DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 08 May, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given series:

(Left) T Y K * E S @ Q U A C + R Ω & $ # G % £ B D (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) T Y K * E S @ Q U A C + R Ω & $ # G % £ B D (Right)

Therefore, there are 2 such symbols.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

E, F, G, H, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. W is an immediate neighbour of both U and H.
2. H sits third to the left of F.
3. G sits to the immediate left of F.
4. E is not an immediate neighbour of H.

U sits third to the left of V.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven boxes P,Q,R,S,T,U and V are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Exactly 3 boxes are kept below U.
2. Only 2 boxes are kept between U and P.
3. Exactly 4 boxes are kept between Q and V.
4. Atleast 2 boxes are kept below P.
5. S is kept immediately below R.
6. Q is kept above V.

The Final Arrangement:

There are 2 boxes kept below R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘SEAT’ is coded as ‘5314’

‘TEAM’ is coded as ‘1452’. 

Code for "M" is "2".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘WEST’ is coded as ‘2651’ 

‘SEAT’ is coded as ‘5362

Code for "A" is "3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: F#I@G+O

It means: F is the mother of I, I is the daughter of G, and G is the son of O.

F is related to O as son's wife.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) B $ K T A E % @ U * Y S & # Ω D £ G C + Q R (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Letter → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) B $ K T A E % @ U * Y S & # Ω D £ G C + Q R (Right)

Two such letters (KTA and TAE) are there each of which is immediately preceded by another letter and also immediately followed by another letter.

Hence, the correct answer is "3".

Given Statements:

Some Gorillas are Porcupines.

Some Porcupines are Cheetahs.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Gorillas are Cheetahs → Does not follow (There is no direct relationship between Gorillas and Cheetahs given in the statements, so it is a possibility but not a definite conclusion.)

II. No Gorillas are Cheetahs → Does not follow  (As there is no negative relationship defined between Gorillas and Cheetahs, they could potentially overlap in other possible diagrams, so this is not definitely true.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given word: PLACED

Step 1: Change each letter to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order.

P → O

L → K

A → Z

C → B

E → D

D → C

New letters formed: O, K, Z, B, D, C

Alphabetical order: B, C, D, K, O, Z

Fourth letter from the right is "D".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statement:

G < E ≤ L = K > R

Conclusions:

I: L > G → True (Since G < E ≤ L, it is definite that L > G)

II: K ≥ E → True (Since L = K and E ≤ L, therefore K ≥ E)

Therefore, both I and II are true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) & \ 3 ^ 5 8 3 * 8 + ? ? < 6 % ? < ^ < ^ 2 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) & \ 3 ^ 5 8 3 * 8 + ? ? < 6 % ? < ^ < ^ 2 (Right)

Two such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another symbol.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. B is kept above E and only 1 box is kept above E.
2. Only two boxes are kept between E and D.
3. G is kept below F and only 1 box is kept below F.
4. A is not kept immediately above D.

Final Arrangement:

The number of boxes kept above D is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) C E O A C B I O O T Q E U L Z O I T J U G K (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Vowel → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) C E O A C B I O O T Q E U L Z O I T J U G K (Right)

Four such vowels are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given word: BACKLOG:

The new group of letters formed is A B B J K P F.

2nd letter from the left = B

Therefore, the second letter from the left in the new group is B.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: T × G ÷ D − M + K

It means: T is the wife of G, G is the father of D, D is the brother of M, and M is the mother of K.

T is the mother of K's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statement:

D > E < A < R = C

Conclusions:

I: D < A → False (From the given statement, no definite relationship can be established between D and A)

II: C < D → False (Since no definite relationship can be established between C and D)

Therefore, neither I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

‘URGE’ is coded as ‘7295’ 

‘RUGS’ is coded as ‘4972’.

Code for "S" is "4".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

E, F, G, H, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. F sits third to the left of V.
2. G sits second to the left of H.
3. V is an immediate neighbour of both W and G.
4. E is not an immediate neighbour of F.

Two people sit between U and G when counted from the right of U.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

Total number of students = 50

Palak is 33rd from the left end.

Farah is 5 places to the right of Palak.

Therefore, Farah's position from the left end = 33 + 5

= 38th

The formula for finding rank from the right is:

Rank from Right = Total Students - Rank from Left + 1

Farah's position from the right end = 50 - 38 + 1

= 12 + 1

= 13th

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Seven boxes D, E, F, G, O, P and Q are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. No box is kept above D.
2. Only three boxes are kept between D and O.
3. Only one box is kept between Q and F.
4. F is kept immediately above O.
5. Only four boxes are kept between Q and P.
6. E is kept at some place above G. 

The final arrangement of boxes from top to bottom is as follows:

The box kept second below E is O.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

For URS to TQR

For EBC to DAB

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of −1 for each successive letter in the sequence.

Option 1) PLL to NKL

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −2, −1, and 0.

Option 2) PLL to OLM

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −1, 0, and +1.

Option 3) PMN to NLL

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −2, −1, and −2.

Option 4) PMN to OLM

This pair follows the same constant letter shift of −1 for each letter.

Thus, the pair PMN : OLM follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Option (1): EC − YW

Option (2): AY − US

Option (3): ZX − ST

Option (4): CA − WU

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic: (First Number)² − 3 = Second Number

Given: X : 118 :: 13 : Y

(1) X = 10 , Y = 166 → 10 : 118 :: 13 : 166

(10)² - 3 = 100 - 3 = 97 ≠ 118

(13)² - 3 = 169 - 3 = 166

(2) X = 11 , Y = 166 → 11 : 118 :: 13 : 166

(11)² - 3 = 121 - 3 = 118

(13)2 - 3 = 169 - 3 = 166

(3) X = 9 , Y = 165 → 9 : 118 :: 13 : 165

(9)2 - 3 = 81 - 3 = 78 ≠ 118

(13)2 - 3 = 169 - 3 = 166 ≠ 165

(4) X = 11 , Y = 165 → 11 : 118 :: 13 : 165 

(11)2 - 3 = 121 - 3 = 118

(13)2 - 3 = 169 - 3 = 166 ≠ 165

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 14 C 20 A 5 D 3 B 5 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 14 + 20 ÷ 5 - 3 × 5 = ?

⇒ 14 + 20 ÷ 5 - 3 × 5 = ?

⇒ 14 + 4 - 3 × 5 = ?

⇒ 14 + 4 - 15 = ?

⇒ 14 + 4 - 15 = ?

⇒ 18 - 15 = ?

⇒ 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements:

No Judges are Chefs.

All Chefs are Dentists.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No Dentists are Judges → Does not follow (As only the Chefs part of Dentists is restricted from being Judges, the remaining part of Dentists can potentially be Judges, so it is not a definite conclusion.)

II. Some Judges are Dentists → Does not follow (There is no definite relationship given between Judges and Dentists, so it is only a possibility.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given number: 3847592.

The resulting number is 2956483.

Second from the left is 9.

Second from the right is 8.

Sum = 9 + 8 = 17

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: (First Number + Second Number) + 3 = Third Number

For (16, 23, 42) →

16 + 23 = 39

39 + 3 = 42

For (15, 25, 43) →

15 + 25 = 40

40 + 3 = 43

Similarly,

Option (4): (16, 20, 39)

6 + 20 = 36

36 + 3 = 39

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Option 1: BZ-ZQ

Option 2: WU-UL

Option 3: OM-MD

Option 4: US-SI

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic: (First number + Second number) × 6 = Third number

For (10, 20, 180) →

10 + 20 = 30

30 × 6 = 180

For, (14, 15, 174) →

14 +15 = 29

29 × 6 = 174

Similarly,

Option (3): (7, 19, 156) →

7 + 19 = 26

26 × 6 = 156

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Mirror image of given figure is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

(6 × 2) + 5 = 12 + 5 = 17

(17 × 2) + 5 = 34 + 5 = 39

(39 × 2) + 5 = 78 + 5 = 83

(83 × 2) + 5 = 166 + 5 = 171

(171 × 2) + 5 = 342 + 5 = 347

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed here is:

For JHI to KIJ

For GEF to HFG

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +1 for each letter in the group.

Option 1) AYZ to BZA

This pair follows the same +1 shift logic (Z + 1 cycles back to A).

Option 2) AXX to BZA

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +1, +2, +3.

Option 3) AXX to AYZ

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are 0, +1, +2.

Option 4) AYZ to AZZ

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are 0, +1, 0.

Thus, the pair AYZ : BZA follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 36 × 12 - 3 ÷ 3 + 16 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 36 ÷ 12 + 3 × 3 - 16 = ?

⇒ 36 ÷ 12 + 3 × 3 - 16 = ?

⇒ 3 + 3 × 3 - 16 = ?

⇒ 3 + 9 - 16 = ?

⇒ 3 + 9 - 16 = ?

⇒ 12 - 16 = ?

⇒ -4

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For TWX to ADE

For HKL to ORS

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +7 for each letter in the group.

Option 1) XZZ to EHI

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +7, +8, and +9.

Option 2) XZZ to DGH

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +6, +7, and +8.

Option 3) XAB to EHI

This pair follows the same +7 shift logic for all letters.

Option 4) XAB to DHH

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +6, +7, and +6.

Thus, the pair XAB : EHI follows the same pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 10 B 6 C 8 D 20 A 4 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 10 × 6 + 8 - 20 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 10 × 6 + 8 - 20 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 60 + 8 - 20 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 60 + 8 - 5 = ?

⇒ 60 + 8 - 5 = ?

⇒ 68 - 5 = ?

⇒ 63.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is,

47 + 11 = 58

58 + 22 = 80

80 + 33 = 113

113 + 44 = 157

157 + 55 = 212

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given number: 7435183

New number:  8246264.

First digit is 8.

Last digit is 4.

The sum of the first and last digits = 8 + 4 = 12.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• In January 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually inaugurated the 7th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG), which was hosted by the state of Bihar.
• This event marks a historic milestone as it is the first major multi-discipline sporting event of this magnitude to be organized by Bihar, showcasing its upgraded sports infrastructure.
• The competition was primarily centered in Patna, with the Pataliputra Sports Complex serving as the main venue for various high-profile events and ceremonies.
• The games saw the participation of approximately 5,000 athletes representing all States and Union Territories, competing in 26 different sports disciplines.
• The hosting of KIYG 2025 aligns with the state’s initiative to promote a sports culture and identify grassroots talent under the broader Khelo India mission.

 Additional Information

• Khelo India Initiative:
• Launched in 2018 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, the program aims to revive the sports culture in India by identifying and nurturing talent at a young age.
• Selected athletes receive an annual scholarship of 5 lakh rupees for a period of 8 years to prepare for international events.
• Mascot of KIYG 2025:
• The official mascot for the Bihar edition was Garud (the state bird of Bihar), symbolizing the state’s natural heritage and the soaring spirit of the athletes.
• Infrastructure Development:
• The state of Bihar has recently invested in significant projects like the Bihar Sports University in Rajgir to provide specialized training and academic excellence in sports.
• Previous Host States:
• The previous editions were hosted by states including Tamil Nadu (2024), Madhya Pradesh (2023), Haryana (2022), and Assam (2020).

The correct answer is 2030.

Key Points

• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), also known as the Global Goals, were officially adopted by all 193 Member States of the United Nations in September 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• The primary objective of SDG 1 is to End poverty in all its forms everywhere by the target year of 2030.
• The goals aim to eradicate extreme poverty for all people everywhere, which was historically defined as living on less than $1.25 a day (later updated to $1.90 and currently $2.15 by the World Bank).
• The 2030 deadline applies to a total of 17 Sustainable Development Goals and 169 targets that address global challenges including inequality, climate change, and environmental degradation.
• This framework emphasizes a holistic approach, recognizing that ending poverty must go hand-in-hand with strategies that build economic growth and address social needs like education and health.

 Additional Information

• Core Principles of the 2030 Agenda:
• Universal Applicability: Unlike the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) which targeted developing nations, the SDGs are universal and apply to both rich and poor countries.
• Leaving No One Behind: This is the central, transformative promise of the agenda, focusing on marginalized groups and vulnerable populations.
• Dimensions of Poverty Reduction:
• The targets involve implementing social protection systems and measures for all, including social protection floors.
• They also ensure that all men and women have equal rights to economic resources, as well as access to basic services, ownership and control over land, and financial services.
• Building resilience of the poor to climate-related extreme events and other economic, social, and environmental shocks is a critical sub-target of SDG 1.

The correct answer is Marium Fatima.

Key Points

• Marium Fatima, a young chess prodigy from Patna, has created history by becoming the first female player from Bihar to be awarded the Woman FIDE Master (WFM) title.
• The title was officially conferred by the International Chess Federation (FIDE) in September 2025 after she achieved the necessary performance norms and crossed the Elo rating threshold required for the designation.
• This achievement is a significant milestone for the All Bihar Chess Association (ABCA) and the state's sporting landscape, as it marks the first time a woman from the region has reached this international rank.
• Before attaining the WFM status, she represented India and Bihar in various national and international tournaments, including the World Cadet Chess Championship, where she demonstrated exceptional strategic skills.

 Additional Information

• Vaishali Rameshbabu:
• She is a renowned Indian chess player who became the country’s third female Grandmaster (GM) in 2023.
• She and her younger brother, Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa, are the first brother-sister pair in history to both hold the Grandmaster title.
• Jayshree Khadilkar:
• She was the first Indian woman to achieve the Woman International Master (WIM) title in 1979.
• A pioneer in the game, she won the Indian Women’s Chess Championship five times.
• Shubhi Gupta:
• A rising star in Indian chess who won the U-12 girls' title at the World Cadet Chess Championship in 2022.
• She hails from Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh, and has been a consistent performer in junior circuits.
• Woman FIDE Master (WFM):
• It is the third-highest ranking title exclusively for women, ranking below Woman Grandmaster (WGM) and Woman International Master (WIM).
• The title is awarded to players who maintain an Elo rating of at least 2100.

The correct answer is Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) was established in December 1885 to provide a platform for political dialogue between the British administration and educated Indians.
• Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, a barrister from Calcutta, was elected as the first President of the organization during its inaugural session.
• The first session of the INC was held from December 28 to December 31, 1885, at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• A total of 72 delegates from different parts of India attended the meeting, representing diverse regions and interests.
• The formation of the INC was initiated by Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British civil servant, who served as the General Secretary for several years.
• The session passed resolutions calling for administrative reforms, including the expansion of the Legislative Councils and holding the Indian Civil Service examinations in India.

 Additional Information

• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• He is famously known as the Grand Old Man of India and was the first Indian to be a member of the British House of Commons.
• He presided over three INC sessions: 1886 (Calcutta), 1893 (Lahore), and 1906 (Calcutta), where Swaraj was adopted as the goal.
• Surendranath Banerjee:
• He founded the Indian National Association in 1876, which was a precursor to the INC.
• He served as the INC President in 1895 and 1902 and was a key leader in the Swadeshi Movement.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
• He presided over the 1905 Banaras session and was the founder of the Servants of India Society.
• He is widely regarded as the political mentor of Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is Entrepreneurship.

Key Points

• Entrepreneurship is the specialized human resource that organizes and coordinates the other three factors of production: land, labor, and capital.
• It represents the innovative spirit and risk-taking ability required to start a business, manage its operations, and introduce new products or services to the market.
• The primary role of the entrepreneur is to make critical managerial decisions, allocate resources efficiently, and bear the financial uncertainties associated with the enterprise.
• In economic theory, the reward for this specific factor of production is profit, which distinguishes it from wages (labor), rent (land), and interest (capital).
• Without entrepreneurship, the other factors of production remain idle and cannot be combined effectively to generate economic value or utility.

 Additional Information

• Machinery:
• Classified as Fixed Capital, these are man-made physical assets used in the production of other goods over a long duration.
• Unlike entrepreneurship, machinery cannot make autonomous decisions or bear market risks.
• Raw Materials:
• These are considered Working Capital or Intermediate Goods that are consumed or transformed during the manufacturing process.
• They are typically derived from natural resources (land) but require human or mechanical intervention to become final products.
• Tax:
• While a critical component of fiscal policy, it is not a factor of production but a mandatory financial levy imposed by the government on production, consumption, or income.
• The Four Factors of Production:
• Land: Includes all natural resources like soil, water, and minerals.
• Labor: Encompasses the physical and mental effort provided by individuals in exchange for wages.
• Capital: Refers to man-made tools, infrastructure, and funds used to assist production.

The correct answer is Artificial intelligence-based agricultural advisory.

Key Points

• The Bharat-VISTAAR (Visualizing Integrated Systems for Tech-driven Agricultural Advancement and Resilience) is a pioneering initiative announced in the Union Budget 2026 to modernize the primary sector.
• The core objective of the initiative is to deploy Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) algorithms to provide customized agricultural advisory services to over 120 million farmers in India.
• It utilizes remote sensing data and geospatial mapping to monitor crop health, allowing for early detection of pest infestations and nutrient deficiencies at the field level.
• The initiative facilitates the digitization of extension services, moving away from traditional physical visits to digital-first consultations through AI-powered chatbots and mobile platforms.
• By integrating hyper-local weather forecasts, Bharat-VISTAAR helps farmers make informed decisions regarding irrigation cycles and sowing timelines, effectively reducing crop loss risks.

 Additional Information

• Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Agriculture:
• The program is built upon the Agristack framework, which provides a federated database of farmers, land records, and crop registries.
• It aligns with the National e-Governance Plan in Agriculture (NeGPA) to enhance the reach of technology in rural hinterlands.
• Precision Farming and Sustainability:
• The initiative promotes precision agriculture, which ensures the judicious use of fertilizers and water, contributing to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) related to responsible production.
• It supports soil health card integration, where AI suggests specific micronutrient applications based on historic soil data.
• Comparison with Other Options:
• While Digital Banking and Satellite Communication are critical components of the Digital India mission, Bharat-VISTAAR is specifically tailored for agritech interventions.
• Unlike Defence Technology, which focuses on national security, this initiative focuses on food security and the doubling of farmers income through technological empowerment.

The correct answer is Department of Telecommunications.

Key Points

• In February 2025, the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), functioning under the Ministry of Communications, signed a landmark Letter of Intent (LoI) with the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
• The collaboration focuses on the development of AI-powered digital twins, which are highly accurate virtual representations of physical telecom infrastructure and systems.
• This initiative is designed to utilize Artificial Intelligence for enhancing network resilience, automating spectrum management, and optimizing the rollout of 5G and future 6G technologies across India.
• By using digital twin technology, the DoT aims to simulate various real-world scenarios, including disaster recovery and traffic congestion, to ensure uninterrupted connectivity and improved quality of service.
• The agreement reinforces India’s commitment to international standards and highlights its growing influence in the global telecommunications landscape through the ITU Area Office and Innovation Centre in New Delhi.

 Additional Information

• International Telecommunication Union (ITU):
• It is a specialized agency of the United Nations founded in 1865, making it one of the oldest international organizations in existence.
• Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, it coordinates the global use of the radio spectrum and develops technical standards for telecommunications.
• Digital Twin Technology:
• A digital twin is a dynamic virtual model that bridges the gap between the physical and digital worlds using sensors and real-time data.
• In the telecom sector, it allows for predictive maintenance, reducing the need for physical inspections and lowering operational expenses (OPEX).
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY):
• While not the direct signer of this LoI, MeitY is responsible for IT policy, cyber security, and the Digital India mission.

The correct answer is National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.

Key Points

• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on July 12, 1982, under the NABARD Act, 1981, to promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural prosperity.
• It was founded based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee (also known as the Committee to Review Arrangements for Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development - CRAFICARD).
• NABARD serves as the apex regulatory body for the overall regulation and licensing of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India.
• The institution took over the functions of the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of the Reserve Bank of India, as well as the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
• It is responsible for providing refinance support to financial institutions for lending to the agricultural sector, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, and handicrafts.
• It plays a pivotal role in the preparation of district-level credit plans and monitors the flow of ground-level credit to the rural economy.

 Additional Information

• National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog:
• Established on January 1, 2015, it replaced the 65-year-old Planning Commission.
• It serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs while fostering cooperative federalism.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• India's central bank, established on April 1, 1935, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
• It regulates the monetary policy, issues currency, and manages the foreign exchange reserves of the country.
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
• Established on April 2, 1990, as a statutory body under an Act of Parliament.
• Its primary mandate is the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.

The correct answer is Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Key Points

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the Brahmo Sabha in August 1828, which was later renamed the Brahmo Samaj.
• The Brahmo Samaj was one of the first influential socio-religious reform movements in India, aiming to purify Hinduism and promote monotheism based on the Upanishads.
• The movement strongly opposed social evils such as the caste system, dowry, polygamy, and sati, while advocating for women’s rights and education.
• Known as the Father of Indian Renaissance, Roy sought to blend Western modernism with Indian spiritual traditions to create a rational and ethical society.

 Additional Information

• Syed Ahmed Khan:
• He was a prominent Islamic reformist who founded the Aligarh Movement to modernize Muslim education.
• In 1875, he established the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, which eventually evolved into the Aligarh Muslim University.
• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar:
• A major figure of the Bengal Renaissance, he was a Sanskrit scholar who tirelessly campaigned for widow remarriage.
• His efforts led to the enactment of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act in 1856.
• Swami Vivekananda:
• A chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahansa, he founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to promote social service and Vedantic philosophy.
• He is globally recognized for his speech at the 1893 Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago.

The correct answer is Time Deposits with Post Offices.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) utilizes four primary measures of money supply, known as Monetary Aggregates: M1, M2, M3, and M4. These are categorized based on their degree of liquidity and the nature of the deposits.
• M1 is known as Narrow Money because it includes the most liquid forms of money that can be used immediately for transactions. The formula for M1 is: M1 = Currency with the public (C) + Demand Deposits (DD) + Other Deposits (OD) with RBI.
• Currency with the public consists of all circulating paper notes and coins, excluding the cash held by commercial banks as reserves.
• Demand Deposits are funds held in Current Accounts and Savings Accounts with commercial banks. These are called demand deposits because the bank must pay the amount whenever the depositor demands it (e.g., via cheque, ATM, or transfer).
• Other Deposits (OD) with RBI include demand deposits from Public Financial Institutions (like IDBI or NABARD), foreign central banks, and International Financial Institutions like the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Time Deposits (also known as Term Deposits) are not included in M1 because they have a fixed maturity period and cannot be withdrawn immediately on demand without penalties. Time Deposits with Post Offices are specifically excluded from M1 and are instead part of M4, which is a broader and less liquid measure of money supply.

 Additional Information

• The other monetary aggregates in India are defined as follows:
• M2: This includes M1 plus Savings Deposits with Post Office Savings Banks.
• M3 (Broad Money): This is the most widely used measure for monetary analysis. It includes M1 plus Net Time Deposits with the entire commercial banking system.
• M4: This represents the total money supply and is calculated as M3 plus Total Deposits with Post Office Savings Organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates or NSC).
• Liquidity Gradient: M1 is the most liquid measure, while M4 is the least liquid. As we move from M1 to M4, the ease of converting assets into cash for immediate spending decreases.
• Monetary Policy Impact: The RBI monitors these aggregates to control inflation and manage economic growth. For instance, an increase in M3 usually indicates higher liquidity in the economy, which might lead to inflationary pressures if not regulated through tools like the Repo Rate or Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).

The correct answer is Nayi Chetna 4.0.

Key Points

• Nayi Chetna 4.0 is the fourth edition of the annual national campaign launched in November 2025 to address gender-based violence (GBV) and promote gender equality across India.
• The campaign is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), implemented under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).
• It is designed as a Jan Andolan (people's movement) that mobilizes Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and their federations to create awareness about women's rights and provide support to survivors of violence.
• The 2025 iteration focuses on strengthening institutional mechanisms such as Gender Resource Centres (GRCs) and Internal Complaints Committees (ICC) to ensure better access to justice in rural areas.
• The movement aims to break the silence surrounding domestic abuse and social discrimination by engaging men and boys as allies in the pursuit of women's empowerment.

 Additional Information

• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM):
• Launched in June 2011, it is one of the world's largest initiatives to improve the livelihoods of the rural poor.
• It organizes rural women into Self-Help Groups to provide them with financial services, skill training, and social security.
• Gender Resource Centres (GRCs):
• These are community-managed platforms established at the block level to provide legal aid, counseling, and rehabilitation services.
• They serve as a bridge between rural women and government schemes like One Stop Centres (OSCs) and the 181 Women Helpline.
• National Context:
• India's commitment to Sustainable Development Goal 5 (SDG 5), which aims to achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls, is a primary driver for these national campaigns.

The correct answer is B G Tilak.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) was divided into two groups: the Moderates and the Extremists, based on their methods and ideologies during the early phase of the freedom struggle.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak, commonly known as Lokmanya Tilak, was a prominent Extremist leader who rejected the Moderate policy of 'Prayers and Petitions' in favor of Swaraj (self-rule).
• Tilak, along with Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal, formed the famous Lal-Bal-Pal trio that advocated for radical methods like boycott, Swadeshi, and mass mobilization.
• He famously proclaimed, 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it', which marked a significant shift toward a more aggressive nationalist stance against British Rule.
• Unlike the Moderates who sought reforms within the British administrative framework, Tilak aimed for complete independence through national education and active resistance.

 Additional Information

• Moderate Leaders:
• Dadabhai Naoroji: Known as the Grand Old Man of India, he formulated the Drain of Wealth Theory and was the first Indian to be a member of the British Parliament.
• Pherozeshah Mehta: A leading Moderate known as the Lion of Bombay, he was a founding member of the INC and served as its President in the 1890 Calcutta Session.
• Badruddin Tyabji: He was a distinguished Moderate leader and the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress, presiding over the 1887 Madras Session.
• Distinction: While Moderates believed in constitutional agitation and loyalty to the British Crown, Extremists like Tilak used festivals like Ganpati and Shivaji Jayanti to instill nationalist pride among the masses.

The correct answer is Vijayveer Sidhu.

Key Points

• Indian marksman Vijayveer Sidhu clinched the gold medal in the Men’s 25m Rapid Fire Pistol event at the ISSF World Cup held in Buenos Aires, Argentina, in April 2025.
• He showcased remarkable precision and speed in the final round, outperforming top-tier international shooters to secure the top spot on the podium for India.
• The 25m Rapid Fire Pistol is a demanding discipline that requires shooters to hit five targets within short time intervals of 8, 6, and 4 seconds; Sidhu’s performance highlighted his mastery over this format.
• This victory serves as a major milestone in his career, following his previous successes in the Junior World Championships and his consistent performance in the Asian Shooting Championships.
• His achievement in Buenos Aires significantly boosts India’s standing in the ISSF global rankings and strengthens the nation’s medal prospects for upcoming international multi-sport events.

 Additional Information

• Anish Bhanwala:
• A prominent specialist in the 25m Rapid Fire Pistol event.
• He made history by becoming the youngest Indian to win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games in 2018.
• Saurabh Chaudhary:
• A world-renowned shooter specializing in the 10m Air Pistol category.
• He has won gold medals at the Asian Games, Youth Olympic Games, and multiple ISSF World Cup editions.
• Arjun Singh Cheema:
• An expert in the 10m Air Pistol event.
• He was a key member of the Indian team that won the gold medal at the 2023 Hangzhou Asian Games.
• ISSF:
• The International Shooting Sport Federation is the governing body for Olympic shooting events in Rifle, Pistol, and Shotgun categories.
• It is responsible for organizing the World Cup series and the World Championships.

The correct answer is India’s first overseas defence manufacturing facility in Berrechid, Morocco.

Key Points

• In September 2025, Union Defence Minister Rajnath Singh reached a historic milestone by inaugurating India’s first overseas defence manufacturing facility located in Berrechid, Morocco.
• This facility is a joint venture led by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL), representing a strategic shift in India’s defence diplomacy and industrial expansion beyond domestic borders.
• The primary objective of this manufacturing unit is the production of Wheeled Armoured Platform (WhAP) vehicles, which are high-performance combat vehicles designed for modern warfare and internal security.
• The establishment of this plant in Morocco is intended to meet the requirements of the Royal Moroccan Armed Forces while positioning India as a key defence supplier to the African continent.
• This move aligns with the Make in India for the World initiative, showcasing the capacity of the Indian private sector to compete on a global scale in the aerospace and defence sectors.

 Additional Information

• Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL):
• It is the strategic aerospace and defence arm of the Tata Group, playing a pivotal role in manufacturing UAVs, missile systems, and armoured vehicles.
• The Morocco plant is significant as it represents the first time an Indian Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) has set up a full-scale assembly line abroad.
• Wheeled Armoured Platform (WhAP):
• Developed in collaboration with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), the WhAP is an 8×8 multi-role vehicle.
• It features amphibious capabilities, advanced ballistic protection, and modularity to carry various weapon systems, including anti-tank guided missiles.
• Geopolitical Impact:
• By choosing Morocco, India strengthens its strategic partnership in North Africa, offering a viable alternative to traditional European and American defence exports.
• This expansion supports India’s goal of reaching 5 billion USD in defence exports annually, fostering self-reliance (Atmanirbharta) through international market penetration.

The correct answer is Reduced private investment and lower employment.

Key Points

• Credit Rationing is a qualitative or selective credit control measure used by a Central Bank to regulate and limit the maximum amount of loans and advances that commercial banks can grant to specific sectors or the overall economy.
• When a Central Bank implements strict rationing, it imposes credit ceilings, which limits the supply of loanable funds available to private entrepreneurs and businesses for expansion and modernization.
• The restriction on the availability of credit leads to a direct decline in capital formation, as businesses cannot secure the necessary financing for new projects, resulting in reduced private investment.
• A contraction in private investment triggers a multiplier effect that slows down industrial production and economic growth; as production activities scale back, the demand for labor diminishes, ultimately leading to lower employment opportunities.

 Additional Information

• Macroeconomic Concepts Related to Credit Control:
• Aggregate Demand: Strict credit rationing is a contractionary monetary policy tool designed to reduce the total spending in an economy, which can help in controlling inflation but often at the cost of economic output.
• Money Supply: Unlike Expansionary Policy which increases the Money Supply to boost National Income, credit rationing seeks to curb the liquidity in the banking system to prevent over-investment or speculative bubbles.
• Consumer Disposable Income: While fiscal policy (like tax cuts) usually impacts disposable income directly, credit rationing indirectly affects it by slowing down wage growth and reducing the availability of consumer credit for big-ticket purchases.
• Tools of Monetary Policy: Central Banks use Quantitative Tools like the Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) alongside Qualitative Tools like Moral Suasion and Margin Requirements to manage economic stability.

The correct answer is United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF).

Key Points

• The PANCHAM (Panchayat Assistance and Messaging Chatbot) initiative was officially launched in January 2026 as a digital solution to empower Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) across India.
• The project was developed through a strategic collaboration between the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) to bridge the communication gap in rural governance.
• The chatbot utilizes Artificial Intelligence (AI) to provide real-time assistance, guidance on government schemes, and administrative support to local representatives.
• A primary objective of PANCHAM is to foster child-friendly governance by ensuring that health, education, and nutrition services are effectively monitored and delivered at the Gram Panchayat level.

 Additional Information

• United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF):
• Founded in 1946 and headquartered in New York, it focuses on the survival, protection, and development of children globally.
• In India, it works closely with the government to implement the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly those related to rural infrastructure and maternal health.
• Digital Transformation in Governance:
• The PANCHAM initiative aligns with the Digital India mission, promoting e-Governance to make rural administration more transparent and accountable.
• It serves as a decision-support system for Sarpanches and Panchayat Secretaries, simplifying complex legislative guidelines and funding procedures under the 15th Finance Commission.

The correct answer is The factor cost is equal to the market prices minus net indirect taxes.

Key Points

• Factor Cost (FC) represents the total cost of all factors of production used to produce a good or service, including payments for land (rent), labor (wages), capital (interest), and entrepreneurship (profit).
• Market Price (MP) is the actual price at which a commodity is sold to consumers in the market; it accounts for the cost of production plus any government interventions.
• The relationship between these two concepts is governed by fiscal tools: Indirect Taxes are added to the factor cost as they increase the selling price, while Subsidies are subtracted as they reduce the price for the consumer.
• Net Indirect Taxes (NIT) is mathematically defined as the difference between Indirect Taxes and Subsidies (NIT = Indirect Taxes − Subsidies).
• Therefore, the formula for GDP at Factor Cost is derived by subtracting Net Indirect Taxes from the GDP at Market Price (Factor Cost = Market Price − Net Indirect Taxes).

 Additional Information

• Indirect Taxes:
• These are taxes levied on goods and services rather than on income or profits, such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST), Excise Duty, and Service Tax.
• They increase the Market Price, making the product more expensive than its original Factor Cost.
• Subsidies:
• These are financial assistances or grants provided by the government to producers to encourage production or keep prices of essential commodities (like fertilizers or LPG) low.
• Subsidies have an inverse effect compared to taxes, effectively making the Market Price lower than the Factor Cost.
• GDP Calculation:
• In India, the Central Statistics Office (CSO) previously used GDP at factor cost as the primary measure, but shifted to Gross Value Added (GVA) at basic prices and GDP at Market Prices for headline growth figures since 2015.

The correct answer is 1925.

Key Points

• The Communist Party of India (CPI) was formally established on December 26, 1925, during the first All India Communist Conference held in Kanpur.
• Satyabhakta served as the convener of this historic conference, which aimed to organize various scattered communist groups into a singular national entity.
• S.V. Ghate was elected as the party's first General Secretary, providing a structured leadership to the burgeoning revolutionary movement in India.
• While the party was heavily influenced by the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917, the Kanpur session marked its official foundation on Indian soil, separate from external committees.
• The primary objective of the party during its inception was the complete overthrow of British Imperialism and the establishment of a socialist state for workers and peasants.

 Additional Information

• Early Foundations Abroad:
• An initial attempt to form the party took place in Tashkent (now in Uzbekistan) on October 17, 1920, following the Second Congress of the Comintern.
• Key founders during this phase included M.N. Roy, who is widely regarded as the father of Indian Communism, along with Abani Mukherji and Shaukat Usmani.
• State Suppression:
• The British colonial government viewed the party as a threat and initiated the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case (1924) to prosecute leaders like S.A. Dange and Muzaffar Ahmed.
• The Meerut Conspiracy Case (1929) later led to the imprisonment of 31 labor leaders, significantly impacting the party's growth during the late 1920s.
• Internal Evolution:
• In 1964, ideological differences regarding the Sino-Indian War and the international communist split led to a major division within the party.
• This resulted in the creation of the Communist Party of India (Marxist), or CPI(M), which emerged as a separate political entity from the original CPI.

The correct answer is Abolition of the tinkathia system.

Key Points

• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Civil Disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in India to protest against the injustice faced by farmers in the Champaran district of Bihar.
• Under the tinkathia system, peasants were legally bound to grow Indigo on 3/20th part of their total landholdings at prices fixed by the European planters.
• Following the non-violent protests, the government appointed the Champaran Agrarian Committee, of which Gandhi was a member, to investigate the grievances of the cultivators.
• The primary outcome was the enactment of the Champaran Agrarian Act in 1918, which resulted in the abolition of the tinkathia system and prohibited illegal exactions.
• As part of the settlement, the planters were required to refund 25% of the illegal dues they had collected from the impoverished peasants.

 Additional Information

• Background of the Crisis:
• The demand for natural indigo fell globally due to the development of synthetic dyes in Germany at the end of the 19th century.
• To compensate for their losses, European planters increased rents and illegal taxes, known as Sharahbeshi and Tawan, forcing peasants into deeper poverty.
• Key Personalities:
• Raj Kumar Shukla, a local farmer, was instrumental in bringing Mahatma Gandhi to Champaran after meeting him at the Lucknow Session of the Indian National Congress in 1916.
• Prominent leaders who supported Gandhi in this movement included Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha, Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadev Desai, and J.B. Kripalani.
• Historical Impact:
• This movement was the first successful application of Satyagraha on Indian soil, establishing Gandhi as a mass leader in the Indian Independence Movement.

The correct answer is Buddha's first sermon.

Key Points

• The Dhamek Stupa is a massive stone and brick structure located at Sarnath, which is situated 13 kilometers away from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh.
• It is built on the exact spot where Gautama Buddha is believed to have delivered his first sermon to his first five disciples after attaining enlightenment.
• This pivotal event in Buddhism is known as the Dharmachakra Pravartana or the 'Setting the Wheel of Dharma in Motion'.
• The stupa was originally commissioned by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka in 249 BCE to replace an earlier structure, and it was later significantly rebuilt and expanded during the Gupta period in the 6th century CE.
• The structure is cylindrical in shape, standing at a height of approximately 43.6 meters with a diameter of 28 meters, making it one of the most prominent landmarks of the Buddhist circuit.

 Additional Information

• Significant Buddhist Sites:
• Lumbini: Located in modern-day Nepal, this site is internationally recognized as the birthplace of Siddhartha Gautama (Buddha).
• Bodh Gaya: Situated in Bihar, this is the location of the Mahabodhi Temple, where Buddha attained Enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.
• Kushinagar: Located in Uttar Pradesh, it is the site where Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana (his death and final release from the cycle of rebirth).
• Architectural Features:
• The lower part of the Dhamek Stupa is encased in beautifully carved stones featuring Gupta-era floral designs, human figures, and geometric patterns.
• The wall is covered with exquisitely carved figures of Brahmi script and delicate carvings that represent the high point of Gupta art.
• Archaeological excavations have revealed that the site was also a major center for the Sammatiya school of Buddhism.

The correct answer is State Public Service Commission.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 was enacted to grant constitutional status and protection to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) by inserting Part IX and the 11th Schedule into the Constitution.
• The Gram Sabha is mandated under Article 243A as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all registered voters in the area of a village panchayat.
• Under Article 243I, the Governor of a state is required to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes.
• Article 243K provides for the constitution of a State Election Commission, which is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats.
• The State Public Service Commission (SPSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 315 (within Part XIV) of the original Constitution of India, and its formation was not a result of or mandated by the 73rd Amendment Act.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework for Civil Services:
• Article 315 to 323: These articles detail the composition, appointment, and functions of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the State Public Service Commissions (SPSC).
• The Governor of the state appoints the Chairman and members of the SPSC, but they can only be removed by the President of India.
• Evolution of Panchayati Raj:
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): Recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system comprising Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
• Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj, inaugurated in Nagaur district on October 2, 1959.
• The 73rd Amendment effectively institutionalized the dream of Gram Swaraj envisioned by Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is 73rd Amendment.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, formalized the Panchayati Raj System in India, giving it constitutional status and making it the third tier of governance.
• Under Article 243D, the Act mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in every Panchayat based on their population proportion in the area.
• The Act provides for the mandatory reservation of not less than one-third (33%) of the total number of seats for women, including those reserved for SC and ST women.
• This amendment added Part IX to the Constitution of India and the 11th Schedule, which contains 29 functional items related to rural development and local self-government.
• The reservation also extends to the offices of Chairpersons in the Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels for SCs, STs, and women.

 Additional Information

• 74th Amendment Act, 1992:
• This Act provided constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies or Municipalities.
• It added Part IXA and the 12th Schedule to the Constitution, covering 18 functional items.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976:
• Often referred to as the Mini-Constitution due to the vast changes it introduced during the Emergency.
• It added the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble and introduced Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
• 44th Amendment Act, 1978:
• Enacted to nullify several provisions of the 42nd Amendment and strengthen democratic safeguards.
• It replaced the term 'internal disturbance' with armed rebellion for National Emergency and changed the Right to Property from a Fundamental Right to a Legal Right.

The correct answer is Protection of Civil Rights Act.

Key Points

• The Untouchability (Offences) Act was originally enacted by the Parliament of India in 1955 to implement the constitutional mandate of Article 17, which abolished untouchability.
• To address loopholes in the original legislation, the government appointed the L. Elayaperumal Committee in 1965 to review the Act and suggest more stringent measures.
• Based on the committee’s recommendations, the Act was comprehensively amended in 1976 and was renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
• This legislation ensures that any person who prevents another from exercising a civil right (rights resulting from the abolition of untouchability) is liable for punishment.
• The offenses under this Act are categorized as cognizable, meaning the police can arrest without a warrant, and non-compoundable, meaning they cannot be settled through a compromise between parties.

 Additional Information

• Article 17 of the Constitution:
• It is a Fundamental Right under Part III that strictly prohibits the practice of untouchability in any form.
• It is one of the few rights that is absolute and available against private individuals, not just the State.
• Scope of the Act:
• The Act penalizes the denial of access to public worship places, hotels, shops, and educational institutions.
• It also prohibits the refusal of service in hospitals or the denial of use of water sources, cremation grounds, or public transport.
• Related Legislation:
• The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provides a more robust legal framework to handle violent crimes and social boycotts against these specific communities.
• While the Protection of Civil Rights Act focuses on untouchability-related disabilities, the 1989 Act addresses wider patterns of atrocities and humiliation.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• Sarhul is the most popular tribal festival celebrated in the state of Jharkhand, marking the beginning of the tribal New Year.
• The festival is primarily observed by various tribal communities including the Oraon, Munda, and Ho tribes during the spring season in the month of Chaitra (March-April).
• It is a nature-worshipping festival where the Sal tree (Shorea robusta) plays a central role, as it is believed to be the abode of the goddess Sarna Devi.
• The village priest, known as the Pahan, performs the rituals and distributes Sal flowers to every household as a symbol of friendship and prosperity.
• The celebration involves traditional music played on instruments like the Mandhar, Nagada, and Dhol, accompanied by folk dances such as the Jadur dance.

 Additional Information

• Assam:
• Known for the Bihu festivals, specifically Rongali Bihu, which marks the Assamese New Year and the onset of spring.
• Other significant festivals include Ambubachi Mela at the Kamakhya Temple and the Majuli Festival.
• Maharashtra:
• Celebrates Gudi Padwa as the Marathi New Year, typically occurring in the month of Chaitra.
• The state is globally famous for the grand celebration of Ganesh Chaturthi.
• Punjab:
• Famous for Baisakhi, a harvest festival that also commemorates the formation of the Khalsa Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
• Other notable festivals include Lohri and Hola Mohalla.

The correct answer is Leaves.

Key Points

• Leaves are scientifically termed the food factories or kitchens of the plant because they are the primary site for photosynthesis, the process by which light energy is converted into chemical energy.
• The presence of a green pigment called chlorophyll allows leaves to capture solar energy, which is then utilized to synthesize glucose from inorganic raw materials like carbon dioxide and water.
• Structurally, leaves contain specialized cells known as mesophyll cells, which are packed with chloroplasts; these organelles are the actual functional units where the synthesis of organic food occurs.
• To facilitate this process, leaves possess microscopic openings called stomata, which regulate the intake of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and the release of oxygen, a vital byproduct of the reaction.
• Once produced, the glucose is either utilized immediately for the plant’s metabolic activities or converted into starch for long-term storage, providing the foundational energy source for the entire terrestrial food chain.

 Additional Information

• Roots:
• Serve as the anchorage system for the plant, securing it firmly in the substrate.
• They are responsible for the absorption of water and dissolved minerals (such as nitrates and phosphates) from the soil through osmosis and active transport.
• Stems:
• Function as the main conduction pathway, housing the vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) that transports water upward and nutrients downward.
• Provide structural support to hold the leaves toward the sunlight and display the flowers for pollination.
• Flowers:
• Represent the reproductive system of the plant, containing organs like the stamen (male) and pistil (female).
• Their primary role is to facilitate pollination and fertilization, leading to the production of seeds and fruits for species propagation.

The correct answer is Amicus Curiae.

Key Points

• The term Amicus Curiae is a Latin phrase meaning 'friend of the court', referring to a person who assists the court by furnishing information or advice regarding questions of law or fact.
• In the Indian Judicial System, if an accused person is unrepresented because they are unable to engage a lawyer, the court has the inherent power to appoint an Amicus Curiae to argue the case and ensure justice.
• The appointment of an Amicus Curiae is deeply linked to Article 21 of the Constitution of India, which guarantees the right to a fair trial and legal aid to individuals who cannot afford it.
• Unlike a regular lawyer, an Amicus Curiae does not represent a specific party but acts as an impartial advisor to help the bench reach a legally sound decision, especially in cases involving public interest or complex constitutional issues.
• The Supreme Court of India and various High Courts frequently appoint senior advocates as Amicus Curiae in Suo Motu cases or matters of significant legal complexity.

 Additional Information

• Advocate General:
• The highest law officer of a State in India, appointed by the Governor under Article 165.
• Provides legal advice to the State Government and performs duties assigned by the Governor.
• Public Prosecutor:
• Appointed under Section 24 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), now replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).
• Acts as a representative of the State to conduct prosecutions on behalf of the public in criminal trials.
• Solicitor General:
• The second-highest law officer in India, subordinate to the Attorney General for India.
• Appointed to assist the Attorney General in representing the Union Government in various legal proceedings.

The correct answer is Male cones.

Key Points

• Gymnosperms are a group of seed-producing plants where the ovules are not enclosed within an ovary, resulting in naked seeds.
• The reproductive organs of these plants are typically arranged in structures called strobili or cones.
• Male cones, technically referred to as microsporangiate strobili, are the structures specifically responsible for the production of pollen grains.
• These cones consist of a central axis surrounded by spirally arranged microsporophylls, which bear microsporangia on their underside.
• Within the microsporangia, microspore mother cells undergo meiosis to produce haploid microspores, which then develop into highly reduced male gametophytes known as pollen grains.
• The release of these pollen grains is essential for anemophily (wind pollination), as they must travel through the air to reach the female reproductive structures.

 Additional Information

• Female cones:
• Also known as megasporangiate strobili or ovulate cones.
• They bear megasporophylls with ovules containing the megasporangium (nucellus).
• After fertilization by the sperm from the pollen grain, the ovules develop into seeds.
• Leaves:
• In gymnosperms like Pinus, leaves are often needle-like to minimize surface area and reduce water loss.
• They possess a thick cuticle and sunken stomata, which are xerophytic adaptations.
• Stems:
• The stems can be unbranched (as seen in Cycas) or branched (as seen in Pinus and Cedrus).
• They provide the primary vascular transport and physical support for the plant body.

The correct answer is Teak.

Key Points

• Moist Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forest type in India, typically found in regions with an annual rainfall ranging between 100 cm and 200 cm.
• Teak (Tectona grandis) is the most dominant and economically significant tree species found in these forests, often comprising a large percentage of the total timber volume.
• These forests are predominantly located in the northeastern states, along the foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand, West Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
• Trees in this ecosystem are characterized by shedding their leaves during the dry spring and summer seasons for approximately six to eight weeks to minimize water loss through transpiration.
• Apart from Teak, other commercially important species in this category include Sal, Shisham, Hurra, Mahua, Amla, Semul, and Sandalwood.

 Additional Information

• Sundari:
• Belongs to the Mangrove or Tidal forests, found extensively in the Ganges-Brahmaputra delta (Sundarbans).
• Known for providing hard, durable timber used for boat building and construction in coastal areas.
• Rosewood:
• A characteristic species of Tropical Evergreen Forests, which thrive in regions with rainfall exceeding 200 cm.
• Commonly found in the Western Ghats, Upper Assam, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Pine:
• Found in Montane Forests at higher elevations, specifically in the Himalayan range between altitudes of 1500 and 2500 meters.
• Classified as a coniferous tree, widely used for timber and resin extraction.

The correct answer is Article 19 (1) (a).

Key Points

• Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution of India guarantees all citizens the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression, enabling individuals to participate in the democratic process by voicing their opinions.
• The scope of this article includes the right to express views through various mediums such as writing, printing, digital platforms, or visual representations like signs and symbols.
• The Supreme Court has interpreted this article to include the freedom of the press, the right to hold a telecast, and the right to know about government activities.
• This right is not absolute and can be restricted under Article 19 (2) on grounds like the sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, and public order.
• It is categorized under Part III of the Constitution, which contains the Fundamental Rights that are justiciable in a court of law.

 Additional Information

• Article 15 (6) (a):
• Inserted via the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
• Empowers the State to make special provisions for the advancement of Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens.
• Article 22:
• Provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention.
• Ensures that a person arrested must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest.
• Article 23:
• Forms part of the Right against Exploitation.
• Prohibits trafficking in human beings and begar (forced labor) in any form.

The correct answer is 74%.

Key Points

• As per the latest data from the Ministry of Coal, the coal sector continues to be the primary driver of India's energy security, contributing approximately 74% of the total power generation in the country as of April 2025.
• Despite the rapid expansion of renewable energy capacity, coal remains the most reliable source for base-load power, ensuring grid stability across various states and industrial hubs.
• The Coal Ministry report highlights that domestic coal production has seen a year-on-year growth to meet the increasing demand from thermal power plants, which rely on coal to generate the bulk of India's electricity.
• The statistical data indicates that the strategic shift toward mechanized mining and improved evacuation infrastructure has helped maintain this high percentage of contribution to the national grid.

 Additional Information

• Coal India Limited (CIL):
• As a Maharatna public sector undertaking, it is the largest coal producer in the world, contributing significantly to the Ministry of Coal targets.
• It plays a vital role in the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by reducing the dependence on imported coal for power generation.
• Energy Transition and Net Zero:
• While coal dominates the current mix, India has committed to a Net Zero emission target by 2070.
• The Panchamrit goals focus on reaching 500 GW of non-fossil energy capacity by 2030 to balance the ecological footprint of coal usage.
• Thermal Power Plants (TPPs):
• Most of India's installed capacity is concentrated in thermal power, which utilizes various grades of coal, predominantly non-coking coal.

The correct answer is Honey at the bottom, water in the middle, vegetable oil on top.

Key Points

• Density is a physical property defined as the mass of a substance per unit volume. In a mixture of immiscible liquids, the substance with the highest density will settle at the bottom, while the substance with the lowest density will float at the top.
• Honey possesses the highest density among the three substances, typically ranging around 1.42 g/cm³. Due to this high mass-to-volume ratio, it sinks to the bottommost layer of the jar.
• Water has a standard density of 1.00 g/cm³ at room temperature. Since this value is lower than that of honey but higher than that of vegetable oil, water occupies the middle layer.
• Vegetable oil is the least dense substance in this group, with a density approximately between 0.91 and 0.93 g/cm³. Because it is lighter than water, it floats on the top surface.

 Additional Information

• The distinct layering is maintained not only by density but also by chemical polarity and viscosity:
• Immiscibility: Vegetable oil is non-polar and hydrophobic, meaning it does not dissolve in water, which is a polar solvent. This prevents the two from mixing into a solution.
• Viscosity: Honey has a high viscosity, meaning it resists flow. While honey can dissolve in water, its high density causes it to drop to the bottom immediately before significant diffusion occurs.
• Specific Gravity: This is a dimensionless quantity representing the ratio of a material's density to the density of water. Honey has a specific gravity greater than 1, whereas vegetable oil has a specific gravity less than 1.
• Buoyancy: According to Archimedes' Principle, the upward buoyant force exerted on the oil by the water is equal to the weight of the water displaced, allowing the lighter oil to remain buoyant.

The correct answer is Yoga.

Key Points

• The Yoga school is one of the six classical (Astika) schools of Indian philosophy and was systematically presented by Maharishi Patanjali in his seminal work, the Yoga Sutras, composed around the 2nd century BCE.
• The term 'Yoga' is derived from the Sanskrit root 'Yuj', meaning to join or unite, symbolizing the union of the individual soul (Atman) with the universal soul (Brahman).
• Unlike its closely related counterpart Samkhya, which is predominantly theoretical, the Yoga school provides a practical path to Moksha (liberation) through physical discipline and mental focus, often described as Seshvara Samkhya because it introduces the concept of Ishvara (a personal God) as a guide.
• The core of the practice is the Ashtanga Yoga (Eight-fold Path), which includes Yama (moral restraints), Niyama (self-discipline), Asana (postures), Pranayama (breath control), Pratyahara (sensory withdrawal), Dharana (concentration), Dhyana (meditation), and Samadhi (super-conscious state/liberation).
• The ultimate goal is Chitta Vritti Nirodha, which refers to the cessation of the fluctuations of the mind to achieve a state of pure consciousness and Kaivalya (isolation of the self from matter).

 Additional Information

• Vaisheshika
• Founded by Maharishi Kanada (also known as Uluka).
• It is famous for its Atomic Theory (Paramanu), suggesting that the physical universe is composed of indivisible atoms.
• It categorizes all objects of experience into six padarthas (substances).
• Samkhya
• Considered the oldest orthodox school, founded by Sage Kapila.
• It is a strongly dualistic philosophy that recognizes two eternal realities: Purusha (consciousness) and Prakriti (primordial matter).
• It does not explicitly rely on the existence of a creator God.
• Vedanta
• Also known as Uttara Mimamsa, it focuses on the philosophical teachings of the Upanishads.
• The foundational text is the Brahma Sutra written by Badarayana.
• It branched into various sub-schools like Advaita (Non-dualism) by Adi Shankara and Vishishtadvaita (Qualified Non-dualism) by Ramanuja.

The correct answer is Ministry of Culture.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Culture is the nodal Union Ministry responsible for the preservation, promotion, and dissemination of Indian art and culture, including the formal recognition of Classical Languages.
• The process of granting Classical Language status involves a set of specific criteria framed by the Ministry, which primarily focuses on the antiquity and literary heritage of the language.
• The Linguistic Experts Committee, functioning under the Sahitya Akademi (an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture), evaluates proposals based on these benchmarks before making recommendations to the government.
• Key criteria for this status include a high antiquity of early texts or recorded history spanning 1500 to 2000 years, a body of ancient literature considered a valuable heritage by generations, and an original literary tradition not borrowed from another speech community.
• Once the criteria are met and the Ministry of Culture processes the proposal, the final approval is granted by the Union Cabinet.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Classical Languages:
• Tamil was the first language to be accorded the status in 2004, followed by Sanskrit in 2005.
• Other recognized languages include Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
• In October 2024, the Union Cabinet expanded this list by approving five additional languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali.
• Benefits of this status include the creation of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in that language and the institution of two major international awards for eminent scholars.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) also provides funding for Professional Chairs in Central Universities to promote the study and research of these ancient tongues.

The correct answer is It was a solid hemispherical structure built to enshrine relics and symbolise the cosmos.

Key Points

• The Stupa originated as a pre-Buddhist tumulus or burial mound, which later evolved into a monumental structure representing the Mahaparinirvana (final enlightenment) of the Buddha.
• Architecturally, it features a solid hemispherical dome known as the Anda, which is meant to represent the cosmic mountain and the dome of heaven.
• The primary function of the Sanchi Stupa was to act as a reliquary, enshrining the physical remains (Sharirika) or objects used by the Buddha and his prominent disciples to facilitate meditation and veneration.
• The central pillar or Yashti, which rises from the top of the dome, signifies the Axis Mundi, the pivot of the universe that connects the earthly and celestial realms.
• The practice of Pradakshina (circumambulation) around the stupa in a clockwise direction symbolizes the movement of the sun and the path of the Dhamma.

 Additional Information

• Structural Components of Sanchi Stupa:
• Harmika: A square railing at the summit that represents the dwelling of the gods or a sacred enclosure.
• Chhatra: A triple umbrella structure atop the Yashti representing the three jewels of Buddhism: the Buddha, the Dharma (teachings), and the Sangha (community).
• Toranas: Four ceremonial gateways facing cardinal directions, added during the Satavahana period, intricately carved with Jataka tales and depictions of the Wheel of Law.
• Viharas vs. Stupas:
• Option (1) refers to Viharas, which were residential quarters for monks, featuring a central courtyard surrounded by small cells.
• Chaityas:
• Option (4) describes Chaitya-grihas, which were congregational prayer halls typically containing a small stupa as an object of focus for worship, such as those found at Karle or Ajanta.
• Historical Context:
• The original brick structure of the Great Stupa at Sanchi was commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE and was later encased in stone and expanded during the Shunga and Andhra dynasties.

The correct answer is 17.64%.

Key Points

• The Census of India 2011 was the 15th National Census of the country since 1872 and the 7th after Independence.
• According to the final data, the decadal population growth rate of India during the period 2001-2011 was 17.64%.
• This represented a notable decline from the 21.54% growth rate recorded during the previous decade of 1991-2001.
• The total population of India as of March 31, 2011, was 1,210.6 million (1.21 billion), comprising 623.1 million males and 587.5 million females.
• The absolute increase in the Indian population during the 2001-2011 period was approximately 181.96 million.
• Among the states, Meghalaya registered the highest decadal growth rate at 27.9%, while Nagaland was the only state to show a negative growth rate of -0.6%.
• Among Union Territories, Dadra and Nagar Haveli recorded the highest decadal growth at 55.9%.

 Additional Information

• Vital Statistics of Census 2011:
• Literacy Rate: The national literacy rate was recorded at 74.04%, with 82.14% for males and 65.46% for females.
• Population Density: The density of population in India increased from 324 in 2001 to 382 persons per square kilometer in 2011.
• Sex Ratio: The overall sex ratio improved from 933 in 2001 to 943 females per 1000 males in 2011.
• Child Sex Ratio: The sex ratio for the 0-6 age group witnessed a decline, dropping to 919 from the 927 recorded in 2001.
• Most Populous State: Uttar Pradesh held the position of the most populous state, accounting for about 16.5% of the total population.
• Least Populous State: Sikkim remained the state with the lowest population in India.

The correct answer is Oxidation of carbohydrates to release energy.

Key Points

• The initial stage of photosynthesis involves the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll pigments located in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Once solar energy is captured, the conversion of light energy into chemical energy occurs, which facilitates the splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen, a process known as photolysis. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In the subsequent light-independent phase, the reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates (glucose) takes place using the chemical energy stored in ATP and NADPH during the Calvin cycle. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The oxidation of carbohydrates to release energy is the primary characteristic of cellular respiration, which occurs in the mitochondria of cells to generate ATP for metabolic activities. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Photosynthesis Mechanism:
• It is an anabolic process where plants synthesize glucose from inorganic substances. The balanced chemical equation is: 6CO₂ + 12H₂O + Light → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ + 6H₂O.
• The process occurs mainly in the palisade and spongy mesophyll layers of leaves.
• Chloroplast Structure:
• Grana: Stacked thylakoids where the Light Reaction occurs to produce oxygen and energy carriers.
• Stroma: The fluid-filled matrix where the Dark Reaction (reduction of CO₂) takes place.
• Stomata: Specialized guard cells that regulate gaseous exchange and transpiration.