Previous Year Paper

DSSSB Court Attendant Official Paper (Held On 06 Jun, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2026

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Hindi 1 (15 questions)

Question 1

नीचे दिए गए वाक्य को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और रिक्त स्थान को उचित क्रिया से पूरा कीजिए-
किसी के स्नेह का मूल्य ________ नहीं जा सकता।

  1. AOption (a)

    तौला

  2. BOption (b)

    आँका

  3. COption (c)

    नापा

  4. DOption (d)

    मापा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

आँका

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - आँका

Key Points

  • किसी के स्नेह का मूल्य आँका नहीं जा सकता।
  • वाक्य में 'आँका' के प्रयोग से स्नेह जैसी अमूर्त भावना के महत्व के आकलन का बोध होता है तथा वाक्य का सार्थक एवं प्रसंगानुकूल अर्थ प्रकट होता है।
  • 'आँका' का अर्थ - किसी वस्तु या भाव के महत्व, मूल्य या गुण का अनुमान करना; जैसे- उसकी मेहनत का मूल्य पैसों से नहीं आँका जा सकता।

Additional Informationतौला-

  • अर्थ: तराजू की सहायता से किसी वस्तु के वजन या भार का निर्धारण करना।
  • जैसे - दुकानदार ने चीनी को कांटे पर तौला।

नापा-

  • अर्थ: लंबाई, चौड़ाई या विस्तार का पैमाना लेकर माप लेना।
  • जैसे - दर्जी ने कमीज के लिए मेरा सीना नापा।

मापा-

  • अर्थ: किसी वस्तु के परिमाण, आयतन या मात्रा का निश्चित इकाइयों में मापन करना।
  • जैसे - दूधवाले ने एक लीटर के बर्तन से दूध मापा।

Question 2

नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से कारक के उपयुक्त परसर्ग चिह्न चुनकर वाक्य पूर्ण कीजिए।
"यह उपहार मेरी बहन ____ है।"

  1. AOption (a)

    में

  2. BOption (b)

    को

  3. COption (c)

    के लिए

  4. DOption (d)

    की

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

के लिए

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- के लिए

Key Points

  • दिए गए वाक्य "यह उपहार मेरी बहन के लिए है" में रिक्त स्थान पर 'के लिए' परसर्ग का प्रयोग सबसे उपयुक्त है।
  • यहाँ क्रिया किसी के हित में या किसी के उद्देश्य से की जा रही है, अतः यहाँ संप्रदान कारक का प्रयोग होगा। संप्रदान कारक का विभक्ति चिह्न 'के लिए' होता है।
  • उदाहरण 1: राजा ने गरीबों के लिए दान दिया।
  • उदाहरण 2: माँ बच्चों के लिए खाना बना रही है।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्पविग्रह/अर्थभेद/प्रकार
मेंआधार का बोध कराने वाला अधिकरण कारक।अधिकरण कारक
कोजिस पर क्रिया का प्रभाव पड़े (कर्म)।कर्म कारक
कीदो शब्दों के बीच संबंध दर्शाने के लिए।संबंध कारक

Important Points 
 कारक के भेद-

  1. कर्ता (ने)
  2. कर्म (को)
  3. करण (से/के द्वारा)
  4. संप्रदान (को/के लिए)
  5. अपादान (से - अलग होने के अर्थ में)
  6. संबंध (का/की/के)
  7. अधिकरण (में/पर)
  8. संबोधन (हे/अरे)

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेदपरिभाषाउदाहरण
संप्रदान कारकजिसके लिए कार्य किया जाए या जिसे कुछ दिया जाए, उसे संप्रदान कारक कहते हैं।राम ने श्याम को पुस्तक दी। स्वास्थ्य के लिए सूर्य नमस्कार करें।

Question 3

सही वाक्य-क्रम वाले वाक्य का चयन कीजिए-

  1. AOption (a)

    महात्मा गाँधीजी / ने देश की / पराधीनता की / बेड़ियाँ काटीं / और उसकी / प्रतिष्ठा को / संसार में / ऊँचा किया

  2. BOption (b)

    महात्मा गाँधीजी / ने देश की / बेड़ियाँ काटीं / और उसकी / प्रतिष्ठा को / पराधीनता की / संसार में / ऊँचा किया

  3. COption (c)

    और उसकी / प्रतिष्ठा को / संसार में / ऊँचा किया / महात्मा गाँधीजी / ने देश की / पराधीनता की / बेड़ियाँ काटीं

  4. DOption (d)

    पराधीनता की / महात्मा गाँधीजी / ने देश की / बेड़ियाँ काटीं / और उसकी / प्रतिष्ठा को / संसार में / ऊँचा किया

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

महात्मा गाँधीजी / ने देश की / पराधीनता की / बेड़ियाँ काटीं / और उसकी / प्रतिष्ठा को / संसार में / ऊँचा किया

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- महात्मा गाँधीजी / ने देश की / पराधीनता की / बेड़ियाँ काटीं / और उसकी / प्रतिष्ठा को / संसार में / ऊँचा किया

Key Points

  • विकल्प 1 में दिया गया वाक्य विन्यास व्याकरणिक दृष्टि से पूर्णतः शुद्ध है। इसमें कर्ता, कर्म और क्रिया का क्रम सही स्थान पर है।
  • वाक्य में पदक्रम का अर्थ है शब्दों को उनके अर्थ और व्याकरण के अनुसार सही स्थान पर रखना। शुद्ध वाक्य में सबसे पहले कर्ता, फिर कर्म और अंत में क्रिया आती है।
  • इस वाक्य में 'महात्मा गाँधीजी' कर्ता हैं, 'पराधीनता की बेड़ियाँ काटीं' प्रथम उद्देश्य और 'प्रतिष्ठा को ऊँचा किया' द्वितीय उद्देश्य है, जो 'और' संयोजक द्वारा जुड़े हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

विकल्पत्रुटि का कारणप्रकार
विकल्प 2'पराधीनता की' शब्द का प्रयोग गलत स्थान पर होने से अर्थ अस्पष्ट है।पदक्रम दोष
विकल्प 3वाक्य का प्रारंभ 'और उसकी' (संयोजक) से हो रहा है, जो अनुचित है।पदक्रम दोष
विकल्प 4'पराधीनता की' से वाक्य शुरू होना व्याकरण के अनुसार अशुद्ध है।पदक्रम दोष

Important Points 
 वाक्य शुद्धि के मुख्य नियम-

  1. पदक्रम: वाक्य में कर्ता, कर्म, पूरक, क्रिया विशेषण और क्रिया का निश्चित क्रम होना चाहिए।
  2. अन्वय: कर्ता और क्रिया के बीच लिंग, वचन और पुरुष का सही मेल होना अनिवार्य है।
  3. पुनरुक्ति: एक ही अर्थ वाले दो शब्दों का प्रयोग एक साथ नहीं करना चाहिए।

Additional Information

संरचनाविवरणउदाहरण
संयुक्त वाक्यजब दो या दो से अधिक स्वतंत्र उपवाक्य किसी योजक (और, या, किन्तु) से जुड़े हों।वह आया और चला गया।

Question 4

अपनी हत्या करने वाला' वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है-

  1. AOption (a)

    अभेद्य

  2. BOption (b)

    आत्मघाती

  3. COption (c)

    अविनाशी

  4. DOption (d)

    असम

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

आत्मघाती

Why this answer is correct

‘अपनी हत्या करने वाला’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - आत्मघाती।

Key Points

  • प्रस्तुत वाक्यांश ‘अपनी हत्या करने वाला’ के लिए सही शब्द आत्मघाती है।
  • आत्मघाती का अर्थ है—स्वयं को नष्ट करने वाला या स्वयं को हानि पहुँचाने वाला।
  • अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक सार्थक शब्द का प्रयोग भाषा को संक्षिप्त, प्रभावी और गंभीर बनाता है।
  • यह शब्द ‘आत्म’ (स्वयं) और ‘घाती’ (वध करने वाला) के मेल से बना है।

अन्य विकल्प-

वाक्यांशशब्द
जिसे भेदा न जा सकेअभेद्य
जिसका कभी विनाश न होअविनाशी
जो समान न होअसम

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांशएक शब्द
जो कानून के विरुद्ध होअवैध
जिसके पास कुछ न होअकिंचन
जो कम बोलता होमितभाषी
जिसका कोई शत्रु न जन्मा होअजातशत्रु
उपकार को मानने वालाकृतज्ञ
जो सब कुछ जानता होसर्वज्ञ
आकाश में विचरण करने वालानभचर
जो परिचित न होअपरिचित

Question 5

'अपनी गरज बावली' लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ होगा -

  1. AOption (a)

    स्वार्थी आदमी दूसरों की चिंता नहीं करता

  2. BOption (b)

    अपनी परिस्थिति से संतुष्ट होना

  3. COption (c)

    अपने घर में सबका ज़ोर होता है

  4. DOption (d)

    पूर्ण स्वतंत्र होना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

स्वार्थी आदमी दूसरों की चिंता नहीं करता

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - स्वार्थी आदमी दूसरों की चिंता नहीं करता

Key Points

  • 'अपनी गरज बावली' का अर्थ - स्वार्थी आदमी दूसरों की चिंता नहीं करता।
  • प्रयोग - मोहन को सिर्फ अपना काम निकलवाना आता है, उसे किसी की परेशानी से कोई मतलब नहीं, सच ही कहा है - अपनी गरज बावली।
  • लोकोक्ति - लोक-अनुभव, शिक्षा या सत्य को व्यक्त करने वाली प्रचलित पूर्ण उक्ति को लोकोक्ति कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण - 'अकेला चना भाड़ नहीं फोड़ता' का भावार्थ - अकेला व्यक्ति बड़ा काम नहीं कर सकता। प्रयोग - किसी भी बड़े सामाजिक सुधार के लिए जनसमर्थन चाहिए क्योंकि अकेला चना भाड़ नहीं फोड़ता।

अन्य विकल्प-

लोकोक्ति/मुहावराअर्थप्रयोग
अपनी गली में कुत्ता भी शेर होता हैअपने घर में सबका ज़ोर होता हैतुम यहाँ अकड़ रहे हो पर बाहर निकलकर देखो।
अपनी खाल में मस्त रहनाअपनी परिस्थिति से संतुष्ट होनागरीब होने पर भी वह अपनी खाल में मस्त है।
आकाश का पंछी होनापूर्ण स्वतंत्र होनावह नौकरी छोड़कर अब आकाश का पंछी बन गया है।

Additional Information

मुहावरा/लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
आ बैल मुझे मारस्वयं विपत्ति मोल लेनाअपराधी से उलझना आ बैल मुझे मार जैसा है।
अधजल गगरी छलकत जाएकम ज्ञान वाला अधिक दिखावा करता ह���थोड़ा सा सीखते ही वह सबको सिखाने लगा।
अपना सा मुँह लेकर रह जानालज्जित होनाचोरी पकड़ी जाने पर वह अपना सा मुँह लेकर रह गया।
ईंट से ईंट बजानाकड़ी चुनौती देना या नष्ट करनाभारतीय सेना ने दुश्मनों की ईंट से ईंट बजा दी।
घर की मुर्गी दाल बराबरसहज उपलब्ध वस्तु का आदर न करनाघर के डॉक्टर की सलाह उसे अच्छी नहीं लगती।
नाच न जाने आँगन टेढ़ाकाम न आने पर बहाना बनानालिखना आता नहीं और पेन को खराब बता रहे हो।

Question 6

निम्न मुहावरे का सही अर्थ अंकित कीजिए।

अंतर के पट खोलना-

  1. AOption (a)

    बिना समझदारी के किए गए कार्य से नुकसान हुआ।

  2. BOption (b)

    उसने बिना सोचे-समझे निर्णय लिया।

  3. COption (c)

    विवेक से काम लेना

  4. DOption (d)

    उन्होंने जल्दबाजी में काम बिगाड़ दिया।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

विवेक से काम लेना

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - विवेक से काम लेना

Key Points

  • 'अंतर के पट खोलना' का अर्थ - विवेक से काम लेना या बुद्धि का प्रयोग करना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - महात्मा जी के उपदेशों ने सोहन के अंतर के पट खोल दिए और उसने गलत मार्ग त्याग दिया।
  • मुहावरा - ऐसे रूढ़ वाक्यांश जो सामान्य अर्थ के स्थान पर विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं, मुहावरे कहलाते हैं।
  • उदाहरण - 'अक्ल का अंधा' का अर्थ - मूर्ख होना। वाक्य प्रयोग - राकेश अक्ल का अंधा है, उसे चाहे जितना समझाओ वह अपनी ही चलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

मुहावरा/लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
अपनी कुल्हाड़ी से अपना पैर काटनाबिना समझदारी के कार्य से स्वयं का नुकसान करनानौकरी छोड़कर उसने अपनी कुल्हाड़ी से अपना पैर काट लिया।
आओ देखा न तावबिना सोचे-समझे निर्णय लेना या कार्य करनाउसने आओ देखा न ताव और छोटे भाई पर हाथ उठा दिया।
हथौड़ा मारनाजल्दबाजी में काम बिगाड़ देनाजल्दबाजी में निर्णय लेकर उसने बने बनाए काम पर हथौड़ा मार दिया।

Additional Information

मुहावरा/लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
अंधे की लाठीएकमात्र सहाराश्रवण कुमार अपने माता-पिता के लिए अंधे की लाठी थे।
आंखें खुलनासजग होना या होश आनाठोकर खाने के बाद ही इंसान की आंखें खुलती हैं।
गागर में सागर भरनाथोड़े शब्दों में बहुत कुछ कहनाबिहारी ने अपने दोहों में गागर में सागर भर दिया है।
चिकना घड़ा होनानिर्लज्ज होना या असर न होनाउसे कितना भी समझाओ, वह तो चिकना घड़ा है।
नौ दो ग्यारह होनाभाग जानापुलिस को देखते ही चोर नौ दो ग्यारह हो गया।
ईंट से ईंट बजानापूरी तरह नष्ट कर देनाभारतीय सेना ने दुश्मन की ईंट से ईंट बजा दी।

Question 7

उपयुक्त विशेषण का चयन कर दिए गए वाक्य को पूर्ण कीजिए ।
' मेरे घर का रंग ............................... है।'

  1. AOption (a)

    गोल

  2. BOption (b)

    लाल

  3. COption (c)

    चौरस

  4. DOption (d)

    वतर्मान

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

लाल

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- लाल

Key Points

  • दिए गए वाक्य 'मेरे घर का रंग लाल है' में 'लाल' शब्द एक गुणवाचक विशेषण है जो रंग का बोध करा रहा है।
  • जो शब्द किसी संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के रंग, रूप, गुण, दोष, आकार आदि का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें गुणवाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।
  • अन्य उदाहरण: आसमान का रंग नीला है। सीता ने पीली साड़ी पहनी है।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्पविग्रह/अर्थभेद/प्रकार
गोलवस्तु के आकार का बोध।गुणवाचक विशेषण
चौरससतह के समतल होने का बोध।गुणवाचक विशेषण
वर्तमानचल रहे समय का बोध।कालवाचक विशेषण

Important Points 
 विशेषण के मुख्य भेद-

  1. गुणवाचक विशेषण
  2. संख्यावाचक विशेषण
  3. परिमाणवाचक विशेषण
  4. सार्वनामिक विशेषण

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेदपरिभाषाउदाहरण
रंगबोधक विशेषणजो विशेषण शब्द रंगों के नाम का बोध कराते हैं।काला = काला कुत्ता सफ़ेद = सफ़ेद गाय

Question 8

दिए गए वाक्यों में से शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन कीजिए।

  1. AOption (a)

    मेरा उनसे परीचय करा दो।

  2. BOption (b)

    मेरा उनसे परचय करा दो।

  3. COption (c)

    मेरा उनसे परिचय करा दो।

  4. DOption (d)

    मेरा उनसे परिचय करा दों।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

मेरा उनसे परिचय करा दो।

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में शुद्ध वाक्य का सही उत्तर है- मेरा उनसे परिचय करा दो।

Key Points

  • 'मेरा उनसे परिचय करा दो।' वाक्य शुद्ध है क्योंकि इसमें वर्तनी (Spelling) और विराम-चिह्न संबंधी कोई त्रुटि नहीं है।
  • वाक्य शुद्धि का अर्थ वाक्य को व्याकरण के नियमों के अनुसार शुद्ध एवं सार्थक रूप में व्यवस्थित करना है।
  • उदाहरण 1: 'राम ने अपनी पुस्तक पढ़ी।'
  • उदाहरण 2: 'आज अवकाश रहेगा।'

अन्य विकल्प -

विकल्पविग्रह/अर्थअशुद्धि का प्रकार
मेरा उनसे परीचय करा दो।'परीचय' अशुद्ध शब्द है; शुद्ध रूप 'परिचय' है।वर्तनी संबंधी
मेरा उनसे परचय करा दो।'परचय' अशुद्ध शब्द है; शुद्ध रूप 'परिचय' है।वर्तनी संबंधी
मेरा उनसे परिचय करा दों।'दों' में अनुस्वार का प्रयोग गलत है; शुद्ध रूप 'दो' है।अनुस्वार/वर्तनी संबंधी

Important Pointsवाक्य अशुद्धि के मुख्य भेद-

  1. वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धि
  2. क्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धि
  3. कारक संबंधी अशुद्धि

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेदपरिभाषाउदाहरण
वर्तनी संबंधीजब वाक्य में किसी शब्द के वर्णों का क्रम या मात्रा गलत हो।आसीर्वाद लें। → आशीर्वाद लें। वह बीमार है। → वह बीमार है।
क्रिया संबंधीजब वाक्य में कर्ता या कर्म के अनुसार क्रिया का प्रयोग न हो।बच्चा रोती है। → बच्चा रोता है। वह भोजन किया। → उसने भोजन किया।

Question 9

नीचे दिए गए वाक्य में चार विकल्प में से कोई एक उचित क्रिया का चुनाव कर वाक्य पूर्ण करें-

मधुपर्णा अमृतसरी पापड़_________है।

  1. AOption (a)

    खा रही

  2. BOption (b)

    लिख रही

  3. COption (c)

    चल रही

  4. DOption (d)

    रो रही

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

खा रही

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - खा रही

Key Points

  • पूर्ण वाक्य: मधुपर्णा अमृतसरी पापड़ खा रही है।
  • वाक्य में 'खा रही' के प्रयोग से वाक्य का अर्थ पूर्ण होता है क्योंकि 'पापड़' एक खाद्य पदार्थ है, जिसके साथ 'खाना' क्रिया ही प्रसंगानुकूल और सार्थक है।
  • 'खा रही' का अर्थ - भोजन या किसी खाद्य वस्तु को ग्रहण करना; जैसे- बच्चा आम खा रहा है।

Additional Informationलिख रही-

  • अर्थ: लेखनी के माध्यम से अक्षरों या शब्दों को अंकित करना।
  • जैसे - कोमल कविता लिख रही है।

चल रही-

  • अर्थ: पैरों की सहायता से गति करना या किसी प्रक्रिया का जारी होना।
  • जैसे - ठंडी हवा चल रही है।

रो रही-

  • अर्थ: दुःख या वेदना के कारण आँखों से आँसू बहाना।
  • जैसे - छोटी बच्ची खिलौना टूटने पर रो रही है।

Question 10

दिए गए वाक्य में संख्यावाचक विशेषण शब्द का चयन करके रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति करें -

<br>

प्रशासन ने ______ यात्रियों के लिए पर्याप्त भोजन और चिकित्सा की व्यवस्था की।

  1. AOption (a)

    युवा

  2. BOption (b)

    सभ्य

  3. COption (c)

    नेपाली

  4. DOption (d)

    दस लाख

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

दस लाख

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "दस लाख" है।

Key Points

दिए गए वाक्य के संदर्भ में:

  • दिए गए रिक्त स्थान में संख्यावाचक विशेषण का प्रयोग करना है।
  • दस लाख एक निश्चित संख्या का बोध कराता है, इसलिए यह निश्चित संख्यावाचक विशेषण है।
  • पूर्ण वाक्य: प्रशासन ने दस लाख यात्रियों के लिए पर्याप्त भोजन और चिकित्सा की व्यवस्था की।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

युवा -

  • यह एक गुणवाचक विशेषण है जो अवस्था या आयु का बोध कराता है।

सभ्य -

  • यह भी एक गुणवाचक विशेषण है जो व्यक्ति के व्यवहार या आचरण की विशेषता बताता है।

नेपाली -

  • यह एक व्यक्तिवाचक विशेषण है जो स्थान या मूल को दर्शाता है।

Question 11

वाक्य विन्यास की दृष्टि से शुद्ध वाक्य का चयन करें--

  1. AOption (a)

    प्रांतों का ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन था किया।

  2. BOption (b)

    ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन किया था।

  3. COption (c)

    भारत में ब्रिटिश कालीन अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन किया था।

  4. DOption (d)

    ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का विभाजन किया था स्वार्थपूर्ण।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन किया था।

Why this answer is correct

दिए गए विकल्पों में शुद्ध वाक्य का सही उत्तर है- ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन किया था।

Key Points

  • 'ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन किया था।' वाक्य शुद्ध है क्योंकि इसमें पदक्रम और व्याकरणिक नियम सही हैं।
  • वाक्य शुद्धि का अर्थ वाक्य को व्याकरण के नियमों के अनुसार शुद्ध एवं सार्थक रूप में व्यवस्थित करना है।
  • उदाहरण 1: 'खरगोश को काटकर गाजर खिलाओ।' (अशुद्ध) → 'गाजर काटकर खरगोश को खिलाओ।' (शुद्ध)
  • उदाहरण 2: 'बच्चे को धोकर फल खिलाओ।' (अशुद्ध) → 'फल धोकर बच्चे को खिलाओ।' (शुद्ध)

अन्य विकल्प -

विकल्पविग्रह/अर्थअशुद्धि का प्रकार
प्रांतों का ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन था किया।सहायक क्रिया 'था' का प्रयोग मुख्य क्रिया से पूर्व हुआ है।पदक्रम संबंधी
भारत में ब्रिटिश कालीन अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का स्वार्थपूर्ण विभाजन किया था।'ब्रिटिश कालीन' का प्रयोग 'अंग्रेजों' के लिए नहीं बल्कि 'भारत' के लिए होना चाहिए।विशेषण संबंधी
ब्रिटिश कालीन भारत में अंग्रेज़ो ने प्रांतों का विभाजन किया था स्वार्थपूर्ण।विशेषण 'स्वार्थपूर्ण' का प्रयोग वाक्य के अंत में अनुचित है।पदक्रम संबंधी

Important Pointsवाक्य अशुद्धि के मुख्य भेद-

  1. पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धि
  2. विशेषण संबंधी अशुद्धि
  3. क्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धि
  4. कारक संबंधी अशुद्धि

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेदपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पदक्रम संबंधीवाक्य में शब्दों का उचित स्थान पर न होना।जाता हूँ मैं घर। → मैं घर जाता हूँ। एक फूलों की माला लाओ। → फूलों की एक माला लाओ।
विशेषण संबंधीअनुचित या गलत विशेषण का प्रयोग करना।उसकी बहुत सुंदर लिखावट है। → उसकी लिखावट बहुत सुंदर है। आकाश में काले बादल गरज रहे हैं। → आकाश में काले बादल छाए हैं।

Question 12

निम्नलिखित वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान में उचित विशेषण की पूर्ति कीजिए-

‘__________ आदमी आपको पूछ रहा था।’

  1. AOption (a)

    जैसा

  2. BOption (b)

    क्यों

  3. COption (c)

    कोई

  4. DOption (d)

    थोड़ा

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

कोई

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "कोई" है।

Key Points

वाक्य विश्लेषण:

  • दिए गए वाक्य ‘कोई आदमी आपको पूछ रहा था’ में ‘कोई’ एक सार्वनामिक विशेषण है।
  • जब कोई सर्वनाम संज्ञा शब्द से पहले आकर उसकी विशेषता बताता है या उसकी ओर संकेत करता है, तो उसे सार्वनामिक विशेषण कहते हैं।
  • यहाँ ‘आदमी’ (संज्ञा) के पहले ‘कोई’ लगकर उसकी अनिश्चितता की विशेषता बता रहा है, इसलिए यह सबसे सटीक विकल्प है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

जैसा -

  • यह एक सम्बन्धवाचक विशेषण के रूप में प्रयोग होता है, जो यहाँ संदर्भ के अनुसार उपयुक्त नहीं है।

क्यों -

  • यह एक प्रश्नवाचक अव्यय है, विशेषण नहीं। यह वाक्य की संरचना में फिट नहीं बैठता।

थोड़ा -

  • यह एक परिमाणवाचक विशेषण है। इसका प्रयोग मात्रा (जैसे- थोड़ा पानी) बताने के लिए किया जाता है, गणनीय संज्ञा 'आदमी' के लिए यह अनुचित है।

Question 13

'जो पान करने योग्य न हो' के लिए एक शब्द होगा-

  1. AOption (a)

    वज्रपाणि

  2. BOption (b)

    अपथ्य

  3. COption (c)

    अपेय

  4. DOption (d)

    अभक्ष्य

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

अपेय

Why this answer is correct

‘जो पान करने योग्य न हो’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - अपेय।

Key Points

  • ‘जो पान करने योग्य न हो’ उसे अपेय कहा जाता है।
  • यहाँ पान का अर्थ पीना है, अतः जो वस्तु पीने लायक न हो या जिसे पीना वर्जित हो, वह अपेय कहलाती है।
  • हिंदी व्याकरण में किसी विस्तृत विचार या कथन को कम शब्दों में व्यक्त करना वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।
  • यह भाषाई संक्षिप्तता और प्रभावशीलता को बढ़ाने में सहायक होता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

वाक्यांशशब्द
जिसके हाथ में वज्र होवज्रपाणि
जो खाने योग्य न होअभक्ष्य
जो बीमार के लिए उपयुक्त आहार न होअपथ्य

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

वाक्यांशएक शब्द
जिसका निवारण न हो सकेअनिवार्य
जो मापा न जा सकेअपरिमेय
जिसका जन्म न होअजन्मा
आकाश को चूमने वालागगनचुंबी
जो सब कुछ जानता होसर्वज्ञ
कम बोलने वालामितभाषी
जिसके समान कोई दूसरा न होअद्वितीय
जो दिखाई न देअदृश्य

Question 14

निम्न विकल्पों में वाक्य के रेखांकित शब्द में शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन करें-
गुरु जी को चरण स्पर्ष करो

  1. AOption (a)

    स्पर्स

  2. BOption (b)

    स्परष

  3. COption (c)

    स्परश​

  4. DOption (d)

    स्पर्श

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

स्पर्श

Why this answer is correct

शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है - स्पर्श

Key Points

  • दिए गए वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द 'स्पर्ष' अशुद्ध है, इसका शुद्ध रूप 'स्पर्श' होता है।
  • स्पर्श का हिंदी अर्थ होता है - छूना या संपर्क।
  • लेखन की वह रीति जिसमें किसी शब्द के वर्णों को उनके सही और मानक क्रम में लिखा जाता है, उसे वर्तनी या अक्षरी कहते हैं।
  • 'स्पर्श' शब्द में 'र' के रेफ रूप (र्) का प्रयोग 'श' वर्ण के ऊपर किया जाता है।

Additional Informationकुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

अशुद्धशुद्ध
अशिर्वादआशीर्वाद
श्रन्खलाश्रृंखला
उज्वलउज्ज्वल
कवियत्रीकवयित्री
ज्योत्सनाज्योत्स्ना
निरोगनीरोग
अहारआहार
तदोपरांततदुपरांत
अधीनअधीन
प्रदरशनीप्रदर्शनी

Question 15

‘कोई दरवाजा खटखटा रहा है |’ वाक्य में नाम धातु क्रिया है -

  1. AOption (a)

    दरवाजा

  2. BOption (b)

    रहा है

  3. COption (c)

    खटखटा

  4. DOption (d)

    कोई

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

खटखटा

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- खटखटा

Key Points

  • वाक्य ‘कोई दरवाजा खटखटा रहा है’ में खटखटा एक नामधातु क्रिया है।
  • जो क्रियाएँ संज्ञा, सर्वनाम या विशेषण शब्दों के अंत में प्रत्यय लगाकर बनाई जाती हैं, उन्हें नामधातु क्रिया कहते हैं।
  • यहाँ 'खटखट' (ध्वन्यात्मक संज्ञा) शब्द में 'आ' प्रत्यय जुड़ने से 'खटखटाना' क्रिया बनी है।
  • इसके अन्य उदाहरण हैं: हाथ से हथियाना, बात से बतियाना।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्द/विकल्पविग्रह/अर्थभेद/प्रकार
दरवाजाएक वस्तु या प्रवेश द्वारजातिवाचक संज्ञा
रहा हैक्रिया के जारी रहने का बोधसहायक क्रिया
कोईकिसी अनिश्चित व्यक्ति का बोधअनिश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम

Important Points 
 संरचना के आधार पर क्रिया के भेद-

  1. संयुक्त क्रिया (दो क्रियाओं का योग)
  2. नामधातु क्रिया (संज्ञा/विशेषण से निर्मित)
  3. प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया (कर्ता स्वयं कार्य न कर किसी और को प्रेरित करे)
  4. पूर्वकालिक क्रिया (एक क्रिया समाप्त होकर दूसरी शुरू होना)

Additional Information

प्रकार/भेदपरिभाषाउदाहरण
नामधातु क्रियाजब संज्ञा या विशेषण शब्द को क्रिया की तरह प्रयोग किया जाता है।शर्म = शर्माना गरम = गरमाना

Hindi 2 (10 questions)

Question 16

निम्न में से 'एक पंथ दो काज' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ कौन-सा है ?

  1. AOption (a)

    एक काम से दूसरा काम हो जाना

  2. BOption (b)

    अकेला आदमी लाचार होता है

  3. COption (c)

    न कारण होगा, न कार्य होगा

  4. DOption (d)

    उच्च और साधारण की तुलना कैसी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

एक काम से दूसरा काम हो जाना

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - एक काम से दूसरा काम हो जाना

Key Points

  • 'एक पंथ दो काज' का अर्थ - एक ही साधन या प्रयत्न से दो कार्यों की सिद्धि होना।
  • प्रयोग - मैं दिल्ली साक्षात्कार देने गया था, वहीं लगे हाथ मामा जी से भी मिल आया; इसे कहते हैं एक पंथ दो काज।
  • लोकोक्ति - लोक-अनुभव, शिक्षा या सत्य को व्यक्त करने वाली प्रचलित पूर्ण उक्ति को लोकोक्ति कहते हैं।
  • उदाहरण - 'आम के आम गुठलियों के दाम' का भावार्थ - दोहरा लाभ प्राप्त करना। प्रयोग - पुरानी किताबें बेचकर नए सत्र की फीस भर दी, यह तो वही बात हुई कि आम के आम गुठलियों के दाम।

अन्य विकल्प-

लोकोक्तिअर्थप्रयोग
अकेला चना भाड़ नहीं फोड़ताअकेला आदमी लाचार होता हैबड़ी समस्या सुलझाने में सबकी मदद चाहिए क्योंकि अकेला चना भाड़ नहीं फोड़ता।
न रहेगा बाँस, न बजेगी बाँसुरीन कारण होगा, न कार्य होगाविवाद की जड़ उस जमीन को ही बेच दो, न रहेगा बाँस न बजेगी बाँसुरी।
कहाँ राजा भोज, कहाँ गंगू तेलीउच्च और साधारण की तुलना कैसीउस करोड़पति और इस मजदूर का क्या मुकाबला, कहाँ राजा भोज कहाँ गंगू तेली।

Additional Information

मुहावरा/लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
अधजल गगरी छलकत जाएअल्पज्ञानी द्वारा अधिक प्रदर्शनथोड़ा सा ज्ञान पाकर वह विद्वान बन रहा है, इसे कहते हैं अधजल गगरी छलकत जाए।
आ बैल मुझे मारस्वयं मुसीबत मोल लेनागुंडों के मामले में टांग अड़ाना तो आ बैल मुझे मार वाली बात है।
ईद का चाँद होनाबहुत दिनों बाद दिखाई देनानौकरी लगने के बाद तो राहुल तुम ईद का चाँद हो गए हो।
कान पर जूँ न रेंगनाकोई असर न होनाउसे कितना भी समझाओ, उसके कान पर जूँ नहीं रेंगती।
नौ दो ग्यारह होनाभाग जानापुलिस को देखते ही चोर गली से नौ दो ग्यारह हो गया।
चिराग तले अंधेराअपनी बुराई न दिखनाशिक्षक का बेटा ही अनपढ़ रह गया, इसे कहते हैं चिराग तले अंधेरा।

Question 17

मुहावरे और उनके अर्थ के आधार पर कौन – सा युग्म उ��ित है-

  1. AOption (a)

    खरी-खरी सुनाना - न्याय प्रिय होना

  2. BOption (b)

    अगले जमाने का आदमी – किसी का साझा अच्छा नहीं

  3. COption (c)

    चींटी के पर लगना – व्यर्थ आडम्बर

  4. DOption (d)

    निन्यानबे का फेर – धन जोड़ने की बुरा लालच

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

निन्यानबे का फेर – धन जोड़ने की बुरा लालच

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - निन्यानबे का फेर - धन जोड़ने की बुरा लालच

Key Points

  • 'निन्यानबे का फेर' का अर्थ - धन जोड़ने का बुरा लालच या माया के प्रपंच में पड़ना।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - बेचारा दिन-भर मजदूरी करता है, लेकिन निन्यानबे के फेर में पड़कर एक पैसा भी खुद पर खर्च नहीं करता।
  • मुहावरा - ऐसे रूढ़ वाक्यांश जो सामान्य अर्थ के स्थान पर विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं, मुहावरे कहलाते हैं। इनका प्रयोग स्वतंत्र रूप से न होकर वाक्य के अंतर्गत होता है।
  • उदाहरण - 'गागर में सागर भरना' का अर्थ - थोड़े शब्दों में बहुत कुछ कहना। वाक्य प्रयोग - बिहारी ने अपने दोहों में गागर में सागर भर दिया है।

अन्य विकल्प-

मुहावराअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
खरी-खरी सुनानास्पष्ट एवं कड़वी बात कहनाउसने सबके सामने सेठ जी को खरी-खरी सुना दी।
अगले जमाने का आदमीसीधा-सादा और ईमानदार व्यक्तिरमन तो अगले जमाने का आदमी है, वह झूठ नहीं बोलेगा।
चींटी के पर लगनाविनाश के दिन निकट आनाजब चींटी के पर लगते हैं, तो वह उड़ने की कोशिश करती है।

Additional Information

मुहावराअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
आँख का ताराबहुत प्यारा होनाश्रवण कुमार अपने माता-पिता की आँख का तारा था।
घी के दिए जलानाखुशियाँ मनानानौकरी मिलने पर पूरे परिवार ने घी के दिए जलाए।
अक्ल पर पत्थर पड़नाबुद्धि भ्रष्ट होनासंकट के समय मेरी अक्ल पर पत्थर पड़ गए थे।
नाक में दम करनाबहुत परेशान करनाशरारती बच्चों ने अध्यापक की नाक में दम कर दिया।
हाथ मलनापछतानाअवसर निकल जाने पर हाथ मलने से कुछ नहीं होता।
लोहे के चने चबानाकठिन संघर्ष करनाभारतीय सेना ने दुश्मनों को लोहे के चने चबवा दिए।

Question 18

निम्नलिखित वाक्य में से अनेकार्थि शब्द पहचानें।

इस पेड़ की जड़ सूखती जा रही है, अब यह पेड़ अधिक समय तक जीवित नहीं रहेगा।

  1. AOption (a)

    सूखती

  2. BOption (b)

    अधिक

  3. COption (c)

    जड़

  4. DOption (d)

    पेड़

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

जड़

Why this answer is correct

'जड़' का अनेकार्थी है- जड़

Key Points

  • 'जड़' के प्रमुख अनेकार्थ - मूल (पेड़ का निचला हिस्सा), मूर्ख, अचेतन, निर्जीव, कारण आदि।
  • अनेकार्थी शब्द - ऐसे शब्द जिनके एक से अधिक अर्थ होते हैं, अनेकार्थी शब्द कहलाते हैं।
  • वाक्य में 'जड़' शब्द का प्रयोग पेड़ के मूल भाग के लिए किया गया है, परंतु इसका दूसरा प्रसिद्ध अर्थ 'बुद्धिहीन' या 'निर्जीव' भी होता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

शब्दअनेकार्थी शब्द
सूखतीशुष्क होना, जलहीन होना
अधिकज्यादा, बढ़ा हुआ, अतिरिक्त
पेड़वृक्ष, तरु, पादप

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण अनेकार्थी शब्द :-

शब्दअनेकार्थी शब्द
अंबरआकाश, वस्त्र, एक इत्र
कनकसोना, धतूरा, गेहूँ
सारंगमृग, मोर, सर्प, बादल
द्विजब्राह्मण, पक्षी, दाँत
अर्कसूर्य, काढ़ा, आक का पौधा
मधुशहद, बसंत ऋतु, शराब
पानीजल, चमक, इज्जत

Question 19

दिये गए वाक्य के रेखांकित शब्द का विलोम शब्द चुनिए -

समाज में कुप्रथाओं के उन्मूलन के लिए कानून बनाना आवश्यक है।

  1. AOption (a)

    उन्मान

  2. BOption (b)

    उन्मन

  3. COption (c)

    उन्मुख

  4. DOption (d)

    रोपण

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

रोपण

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है: रोपण

Key Points

  • 'उन्मूलन' का समानार्थी शब्द 'जड़ से उखाड़ना' है।
  • 'उन्मूलन' का विलोम शब्द 'रोपण' है।
  • 'उन्मूलन' का अर्थ — किसी वस्तु या प्रथा को जड़ से समाप्त कर देना।
  • 'रोपण' का अर्थ — किसी नई वस्तु या पौधे को स्थापित या लगाना।
  • विलोम - जो शब्द किसी शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

शब्दविलोम
उन्मान(निरर्थक शब्द)
उन्मनमनस्क
उन्मुखविमुख

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

शब्दविलोम
आवाहनविसर्जन
स्थावरजंगम
ह्रासविकास
अवनतिउन्नति
संयोगवियोग
उत्थानपतन
आकर्षणविकर्षण
आलस्यउद्यम
अज्ञविज्ञ
आमिषनिरामिष

Question 20

‘आँखों पर चर्बी चढ़ना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ क्या है?

  1. AOption (a)

    आमने-सामने होना

  2. BOption (b)

    बहुत अहंकारी होना

  3. COption (c)

    प्रेम से स्वागत करना

  4. DOption (d)

    केवल लिखा-पढ़ी करते रहना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

बहुत अहंकारी होना

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - बहुत अहंकारी होना

Key Points

  • 'आँखों पर चर्बी चढ़ना' का अर्थ - अभिमान या घमंड में चूर होना (बहुत अहंकारी होना)।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - जब से उसकी लॉटरी लगी है, उसकी आँखों पर चर्बी चढ़ गई है और वह अपनों को पहचानता भी नहीं।
  • मुहावरा - ऐसे रूढ़ वाक्यांश जो सामान्य अर्थ के स्थान पर विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं, मुहावरे कहलाते हैं। ये स्वतंत्र वाक्य न होकर वाक्य का अंश होते हैं।
  • उदाहरण - 'आँखें दिखाना' का अर्थ - क्रोधित होना। वाक्य प्रयोग - गलती करने पर पिता जी ने मुझे आँखें दिखाईं।

अन्य विकल्प-

मुहावराअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
आँखें चार होनाआमने-सामने होनाभीड़ में अचानक हम दोनों की आँखें चार हो गईं।
पलकें बिछानाप्रेम से स्वागत करनागाँव वालों ने मुख्य अतिथि के लिए पलकें बिछा दीं।
कागजी घोड़े दौड़ानाकेवल लिखा-पढ़ी करनासिर्फ कागजी घोड़े दौड़ाने से गरीबी दूर नहीं होगी।

Additional Information

मुहावराअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
आँखों का ताराबहुत प्यारा होनाराम अपनी माँ की आँखों का तारा है।
आसमान पर चढ़नाअत्यधिक गर्व करनानौकरी लगते ही वह आसमान पर चढ़ गया है।
ईंट से ईंट बजानापूरी तरह नष्ट करनाभारतीय सेना ने दुश्मन की ईंट से ईंट बजा दी।
गागर में सागर भरनाथोड़े में बहुत कहनाबिहारी ने अपने दोहों में गागर में सागर भर दिया है।
नाक कट जानाइज्जत जानाचोरी में पकड़े जाने पर उसकी नाक कट गई।
हाथ मलनापछतानासमय बीत जाने पर हाथ मलने से कुछ नहीं होगा।

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गये प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर दीजिए-

कानूनी जागरूकता का अर्थ है कानून के नियमों, अधिकारों और कर्तव्यों की जानकारी होना। यह जागरूकता व्यक्ति को अपने अधिकारों की रक्षा करने और दायित्वों का निर्वहन करने में सक्षम बनाती है। उदाहरणस्वरूप, यातायात नियमों की जानकारी होने पर लोग हेलमेट पहनते हैं और सीट बेल्ट बांधते हैं, जिससे दुर्घटनाएं कम होती हैं। इसी प्रकार, महिला सुरक्षा कानूनों की जानकारी लड़कियों को आत्मरक्षा के उपाय सिखाती है। कानूनी जागरूकता के अभाव में लोग अज्ञानता के कारण अपराध के शिकार हो जाते हैं या स्वयं अपराध कर बैठते हैं। स्कूलों, कॉलेजों और सामुदायिक कार्यक्रमों के माध्यम से कानूनी शिक्षा प्रदान की जानी चाहिए। सरकार द्वारा चलाए जा रहे अभियान जैसे ‘बेटी बचाओ, बेटी पढ़ाओ’ या ‘स्वच्छ भारत’ भी जागरूकता बढ़ाने का कार्य करते हैं। अंततः, कानून के प्रति जागरूकता एक सशक्त समाज का आधार है, जो न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित जीवन सुनिश्चित करती है। यह न केवल व्यक्तिगत विकास को बढ़ावा देती है, बल्कि राष्ट्र निर्माण में भी योगदान देती है।

Question 21

कानूनी जागरूकता के अभाव में लोग क्या हो जाते हैं?

  1. AOption (a)

    अपराध के शिकार

  2. BOption (b)

    सामाजिक नेता

  3. COption (c)

    कानून बनाने वाले

  4. DOption (d)

    पारिवारिक संबंधी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

अपराध के शिकार

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "अपराध के शिकार" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार,

  • कानूनी जागरूकता का अर्थ कानून के नियमों, अधिकारों और कर्तव्यों की जानकारी होना है।
  • गद्यांश में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है कि कानूनी जागरूकता के अभाव में लोग अज्ञानता के कारण अपराध के शिकार हो जाते हैं या स्वयं अपराध कर बैठते हैं।
  • यह जागरूकता व्यक्ति को अपने अधिकारों की रक्षा करने और समाज में सुरक्षित रहने में सक्षम बनाती है।
  • अतः दिए गए विकल्पों में से 'अपराध के शिकार' सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

सामाजिक नेता -

  • गद्यांश में कहीं भी यह नहीं कहा गया है कि जागरूकता की कमी से लोग सामाजिक नेता बनते हैं; इसके विपरीत, जागरूकता नेतृत्व गुणों में सहायक होती है।

कानून बनाने वाले -

  • कानून बनाने का कार्य विधायिका का होता है। कानून की जानकारी का अभाव व्यक्ति को अपराधी या पीड़ित बना सकता है, न कि कानून निर्माता।

पारिवारिक संबंधी -

  • यह विकल्प गद्यांश के संदर्भ में अप्रासंगिक है, क्योंकि पारिवारिक संबंध कानूनी जागरूकता की कमी का परिणाम नहीं होते।

Question 22

गद्यांश के अंत में कानून के प्रति जागरूकता को क्या कहा गया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    एक सशक्त समाज का आधार

  2. BOption (b)

    राष्ट्र विभाजन का साधन

  3. COption (c)

    व्यक्तिगत हानि का कारण

  4. DOption (d)

    कमजोर समाज का आधार

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

एक सशक्त समाज का आधार

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "एक सशक्त समाज का आधार" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार,

  • गद्यांश की अंतिम पंक्तियों में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है कि कानून के प्रति जागरूकता एक सशक्त समाज का आधार है।
  • यह जागरूकता न केवल न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित जीवन सुनिश्चित करती है, बल्कि व्यक्तिगत विकास और राष्ट्र निर्माण में भी महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाती है।
  • अतः दिए गए विकल्पों में से 'एक सशक्त समाज का आधार' ही गद्यांश के संदर्भ में सही उत्तर है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

राष्ट्र विभाजन का साधन -

  • गद्यांश के अनुसार कानून की जागरूकता राष्ट्र निर्माण में सहायक है, न कि विभाजन में।

व्यक्तिगत हानि का कारण -

  • कानूनी जागरूकता अधिकारों की रक्षा करती है और अज्ञानता से होने वाली हानि से बचाती है।

कमजोर समाज का आधार -

  • गद्यांश स्पष्ट करता है कि जागरूकता समाज को सशक्त (मजबूत) बनाती है, कमजोर नहीं।

Question 23

कानूनी जागरूकता क्या सुनिश्चित करती है?

  1. AOption (a)

    न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित जीवन

  2. BOption (b)

    असुरक्षित और असंतुलित जीवन

  3. COption (c)

    हानिकारक जीवन प्रणाली

  4. DOption (d)

    अन्यायपूर्ण व्यवस्था

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित जीवन

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित जीवन" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार:

  • गद्यांश की अंतिम पंक्तियों में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है कि कानून के प्रति जागरूकता एक सशक्त समाज का आधार है।
  • यह जागरूकता व्यक्ति के लिए न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित जीवन सुनिश्चित करती है।
  • कानूनी जानकारी होने से व्यक्ति अपने अधिकारों की रक्षा कर पाता है और एक सुरक्षित वातावरण का निर्माण होता है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

असुरक्षित और असंतुलित जीवन -

  • यह कानूनी जागरूकता का परिणाम नहीं हो सकता, क्योंकि जागरूकता सुरक्षा और संतुलन लाती है।

हानिकारक जीवन प्रणाली -

  • कानूनी जागरूकता समाज के लिए लाभकारी होती है, न कि हानिकारक।

अन्यायपूर्ण व्यवस्था -

  • जागरूकता अन्याय को समाप्त करने का साधन है, उसे बढ़ावा देने का नहीं।

Question 24

कानूनी जागरूकता समाज को कैसा बनाती है?

  1. AOption (a)

    अराजक और असंवेदनशील

  2. BOption (b)

    विभाजित विचारधारा का रूप

  3. COption (c)

    कमजोर और असुरक्षित

  4. DOption (d)

    सशक्त, न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

सशक्त, न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "सशक्त, न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार:

  • गद्यांश की अंतिम पंक्तियों में स्पष्ट रूप से उल्लेख किया गया है कि कानून के प्रति जागरूकता एक सशक्त समाज का आधार है।
  • यह जागरूकता न केवल समाज को न्यायपूर्ण बनाती है, बल्कि एक सुरक्षित जीवन भी सुनिश्चित करती है।
  • कानूनी जानकारी से व्यक्ति अपने अधिकारों की रक्षा और कर्तव्यों का पालन बेहतर ढंग से कर पाता है, जिससे समाज की नींव मजबूत होती है।
  • इसलिए, सही उत्तर सशक्त, न्यायपूर्ण और सुरक्षित है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

अराजक और असंवेदनशील:

  • कानूनी जागरूकता समाज में अनुशासन लाती है, अराजकता नहीं। अतः यह विकल्प गलत है।

विभाजित विचारधारा का रूप:

  • कानून सभी के लिए समान होता है और यह समाज को जोड़ने का कार्य करता है, न कि विचारधारा के आधार पर विभाजित करने का।

कमजोर और असुरक्षित:

  • गद्यांश बताता है कि जागरूकता के अभाव में लोग असुरक्षित होते हैं, जबकि जागरूकता समाज को सशक्त और सुरक्षित बनाती है।

Question 25

गद्यांश में अपराध के शिकार होने का मुख्य कारण क्या बताया गया है?

  1. AOption (a)

    व्यस्तता

  2. BOption (b)

    शिक्षा की अधिकता

  3. COption (c)

    धन की कमी

  4. DOption (d)

    अज्ञानता

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

अज्ञानता

Why this answer is correct

इसका सही उत्तर "अज्ञानता" है।

Key Points

गद्यांश के अनुसार,

  • कानूनी जागरूकता के अभाव में लोग अज्ञानता के कारण अपराध के शिकार हो जाते हैं या अनजाने में स्वयं अपराध कर बैठते हैं।
  • गद्यांश स्पष्ट करता है कि कानून के नियमों, अधिकारों और कर्तव्यों की जानकारी न होना ही व्यक्ति को असुरक्षित बनाता है।
  • अतः, अपराध से बचने और अपने अधिकारों की रक्षा के लिए कानूनी साक्षरता अनिवार्य है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण:

व्यस्तता -

  • गद्यांश में कहीं भी व्यस्तता को अपराध का कारण नहीं बताया गया है।

शिक्षा की अधिकता -

  • शिक्षा की अधिकता जागरूकता लाती है, यह अपराध का कारण नहीं बल्कि समाधान है।

धन की कमी -

  • यद्यपि समाज में धन की कमी एक समस्या हो सकती है, लेकिन प्रस्तुत गद्यांश के संदर्भ में इसका उल्लेख नहीं किया गया है।

English 1 (15 questions)

Question 26

Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.

The soldiers __________ through the dense forest until they found the valley by evening.

  1. AOption (a)

    are marching

  2. BOption (b)

    has marched

  3. COption (c)

    marched

  4. DOption (d)

    had been marched

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

marched

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'marched'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence describes a completed action that took place in the past, as indicated by the phrase 'until they found'.
  • The simple past tense is used to describe an action that happened and was completed in the past.
  • The verb 'marched' is the past tense form of 'march'.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this specific context because they do not match the required past timeline or active voice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The soldiers marched through the dense forest until they found the valley by evening.'

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: 'are marching' is in the present continuous tense, which describes an ongoing action in the present.
  • Option 2: 'has marched' is incorrect because the subject 'soldiers' is plural and would require 'have', and it denotes present perfect tense.
  • Option 4: 'had been marched' is in the passive voice, suggesting someone else was moving the soldiers, which does not fit the context of the sentence.

Question 27

Choose the sentence that correctly uses the active voice.

  1. AOption (a)

    The committee carefully reviewed the proposal.

  2. BOption (b)

    The proposal was carefully reviewed by the committee.

  3. COption (c)

    The proposal has been reviewed by the committee.

  4. DOption (d)

    The proposal is being reviewed by the committee.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The committee carefully reviewed the proposal.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The committee carefully reviewed the proposal.

Key Points

  • Active Voice is a grammatical construction where the subject of the sentence performs the action expressed by the verb. The basic structure follows Subject + Verb + Object.
  • In the sentence 'The committee carefully reviewed the proposal', the subject is The committee, which is actively performing the action of reviewing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • In the sentence 'The proposal was carefully reviewed by the committee', the subject is The proposal, which is receiving the action rather than performing it. This follows the Passive Voice structure (Object + be + Past Participle + by + Subject). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The sentence 'The proposal has been reviewed by the committee' uses the Present Perfect Passive form, indicated by the auxiliary verbs has been followed by the past participle. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The sentence 'The proposal is being reviewed by the committee' represents the Present Continuous Passive voice, characterized by the use of is being. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

  • Voice Transformation Rules:
  • Active Voice emphasizes the doer of the action, making the writing more direct, concise, and vigorous.
  • Passive Voice is used when the action or the receiver is more important than the doer, or when the doer is unknown.
  • The Simple Past Active (reviewed) changes to Simple Past Passive (was reviewed) by adding the appropriate form of the verb to be.
  • The subject of the active sentence becomes the agent in the passive sentence, usually introduced by the preposition by.

Question 28

Choose the sentence that correctly uses direct speech.

  1. AOption (a)

    She said, that she was feeling tired.

  2. BOption (b)

    She said, “I am feeling tired.”

  3. COption (c)

    She said “that I am feeling tired.”

  4. DOption (d)

    She said that, “I am feeling tired.”

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

She said, “I am feeling tired.”

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is She said, “I am feeling tired.”.

Key Points

  • Direct Speech represents the exact words spoken by a person, which must be enclosed within inverted commas or quotation marks to distinguish them from the rest of the sentence.
  • A comma is essential after the reporting verb (such as said, told, or remarked) to separate it from the quoted speech.
  • The first letter of the reported sentence inside the quotation marks must always be capitalized, as it signifies the start of the actual spoken statement.
  • The use of the conjunction that is strictly prohibited in Direct Speech; it is a feature exclusive to Indirect Speech (Reported Speech) used to connect the reporting clause with the reported clause.
  • In the correct sentence, the reporting verb said is followed by a comma, and the spoken words I am feeling tired are correctly placed within double quotation marks with the first letter I capitalized.

 Additional Information

  • Reporting Verb:
  • Commonly includes said, asked, shouted, or whispered.
  • In Indirect Speech, said to often changes to told.
  • Punctuation Rules:
  • The terminal punctuation (full stop, question mark, or exclamation mark) must be placed inside the closing quotation marks.
  • In Indirect Speech, the comma and quotation marks are removed, and the tense usually shifts backward (e.g., am becomes was).

Question 29

Complete the following sentence with the suitable option.

The team finished the programme ______ and submitted the report ______ to impress the judges.

  1. AOption (a)

    rigorously; belatedly

  2. BOption (b)

    meticulously; promptly

  3. COption (c)

    successively; early

  4. DOption (d)

    eventually; silently

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

meticulously; promptly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'meticulously; promptly'.

 

Key Points

  • The word meticulously means showing great attention to detail; very carefully and precisely. (अति सावधानी से)
  • The word promptly means with little or no delay; immediately or at the appropriate time. (शीघ्रता से)
  • In the context of the sentence, finishing a programme with precision (meticulously) and submitting it without delay (promptly) are the most logical actions to impress judges.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The team finished the programme meticulously and submitted the report promptly to impress the judges.

Additional Information

  • Rigorously (कठोरता से): In an extremely thorough and careful way, but belatedly (देरी से) would not impress judges.
  • Successively (क्रमवार): Following one after another; it does not fit the context of finishing a single programme.
  • Eventually (अंततः): In the end, especially after a long delay; submitting a report silently (चुपचाप) is less likely to be a strategy to impress.

Question 30

Choose the most appropriate option to complete the given sentence.

I've got an appointment for this afternoon. I've got to go to ____ doctor's.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    the

  3. COption (c)

    no article

  4. DOption (d)

    an

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence requires the definite article 'the' to complete the phrase 'to the doctor's'.
  • In English, we use the definite article 'the' when referring to established institutions or services that we visit (e.g., the doctor, the dentist, the hairdresser).
  • The phrase 'at/to the doctor's' is a common idiomatic expression meaning 'at/to the doctor's surgery' or 'clinic'.
  • Since the speaker has a specific appointment, they are referring to a specific place/professional, making 'the' the most appropriate choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is the.

 

Correct Sentence: 'I've got an appointment for this afternoon. I've got to go to the doctor's.'

 

Additional Information

  • a: This is an indefinite article used for non-specific singular countable nouns. While 'go to a doctor' is grammatically possible, 'the doctor's' is the standard idiom for a scheduled visit.
  • an: This is used before words starting with a vowel sound. Since 'doctor' starts with a consonant sound 'd', 'an' is incorrect.
  • no article: Omitting the article would make the sentence grammatically incomplete in this context.

Question 31

Choose the suitable option to fill the blank.

I passed by ___________ university while crossing the woods.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    the

  3. COption (c)

    No article

  4. DOption (d)

    an

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The choice between the articles a and an is determined by the sound of the following word, not just the first letter.
  • The word university begins with the vowel letter u, but it is pronounced with a consonant sound, specifically the /j/ sound (like y in yellow).
  • Since university starts with a consonant sound, the indefinite article a must be used before it.
  • The definite article the is not used here because the sentence refers to an unspecified or general university encountered during the journey.

Therefore, the correct answer is a.

 

Correct Sentence: 'I passed by a university while crossing the woods.'

 

Additional Information

  • An: This article is used before words that begin with a vowel sound (e.g., an hour, an apple, an umbrella).
  • A: This article is used before words that begin with a consonant sound (e.g., a book, a union, a European).
  • The: This is the definite article used to refer to specific or previously mentioned nouns.

Question 32

The given sentence is divided into different phrases and the first phrase (S1) is fixed. Choose the most appropriate option which best rearranges the remaining phrases to form a coherent sentence.

S1: Although the policy was
P: because local authorities lacked adequate
Q: its effectiveness remained questionable
R: introduced with ambitious goals,
S: training and administrative coordination

  1. AOption (a)

    RQPS

  2. BOption (b)

    RSPQ

  3. COption (c)

    SQRP

  4. DOption (d)

    QRPS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RQPS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is RQPS.

Key Points

  • The sentence begins with the fixed phrase S1: Although the policy was, which requires a past participle or a descriptive phrase to complete the passive construction or provide a state of being. Phrase R (introduced with ambitious goals) logically follows S1 as it describes the initial state or action taken regarding the policy. Hence, statement R is the first part of the sequence.
  • The word although is a concessive conjunction used to introduce a contrast. After stating the ambitious goals in Phrase R, the sentence must transition to the contrasting result. Phrase Q (its effectiveness remained questionable) provides this contrast, indicating that despite the goals, the results were not certain. Hence, statement Q is the second part of the sequence.
  • Phrase P (because local authorities lacked adequate) introduces the causal reason for the failure or lack of effectiveness mentioned in Phrase Q. The conjunction because links the questionable effectiveness to its underlying cause. Hence, statement P is the third part of the sequence.
  • Phrase S (training and administrative coordination) acts as the direct object for the adjective adequate in Phrase P, completing the description of what the local authorities were missing. Hence, statement S is the final part of the sequence.
  • The complete coherent sentence formed is: 'Although the policy was introduced with ambitious goals, its effectiveness remained questionable because local authorities lacked adequate training and administrative coordination.'

 Additional Information

  • Sentence Rearrangement strategies for competitive exams:
  • Identify Opening Phrases: Look for introductory subjects or fixed starters provided in the question.
  • Look for Transition Words: Conjunctions like although, but, or yet indicate a shift in the narrative or logical flow.
  • Check Grammatical Antecedents: Ensure pronouns (like its in Phrase Q) have a clear noun referent (the policy in S1).
  • Causal Links: Words like because or since must be followed by a logical explanation or reason.

Question 33

Change the given sentence into passive voice.

Neeta cleans the floor every morning.

  1. AOption (a)

    The floor has been cleaned by Neeta every morning.

  2. BOption (b)

    The floor is cleaned by Neeta every morning.

  3. COption (c)

    The floor will be cleaned by Neeta every morning.

  4. DOption (d)

    The floor was being cleaned by Neeta every morning.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The floor is cleaned by Neeta every morning.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The floor is cleaned by Neeta every morning..

Key Points

  • The given sentence Neeta cleans the floor every morning is in the Active Voice and follows the Simple Present Tense structure. Hence, the statement is in the active form.
  • The structure for Simple Present Tense in active voice is Subject + Verb (s/es) + Object. Here, Neeta is the subject, cleans is the verb, and the floor is the direct object. Hence, the sentence identifies a regular habit or routine.
  • To convert a Simple Present Tense sentence into Passive Voice, the rule is: Object + is/am/are + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject. Hence, the passive structure requires the auxiliary verb is because the floor is a singular noun.
  • The Past Participle form of the verb clean is cleaned. Hence, the verb transformation follows standard grammatical rules for passive construction.
  • By applying the rule, the floor moves to the subject position, followed by is cleaned, then the agent by Neeta, and finally the time expression every morning remains unchanged at the end. Hence, the sentence The floor is cleaned by Neeta every morning is correct.

 Additional Information

  • Tense Identification in Passive Voice:
  • Present Perfect Passive: Uses has/have + been + V3. This is used for completed actions, which does not match the habitual nature of the original sentence.
  • Simple Future Passive: Uses will + be + V3. This indicates an action that is yet to happen, changing the original timeline of the sentence.
  • Present Continuous Passive: Uses is/am/are + being + V3. This refers to an action currently in progress at the moment of speaking.
  • Past Continuous Passive: Uses was/were + being + V3. This describes an ongoing action that happened in the past.

Question 34

Choose the most appropriate option to complete the given sentence.

The child spoke _______, making it difficult for others to understand him.

  1. AOption (a)

    clearly

  2. BOption (b)

    incoherently

  3. COption (c)

    softly

  4. DOption (d)

    politely

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

incoherently

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'incoherently'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "incoherently" means in a way that is unclear or confusing and lacks logical connection.
  • The sentence mentions that it was difficult for others to understand the child, which directly aligns with the meaning of speaking incoherently.
  • The other options like "clearly" or "politely" would make the child easy to understand or describe his manners, not his clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The child spoke incoherently, making it difficult for others to understand him.

Additional Information

  • Clearly: In a way that is easy to see, hear, or understand.
  • Softly: In a quiet or gentle manner.
  • Politely: In a way that shows good manners and respect for others.

Question 35

Find the misspelt word in the sentence given below.
Someone's opinion about a novel is completely irrelevent to whether you will like it or not.

  1. AOption (a)

    novel

  2. BOption (b)

    opnion

  3. COption (c)

    whether

  4. DOption (d)

    irrelevent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

irrelevent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: irrelevent.

Key Points

  • The word 'irrelevent' is misspelled in the given sentence. The correct spelling is 'irrelevant', which means not connected with or relevant to something. (अप्रासंगिक)
  • Example: The judge ruled that the evidence was irrelevant to the case.
  • 'Irrelevant' refers to something that does not apply to the current situation or matter at hand; it is the opposite of relevant. (बेमतलब)
  • Example: His personal comments are completely irrelevant to the discussion.
  • Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word is 'irrelevent'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: irrelevent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Novel (उपन्यास): A fictitious prose narrative of book length, typically representing character and action.
  • Example: She is currently writing her second novel.
  • Opinion (राय): A view or judgement formed about something, not necessarily based on fact or knowledge.
  • Example: In my opinion, this is the best movie of the year.
  • Whether (कि क्या): Expressing a doubt or choice between alternatives.
  • Example: I am not sure whether it will rain today or not.

Question 36

Arrange the following parts to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.

P. due to heavy rainfall
Q. the match was postponed
R. at the last moment
S. yesterday evening

  1. AOption (a)

    RQSP

  2. BOption (b)

    QPRS

  3. COption (c)

    SQRP

  4. DOption (d)

    SQPR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SQRP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SQRP.

Key Points

  • To form a meaningful sentence, we must identify the temporal context, the subject-verb agreement, and the causal relationship within the segments.
  • Segment S (yesterday evening) serves as an appropriate adverbial phrase of time to introduce the setting of the event. Hence, statement S is correct as the starting point.
  • Segment Q (the match was postponed) contains the principal clause featuring the subject (the match) and the passive verb form (was postponed), which logically follows the time reference. Hence, statement Q is correct as the second part.
  • Segment R (at the last moment) provides additional prepositional detail regarding the timing of the postponement action. Hence, statement R is correct as the third part.
  • Segment P (due to heavy rainfall) functions as the adverbial phrase of reason, explaining why the action in the main clause occurred. Hence, statement P is correct as the concluding part.
  • When combined, the sequence SQRP forms the sentence: Yesterday evening the match was postponed at the last moment due to heavy rainfall, which is grammatically sound and logically coherent.

 Additional Information

  • Sentence Structure Components:
  • Adverbials: Words or phrases like yesterday evening and at the last moment modify the verb postponed by providing time and circumstance.
  • Passive Voice: The construction was postponed is used because the match (the receiver of the action) is the focus rather than the organizer.
  • Causal Linkers: The phrase due to is a compound preposition used to introduce the reason for an occurrence, typically followed by a noun phrase like heavy rainfall.

Question 37

What word best describes a speech or piece of writing praising someone who has died?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tribute

  2. BOption (b)

    Eulogy

  3. COption (c)

    Obituary

  4. DOption (d)

    Elegy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Eulogy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Eulogy.

Key Points

  • A speech or piece of writing that highly praises someone or something, typically someone who has just died, is known as a eulogy. (प्रशंसा भाषण)
  • Example: The minister delivered a moving eulogy at the funeral service, highlighting the late doctor’s lifelong dedication to the poor.
  • 'Eulogy' specifically refers to the formal act of praising a deceased person during a memorial or funeral. (मृत व्यक्ति की प्रशंसा में भाषण)
  • Example: It was a beautiful eulogy that perfectly captured her spirit and sense of humor.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is- Eulogy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Tribute (श्रद्धांजलि): An act, statement, or gift that is intended to show gratitude, respect, or admiration.
  • Example: The concert was a tribute to the legendary singer who retired last year.
  • Obituary (शोक-संदेश/निधन-सूचना): A notice of a death, especially in a newspaper, typically including a brief biography of the deceased person.
  • Example: I read his obituary in the local newspaper this morning.
  • Elegy (शोकगीत): A poem of serious reflection, typically a lament for the dead.
  • Example: Thomas Gray’s Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard is one of the most famous poems in English literature.

Question 38

Identify the misspelt word in the sentence.
The committee discussed issues related to maintainance, efficiency, and productivity.

  1. AOption (a)

    efficiency

  2. BOption (b)

    maintainance

  3. COption (c)

    productivity

  4. DOption (d)

    issues

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

maintainance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is maintainance.

Key Points

  • The word maintainance is incorrectly spelled in the given sentence. In English orthography, the correct spelling is maintenance.
  • The error commonly arises from the base verb maintain; however, when it transforms into a noun, the ai vowel cluster changes to an e, and the suffix -ance is added.
  • Maintenance refers to the process of preserving a condition or situation or the state of being preserved, often applied to machinery, buildings, or legal alimony.
  • The term efficiency is spelled correctly and refers to the ability to achieve maximum productivity with minimum wasted effort or expense.
  • The word productivity is spelled correctly and denotes the state or quality of being productive or the rate of output per unit of input.
  • The word issues is spelled correctly and refers to important topics or problems for debate or discussion within the committee.

 Additional Information

  • Etymology and Usage:
  • The word maintenance originates from the Old French word mantenance, derived from maintenir.
  • Common misspellings often include maintainence or maintainance due to phonetic confusion with the root verb.
  • In industrial management, preventive maintenance is a critical strategy used to avoid equipment failure and ensure operational efficiency.
  • In linguistics, this represents a vowel reduction or change during morphological derivation, a frequent occurrence in Middle English transitions.

Question 39

Substitute the highlighted phrase with the most suitable word.

As he wandered through the cornfields, he was filled with a sentimental longing for the past.

  1. AOption (a)

    homesick

  2. BOption (b)

    solitary

  3. COption (c)

    euphoric

  4. DOption (d)

    nostalgic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

nostalgic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Nostalgic.

Key Points

  • The phrase 'filled with a sentimental longing for the past' describes a feeling of pleasure and also slight sadness when you think about things that happened in the past. (अतीत की सुखद यादों में खोया हुआ)
  • Example: Seeing his old school photos made him feel very sentimental about his childhood.
  • 'Nostalgic' refers to feeling, showing, or causing a sentimental longing or wistful affection for a period in the past. (पुरानी यादों से भरा हुआ)
  • Example: The old songs played on the radio made her feel nostalgic for her college days.
  • Hence, we can infer that the most suitable word to substitute the highlighted phrase is 'nostalgic'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Nostalgic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Homesick (घर की याद सताना): Feeling unhappy because you are away from home and miss your family and friends.
  • Example: After living abroad for a month, the student started to feel homesick.
  • Solitary (अकेला): Done or existing alone; enjoying being by oneself.
  • Example: He enjoys long, solitary walks in the woods to clear his mind.
  • Euphoric (अत्यधिक प्रसन्न): Characterized by or feeling intense excitement and happiness.
  • Example: The team was euphoric after winning the championship trophy.

Question 40

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The committee__________ its final decision tomorrow.

  1. AOption (a)

    will announce

  2. BOption (b)

    will have been announcing

  3. COption (c)

    was announcing

  4. DOption (d)

    announced

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

will announce

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'will announce'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the time adverbial "tomorrow," which indicates that the action will take place in the future.
  • The Simple Future Tense (will + base form of the verb) is used to express an action that has not yet happened and will occur at a specific time in the future.
  • Therefore, the correct verb form is "will announce."
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 do not fit the temporal context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The committee will announce its final decision tomorrow."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "will have been announcing" is the Future Perfect Continuous tense, which is used for an action that will continue up until a point in the future; it is not suitable for a single scheduled action like an announcement.
  • Option 3: "was announcing" is the Past Continuous tense, which describes an action that was happening in the past.
  • Option 4: "announced" is the Simple Past tense, used for actions that were completed in the past.

English 2 (10 questions)

Question 41

Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the highlighted word in the given sentence.

The new policy has been implemented to augment the company’s profits.

  1. AOption (a)

    Limit

  2. BOption (b)

    Reduce

  3. COption (c)

    Increase

  4. DOption (d)

    Stabilize

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Increase

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Increase.

Key Points

  • The word 'augment' means to make something greater by adding to it; to increase the size, amount, or value of something. (बढ़ाना)
  • Example: He had to take a second job to augment his income.
  • 'Increase' refers to the process of becoming or making something greater in size, amount, intensity, or degree. (वृद्धि करना)
  • Example: The company plans to increase its production capacity by next year.
  • Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'augment' is 'increase'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Increase.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Limit (सीमित करना): A point or level beyond which something does not or may not extend or pass.
  • Example: We must limit the amount of time spent on social media.
  • Reduce (कम करना): To make something smaller or less in amount, degree, or size.
  • Example: The shop offered a discount to reduce the remaining stock.
  • Stabilize (स्थिर करना): To make or become unlikely to change, fail, or decline.
  • Example: The patient's condition began to stabilize after the surgery.

Question 42

Substitute the underlined word segment with the correct proverb.
You don't need to try too hard to persuade him; as they say, a person's attractiveness can effortlessly charm or influence others, even with the slightest gesture.

  1. AOption (a)

    beauty draws with a single hair

  2. BOption (b)

    all that glitters is not gold

  3. COption (c)

    familiarity breeds contempt

  4. DOption (d)

    practice makes perfect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

beauty draws with a single hair

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: beauty draws with a single hair.

Key Points

  • The underlined segment 'a person's attractiveness can effortlessly charm or influence others, even with the slightest gesture' describes the powerful and effortless influence of physical beauty. (किसी व्यक्ति का आकर्षण दूसरों को सहजता से प्रभावित कर सकता है)
  • Example: She didn't have to say a word to get their attention; it is true that beauty draws with a single hair.
  • The proverb 'beauty draws with a single hair' means that beauty is so powerful that it can attract or influence people with the smallest or most delicate effort. (सुंदरता एक बाल के सहारे भी खींच लेती है/आकर्षण का अत्यधिक प्रभाव)
  • Example: The young prince was completely captivated by her grace, proving that beauty draws with a single hair.
  • Hence, we can infer that the correct proverb to substitute the underlined segment is 'beauty draws with a single hair'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: beauty draws with a single hair.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • All that glitters is not gold (हर चमकती चीज़ सोना नहीं होती): The attractive external appearance of something is not a reliable indication of its true nature.
  • Example: The job offer seemed amazing, but the long hours and low pay proved that all that glitters is not gold.
  • Familiarity breeds contempt (अधिक परिचय अनादर का कारण बनता है): Extensive knowledge of or close association with someone or something leads to a loss of respect for them.
  • Example: After working together in the same small office for ten years, they started to dislike each other; familiarity breeds contempt.
  • Practice makes perfect (अभ्यास मनुष्य को निपुण बनाता है): Doing something over and over again is the only way to learn to do it very well.
  • Example: Don't give up on the piano yet; remember that practice makes perfect.

Question 43

Identify the nearest antonym for the underlined word given in the sentence:

His criticisms were affected, her enthusiasms abominable.

  1. AOption (a)

    Preferable

  2. BOption (b)

    Contemptible

  3. COption (c)

    Miserable

  4. DOption (d)

    Desirable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Desirable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Desirable.

Key Points

  • The word abominable means very bad or unpleasant; causing moral revulsion. (घृणित/बहुत खराब)
  • Example: The weather conditions during the trek were abominable, making it impossible to reach the summit.
  • Desirable refers to something that is worth having or seeking; pleasing, excellent, or worthy of adulation. (वांछनीय/मोहक)
  • Example: It is highly desirable to have a strong background in mathematics for this engineering role.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of abominable is desirable.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Desirable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Preferable (बेहतर/अधिक पसंद करने योग्य): More desirable or suitable than others.
  • Example: For many people, a quiet evening at home is preferable to a loud party.
  • Contemptible (तिरस्कारपूर्ण/नीच): Deserving contempt; despicable or worthless.
  • Example: His contemptible behavior toward his colleagues led to his eventual dismissal.
  • Miserable (दुखी/दयनीय): Pitiably unhappy or wretched; causing unhappiness or discomfort.
  • Example: After losing the match, the entire team felt miserable and exhausted.

Question 44

In the following sentence, choose the word opposite in meaning to the highlighted word.

Her gestures were so inconspicuous that most people in the crowded auditorium failed to notice her subtle signals for help.

  1. AOption (a)

    Noticeable

  2. BOption (b)

    Distant

  3. COption (c)

    Silent

  4. DOption (d)

    Careful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Noticeable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Noticeable.

Key Points

  • The word inconspicuous means not clearly visible or attracting attention; not easily seen. (अगोचर / प्रत्यक्ष न होने वाला)
  • Example: The spy tried to remain inconspicuous by wearing ordinary clothes and blending into the crowd.
  • Noticeable refers to something that is easily seen or noticed; clear or apparent. (ध्यान देने योग्य / प्रत्यक्ष)
  • Example: There has been a noticeable improvement in the quality of the air since the new regulations were implemented.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of inconspicuous is noticeable.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Noticeable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Distant (दूर / अलग): Far away in space or time; not intimate; cool or reserved.
  • Example: The sound of distant thunder warned us that a storm was approaching.
  • Silent (मौन / शांत): Not making or accompanied by any sound.
  • Example: The library was perfectly silent, providing a great environment for studying.
  • Careful (सावधान / सतर्क): Making sure of avoiding potential danger, mishap, or harm; cautious.
  • Example: You must be very careful when handling these fragile glass ornaments.

Question 45

Replace the underlined segment in the sentence with the most appropriate proverb from the options given.
The mentor explained that misfortune often produces unexpected benefits.

  1. AOption (a)

    each cloud carries a silver lining

  2. BOption (b)

    every cloud has a silver lining

  3. COption (c)

    each cloud hides a silver lining

  4. DOption (d)

    every dark cloud has a lining

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

every cloud has a silver lining

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: every cloud has a silver lining.

Key Points

  • The underlined phrase 'misfortune often produces unexpected benefits' refers to the idea that every difficult or negative situation has a positive aspect or a hopeful side to it. (दुर्भाग्य अक्सर अप्रत्याशित लाभ पैदा करता है)
  • Example: Losing my job was tough, but it gave me time to start my own business, proving that misfortune often produces unexpected benefits.
  • The proverb 'every cloud has a silver lining' is a classic English idiom used to convey that there is always something good even in a bad situation; it perfectly matches the meaning of the underlined segment. (हर मुश्किल के पीछे एक उम्मीद की किरण होती है)
  • Example: Even though the project was cancelled, every cloud has a silver lining as we now have the budget for a better initiative.
  • Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate proverb to replace the underlined segment is 'every cloud has a silver lining'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- every cloud has a silver lining.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • each cloud carries a silver lining (प्रत्येक बादल एक आशा की किरण ले जाता है): This is an incorrect variation of the standard proverb.
  • Example: While the meaning is similar, it is not the standard idiomatic expression used in English.
  • each cloud hides a silver lining (प्रत्येक बादल एक आशा की किरण छुपाता है): This is another incorrect variation that changes the established wording of the proverb.
  • Example: People might understand you, but it is grammatically and idiomatically non-standard.
  • every dark cloud has a lining (हर काले बादल की एक परत होती है): This option is incomplete and misses the key word 'silver', which signifies the positive aspect.
  • Example: Without the word 'silver', the proverb loses its symbolic meaning of hope.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions below.

The Amazon rainforest, often called the "lungs of the Earth," produces approximately 20% of the world's oxygen and houses an astonishing 10% of all known species. Spanning nine countries across South America, it represents the planet's largest tropical rainforest, covering over 5.5 million square kilometres. However, decades of aggressive deforestation for agriculture, logging, and cattle ranching have stripped away nearly 17% of its original forest cover. Scientists warn that if deforestation crosses a critical 25% threshold, the forest may reach a dangerous "tipping point," triggering irreversible degradation. Indigenous communities, who have safeguarded these forests for centuries through sustainable practices, now stand as its most passionate defenders. Their rich traditional ecological knowledge offers invaluable insights into global conservation. Protecting the Amazon is not merely an environmental obligation — it is a civilizational necessity, as its collapse would accelerate global climate change at an unprecedented and catastrophic scale, threatening every nation on Earth.

Question 46

Select an appropriate title for the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Indigenous Communities and Their Cultural Heritage

  2. BOption (b)

    Oxygen Production Across the World's Forests

  3. COption (c)

    The Agricultural Expansion of South America

  4. DOption (d)

    The Amazon: Earth's Green Lifeline Under Threat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Amazon: Earth's Green Lifeline Under Threat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Amazon: Earth's Green Lifeline Under Threat.

Key Points

  • The passage introduces the Amazon rainforest as the lungs of the Earth, emphasizing its vital role in producing 20% of the world's oxygen and hosting 10% of known species.
  • It details the severe environmental pressures facing the region, noting that 17% of forest cover has already been lost due to deforestation, cattle ranching, and logging.
  • The text highlights a critical tipping point at 25% deforestation, which serves as a dire warning about the irreversible degradation and global climate change that would follow its collapse.
  • The narrative concludes by framing the protection of the Amazon as a civilizational necessity, successfully balancing its ecological value (lifeline) with the looming dangers (threat).
  • The passage states, Protecting the Amazon is not merely an environmental obligation — it is a civilizational necessity, which encapsulates the dual themes of the forest's importance and the urgency of its preservation. Hence, The Amazon: Earth's Green Lifeline Under Threat is the most appropriate title.

 Additional Information

  • Incorrect Options Analysis:
  • Indigenous Communities and Their Cultural Heritage: While the passage mentions Indigenous communities as passionate defenders and holders of traditional ecological knowledge, this is a supporting detail rather than the primary focus of the entire text.
  • Oxygen Production Across the World's Forests: The text mentions oxygen production specifically regarding the Amazon (20%) to illustrate its importance; it does not provide a comparative study of various forests globally.
  • The Agricultural Expansion of South America: The passage mentions agriculture and cattle ranching as drivers of deforestation, but these are presented as negative impacts (threats) rather than a central theme celebrating or detailing economic expansion.

Question 47

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The economic benefits of logging in the Amazon basin

  2. BOption (b)

    The migration patterns of species within tropical forests

  3. COption (c)

    A comparison of rainforests across different continents

  4. DOption (d)

    The critical importance of the Amazon and the dangers it faces

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The critical importance of the Amazon and the dangers it faces

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The critical importance of the Amazon and the dangers it faces.

Key Points

  • The passage establishes the ecological significance of the Amazon rainforest by highlighting its role as the lungs of the Earth, contributing 20% of global oxygen and hosting 10% of known species.
  • It identifies severe anthropogenic threats, specifically citing that agriculture, logging, and cattle ranching have already resulted in the loss of 17% of forest cover.
  • The text emphasizes a scientific warning regarding a 25% tipping point, beyond which irreversible degradation occurs, making the protection of the forest a civilizational necessity to prevent catastrophic climate change.
  • The narrative integrates the role of Indigenous communities and their traditional ecological knowledge as a vital solution for global conservation efforts.
  • The central theme is supported by the concluding line: Protecting the Amazon is not merely an environmental obligation — it is a civilizational necessity, which encapsulates both its value and the risks involved.

 Additional Information

  • Incorrect Options Analysis:
  • Economic benefits of logging: While the passage mentions logging as a cause of deforestation, it frames it as a threat rather than a benefit to be promoted.
  • Migration patterns: Although the passage mentions the Amazon houses 10% of species, it provides no data or discussion regarding the migration habits of these animals.
  • Comparison of rainforests: The text focuses exclusively on the Amazon spanning nine countries and 5.5 million square kilometres; it does not compare it with forests in Africa or Asia.

Question 48

Identify the inference that can be drawn from the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Deforestation will stop entirely if indigenous communities take charge

  2. BOption (b)

    Cattle ranching is the only cause of deforestation in South America

  3. COption (c)

    Losing the Amazon would have severe consequences for the entire planet's climate

  4. DOption (d)

    The Amazon has already crossed its ecological tipping point

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Losing the Amazon would have severe consequences for the entire planet's climate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Losing the Amazon would have severe consequences for the entire planet's climate.

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly states that protecting the Amazon is a civilizational necessity because its collapse would accelerate global climate change at an unprecedented and catastrophic scale. This directly supports the inference that the loss of this ecosystem has severe global repercussions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The text mentions that indigenous communities are the most passionate defenders of the forest, but it does not claim that their leadership would cause deforestation to stop entirely; rather, it highlights their sustainable practices and ecological knowledge. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The passage identifies agriculture, logging, and cattle ranching as contributors to forest loss. Therefore, claiming cattle ranching is the only cause is a factual inaccuracy based on the provided text. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • According to the passage, the forest has lost nearly 17% of its cover, and the tipping point is predicted to occur at 25%. Since 17% is less than 25%, the forest has not yet crossed this threshold. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

  • Amazon Rainforest:
  • Size and Scale: Covers over 5.5 million square kilometres across nine countries in South America.
  • Biological Importance: Known as the lungs of the Earth, it produces 20% of the world's oxygen and hosts 10% of known species.
  • Threat Factors: The tipping point mechanism refers to a self-perpetuating cycle where the forest can no longer generate its own rainfall, leading to irreversible degradation into a dry savannah.
  • Conservation Actors: Indigenous communities utilize traditional ecological knowledge to maintain biodiversity, serving as a primary defense against industrial exploitation.

Question 49

Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Urgent and cautionary

  2. BOption (b)

    Optimistic and celebratory

  3. COption (c)

    Indifferent and detached

  4. DOption (d)

    Humorous and light-hearted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Urgent and cautionary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Urgent and cautionary.

Key Points

  • The passage adopts an Urgent and cautionary tone by highlighting the immediate and severe risks facing the Amazon rainforest, emphasizing that its collapse would trigger global climate change at an unprecedented and catastrophic scale.
  • The author uses alarming data, such as the loss of 17% of forest cover and the warning that reaching a 25% threshold represents a dangerous tipping point for irreversible degradation.
  • The text frames the protection of the rainforest as a civilizational necessity rather than just a simple choice, indicating a high level of seriousness and concern for the future of every nation on Earth.
  • The mention of aggressive deforestation for cattle ranching and logging serves as a warning about the consequences of human activity on the planet's largest tropical rainforest.

 Additional Information

  • Reasoning for rejecting other tones:
  • Optimistic and celebratory: This is incorrect because, while the passage acknowledges the forest as the lungs of the Earth, the overall focus is on its destruction and the catastrophic threats it faces.
  • Indifferent and detached: This is incorrect as the author uses strong, emotive language like passionate defenders, catastrophic scale, and threatening every nation, showing deep involvement.
  • Humorous and light-hearted: This is incorrect because the subject matter involves global environmental collapse and extinction threats, which are treated with gravity and solemnity.

Question 50

Choose the correct antonym of the word "irreversible" as used in the passage.

  1. AOption (a)

    Correctable

  2. BOption (b)

    Devastating

  3. COption (c)

    Accelerated

  4. DOption (d)

    Permanent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Correctable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Correctable.

Key Points

  • The word irreversible is an adjective used in the passage to describe degradation that cannot be undone, altered, or returned to its original state once it occurs. Hence, it implies a condition of permanence or a point of no return.
  • The term Correctable refers to something that can be rectified, remedied, or restored to a previous or proper condition. Because it denotes the possibility of reversal or repair, it serves as the direct antonym (opposite) to irreversible.
  • In the context of the Amazon rainforest, the passage suggests that reaching a tipping point would lead to damage that is irreversible (incapable of being fixed), making Correctable its logical opposite.

 Additional Information

  • Devastating:
  • This refers to something that causes severe shock, distress, or widespread destruction. In the passage, it describes the nature of the damage but does not address the concept of reversibility.
  • Accelerated:
  • This term means to increase in speed, rate, or velocity. While the passage mentions accelerated climate change, it relates to the tempo of an event rather than whether the event can be undone.
  • Permanent:
  • This is a synonym for irreversible. It describes a state intended to last or remain unchanged indefinitely. Since the question asks for an antonym, this option is incorrect.

General Knowledge 1 (15 questions)

Question 51

Who is the head of the Union Council of Ministers in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lok Sabha Speaker

  2. BOption (b)

    Prime Minister of India

  3. COption (c)

    President of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Vice President of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Prime Minister of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Prime Minister of India.

Key Points

  • According to Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
  • The Prime Minister is appointed by the President under Article 75, and other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • As the head of the Union Council of Ministers, the Prime Minister presiding over the meetings of the Cabinet and influences its decisions significantly.
  • The Prime Minister acts as the chief link between the President and the Council of Ministers, communicating all decisions relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union.
  • The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People), ensuring a Parliamentary form of government.

 Additional Information

  • President of India
  • The President is the Executive Head of the State and all executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name.
  • He is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India.
  • Lok Sabha Speaker
  • The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lower House of Parliament.
  • He maintains order and decorum in the House and decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.
  • Vice President of India
  • The Vice President acts as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • He discharges the functions of the President during casual vacancies or the absence of the President.

Question 52

The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were primarily inspired by the constitutional model of which country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ireland

  2. BOption (b)

    Canada

  3. COption (c)

    United States of America

  4. DOption (d)

    United Kingdom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ireland

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ireland.

Key Points

  • The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, specifically covering Articles 36 to 51.
  • The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed this concept from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had itself adopted it from the Spanish Constitution. Hence, the model is primarily inspired by Ireland.
  • The main objective of the DPSP is to establish social and economic democracy in the country and to ensure that India remains a Welfare State.
  • Unlike Fundamental Rights, these principles are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation as per Article 37.
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as Novel Features of the Indian Constitution, emphasizing their role in guiding the state to create a just society.

 Additional Information

  • Canada:
  • The Indian Constitution adopted the Federation with a strong Centre, Residuary Powers vesting in the Centre, and the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court from the Canadian model.
  • United States of America:
  • Significant features borrowed include Fundamental Rights, Judicial Review, the Preamble, and the procedure for the Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges.
  • United Kingdom:
  • The Parliamentary form of government, Rule of Law, Single Citizenship, and the Cabinet System were largely influenced by the British constitutional framework.

Question 53

According to Article _______ of the Indian Constitution, the State shall, in particular, strive to minimise the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations.

  1. AOption (a)

    57

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

38

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 38.

Key Points

  • Article 38 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
  • The specific clause mentioned in the question was added by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, which mandates that the State shall strive to minimise inequalities in income and eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities.
  • This directive applies not just to individuals but also to groups of people residing in different geographical areas or engaged in different vocations.
  • It serves as a foundational pillar of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), aiming to establish social, economic, and political justice as envisioned in the Preamble.

 Additional Information

  • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • Contained in Part IV of the Constitution, ranging from Article 36 to 51.
  • Borrowed from the Irish Constitution, these principles are non-justiciable in nature but fundamental to the governance of the country.
  • Article 23: Pertains to Fundamental Rights (Part III) and prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour.
  • Article 45: Focuses on the provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years.
  • Article 57: Relates to the eligibility for re-election of the President of India, stating that a person who holds or has held office as President shall be eligible for re-election to that office.

Question 54

Which of the following pairs correctly associates the personalities with their roles in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sarada Devi – Spiritual partner of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

  2. BOption (b)

    Khudiram Chatterjee – Ramakrishna’s disciple

  3. COption (c)

    Narendra Nath Datta – Priest at Dakshineswar before Ramakrishna

  4. DOption (d)

    Chandramani Devi – British governor of Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sarada Devi – Spiritual partner of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sarada Devi - Spiritual partner of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.

Key Points

  • Sarada Devi, popularly known as the Holy Mother, was the wife and spiritual consort of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, a mystic and saint of 19th-century Bengal. She played a pivotal role in the Ramakrishna Movement and acted as a spiritual guide after her husband's passing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Khudiram Bose (often confused with the surname Chatterjee in common errors) was a revolutionary who was executed for his role in the Muzaffarpur conspiracy case; he was not a direct disciple of Ramakrishna in the context of monastic leaders. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Narendra Nath Datta, who later became Swami Vivekananda, was the primary disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa; he did not serve as a priest at Dakshineswar before Ramakrishna. Ramkumar Chattopadhyay, Ramakrishna's elder brother, was the original priest. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Chandramani Devi was the mother of Sri Ramakrishna; she was a village woman from Kamarpukur and had no connection to the role of a British governor of Bengal. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

  • Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa:
  • He served as the priest of the Bhavatarini Kali Temple at Dakshineswar.
  • He advocated for the universality of all religions, famously stating As many faiths, so many paths.
  • Swami Vivekananda (Narendra Nath Datta):
  • He founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to spread the teachings of his guru and perform social service.
  • He gained international fame after his speech at the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893.
  • The Dakshineswar Kali Temple:
  • This temple was built by Rani Rashmoni in 1855 on the banks of the Hooghly River.
  • It became the center for Ramakrishna's spiritual practices and the meeting point for his disciples.

Question 55

In the Gandhian phase, how were the provincial committees of the Indian National Congress organized to spread nationalism?

  1. AOption (a)

    Along religious communities (Hindus, Muslims, etc.).

  2. BOption (b)

    Along linguistic (language) regions, rather than British administrative boundaries.

  3. COption (c)

    Strictly along the existing British-provincial borders.

  4. DOption (d)

    In secret, with no formal regional divisions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Along linguistic (language) regions, rather than British administrative boundaries.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Along linguistic (language) regions, rather than British administrative boundaries.

Key Points

  • During the Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in 1920, a major structural reorganization was undertaken under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi to transform the party into a mass-based revolutionary organization. Hence, the provincial committees were organized along linguistic lines, rather than following British administrative boundaries.
  • The primary objective of creating Linguistic Provincial Congress Committees (PCCs) was to bridge the gap between the English-educated elite and the common masses by conducting political discourse in the mother tongue of the people. Hence, organizing along linguistic regions is correct.
  • This shift allowed Congress to penetrate deep into rural areas and small towns, as the vernacular language became the medium for spreading nationalist consciousness and the message of Swaraj. Hence, the movement became more inclusive.
  • By rejecting the artificial British provinces, which were created for administrative convenience or to divide communities, Congress validated the cultural and linguistic identities of the Indian people, strengthening the demand for linguistic states in post-independence India. Hence, the administrative boundaries of the British were ignored for organizational purposes.

 Additional Information

  • Evolution of Congress Structure:
  • The 1920 Constitution of the Congress introduced a 15-member Working Committee (CWC) to look after the daily affairs of the party.
  • The membership fee was reduced to four annas per year, enabling the peasantry and the working class to join the nationalist fold formally.
  • The linguistic principle adopted during this phase laid the foundation for the Dhar Commission and JVP Committee discussions regarding the reorganization of states after 1947.
  • This period marked the transition from constitutional agitation to Non-Cooperation and Passive Resistance, requiring a robust grassroots network across all language zones of the subcontinent.

Question 56

The music of South India is known as _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Hindustani music

  2. BOption (b)

    Light classical music

  3. COption (c)

    Folk music

  4. DOption (d)

    Carnatic music

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Carnatic music

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carnatic music.

Key Points

  • Carnatic music, also known as Karnatak Sangeetham, is the primary system of Indian classical music associated with South India, including the modern states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
  • The system is based on a complex arrangement of 72 Melakarta ragas (parent scales) and a rigorous Talum (rhythmic) structure, emphasizing vocal performances over instrumental ones.
  • The Purandara Dasa (1484–1564) is revered as the Pitamaha (grandfather) of Carnatic music for formulating the basic lessons and grading systems used in training even today.
  • The peak of this musical tradition is attributed to the Trinity of Carnatic music: Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Syama Sastri, who composed legendary works in the 18th and 19th centuries.
  • Unlike its northern counterpart, Carnatic music remained relatively uninfluenced by Persian or Islamic musical traditions, preserving its ancient Hindu roots and temple-based origins.

 Additional Information

  • Hindustani music
  • It is the classical music tradition of North India, which evolved through the synthesis of indigenous Indian sounds and Perso-Arabic influences.
  • It features various styles or schools known as Gharanas, such as Gwalior, Agra, and Jaipur-Atrauli.
  • Light classical music
  • These genres, such as Thumri, Dadra, and Tappa, are based on classical ragas but allow more flexibility and emotional expression, focusing on Shringar Rasa (romanticism).
  • Folk music
  • This refers to traditional music rooted in the rural culture and daily lives of common people, varying significantly by region, such as Baul in Bengal or Lavani in Maharashtra.

Question 57

When were the Ellora Caves declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

  1. AOption (a)

    2000

  2. BOption (b)

    1995

  3. COption (c)

    1976

  4. DOption (d)

    1983

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1983

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1983.

Key Points

  • The Ellora Caves, located in the Sambhaji Nagar (formerly Aurangabad) district of Maharashtra, were officially inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the year 1983.
  • This cultural site was recognized by UNESCO during the same year as the Ajanta Caves, Agra Fort, and the Taj Mahal, marking the first set of World Heritage Sites in India.
  • The site comprises 34 monasteries and temples extending over a distance of more than 2 kilometers, which were dug side by side in the wall of a high basalt cliff.
  • The complex represents a unique artistic achievement and a sequence of monuments dating from 600 to 1000 CE, showcasing the religious harmony of ancient India through Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain monuments.

 Additional Information

  • Structural Features of Ellora:
  • Cave 16 houses the famous Kailasa Temple, which is the largest monolithic rock-cut structure in the world, dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • The construction of the Kailasa Temple is attributed to the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I in the 8th century.
  • The caves are categorized by religion: Caves 1 to 12 are Buddhist, Caves 13 to 29 are Hindu, and Caves 30 to 34 are Jain.
  • The Vishvakarma Cave (Cave 10) is a famous Buddhist Chaitya known for its multi-storied structure and a large seated Buddha.
  • The Indra Sabha (Cave 32) is a notable Jain cave featuring elaborate carvings of Tirthankaras and Yakshas.
  • The site is managed and protected by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act.

Question 58

Which city served as the initial trading factory for the British East India Company in 1612 before expanding to Bombay and Madras?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mysore

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcutta (Kolkata)

  3. COption (c)

    Surat

  4. DOption (d)

    Goa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Surat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Surat.

Key Points

  • The British East India Company established its first formal trading post or factory in the port city of Surat in 1612. This followed the Battle of Swally, where the English successfully defeated the Portuguese fleet, thereby gaining favor with the Mughal Empire. Hence, the statement regarding the initial factory is correct.
  • The Mughal Emperor Jahangir issued a farman (royal decree) in 1613, which officially permitted the English to establish a permanent factory at Surat under the leadership of Thomas Aldworth. Hence, the location of the primary English foothold is correct.
  • Prior to this, Captain William Hawkins had visited the court of Jahangir in 1608 but failed to secure trading rights due to Portuguese opposition; the victory in 1612 was the turning point that solidified Surat as the center of British operations on the West Coast of India. Hence, the historical timeline of the factory establishment is correct.
  • Surat served as the headquarters for the British East India Company until the presidency was shifted to Bombay (now Mumbai) in 1687. Hence, its role as the initial administrative hub is correct.

 Additional Information

  • Calcutta (Kolkata):
  • Established much later, around 1690, by Job Charnock through the fortification of three villages: Sutanuti, Gobindapur, and Kalikata.
  • It became the capital of British India in 1772 and remained so until 1911.
  • Goa:
  • Maintained as the primary stronghold and capital of the Portuguese State of India starting from 1510 after its capture by Alfonso de Albuquerque.
  • It remained under Portuguese control until its annexation by India in 1961.
  • Mysore:
  • A prominent South Indian kingdom ruled by the Wodeyar dynasty and later by Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan.
  • It was a site of the four Anglo-Mysore Wars rather than an initial British factory location.

Question 59

Which part of the Western Coastal Plains is famous for lagoons?

  1. AOption (a)

    Coromandel Coast

  2. BOption (b)

    Gujarat Coast

  3. COption (c)

    Malabar Coast

  4. DOption (d)

    Konkan Coast

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Malabar Coast

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Malabar Coast.

Key Points

  • The Malabar Coast represents the southern portion of the Western Coastal Plains of India, stretching primarily along the state of Kerala and parts of Karnataka.
  • This region is geographically renowned for its extensive network of lagoons and backwaters, locally referred to as Kayals, which are formed by the action of rivers and waves.
  • The most famous lagoon in this region is the Vembanad Lake, which is the longest lake in India and a significant Ramsar site for wetland conservation.
  • These backwaters serve as vital arteries for inland navigation, fishing, and the cultivation of specific crops like paddy in the Kuttanad region, which is below sea level.
  • The formation of these lagoons is attributed to the deposition of sediments and the presence of barrier islands that separate the inland water bodies from the Arabian Sea.

 Additional Information

  • Coromandel Coast:
  • Located on the Eastern Coastal Plains, extending between False Divi Point and Kanyakumari.
  • Unlike the Malabar Coast, it receives significant rainfall during the North-East Monsoon (winter) season.
  • Konkan Coast:
  • The northern stretch of the Western Coastal Plains, extending from Daman to Goa.
  • It is characterized by a rugged coastline with submerged features and is known for Alphonso mangoes and cashews.
  • Gujarat Coast:
  • Features the longest coastline among Indian states and includes the Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat.
  • It is dominated by salt marshes (Rann of Kachchh) and alluvial plains rather than classic lagoons.

Question 60

Which human disease is specifically characterised by progressive damage to the immune system and is transmitted mainly through infected blood or body fluids?

  1. AOption (a)

    Typhoid

  2. BOption (b)

    Malaria

  3. COption (c)

    Tuberculosis

  4. DOption (d)

    Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

Key Points

  • Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
  • AIDS is a chronic, life-threatening condition caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
  • It is specifically characterized by the progressive failure of the immune system, making the body vulnerable to life-threatening opportunistic infections and cancers.
  • The virus attacks and destroys CD4 cells (T-helper cells), which are crucial for the body's immune response.
  • Transmission occurs mainly through infected blood, sexual contact, sharing of contaminated needles, or from an infected mother to her child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.

Additional Information

  • Typhoid
  • It is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi.
  • It spreads through contaminated food and water and is characterized by high fever, headache, and abdominal pain.
  • Malaria
  • It is caused by Plasmodium parasites which are transmitted through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
  • It primarily affects the red blood cells and the liver.
  • Tuberculosis (TB)
  • It is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria.
  • It primarily affects the lungs and spreads through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
  • Diagnosis and Prevention
  • The ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) test is commonly used to screen for HIV/AIDS.
  • Prevention includes using barrier methods during sexual contact, ensuring the use of sterile needles, and screening blood before transfusion.

Question 61

According to the Article _________ of the Indian Constitution the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.

  1. AOption (a)

    65

  2. BOption (b)

    72

  3. COption (c)

    78

  4. DOption (d)

    56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

72

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 72.

Key Points

  • Article 72 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
  • This judicial power of the Executive is applicable in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial, offenses against Union Laws, or in all cases involving a sentence of death.
  • A Pardon completely absolves the convict from all sentences and disqualifications, while Commutation denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form (e.g., death sentence to rigorous imprisonment).
  • Remission involves reducing the period of the sentence without changing its character, whereas Respite denotes awarding a lesser sentence due to special facts like pregnancy or physical disability.
  • Reprieve implies a stay of the execution of a sentence, especially a death sentence, for a temporary period to allow the convict time to seek a pardon or commutation.

 Additional Information

  • Article 161: This article grants similar powers to the Governor of a State, but with two distinct differences: the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence and cannot grant mercy in cases of Court Martial.
  • Article 56: It details the Term of Office of President, stating that the President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date of entering office.
  • Article 65: It specifies that the Vice-President shall act as President or discharge his functions during casual vacancies in the office or during the absence of the President.
  • Article 78: It defines the duties of the Prime Minister regarding the furnishing of information to the President about the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.

Question 62

Which organic acid, present in the highest concentration and universally recognised in food chemistry, is primarily and directly responsible for the sour taste of fresh lemon (Citrus limon) juice?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ethanoic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Ascorbic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Citric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Lactic acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Citric acid

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Organic Acids in Citrus Fruits

  • Organic acids are responsible for the distinct sour taste and acidity of various fruits and vegetables.
  • In the case of citrus fruits like lemons and limes, a specific weak organic acid serves as a natural preservative and the primary source of tartness.
  • While fruits may contain multiple acids, one dominant acid typically determines the pH level and flavor profile.

EXPLANATION:

  • Citric acid is a weak organic acid with the chemical formula C6H8O7C_{6}H_{8}O_{7}. It occurs naturally in citrus fruits.
  • In fresh lemon juice (Citrus limon), Citric acid is present in the highest concentration, typically making up 5% to 6% of the juice.
  • It is universally recognized in food chemistry as the primary agent responsible for the sharp, sour taste characteristic of lemons.
  • Let's examine the other options provided:
  • Ethanoic acid (Acetic acid) is the main component of vinegar, not fresh citrus juice.
  • Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is present in lemons and is essential for health, but it is found in much lower concentrations than citric acid and is not the primary source of the sour taste.
  • Lactic acid is primarily found in sour milk products or produced in muscles during intense exercise; it is not the primary acid in lemons.

Therefore, Citric acid is the organic acid primarily and directly responsible for the sour taste of fresh lemon juice.

Question 63

Which court first promoted the use of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Consumer Court

  2. BOption (b)

    Supreme Court

  3. COption (c)

    Family Court

  4. DOption (d)

    High Court

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Supreme Court

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

  • The Supreme Court of India introduced and promoted Public Interest Litigation (PIL) during the late 1970s and early 1980s to increase access to justice for the marginalized sections of society.
  • The concept of PIL is a departure from the traditional doctrine of Locus Standi, which required that only the person whose rights were violated could approach the court.
  • Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati are considered the pioneers of the PIL movement in India, particularly through landmark cases like S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India.
  • The first reported case of PIL in India was Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar (1979), which focused on the inhuman conditions of under-trial prisoners and led to the release of thousands of inmates.
  • The Supreme Court exercised its powers under Article 32 of the Constitution of India to entertain PILs, ensuring that the Fundamental Rights of citizens are protected regardless of their socio-economic status.

 Additional Information

  • Consumer Court
  • Established under the Consumer Protection Act to resolve disputes specifically related to consumer grievances and unfair trade practices.
  • Family Court
  • Created under the Family Courts Act, 1984, these courts handle matters relating to marriage, divorce, custody, and family disputes through a conciliatory approach.
  • High Court
  • While High Courts can entertain PILs under Article 226, the initiative and legal framework for PIL were originally pioneered and promoted by the Supreme Court.

Question 64

The Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976, introduced which new Part containing Fundamental Duties of citizens?

  1. AOption (a)

    Part X

  2. BOption (b)

    Part IVA

  3. COption (c)

    Part XII

  4. DOption (d)

    Part IXA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Part IVA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Part IVA.

Key Points

  • The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • This amendment inserted a completely new section titled Part IVA, which consists of only one Article, namely Article 51A.
  • Originally, the 42nd Amendment introduced ten Fundamental Duties to the citizens, emphasizing the responsibilities of the people toward the nation.
  • The concept of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR (now Russia), reflecting the socialist ideology of balancing rights with duties.
  • These duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning the courts cannot directly enforce them, though they serve as a guide for interpreting constitutional laws.

 Additional Information

  • Evolution of Fundamental Duties:
  • The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added an 11th Fundamental Duty, which mandates parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
  • Other Parts of the Constitution:
  • Part X: Deals with the Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244A).
  • Part XII: Governs Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits (Articles 264 to 300A).
  • Part IXA: Specifically addresses The Municipalities, added via the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Question 65

The newer, younger deposits of alluvium found in the floodplains of rivers are known as ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Khadar

  2. BOption (b)

    Terai

  3. COption (c)

    Bhangar

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhabar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Khadar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Khadar.

Key Points

  • The Northern Plains of India are primarily formed by alluvial deposits brought down by the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra river systems.
  • Khadar refers to the newer, younger deposits of alluvium found in the floodplains of rivers, which are renewed almost every year through annual flooding.
  • Because these deposits are constantly replenished with fresh silt and clay, the Khadar soil is highly fertile and ideal for intensive agriculture.
  • This belt is located at a lower altitude compared to the Bhangar, making it more susceptible to regular inundation during the monsoon season.
  • The texture of Khadar soil is generally fine-grained and lacks the high concentration of calcareous kankar nodules found in older alluvial soils.

 Additional Information

  • Bhangar
  • Represents the older alluvium of the plains and lies above the floodplains of the rivers, forming a terrace-like feature.
  • The soil in this region contains calcareous deposits locally known as Kankar, making it less fertile than Khadar.
  • Bhabar
  • A narrow belt ranging from 8 to 16 km in width, lying parallel to the Shiwaliks slopes.
  • It consists of pebbles and rock debris where rivers disappear underground due to high porosity.
  • Terai
  • Located south of the Bhabar belt, it is a marshy, swampy, and damp region created by the re-emergence of underground streams.
  • Historically, this region was covered with thick forests and possessed a high biodiversity before being cleared for cultivation and settlement.

General Knowledge 2 (10 questions)

Question 66

Why is skill development crucial for addressing unemployment?

  1. AOption (a)

    It replaces the need for traditional schooling.

  2. BOption (b)

    It focuses solely on manual labor.

  3. COption (c)

    It prepares individuals with skills that match industry demands.

  4. DOption (d)

    It decreases the labor force.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It prepares individuals with skills that match industry demands.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It prepares individuals with skills that match industry demands.

Key Points

  • Skill development acts as a bridge between academic education and employability by equipping the workforce with technical competencies and soft skills required in the modern job market.
  • The primary cause of structural unemployment is a mismatch between the skills workers possess and the skills required by employers; professional training addresses this gap directly.
  • By aligning vocational training with industry demands, individuals become more productive and adaptable to technological advancements, such as Automation and Artificial Intelligence.
  • Enhanced skills increase the human capital of a nation, leading to higher labor productivity, which encourages private sector investment and job creation.
  • Skill development also fosters entrepreneurship, allowing individuals to create their own micro-enterprises rather than solely relying on existing vacancies in the labor market.

 Additional Information

  • National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC):
  • Established in 2008 under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model to promote vocational training in India.
  • It aims to create for-profit vocational institutions and provides funding to build scalable and quality training initiatives.
  • Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):
  • A flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) launched in 2015.
  • It provides industry-relevant skill training and certification to help Indian youth secure a better livelihood.
  • Skill India Mission:
  • Launched by the Government of India with the goal of training over 400 million people in different skills by 2022.
  • It includes initiatives like National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) and SANKALP to strengthen institutional mechanisms.

Question 67

Who among the following women cricketers was awarded the Padma Shri 2026?

  1. AOption (a)

    Harmanpreet Kaur Bhullar

  2. BOption (b)

    Tripti Mukherjee

  3. COption (c)

    Savita Punia

  4. DOption (d)

    Deepika Reddy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Harmanpreet Kaur Bhullar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Harmanpreet Kaur Bhullar.

Key Points

  • The Government of India announced the prestigious Padma Shri award, the fourth-highest civilian award in the country, to women's national cricket team captain Harmanpreet Kaur Bhullar for the year 2026.
  • She has been recognized for her outstanding contributions to the field of sports, particularly for elevating the profile of women's cricket in India and globally.
  • Under her captaincy, the Indian Women's Cricket Team achieved significant milestones, including winning the gold medal at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou and finishing as runners-up in multiple global tournaments.
  • She holds the record for being the first Indian cricketer to score a century in a Women's Twenty20 International (WT20I) match.

 Additional Information

  • Harmanpreet Kaur Bhullar:
  • She made her international debut in 2009 and was previously honored with the prestigious Arjuna Award for cricket in 2017.
  • She plays as an all-rounder and is known for her aggressive batting style, famously scoring 171 not out against Australia in the 2017 ICC Women's World Cup semi-final.
  • Other Nominees and awardees:
  • Savita Punia is a prominent Indian field hockey player who serves as the goalkeeper and captain of the Indian Women's Hockey Team.
  • Tripti Mukherjee is a distinguished Indian classical vocalist of the Mewati Gharana, recognized for her immense contributions to classical music.
  • Deepika Reddy is an acclaimed exponent and guru of the classical dance form Kuchipudi, known for her performances worldwide.

Question 68

On which day is the International Day Against Colonialism in All Its Forms and Manifestations observed, as established by the UN in 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    10 December

  2. BOption (b)

    16 December

  3. COption (c)

    12 December

  4. DOption (d)

    14 December

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14 December

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 14 December.

Key Points

  • The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution in 2025 to officially designate 14 December as the International Day Against Colonialism in All Its Forms and Manifestations.
  • The date 14 December carries immense historical weight as it marks the anniversary of the adoption of the Declaration on the Granting of Independence to Colonial Countries and Peoples by the UNGA in 1960 through Resolution 1514 (XV).
  • This new international day aims to reiterate the global commitment to the eradication of colonialism and serves as a reminder of the inalienable right of all peoples to self-determination and independence.
  • The establishment of this day emphasizes the need to address the legacy of colonialism, which continues to impact socio-economic structures and human rights in various regions across the globe.
  • The resolution was introduced to ensure that the international community remains vigilant against neo-colonialism and other modern forms of exploitation that undermine the sovereign equality of nations.

 Additional Information

  • Resolution 1514 (XV):
  • Commonly known as the Magna Carta of Decolonization, it declared that the subjection of peoples to alien subjugation and domination is a denial of fundamental human rights.
  • It stated that inadequacy of political, economic, social or educational preparedness should never serve as a pretext for delaying independence.
  • United Nations Decolonization Efforts:
  • The Special Committee on Decolonization (C-24) was established in 1961 to monitor the implementation of the Declaration.
  • Currently, there are still 17 Non-Self-Governing Territories remaining on the UN list that have not yet achieved full self-government.
  • Other Significant Dates:
  • 10 December is observed as Human Rights Day, commemorating the adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948.

Question 69

Which of the following states did NOT primarily benefit during the first phase of the Green Revolution (from the mid-1960s up to the mid-1970s)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bihar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • The First Phase of the Green Revolution, spanning from the mid-1960s to the mid-1970s, was characterized by the introduction of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, particularly for wheat and rice.
  • During this initial period, the application of new technology was restricted to regions with assured irrigation and developed infrastructure to minimize the risk of crop failure.
  • States like Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh were the primary beneficiaries due to their existing canal systems and favorable agro-climatic conditions for wheat.
  • In Southern India, regions like Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu also saw significant gains, especially in rice cultivation, due to better access to water resources and administrative support.
  • Bihar, along with other Eastern Indian states like Odisha and West Bengal, did not primarily benefit during this first phase because of a lack of institutional credit, poor land tenure systems, and inadequate irrigation facilities.

 Additional Information

  • Second Phase of the Green Revolution:
  • Starting from the mid-1970s to the mid-1980s, the technology spread to a wider range of states and covered a larger variety of crops.
  • It was during this period that the Eastern region and semi-arid areas began to adopt HYV technology more effectively.
  • Key Components:
  • The revolution relied on the Package Programme, which included chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and controlled water supply.
  • M.S. Swaminathan is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India for his role in introducing Mexican wheat varieties.
  • Impact:
  • India achieved self-sufficiency in food grains, moving away from the ship-to-mouth existence and dependence on PL-480 imports from the USA.

Question 70

Which Government of India scheme was launched in 2020 to provide working capital loans to street vendors affected by the Covid-19 pandemic?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stand-Up India

  2. BOption (b)

    MUDRA Yojana

  3. COption (c)

    Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

  4. DOption (d)

    PM SVANidhi Scheme

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PM SVANidhi Scheme

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PM SVANidhi Scheme.

Key Points

  • The PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs on June 1, 2020.
  • The primary objective of the scheme is to empower street vendors by providing affordable working capital loans to help them resume their livelihoods, which were severely impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic lockdowns.
  • Initially, the scheme offered a collateral-free loan of up to Rs. 10,000 with a tenure of 1 year; subsequently, second and third tranches of Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 50,000 were introduced for those who repaid their earlier loans.
  • The scheme incentivizes digital transactions through monthly cashback rewards and offers an interest subsidy of 7% per annum, which is credited to the beneficiary’s bank account quarterly.
  • The implementation period of the scheme has been extended until December 2024 to ensure continuous support for urban, peri-urban, and rural vendors operating in urban areas.

 Additional Information

  • Stand-Up India
  • Launched in 2016 to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root level.
  • Focuses on providing loans between Rs. 10 lakh and Rs. 1 crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch.
  • MUDRA Yojana
  • Formally known as Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), launched in 2015.
  • Provides loans up to Rs. 10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises under three categories: Shishu, Kishore, and Tarun.
  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
  • Launched in 2014 as a National Mission for Financial Inclusion.
  • Aims to ensure access to financial services like banking savings and deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, and pension for the unbanked population.

Question 71

Where did the chartered plane carrying Ajit Pawar crash on 28 January 2026?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nagpur airport

  2. BOption (b)

    Pune airport

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai airport

  4. DOption (d)

    Baramati airport

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Baramati airport

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Baramati airport.

Key Points

  • On 28 January 2026, a chartered plane carrying Maharashtra Deputy Chief Minister Ajit Pawar crashed during an emergency landing sequence.
  • The incident occurred at Baramati airport, located in the Pune district of Maharashtra, which serves as a key domestic airstrip primarily used for private flights and pilot training.
  • The aircraft experienced technical difficulties shortly after takeoff, forcing the pilots to attempt a return to the runway where the impact occurred.

 Additional Information

  • Baramati Airport:
  • It is managed by the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation (MIDC) and is predominantly utilized for non-scheduled civil aviation operations and flight training academies.
  • The airport features a single runway designated for small to medium-sized private charters and turboprop aircraft.
  • Other key aviation hubs in Maharashtra include:
  • Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport in Mumbai, which is one of the busiest international gateways in India.
  • Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport in Nagpur, serving as a major hub for central India.
  • Pune Airport, a civil enclave operated by the Airports Authority of India at the Lohegaon Air Force Station.

Question 72

What was the official theme of World AIDS Day 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    End Inequalities. End AIDS. End Pandemics

  2. BOption (b)

    Equalize

  3. COption (c)

    Communities Make the Difference

  4. DOption (d)

    Overcoming disruption, transforming the AIDS response

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Overcoming disruption, transforming the AIDS response

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Overcoming disruption, transforming the AIDS response.

Key Points

  • World AIDS Day is observed globally on December 1 every year to raise awareness about the HIV pandemic, support those living with the virus, and honor those who have lost their lives to it.
  • The official theme designated for World AIDS Day 2025 is 'Overcoming disruption, transforming the AIDS response', focusing on structural adaptations to global health systems to ensure uninterrupted care and treatment.
  • The first World AIDS Day was conceived in August 1987 by James W. Bunn and Thomas Netter, two public information officers for the Global Programme on AIDS at the World Health Organization.
  • The red ribbon is the internationally recognized symbol of awareness and support for people living with HIV.

 Additional Information

  • UNAIDS (the Joint United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS) leads the global effort to end AIDS as a public health threat by 2030 as part of the Sustainable Development Goals.
  • Other notable historical themes of World AIDS Day include:
  • 'End Inequalities. End AIDS. End Pandemics' was the global theme for the year 2021.
  • 'Equalize' was the call to action and official theme for 2022.
  • 'Communities Make the Difference' was the official theme selected for 2019.

Question 73

Which statutory body highlighted the rollout of AI-enabled Capacity Building Plans and structured engagement with States and Union Territories under Mission Karmayogi?

  1. AOption (a)

    NITI Aayog AI Governance Wing

  2. BOption (b)

    Digital India Capacity Mission under MeitY

  3. COption (c)

    Karmayogi AI Task Force under DoPT

  4. DOption (d)

    Capacity Building Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Capacity Building Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Capacity Building Commission.

Key Points

  • The Capacity Building Commission (CBC) is the statutory body responsible for driving the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), popularly known as Mission Karmayogi.
  • The commission recently highlighted the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) through the rollout of AI-enabled Capacity Building Plans designed to personalize learning paths for civil servants.
  • The CBC facilitates structured engagement with various States and Union Territories to harmonize training standards and ensure that local administrative bodies align with national competency frameworks.
  • Under Mission Karmayogi, the Capacity Building Commission acts as the central agency to oversee Annual Capacity Building Plans (ACBPs) for all Ministries, Departments, and Organizations (MDOs) to shift from a rule-based to a role-based human resource management system.

 Additional Information

  • Mission Karmayogi:
  • Launched in September 2020, the mission aims to transform Indian bureaucracy by enhancing the skills and mindset of nearly 4.6 million central employees.
  • The core of the digital infrastructure is the iGOT-Karmayogi (Integrated Government Online Training) platform, which hosts the AI-enabled learning modules.
  • The Prime Minister's Public Human Resources Council (PMHRC) serves as the apex body providing strategic direction to the mission.
  • Institutional Framework:
  • The Capacity Building Commission was constituted via a Gazette Notification in April 2021.
  • It consists of a Chairperson and two members, supported by an Internal Secretariat.
  • The commission is also tasked with producing the Annual State of Civil Services Report to monitor the health of the administrative workforce.

Question 74

Identify the highest peak in the Karakoram Mountains from the following options.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nanga Parbat

  2. BOption (b)

    K2

  3. COption (c)

    Kanchenjunga

  4. DOption (d)

    Mt. Everest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

K2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is K2.

Key Points

  • K2, also known as Mount Godwin-Austen or Chogori, is officially recognized as the highest peak in the Karakoram Range and the second-highest mountain in the world.
  • The peak stands at a formidable elevation of 8,611 meters (28,251 feet) above sea level, situated on the border between Pakistan and China in the Gilgit-Baltistan region.
  • The name K2 was derived from the Great Trigonometric Survey of British India, where Thomas Montgomerie designated it as the second peak of the Karakoram range.
  • It is notoriously known as the Savage Mountain due to the extreme difficulty of the ascent and one of the highest fatality rates for climbers attempting the summit.

 Additional Information

  • Mount Everest
  • It is the highest peak in the world with an elevation of 8,848.86 meters.
  • It is located in the Mahalangur Himal sub-range of the Himalayas on the border between Nepal and China.
  • Kanchenjunga
  • It is the third-highest mountain in the world, reaching 8,586 meters.
  • It is located in the Himalayas on the boundary between Sikkim, India, and Nepal.
  • Nanga Parbat
  • It is the ninth-highest mountain in the world at 8,126 meters.
  • It is the westernmost anchor of the Himalayas, located in the Diamer District of Pakistan, and is distinct from the Karakoram Range.

Question 75

Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla announced the extension of translation services in the Parliament to how many additional languages in February 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Eight

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Six

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Six

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

  • Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla officially announced the expansion of simultaneous interpretation services in the Parliament of India during the Budget Session in February 2025.
  • The initiative involves adding six additional regional languages to the existing translation framework, aimed at enhancing the participation of Members of Parliament (MPs) from diverse linguistic backgrounds.
  • The newly integrated languages include Gujarati, Marathi, Bengali, Assamese, Odia, and Urdu, ensuring that representatives can express their views more effectively in their mother tongues during house proceedings.
  • This technological and administrative upgrade is part of the Digital Sansad initiative, which focuses on making the legislative process more inclusive and accessible through the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and real-time translation tools.
  • Prior to this expansion, the Parliament primarily offered interpretation services for Hindi, English, and a limited number of regional languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

 Additional Information

  • Constitutional Framework:
  • Article 120 of the Indian Constitution dictates the language to be used in Parliament, providing that business shall be transacted in Hindi or English, but allows the Presiding Officer to permit a member to address the House in their mother tongue.
  • The Eighth Schedule lists 22 official languages of India, and the gradual inclusion of these languages in Parliamentary debates reflects the commitment to linguistic federalism.
  • The Lok Sabha Secretariat has been working on upgrading the interpretation booths in the New Parliament Building to accommodate these additional language streams simultaneously.

Arithmetic 1 (15 questions)

Question 76

Saurav deposited a certain sum of money at 20% rate of interest per annum, compounded annually. At the end of 2 years, Saurav received a total amount of ₹66,168. What was the sum of money deposited by Saurav?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹45,601

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹45,590

  3. COption (c)

    ₹46,330

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹45,950

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹45,950

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate = 20% = 1/5. For 2 years, Ratio of Principal to Amount = (5)2 : (5+1)2 = 25 : 36.

Given 36 units = ₹66,168.

1 unit = 66168 ÷ 36 = ₹1838.

Principal (25 units) = 1838 × 25 = ₹45,950.

∴ The correct answer is ₹45,950.

Alternate Method

Given: Amount (A) = ₹66,168, Rate (r) = 20%, Time (t) = 2 years.

Formula Used: A = P(1 + r/100)t

⇒ 66168 = P(1 + 20/100)2

⇒ 66168 = P(1 + 1/5)2

⇒ 66168 = P(6/5)2

⇒ 66168 = P × (36 / 25)

⇒ P = (66168 × 25) ÷ 36

⇒ P = 1838 × 25

⇒ P = ₹45,950

∴ The correct answer is ₹45,950.

Additional Information

Effective Interest Rate

For 2 years at r%, the effective compound interest rate is (r + r + r2/100)%. For 20%, it is 20 + 20 + 4 = 44%.

Compound Interest vs Simple Interest

The difference for 2 years is given by D = P(r/100)2.

Compounding Periods

If interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate becomes r/2 and the time becomes 2n.

Question 77

Various expenditures incurred by a publishing company for publishing a book in 2022 are given below. Study the chart and answer the question.

The marked price of a book is 15% above cost price. If there marked price is ₹115, then find the cost of paper (in ₹) for a single copy.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expenditure HeadPercentage (%)
Royalty10%
Printing16%
Paper cost10%
Binding36%
Promotion14%
Transport14%

Marked Price (MP) of a book = ₹115

Marked Price is 15% above Cost Price (CP).

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = Marked Price (MP) ÷ (1 + Markup Percentage)

Expenditure on specific head = CP × (Expenditure % ÷ 100)

Calculation:

According to the question,

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = CP + 15% of CP

⇒ 115 = CP × (115 ÷ 100)

⇒ 115 = CP × 1.15

⇒ CP = 115 ÷ 1.15

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = ₹100

Now, we need to find the cost of paper for a single copy.

From the chart, Paper cost = 10% of the total expenditure (CP).

⇒ Cost of paper = 10% of ₹100

⇒ Cost of paper = (10 ÷ 100) × 100

⇒ Cost of paper = ₹10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Question 78

The selling price of an item is ₹ 6000 at a profit of 20%. Find the profit amount.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹ 1000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹ 2000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹ 1200

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹ 1500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹ 1000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Profit% = 20% = 1/5, where 5 is Cost Price (CP) and 1 is Profit.

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 5 + 1 = 6 units.

Given SP = 6 units = ₹ 6000.

∴ 1 unit (Profit) = 6000 ÷ 6 = ₹ 1000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 1000.

Alternate Method

Given: Selling Price (SP) = ₹ 6000, Profit% = 20%.

Formulas: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100 | Profit = SP − CP

⇒ 120% of CP = ₹ 6000

⇒ CP = (6000 × 100) ÷ 120

⇒ CP = 50 × 100 = ₹ 5000

⇒ Profit Amount = SP − CP = 6000 − 5000 = ₹ 1000

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 1000.

Additional Information

Cost Price and Selling Price

The price at which an article is purchased is its Cost Price (CP), and the price at which it is sold is its Selling Price (SP).

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit% and Loss% are always calculated on the Cost Price unless otherwise specified in the problem.

Question 79

A worker’s monthly pay increased from ₹96,000 to ₹1,08,000. What is the percentage increase?

  1. AOption (a)

    13.5%

  2. BOption (b)

    12%

  3. COption (c)

    12.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12.5%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Original Pay to New Pay = 96,000 : 1,08,000 = 96 : 108 = 8 : 9

Increase in units = 9 − 8 = 1 unit

Percentage Increase = (1 ÷ 8) × 100 = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original Pay = ₹96,000

Increased Pay = ₹1,08,000

Formula Used:

Percentage Increase = [(New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value] × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Total Increase = 1,08,000 − 96,000 = ₹12,000

⇒ Percentage Increase = (12,000 ÷ 96,000) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = (1 ÷ 8) × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

It measures the relative change between an old value and a new value. Formula: [(Change) ÷ (Initial Value)] × 100.

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

Standard fractions like 1/8 = 12.5%, 1/4 = 25%, and 1/2 = 50% are essential for fast calculations in exams.

Base Value Selection

In cases of increase or decrease, the denominator (base) is always the original or initial value unless stated otherwise.

Question 80

Akshay’s sales increased by 2% in the first year and by 25% in the second year. As a result, his present sales amount is ₹2,24,400. What was his sales amount (in ₹) two years ago?

  1. AOption (a)

    2,20,000

  2. BOption (b)

    1,79,520

  3. COption (c)

    1,56,000

  4. DOption (d)

    1,76,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,76,000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net multiplying factor = (102/100) × (125/100) = 51/50 × 5/4 = 51/40

Sales 2 years ago = Present Sales × (40/51)

⇒ 2,24,400 × (40/51) = 4,400 × 40 = 1,76,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,76,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Present Sales = ₹2,24,400 | Year 1 increase = 2% | Year 2 increase = 25%

Formula: Final Value = Initial Value × (1 + r1/100) × (1 + r2/100)

⇒ Let Sales 2 years ago be X

⇒ 2,24,400 = X × (1 + 2/100) × (1 + 25/100)

⇒ 2,24,400 = X × (102/100) × (125/100)

⇒ 2,24,400 = X × (51/50) × (5/4)

⇒ 2,24,400 = X × (255/200) = X × (51/40)

⇒ X = (2,24,400 × 40) ÷ 51

⇒ X = 4,400 × 40

⇒ X = 1,76,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,76,000.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is (a + b + (a × b)/100)%.

Reverse Percentage Calculation

To find the initial value after a percentage increase r%, multiply the final value by 100 / (100 + r).

Multiplication Factor (MF)

For an increase of r%, MF = (1 + r/100). For a decrease of r%, MF = (1 − r/100).

Question 81

A trader marks his goods 44% above the cost price and allows a discount of 8% on it. He gains x%, then the value of x is:

  1. AOption (a)

    31.48

  2. BOption (b)

    34.48

  3. COption (c)

    33.48

  4. DOption (d)

    32.48

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

32.48

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net profit or loss percentage can be calculated using the successive percentage formula: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100.

Here, Markup (m) = +44% and Discount (d) = −8%.

Net Gain x = 44 − 8 + (44 × (−8)) ÷ 100.

x = 36 − (352 ÷ 100) = 36 − 3.52 = 32.48.

∴ The correct answer is 32.48.

Alternate Method

Given: Markup % = 44%, Discount % = 8%.

Formulas: MP = CP × (100 + Markup%) ÷ 100 | SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100 | Gain% = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100.

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = 100.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 100 + 44% of 100 = 144.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 144 − 8% of 144 = 144 − 11.52 = 132.48.

⇒ Profit (x) = SP − CP = 132.48 − 100 = 32.48.

⇒ Profit % = (32.48 ÷ 100) × 100 = 32.48%.

∴ The correct answer is 32.48.

Additional Information

Relation between CP and MP

The ratio of Marked Price to Cost Price can be directly related to profit and discount percentages: MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit%) ÷ (100 − Discount%).

Markup Percentage

It is the percentage by which the CP is increased to set the MP: Markup% = (MP − CP) ÷ CP × 100.

Question 82

Simplify: 3.6 ÷ 0.6 + 3.2 × 1.5 + 25\frac{2}{5}

  1. AOption (a)

    11.6

  2. BOption (b)

    11.8

  3. COption (c)

    11.2

  4. DOption (d)

    10.9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

11.2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expression = 3.6 ÷ 0.6 + 3.2 × 1.5 + 2/5

Formula used:

BODMAS Rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

Calculations:

3.6 ÷ 0.6 + 3.2 × 1.5 + 2/5

⇒ (3.6 / 0.6) + (3.2 × 1.5) + 0.4

⇒ 6 + 4.8 + 0.4

⇒ 10.8 + 0.4

⇒ 11.2

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 83

In a division sum, the divisor is 16 times the quotient and 6 times the remainder. If the remainder is 40, what is the dividend?

  1. AOption (a)

    3650

  2. BOption (b)

    3640

  3. COption (c)

    3630

  4. DOption (d)

    3660

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3640

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Remainder = 40

Divisor = 6 × 40 = 240

Quotient = 240 ÷ 16 = 15

Dividend = (240 × 15) + 40 = 3600 + 40 = 3640

∴ The correct answer is 3640.

Alternate Method

Given:

Remainder (R) = 40

Divisor (D) = 16 × Quotient (Q)

Divisor (D) = 6 × Remainder (R)

Formula Used:

Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

Calculations:

⇒ Divisor = 6 × 40

⇒ Divisor = 240

⇒ 16 × Quotient = 240

⇒ Quotient = 240 ÷ 16 = 15

⇒ Dividend = (240 × 15) + 40

⇒ Dividend = 3600 + 40

⇒ Dividend = 3640

∴ The correct answer is 3640.

Additional Information

Division Algorithm

The fundamental relation in division is Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder, where the Remainder is always less than the Divisor.

Perfect Division

In a perfect division where a number is exactly divisible, the Remainder is always 0.

Divisibility Check

To find a number close to 'N' divisible by 'D', subtract the remainder from 'N' (lower) or add (D − Remainder) to 'N' (higher).

Question 84

A product has a marked price of ₹1,000. A shopkeeper offers a trade discount of 10% on the marked price and an additional scheme discount of 5% on the discounted price. What is the final price?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹855

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹850

  3. COption (c)

    ₹870

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹860

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹855

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net discount = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100

Net discount = 10 + 5 − (10 × 5) ÷ 100 = 15 − 0.5 = 14.5%

Selling Price = 100% − 14.5% = 85.5% of MP

SP = 1000 × 85.5 ÷ 100 = 855

∴ The correct answer is ₹855.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = ₹1,000, Trade Discount = 10%, Scheme Discount = 5%.

Formulas: Price after discount = MP × (100 − D1)% × (100 − D2)%

⇒ Price after 10% Trade Discount = 1,000 − (10% of 1,000) = 1,000 − 100 = ₹900

⇒ Price after 5% Scheme Discount = 900 − (5% of 900) = 900 − 45 = ₹855

∴ The final price is ₹855.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two or more discounts are applied one after another, they are called successive discounts. The second discount is always calculated on the reduced price.

Trade vs Cash Discount

A Trade Discount is given by manufacturers to retailers on the catalog price, while a Cash Discount is given for immediate payment.

Question 85

A shopkeeper offers the following schemes on toys of the same marked price:
(A) Successive discounts of 8% and 12% on any number of toys purchased.
(B) Successive discounts of 5% and 15% on any number of toys purchased.
(C) A 15% discount on the first 9 toys and a 5% discount on each additional toy.
(D) Pay for 7 toys and receive 10 toys.
A customer wants to buy 10 toys. Which of the above schemes is the least beneficial to her?

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find the least beneficial scheme for a customer, we look for the lowest effective discount.

Scheme A: 8 + 12 − (8 × 12) ÷ 100 = 19.04%

Scheme B: 5 + 15 − (5 × 15) ÷ 100 = 19.25%

Scheme C: (9 × 15% + 1 × 5%) ÷ 10 = 14% (Lowest discount)

Scheme D: (Free ÷ Total) × 100 = 3 ÷ 10 × 100 = 30%

Scheme C offers only 14% discount, making it the least beneficial to the customer.

∴ The correct answer is Scheme C.

Alternate Method

Given → 10 toys, same Marked Price (MP). Let MP of 1 toy = 100. Total MP = 1000. Formulas: Successive discount = a + b − ab ÷ 100 | Discount% = (Total Discount ÷ Total MP) × 100

⇒ Scheme A: Net Discount = 8 + 12 − (8 × 12)/100 = 20 − 0.96 = 19.04% ⇒ Scheme B: Net Discount = 5 + 15 − (5 × 15)/100 = 20 − 0.75 = 19.25% ⇒ Scheme C: Discount on 9 toys = 9 × 15 = 135; Discount on 1 toy = 1 × 5 = 5. Total Discount = 140. ⇒ Scheme C % = (140 ÷ 1000) × 100 = 14% ⇒ Scheme D: Buy 7 Get 3 Free (Total 10). Discount = (3 ÷ 10) × 100 = 30% ⇒ Comparing 19.04%, 19.25%, 14%, and 30%, the lowest value is 14%.

∴ The correct answer is Scheme C.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts a% and b% are given, the single equivalent discount is always less than the sum (a+b)% due to the reduction in base price.

Buy X Get Y Free

In 'Buy X Get Y Free' schemes, the discount percentage is calculated as [Free Items ÷ Total Items (Buy+Free)] × 100.

Question 86

The height of five students of a group is 163 cm, 186 cm, 158 cm, 148 cm and 170 cm. Find the average height of the students.

  1. AOption (a)

    160 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    150 cm

  3. COption (c)

    165 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    154 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

165 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume a Base Value (Assumed Mean) = 160 cm.

Find Deviations: (163−160), (186−160), (158−160), (148−160), (170−160) → +3, +26, −2, −12, +10.

Net Deviation = 3 + 26 − 2 − 12 + 10 = +25.

Average Deviation = 25 ÷ 5 = +5 cm.

Actual Average = 160 + 5 = 165 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 165 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Heights of 5 students = 163 cm, 186 cm, 158 cm, 148 cm, 170 cm.

Formula Used: Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

⇒ Sum = 163 + 186 + 158 + 148 + 170

⇒ Sum = 825 cm

⇒ Total Students = 5

⇒ Average Height = 825 ÷ 5

⇒ Average Height = 165 cm

∴ The correct answer is 165 cm.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean

It is the most common measure of central tendency, calculated by dividing the sum of values by the count of values.

Weighted Average

Used when different data points have different levels of importance or frequency: Avg = (∑wixi) ÷ (∑wi).

Change in Average

If a constant 'k' is added to or subtracted from every observation, the new average also increases or decreases by 'k'.

Question 87

In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of wheat worth ₹56 per kg and ₹103 per kg, so that if he sells the mixture at ₹149 per kg, he may gain 49%?

  1. AOption (a)

    3:44

  2. BOption (b)

    6:47

  3. COption (c)

    5:45

  4. DOption (d)

    13:49

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3:44

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Cost Price (CP) of mixture = 149 ÷ 1.49 = ₹100 per kg.

Using Alligation: (Higher Price − Mean) : (Mean − Lower Price)

Ratio = (103 − 100) : (100 − 56) = 3 : 44.

∴ The correct answer is 3:44.

Alternate Method

Given: CP of Variety 1 = ₹56/kg, CP of Variety 2 = ₹103/kg, SP of Mixture = ₹149/kg, Profit = 49%.

Formula: CP = SP × [100 / (100 + Profit%)]

⇒ CP of mixture = 149 × (100 / 149) = ₹100 per kg.

⇒ By Alligation Rule: (Quantity of Cheaper) / (Quantity of Dearer) = (CP of Dearer − Mean Price) / (Mean Price − CP of Cheaper)

⇒ Ratio = (103 − 100) / (100 − 56)

⇒ Ratio = 3 / 44

∴ The correct answer is 3:44.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

It is a rule that enables us to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at the given price must be mixed to produce a mixture of a specified price. Ratio = (d − m) : (m − c) where d is dearer price, c is cheaper price, and m is mean price.

CP and SP Relationship

When there is a profit, CP = [100 ÷ (100 + Gain%)] × SP. Always ensure the alligation is performed on the CP of all components, not the SP.

Question 88

A student apostrophe s marks were incorrectly entered as 63 instead of 91. Due to this , the average marks of the class spacegot decreased by 74 \frac{7}{4} . What is the number of students in the class ?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Change in total marks = Actual marks − Incorrect marks = 91 − 63 = 28.

Decrease in average per student = 7/4 marks.

Number of students = Total Change ÷ Average Change = 28 ÷ (7/4) = 28 × (4/7) = 16.

∴ The correct answer is 16 students.

Alternate Method

Given: Correct Marks = 91, Incorrect Marks = 63, Average Decrease = 7/4.

Formula: Number of students (n) = (Total Difference in Marks) ÷ (Difference in Average)

⇒ Total Marks Difference = 91 − 63 = 28

⇒ Let the total number of students be n.

⇒ n × (7/4) = 28

⇒ n = (28 × 4) ÷ 7

⇒ n = 4 × 4 = 16

∴ The correct answer is 16 students.

Additional Information

Average Concept

The Average of a group is defined as the Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations. Any change in a single value affects the total sum and subsequently the average.

Net Deviation Rule

Total Change = Number of items × Change in Average. This is the fastest way to solve data entry error problems in statistics.

Question 89

Find the duration (in years) in which ₹1500 will amount to ₹2580 at a rate of 4% per annum simple interest.

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

18

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Simple Interest = ₹2580 − ₹1500 = ₹1080.

Interest for 1 year = 4% of ₹1500 = ₹60.

Number of years = Total Interest ÷ Interest per year = 1080 ÷ 60 = 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹1500

Amount (A) = ₹2580

Rate (R) = 4% per annum

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Amount (A) = P + SI

Calculations:

⇒ SI = Amount − Principal

⇒ SI = 2580 − 1500 = ₹1080

⇒ 1080 = (1500 × 4 × T) ÷ 100

⇒ 1080 = 15 × 4 × T

⇒ 1080 = 60 × T

⇒ T = 1080 ÷ 60

⇒ T = 18 years

∴ The correct answer is 18 years.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Concept

Simple interest is calculated only on the initial principal amount. The formula is SI = (P × R × T) / 100.

Effective Rate of Interest

The total interest as a percentage of the principal is R × T. In this case, 4% × 18 = 72% of ₹1500.

Difference between SI and CI

While SI remains constant every year, Compound Interest (CI) is calculated on the principal plus accumulated interest from previous periods.

Question 90

The number 6006 is exactly divisible by which of the following numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    41

  2. BOption (b)

    38

  3. COption (c)

    33

  4. DOption (d)

    35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

33

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Check divisibility by 11: Sum of alternate digits 6+0 = 6 and 0+6 = 6. Difference = 0. So, 6006 is divisible by 11.

Check divisibility by 3: Sum of digits 6+0+0+6 = 12, which is divisible by 3. So, 6006 is divisible by 3.

Since 6006 is divisible by both 11 and 3, it must be divisible by 11 × 3 = 33.

∴ The correct answer is 33.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 6006

Formula Used: Divisibility check by prime factorization or options testing.

⇒ Prime factorization of 6006:

⇒ 6006 = 2 × 3003

⇒ 3003 = 3 × 1001

⇒ 1001 = 7 × 11 × 13

⇒ 6006 = 2 × 3 × 7 × 11 × 13

⇒ Check options: 33 = 3 × 11. Since both 3 and 11 are factors of 6006, 33 is the divisor.

∴ The correct answer is 33.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places is 0 or a multiple of 11.

Property of 1001

The number 1001 is a special number as it is the product of three consecutive prime numbers: 7 × 11 × 13.

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of all its digits is divisible by 3.

Arithmetic 2 (10 questions)

Question 91

Two friends, A and B, can complete a piece of work in 12 days and 18 days, respectively. They start working together, but after 4 days, friend B increases his efficiency by 50%. How long will it take to complete the entire work?

  1. AOption (a)

    623 \frac{2}{3} days

  2. BOption (b)

    823 \frac{2}{3} days

  3. COption (c)

    413 \frac{1}{3} days

  4. DOption (d)

    513 \frac{1}{3} days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

623 \frac{2}{3} days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total work (LCM of 12, 18) = 36 units.

Efficiency: A = 3, B = 2. Combined = 5.

Work done in 4 days = 5 × 4 = 20 units. Remaining = 16 units.

New efficiency of B = 2 + 50% of 2 = 3. Total new efficiency = 3 + 3 = 6.

Remaining time = 16 ÷ 6 = 2 (2/3) days. Total time = 4 + 2 (2/3) = 6 (2/3) days.

∴ The correct answer is 6 (2/3) days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A = 12 days, Time taken by B = 18 days. Initial work period = 4 days.

Formula Used: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time; Work = Efficiency × Time

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A12363
B182

⇒ Work done in first 4 days = (3 + 2) × 4 = 20 units

⇒ Remaining work = 36 − 20 = 16 units

⇒ New efficiency of B = 2 × (150/100) = 3 units

⇒ Combined efficiency (A + new B) = 3 + 3 = 6 units

⇒ Time for remaining work = 16 ÷ 6 = 8/3 = 2 (2/3) days

⇒ Total time = 4 + 2 (2/3) = 6 (2/3) days

∴ The correct answer is 6 (2/3) days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. If efficiency increases by x%, time taken decreases accordingly.

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar logic applies where efficiency of an inlet pipe is positive and an outlet pipe is negative.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of work done, which is the product of efficiency and time spent working.

Question 92

A frustum (closed on one side) of a cone has base and top radii of 14 cm and 7 cm respectively, and a height of 24 cm. Water is poured into it using a conical cup having a top radius of 3.5 cm and a height 6 cm. Find the number of cups of water required to fill the frustum.

  1. AOption (a)

    110

  2. BOption (b)

    115

  3. COption (c)

    112

  4. DOption (d)

    105

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

112

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Volume of Frustum = (1/3) × π × h × (R2 + r2 + R×r)

Volume of Conical Cup = (1/3) × π × rc2 × hc

Ratio of volumes = [24 × (142 + 72 + 14×7)] ÷ [3.52 × 6]

Number of cups = [4 × (196 + 49 + 98)] ÷ 12.25 = (4 × 343) ÷ 12.25 = 1372 ÷ 12.25 = 112

∴ The correct answer is 112 cups.

Alternate Method

Given:

Frustum: R = 14 cm, r = 7 cm, h = 24 cm

Conical Cup: rc = 3.5 cm, hc = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Frustum (Vf) = (1/3)πh(R2 + r2 + Rr)

Volume of Cone (Vc) = (1/3)πr2h

Calculations:

⇒ Vf = (1/3) × π × 24 × (142 + 72 + 14×7)

⇒ Vf = 8π × (196 + 49 + 98) = 8π × 343 = 2744π cm3

⇒ Vc = (1/3) × π × (3.5)2 × 6

⇒ Vc = 2π × 12.25 = 24.5π cm3

⇒ Number of cups = Vf ÷ Vc = 2744π ÷ 24.5π

⇒ Number of cups = 2744 ÷ 24.5 = 112

∴ The correct answer is 112 cups.

Additional Information

Slant Height of Frustum

The slant height (l) is given by l = √(h2 + (R − r)2).

Surface Area of Frustum

Lateral Surface Area = πl(R + r). Total Surface Area = πl(R + r) + πR2 + πr2.

Relation to Cone

A frustum is a part of a cone created by cutting the top off with a plane parallel to the base.

Question 93

If x is added to 6, 14, 18, and 38, the numbers become proportional. What is the mean proportional between (x + 2) and (4x + 1)?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For numbers a, b, c, d to be in proportion after adding x, use the shortcut: x = (ad − bc) ÷ (a + d − (b + c))

Given numbers: 6, 14, 18, 38

⇒ x = (6 × 38 − 14 × 18) ÷ (6 + 38 − (14 + 18)) = (228 − 252) ÷ (44 − 32) = −24 ÷ 12 = −2 (Take absolute value for addition logic or solve as 2)

By testing x = 2: (6+2)/(14+2) = 8/16 = 1/2 and (18+2)/(38+2) = 20/40 = 1/2. Satisfied.

Mean Proportional = √((x + 2) × (4x + 1)) = √((2 + 2) × (4×2 + 1)) = √(4 × 9) = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are 6, 14, 18, 38. x is added to each.

Formula Used: If a, b, c, d are in proportion, then a/b = c/d. Mean Proportional of p and q = √(p × q).

⇒ (6 + x) ÷ (14 + x) = (18 + x) ÷ (38 + x)

⇒ (6 + x)(38 + x) = (18 + x)(14 + x)

⇒ 228 + 6x + 38x + x2 = 252 + 18x + 14x + x2

⇒ 228 + 44x = 252 + 32x

⇒ 44x − 32x = 252 − 228

⇒ 12x = 24

⇒ x = 2

⇒ First term for Mean Proportional = x + 2 = 2 + 2 = 4

⇒ Second term for Mean Proportional = 4x + 1 = 4(2) + 1 = 9

⇒ Mean Proportional = √(4 × 9) = √36 = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is defined as √(ab).

Third Proportional

If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then c is the third proportional, where c = b2 ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

If a, b, c, d are in proportion, then d is the fourth proportional, calculated as d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Question 94

The diagonals of a rhombus are 66 cm and 43 cm, respectively. The area of the rhombus (in cm2) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1419

  2. BOption (b)

    1460

  3. COption (c)

    1399

  4. DOption (d)

    1380

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1419

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area of a rhombus = 1/2 × (Product of diagonals)

⇒ Area = 1/2 × 66 × 43

⇒ Area = 33 × 43

⇒ Area = 1419 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 1419 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diagonal 1 (d1) = 66 cm

Diagonal 2 (d2) = 43 cm

Formula Used:

Area = (d1 × d2) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Area = (66 × 43) ÷ 2

⇒ Area = 2838 ÷ 2

⇒ Area = 1419 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 1419 cm2.

Additional Information

Side and Diagonals Relationship

In a rhombus, the relationship between side (a) and diagonals is 4a2 = d12 + d22.

Perimeter of Rhombus

Since all sides are equal, the perimeter is given by 4 × side.

Properties of Rhombus

Diagonals bisect each other at 90 degrees (right angles) and also bisect the interior angles.

Question 95

A tap fills a cistern in 10 hours. Another tap empties the full tank in 20 hours. How much time (in hours) will it take to fill half of the tank, if the tank is empty initially and both the taps are open together?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net efficiency = Efficiency of Filling Tap − Efficiency of Emptying Tap.

Let Total Work (Capacity) = 20 units (LCM of 10 and 20).

Filling efficiency = 2, Emptying efficiency = 1 ⇒ Combined efficiency = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/hour.

Time to fill half tank (10 units) = 10 ÷ 1 = 10 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 10 hours.

Alternate Method

Given: Filling time = 10 hours, Emptying time = 20 hours.

Formula Used: Total Work = Time × Efficiency

Tap TypeTime (hr)Total CapacityEfficiency
Filling Tap1020 units20 ÷ 10 = +2
Emptying Tap2020 ÷ 20 = −1

⇒ Net efficiency when both open = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/hour.

⇒ Capacity of half the tank = 20 ÷ 2 = 10 units.

⇒ Time required = Half Capacity ÷ Net Efficiency

⇒ Time = 10 ÷ 1 = 10 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 10 hours.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Concept

An Inlet pipe performs positive work (filling), while an Outlet pipe performs negative work (emptying) relative to the tank's volume.

Net Work Formula

If pipe A fills in 'x' hours and pipe B empties in 'y' hours, the net work in one hour is (1/x − 1/y). If the result is positive, the tank fills; if negative, it empties.

Partial Filling

To find the time for filling a fraction 'k' of the tank, multiply the Total Capacity by 'k' before dividing by the Net Efficiency.

Question 96

A right circular cone of height 15 cm and base radius 12 cm is carved out of a metallic sphere of radius 12 cm. Find the volume of the remaining metal.

  1. AOption (a)

    68.75%

  2. BOption (b)

    59.25%

  3. COption (c)

    66.25%

  4. DOption (d)

    62.75%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

68.75%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Volume of Sphere (Vs) = (4/3) × π × r3 = (4/3) × π × 123 = 2304π cm3.

Volume of Cone (Vc) = (1/3) × π × r12 × h = (1/3) × π × 122 × 15 = 720π cm3.

Remaining Volume = 2304π − 720π = 1584π cm3.

Percentage Remaining = (1584π / 2304π) × 100 = 68.75%.

∴ The correct answer is 68.75%.

Alternate Method

Given: Radius of Metallic Sphere (R) = 12 cm, Radius of Cone (r) = 12 cm, Height of Cone (h) = 15 cm.

Formula Used: Volume of Sphere = (4/3)πR3; Volume of Cone = (1/3)πr2h.

⇒ Volume of Sphere = (4/3) × π × 12 × 12 × 12 = 2304π cm3

⇒ Volume of Cone = (1/3) × π × 12 × 12 × 15 = 720π cm3

⇒ Volume of Remaining Metal = 2304π − 720π = 1584π cm3

⇒ Percentage of Remaining Metal = (1584π / 2304π) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (11 / 16) × 100 = 68.75%

∴ The correct answer is 68.75%.

Additional Information

Volume of Solid Figures

For a Cylinder, Volume = πr2h. The volume of a cone is exactly 1/3rd of a cylinder with the same radius and height.

Surface Area of Sphere

The total Surface Area of a sphere is given by 4πr2, while for a Hemisphere, it is 3πr2.

Percentage Calculation

Percentage change or remaining part is always calculated as (Final Value / Initial Value) × 100.

Question 97

Find the speed (in m/s) of a bus which covers 351 km in 3 hours.

  1. AOption (a)

    30 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    32.5 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    30.5 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    31 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

32.5 m/s

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Speed in kmph = 351 ÷ 3 = 117 kmph.

To convert kmph to m/s, multiply by 5/18.

Speed = 117 × (5/18) = 13 × (5/2) = 65 ÷ 2 = 32.5 m/s.

∴ The correct answer is 32.5 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance = 351 km

Time = 3 hours

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Conversion: 1 kmph = 5/18 m/s

Calculations:

⇒ Speed = 351 ÷ 3

⇒ Speed = 117 kmph

⇒ Speed in m/s = 117 × (5/18)

⇒ Speed in m/s = (117 ÷ 9) × (5 ÷ 2)

⇒ Speed in m/s = 13 × 2.5

⇒ Speed in m/s = 32.5 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 32.5 m/s.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion Rules

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time taken for the entire journey.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in opposite directions, relative speed is (s1 + s2). If in the same direction, it is |s1 − s2|.

Question 98

Sarita, Arun, and Mahesh invest ₹1,200, ₹1,250, and ₹1,800, respectively, to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,190, then what is the share of Mahesh in the profit?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹504

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹502

  3. COption (c)

    ₹501

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹503

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹504

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit = Ratio of Investment × Time.

Investment ratio: Sarita : Arun : Mahesh = 1200 : 1250 : 1800 = 24 : 25 : 36.

Total ratio parts = 24 + 25 + 36 = 85 units.

Value of 85 units = ₹1,190 ⇒ 1 unit = 1190 ÷ 85 = ₹14.

Mahesh's share (36 units) = 36 × 14 = ₹504.

∴ The correct answer is ₹504.

Alternate Method

Given: Investments of Sarita = ₹1,200, Arun = ₹1,250, Mahesh = ₹1,800. Total Profit = ₹1,190.

Formula: Profit Share of a Partner = (Individual Investment ÷ Total Investment) × Total Profit.

⇒ Total Investment = 1200 + 1250 + 1800 = ₹4,250.

⇒ Mahesh's Share = (1800 ÷ 4250) × 1190.

⇒ Mahesh's Share = (180 ÷ 425) × 1190 = (36 ÷ 85) × 1190.

⇒ Mahesh's Share = 36 × 14 = ₹504.

∴ The correct answer is ₹504.

Additional Information

Partnership Principles

When the time period for all partners is the same, the profit is divided in the direct ratio of their investments.

Compound Partnership

If the time periods are different, the ratio is calculated as (Investment1 × Time1) : (Investment2 × Time2).

Question 99

Akshay and Bindu start a business by investing in the : 2 : 3. After 4 months , Akshay doubleshis investment while Bindu ’ s investment remains the same. At the end of the year , the business spacemakes a profit of ₹ 57 , 000. Find Akshay ’ s share of the profit.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹ 33,000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹ 27,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹ 30,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹ 32,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹ 30,000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit = Ratio of (Investment × Time).

Akshay's units = (2 × 4) + (4 × 8) = 8 + 32 = 40 units.

Bindu's units = 3 × 12 = 36 units.

Profit Ratio Akshay : Bindu = 40 : 36 = 10 : 9.

Total units = 10 + 9 = 19 units → ₹ 57,000. 1 unit = ₹ 3,000.

Akshay's share = 10 × ₹ 3,000 = ₹ 30,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 30,000.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial ratio 2 : 3, Akshay doubles after 4 months, Total Profit = ₹ 57,000. Formulas: Profit Share = Investment × Time Period.

⇒ Let initial investments be 2x and 3x.

⇒ Akshay's total investment-month = (2x × 4) + (4x × 8) = 8x + 32x = 40x.

⇒ Bindu's total investment-month = 3x × 12 = 36x.

⇒ Ratio of profits = 40x : 36x = 10 : 9.

⇒ Akshay's share = (10 ÷ 19) × 57,000 = 10 × 3,000 = 30,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹ 30,000.

Additional Information

Partnership Principles

When investments are for different time periods, the profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of capital and time.

Ratio of Profits

P1 : P2 = (C1 × T1) : (C2 × T2), where C is Capital and T is Time.

Question 100

A train starts from station A at 10 a.m. and travels at 60 km/hr towards station B, 250 km away. Another train starts from station B at 12 noon and travels at 70 km/hr towards station A. At what distance from B, will they meet?

  1. AOption (a)

    70 km

  2. BOption (b)

    65 km

  3. COption (c)

    72 km

  4. DOption (d)

    60 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

70 km

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Distance covered by Train A in 2 hours (10 a.m. to 12 noon) = 60 × 2 = 120 km.

Remaining distance at 12 noon = 250 − 120 = 130 km.

Relative speed = 60 + 70 = 130 km/hr.

Time to meet after 12 noon = 130 ÷ 130 = 1 hour.

Distance from B = Speed of Train B × Time = 70 × 1 = 70 km.

∴ The correct answer is 70 km.

Alternate Method

Given: Distance = 250 km, Speed A = 60 km/hr, Speed B = 70 km/hr, Start time A = 10 a.m., Start time B = 12 noon.

Formula Used: Distance = Speed × Time | Relative Speed (Opposite) = S1 + S2

⇒ Distance covered by Train A before Train B starts = 60 × (12 − 10) = 120 km.

⇒ Gap between trains at 12 noon = 250 − 120 = 130 km.

⇒ Relative speed of trains = 60 + 70 = 130 km/hr.

⇒ Time taken to meet = 130 ÷ 130 = 1 hour.

⇒ Meeting time = 12 noon + 1 hour = 1 p.m.

⇒ Distance from Station B = Speed of Train B × Time = 70 × 1 = 70 km.

∴ The correct answer is 70 km.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two objects move towards each other, relative speed = S1 + S2. When they move in the same direction, relative speed = |S1 − S2|.

Meeting Time Formula

Meeting Time = (Initial distance between them at the same start time) ÷ (Relative Speed).

Average Speed

For a journey with two equal distances at speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

100 questions in the full paper