan Yadav, officially launched the Parth (Police-Army Recruitment Training House) scheme in January 2025.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to provide free professional training and coaching to the state's youth who aspire to join the Indian Army, State Police, and various Paramilitary Forces.
• This scheme specifically targets candidates from rural areas and economically underprivileged backgrounds who often lack the financial resources to enroll in private coaching institutes.
• The Parth Scheme offers a comprehensive training module that includes preparation for both physical endurance tests and written competitive examinations, ensuring a holistic preparation process.
• By setting up these training houses at the district and block levels, the government aims to significantly increase the recruitment percentage of youth from Madhya Pradesh into national defense and internal security roles.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Implementation:
• The Home Department and the Sports and Youth Welfare Department of Madhya Pradesh serve as the nodal agencies for the execution and monitoring of the Parth Scheme.
• Existing government infrastructure, such as district stadiums and police parade grounds, are utilized to conduct physical drills, making the program cost-effective for the state exchequer.
• Employment Generation:
• The scheme is a critical component of the state's broader Youth Empowerment Policy, designed to tackle unemployment by aligning vocational training with high-demand government sectors.
• Qualified instructors, including retired defense personnel and police officers, are often engaged to provide mentorship and real-world insights to the trainees.

The correct answer is Anant Laxman Kanhere.

Key Points

• Anant Laxman Kanhere was a 18-year-old revolutionary from Aurangabad and a member of the secret society Abhinav Bharat, founded by the Savarkar brothers.
• On December 21, 1909, Kanhere shot Arthur Mason Tippetts Jackson, the District Magistrate of Nasik, during a farewell function at the Vijayanand Theatre.
• The assassination was a direct retaliation for the harsh sentencing of Ganesh Savarkar (Babarao), who was condemned to transportation for life for publishing patriotic verses.
• Kanhere used a Browning pistol smuggled from London to carry out the act, which was intended to strike terror into the hearts of British officials suppressing the nationalist movement.
• The incident led to the uncovering of the Nasik Conspiracy Case, which implicated several revolutionaries in a plot to overthrow the British Raj.
• Following a trial, Anant Kanhere, along with Krishnaji Gopal Karve and Vinayak Deshpande, was executed on April 19, 1910, in Thane Jail.

 Additional Information

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:
• He was a key leader of the Indian revolutionary movement and established Abhinav Bharat (Young India Society) in 1904.
• He was accused of masterminding the plot and providing the weapons for the Jackson assassination while he was in London.
• Madan Lal Dhingra:
• A revolutionary associate of India House who assassinated Sir William Hutt Curzon Wyllie in London on July 1, 1909.
• His sacrifice was a major milestone in the overseas revolutionary phase of the Indian Independence Movement.
• Vasudev Balwant Phadke:
• Known as the Father of Indian Armed Rebellion, he organized the Ramosi Peasant Force in Maharashtra during the 1870s.
• He led an armed struggle against the British during the Deccan Famine and was eventually deported to Aden, where he died in 1883.

The correct answer is The Gujarat Shops and Establishments (Amendment) Bill, 2026.

Key Points

• The Gujarat Legislative Assembly passed the Gujarat Shops and Establishments (Amendment) Bill, 2026 unanimously to modernize the legal framework governing commercial activities in the state.
• The primary objective of this legislation is to enhance the Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) index by reducing red tape and simplifying the compliance burden for small and medium-scale entrepreneurs.
• Key provisions of the bill include the extension of operational hours for shops and commercial establishments, allowing them to remain open for longer periods to meet consumer demand and boost the local economy.
• The amendment introduces a digital-first approach for registration, where business owners can apply for and receive registration certificates online, eliminating the need for physical visits to government offices.
• By streamlining the labor and operational regulations, the bill aims to foster a more conducive environment for investment and significantly increase employment opportunities across the service and retail sectors.

 Additional Information

• Gujarat Shops and Establishments Act:
• This Act is the foundational law that regulates the terms of service, including leave policies, rest intervals, and working hours for employees in the unorganized sector.
• The 2026 Amendment aligns state regulations with the broader Central Labor Codes, ensuring consistency in labor welfare and industrial relations across India.
• Establishments such as residential hotels, restaurants, theaters, and retail outlets fall under the jurisdiction of this Act, impacting millions of workers in urban centers like Ahmedabad and Surat.
• The move toward self-certification mentioned in recent reforms allows employers to declare compliance voluntarily, shifting the governance model from inspection-based to trust-based administration.
• Historically, Gujarat has been at the forefront of industrial development, and such legislative updates are critical for maintaining its status as a preferred investment destination.

The correct answer is He became the first Indian to win a medal in the indoor heptathlon event..

Key Points

• Tejaswin Shankar created history at the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships by securing a silver medal in the men's heptathlon, becoming the first Indian athlete to achieve a podium finish in this specific multi-discipline event.
• He achieved a total score of 5,649 points, which established a new National Record for India in the indoor heptathlon, surpassing previous benchmarks.
• The competition was held in Tehran, Iran, and featured intense competition over two days across seven different track and field disciplines.
• Shankar's performance was characterized by strong showings in the high jump and 60m hurdles, which helped him maintain a lead and eventually secure the silver behind China's Zhu Zhentao.
• This achievement is significant because it highlights India's growing prowess in combined events, which traditionally require a high degree of versatility and stamina across various athletic categories.

 Additional Information

• Heptathlon (Indoor) Structure:
• The indoor heptathlon consists of seven events: 60m sprint, long jump, shot put, high jump, 60m hurdles, pole vault, and the 1,000m run.
• It is the indoor counterpart to the outdoor decathlon (10 events) and tests an athlete's speed, explosive power, and endurance.
• Tejaswin Shankar's Background:
• He is primarily a high jump specialist and holds the Indian National Record in the outdoor high jump with a height of 2.29 meters.
• His transition to decathlon and heptathlon has been successful, as evidenced by his silver medal at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou in the decathlon event.
• Asian Indoor Athletics Championships:
• Organized by the Asian Athletics Association, this biennial event serves as a premier platform for Asian athletes to compete in an indoor environment, often serving as a qualifier for the World Indoor Championships.

The correct answer is Bharhut Stupa.

Key Points

• The Bharhut Stupa is a major Buddhist architectural site situated in the Satna district of Madhya Pradesh.
• While its foundations were likely laid during the Mauryan Empire under Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE, the elaborate stone railings and ornamental gateways (toranas) were significantly expanded during the Shunga Dynasty in the 2nd century BCE.
• The ruins were first identified by the renowned archaeologist Alexander Cunningham in 1873, which led to the preservation of various relief panels that provide a visual narrative of early Indian history.
• The site is famous for its red sandstone carvings that represent Jataka tales (stories of Buddha's previous lives), scenes from the life of Siddhartha Gautama, and early Buddhist iconography including Yakshas and Yakshinis.
• Because the original stupa was largely destroyed, many of its significant decorative pieces were relocated and are now housed in the Indian Museum at Kolkata and the Allahabad Museum.

 Additional Information

• Sarnath Stupa
• Located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, this site features the massive Dhamek Stupa.
• It is historically significant as the place where Lord Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as the Dharma Chakra Pravartana.
• Amravati Stupa
• Found in the Palnadu/Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh on the banks of the Krishna River.
• Constructed during the Satavahana period, it was one of the largest stupas in India, renowned for its intricate carvings made from white marble-like limestone.
• Piprahwa Stupa
• Situated in the Siddharthnagar district of Uttar Pradesh, near the Indo-Nepal border.
• Archaeological excavations at this site yielded stone caskets with inscriptions suggesting they contained the original relics of the Shakya Sage (Buddha).

The correct answer is 31%.

Key Points

• According to the 15th National Census of India conducted in 2011, the total population of India reached 1.21 billion (1,210.19 million).
• The urban population of the country was recorded at 377.1 million, which constitutes approximately 31.16% of the total population. For examination purposes, this is frequently rounded to 31%.
• The rural population stood at 833.1 million, accounting for 68.84% of the total headcount.
• There was a notable increase in the level of urbanization from 27.81% in the 2001 Census to 31.16% in the 2011 Census, marking a growth of 3.35 percentage points over the decade.
• For the first time since independence, the absolute increase in the urban population (91 million) surpassed the absolute increase in the rural population (90.5 million) during the 2001-2011 period.
• The decadal growth rate of the urban population was 31.8%, while the rural population grew by only 12.3%.

 Additional Information

• Urbanization by States and Union Territories:
• Among the major states, Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of the population living in urban areas, followed by Maharashtra (45.2%) and Gujarat (42.6%).
• By total absolute numbers, Maharashtra has the highest urban population in India with over 50.8 million residents.
• Among all states, Goa is the most urbanized state overall, with 62.2% of its population residing in urban centers.
• Himachal Pradesh remains the least urbanized state, with only 10% of its population living in urban areas, followed by Bihar (11.3%).
• The National Capital Territory of Delhi (97.5%) and the Union Territory of Chandigarh (97.25%) are almost entirely urbanized.
• Criteria for Urban Areas:
• The Census 2011 defined urban areas using two categories: Statutory Towns (all places with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board, etc.) and Census Towns.
• A Census Town must have a minimum population of 5,000, at least 75% of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits, and a population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km.

The correct answer is Root hair.

Key Points

• Root hairs are lateral, tubular, unicellular outgrowths of the epiblema (the outermost layer of the root) that are specifically adapted for the uptake of water and nutrients.
• These structures are primarily found in the region of maturation (also known as the zone of differentiation), which is the area of the root where cells have reached their final functional form.
• The primary physiological function of root hairs is to vastly increase the total surface area of the root system, ensuring maximum contact with capillary water held between soil particles.
• Water absorption occurs through osmosis; the solute concentration inside the root hair cell is typically higher than in the soil, creating a water potential gradient that draws water inward.
• The cell wall of the root hair consists of two layers: an outer layer of pectic substances that helps the hair adhere to soil particles and an inner layer of cellulose.

 Additional Information

• Stem node:
• Nodes are the specific points on a plant stem where leaves, axillary buds, and branches originate.
• While some plants produce adventitious roots from nodes, the nodes themselves are not the primary site for water absorption from the soil.
• Flower stalk:
• Commonly referred to as the pedicel (for individual flowers) or peduncle (for clusters), its main role is to support the flower and facilitate the transport of photosynthates and water to reproductive organs.
• Leaf vein:
• Veins are composed of vascular tissues, specifically xylem and phloem, encased in a bundle sheath.
• Their function is to distribute water throughout the mesophyll for photosynthesis and to export manufactured sugars to the rest of the plant.

The correct answer is Releases carbon dioxide.

Key Points

• Baking soda, which is chemically known as Sodium Bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), serves as a chemical leavening agent that produces a light and airy texture in baked goods.
• When baking soda is combined with moisture and an acidic ingredient (such as buttermilk, lemon juice, cream of tartar, or molasses), a chemical reaction occurs that immediately releases carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas.
• This acid-base reaction creates numerous tiny gas bubbles that become trapped within the gluten structure or fat matrix of the batter.
• During the baking process, the heat from the oven causes these trapped carbon dioxide bubbles to expand, pushing the batter upward and resulting in the rising of the cake.
• If no acid is present, baking soda can still release gas through thermal decomposition at temperatures above 80°C (176°F), though this process is less efficient and typically requires higher heat to start.

 Additional Information

• Chemical Byproducts:
• The reaction of baking soda with an acid produces water, carbon dioxide, and a neutral salt.
• Without sufficient acid to neutralize the alkaline baking soda, the residue sodium carbonate can impart a metallic or bitter, soapy taste to the food.
• Baking Powder vs. Baking Soda:
• Unlike baking soda, baking powder is a complete leavening agent containing both sodium bicarbonate and a built-in acidifying agent.
• Browning and pH:
• Baking soda increases the pH level of the batter; this higher alkalinity accelerates the Maillard reaction, which is responsible for the browning and flavor development of the crust.

The correct answer is Public accounts committee.

Key Points

• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is one of the three specialized Financial Committees of the Parliament of India, designed to ensure executive accountability over public spending.
• It was first established in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) and has remained in existence since then.
• The committee comprises 22 members, with 15 members elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha for a term of one year.
• The primary function of the PAC is to examine the Audit Reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) regarding the Appropriation Accounts and Finance Accounts of the Union Government.
• A long-standing parliamentary convention dictates that the Chairman of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker from the Opposition party.

 Additional Information

• There are two other major Financial Committees in the Indian Parliament:
• Estimates Committee: Often called a Continuous Economy Committee, it consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected solely from the Lok Sabha.
• Committee on Public Undertakings: Established in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee, it examines the reports and accounts of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
• Other committees mentioned are classified differently:
• Ethics Committee: This is a Standing Committee that maintains discipline and enforces the Code of Conduct for members; it is not a financial oversight body.
• Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs): The Committee on Commerce and the Committee on Railways (which now falls under the Standing Committee on Transport, Tourism, and Culture) are part of the 24 DRSCs that oversee specific ministerial policies and grants.

The correct answer is Wardha.

Key Points

• The Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya (MGAHV) was established by the Parliament of India through the Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya Act, 1996, and it became functional in 1997.
• The university is located in Wardha, Maharashtra, a city chosen due to its deep historical association with Mahatma Gandhi, who established his Sevagram Ashram there in 1936.
• It was envisioned as an international centre for the study, research, and promotion of Hindi to elevate it as a global language and to facilitate foreign students and scholars in learning the language and Indian culture.
• The institution focuses on five main pillars: Language, Literature, Culture, Translation, and Humanities, offering diverse programs from diplomas to Ph.D. levels specifically designed for international outreach.
• The university acts as a bridge between the Hindi-speaking world and the global academic community, fulfilling Gandhi’s vision of Hindustani as a unifying medium.

 Additional Information

• Wardha:
• A major historical hub in Maharashtra, it served as a key center for the Indian Independence Movement and is home to the Vishwa Shanti Stupa.
• Pune:
• Recognized as the Oxford of the East, it houses the Savitribai Phule Pune University and is a premier educational hub for IT and manufacturing.
• Varanasi:
• Considered the Spiritual Capital of India, it is the seat of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) and Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapith, which are renowned for Sanskrit and Hindi studies.
• New Delhi:
• As the national capital, it hosts the Central Hindi Directorate and Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), but the specialized international Hindi university was intentionally placed in the rural setting of Wardha to maintain Gandhian roots.

The correct answer is To protect the rights of the people without pressure from the government.

Key Points

• Judiciary independence is a fundamental feature of a democracy, ensuring that the Rule of Law is maintained and that no individual or government body is above the law.
• It facilitates the Separation of Powers, a doctrine that prevents the Executive and Legislature from interfering in judicial functions, thereby ensuring impartial justice.
• The independence allows the courts to act as the Protector of Fundamental Rights, enabling citizens to challenge the state through Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution if their rights are violated.
• Through the power of Judicial Review, an independent judiciary can strike down laws passed by the Parliament that are found to be unconstitutional or against the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
• In India, Article 50 explicitly mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive to prevent political influence on legal decisions.

 Additional Information

• Law Making:
• The primary responsibility for creating new laws lies with the Legislature (Parliament). The judiciary only interprets laws and does not frame them like a legislative body.
• Election Management:
• The Election Commission of India is the autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes at the national and state levels under Article 324.
• Judicial Accountability:
• While independent, the judiciary is still accountable to the Constitution. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts can be removed through a rigorous process of impeachment for proved misbehavior or incapacity.
• Security of Tenure:
• To maintain independence, judges are provided with security of tenure and their salaries are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India, meaning they are not subject to a vote by the Parliament.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The Karla Caves, also known as Karle Caves or Karla Cells, are a complex of ancient Buddhist Indian rock-cut caves located in Karli near Lonavala, in the Pune district of Maharashtra.
• The caves were developed over two periods: the first from the 2nd century BCE to the 2nd century CE, and the second from the 5th century CE to the 10th century CE.
• The main Chaitya (Cave 8) at Karla is the largest rock-cut prayer hall in India, measuring approximately 45 meters in length and 14 meters in height.
• The architecture is renowned for its Grand Chaitya Hall, which features 37 octagonal pillars, intricate sculptures of men, women, and animals like elephants, and a massive wooden arch that has survived for over 2,000 years.
• Historically, these caves were situated on a major ancient trade route running eastward from the Arabian Sea into the Deccan, providing a lodging stop for traveling merchants.

 Additional Information

• Buddhist Architecture in Maharashtra:
• Ajanta Caves: Located in Sambhaji Nagar (Aurangabad), these are famous for fresco paintings and murals depicting the Jataka tales.
• Ellora Caves: A UNESCO World Heritage site featuring 34 monasteries and temples representing Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism.
• Kanheri Caves: Situated in the Sanjay Gandhi National Park, Mumbai, showcasing the evolution of Buddhist art from the 1st century BCE.
• Bhaja Caves: A group of 22 rock-cut caves located near Karla, known for their early Hinayana Buddhist architecture and wooden ribs in the ceiling.
• Key Components:
• The complex includes a 15-meter high pillar at the entrance with a capital of four lions, similar to the Ashoka Pillar.
• It is associated with the Mahasamghika sect of Buddhism, which flourished in the region before the rise of Mahayana Buddhism.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• Gujarat possesses the longest coastline among all Indian states, stretching approximately 1,214.7 kilometers along the Arabian Sea.
• The extensive length is primarily due to the state's indented geography, which includes the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat, along with numerous creeks and inlets.
• Mainland India has a total coastline of approximately 5,422.6 kilometers, meaning Gujarat accounts for nearly 23% of the total mainland coastal length.
• This coastline is a major economic driver for the country, housing the Kandla Port (Deendayal Port), which is one of the 12 major ports in India and a leader in cargo handling.
• The region is also famous for its salt production, contributing significantly to India being the third-largest salt producer in the world.

 Additional Information

• Andhra Pradesh:
• It has the second-longest coastline in India, measuring about 973.7 kilometers along the Bay of Bengal.
• It covers a large part of the Coromandel Coast and is known for ports like Visakhapatnam and Kakinada.
• Tamil Nadu:
• This state features the third-longest coastline at approximately 906.9 kilometers.
• It is bounded by the Bay of Bengal, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea at its southernmost tip, Kanyakumari.
• Maharashtra:
• The coastline of Maharashtra, known as the Konkan Coast, extends for roughly 652.6 kilometers.
• It is characterized by rocky cliffs and serves as the base for the Western Naval Command and major ports like JNPT.
• National Overview:
• When including the Island territories of Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep, India's total coastline increases to 7,516.6 kilometers.
• Among Union Territories, Andaman and Nicobar Islands have the longest coastline, exceeding 1,900 kilometers.

The correct answer is Tropic of Cancer, 23degree 30'N.

Key Points

• India is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, and the Tropic of Cancer is the significant latitude that divides the country into almost two equal parts.
• The specific value of the Tropic of Cancer is 23° 30' N (or 23.5 degrees North).
• This latitude passes through eight Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The region located to the south of the Tropic of Cancer falls within the Tropical zone, while the northern part lies in the Sub-tropical or Warm Temperate zone.
• The latitudinal extent of the Indian mainland is from 8° 4' N to 37° 6' N, placing the 23° 30' N line approximately at the median of the country's north-south spread.

 Additional Information

• Standard Meridian of India:
• The longitude 82° 30' E is designated as the Standard Meridian for India.
• It passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh and is used to determine Indian Standard Time (IST), which is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Universal Coordinated Time (UTC).
• Geographic Dimensions:
• The longitudinal extent of India ranges from 68° 7' E to 97° 25' E.
• Due to a nearly 30-degree longitudinal difference, there is a time lag of approximately two hours between the easternmost point in Arunachal Pradesh and the westernmost point in Gujarat.
• India is the seventh-largest country in the world, covering a total area of approximately 3.28 million square kilometers.

The correct answer is Deoxyribonucleic Acid.

Key Points

• Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) is the fundamental hereditary molecule found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and the cytoplasm of prokaryotes, carrying the genetic blueprints for all life forms.
• It possesses a unique double helix structure, resembling a twisted ladder, which was famously identified in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick, utilizing Rosalind Franklin's X-ray diffraction data.
• The molecule consists of two long strands of nucleotides made of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and four nitrogenous bases: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G).
• Hydrogen bonds connect the bases between the two strands following Chargaff's rules, where Adenine pairs with Thymine and Cytosine pairs with Guanine, ensuring stable genetic replication.
• Segments of DNA known as genes provide the coded instructions required to synthesize proteins, which ultimately determine an organism's phenotypic traits and biological functions.

 Additional Information

• Ribonucleic Acid (RNA):
• Unlike the double-stranded DNA, RNA is typically single-stranded and contains ribose sugar.
• It utilizes Uracil (U) instead of Thymine and is essential for protein synthesis through its forms: mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.
• Proteins:
• These are polymers of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
• While DNA stores the code, proteins are the functional units that execute cellular tasks, acting as enzymes, hormones, and structural components.
• Cellulose:
• A complex polysaccharide consisting of glucose units, providing structural integrity to plant cell walls.
• It is the most abundant organic compound on Earth but does not store genetic information.

The correct answer is Nur Jahan, his daughter.

Key Points

• The tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah was commissioned and completed by Nur Jahan, the wife of Mughal Emperor Jahangir, to honor her father Mirza Ghiyas Beg.
• Mirza Ghiyas Beg was a Persian nobleman who rose to the rank of Vazir (Chief Minister) in the Mughal court and was bestowed with the title Itimad-ud-Daulah, meaning Pillar of the State.
• The construction of the mausoleum took place between 1622 and 1628 AD, marking a period of significant artistic development during the Mughal Empire.
• The structure is located in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, on the eastern bank of the Yamuna River, and is renowned for being the first Mughal building constructed entirely of white marble.
• This monument signifies a departure from the massive red sandstone architecture of the Akbar era toward the refined, delicate marble work later perfected by Shah Jahan.

 Additional Information

• Architectural Significance and Style:
• It is widely known as the Baby Taj or the Jewel Box because it is considered a draft or a precursor to the Taj Mahal.
• The tomb introduced the extensive use of Pietra Dura (inlay work), where semi-precious stones like lapis lazuli, onyx, jasper, and carnelian are embedded into marble to create floral and geometric patterns.
• The monument is situated within a large Charbagh garden, a Persian-style quadrilateral garden layout divided by walkways or flowing water.
• Historical Context:
• Mirza Ghiyas Beg was the grandfather of Arjumand Banu Begum, famously known as Mumtaz Mahal, for whom the Taj Mahal was built.
• The tomb also houses the remains of Asmat Begum, the mother of Nur Jahan, who died shortly before her husband.
• The central chamber contains the cenotaphs of both parents, decorated with exquisite carvings and motifs representing the Paradise described in Islamic tradition.

The correct answer is It changes colour with acids and bases.

Key Points

• Turmeric is a widely used natural indicator derived from the rhizomes of the plant Curcuma longa, commonly used in chemistry to detect the alkalinity of a substance.
• The primary chemical component responsible for this property is Curcumin, a polyphenol that functions as a pH-sensitive pigment.
• In an acidic medium (such as lemon juice or vinegar) or a neutral medium, turmeric does not change its appearance and remains bright yellow.
• When exposed to a basic medium (such as soap solution, lime water, or baking soda), a chemical reaction occurs that causes the turmeric to change its color from yellow to reddish-brown.
• This distinct chromatic transition makes it an effective and accessible tool for qualitative analysis in home-based or school laboratory experiments to distinguish between acids and bases.

 Additional Information

• Indicators: These are substances that change their color when added to an acidic or alkaline solution. They are classified into Natural Indicators (like Litmus and Turmeric) and Synthetic Indicators (like Phenolphthalein and Methyl Orange).
• Other Natural Indicators:
• Litmus: Extracted from Lichens, it is the most common indicator; it turns red in acidic solutions and blue in basic solutions.
• China Rose: An aqueous extract of China Rose petals turns dark pink (magenta) in acids and green in bases.
• Red Cabbage: Contains anthocyanin, which changes color across a broad pH spectrum, turning red/pink in acids and green/yellow in bases.
• Chemical Properties:
• Acids: Substances that release H⁺ ions in aqueous solutions and typically have a sour taste.
• Bases: Substances that release OH− ions and feel soapy to the touch.

The correct answer is Lactose.

Key Points

• Lactose is a naturally occurring disaccharide sugar found exclusively in the milk of mammals, which has earned it the common name milk sugar.
• It is chemically composed of two monosaccharide subunits: D-glucose and D-galactose, which are joined by a β-1,4-glycosidic bond.
• In cow’s milk, lactose typically constitutes about 4.5% to 5.0% of the total volume, while in human breast milk, the concentration is higher, reaching approximately 7%.
• The human body utilizes the enzyme lactase, produced in the small intestine, to hydrolyze lactose into its constituent sugars for efficient absorption into the bloodstream.
• Lactose plays a crucial role in neonatal development by providing a dense energy source and promoting the growth of beneficial gut microbiota, such as Lactobacillus.
• Scientific data indicates that lactose aids in the absorption of essential minerals like calcium and magnesium, which are vital for bone mineralization during early growth stages.

 Additional Information

• Sucrose:
• Commonly referred to as table sugar, it is a disaccharide consisting of glucose and fructose units.
• It is primarily derived from sugarcane and sugar beets and is a non-reducing sugar.
• Maltose:
• Also known as malt sugar, it is a disaccharide formed by two glucose molecules linked by an α-1,4 bond.
• It is produced during the enzymatic breakdown of starch by amylase during germination or digestion.
• Glucose:
• Commonly known as blood sugar or dextrose, it is the most abundant monosaccharide.
• It serves as the primary energy substrate for cellular respiration and is a building block for glycogen and cellulose.

The correct answer is Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT 2.0).

Key Points

• The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT 2.0) was launched in October 2021 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) with the primary goal of making Indian cities water secure.
• It aims to provide universal coverage of water supply through functional tap connections to all households in all the 4,700 statutory towns across India.
• The mission specifically targets 100% coverage of sewerage and septage management in 500 AMRUT cities, ensuring that urban waste does not pollute local water bodies.
• AMRUT 2.0 promotes a circular economy of water by focusing on the recycle and reuse of treated sewage, rejuvenation of water bodies, and rainwater harvesting to enhance urban sustainability.
• The mission is designed to align with Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG 6), which advocates for clean water and sanitation for all by 2030.
• It utilizes a technology sub-mission to leverage global digital technologies for water management and includes a Pey Jal Survekshan to encourage healthy competition among cities regarding water quality and quantity.

 Additional Information

• Jal Shakti Abhiyan:
• Launched in 2019, this is a time-bound water conservation campaign focusing on rainwater harvesting, borewell recharge, and afforestation, primarily in water-stressed blocks.
• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban (PMAY-U):
• Initiated in 2015, this mission seeks to address the urban housing shortage by ensuring pucca houses for all eligible urban households, including slum dwellers.
• Smart Cities Mission:
• Launched in 2015, it focuses on 100 cities to provide core infrastructure, a clean and sustainable environment, and smart solutions through the use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT).

The correct answer is United States of America.

Key Points

• The United States of America emerged as the largest importer of Indian sports goods during the financial year 2021-22, continuing a long-standing trend of being India's top trading partner in this sector.
• As per the data released by the Department of Commerce and the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCI&S), India's sports goods exports witnessed a robust growth of approximately 32% in 2021-22.
• The total export value for sports goods reached roughly USD 356.24 million in 2021-22, up from USD 269.87 million in the previous fiscal year.
• The USA typically accounts for nearly 25% to 30% of the total share of India's sports goods exports, driven by a high demand for fitness equipment and traditional sports gear.
• Major categories of items exported to the USA include inflatable balls, boxing equipment, protective gear, and gymnasium apparatus.

 Additional Information

• Germany:
• It remains one of the top three European destinations for Indian sports exports, focusing heavily on athletic hosiery and outdoor equipment.
• Australia:
• While Australia is a significant market, particularly for cricket equipment like bats and pads, its overall import volume is generally lower than that of the USA and the United Kingdom.
• Manufacturing Hubs:
• The Indian sports goods industry is concentrated in major clusters located in Jalandhar (Punjab) and Meerut (Uttar Pradesh), which contribute to over 75% of the total production.
• The Sports Goods Export Promotion Council (SGEPC) is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for promoting these exports globally.