DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 15 Mar, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Dictionary order of given words,

1. Adjusted
2. Annotate
3. Assert
4. Assigned
5. Attend

Correct order is :1, 5, 3, 4, 2

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

A student (Anjali) is 9th from the left end.

Anjali is 22nd from the right end.

Total items = (Rank from Left) + (Rank from Right) - 1

Number of students = 9 + 22 - 1

= 31 - 1

= 30 students.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. Only two people sit between F and C when counted from the right of F.
2. Only two people sit between C and G.
3. Only three people sit between F and A.
4. E sits to the immediate left of B.

One person sit between B and A when counted from the right of B.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) ~ B Ω E % G & H @ J ^ L £ M * P $ S # U T (Right)

Series after dropping all the letters:

(Left) ~ Ω % & @ ^ £ * $ # (Right)

Counting from the left:

1st → ~

2nd → Ω

3rd → %

4th → &

The fourth symbol from the left is &, which is not given in the options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

‘JUGS’ is coded as ‘7039’  

‘GUST’ is coded as ‘0789’

Code for "T" is "8".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statement:

L < G < U > M > S

Conclusions:

I: S < U → True (From the given statement, M > S and U > M. Therefore, U > M > S, which implies S < U.)

II: L < M → False (From the given statement, L < G < U and U > M. Although both L and M are related to U, there is no definite relationship between L and M. Hence, this conclusion does not follow.)

Therefore, only conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. Only three people live below F.
2. Only two people live between D and F.
3. A lives immediately below E but not on an even numbered floor.
4. B does not live on an even numbered floor.

The final floor arrangement is:

Therefore, there are Two people living between C and A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given series:

(Left) £ A * U € $ K @ J & B © P % € H @ € $ £ E € (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Letter ← Symbol → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) £ A * U € $ K @ J & B © P % € H @ € $ £ E € (Right)

There are four such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Total students in the row = 30

Raj is 10th from the right end.

The formula for finding the rank from the left is:

Rank from Left = Total Students - Rank from Right + 1

Raj's position from the left = 30 - 10 + 1

= 20 + 1

= 21st from the left end.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Six friends J, K, L, M, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1. Only one person sits between L and J when counted from the left of J.
2. M sits second to the left of U.
3. V sits to the immediate right of U.
4. V sits second to the left of L.

One person sit between K and M when counted from the right of K.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘HATS’ is coded as ‘7039’  

‘TASK’ is coded as ‘0789’

Code for "K" is "8".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘BUSY’ is coded as ‘7523’

‘YOLK’ is coded as ‘4136’.

Code for "Y" is "3".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only four boxes are kept above F.
2. Only four boxes are kept below G.
3. Only one box is kept between E and G.
4. D is kept above B but below F.
5. C is not kept below A. 

The final arrangement of the boxes is:

There is only one box kept between A and D.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) # 6 9 2 + 4 3 8 * 1 @ 5 % 7 Ω & (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Symbol → Number

Checking the series:

(Left) # 6 9 2 + 4 3 8 * 1 @ 5 % 7 Ω & (Right)

Symbols satisfying the condition are: +, *, @, %.

There are four such symbols.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) 4 8 7 6 9 3 5 7 2 4 6 8 3 9 8 6 7 4 5 6 1 2 5 9 4 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Odd digit ← Even digit → Even digit

Checking the series:

(Left) 4 8 7 6 9 3 5 7 2 4 6 8 3 9 8 9 8 6 7 4 5 6 1 2 5 9 4 (Right)

There are two such even digits that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

Some chalks are pencils.

All pencils are markers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some markers are chalks → Follow  (Because some chalks are pencils and all pencils are markers, the common portion between chalks and pencils also belongs to markers.)

II. No marker is a chalk → Does not follow (As seen from the diagram and Conclusion I, there is a definite positive intersection between markers and chalks, so a universal negative statement is false.)

So, only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Statement:

A > B = C < D ≤ E

Conclusions:

I: C < E → True (From the given statement, C < D and D ≤ E, therefore C < E.)

II: B > D → False (Since B = C and C < D, therefore B < D, not B > D.)

Therefore, only conclusion I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) H G Q E G Q Q J $ \ N X H P Y \ S N ^ \ D (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Letter → Letter

Checking the series:

(Left) H G Q E G Q Q J $ \ N X H P Y \ S N ^ \ D (Right)

There are two such letters that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: Z − M + U × K ÷ L

It means: Z is the brother of M, M is the sister of U, U is the wife of K, and K is the father of L.

Z is the mother's brother of L.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family Chart:

Family tree,

M is N's father's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given number: 973457674297

The transformed number is 751635856475.

The digit which is second from the left is 5.

The digit which is second from the right is 7.

Sum = 5 + 7 = 12

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The pattern observed is: (Second Number × 3) − First Number = Third Number.

For (21, 20, 39) →

(20 × 3) − 21 = 60 − 21 = 39

For (20, 19, 37) →

(19 × 3) − 20 = 57 − 20 = 37

Similarly,

Option (1): (7, 23, 62)

(23 × 3) − 7 = 69 − 7 = 62

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For GD 15 is related to HA 4:

For MF 20 is related to NC 9:

Similarly,

let's find the relation for IQ 25:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 18 + 6 ÷ 2 × 4 - 5 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 18 - 6 × 2 ÷ 4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 18 - 6 × 2 ÷ 4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 18 - 12 ÷ 4 + 5 = ?

⇒ 18 - 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 18 - 3 + 5 = ?

⇒ 15 + 5 = ?

⇒ 20.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 205 D 18 C 350 A 50 B 13 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 205 - 18 + 350 ÷ 50 × 13 = ?

⇒ 205 - 18 + 350 ÷ 50 × 13 = ?

⇒ 205 - 18 + 7 × 13 = ?

⇒ 205 - 18 + 91 = ?

⇒ 205 - 18 + 91 = ?

⇒ 187 + 91 = ?

⇒ 278.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 20 − 4 ÷ 2 + 3 = ?

Since ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 20 ÷ 4 - 2 + 3 = ?

⇒ 20 ÷ 4 - 2 + 3 = ?

⇒ 5 - 2 + 3 = ?

⇒ 3 + 3 = ?

⇒ 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For LMIM to KLHL

For QRNR to PQMQ

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of −1 for each letter in the group.

Applying the same logic to ABXB:

Thus, ABXB is related to ZAWA.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is,

110 + 3 = 113

113 + 3 = 116

116 + 3 = 119

119 + 3 = 122

122 + 3 = 125

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Original Number: 6541387

Comparing the positions of digits in the Original Number and the Ascending Order sequence.

The position of one digit will remain unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

12 + 8 = 20

20 + 16 = 36

36 + 24 = 60

60 + 32 = 92

92 + 40 = 132

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic: (First number × 4) − 5 = Second number

For (14, 51)

(14 × 4) − 5 = 56 − 5 = 51

For (18, 67)

(18 × 4) − 5 = 72 − 5 = 67

Similarly, 

Option (2): (21, 79)

(21 × 4) − 5 = 84 − 5 = 79

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

62 + 31 = 93

93 + 31 = 124

124 + 31 = 155

155 + 31 = 186

186 + 31 = 217

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Statements:

Some eagles are drums.

No stones are drums.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. No eagles are stones → Does not follow (There is no direct negative relationship defined between eagles and stones, so it is a possibility but not a definite conclusion.)

II. Some stones are eagles → Does not follow (There is no direct positive relationship defined between stones and eagles, so it is only a possibility and not a certain conclusion.)

So, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: (First Number − Second Number) ÷ 4 = Third Number

For (91, 19, 18) →

91 − 19 = 72

72 ÷ 4 = 18

For (85, 1, 21) →

85 − 1 = 84

84 ÷ 4 = 21

Similarly, 

Option (1): (103, 23, 20)

103 − 23 = 80

80 ÷ 4 = 20

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For (1) UW-OP:

For (2) PR-JK:

For (3) FH-ZE:

For (4) WY-QR:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is:

For MGTB to QKXF

For CWJR to GANV

The common pattern is a constant English alphabetical order shift of +4 for each letter.

For OIVD to ?

Following the same pattern, OIVD is related to SMZH.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Mirror image of given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Divya Deshmukh.

Key Points

• Divya Deshmukh, a prodigious talent from Nagpur, Maharashtra, emerged as the champion of the FIDE Women’s World Cup in 2025, further cementing India’s dominance in the global chess arena.
• She holds the titles of International Master (IM) and Woman Grandmaster (WGM), and her victory in the 2025 tournament is a testament to her rapid ascent in the professional rankings.
• Prior to this achievement, she secured the World Junior Girls' Chess Championship title in 2024 held in Gandhinagar, where she finished the tournament undefeated.
• She was a vital member of the Indian Women’s Team that won the historic gold medal at the 45th Chess Olympiad in Budapest in 2024, where she also won an individual Gold Medal on the third board.

 Additional Information

• Humpy Koneru:
• A legendary Grandmaster who became the youngest woman to achieve the GM title in 2002 at the age of 15.
• She won the World Rapid Chess Championship in 2019 and was the runner-up in the Women's World Chess Championship in 2011.
• Harika Dronavalli:
• She is the second Indian woman to achieve the Grandmaster title (2011) and has won three bronze medals in the Women's World Chess Championship (2012, 2015, and 2017).
• She was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2007 and the Padma Shri in 2019 for her contributions to sports.
• Tania Sachdev:
• An International Master and Woman Grandmaster, she is a two-time Indian Women's Chess Champion (2006 and 2007).
• Beyond her playing career, she is one of the most prominent chess commentators and presenters globally.

The correct answer is Swami Vivekananda.

Key Points

• Swami Vivekananda, the primary disciple of the 19th-century mystic Ramakrishna Paramahansa, founded the Ramakrishna Mission on May 1, 1897.
• The organization was established at Balaram Bose's house in Calcutta (now Kolkata) with the primary objective of putting the teachings of Sri Ramakrishna into practice through humanitarian service.
• The Ramakrishna Mission is deeply rooted in the philosophy of Advaita Vedanta and Karma Yoga, advocating that service to man is service to God (Shiva Jnane Jiva Seva).
• The permanent headquarters of the mission and its monastic wing, the Ramakrishna Math, were established at Belur Math in Howrah, West Bengal, in 1899.
• Vivekananda’s founding of the mission followed his triumphant representation of Hinduism at the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893, which helped globalize Indian philosophy.

 Additional Information

• Swami Sivananda:
• A renowned spiritual teacher who founded the Divine Life Society in 1936 at Rishikesh.
• He was a proponent of Yoga and Vedanta, authoring over 200 books on spiritual subjects.
• Sri Aurobindo:
• An Indian philosopher and yogi who developed the concept of Integral Yoga.
• He established the Sri Aurobindo Ashram in Puducherry in 1926 after retiring from active nationalist politics.
• Paramahansa Yogananda:
• A major figure in introducing Kriya Yoga to the West and the author of the spiritual classic 'Autobiography of a Yogi'.
• He founded the Self-Realization Fellowship (SRF) in the United States in 1920.

The correct answer is To serve the political or commercial interests of the East India Company in princely states.

Key Points

• Following the Battle of Buxar in 1764, the British East India Company began appointing Residents in Indian princely states as part of their expanding diplomatic network.
• The primary role of these Residents was to act as political or commercial agents, ensuring that the interests of the East India Company were protected and prioritized by the local rulers.
• Through the Resident, the Company interfered in the internal affairs of the states, including deciding the succession to the throne and the appointment of key administrative officials.
• The Resident system was a tool for indirect rule, allowing the British to maintain control over vast territories without the expense of direct administration or immediate military annexation.
• Rulers were often forced to consult the Resident before making any significant policy decisions, effectively reducing the princely states to a vassal-like status under British paramountcy.

 Additional Information

• Subsidiary Alliance System:
• Developed significantly by Lord Wellesley (1798−1805), this policy mandated that any Indian ruler entering the alliance must accept a British Resident at their court.
• Under this treaty, the state had to disband its own army and maintain a British contingent, for which they had to pay a subsidy or cede territory.
• Loss of Autonomy:
• The Resident ensured that the ruler could not form alliances with other European powers (like the French) or engage in warfare with other Indian states without British mediation.
• This administrative encroachment eventually served as a precursor to formal annexations, such as the takeover of Awadh in 1856 on grounds of alleged maladministration reported by the Resident.

The correct answer is National highway road corridors.

Key Points

• Bharatmala Pariyojana is a centrally-sponsored and funded road and highways project of the Government of India, launched in October 2017.
• It serves as an umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing the efficiency of freight and passenger movement across the country by bridging critical infrastructure gaps.
• The project emphasizes the development of Economic Corridors, Inter-corridors, and Feeder Routes to improve overall connectivity and logistics efficiency.
• It integrates various schemes including the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) and focuses on Border and International connectivity roads, as well as Coastal and Port connectivity roads.
• The first phase of the program envisioned the construction of approximately 34,800 km of roads with an estimated investment of 5.35 lakh crore.

 Additional Information

• Implementing Agencies: The project is executed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), the National Highway and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL), and various State Public Works Departments (PWDs) under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH).
• Sagarmala Programme:
• Unlike Bharatmala, this initiative focuses specifically on port-led development and modernizing India's seaport infrastructure systems.
• UDAN Scheme:
• This program, titled Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik, is aimed at enhancing international and regional airport infrastructure and making air travel affordable.
• National Rail Plan:
• This initiative is dedicated to the national railway transport networks, aiming to increase the modal share of railways in freight to 45 percent by 2030.

The correct answer is VB-G RAM G Act, 2025.

Key Points

• The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 is designed as a modernized legislative framework intended to succeed or extend the mandate of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
• It shifts the core focus from basic guaranteed wage employment to a more robust system of employment incentives, encouraging the rural workforce to engage in high-productivity sectors.
• This act emphasizes the creation of durable community assets and rural infrastructure, moving away from simple manual labor toward skill-based asset management.
• The implementation includes advanced digital monitoring systems and geofencing of projects to ensure that the rural development goals targeted for the year 2025 are met with high transparency.
• It integrates Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanisms more comprehensively to prevent leakages and ensure that incentives reach the rural laborers directly.

 Additional Information

• Jan Dhan Yojana:
• Launched in August 2014, it is the world's largest financial inclusion initiative.
• It provides universal access to banking, including basic savings accounts, insurance, and pension facilities for the unbanked.
• Skill India Mission:
• Launched in July 2015, it aims to train over 40 crore people in India in different vocational skills.
• The mission is overseen by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship to enhance employability.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY):
• Introduced in 2015, it targets workers in the unorganized sector to provide a guaranteed minimum pension.
• It is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).

The correct answer is Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission.

Key Points

• The Samaveshi Aajeevika Yojana (SAY) was introduced in April 2023 as a strategic sub-initiative under the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD).
• It is implemented as part of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), focusing on the socio-economic upliftment of the most marginalized rural households.
• The primary objective of SAY is to bring Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and the ultra-poor under the fold of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to ensure they benefit from mainstream development.
• The scheme utilizes a Graduation Approach, which provides a comprehensive sequence of interventions including consumption support, livelihood assets, and continuous coaching to help families exit extreme poverty.
• The launch of SAY aligns with the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav goals, emphasizing inclusive growth and the saturation of social mobilization in the most remote blocks of India.

 Additional Information

• Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM):
• Originally launched as Aajeevika - NRLM in June 2011, it was renamed in 2015.
• It aims to reach 10 crore rural poor households and organize them into SHGs and federations to provide sustainable livelihood services.
• The mission is supported by the World Bank and focuses on financial inclusion and diversified livelihoods.
• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):
• Enacted in 2005, this act provides a legal guarantee for at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household.
• It is a demand-driven program primarily focused on creating durable community assets like water conservation and rural connectivity.
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):
• Launched in 2015 under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
• It focuses on providing vocational training and certification to Indian youth to make them industry-ready.

The correct answer is November 2025.

Key Points

• The International Conference on Green Hydrogen (ICGH-2025) is scheduled to be held from November 19 to November 21, 2025.
• The event serves as a global platform to discuss the latest advancements, challenges, and opportunities in the Green Hydrogen value chain.
• It is organized by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, and the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
• The conference is expected to take place at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi, bringing together international stakeholders, industry experts, and policymakers.
• This third edition aims to showcase India's progress under the National Green Hydrogen Mission and foster international collaboration for a decarbonized future.

 Additional Information

• National Green Hydrogen Mission:
• Launched in January 2023 with an initial outlay of 19,744 crore.
• Targets a production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per annum by 2030.
• Aims to reduce nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions and save over 1 lakh crore in fossil fuel imports.
• Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT):
• A major component of the mission providing financial incentives for domestic manufacturing of electrolyzers.
• Focuses on the production of Green Hydrogen to ensure cost-competitiveness in global markets.
• Technological Focus:
• Emphasis on renewable energy integration, storage solutions, and development of Green Hydrogen Hubs across the country.

The correct answer is Lending to commercial banks against government securities as collateral.

Key Points

• The Repo Rate, or Repurchase Rate, is the benchmark interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks to meet their short-term liquidity requirements.
• Under this mechanism, banks sell Government Securities (G-Secs) to the RBI with an agreement to repurchase them at a predetermined price on a specific future date.
• It serves as a primary tool of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), allowing the central bank to manage the money supply and control inflation within the Indian economy.
• An increase in the repo rate makes borrowing more expensive for banks, leading to higher interest rates for consumers, which effectively curtails excess liquidity and demand-side inflation.
• Conversely, a decrease in the repo rate injects liquidity into the system by making credit cheaper, thereby encouraging investment and consumption during periods of low economic growth.

 Additional Information

• Related Monetary Policy Instruments:
• Reverse Repo Rate: The rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks to absorb surplus liquidity from the banking system.
• Bank Rate: A long-term lending rate at which the RBI provides credit to banks without requiring collateral; it is typically higher than the repo rate.
• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A window for banks to borrow from the RBI in emergency situations when interbank liquidity is completely exhausted, usually at a rate higher than the repo rate.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC): A six-member statutory body chaired by the RBI Governor that meets at least four times a year to determine the Policy Repo Rate.

The correct answer is Net National Product.

Key Points

• Gross National Product (GNP) is an estimate of the total value of all the final products and services turned out in a given period by the means of production owned by a country's residents.
• Depreciation, also known as the Consumption of Fixed Capital, refers to the wear and tear, accidental damage, and obsolescence of fixed capital assets used in the production process.
• When Depreciation is deducted from the Gross National Product (GNP), the resulting value is the Net National Product (NNP).
• The relationship is expressed by the formula: NNP = GNP − Depreciation.
• Net National Product (NNP) evaluated at factor cost is recognized as the National Income of the country, providing a more accurate reflection of the net contribution of the economy.

 Additional Information

• Net Domestic Product (NDP):
• It is obtained by subtracting Depreciation from the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• Formula: NDP = GDP − Depreciation.
• Personal Income:
• It represents the total income actually received by individuals or households from all sources, including transfer payments (like pensions or subsidies) but excluding undistributed corporate profits and corporate taxes.
• National Disposable Income:
• It refers to the maximum value of goods and services that a nation can consume or save without decreasing its stock of assets.
• It is calculated as NNP at market prices plus net current transfers from the rest of the world.

The correct answer is Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thogai.

Key Points

• The Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thogai is a flagship social welfare scheme of the Tamil Nadu Government aimed at providing financial recognition to women for their household contributions.
• Chief Minister M.K. Stalin initiated the transfer of   ₹5,000 to approximately 1.31 crore beneficiaries, combining the monthly entitlement with special allocations or advance disbursements ahead of the 2026 Assembly elections.
• The scheme was originally launched on September 15, 2023, marking the birth anniversary of the former Chief Minister and Dravidian leader C.N. Annadurai.
• To be eligible, the annual family income of the beneficiary must be less than   ₹2.5 lakh, and the family must own less than five acres of wetland or ten acres of dry land.
• The scheme utilizes the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanism to ensure that the funds reach the bank accounts of the women heads of households directly, minimizing leakages.

 Additional Information

• MNREGA:
• Formally known as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2005), it guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household.
• It is managed by the Ministry of Rural Development and focuses on creating durable assets like roads, canals, and ponds.
• Ayushman Bharat:
• Launched in 2018, it is the world's largest government-funded healthcare program, providing a cover of   ₹5 lakh per family per year.
• It targets the bottom 40% of the Indian population based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data.
• PM-Kisan:
• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi is a central sector scheme that provides   ₹6,000 per year in three equal installments to land-holding farmer families.
• It was operationalized in December 2018 to supplement the financial needs of farmers for procuring various inputs.

The correct answer is 1867.

Key Points

• The Prarthana Samaj was formally established on 31 March 1867 in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• The organization was founded by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang with the objective of making people believe in one God and preaching the worship of one God.
• The movement was deeply influenced by the Brahmo Samaj of Bengal and gained significant popularity after the visit of the reformist leader Keshab Chandra Sen to Maharashtra.
• The main agenda of the Samaj was to provide a rationalistic platform for social and religious reforms within Hinduism, focusing on the spiritual side rather than just ritualistic practices.
• It became a powerful force for social change after Mahadev Govind Ranade joined the movement in 1870, providing it with an intellectual and philosophical foundation.

 Additional Information

• Prominent Leaders:
• Mahadev Govind Ranade: Known as the 'Justice Ranade', he was instrumental in establishing the Widow Remarriage Association.
• R.G. Bhandarkar: A world-renowned orientalist and scholar who contributed to the academic and social stature of the Samaj.
• N.G. Chandavarkar: A prominent leader who later served as the President of the Indian National Congress.
• Core Reform Agenda:
• The Samaj advocated for inter-caste dining and inter-caste marriages to break the rigid caste structure.
• It focused on female education, the abolition of child marriage, and the upliftment of depressed classes.
• Historical Context of Options:
• 1864: This year is associated with the founding of the Veda Samaj in Madras, which followed principles similar to the Brahmo Samaj.
• 1829: This was the year the Sati Regulation Act was passed by Lord William Bentinck, outlawing the practice of Sati across British India.

The correct answer is Lovlina Borgohain.

Key Points

• Lovlina Borgohain secured the gold medal in the 75kg middleweight category at the Elite Women's Boxing tournament held in Hyderabad in 2025.
• Hailing from Assam, she is a prominent amateur boxer who gained international acclaim by winning a bronze medal at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics in the welterweight division.
• Following the restructuring of Olympic weight categories, she transitioned to the 75kg class, where she recently won gold at the 2023 IBA Women's World Boxing Championships in New Delhi.
• Her victory in Hyderabad demonstrates her technical prowess, specifically her ability to utilize her long reach and tactical defensive maneuvers against high-caliber opponents.
• The Elite Women's Boxing championship serves as a critical platform for the Boxing Federation of India (BFI) to evaluate athletes for the national camp and upcoming international qualifiers.

 Additional Information

• Nikhat Zareen:
• She is a two-time World Champion (2022, 2023) and primarily competes in the 50kg flyweight category.
• She represents Telangana and won the gold medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games.
• Saweety Boora:
• An elite boxer from Haryana who competes in the 81kg light heavyweight and 75kg divisions.
• She won the gold medal in the 81kg category at the 2023 World Championships.
• Simranjit Kaur:
• She competes in the 60kg lightweight division and was the first Indian woman boxer from Punjab to qualify for the Olympics.
• She has previously won a bronze medal at the AIBA Women's World Boxing Championships.

The correct answer is Jaspreet Kaur.

Key Points

• Jaspreet Kaur, an elite powerlifter from Punjab, delivered a record-breaking performance at the Khelo India Para Games 2025.
• She competed in the women's 45 kg category and successfully set a new national record by lifting a massive 101 kg.
• Her performance is considered a significant milestone in Indian para-sports, as it highlights the rising technical standards and physical conditioning of female powerlifters in the country.
• The Khelo India Para Games serve as a premier platform for identifying differently-abled sporting talent, providing them with world-class facilities and competitive exposure.
• Kaur's achievement not only secured her the gold medal but also positioned her as a top contender for upcoming international events, including the World Para Powerlifting Championships.

 Additional Information

• Sheetal Devi:
• A world-renowned Para Archer from Jammu and Kashmir, known for being the first armless female archer to compete at the international level using her legs.
• She won two gold medals at the 2022 Asian Para Games and is a recipient of the prestigious Arjuna Award.
• Khelo India Initiative:
• Introduced by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, this program aims to strengthen the sports ecosystem in India through various segments like Youth Games, University Games, and Para Games.
• The Para Games focus on inclusivity, ensuring that athletes with physical impairments receive the same financial assistance and training support as able-bodied athletes.
• Para Powerlifting Rules:
• Athletes compete in the bench press discipline, where their strength is measured based on a single lift of the barbell.
• The sport is governed by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC) and follows strict weight-category classifications to ensure fair competition.

The correct answer is Kruti.

Key Points

• Kruti is a sophisticated AI-powered chatbot officially introduced in June 2025, specifically designed to cater to the unique needs of the Indian population.
• The chatbot is built to be inclusive, supporting a total of 13 Indian languages, which allows a vast majority of regional language speakers to interact with technology in their native tongue.
• A primary design goal for Kruti was smartphone optimization, ensuring that users with entry-level mobile devices can access high-quality Artificial Intelligence services without requiring high-end hardware.
• The interface supports both text-based and voice-based interactions, utilizing advanced Natural Language Processing (NLP) to understand and respond to diverse linguistic nuances and local dialects.
• It serves as a versatile tool for digital literacy, helping users navigate complex services in sectors such as healthcare, agriculture, and governance through simple conversational queries.

 Additional Information

• Bhashini Mission and Multilingual AI:
• The development of Kruti is closely linked to the Bhashini Mission (National Language Translation Mission), which aims to provide internet access and digital services in all 22 scheduled languages of India.
• By utilizing open-source datasets and indigenous Large Language Models (LLMs), such chatbots reduce the digital divide between urban and rural areas.
• These AI tools are essential for the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision, promoting domestic software development and data sovereignty.
• Technological Capabilities:
• Voice Recognition: It uses Automatic Speech Recognition (ASR) tailored for Indian accents, which is crucial for users with varying literacy levels.
• Real-time Translation: The system can perform Neural Machine Translation to provide information sourced in English or other languages back to the user in their preferred regional language.
• User Privacy: The platform emphasizes data localization, ensuring that user interactions are processed within Indian data centers to maintain security standards.

The correct answer is Intermediate goods.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined as the total market value of all final goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a country during a specific financial year.
• Intermediate goods refer to products used as inputs or raw materials in the production of other goods (e.g., steel used to manufacture a car or flour used by a bakery).
• These goods are excluded from the GDP calculation to prevent the economic error of double counting, which artificially inflates the size of the economy.
• The value of intermediate goods is already embedded in the market price of the final product sold to the end consumer.
• Economists use the Value Added Method to ensure that only the incremental value created at each stage of production is counted, or they simply record the final sale price.

 Additional Information

• The standard formula for calculating GDP via the Expenditure Method is GDP = C + I + G + (X − M).
• Final consumer goods (C): Includes private consumption expenditures by households on durable and non-durable items like food, clothing, and services.
• Exports of goods (X): Represents domestic production sold to foreign countries; it is added to the GDP as it reflects domestic economic activity.
• Government services (G): Includes government spending on public goods, infrastructure, defense, and salaries of public employees.
• Investment (I): Refers to business spending on capital goods like machinery, equipment, and construction of new factories.
• Net Exports (X − M): Calculated by subtracting total imports (M) from total exports to determine the net contribution of foreign trade.

The correct answer is Charyapada.

Key Points

• The Charyapada is a collection of 47 mystical padas (hymns) representing the earliest extant work of Bengali literature, dating from the 8th to 12th century CE during the Pala Empire.
• It was discovered by the renowned scholar Hara Prasad Shastri in 1907 within the archives of the Nepal Royal Court Library.
• The verses were authored by Siddhacharyas (Mahasiddhas), including prominent spiritual figures like Luipa, Kahnapa, Bhusukupa, and Sarahapa, who were practitioners of Vajrayana and Sahajayana Buddhism.
• The language of these hymns is an early form of Eastern Indo-Aryan, characterized as Sandhya Bhasha or 'Twilight Language', which employed metaphorical imagery to convey esoteric spiritual meanings.
• Beyond its religious significance, the collection serves as a primary source for studying the linguistic evolution of Bengali, Assamese, Odia, and Maithili.

 Additional Information

• Gathasaptasati:
• An ancient anthology of 700 Prakrit poems compiled by the Satavahana King Hala.
• It centers on themes of human emotion, love, and the rural landscape of the Deccan region rather than religious hymns.
• Gitagovinda:
• A 12th-century Sanskrit lyrical poem composed by Jayadeva, the court poet of Lakshmana Sena.
• It details the complex relationship and divine love between Radha and Krishna, serving as a cornerstone for the Bhakti movement.
• Mangalkavya:
• A genre of Medieval Bengali narrative poems composed between the 13th and 18th centuries.
• These works celebrate the legends of indigenous deities like Manasa, Chandi, and Dharma Thakur, illustrating their influence over human lives.

The correct answer is Udaygiri.

Key Points

• Udaygiri is the second stealth frigate of Project 17A (Nilgiri-class) to be commissioned into the Indian Navy, following the lead ship, INS Nilgiri.
• The vessel was designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau and constructed by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) in Mumbai, emphasizing indigenous shipbuilding capabilities.
• It is named after a mountain range in the state of Andhra Pradesh, carrying forward the legacy of the erstwhile Leander-class frigate INS Udaygiri which served from 1976 to 2007.
• The ship incorporates Integrated Construction technology and advanced stealth features, including radar-transparent deck fittings and specialized hull shaping to reduce its Radar Cross Section (RCS).
• Equipped with a primary armament of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles and Barak-8 Long Range Surface-to-Air Missiles (LRSAM), it provides robust multi-dimensional combat capabilities.
• The propulsion system consists of a Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) configuration, featuring two General Electric LM2500 gas turbines for high-speed operations.

 Additional Information

• Shivalik-class Frigates:
• Includes ships like INS Shivalik and INS Sahyadri, which belong to the Project 17 class.
• These were the first stealth warships built in India, commissioned between 2010 and 2012.
• Project 17A is a direct follow-on to this class with significantly improved automation and weapon systems.
• INS Viraat:
• A Centaur-class aircraft carrier, originally HMS Hermes of the Royal Navy.
• It served as the flagship of the Indian Navy for nearly three decades before being decommissioned in March 2017.

The correct answer is Running your own tailoring shop.

Key Points

• Self-employment refers to a situation where an individual earns their livelihood by working for themselves rather than for an employer or a company.
• An individual running a tailoring shop is the owner of the enterprise, manages the resources, invests the capital, and is responsible for both the profits and losses generated by the business.
• In this form of employment, the person has the autonomy to decide their working hours, the nature of services provided, and the pricing strategy for their work.
• According to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), self-employed workers constitute a significant portion of the Indian workforce, encompassing shopkeepers, traders, and professional freelancers.
• Unlike wage laborers or salaried employees, a self-employed person uses their own assets (like sewing machines and shop space) to produce goods or services for the market.

 Additional Information

• Wage Employment and Regular Salaried Workers:
• Daily wage worker in construction: Classified as casual labor, where workers are hired on a temporary basis and do not receive social security benefits like provident funds or pensions.
• School teacher in a private school and Working in a bank: These represent regular salaried employment. In these roles, individuals work for an organization under a contract and receive a predetermined salary at regular intervals.
• Characteristics of the Labor Force:
• Risk Factor: Self-employment involves a higher degree of entrepreneurial risk compared to salaried positions.
• Income Variability: The income in self-employment is often fluctuating based on market demand, whereas salaried roles offer income stability.
• Contribution to GDP: Small-scale self-employed enterprises, such as tailoring shops or local groceries, are vital components of the informal economy and contribute significantly to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of developing nations.

The correct answer is Subsidiary Alliance.

Key Points

• The state of Awadh was brought under the Subsidiary Alliance system in 1801 by Lord Wellesley.
• Under the terms of this treaty, the Nawab of Awadh, Saadat Ali Khan II, was forced to disband his own military and instead pay for a British contingent to be stationed within his borders.
• The Subsidiary Alliance required the Nawab to accept a British Resident at the court in Lucknow, who began interfering heavily in the internal administration and governance of the kingdom.
• This policy systematically weakened the Nawab's authority and financial autonomy, as he had to cede nearly half of his territory (including Rohilkhand and the Lower Doab) to the East India Company to meet the cost of the British troops.
• The resulting administrative paralysis and financial drain were later used by Lord Dalhousie as a justification to annex Awadh in February 1856 on the grounds of maladministration and failure to govern effectively.

 Additional Information

• Doctrine of Lapse:
• Implemented by Lord Dalhousie (1848–1856), this policy allowed the British to annex any princely state if the ruler died without a natural male heir.
• Key states annexed through this method included Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1849), Udaipur (1852), Nagpur (1853), and Jhansi (1854).
• Permanent Settlement:
• Introduced in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis, it was a land revenue system primarily in Bengal and Bihar where Zamindars were recognized as landowners.
• The revenue amount payable to the East India Company was fixed permanently, leading to the oppression of peasants.
• Ryotwari System:
• Devised by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read, this system established a direct settlement between the government and the Ryots (cultivators).
• It was predominantly implemented in the Madras and Bombay Presidencies.

The correct answer is Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Key Points

• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar when Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered troops to fire upon a peaceful assembly of unarmed civilians.
• The crowd had gathered to celebrate the Baisakhi festival and to protest the arrest of nationalist leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal under the draconian Rowlatt Act.
• The extreme violence resulted in hundreds of casualties and sparked widespread outrage and civil disturbances across the Punjab province and northern India.
• To suppress the rising nationalist fervor and regain control, the British government officially imposed martial law in the districts of Amritsar, Lahore, Gujranwala, Lyallpur, and Sheikhupura on April 15, 1919.
• Under martial law, the military was granted absolute power, leading to regressive measures such as public floggings, the infamous crawling order, and the suspension of basic civil liberties.

 Additional Information

• Ghadar conspiracy:
• An attempt in 1915 by the Ghadar Party to trigger a pan-Indian mutiny within the British Indian Army during World War I.
• Chauri Chaura incident:
• Occurred in February 1922 in Gorakhpur, where a violent clash led Mahatma Gandhi to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• Rowlatt Act (1919):
• Officially the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, it allowed the colonial government to imprison individuals without trial for up to two years, triggering the Rowlatt Satyagraha.
• Hunter Commission:
• Following the massacre, the British government appointed the Disorders Inquiry Committee, chaired by Lord Hunter, to investigate the events in Punjab.

The correct answer is Epithelial tissue.

Key Points

• Epithelial tissue constitutes the outermost layer of the skin and the inner lining of various systems, including the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts.
• It is composed of cells that are tightly joined together by specialized junctions, forming a continuous sheet with a free surface and a basement membrane.
• The absorption function is predominantly seen in the simple columnar epithelium of the intestines, which often features microvilli to increase surface area for efficient nutrient transport.
• Secretion is performed by specialized goblet cells and glandular structures that produce mucus, digestive enzymes, and hormones essential for physiological processes.
• This tissue also provides a vital protective barrier against mechanical injury, chemical exposure, and invading pathogens through its selective permeability.

 Additional Information

• Nervous tissue:
• Primarily contains neurons that receive and conduct nerve impulses and neuroglia that support them.
• Essential for sensory perception, motor control, and maintaining homeostasis through electrical signaling.
• Muscle tissue:
• Contains contractile proteins like actin and myosin that facilitate movement.
• Includes smooth muscle, which assists in the involuntary movement of substances through internal organs such as the stomach and esophagus.
• Connective tissue:
• Characterized by an extensive extracellular matrix that separates cells.
• Includes specialized types such as areolar tissue, bone, cartilage, and blood, which provide structural support and bind organs together.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• The Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills are the primary hill ranges forming the Meghalaya Plateau, also known as the Shillong Plateau.
• These hills are located in the northeastern state of Meghalaya, a name that translates to the 'Abode of Clouds' in Sanskrit.
• The region is globally recognized for its extreme orographic rainfall, caused by the Southwest Monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal being trapped in the funnel-shaped topography of the hills.
• Mawsynram and Cherrapunji, located in the East Khasi Hills, are famous for receiving the highest annual rainfall in the world.
• Geologically, these hills are an extension of the Deccan Plateau and are separated from the Chota Nagpur Plateau by the Malda Fault.

 Additional Information

• Assam:
• Home to the Brahmaputra Valley and the Karbi Anglong Hills, which are also part of the same geological plateau system as the Meghalaya hills.
• Arunachal Pradesh:
• Known as the 'Land of the Rising Sun', this state houses the Patkai Bum and Mishmi Hills, which are part of the Eastern Himalayas.
• Nagaland:
• Features the Naga Hills, with Mount Saramati as its highest peak, and serves as a significant biological corridor between India and Myanmar.
• Biodiversity:
• The Garo-Khasi-Jaintia region is a biodiversity hotspot, featuring the Nokrek Biosphere Reserve and numerous Sacred Groves protected by local tribes.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The sites of Eran, Nachna-Kuthara, and Udaygiri are situated in the state of Madhya Pradesh, while Deogarh is located on the border in the Lalitpur district, historically part of the Central Indian architectural circuit.
• These sites represent the pinnacle of Gupta Architecture, dating back to the 4th to 6th centuries CE, a period often referred to as the Golden Age of Indian art and temple construction.
• The temples at these locations mark the transition from rock-cut caves to free-standing structural temples, laying the foundation for the Nagara style of architecture.
• Common features among these sites include the use of sandstone, a square Garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum), and elaborate carvings on the doorjambs featuring river goddesses Ganga and Yamuna.

 Additional Information

• Deogarh (Dashavatara Temple):
• It is one of the earliest Panchayatana style temples, dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
• It features one of the first known examples of a Shikhara (temple spire) in North Indian architecture.
• Udaygiri Caves:
• Located near Vidisha, these consist of 20 rock-cut caves.
• Cave 5 contains the world-famous relief of the Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu rescuing Goddess Earth.
• Eran:
• Located in the Sagar district, it is famous for its massive monolithic Varaha statue and the first recorded evidence of Sati in 510 CE.
• Nachna-Kuthara:
• Situated in the Panna district, it is known for the Parvati Temple, which showcases early stone-lattice windows and simplified structure.

The correct answer is Dravida.

Key Points

• The Dravida style is the classic architectural tradition of South India, flourishing primarily in the region between the Krishna River and Cape Comorin.
• A defining feature of this style is the Vimana, a pyramid-shaped tower consisting of progressively smaller storeys, culminating in a dome-shaped capstone called the Shikhara or Stupika.
• Unlike Northern temples, Dravidian complexes are enclosed by high boundary walls with majestic, multi-storeyed entrance gateways known as Gopurams.
• The Garbhagriha (sanctum) is typically square in plan and is preceded by a pillared assembly hall called a Mandapa.
• The Chola Empire (9th–13th century CE) represented the pinnacle of this style, producing masterpieces like the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur, which features a Vimana rising to 66 meters.
• Another essential component is the Temple Tank (Pushkarni), used for ritual purification, reflecting the integrated socio-religious role of the temple in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.

 Additional Information

• Nagara Style:
• Prevalent in Northern India, it is characterized by a curvilinear tower and the absence of elaborate enclosures or Gopurams.
• The entire structure is usually built on a raised stone platform called a Jagati.
• Vesar Style:
• A hybrid style that emerged in the Deccan under the Later Chalukyas and Hoysalas, blending elements of Nagara and Dravida architecture.
• It is often found in the region between the Vindhyas and the Krishna River.
• Sarvatobhadra:
• A specific architectural layout where the temple is open and accessible from all four cardinal directions, often found in ancient Vastu Shastra texts.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2020-2021, released by the Ministry of Education, Uttar Pradesh has the highest student enrollment in India.
• The survey reported that Uttar Pradesh accounts for nearly 16.07% of the total student enrollment in the country, followed by Maharashtra at 12.6%.
• In terms of absolute numbers, Uttar Pradesh recorded a student enrollment of approximately 66.7 lakh students during the 2020-2021 academic session.
• The state also hosts a vast infrastructure for higher education, including a high concentration of Colleges and Universities, which contributes to its leading position in student volume.
• Nationwide, total enrollment in higher education increased to 4.14 crore in 2020-21, which is a growth of 7.5% from 2019-20 and a 21% increase since 2014-15.

 Additional Information

• AISHE 2020-2021 Comparative Statistics:
• Maharashtra: Ranked second in student enrollment, significantly contributing to the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in the western region.
• Tamil Nadu: Known for having the highest Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) among major states, despite having lower total enrollment numbers than Uttar Pradesh.
• Gender Parity Index (GPI): The survey highlighted an improvement in GPI to 1.05, indicating that for every 100 male students, there are 105 female students enrolled in higher education.
• Institution Count: The top states in terms of number of colleges are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat.
• Special Categories: Enrollment of Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) students improved by 28% and 47% respectively since 2014-15.

The correct answer is Balanced diet.

Key Points

• A balanced diet is a nutritional plan that provides all the essential macronutrients (carbohydrates, proteins, and fats) and micronutrients (vitamins and minerals) in correct proportions to sustain physiological functions and optimal health.
• It ensures the body receives the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of nutrients, which is crucial for preventing malnutrition, anemia, scurvy, and other deficiency-related diseases.
• In a typical balanced diet, carbohydrates usually account for 50-60% of daily calories, fats for 20-30%, and proteins for 10-15%, ensuring a steady supply of metabolic energy and building blocks for tissue repair.
• Adequate intake of dietary fiber (roughage) and fluids is a fundamental component of this diet to facilitate digestion, maintain bowel health, and prevent dehydration.
• The composition of a balanced diet varies according to an individual's age, gender, basal metabolic rate (BMR), and level of physical activity.

 Additional Information

• Raw Food Diet:
• Focuses on consuming unprocessed and unheated plant-based foods, typically not heated above 40-48 degrees Celsius.
• Proponents suggest that cooking destroys natural enzymes and heat-sensitive phytonutrients, though it may also make some foods harder to digest.
• Crash Diet:
• An extreme calorie-restrictive dietary approach intended for rapid weight loss over a very short duration.
• These diets are often nutritionally incomplete and can lead to metabolic slowdown, muscle loss, and the yo-yo effect, where weight is quickly regained.
• Therapeutic Diet:
• A medical nutrition therapy prescribed by a doctor or registered dietitian to manage a specific health condition or disease.
• Examples include low-sodium diets for hypertension, gluten-free diets for Celiac disease, and low-carbohydrate diets for Diabetes Mellitus.

The correct answer is Patanjali.

Key Points

• Patanjali was a distinguished ancient Indian grammarian and philosopher who composed the Mahabhashya during the 2nd Century BCE. He is historically associated with the reign of Pushyamitra Shunga of the Shunga Dynasty.
• The Mahabhashya (The Great Commentary) serves as the primary and most authoritative exposition on Panini’s Ashtadhyayi and the Varttikas (critical annotations) authored by Katyayana.
• This work is a landmark in Linguistic Philosophy, utilizing a dialectical method consisting of purvapaksha (arguments) and siddhanta (conclusions) to explain the nuances of Sanskrit morphology and syntax.
• By addressing the gaps between Panini’s original rules and the linguistic shifts observed during his time, Patanjali solidified the foundation of Classical Sanskrit.
• The triad of Panini, Katyayana, and Patanjali is revered in Indian tradition as the Munitrayam (The Three Sages), who established the definitive structure of the Vyakarana (grammar) tradition.

 Additional Information

• Panini:
• Regarded as the Father of Linguistics, he composed the Ashtadhyayi around the 4th or 5th Century BCE.
• The text contains approximately 3,959 sutras organized into eight chapters, providing a generative framework for the Sanskrit language.
• Katyayana:
• Also known as Vararuchi, he composed the Varttikas to elaborate upon and refine Panini’s rules.
• His work bridges the temporal and linguistic gap between the foundational work of Panini and the comprehensive commentary of Patanjali.
• Bhartrihari:
• A later grammarian-philosopher (circa 5th Century CE) who authored the Vakyapadiya.
• He is famous for proposing the Sphota theory, which explores the metaphysical relationship between words, meanings, and the eternal consciousness.

The correct answer is Alleles.

Key Points

• Alleles are defined as alternative forms of the same gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place (locus) on a chromosome.
• Each gene usually has two or more alleles. In diploid organisms, an individual inherits one allele from each parent for every gene.
• Alleles are responsible for the variations in inherited characteristics. For example, a single gene for eye color may have different alleles resulting in blue, brown, or green eyes.
• The interaction between alleles can be dominant or recessive. A dominant allele expresses its trait even if only one copy is present, whereas a recessive allele requires two copies to manifest the trait.
• The concept of alleles was first fundamentally explored by Gregor Mendel through his experiments on pea plants, where he identified discrete units of inheritance.

 Additional Information

• Genotypes
• Refers to the genetic makeup of an organism, representing the specific set of alleles it carries (e.g., AA, Aa, or aa).
• Phenotypes
• Refers to the observable physical traits or biochemical characteristics of an organism, determined by both its genotype and environmental factors.
• Chromosomes
• These are long, thread-like structures located inside the nucleus of animal and plant cells, made of protein and a single molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
• Humans typically have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs) in each cell, which serve as the primary carriers of genetic information.

The correct answer is Tamil, spoken widely in South India.

Key Points

• Tamil is a member of the Dravidian language family and is one of the oldest surviving classical languages in the world, with a recorded history spanning over 2000 years.
• In 2004, the Government of India officially recognized Tamil as the first Classical Language of India based on its antiquity, original literary tradition, and high heritage value.
• The Tirukkural, a foundational text in Tamil literature, was authored by the legendary poet and philosopher Thiruvalluvar, often dated between the 3rd century BCE and the 5th century CE.
• The text consists of 1330 short couplets or kurals, which are organized into 133 chapters (athikarams), each containing ten couplets.
• The work is structured into three main sections: Aram (Virtue/Ethics), Porul (Wealth/Social Values), and Inbam (Love/Desire), providing a comprehensive guide to secular morality.
• The Tirukkural is celebrated globally for its universal appeal and has been translated into more than 40 languages, influencing scholars and leaders worldwide.

 Additional Information

• Kannada:
• Primarily spoken in Karnataka, it was accorded classical status in 2008.
• Its earliest known literary work is the Kavirajamarga (9th century CE).
• Telugu:
• Spoken in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, it also received classical status in 2008.
• It is often referred to as the Italian of the East due to its vowel-ending words.
• Sanskrit:
• An ancient Indo-Aryan language and the primary liturgical language of Hinduism.
• It was declared a classical language in 2005 and is famous for the Vedas and Upanishads.
• Classical Language Criteria:
• The Government of India identifies classical languages based on a recorded history of 1500 to 2000 years and an original literary tradition not borrowed from another speech community.

The correct answer is Only Statement II is correct.

Key Points

• Primitive subsistence farming is typically practiced on small patches of land using traditional tools such as the hoe, dao, and digging sticks, relying heavily on family or community labor. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• The agricultural production in this system is almost entirely dependent on the monsoon, natural fertility of the soil, and other environmental conditions suitable for the crops grown, leaving little to no surplus for commercial trade. Hence, statement II is correct.
• This type of farming is characterized by a low level of technology and self-sufficiency, where the primary goal of the cultivator is to ensure food security for their own household rather than generating profit through markets.

 Additional Information

• Slash and Burn Agriculture:
• This is a prominent form of primitive subsistence farming where farmers clear a patch of land by burning vegetation to produce food crops.
• When soil fertility declines, farmers move to a new patch, allowing nature to replenish the soil through natural processes.
• It is known as Jhumming in North-Eastern states like Assam and Meghalaya, Milpa in Mexico, and Ladang in Indonesia.
• Commercial Farming:
• Unlike subsistence farming, this method uses high doses of modern inputs like HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides.
• The degree of commercialization varies by region; for instance, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but a subsistence crop in Odisha.

The correct answer is State Election Commission.

Key Points

• The State Election Commission (SEC) is a constitutional authority created under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 to ensure the autonomous conduct of local body elections.
• Under Article 243K of the Constitution of India, the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) are vested in the State Election Commission.
• The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the state, ensuring that the management of local elections remains independent of the state executive and the Election Commission of India.
• The jurisdiction of the SEC extends to all three tiers of the Panchayati Raj system, including the Gram Panchayat (village), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate), and Zila Parishad (district).
• The 73rd Amendment Act specifically aimed at decentralizing power, making it mandatory for states to hold elections for these bodies every five years under the supervision of the SEC.

 Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• Established under Article 324, the ECI is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), State Legislative Assemblies and Councils, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
• The ECI has no constitutional role in conducting elections for Panchayats or Municipalities.
• State Government:
• While the State Government enacts the laws governing the Panchayati Raj system and determines the reservation of seats, it does not conduct the elections directly to prevent political interference.
• Removal Process:
• To safeguard independence, the State Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except in a manner and on grounds similar to those of a Judge of a High Court.

The correct answer is Chhotanagpur Plateau.

Key Points

• The Chhotanagpur Plateau region is renowned as the industrial heartland of India, hosting the highest concentration of iron and steel industries due to its immense mineral wealth and geographical location.
• The region encompasses parts of Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh, providing a strategic advantage for integrated steel plants.
• Raw Material Proximity: It is situated close to massive reserves of high-grade iron ore (found in the Singhbhum and Keonjhar belts), coking coal (from Jharia and Raniganj), and essential fluxes like limestone and dolomite.
• Water and Power Supply: The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) provides consistent thermal and hydroelectric power, while perennial rivers like the Damodar, Subarnarekha, and Brahmani fulfill the heavy water requirements of the cooling towers and processing units.
• Transportation Network: A highly developed network of the South Eastern Railway and Eastern Railway connects the production centers to the Kolkata and Haldia ports for international trade.
• Human Resources: The high population density in the neighboring states of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal ensures a steady supply of low-cost labor for large-scale industrial operations.

 Additional Information

• Deccan Plateau
• Characterized by basaltic rocks and black soil, this region is a global leader in cotton production and the textile industry.
• It lacks the necessary metallurgical coal required for large-scale steel manufacturing compared to the northeast.
• Western Ghats
• A significant biodiversity hotspot and UNESCO World Heritage site where industrial expansion is strictly regulated to preserve evergreen forests and ecological balance.
• The region focuses more on plantation crops like coffee, tea, and rubber.
• Coastal Andhra Pradesh
• Home to the Visakhapatnam Steel Plant, which is notable for being India's first shore-based integrated steel plant, leveraging maritime connectivity.
• However, the overall concentration of heavy metal industries is significantly lower than that of the Chhotanagpur belt.
• Major Industrial Units
• The region houses iconic plants such as TISCO (Jamshedpur), Bokaro Steel Plant, Durgapur Steel Plant, and the Rourkela Steel Plant, establishing it as the Ruhr of India.

The correct answer is Decomposers.

Key Points

• Decomposers are microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi that break down complex organic matter from dead plants and animals into simpler inorganic substances.
• The process of decomposition is essential for the nutrient cycle as it releases vital elements like Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium back into the Earth's crust.
• Through mineralization, decomposers convert organic nitrogen into ammonium and other inorganic forms that can be easily absorbed by plant roots, ensuring soil fertility is maintained.
• They act as the ecosystem's recycling agents, preventing the accumulation of organic waste and ensuring the continuous flow of energy and matter across different trophic levels.
• The presence of humus, a dark organic substance formed by the decay of plant and animal matter, improves soil structure, moisture retention, and aeration, all facilitated by decomposing organisms.

 Additional Information

• Producers
• Commonly known as autotrophs, these include green plants and algae that produce biomass using sunlight via photosynthesis.
• Instead of replenishing soil, they deplete soil nutrients to build their tissues.
• Parasites
• These organisms live in or on a host organism and obtain nutrients at the host's expense.
• They do not play a role in the natural replenishment of soil minerals or the breakdown of detritus.
• Primary Consumers
• These are herbivores that feed directly on producers to obtain energy.
• While their excreta adds organic matter to the soil, they are not the primary agents responsible for the chemical breakdown required for nutrient recycling.

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties were not present in the original Indian Constitution; they were added later to outline the ethical and civic obligations of citizens toward the nation.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 1976 during the Emergency, incorporated a new Part IV-A consisting of a single Article 51A.
• This amendment specifically added 10 Fundamental Duties based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was appointed to study the need for such provisions.
• While the committee had suggested the inclusion of only eight duties, the Union Government decided to include ten duties in the constitutional framework.
• These duties emphasize the importance of sovereignty, unity, integrity, and the secular fabric of India, requiring citizens to respect national symbols like the National Flag and the National Anthem.

 Additional Information

• Swaran Singh Committee:
• Formed in 1976 by the Indian National Congress, it aimed to recommend changes that would balance individual rights with social responsibilities.
• The committee also suggested making the non-performance of duties punishable, but this recommendation was not accepted by the Parliament.
• 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002:
• This amendment added the 11th Fundamental Duty, which mandates parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
• Nature and Source:
• The concept of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the constitution of the former USSR.
• Like the Directive Principles of State Policy, these duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced directly by a court of law, although they serve as a guide for interpreting constitutional laws.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• India has a total coastline of 7,516.6 km, which includes 5,422.6 km of mainland coastline and 2,094 km belonging to island territories like Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep.
• Among the states located on the Western Coast of India, Gujarat possesses the longest coastline, measuring approximately 1,214.7 km.
• The Gujarat coast is uniquely shaped by two major indentations: the Gulf of Kutch and the Gulf of Khambhat, which significantly extend its geographical length along the Arabian Sea.
• This coastline accounts for nearly 23 percent of India's total mainland coast, making Gujarat a hub for maritime trade, petrochemical industries, and salt production.
• The Western Coastal Plains are divided into sub-regions: the Kachchh and Kathiawar coast in Gujarat, the Konkan coast in Maharashtra, the Canara coast in Karnataka, and the Malabar coast in Kerala.

 Additional Information

• Maharashtra:
• It features a coastline of about 652.6 km, known as the Konkan Coast, which is rugged and characterized by cliffs and creeks.
• The state hosts major ports like Mumbai Port and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT), which handle a vast majority of India's container traffic.
• Kerala:
• The Kerala coastline, or Malabar Coast, spans roughly 569.7 km and is famous for its backwaters (Kayals) and lagoons.
• The Vembanad Lake is a significant feature of this coastal stretch, supporting local fishing and coir industries.
• Goa:
• Goa has the shortest coastline among the western coastal states, measuring approximately 101 km.
• Despite its size, the Goan coast is a global tourism destination and houses the Mormugao Port, a major iron ore exporting hub.
• Andhra Pradesh:
• While not on the western coast, it is noteworthy as it has the longest coastline on the Eastern Coast (974 km) and the second-longest overall in India.

The correct answer is Vitamin K.

Key Points

• Vitamins are essential organic micronutrients that the body requires in small quantities to maintain metabolic functions and overall health.
• Vitamin K is classified as a fat-soluble vitamin, meaning it dissolves in organic solvents and is absorbed in the small intestine along with dietary fats via chylomicrons.
• Scientifically, Vitamin K exists in two primary forms: Phylloquinone (K1), primarily found in green leafy vegetables, and Menaquinones (K2), which are synthesized by gut bacteria and found in fermented foods.
• The most critical biological function of Vitamin K is its role as a cofactor for the enzyme gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which is necessary for the post-translational modification of blood clotting factors (II, VII, IX, and X).
• Due to its hydrophobic nature, Vitamin K is stored in the liver and fatty tissues, unlike water-soluble vitamins which are readily excreted through the renal system.

 Additional Information

• The classification of vitamins is based on their solubility:
• Fat-Soluble Vitamins: These include Vitamin A (Retinol), Vitamin D (Calciferol), Vitamin E (Tocopherol), and Vitamin K. They require bile salts for effective absorption.
• Water-Soluble Vitamins: These include Vitamin C and the entire Vitamin B-complex. They are not stored in large amounts and require frequent replenishment.
• Analysis of other options:
• Vitamin C: Also known as Ascorbic Acid, it is water-soluble and acts as a powerful antioxidant and is essential for collagen production.
• Vitamin B12: Known as Cobalamin, it is a water-soluble vitamin unique for containing a metal ion (cobalt) and is vital for DNA synthesis and nerve tissue health.
• Vitamin B6: Known as Pyridoxine, it is a water-soluble vitamin involved in over 100 enzyme reactions, mostly concerned with protein metabolism.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• Under Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India, every Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose.
• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President, and in the case of appointment of other judges, consultation with the CJI is mandatory.
• According to Article 217, every Judge of a High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and, in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court.
• The process is currently governed by the Collegium System, where a body of the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court recommends names to the Central Government, which are then forwarded to the President for formal appointment.

 Additional Information

• Collegium System:
• This system evolved through three landmark legal cases known as the Three Judges Cases (1981, 1993, and 1998).
• It ensures the independence of the judiciary by giving the judiciary a primary role in its own appointments, though the formal authority remains the President of India.
• Prime Minister of India:
• The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers advise the President on various matters, but the Constitution specifically vests the power of judicial appointment in the President.
• Qualification for Appointment:
• To be appointed as a Supreme Court judge, a person must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of a High Court for at least 5 years, or an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years, or a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.

The correct answer is It provides for a three-tier structure with direct elections to Panchayat members..

Key Points

• Statement 1 suggests a three-tier structure with indirect elections at all levels; however, Article 243C of the Indian Constitution specifies that while chairpersons at higher levels are indirectly elected, the members of all tiers are chosen through direct elections. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 correctly identifies that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, established a uniform three-tier system consisting of the Gram Panchayat (village), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate), and Zila Parishad (district) with members elected directly by the people. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 describes a two-tier structure with indirect elections; however, the Act mandates a three-tier structure for all states, with a small exception for states with a population below 20 lakhs who may opt for a two-tier system. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Statement 4 mentions a district-level body nominated by the State Government; in reality, the 73rd Amendment decentralized power by replacing nominated bodies with democratically elected representatives to ensure grassroots democracy. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Institutional Framework:
• Part IX: The amendment added Part IX to the Constitution, titled 'The Panchayats', covering Articles 243 to 243O.
• 11th Schedule: It introduced the Eleventh Schedule, listing 29 functional items such as agriculture, land improvement, and social forestry under the jurisdiction of Panchayats.
• Gram Sabha: It is the foundation of the system, consisting of all registered voters in the village area.
• State Election Commission: Formed under Article 243K, it holds the responsibility for conducting independent and fair elections to the PRIs.
• Finance Commission: Article 243I requires the Governor to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial health of local bodies and recommend tax devolution.
• Reservations: Provision for one-third reservation for women (including the number of seats reserved for SCs and STs) is mandatory across all levels.

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is a fundamental right categorized under the Right to Freedom. It explicitly mandates that no person, whether a citizen or a foreigner, shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• This Article acts as a shield against arbitrary executive action. Following the landmark Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (1978) case, the Supreme Court ruled that the procedure must not be arbitrary, but rather just, fair, and reasonable, effectively introducing the American concept of 'due process of law'.
• The scope of this Article has been significantly broadened by judicial activism to include the right to live with human dignity, the right to privacy (reiterated in the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment), the right to a clean environment, and the right to free legal aid.
• During a National Emergency declared under Article 352, the rights guaranteed by Article 20 and Article 21 cannot be suspended, making them the most resilient protections for individual liberty.

 Additional Information

• Article 14:
• It guarantees Equality before Law and Equal Protection of Laws to all persons within the territory of India.
• It prohibits discrimination and ensures that the state treats all individuals equally in similar circumstances.
• Article 19:
• It guarantees six democratic freedoms to citizens only, including freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions on grounds like national security and public order.
• Article 32:
• Known as the Right to Constitutional Remedies, it allows individuals to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously described this Article as the 'Heart and Soul' of the Constitution because it provides the power to issue writs such as Habeas Corpus and Mandamus.