DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 05 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Seven boxes D, E, F, G, O, P and Q are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only four boxes are kept between Q and E.
2. Only F is kept above Q.
3. Only two boxes are kept between G and D.
4. P is kept immediately above O.
5. D is not kept immediately above P. 

The final arrangement of the boxes is as follows:

The box kept fourth from the top is P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: M + G # T R @ Y

It means: M is the sister of G, G is the father of T, T is the brother of R, and R is the wife of Y.

M is the wife's father's sister of Y.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statement:

E ≤ Y = R > S > Q

Conclusions:

I. Y > Q → True (Since Y = R and R > S > Q, therefore Y > Q)

II. S > E → False (Since E ≤ Y and Y = R > S, there is no direction relation establish between S and E)

Therefore, Only I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) T E £ Y V £ J * Q % S & © F $ M © T C * W # (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Letter → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) T E £ Y V £ £ J *** *** Q % S & © F $ $ M © T C *** W #** (Right)

There are 6 such letters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: T × G + D ÷ M − K

It means: T is the wife of G, G is the son of D, D is the father of M, and M is the brother of K.

T is related to K as brother's wife.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

E, F, G, H, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. Only two people sit between H and E when counted from the right of H.
2. Only three people sit between R and G when counted from the right of G.
3. E sits to the immediate right of G.
4. Q sits to the immediate right of S.

Q sits fourth to the right of F.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Statement:

K = L < M < N ≤ Q

Conclusions:

I: K < N → True (Since K = L and L < M < N, therefore K < N)

II: L < Q → True (Since L < M < N and N ≤ Q, therefore L < Q)

Therefore, both I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

Mr. Avan ranked 31st from the top.

Mr. Avan ranked 36th from the bottom.

The formula for total students in a class is: Total Students = (Rank from Top) + (Rank from Bottom) - 1

Number of students in the class = 31 + 36 - 1

= 67 - 1

= 66 students.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given series:

(Left) 1 # 8 + 6 % 3 4 9 * 2 $ 7 Ω 5 & (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Symbol → Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 1 # 8 + 6 % 3 4 9 * 2 $ 7 Ω 5 & (Right)

The symbols *#, +, %, , $, and Ω are each immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a number.

Thus, there are six such symbols.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. No box is kept below F. 2. Exactly 3 boxes are kept between C and F. 3. Exactly 4 boxes are kept between D and E. 4. Exactly 2 boxes are kept between A and E. 5. B is kept below G.

Final Arrangement:

Three boxes are kept below A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

‘MEAT’ is coded as ‘5167’

‘MEAN’ is coded as ‘6357’

Code for "N" is "3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given word: WARLOCK

• Each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabet.
• Each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabet.

Applying the rule:

New group of letters formed: V, B, Q, K, P, B, J

Checking repeated letters:

Letter B appears twice.

Therefore, only one letter appears twice in the group of letters formed.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

All ostriches are sparrows.

No ostrich is a pigeon.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No sparrow is a pigeon → Does not follow (Only the part of sparrows that are ostriches definitely cannot be pigeons. The remaining part of sparrows can potentially be pigeons, so this conclusion is not definite.)

II. Some pigeons are ostriches → Does not follow (Since it is given that no ostrich is a pigeon, it implies that no pigeon can be an ostrich.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) 3 4 9 7 6 2 4 3 2 5 8 7 9 6 2 4 5 2 4 3 9 6 8 9 1 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Even digit ← Even digit → Perfect square (1, 4, 9)

Checking the series:

(Left) 3 4 9 7 6 2 4 3 2 5 8 7 9 6 2 4 5 2 4 5 2 4 3 9 6 8 9 1 (Right)

There are three such even digits that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Dictionary order is,

1. Adjusted
2. Annotate
3. Assert
4. Assigned
5. Attend
   

Correct order is: 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) B $ K T A E % @ U * Y S & # Ω D £ G C + Q R (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Letter → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) B $ K T A E % @ U * Y S & # Ω D £ G C + Q R (Right)

The letters T, A, S, and C are each immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a letter.

There are 2 (K T A and T A E) such letters that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

E,F,G,H,Q,R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. Only two people sit between F and G when counted from the left of G.
2. R sits third to the left of H.
3. E sits second to the left of F.
4. S is not an immediate neighbour of R. 5. E sits to the immediate right of H.

E sits third to the right of Q.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The pattern observed is: (Sum of positional values of letters) × 3.

OGAR is coded as 123 →

Sum of positional values = 15 + 7 + 1 + 18 = 41

Code = 41 × 3 = 123

ZAPQ is coded as 180 →

Sum of positional values = 26 + 1 + 16 + 17 = 60

Code = 60 × 3 = 180

Similarly, let us find the code for WVDL:

Sum of positional values = 23 + 22 + 4 + 12 = 61

Code = 61 × 3 = 183

Therefore, the code for 'WVDL' is 183.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

‘MIND’ is coded as ‘8215’

‘MEND’ is coded as ‘5283’.

Code for "E" is "3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2.

Seven boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only three boxes are kept above U.
2. Only one box is kept between P and U.
3. Only three boxes are kept between P and V.
4. V is kept at some place above U.
5. R is kept immediately below V.
6. Q is kept at one of the places above T.
7. S is not kept immediately above or below P. 

Final Arrangement:

Number of boxes below Q = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 20 ÷ 4 + 30 × 2 - 7 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 20 × 4 - 30 ÷ 2 + 7 = ?

⇒ 20 × 4 - 30 ÷ 2 + 7 = ?

⇒ 80 - 30 ÷ 2 + 7 = ?

⇒ 80 - 15 + 7 = ?

⇒ 80 - 15 + 7 = ?

⇒ 65 + 7 = ?

⇒ 72.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For NRQ to TXW

For UYX to AED

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +6 for each letter in the pair.

Option 1) QTR to VZY

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +5, +6, +7.

Option 2) QTR to WAZ

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +6, +7, +8.

Option 3) QUT to WAZ

This pair follows the same +6 logic for all letters.

Option 4) QUT to VAY

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +5, +6, +5.

Thus, the pair QUT : WAZ follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 12 × 3 + 4 ÷ 2 - 5 = ?

According to the question, '+' and '-' are interchanged, and '×' and '÷' are interchanged.

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 12 ÷ 3 - 4 × 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ 12 ÷ 3 - 4 × 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ 4 - 4 × 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ 4 - 4 × 2 + 5 = ?

⇒ 4 - 8 + 5 = ?

⇒ 4 - 8 + 5 = ?

⇒ -4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern observed is: (First number × 5) + 2 = Second number.

For (6, 32)

(6 × 5) + 2 = 30 + 2 = 32

For (8, 42)

(8 × 5) + 2 = 40 + 2 = 42

Similarly,

Option (2):  (11, 57)

(11 × 5) + 2 = 55 + 2 = 57

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The pattern observed is: (First number + Second number) + 15 = Third number.

For (5, 16, 36) →

(5 + 16) + 15 = 21 + 15 = 36

For (7, 18, 40) →

(7 + 18) + 15 = 25 + 15 = 40

Similarly, let's find the related set in the options:

Option (3) (11, 22, 48) →

(11 + 22) + 15 = 33 + 15 = 48

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is,

22 + (4 × 1) = 22 + 4 = 26

26 + (4 × 2) = 26 + 8 = 34

34 + (4 × 3) = 34 + 12 = 46

46 + (4 × 4) = 46 + 16 = 62

62 + (4 × 5) = 62 + 20 = 82

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

For BEG to HKM

For EHJ to KNP

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +6 for each letter in the set.

Option 1) PRS to VYA

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +6, +7, +8.

Option 2) PSU to UYZ

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +5, +6, +5.

Option 3) PSU to VYA

This pair follows the same logic of adding 6 to the positional value of each letter.

Option 4) PRS to UXZ

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +5, +6, +7.

Thus, the pair PSU : VYA follows the same pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 22 A 49 D 7 B 3 C 6 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 22 + 49 ÷ 7 - 3 × 6 = ?

⇒ 22 + 49 ÷ 7 - 3 × 6 = ?

⇒ 22 + 7 - 3 × 6 = ?

⇒ 22 + 7 - 18 = ?

⇒ 22 + 7 - 18 = ?

⇒ 29 - 18 = ?

⇒ 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 37 C 22 A 2 D 9 B 2 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 37 + 22 ÷ 2 - 9 × 2 = ?

⇒ 37 + 22 ÷ 2 - 9 × 2 = ?

⇒ 37 + 11 - 9 × 2 = ?

⇒ 37 + 11 - 18 = ?

⇒ 37 + 11 - 18 = ?

⇒ 48 - 18 = ?

⇒ 30.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is,

62 + 1² = 62 + 1 = 63

63 − 3² = 63 − 9 = 54

54 + 5² = 54 + 25 = 79

79 − 7² = 79 − 49 = 30

30 + 92 = 30 + 81 = 111

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is based on the English alphabetical order:

For STAR to UVBS

For JACK to LCDL

The common pattern is a shift of +2, +2, +1, and +1 for each successive letter in the sequence.

Applying the same logic to KNOB:

Thus, the word KNOB is related to MPPC following the same pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

1. XA-WU →

2. AD-ZX →

3. HK-GE →

4) SB-RP →

Therefore, the odd one out is SB-RP.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: (1st Number − 2nd Number = 9) and (3rd Number − 1st Number = 2).

For (13, 4, 15) →

13 − 4 = 9

15 − 13 = 2

(18, 9, 20) →

18 − 9 = 9

20 − 18 = 2

Similarly,

Option (2): (21, 12, 23) →

21 − 12 = 9

23 − 21 = 2

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Mirror image of given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 24 ÷ 4 + 54 × 6 - 3 = ?

As '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged:

⇒ 24 × 4 - 54 ÷ 6 + 3 = ?

⇒ 24 × 4 - 54 ÷ 6 + 3 = ?

⇒ 96 - 54 ÷ 6 + 3 = ?

⇒ 96 - 54 ÷ 6 + 3 = ?

⇒ 96 - 9 + 3 = ?

⇒ 96 - 9 + 3 = ?

⇒ 87 + 3 = ?

⇒ 90

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

Some penguins are sharks.

Some sharks are whales.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No shark is a penguin → Does not follow (As per the first statement, some penguins are sharks, which means some sharks are penguins. Thus, a negative conclusion between them is definitely false.)

II. Some penguins are whales → Does not follow (There is no direct relation between penguins and whales in the statements, so it is possible but not certain.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

(9 × 3) − 1 = 27 − 1 = 26

(26 × 3) − 1 = 78 − 1 = 77

(77 × 3) − 1 = 231 − 1 = 230

(230 × 3) − 1 = 690 − 1 = 689

(689 × 3) − 1 = 2067 − 1 = 2066

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is The value of wheat flour purchased by a bakery to make bread.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined as the total market value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a country during a specific financial year.
• The problem of Double Counting arises when the value of certain goods is added more than once during the estimation of national income; this typically happens when intermediate goods are counted alongside final goods.
• Intermediate Goods are products used as inputs in the production of other goods or for resale; in this case, wheat flour used by a bakery is an input for producing bread, and its value is already included in the final price of the bread sold to consumers.
• To avoid this error, economists use the Final Output Method (counting only the end product) or the Value Added Method (calculating the net contribution at each stage of production).
• Excluding the value of raw materials like flour ensures that the GDP accurately reflects the actual production without inflating the figures through repetitive accounting of the same economic value.

 Additional Information

• Final Goods and Services:
• Haircut by a local barber: This is a final service provided directly to the end consumer and is included in the Tertiary Sector contribution to GDP.
• Newly constructed house: A new residential building is classified as Investment (Gross Fixed Capital Formation) and is counted as a final product in the year of construction.
• Legal Services: When provided to individuals or as a final professional output, these are counted in the Service Sector; however, if provided to a firm, they are sometimes debated as intermediate costs, but in standard GDP options, tangible raw materials like flour are the primary focus for double-counting exclusions.
• Types of Goods:
• Consumption Goods: Goods like bread purchased by households for direct satisfaction of wants.
• Capital Goods: Durable assets like machinery or buildings used in the production process but not consumed within the year.

The correct answer is Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.

Key Points

• Bankim Chandra Chatterjee was a legendary Bengali novelist and poet who composed the song Vande Mataram in 1875, later publishing it in his 1882 political novel Anandamath.
• The song served as a patriotic hymn and was a central element in the Swadeshi Movement (1905), where it was used as a rallying cry to protest the Partition of Bengal.
• The Bengal Extremists, led by figures such as Aurobindo Ghosh and Bipin Chandra Pal, adopted the song as a tool for political mobilization and national awakening, transforming it into a mantra for Indian nationalism.
• Aurobindo Ghosh described the song as the core of the new spirit of militant nationalism, emphasizing its role in personifying the nation as a Divine Mother to be liberated from colonial rule.
• The song was first sung at a political meeting by Rabindranath Tagore during the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress, solidifying its status as a foundational text for Indian patriots.

 Additional Information

• Annie Besant:
• An influential Theosophist and social activist who launched the Home Rule League in 1916 to demand self-government for India.
• She became the first woman President of the Indian National Congress at the Calcutta session in 1917.
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati:
• A profound social reformer who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 and advocated for a return to Vedic principles.
• He popularized the slogan Go back to the Vedas and was one of the first to give the call for Swaraj (Self-rule).
• Swami Vivekananda:
• A key disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa, he represented India at the 1893 Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago.
• He emphasized spiritual nationalism and founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to provide social service and education.

The correct answer is Lucknow.

Key Points

• The Union Defence Minister, Rajnath Singh, inaugurated the Sansad Khel Mahakumbh on April 19, 2025, in Lucknow, which is his parliamentary constituency.
• This initiative is designed to provide a robust platform for local athletes from both rural and urban backgrounds to exhibit their talent in various sports disciplines like Wrestling, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Athletics, and Football.
• The primary objective of the Sansad Khel Mahakumbh is to identify talented sportspersons at the grassroots level and provide them with the necessary exposure to transition into national and international arenas.
• The event aligns with the broader vision of the Khelo India and Fit India movements, promoting a healthy lifestyle and fostering a competitive spirit among the youth of India.
• In Lucknow, the event has historically seen participation from thousands of students and young athletes across hundreds of Gram Panchayats and municipal wards.

 Additional Information

• Lucknow:
• Known as the City of Nawabs, it serves as the administrative and political capital of Uttar Pradesh.
• It houses world-class sporting infrastructure such as the Bharat Ratna Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee Ekana Cricket Stadium and the Babu Banarasi Das Badminton Academy.
• Sansad Khel Mahakumbh:
• The concept was popularized following Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s appeal to all Members of Parliament to organize sports meets to encourage youth engagement.
• Similar large-scale editions have been organized in other districts like Basti (by MP Harish Dwivedi) and Hamirpur (by Anurag Thakur).
• Imphal, Bhopal, and Chandigarh:
• Imphal is a major sports hub in Northeast India, often called the Powerhouse of Sports.
• Bhopal is home to various sports academies under the Madhya Pradesh government, particularly known for shooting and water sports.
• Chandigarh is a planned city with a strong culture of Hockey and Cricket, serving as the joint capital of Punjab and Haryana.

The correct answer is Central Research Institute, Kasauli.

Key Points

• The Central Research Institute (CRI), located in Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh, is the premier national institute responsible for the development and production of the Tetanus & Adult Diphtheria (Td) vaccine scheduled for launch in February 2026.
• Established in 1905 by Sir David Semple, the institute operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and serves as a pioneer in the field of immunobiologicals and vaccine research in India.
• The Td vaccine is designed to provide dual protection against Tetanus and Diphtheria, effectively replacing the Tetanus Toxoid (TT) vaccine in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) to address the rising cases of Diphtheria among adolescents and adults.
• CRI Kasauli also functions as the Central Drugs Laboratory (CDL) for testing the quality of various vaccines and sera imported or manufactured within the country, ensuring national health security.
• The institute is a major supplier of critical life-saving products including DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus), Anti-Rabies Vaccine (ARV), and Anti-Snake Venom (ASV) to both domestic and international markets.

 Additional Information

• National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune:
• Established in 1952 under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), it focuses on the investigation of viral diseases and emerging infections like COVID-19 and Nipah.
• Pasteur Institute of India (PII), Coonoor:
• Founded in 1907, it is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, primarily known for producing DTP group vaccines and Tissue Culture Anti-Rabies Vaccine.
• All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi:
• Established in 1956 as an Institution of National Importance, its primary mandate is medical education, specialized patient care, and clinical research rather than large-scale vaccine manufacturing.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI), in collaboration with the International Kho Kho Federation, officially announced that New Delhi will host the first-ever Kho Kho World Cup in 2025.
• The tournament is set to feature 24 nations from six continents, including both men's and women's teams, showcasing the global appeal of this indigenous Indian sport.
• The primary venue for this historic event is the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, which is equipped with world-class facilities to handle international sporting competitions.
• This World Cup serves as a pivotal step in the movement to include Kho Kho in the Olympic Games, with the KKFI specifically aiming for the 2032 Brisbane Olympics.
• The event is supported by the Government of India under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, emphasizing the promotion of traditional sports on a global stage.

 Additional Information

• Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI):
• It is the national governing body for the sport, currently led by President Sudhanshu Mittal.
• The federation has successfully launched the Ultimate Kho Kho (UKK) league to professionalize and commercialize the game.
• History and Origin:
• Kho Kho is a traditional tag sport that originated in Maharashtra, India, and was historically known as Rathera.
• The first National Kho Kho Championship for men was conducted in 1959-60 in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
• International Presence:
• The International Kho Kho Federation (IKKF) was established to standardize rules and promote the sport across different countries, particularly in South Asia, Africa, and Europe.
• The sport was demonstrated as an exhibition match during the 1936 Berlin Olympics.

The correct answer is Obtaining a business loan from a regulated commercial bank.

Key Points

• Regulated commercial banks operate under the direct supervision of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which mandates fair lending practices and protects borrowers from exploitative terms.
• The formal credit sector offers significantly lower interest rates compared to informal sources, ensuring that the cost of capital does not erode the business’s profit margins or lead to debt-trap situations.
• Banks provide structured repayment plans and legal documentation, which offer financial predictability and legal protection to the rural entrepreneur in case of disputes.
• Utilizing formal loans helps in building a robust credit score and financial history, which is vital for securing larger investments, government subsidies, or venture capital in the future.
• Expansion through commercial bank loans often comes with value-added services like advisory support, insurance, and digital banking facilities, which streamline business operations.

 Additional Information

• Informal Credit Sources:
• Village Moneylenders: These entities often charge usurious interest rates and lack regulatory oversight, making them a high-risk option that can lead to asset seizure.
• Relatives and Friends: While usually interest-free, these loans lack formal contracts, potentially leading to social conflicts and unpredictable repayment demands.
• Microfinance Institutions (MFIs):
• These are crucial for financial inclusion for those without collateral, but their interest rates are generally higher than commercial banks due to higher servicing costs.
• Regulatory Framework:
• The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 ensures that commercial banks maintain a transparent grievance redressal mechanism, which is absent in informal credit systems.

The correct answer is Extending micro-credit through pooled small savings.

Key Points

• Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are informal associations of people, typically consisting of 15 to 20 members from similar socio-economic backgrounds, who come together to improve their living conditions.
• The core function of an SHG is to encourage regular savings among its members, where the pooled resources are used to provide micro-credit to members for meeting their emergent needs or starting small businesses.
• By providing collateral-free loans at reasonable interest rates, SHGs significantly reduce the rural poor's dependence on exploitative informal moneylenders.
• The SHG-Bank Linkage Programme (SBLP), launched by NABARD in 1992, has evolved into the world's largest microfinance project, connecting unbanked rural populations with the formal banking system.
• Beyond finance, SHGs act as a platform for social empowerment, allowing members to discuss and act on social issues like health, nutrition, and domestic violence.

 Additional Information

• Minimum Support Price (MSP):
• This is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
• It is announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs based on recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS):
• These are the ground-level cooperative institutions that typically handle the distribution of seeds and fertilisers to farmers.
• They provide short-term and medium-term agricultural loans to their members.
• Formal Credit Institutions:
• Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are the primary entities that offer large-scale loans to wealthy farmers and commercial agri-businesses.
• These institutions require formal documentation and collateral, which often excludes the marginal and small-scale farmers who rely on SHGs.

The correct answer is Adyar.

Key Points

• The Theosophical Society was an international spiritual organization founded in New York City, USA, on November 17, 1875.
• The primary founders were Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, a Russian mystic, and Henry Steel Olcott, an American military officer and lawyer.
• The movement arrived in India in January 1879, initially setting up a temporary base in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• In 1882, the permanent International Headquarters were established in Adyar, a southern suburb of Madras (present-day Chennai).
• The Adyar campus was strategically located on the banks of the Adyar River and near the coast of the Bay of Bengal, providing a serene environment for the society's esoteric and philosophical research.
• The society played a significant role in the Indian Renaissance by promoting the study of ancient Indian religions and fostering pride in Eastern traditions during the colonial period.

 Additional Information

• Annie Besant:
• She became the President of the Theosophical Society in 1907 after the death of Colonel Olcott.
• Besant was instrumental in connecting the society with the Indian National Movement and founded the Home Rule League in 1916.
• She established the Central Hindu College in Varanasi in 1898, emphasizing the synthesis of Western science and Indian philosophy.
• Varanasi and Bombay:
• While Bombay was the first Indian home of the society, it served as a transitional base before the shift to Adyar.
• Varanasi became the focus of the society's educational reform efforts under Annie Besant, although it never served as the official global headquarters.
• Objectives:
• To form a nucleus of the Universal Brotherhood of Humanity.
• To encourage the study of comparative religion, philosophy, and science.
• To investigate unexplained laws of nature and the powers latent in man.

The correct answer is Mahad Satyagraha.

Key Points

• The Mahad Satyagraha was a social movement led by Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar on 20 March 1927 in the town of Mahad, located in the Raigad district of Maharashtra.
• The primary objective of the protest was to assert the rights of the Dalit community (then termed Untouchables) to use water from a public tank called the Chavdar Tank.
• This movement was one of the first major collective actions of the Dalit movement that challenged the traditional caste hierarchy and the practice of untouchability in public spaces.
• The Bole Resolution, passed by the Bombay Legislative Council in 1923, had already stated that public places should be open to all, but it was not being implemented on the ground until Ambedkar organized this mass mobilization.
• In commemoration of this historic event, 20 March is observed as Social Empowerment Day in India to honor the struggle for human rights and social equality.

 Additional Information

• Salt Satyagraha:
• Launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• It began with the famous Dandi March to protest the British monopoly on salt production and the imposition of the salt tax.
• Champaran Satyagraha:
• This was Mahatma Gandhi’s first satyagraha in India, conducted in 1917 in Bihar.
• It addressed the exploitation of indigo farmers who were forced to cultivate indigo under the oppressive Tinkathia system.
• Rajkot Satyagraha:
• A localized struggle in 1939 involving Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
• It aimed at securing administrative reforms and democratic rights for the people living in the princely state of Rajkot.

The correct answer is Swami Dayanand Saraswati.

Key Points

• Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a legendary scholar of the Vedas and a radical social reformer who founded the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875, in Bombay.
• He issued the call Go Back to the Vedas, asserting that the Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda, and Atharvaveda contain the ultimate truth and essential laws of nature and religion.
• His reformist agenda focused on the abolition of the caste system based on birth, the empowerment of women, and the promotion of widow remarriage, which were revolutionary during the 19th century.
• He was a staunch critic of idolatry, polytheism, and superstitious rituals, advocating for the worship of a single, formless, and omniscient Supreme Being.
• In 1874, he authored Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Truth), a seminal work that clarified Vedic principles and provided a logical critique of various religious dogmas and practices.

 Additional Information

• Swami Vivekananda:
• A disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa, he founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 and introduced Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.
• Ramakrishna:
• A celebrated 19th-century mystic who emphasized that all religions are different paths reaching the same God, serving as the spiritual inspiration for the Vedanta movement.
• Sri Aurobindo Ghose:
• A nationalist and philosopher who developed the concept of Integral Yoga and established a spiritual community in Puducherry to work towards the evolution of consciousness.

The correct answer is Justice Surya Kant.

Key Points

• Justice Surya Kant is slated to become the 53rd Chief Justice of India (CJI), with his term scheduled to begin on November 24, 2025.
• He will succeed Justice B. R. Gavai, who is expected to retire from the post on November 23, 2025.
• Born on February 10, 1962, in the Hisar district of Haryana, Justice Surya Kant will have a tenure as CJI lasting until his retirement on February 9, 2027.
• His appointment follows the Seniority Convention of the Supreme Court of India, where the senior-most puisne judge is recommended by the outgoing CJI for the position.
• He was elevated as a Judge of the Supreme Court on May 24, 2019, and previously served as the Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court and a judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.

 Additional Information

• Justice Sanjiv Khanna:
• Appointed as the 51st Chief Justice of India on November 11, 2024, succeeding Justice D. Y. Chandrachud.
• His tenure is set to conclude on May 13, 2025.
• Justice B. R. Gavai:
• Expected to take oath as the 52nd Chief Justice of India on May 14, 2025.
• He will be the second judge from the Dalit community to hold the office of the CJI.
• Justice D. Y. Chandrachud:
• Served as the 50th Chief Justice of India from November 9, 2022, to November 10, 2024.
• He is recognized for presiding over several Constitution Benches and significant legal reforms.
• Constitutional Provision:
• Under Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India, the President appoints the Chief Justice of India.
• The age of retirement for a Supreme Court judge is 65 years.

The correct answer is Monthly rent paid for the factory building.

Key Points

• Fixed Costs are business expenses that remain constant regardless of the volume of goods or services produced by the company. They are time-related costs, such as salaries or rents paid per month.
• The Monthly rent paid for the factory building is a classic example of a fixed cost because the landlord requires the same payment whether the manufacturing unit produces zero units or operates at maximum capacity.
• In the Short Run, at least one factor of production (like land or buildings) is fixed, leading to fixed costs that do not vary with output levels.
• Unlike variable costs, fixed costs are unavoidable even if production stops temporarily. They are often referred to as overhead costs or indirect costs in accounting.
• The Average Fixed Cost (AFC) decreases as output increases because the same total cost is spread over a larger number of units, following the formula: $AFC = Total Fixed Cost / Quantity$.

 Additional Information

• Variable Costs: These are costs that change in direct proportion to the level of production output.
• Cost of raw materials: Since every unit of output requires a specific amount of input, the total cost increases as production grows.
• Wages of casual laborers: Payments to daily-wage workers fluctuate based on the labor hours required for current production targets.
• Electricity charges for machinery: Running heavy machinery consumes more power as operating hours increase to meet higher output demands.
• Total Cost: In economics, the Total Cost (TC) is the sum of Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC).
• Sunk Costs: These are fixed costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered, such as specialized equipment with no resale value.

The correct answer is Samrat Rana.

Key Points

• Indian shooter Samrat Rana achieved a remarkable feat by winning the gold medal in the men’s 10m air pistol event at the 2025 International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Championships.
• The ISSF World Championships are a premier global shooting competition, and winning a gold medal here is considered one of the highest honors in the sport, often serving as a qualification pathway for the Olympic Games.
• The 10m air pistol event is a standard Olympic discipline where shooters use a 4.5 mm caliber air pistol to fire at a target from a distance of 10 metres, requiring extreme precision, breath control, and mental stability.
• Samrat Rana’s victory underscores the rising dominance of India in international pistol events, supported by rigorous training programs under the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) and the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).

 Additional Information

• Abhinav Bindra:
• He is a legendary Indian shooter who became the first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• He competed in the 10m air rifle category and is also a World Championship gold medalist (2006).
• Rudrankksh Patil:
• An elite rifle shooter who won the gold medal in the 10m air rifle event at the 2022 ISSF World Championships in Cairo.
• He has been a consistent performer in the ISSF World Cup circuit, representing the new generation of Indian rifle specialists.
• Jitu Rai:
• Known as the 'Pistol King', he is a highly decorated shooter who has won multiple medals at the Asian Games, Commonwealth Games, and ISSF World Cups.
• He primarily specialized in the 10m air pistol and 50m pistol events and was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna in 2016.

The correct answer is 13,705.63 crore.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2026-27 has allocated a significant sum of 13,705.63 crore to the Department of Space (DoS), marking a strategic investment in India's extra-terrestrial exploration and satellite communication capabilities.
• This budgetary outlay is primarily directed toward the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to facilitate the development of advanced launch vehicles like the LVM3 and the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV).
• A major portion of the allocation is dedicated to the Gaganyaan mission, India's flagship human spaceflight program, which intends to demonstrate indigenous capability for crewed orbital missions.
• The funding also supports space science missions, including the continued analysis of data from Chandrayaan and Aditya-L1, and the groundwork for the Bharatiya Antariksh Station.
• Investment is also channeled into enhancing the ground segment and space-based applications for disaster management, agriculture, and remote sensing.

 Additional Information

• Department of Space (DoS):
• Established in 1972, the DoS operates directly under the Prime Minister of India and is responsible for the administrative control of the Indian space program.
• It oversees key institutions such as the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), and the North Eastern Space Applications Centre (NESAC).
• Commercial and Regulatory Arms:
• NewSpace India Limited (NSIL): Functions as the commercial arm, focusing on the production of PSLV through industry partners and the commercialization of space-based services.
• IN-SPACe: Acts as an autonomous single-window nodal agency to promote, authorize, and supervise private sector participation in the space domain, fostering a competitive space economy.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the primary organization behind the Sampoornata Abhiyan, which is a campaign focused on achieving 100 percent saturation in key performance indicators (KPIs).
• The Sampoornata Abhiyan 2.0, launched in January 2026, represents an intensified phase of the saturation drive within the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) and the Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP).
• The campaign identifies specific social development indicators such as the percentage of pregnant women registered for ANC, supplementary nutrition for children, and the distribution of soil health cards in the agriculture sector.
• By focusing on Health, Education, Agriculture, and Infrastructure, the initiative aims to bridge the developmental gap between lagging regions and the national average.
• The implementation strategy involves a three-month intensive period where local administrations work to complete targets for six identified indicators at the block and district levels.

 Additional Information

• NITI Aayog:
• Established on January 1, 2015, it serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, promoting Cooperative Federalism.
• The Prime Minister serves as the Chairperson, providing leadership for national development priorities.
• It replaced the Planning Commission to adopt a bottom-up approach in the economic policy-making process.
• Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP):
• Launched to improve governance and public service delivery in 500 underdeveloped blocks across 329 districts.
• It operates on the 3Cs strategy: Convergence (of Central and State Schemes), Collaboration (between officers), and Competition (among blocks).
• KPIs and Monitoring:
• Progress is tracked via the Champions of Change dashboard, which allows for real-time data analysis and transparency in governance.

The correct answer is Health.

Key Points

• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index created by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure three basic dimensions of human development: health, knowledge, and standard of living.
• The Health dimension is specifically measured by the indicator Life Expectancy at Birth, which captures the longevity and physical well-being of a population.
• Life expectancy at birth signifies the average number of years a newborn is expected to live, assuming that current mortality rates remain constant throughout their lifetime.
• This indicator serves as a proxy for the overall quality of a country's healthcare system, nutritional standards, and environmental safety.
• In the calculation of the Health Index, the minimum goalpost is set at 20 years and the maximum at 85 years, allowing for a normalized value between 0 and 1.
• A higher life expectancy indicates better access to preventive medicine, clean water, and sanitation, thereby improving the overall HDI score of a nation.

 Additional Information

• The other two primary dimensions of the HDI include:
• Knowledge: This is measured through a combination of Mean Years of Schooling for adults aged 25 and older and Expected Years of Schooling for children entering the education system.
• Standard of Living (Income): This is assessed using Gross National Income (GNI) per capita adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in US dollars to account for different cost-of-living levels across countries.
• Historical Context:
• The HDI was originally conceptualized by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian economist Amartya Sen in 1990.
• The index was designed to shift the focus of development economics from strictly Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to human-centric progress and capabilities.

The correct answer is Medium of exchange in economic transactions.

Key Points

• Currency serves as a medium of exchange, which is the most fundamental function of money, allowing for the seamless transfer of goods and services between parties without the need for a double coincidence of wants.
• In traditional barter systems, trade was only possible if two individuals simultaneously possessed what the other desired; currency eliminates this barrier by acting as an intermediate asset that is universally accepted within an economy.
• As a unit of account, currency provides a standardized numerical scale for measuring the relative value of diverse goods and services, facilitating the price discovery process and accounting clarity.
• The introduction of currency significantly reduces transaction costs, which include the time, effort, and resources required to facilitate a trade, thereby increasing the velocity of money and overall economic efficiency.
• Currency facilitates specialization and the division of labor by allowing producers to sell their output for a liquid asset, which can then be used to purchase a variety of other necessities from different specialists.

 Additional Information

• Store of Value:
• Currency allows individuals to defer consumption by preserving purchasing power into the future, provided the economy maintains a stable inflation rate.
• It is considered a highly liquid asset, meaning it can be converted into goods or services almost instantly without significant loss in value.
• Standard of Deferred Payment:
• This function enables the functioning of credit markets, where debts and future obligations are denominated in a specific currency, allowing for lending and borrowing activities.
• Fiat vs. Commodity Money:
• Most modern currencies are fiat money, which lacks intrinsic value but is established as legal tender by government regulation.
• Historically, commodity money (like gold or silver coins) was used, where the currency itself had value based on the material it was made from.
• Monetary Policy:
• The supply and value of currency are regulated by Central Banks (such as the Reserve Bank of India) to manage macroeconomic stability and economic growth.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Durgabai Deshmukh, often hailed as the Mother of Social Service, was born on 15 July 1909 in Rajahmundry, which was then part of the Madras Presidency and is currently situated in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• She was a veteran freedom fighter who actively participated in the Salt Satyagraha at Madras Marina Beach in 1930, for which she was imprisoned by the British colonial authorities.
• In 1937, she founded the Andhra Mahila Sabha (Andhra Women's Conference), a pioneering institution dedicated to the socio-economic upliftment and educational empowerment of women in Telugu-speaking regions.
• She holds the distinction of being a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly of India and was the only woman on the Panel of Chairmen in the Assembly, contributing significantly to the drafting of the Constitution of India.
• Durgabai Deshmukh was the first female member of the Planning Commission of India, where she played a vital role in formulating policies for social welfare and the development of voluntary organizations.
• She was instrumental in the establishment of the Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB) in 1953 and served as its founding Chairperson, creating a nationwide framework for welfare services.

 Additional Information

• Durgabai Deshmukh was a multi-faceted personality:
• She was a qualified lawyer and practiced at the Madras High Court, focusing on the legal rights of women and the implementation of the Hindu Code Bills.
• In 1953, she married Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh (C.D. Deshmukh), who was the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and the Union Finance Minister.
• For her exemplary services to society, she was honored with the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award, in 1975.
• She received the UNESCO Award for outstanding work in the field of literacy and the Nehru Literacy Award in 1971.
• Her autobiography, titled The Stone That Speaketh, provides deep insights into her struggles and contributions to the Indian national movement.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• The Lepcha language, also known as Róng ring, is primarily spoken by the Lepcha people who are the indigenous inhabitants of the state of Sikkim.
• It belongs to the Tibeto-Burman language family and is one of the eleven official languages recognized by the state government of Sikkim for administrative and educational purposes.
• The language possesses its own unique writing system known as the Lepcha script or Róng script, which is believed to have been developed in the early 18th century.
• Geographically, the speakers are concentrated in the Dzongu valley of North Sikkim, as well as in the Darjeeling and Kalimpong districts of West Bengal.
• In Sikkim, the language is used as a medium of instruction in primary schools to preserve the cultural heritage of the Lepcha tribe.
• UNESCO has categorized the Lepcha language as an endangered language due to the shift towards Nepali and English among the younger generation.

 Additional Information

• Odisha:
• The state is primarily known for Odia, which is a Classical Language of India.
• It is also home to various Munda and Dravidian tribal languages like Santali, Ho, and Kui.
• Kerala:
• The dominant language is Malayalam, which belongs to the Dravidian family.
• Other minority languages spoken in tribal pockets include Irula and Paniya.
• Chhattisgarh:
• The main languages are Chhattisgarhi and Hindi.
• Prominent tribal languages in the Bastar region include Gondi, Halbi, and Kurukh.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• Shri Bhagwandas Raikwar is a renowned folk artist hailing from the Sagar district of Madhya Pradesh.
• He has been selected for the prestigious Padma Shri award in 2026 (as per data) for his exemplary service and dedication to the field of Art.
• His primary contribution lies in the preservation and popularization of Bundeli folk songs, a traditional musical heritage of the Bundelkhand region.
• He is celebrated for keeping the oral traditions of Bundelkhand alive, ensuring that the cultural identity of the region is passed down to future generations through folk performances and storytelling.
• His recognition marks a significant moment for the grassroots artists of Madhya Pradesh, showcasing the rich cultural diversity of the state on a national platform.

 Additional Information

• Padma Awards Hierarchy:
• Padma Vibhushan: Awarded for exceptional and distinguished service; it is the second-highest civilian honor in India.
• Padma Bhushan: Conferred for distinguished service of a high order.
• Padma Shri: Conferred for distinguished service in various fields such as Art, Social Work, Public Affairs, Science and Engineering, Trade and Industry, Medicine, Literature, Education, Sports, and Civil Service.
• Cultural Landscape of Madhya Pradesh:
• The state is a melting pot of tribal and folk arts, including Gond painting, Bhil art, and traditional dances like Rai, Badhai, and Matki.
• The Bundelkhand region specifically is known for its heroic ballads and Alha-Udal recitations, which Bhagwandas Raikwar has helped sustain.
• The Ministry of Home Affairs handles the administration of these awards, which are traditionally announced on the eve of Republic Day.

The correct answer is Srinagar to Kanyakumari.

Key Points

• The North-South Corridor is a part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), which is the largest highway project in India. It was initiated to improve connectivity between the extreme ends of the country.
• The corridor spans approximately 4,000 kilometers, linking Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir at the northern end to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu at the southern tip.
• It primarily follows the route of National Highway 44 (NH 44), which is recognized as the longest running National Highway in India, covering multiple states including Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
• The project is managed and maintained by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), an autonomous agency under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
• The North-South Corridor intersects with the East-West Corridor at Jhansi in Uttar Pradesh, forming a crucial junction in the national logistics network.

 Additional Information

• East-West Corridor:
• This corridor connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat.
• It covers a total distance of about 3,300 kilometers and facilitates trade between the North-Eastern states and the western coast of India.
• Golden Quadrilateral:
• This is a separate highway network that connects the four major metropolitan cities of India: Delhi (North), Mumbai (West), Chennai (South), and Kolkata (East).
• The total length of the Golden Quadrilateral is 5,846 kilometers, making it one of the largest highway projects globally.
• NHAI:
• Founded in 1988 through the National Highways Authority of India Act, it became operational in 1995.
• Its primary role is the development, maintenance, and management of National Highways entrusted to it by the Government of India.

The correct answer is Raising a no-confidence motion.

Key Points

• A No-Confidence Motion is the most powerful parliamentary tool used to test the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha as mandated under Article 75 of the Constitution of India.
• It is termed an extreme method because its passage results in the immediate resignation of the Prime Minister and the entire cabinet, effectively toppling the government of the day.
• This motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (the Lower House) and requires the support of at least 50 members for its admission by the Speaker.
• The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha (specifically Rule 198) govern the mechanism of this motion, which does not require the opposition to specify the grounds for the lack of confidence.
• If the motion is passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting, the President must accept the resignation of the executive.

 Additional Information

• Question Hour:
• It is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting dedicated to members asking questions to ministers regarding administrative activities.
• It includes Starred Questions (requiring oral answers), Unstarred Questions (written answers), and Short Notice Questions.
• Adjournment Motion:
• This is moved to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
• It interrupts the regular business of the House and involves an element of censure against the government, though it does not mandate resignation.
• Calling Attention Notice:
• A procedural device introduced in 1954 where a member, with the Speaker's consent, calls the attention of a Minister to a matter of urgent importance.
• Unlike an adjournment motion, it does not involve any censure against the government.

The correct answer is 73rd Amendment.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, was passed to provide constitutional status and a legal framework to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India, aiming to strengthen rural local self-government.
• This amendment introduced a new Part IX to the Constitution of India, titled The Panchayats, which encompasses provisions from Article 243 to 243O.
• The Act added the 11th Schedule to the Constitution, which specifies 29 functional items—including agriculture, health, and primary education—that are transferred to the jurisdiction of the Panchayats.
• It institutionalized a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consisting of Gram Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samitis at the intermediate/block level, and Zila Parishads at the district level.
• The amendment mandated the reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women and provided for seat reservations for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population.
• It also established the State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and the State Election Commission to conduct free and fair elections for these bodies.

 Additional Information

• 74th Amendment Act, 1992:
• Provides constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies or Municipalities.
• Introduced Part IX-A and the 12th Schedule, containing 18 functional items for urban governance.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976:
• Known as the Mini-Constitution, it was enacted during the Emergency under Indira Gandhi.
• It added the terms Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble and introduced Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A).
• 44th Amendment Act, 1978:
• Introduced by the Janata Government to rectify the distortions of the 42nd Amendment.
• It removed the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right, making it a legal right under Article 300A.

The correct answer is Genes are equally segregated during mitosis.

Key Points

• Mitosis is characterized as equational division because the parent cell produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical to itself and to each other.
• The process of ensuring correct gene distribution begins in the S phase of Interphase, where DNA replication occurs, creating two identical sister chromatids for every chromosome.
• During Metaphase, chromosomes align at the equatorial plane (metaphase plate), ensuring that each chromosome is attached to spindle fibers from opposite poles.
• In Anaphase, the enzyme separase breaks down cohesin proteins, allowing the sister chromatids to be pulled apart toward opposite ends of the cell.
• This precise segregation mechanism ensures that each daughter nucleus receives one full set of genes, maintaining the diploid (2n) chromosome number and genetic integrity.
• Successful distribution is critical for multicellular organisms to perform growth, tissue regeneration, and maintain genomic stability across cell generations.

 Additional Information

• Cell Cycle Regulation:
• The M-checkpoint (Spindle Assembly Checkpoint) prevents the transition from metaphase to anaphase until all chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle.
• The Centrosome acts as the primary microtubule-organizing center, facilitating the formation of the mitotic spindle required for movement.
• Consequences of Distribution Failure:
• If genes were randomly distributed or lost, the resulting condition is known as aneuploidy, which is a hallmark of many types of cancer and genetic syndromes.
• Nondisjunction occurs when chromosomes fail to separate, leading to one cell having an extra chromosome and the other having one less.
• Cytokinesis follows karyokinesis (nuclear division), physically partitioning the cytoplasm and organelles into the two new daughter cells.

The correct answer is Meenakshi Amman Temple.

Key Points

• The Meenakshi Amman Temple is located in the historic city of Madurai on the southern bank of the Vaigai River in Tamil Nadu.
• It serves as a quintessential example of Dravidian Architecture, a style primarily found in Southern India, characterized by pyramid-shaped towers and intricate stone carvings.
• The complex is famous for its 14 Gopurams (gateway towers), the tallest of which is the Southern Tower, reaching a height of approximately 170 feet (52 meters).
• The temple is dedicated to Meenakshi, a form of Goddess Parvati, and her consort Sundareswarar, a form of Lord Shiva.
• A major highlight of the temple is the Aayiram Kaal Mandapam (Hall of Thousand Pillars), which contains 985 uniquely carved pillars and a museum displaying icons and photographs.
• The current structure was largely expanded and rebuilt during the Nayaka dynasty in the 16th and 17th centuries, although the shrine's history dates back over two millennia.

 Additional Information

• Other Major Temples in India:
• Somnath Temple: Located in Prabhas Patan, Gujarat, it is the first among the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva and is built in the Chalukya style (Māru-Gurjara architecture).
• Konark Sun Temple: Situated in Odisha, this 13th-century UNESCO World Heritage Site was built by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty in the Kalinga architectural style, designed as a colossal chariot.
• Jagannath Temple: Located in Puri, Odisha, it is a significant Vaishnava temple and one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites, famous for its massive Ratha Yatra (Chariot Festival).
• Architectural Features:
• The Porthamarai Kulam (Golden Lotus Tank) within the Meenakshi temple is an ancient pond where devotees take a ritual dip.
• The temple walls are adorned with frescoes and detailed sculptures depicting various mythological themes from the Puranas.

The correct answer is A large courtyard surrounded by small individual monastic cells.

Key Points

• Viharas were the residential quarters or monasteries established for Buddhist and Jain monks to dwell in during the rainy season, a practice known as Vassa.
• The typical architectural layout of a rock-cut Vihara features a central quadrangular hall or courtyard that served as a communal gathering space for the resident monks.
• Surrounding this central space, small individual cells were carved into the rock walls, each typically containing a stone platform or bench to serve as a bed for a single monk.
• While early Viharas were purely functional living spaces, later examples from the Mahayana phase, such as those at the Ajanta Caves, incorporated a shrine room with a Buddha statue at the rear of the hall.
• Major sites showcasing this architectural style include Karle, Kanheri, Nasik, and the extensive complexes at Ellora.

 Additional Information

• Chaitya-griha:
• This refers to the prayer or assembly halls, characterized by an apsidal (U-shaped) ground plan and barrel-vaulted ceilings.
• Unlike Viharas, Chaityas contain a Stupa at the far end, which acts as the primary object of worship and circumambulation.
• Structural Temples:
• These are free-standing buildings constructed during the Gupta and later periods, featuring a Garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum) to house the deity.
• Unlike rock-cut structures, these were built using materials like stone blocks or bricks and followed different architectural canons like Nagara or Dravida styles.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra Valley.

Key Points

• The Brahmaputra Valley, also known as the Assam Valley, constitutes the most significant physiographic division of Assam, covering approximately 56,194 square kilometers of the state's total area.
• It is an aggradational plain formed by the depositional work of the Brahmaputra River and its numerous tributaries, stretching nearly 720 kilometers in length from Sadiya in the east to Dhubri in the west.
• The valley is bounded by the Eastern Himalayas (Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh) to the north and the Shillong Plateau, Karbi Anglong, and Barail Range to the south.
• This region is characterized by an extremely gentle gradient, leading to the formation of numerous river islands, including Majuli, which is recognized as one of the largest inhabited riverine islands in the world.
• The landscape is dotted with ox-bow lakes, locally known as Beels, and vast stretches of alluvial fertile land that support the state's dominant tea cultivation and paddy farming.

 Additional Information

• Ganga Valley
• Located in Northern India, it forms the major part of the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
• It spans across states such as Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, but does not enter Assam.
• Godavari Valley
• Part of the Peninsular river system, the Godavari is the longest river in Southern India.
• It drains the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, and Andhra Pradesh.
• Narmada Valley
• Situated in Central India, it is a prominent rift valley located between the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges.
• The river flows westwards through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian Sea.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Energy Statistics India 2025 report, published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), outlines the status of hydrocarbon reserves in the country as of April 1, 2024.
• The total estimated reserves of Crude Oil in India are recorded at approximately 597.58 Million Tonnes (MT).
• The Western Offshore region remains the largest contributor to India's total crude oil reserves, holding a share of 32.57% (194.58 MT).
• Among the states, Rajasthan possesses the largest share of crude oil reserves, accounting for 24.30% (145.24 MT) of the national total.
• Assam holds the second-largest share among the states, with estimated reserves of 133.51 MT, representing 22.34% of India's total reserves.
• The state of Gujarat follows in the third position among states, with a share of 11.96% (71.49 MT).

 Additional Information

• Assam's Petroleum Legacy:
• Assam is the pioneer of the Indian petroleum industry, with the Digboi Oil Refinery, commissioned in 1901, being the oldest operating refinery in Asia.
• The state features prominent oil fields such as Naharkatiya, Moran-Hugrijan, and Rudrasagar, which are primarily managed by Oil India Limited (OIL) and ONGC.
• Other States:
• Nagaland: It holds a relatively small portion of reserves (approx 2.38 MT) located within the Assam-Arakan Basin.
• Tripura: While rich in Natural Gas, its crude oil reserves are not as significant as those in the Brahmaputra valley.
• West Bengal: Exploration in the Bengal Basin has shifted focus toward Coal Bed Methane (CBM) and shale gas due to the lack of substantial crude oil deposits.
• Institutional Framework:
• The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas oversees the management of these resources to ensure energy security.

The correct answer is Dhaula Dhar.

Key Points

• The Himalayan mountain system consists of three parallel longitudinal ranges: the Great Himalayas (Himadri), the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal), and the Outer Himalayas (Shiwaliks).
• The Himachal or Lesser Himalaya range lies to the south of the Great Himalayas and is characterized by a highly rugged terrain with altitudes ranging between 3,700 and 4,500 meters.
• The Dhaula Dhar range is a prominent mountain chain within the Lesser Himalayas, primarily located in the state of Himachal Pradesh, overlooking the Kangra Valley.
• This range is composed of metamorphic rocks such as slate, limestone, and sandstone, and it is famous for hosting popular hill stations like Dharamshala and Dalhousie.
• Apart from the Dhaula Dhar, the Pir Panjal range (the longest in this system), the Mussoorie range, and the Mahabharat range are other critical components of the Lesser Himalaya.

 Additional Information

• Satpura Range:
• It is a block mountain range in Central India, situated between the Narmada and Tapi rivers.
• It spans across Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh, reaching its highest point at Dhupgarh.
• Vindhya Range:
• Located in Central India, it consists of a discontinuous chain of mountain ridges and plateaus.
• It acts as a primary watershed and the traditional boundary between North India and South India.
• Aravalli Range:
• Recognized as one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, located in Northwestern India.
• It extends from Gujarat to Delhi, with Guru Shikhar (1,722 m) on Mount Abu being its highest peak.

सही उत्तर धर्म चक्र जैसे अमूर्तिक प्रतीकों के माध्यम से है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• तीसरी शताब्दी ईसा पूर्व के दौरान, बौद्ध कला का प्रारंभिक चरण अमूर्तिक (Aniconic) था, जहाँ बुद्ध को मानवीय रूप में चित्रित करने से बचा जाता था।
• इस काल में, बुद्ध की उपस्थिति को विभिन्न प्रतीकों द्वारा दर्शाया गया था, जिनमें धर्म चक्र सबसे महत्वपूर्ण था, जो सारनाथ में उनके प्रथम उपदेश (धर्मचक्रप्रवर्तन) का प्रतीक माना जाता है।
• अशोक के शासनकाल के दौरान निर्मित सांची और भरहुत जैसे प्रारंभिक स्तूपों की नक्काशी में बुद्ध को रिक्त सिंहासन, बोधिवृक्ष, पदचिह्न या पहिये के रूप में दिखाया गया था।
• यह परंपरा बौद्ध धर्म के हीनयान या थेरवाद संप्रदाय के सिद्धांतों के अनुरूप थी, जो बुद्ध की आध्यात्मिक उपस्थिति पर बल देती थी न कि उनके भौतिक स्वरूप पर।
• अमूर्तिक चित्रण का मुख्य उद्देश्य भक्तों को बुद्ध की शिक्षाओं और उनके जीवन की प्रमुख घटनाओं (जैसे ज्ञानोदय और निर्वाण) की ओर केंद्रित करना था।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• मानवत्वारोपी छवियाँ (Anthropomorphic Images):
• बुद्ध का मानवीय रूप में चित्रण कुषाण काल (लगभग पहली शताब्दी ईस्वी) के दौरान शुरू हुआ, जो महायान बौद्ध धर्म के उदय के साथ मेल खाता है।
• इसमें विभिन्न मुद्राओं (जैसे अभय मुद्रा, भूमिस्पर्श मुद्रा) का उपयोग करके बुद्ध के गुणों को व्यक्त किया गया।
• गांधार शैली:
• यह शैली भारत-यूनानी (Indo-Greek) प्रभाव से विकसित हुई थी, जहाँ बुद्ध को खड़ी या बैठी मुद्रा में, घुंघराले बालों और मांसपेशियों वाली शारीरिक बनावट के साथ दिखाया गया।
• शैलकृत चैत्य गृह:
• ये मुख्य रूप से बौद्ध प्रार्थना कक्ष थे; हालाँकि, प्रारंभिक चैत्यों (जैसे भाजा या कार्ले) में स्तूप ही पूजा का मुख्य केंद्र थे, न कि बुद्ध की मूर्तियाँ।

The correct answer is Block level.

Key Points

• The Panchayati Raj system in India is a three-tier administrative structure designed to promote grassroots democracy and local self-governance through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• The Panchayat Samiti serves as the intermediate level or the second tier of this system, functioning specifically at the Block level (also known as the Tehsil, Taluka, or Mandal level).
• This body acts as a crucial link between the Gram Panchayats (village level) and the Zila Parishad (district level), ensuring that development plans are coordinated effectively.
• The Samiti is primarily an executive body responsible for implementing various developmental schemes related to agriculture, primary health, water supply, and social welfare within its block jurisdiction.
• The composition of the Panchayat Samiti includes directly elected members, as well as ex-officio members such as the Sarpanchs of all Gram Panchayats in the block and local MLAs and MPs.

 Additional Information

• Gram Panchayat:
• Operates at the Village level, representing the primary tier of the Panchayati Raj.
• Responsible for basic amenities like street lighting, sanitation, and maintaining local records.
• Zila Parishad:
• Functions at the District level as the apex body of the three-tier system.
• Focuses on macro-level planning, advising the state government, and supervising the work of Panchayat Samitis.
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:
• Appointed in 1957, it recommended the establishment of the three-tier Panchayati Raj system to ensure Democratic Decentralization.
• The first Panchayati Raj system was inaugurated in Nagaur, Rajasthan, on October 2, 1959.
• Article 243-B:
• Mandates the three-tier system in all states, except those with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs, where the intermediate tier may not be constituted.

The correct answer is Puducherry.

Key Points

• The Sex Ratio is an essential demographic indicator defined as the number of females per 1000 males in a population.
• According to the 2011 Census of India, the national average sex ratio was 943 females per 1000 males, which was a slight improvement from the 2001 figure of 933.
• Among all the Union Territories in 2011, Puducherry was the only one to record a sex ratio exceeding the 1000 mark, with a value of 1037.
• The high sex ratio in Puducherry is attributed to its progressive socio-economic indicators and historical demographic trends influenced by its unique administrative heritage.
• In contrast, most other Union Territories during this period exhibited a skewed sex ratio, primarily due to large-scale male-dominated migration for industrial and urban employment.

 Additional Information

• Demographic Data of Other Options:
• Daman and Diu: Recorded the lowest sex ratio among all states and UTs in India at just 618.
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli: Exhibited a low sex ratio of 774, largely due to the high presence of migrant labor in the manufacturing sector.
• Chandigarh: The administrative capital recorded a sex ratio of 818, reflecting common urban demographic patterns in North India.
• National Perspective:
• Kerala: Held the highest sex ratio among all Indian states with 1084 females per 1000 males.
• Haryana: Was identified as the state with the lowest sex ratio at 879 during the 2011 survey.
• Mahe: A district in Puducherry, it recorded the highest sex ratio for any district in India at 1184.

The correct answer is Articles 23 and 24.

Key Points

• The Right Against Exploitation is one of the six fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India under Part III.
• Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (unpaid forced labor), and other similar forms of forced labor. It protects individuals against exploitation not only by the State but also by private persons.
• Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or any other hazardous employment such as construction work or railways.
• These provisions are crucial for maintaining human dignity and protecting the most vulnerable sections of society, including women and children, from economic and physical abuse.

 Additional Information

• Right to Equality (Articles 14–18):
• Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of the laws.
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22):
• Article 19 protects six basic freedoms, including speech and expression, assembly, and movement.
• Article 20 provides protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies:
• Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights, described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the Heart and Soul of the Constitution.
• Article 226 grants the High Courts the authority to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for other legal rights.

The correct answer is Vitamin B9 (Folic acid).

Key Points

• Folic Acid (Vitamin B9) is a vital water-soluble vitamin that acts as a coenzyme in the synthesis, repair, and methylation of DNA, facilitating rapid cell division and growth.
• It is critical during pregnancy for the proper development of the fetal neural tube; adequate levels prevent major birth defects such as Spina Bifida and Anencephaly.
• The vitamin is essential for erythropoiesis (the production of red blood cells); a deficiency leads to Megaloblastic Anemia, where cells are large and structurally abnormal.
• Biochemically, it carries one-carbon groups necessary for the conversion of homocysteine to methionine and the formation of purines and thymidylate for nucleic acid production.

 Additional Information

• Vitamin B1 (Thiamine):
• Plays a key role in carbohydrate metabolism and the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
• Its deficiency is associated with Beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, affecting the cardiovascular and nervous systems.
• Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin):
• Component of Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide (FAD) and Flavin Mononucleotide (FMN), which are essential for the Electron Transport Chain.
• Crucial for maintaining healthy skin, eyes, and neurological functions.
• Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine):
• Involved in over 100 enzymatic reactions, primarily relating to protein metabolism and gluconeogenesis.
• Necessary for the synthesis of neurotransmitters like serotonin and the formation of hemoglobin.

The correct answer is Kwashiorkor.

Key Points

• Kwashiorkor is a severe form of Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) that typically occurs when a child is weaned from breast milk and transitioned to a diet high in carbohydrates but critically low in protein.
• The lack of essential amino acids leads to stunted growth and physical development issues, as the body lacks the building blocks necessary for tissue repair and muscle growth.
• One of the most distinct clinical signs is the discoloration of hair, which often turns reddish, orange, or yellowish; this happens because the body cannot synthesize melanin without adequate protein.
• The disease is often characterized by edema (swelling), particularly in the abdomen (resulting in a pot-belly appearance) and feet, caused by a decrease in plasma albumin levels that disrupts fluid balance in the blood vessels.

 Additional Information

• Scurvy
• Caused by a chronic deficiency of Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid).
• Key symptoms include bleeding gums, corkscrew hairs, and poor wound healing due to impaired collagen synthesis.
• Marasmus
• A form of malnutrition caused by a deficiency in both protein and total calories.
• Unlike Kwashiorkor, it presents with extreme emaciation, a shrunken appearance, and a lack of edema.
• Diabetes
• A metabolic disorder where the body cannot effectively regulate blood glucose.
• It results from either insufficient insulin production by the pancreas or the body cells not responding properly to insulin.
• Constipation
• A condition of the digestive system characterized by infrequent or difficult bowel movements.
• It is typically linked to a lack of dietary fiber, dehydration, or a sedentary lifestyle.

The correct answer is Parent/guardian responsibility for his/her children’s education for the age of 6-14 years.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are enshrined in Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A.
• The 11th Fundamental Duty was specifically added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• This duty is listed as clause (k) under Article 51A and states that it is the responsibility of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was originally inspired by the Constitution of the USSR (now Russia) and was added to the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee in 1976.
• Initially, there were only 10 Fundamental Duties introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976; the addition of the education duty brought the total to eleven.

 Additional Information

• Breakdown of other options mentioned in Article 51A:
• Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India: This is the 3rd duty listed under Article 51A(c).
• Safeguard public property and to abjure violence: This is the 9th duty listed under Article 51A(i).
• Value and preserve the rich heritage of the composite culture: This is the 6th duty listed under Article 51A(f).
• The 86th Amendment Act was a landmark piece of legislation that also inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, making Free and Compulsory Education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning citizens cannot be punished by courts for not following them unless there is a specific law enacted by the Parliament to enforce a particular duty.

The correct answer is ठोस चट्टानों को सीधे काटकर संरचनाओं का निर्माण.

मुख्य बिंदु

• अजंता और एलोरा की गुफाएं भारतीय एकाश्म शैल-कर्तित वास्तुकला (Monolithic Rock-cut Architecture) के सबसे उत्कृष्ट उदाहरणों में से एक हैं, जहाँ विशाल पहाड़ी चट्टानों को काटकर कक्षों का निर्माण किया गया था।
• इन गुफाओं का निर्माण ऊपर से नीचे (Top-down approach) की ओर खुदाई करके किया गया था, जिसका अर्थ है कि शिल्पकारों ने पहले पहाड़ के शीर्ष को तराशा और फिर धीरे-धीरे नीचे की ओर बढ़े।
• अजंता की गुफाएं महाराष्ट्र के औरंगाबाद जिले में वाघोरा नदी के किनारे स्थित हैं, जिनमें 29 बौद्ध गुफाएं शामिल हैं, जिनका निर्माण 2nd शताब्दी ईसा पूर्व से 7वीं शताब्दी ईस्वी के बीच हुआ था।
• एलोरा परिसर में कुल 34 गुफाएं हैं, जो हिंदू, बौद्ध और जैन धर्मों के प्रति सहिष्णुता का प्रतीक हैं और इनका निर्माण 600 से 1000 ईस्वी के दौरान हुआ था।
• इन संरचनाओं के निर्माण में केवल छेनी और हथौड़े जैसे सरल उपकरणों का उपयोग करके कठोर बेसाल्टिक चट्टानों को तराशा गया था, जिसमें किसी भी प्रकार के बाहरी जोड़ या ईंटों का उपयोग नहीं किया गया है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• कैलाश मंदिर (एलोरा, गुफा 16):
• यह दुनिया की सबसे बड़ी एकाश्म संरचना है, जिसे राष्ट्रकूट राजा कृष्ण प्रथम के संरक्षण में निर्मित किया गया था।
• इसे बनाने के लिए लगभग 2,00,000 टन चट्टान को काटकर निकाला गया था।
• अजंता के चित्र:
• अजंता मुख्य रूप से अपनी भित्ति चित्रों (Fresco Paintings) के लिए प्रसिद्ध है, जो जातक कथाओं और बुद्ध के जीवन को दर्शाते हैं।
• इन गुफाओं को 1983 में यूनेस्को (UNESCO) विश्व धरोहर स्थल के रूप में मान्यता दी गई थी।
• स्थापत्य शैलियाँ:
• अजंता में मुख्य रूप से हीनयान और महायान बौद्ध धर्म की कलाकृतियाँ मिलती हैं।
• एलोरा की गुफाओं में द्रविड़ और अन्य क्षेत्रीय स्थापत्य शैलियों का प्रभाव स्पष्ट रूप से दिखाई देता है।