DSSSB MTS Official Paper (Held On: 08 Mar, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Family Chart:

Family tree,

Q is T's mother's brother's wife.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Family Chart:

Symbol Reference:

Given: G#UN%J&Y

It means: G is the daughter of U, U is the father of N, N is the sister of J, and J is the son of Y.

G is the daughter of Y.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

‘rain cools earth’ is coded as ‘rm hn gp’ 

‘the rain falls’ is coded as ‘zf ev hn’. 

Code for "rain" is "hn".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) 6 8 % * ? & & 6 5 7 7 6 6 < 7 / % / 7 / 8 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Symbol ← Symbol → Number

Checking the series:

(Left) 6 8 % * ? & & 6 5 7 7 6 6 < 7 / % / 7 / 8 (Right)

There are two such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

A, B, C, R, S and T live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. Only R lives above S.
2. C lives immediately below S.
3. Only T lives below B. 

The final floor arrangement is:

Two people live between A and R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given series:

(Left) P I W M I W Z I O F U Q A R D Y D L T (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Vowel ← Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) P I W M I W Z I O F U Q A R D Y D L T (Right)

There are two such consonant that satisfies the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.

1. Only one person sits to the right of A.
2. G sits fourth from the left end of the row.
3. Only two people sit between D and A.
4. B sits to the immediate left of F.
5. C is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

‘JIMS’ is coded as ‘4598’ 

‘MIKS’ is coded as ‘4965’. 

Code for "K" is "6".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) £ 5 # 2 2 € * * € 2 2 4 £ 6 5 # 8 9 7 * @ $ (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Symbol → Number

Checking the series:

(Left) £ 5 # 2 2 € * * € 2 2 4 £ 6 5 # 8 9 7 * @ $ (Right)

There are three such symbols that are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statement:

W < X < Y < Z > D

Conclusions:

I: D > X → False (From the given statement, both X and D are less than Z, but no definite relationship can be established between X and D.)

II: W < Z → True (Since W < X < Y < Z, it is definite that W < Z.)

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

T = I = H ≤ L < P

Conclusions:

I: P > I → True (From the combined statement, I = H ≤ L < P, therefore P > I.)

II: L > T → False (From the combined statement, T = I = H ≤ L. there is no definite relation between T and L. L may be equal or greater than T.)

Therefor, Only I is true.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven persons J, K, L, M, N, P and Q are sitting in a row, facing towards north.

1. Only three persons sit between P and K.
2. P sits second to the left of J and 3rd to the right of M.
3. L sits second to the right of N. 

Three people are sitting between L and M.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

S, T, U, V, Y and Z live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

1. Only two people live between Y and Z.
2. Only two people live between V and S.
3. No one lives above V.
4. Z lives below S but above U. 

The final floor arrangement is as follows:

There are three people living below T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given series:

(Left) # $ < 5 \ + 8 4 < 9 3 9 8 8 7 ? 7 % * ^ 2 (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Number ← Symbol → Symbol

Checking the series:

(Left) # $ < 5 \ + 8 4 < 9 3 9 8 8 7 ? **7 % *** ^ 2 (Right)

There are two such symbols that satisfy the given condition.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

‘TIMS’ is coded as ‘3524’  

‘MIKS’ is coded as ‘3456’. 

Code for "K" is "6".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given word: CLANGED

New words:  B, K, B, M, F, F, C 

Frequency of given letters,

• B → 2 times
• K → 1 times
• M → 1 times
• F → 2 times
• C → 1 times

Here, Two letters will appear exactly twice in the resulting group of letters

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given series:

(Left) U K M S W D F I C X E T A Q H G Z R B Y O (Right)

Condition to be checked:

Consonant ← Consonant → Vowel

Checking the series:

(Left) U K M S W D F I C X E T A Q H G Z R B Y O (Right)

There are three such consonants that are immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a vowel.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statements:

Some chains are bands.

No band is a watch.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some chains are watches → Does not follow (There is no direct definite relation between chains and watches, so it does not follow.)

II. Some bands are chains → Follow  (Since some chains are bands, it is certain that some bands are chains as they share a common part.)

So, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Six boxes S, T, U, V, W, and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. S is kept on the third position.
2. Only two boxes are kept between U and S.
3. Only one box is kept between T and S, but T is not kept on the lowermost position.
4. X is kept immediately above W. 

Final Box Arrangement:

There are None (zero) boxes kept exactly between S and X.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Each of C, D, E, F, L, M and N has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. Only two people have exams before C.
2. Only one person has an exam after L.
3. Only three people have exams between C and F.
4. Only one person has an exam between N and D.
5. M has an exam just before N.

Final Arrangement:

E has an exam on Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

17 + 9 = 26

26 + 18 = 44

44 + 27 = 71

71 + 36 = 107

107 + 45 = 152

152 + 54 = 206 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 32 × 8 - 208 × 26 + 13 ÷ 7 - 97 = ?

After interchanging the symbols:

• + ↔ -
• × ↔ ÷

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 32 ÷ 8 + 208 ÷ 26 - 13 × 7 + 97 = ?

⇒ 32 ÷ 8 + 208 ÷ 26 - 13 × 7 + 97 = ?

⇒ 4 + 208 ÷ 26 - 13 × 7 + 97 = ?

⇒ 4 + 8 - 13 × 7 + 97 = ?

⇒ 4 + 8 - 91 + 97 = ?

⇒ 12 - 91 + 97 = ?

⇒ -79 + 97 = ?

⇒ 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 20 B 2 D 28 A 4 C 7 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 20 × 2 - 28 ÷ 4 + 7 = ?

⇒ 20 × 2 - 28 ÷ 4 + 7 = ?

⇒ 40 - 28 ÷ 4 + 7 = ?

⇒ 40 - 7 + 7 = ?

⇒ 40 - 7 + 7 = ?

⇒ 33 + 7 = ?

⇒ 40.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Statements:

All pillows are mats.

All rugs are mats.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some pillows are rugs → Does not follow (In the least possible Venn diagram, there is no direct relationship or intersection between pillows and rugs.)

II. Some mats are rugs → Follow  (Since all rugs are inside mats, the portion of mats occupied by rugs ensures that some mats are definitely rugs.)

So, only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed in the given sets is:

Logic: (First number × 4) − 7 = Second number

For the set (31, 117):

(31 × 4) − 7 = 124 − 7 = 117

For the set (19, 69):

(19 × 4) − 7 = 76 − 7 = 69

Similarly, let's check the set (27, 101):

(27 × 4) − 7 = 108 − 7 = 101

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic: (First number × 2) + 5 = Second number

For (24, 53)

(24 × 2) + 5 = 48 + 5 = 53

For (18, 41)

(18 × 2) + 5 = 36 + 5 = 41

Similarly, let's check the options to find the matching set:

Option (1) (24, 55) → (24 × 2) + 5 = 48 + 5 = 53 ≠ 55

Option (2) (19, 43) → (19 × 2) + 5 = 38 + 5 = 43

Option (3) (31, 65) → (31 × 2) + 5 = 62 + 5 = 67 ≠ 65

Option (4) (15, 33) → (15 × 2) + 5 = 30 + 5 = 35 ≠ 33

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

For OA - NZ

For DR - BP

For NG - MF

For KU - JT

Therefore, DR - BP is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

13 + 3 = 16

16 + 6 = 22

22 + 9 = 31

31 + 12 = 43

43 + 15 = 58

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

For AFK to HMR

For CHM to JOT

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +7 for each successive letter.

Option 1) YSD to IUS

The logic is not followed here.

Option 2) UYW to TWA

The logic is not followed here.

Option 3) WBN to ZXO

The logic is not followed here.

Option 4) GLQ to NSX

This pair follows the same +7 shift pattern.

Thus, the pair GLQ : NSX follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic: (First Number + Second Number) = Third Number

For (16, 10, 26)

16 + 10 = 26

For (9, 9, 18)

9 + 9 = 18

Similarly, checking the options:

For (9, 10, 19):

9 + 10 = 19

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

TG 13 is related to RC -2 →

GP 19 is related to EL 4 →

Similarly,

PY 23 related,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 16 - 88 × 8 + 18 - 42 ÷ 2 × 2 = ?

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 16 + 88 ÷ 8 - 18 + 42 × 2 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 16 + 88 ÷ 8 - 18 + 42 × 2 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 16 + 11 - 18 + 42 × 2 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 16 + 11 - 18 + 84 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 16 + 11 - 18 + 42 = ?

⇒ 16 + 11 - 18 + 42 = ?

⇒ 27 - 18 + 42 = ?

⇒ 9 + 42 = ?

⇒ 51.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

For FJN to HLP

For SWA to UYC

The common pattern is a constant letter shift of +2 for each letter.

Option 1) UHC to PCS

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −5, −5, +16.

Option 2) IMQ to KOS

This pair follows the same logic.

Option 3) BHX to SDC

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are +17, −4, +5.

Option 4) UYE to HVE

The logic is not followed here as the shifts are −13, −3, 0.

Thus, the pair IMQ : KOS follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is,

16 × 2 − 2 = 30

30 × 2 − 4 = 56

56 × 2 − 6 = 106

106 × 2 − 8 = 204

204 × 2 − 10 = 398

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The option figure that will replace the question mark in the figure given below to complete the pattern is,

 + 

 = 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given number: 8197362

The new number thus formed is 9086273.

Second digit from the left: 0

Therefore, the digit that is second from the left in the new number is 0.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Number: 689645145274

The new number formed is: 798754054365

Digit second from the left: 9

Digit second from the right: 6

Sum = 9 + 6 = 15

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For KD - GI:

For ST - OY:

For GR - DW:

For CN - YS:

Hence, the odd letter cluster pair is GR - DW.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The correct answer is Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

• The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 was a major episode of civil disobedience and revolt in the Indian Independence Movement, specifically centered in the Bardoli Taluka of Gujarat.
• The movement was sparked by the Bombay Presidency government's decision to increase land revenue by 30 percent despite the peasants suffering from crop failure and financial distress.
• Vallabhbhai Patel was invited by local leaders like Kalyanji Mehta and Kunvarji Mehta to lead the protest after the government ignored repeated petitions.
• Under Patel's leadership, the peasants took a formal oath to refuse payment of the enhanced taxes, facing severe government repression, including the seizure of land, livestock, and household goods.
• Patel organized the taluka into several chibats (camps) managed by volunteers to ensure non-violent resistance and maintain a strict social boycott of government officials.

 Additional Information

• Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Following the success of the campaign, the women of Bardoli conferred the title of 'Sardar' (Chief or Leader) upon him.
• His organizational skills during this movement earned him a national reputation as a formidable leader of the Indian National Congress.
• Mahatma Gandhi:
• Though he supported the movement through his journal Young India and visited the site, he left the operational command entirely to Patel.
• Outcome:
• The British government eventually appointed the Maxwell-Broomfield Commission to investigate the matter.
• The commission found the tax hike unjustified and recommended a reduction to approximately 6.03 percent, marking a significant victory for the farmers.

The correct answer is Structural Unemployment.

Key Points

• Structural unemployment is a category of unemployment caused by a fundamental mismatch between the skills that workers in the economy can offer and the skills demanded of workers by employers.
• This phenomenon often occurs due to technological changes or automation, where manual or outdated tasks are replaced by more advanced processes requiring different expertise.
• It can also arise from geographical shifts, where industries move to new locations, leaving the local labor force without relevant employment opportunities in their immediate vicinity.
• Unlike other forms of unemployment, it is usually long-term and chronic because workers need significant time to acquire new skills or relocate to different regions to find work.
• It represents a deeper institutional problem in the economy rather than a temporary decline in demand, often requiring government intervention through vocational training and education reforms.

 Additional Information

• Seasonal Unemployment:
• Occurs when people are unemployed at particular times of the year when demand for labor is lower than usual.
• It is predominantly seen in the Agricultural sector, Tourism, and Catering industries.
• Disguised Unemployment:
• A situation where more people are working than are actually required. In this case, the marginal productivity of the additional labor is zero.
• It is a common feature in the Indian agrarian economy, where family members work on small landholdings regardless of the actual labor requirement.
• Underemployment:
• Refers to a situation where a person is working but their capacity is not fully utilized.
• This includes individuals working part-time who desire full-time work, or highly skilled workers in low-paying jobs that do not match their educational qualifications.

The correct answer is Erode East.

Key Points

• V. C. Chandhirakumar, representing the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK), secured a victory in the Erode East assembly constituency during the by-election held in February 2025.
• The Erode East seat became vacant following the political developments or vacancies that necessitated a fresh mandate from the electorate in early 2025.
• Chandhirakumar, a seasoned politician, managed to win the seat by a substantial margin, defeating candidates from the principal opposition party, the AIADMK, and other regional players.
• This win was crucial for the DMK-led alliance as it reaffirmed the ruling party's influence in the western belt of Tamil Nadu, often referred to as the Kongu Nadu region.
• The Election Commission of India oversaw the polling process, ensuring high voter turnout and adherence to the Model Code of Conduct throughout the Erode East by-poll.

 Additional Information

• V. C. Chandhirakumar
• He is a veteran politician who previously served as the Propaganda Secretary for the DMDK (Desiya Murpokku Dravida Kazhagam) before joining the DMK in 2016.
• He has formerly served as an MLA and is recognized for his strong organizational skills within the Erode district political landscape.
• Erode East Constituency
• It is an urban constituency located within the Erode City Municipal Corporation, known for its significant population of textile and trading communities.
• The constituency is part of the Erode Lok Sabha seat and is a vital economic hub in South India, often called the Turmeric City.

The correct answer is 1875.

Key Points

• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan established the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College in 1875 in the city of Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
• The college was the centerpiece of the Aligarh Movement, which sought to bring about a social and educational revolution among Indian Muslims.
• The primary objective of the institution was to impart Western education and modern sciences to the Muslim community while maintaining their cultural and religious identity.
• It was modeled after the prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities of the United Kingdom, emphasizing a residential life and character building.
• The establishment of this college marked a significant departure from traditional educational methods, advocating for the English language as a medium of instruction.

 Additional Information

• Aligarh Muslim University (AMU):
• The MAO College was later elevated to the status of a central university in 1920 through the Aligarh Muslim University Act.
• Scientific Society:
• Before the college was founded, Sir Syed established the Scientific Society in 1864 at Ghazipur to translate scientific and historical works from English to Urdu.
• Foundation and Patronage:
• The formal foundation stone of the college was laid by Lord Lytton, the then Viceroy of India, on January 8, 1877.
• Social Reform and Literature:
• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan utilized the journal Tahdhib-ul-Akhlaq to promote modern thinking, rationalism, and to discourage social evils prevalent in society.

The correct answer is Exempt income.

Key Points

• Exempt income refers to specific categories of earnings that are not included in the Total Income of an individual or entity as per the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
• Under Section 10 of the Act, these incomes are granted a tax-free status, meaning the taxpayer does not have to pay any tax on such amounts, nor are they considered while determining the tax slab.
• Unlike deductions (under Chapter VI-A), which are subtracted from the Gross Total Income, exempt income is excluded right at the initial stage of computation.
• Common examples of such income include Agricultural Income in India under Section 10(1), which remains outside the central tax net due to constitutional provisions.
• Other notable exemptions include the Share of Profit received by a partner from a firm (exempt under Section 10(2A)) and certain allowances granted to government employees serving outside India.

 Additional Information

• Taxable Income:
• This is the net amount of income on which the tax liability is actually calculated after applying all exemptions, deductions, and set-off of losses.
• Interest Income:
• Earnings from Savings Bank Accounts, Fixed Deposits, or Bonds fall under the head Income from Other Sources. While interest from Public Provident Fund (PPF) is exempt, most other interest is taxable.
• Business Income:
• Classified under Profits and Gains of Business or Profession (PGBP), this represents the revenue minus operating expenses. It is subject to taxation at applicable rates after considering depreciation and other business-related allowances.

सही उत्तर I और II दोनों है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• ब्रिटिश शासन के दौरान चरमपंथियों (गरम दल) ने ब्रिटिश प्रशासन को पंगु बनाने के लिए निष्क्रिय प्रतिरोध (Passive Resistance) की रणनीति अपनाई थी। इसमें राजस्व का भुगतान न करना, विदेशी सामानों का बहिष्कार और सरकारी स्कूलों एवं न्यायालयों का त्याग शामिल था ताकि शासन चलाना असंभव हो जाए। इसलिए, कथन I सही है।
• चरमपंथी नेताओं का मानना था कि ब्रिटिश नौकरशाही भारतीय हितों के विरुद्ध कार्य कर रही है और केवल याचिकाओं से सुधार संभव नहीं है। उन्होंने नौकरशाही की निरंकुशता का कड़ा विरोध किया और भारतीयों को प्रशासनिक कार्यों में असहयोग करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित किया। इसलिए, कथन II सही है।
• बाल गंगाधर तिलक, लाला लाजपत राय और बिपिन चंद्र पाल (लाल-बाल-पाल) इस विचारधारा के प्रमुख स्तंभ थे, जिन्होंने स्वदेशी और स्वराज को अपना मुख्य लक्ष्य बनाया।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• चरमपंथी आंदोलन के प्रमुख पहलू:
• स्वदेशी और बहिष्कार: विदेशी वस्त्रों को जलाना और भारतीय निर्मित वस्तुओं के उपयोग को बढ़ावा देना।
• राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा: ब्रिटिश नियंत्रण वाले शैक्षणिक संस्थानों के विकल्प के रूप में राष्ट्रीय शिक्षण संस्थानों की स्थापना करना।
• स्वराज का नारा: तिलक ने घोषणा की थी कि स्वराज मेरा जन्मसिद्ध अधिकार है और मैं इसे लेकर रहूँगा।
• 1907 का सूरत विभाजन: वैचारिक मतभेदों के कारण कांग्रेस का नरम दल और गरम दल में विभाजन हो गया।
• मास मोबिलाइजेशन: चरमपंथियों ने पहली बार स्वतंत्रता संग्राम को आम जनता, विशेषकर शहरी मध्यम वर्ग और छात्रों तक पहुँचाया।

The correct answer is NorthEast United.

Key Points

• NorthEast United FC emerged victorious in the 134th edition of the Durand Cup, which was held during the July-August 2025 window.
• The final match was hosted at the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan (Salt Lake Stadium) in Kolkata, one of the largest football stadiums in the world by capacity.
• This victory represents a significant achievement for the Guwahati-based club, often nicknamed the Highlanders, as it is one of their major triumphs in domestic football.
• The tournament featured a rigorous format including a group stage followed by knockout rounds, involving teams from the Indian Super League (ISL), I-League, and representative teams from the Indian Armed Forces.

 Additional Information

• Durand Cup Overview:
• Established in 1888 at Shimla, it is recognized as the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest globally.
• It was founded by Sir Henry Mortimer Durand, the then Foreign Secretary of British India.
• The winner is uniquely awarded three trophies: the Durand Cup (original challenge trophy), the Simla Trophy (donated by residents of Shimla), and the President's Cup (first presented by Dr. Rajendra Prasad).
• Mohun Bagan Super Giant:
• A historical club from Kolkata that has traditionally dominated the tournament, holding a record number of titles alongside their rivals, East Bengal.
• Indian Army:
• The Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy, and Air Force) are the primary organizers through the Durand Football Tournament Society (DFTS).
• Army teams such as Army Red and Army Green have a rich history of participation, maintaining the tournament's military origins.

The correct answer is Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao.

Key Points

• Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao (Vijayendra Kasturi Ranga Varadaraja Rao) was a distinguished Indian economist who is credited with providing the first scientific and systematic estimation of India's national income.
• He published his research in the book titled 'An Essay on India's National Income: 1925 - 29' in 1939, where he meticulously analyzed the economic data of the British colonial period.
• Rao utilized a hybrid methodology, applying the Product Method for the agricultural sector and the Income Method for the corporate and service sectors to ensure higher accuracy.
• According to his findings, the Per Capita Income of British India during the 1925-29 period was approximately 76 Rupees, which was significantly higher than earlier non-scientific estimates.
• His contributions laid the foundation for national income accounting in post-independence India and influenced the development of economic policy and planning.

 Additional Information

• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• Known as the 'Grand Old Man of India', he was the first individual to attempt the calculation of India's national income in 1867-68.
• He authored 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', where he formulated the 'Drain of Wealth' theory and estimated the per capita income at 20 Rupees.
• William Digby:
• An English author and journalist who estimated India's national income in 1899.
• His calculations were extremely bleak, suggesting a per capita income of only about 18 Rupees, highlighting the colonial exploitation.
• R.C. Desai:
• An economist known for his detailed study on the Standard of Living in India and Pakistan between 1931-32 and 1940-41.
• His work focused heavily on consumer expenditure patterns to derive national income figures during the late British era.

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

• The Konkan Railway is a critical rail link running along the Western Coast of India, covering a distance of approximately 741 kilometers between Roha in Maharashtra and Thokur in Karnataka.
• The project was executed by the Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL), which is a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) established on July 19, 1990.
• The KRCL is a unique partnership model between the Ministry of Railways and four specific coastal states: Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• These four states are the only equity partners in the corporation, as the railway line provides direct connectivity and economic benefits to their coastal regions.
• Telangana is a landlocked state located in the interior Deccan Plateau and does not share a border with the Konkan coast; hence, it is not a partner in this specific railway project.

 Additional Information

• Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL):
• The Ministry of Railways holds the majority stake of 51% in the corporation.
• The equity distribution among the partner states is Maharashtra (22%), Karnataka (15%), Kerala (6%), and Goa (6%).
• The project was led by E. Sreedharan, who is famously known as the Metro Man of India.
• Engineering Marvels:
• The route traverses the Sahyadri mountain range and includes over 2,000 bridges and 91 tunnels.
• The Karbude Tunnel is one of the longest on the route, measuring about 6.5 kilometers.
• The Panval Nadi Viaduct is another significant structure, once recognized as the highest bridge in Asia.
• The introduction of the Konkan Railway reduced the travel distance between Mumbai and Kochi by nearly 513 kilometers.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The Kabaddi World Cup 2025 was a historic event held in the West Midlands, England, marking the first time the tournament was hosted outside of Asia.
• The Indian Men's Kabaddi Team showcased exceptional dominance by defeating their traditional rivals, Pakistan, in the final match to secure the world title.
• The Indian Women's Kabaddi Team mirrored this success by defeating the host nation, England, in the final to clinch the championship trophy.
• The tournament featured teams from across the globe, including Asia, Europe, and North America, and was organized under the aegis of the World Kabaddi Federation (WKF).
• This double victory solidified India's position as the global powerhouse in Circle Style Kabaddi, a format traditionally popular in the Punjab region.

 Additional Information

• Kabaddi Variants:
• Standard Style: Played on a rectangular mat, this version is featured in the Asian Games and the Pro Kabaddi League (PKL).
• Circle Style: Played on a circular outdoor pitch, this format is the primary focus of the World Cup hosted in England.
• Pakistan:
• Historically the toughest competitor for India, the Pakistan national team has a high proficiency in Circle Kabaddi and frequently reaches the final stages of international championships.
• International Growth:
• Hosting the 2025 World Cup in Wolverhampton and other cities in the United Kingdom highlights the sport's expansion and its popularity among the Indian diaspora.
• The World Kabaddi Federation aims to include Kabaddi in future Olympic Games, using such international tournaments to demonstrate global participation.

The correct answer is Transfer payments.

Key Points

• National Income is defined as the total value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country in a financial year, usually calculated by the National Statistical Office (NSO) in India.
• Transfer payments are receipts that the residents of a country receive without providing any productive service in return, such as old-age pensions, scholarships, unemployment allowances, and financial aid.
• The primary conceptual difficulty lies in the fact that these payments do not reflect current production; including them would lead to double counting because this income is a redistribution of revenue already accounted for in the Factor Income of taxpayers.
• While calculating national income through the Income Method or Expenditure Method, these transfers are strictly excluded to ensure the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) accurately represents only value-added economic activities.

 Additional Information

• Classification of Difficulties:
• Conceptual Difficulties:
• Inclusion of services of housewives and other non-marketed services which have economic value but no market price.
• Difficulty in distinguishing between intermediate goods and final goods, which can inflate the national product.
• Valuation of self-consumed output by farmers in rural India.
• Statistical/Practical Difficulties:
• Large presence of the unorganized sector and informal economy where records are not maintained.
• Lack of reliable statistical data and trained personnel for data collection in remote areas.
• The existence of a non-monetized sector where barter exchange still occurs, complicating the calculation of market value.
• Other Options Context:
• Volume of currency notes relates to Money Supply (M1, M3) managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and is not a hurdle in income calculation.
• Construction and Upgradation of infrastructure (Highways and Panchayat Bhavans) are treated as Gross Domestic Capital Formation and are productive investments included in the national income.

The correct answer is Shubhanshu Shukla.

Key Points

• Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla, a distinguished pilot from the Indian Air Force (IAF), has been officially selected as the primary astronaut for the upcoming Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) to the International Space Station (ISS).
• This selection was finalized by the National Mission Board and follows the cooperative agreement signed between ISRO and NASA as part of the initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET) established in 2023.
• Shubhanshu Shukla will serve as the Mission Pilot for the Ax-4 mission, which is a private astronaut mission managed by Axiom Space in collaboration with NASA and SpaceX.
• The mission is scheduled for launch no earlier than 2025 from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida, utilizing the SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket and the Crew Dragon spacecraft.
• During the mission, Shubhanshu Shukla is expected to stay on the ISS for approximately 14 days, conducting essential scientific experiments and space outreach activities.
• He is one of the four designated Gaganauts selected for India's premier human spaceflight program, Gaganyaan, and has previously undergone extensive training at the Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Center in Russia.

 Additional Information

• Rakesh Sharma:
• A former wing commander in the Indian Air Force, he became the first Indian citizen to travel to space on April 3, 1984.
• He flew as a Cosmonaut aboard the Soviet spacecraft Soyuz T-11 and spent nearly eight days at the Salyut 7 orbital station.
• Kalpana Chawla:
• She was an Indian-American astronaut and the first woman of Indian origin to go to space.
• Her first mission was STS-87 in 1997 aboard Space Shuttle Columbia; she tragically lost her life during the STS-107 mission in 2003.
• Sunita Williams:
• An American astronaut of Indian descent, she has participated in several long-duration missions to the ISS and holds multiple records for women astronauts.
• She was the pilot for the Boeing Crew Flight Test (CFT), the first crewed flight of the Starliner spacecraft.
• Gaganyaan Mission:
• This is an ongoing project by ISRO to demonstrate indigenous human spaceflight capability to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• The project aims to launch a crew of three members to an altitude of 400 km for a mission duration of three days.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the nation's central bank, established on April 1, 1935, following the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission and governed by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• According to Section 22 of the RBI Act, the bank holds the exclusive right to issue banknotes in India, covering all denominations except the one-rupee note.
• The Department of Currency Management at the RBI's central office in Mumbai is the primary body responsible for forecasting demand and managing the distribution of fresh notes.
• Currency notes are printed at four high-security printing presses: Nashik (Maharashtra), Dewas (Madhya Pradesh), Mysuru (Karnataka), and Salboni (West Bengal).
• The RBI acts as the monetary authority, ensuring the integrity and security of the Indian currency while maintaining a Minimum Reserve System to back the issued notes.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Finance:
• Under the Coinage Act, 2011, the Government of India is responsible for the design and minting of all coins.
• The one-rupee note is uniquely issued by the Ministry of Finance and bears the signature of the Finance Secretary, rather than the RBI Governor.
• State Bank of India (SBI):
• The largest public sector bank in India, SBI is a commercial entity that facilitates retail and corporate banking services.
• It manages currency chests on behalf of the RBI but lacks the legal authority to issue currency.
• NITI Aayog:
• Formed on January 1, 2015, to replace the Planning Commission, it serves as the premier policy think tank of the Indian government.
• Its functions are limited to strategic and technical advice and do not include monetary operations.

The correct answer is A.O. Hume.

Key Points

• Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British Civil Servant, played a pivotal role in the formation of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885.
• He aimed to create a platform for educated Indians to express their grievances and provide a 'safety valve' to prevent a violent uprising against British rule.
• The inaugural session of the Indian National Congress was held from December 28 to December 31, 1885, at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• While A.O. Hume was the chief architect and served as the General Secretary for many years, the first presidency was held by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee.
• The formation of the INC marked the beginning of a structured nationalist movement that eventually led to Indian independence in 1947.

 Additional Information

• Lord Dufferin:
• He was the Viceroy of India (1884-1888) when the INC was founded.
• Initially, he gave neutral support but later described the Congress as representing only a 'microscopic minority' of the Indian population.
• Lord Curzon:
• Served as Viceroy from 1899 to 1905 and is notorious for the Partition of Bengal in 1905.
• His policies were largely reactionary and aimed at weakening the nationalist spirit centered in Bengal.
• Lord Ripon:
• Known as the 'Father of Local Self-Government' for his efforts to introduce municipal boards and local district boards.
• He is remembered for the Ilbert Bill (1883), which sought to allow Indian judges to try Europeans in criminal cases.

The correct answer is Diwali, the festival of lights.

Key Points

• Diwali, also known as Deepavali, is one of the most prominent festivals in the Hindu calendar, falling on the Amavasya (new moon) of the month of Kartik.
• The festival commemorates the return of Lord Rama, the seventh incarnation of Lord Vishnu, to the city of Ayodhya after 14 years of exile in the forest.
• It marks the spiritual victory of Lord Rama over the ten-headed demon king Ravana, symbolizing the ultimate triumph of Dharma over Adharma.
• The tradition of lighting oil lamps or Diyas originated from the citizens of Ayodhya, who illuminated the dark night to guide and welcome their King back home.
• Beyond the historical narrative, the festival is dedicated to Goddess Lakshmi, the deity of wealth and prosperity, and Lord Ganesha, the remover of obstacles.

 Additional Information

• Dussehra:
• Known as Vijayadashami, it is celebrated on the tenth day of Ashvin month.
• It marks the actual day Lord Rama defeated Ravana and is often celebrated by burning large effigies to signify the destruction of evil.
• Holi:
• Known as the Festival of Colors, it occurs in the spring month of Phalguna.
• It celebrates the victory of devotee Prahlada over the demoness Holika, representing the power of true devotion.
• Raksha Bandhan:
• Celebrated on the full moon day of Shravana.
• It centers on the ritual where sisters tie a sacred thread (Rakhi) on their brothers' wrists, signifying a bond of mutual protection and love.

The correct answer is Extended Range Anti-Submarine Rocket.

Key Points

• The Extended Range Anti-Submarine Rocket (ER-ASR) is an indigenous weapon system designed to augment the Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) capabilities of the Indian Navy ships.
• Successful user trials were executed from INS Kavaratti, an indigenously built Project 28 (Kamorta-class) stealth corvette, during the period of 23 June 2025 to 7 July 2025.
• This rocket system has been designed and developed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) and the High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL), both premier laboratories under the DRDO.
• The ER-ASR is engineered to intercept submarines at ranges significantly higher than the legacy RGB-60 rockets, extending the defensive and offensive perimeter of naval vessels.
• The performance of the rocket, including its flight stability, accuracy, and depth-charge efficiency, was validated during these high-intensity sea trials.

 Additional Information

• INS Kavaratti:
• It is the fourth and last of the Project 28 stealth ASW corvettes, commissioned in October 2020.
• Constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), it features high levels of indigenization and stealth characteristics.
• Weapon Systems Overview:
• Nag Anti-Tank Guided Missile: A third-generation, fire-and-forget missile designed for terrestrial armored targets, featuring an operational range of 500 meters to 4 km.
• Varunastra: An indigenous Heavyweight Torpedo (HWT) capable of traveling at 40 knots with a range of approximately 40 km, used for long-range underwater strikes.
• Pralay: A canisterized surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile with a range of 150-500 km, designed for the Indian Army.

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

• In a historic achievement for Indian sports, the men's compound team won its first-ever gold medal at the World Archery Championships in 2025.
• The Indian team, consisting of elite world-class archers, defeated France in the final match with a narrow scoreline of 235−233.
• The match was a showcase of extreme precision, where the Indian trio maintained a consistent lead across the ends to secure the title by a two-point margin.
• This victory marks a significant milestone as it is the first time the Indian male squad has reached the top of the podium in the compound team category at this prestigious global event.
• The win followed India's exceptional performance in the 2023 edition and the Asian Games, signifying the nation's rising dominance in compound archery globally.

 Additional Information

• Compound Archery:
• Unlike recurve archery, compound archery involves bows that use a system of cams and cables, making the bow more mechanical and allowing for greater accuracy and speed.
• It is governed by World Archery and is a major event in the World Archery Championships and the Archery World Cup.
• Opponent Nations:
• France: A traditional powerhouse in European archery, the French team has consistently been a top contender in the World Archery rankings.
• South Korea: While they are the dominant force in recurve archery at the Olympics, they are also highly competitive in the compound division.
• Netherlands: Known for producing some of the world's highest-ranked individual compound archers, the Dutch team remains a frequent podium finisher.
• Italy: A nation with a strong archery tradition that often excels in both indoor and outdoor championship formats.

The correct answer is UNICEF India.

Key Points

• The TALASH (Teacher’s Assessment for Learning and Support for Holistic growth) program was launched as a joint venture between the National Education Society for Tribal Students (NESTS) and UNICEF India to strengthen the educational ecosystem in tribal schools.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to provide a comprehensive professional development framework for teachers working in Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) across the country.
• It focuses on enhancing the pedagogical skills and assessment capabilities of educators to ensure competency-based learning and holistic growth for tribal students, aligning with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
• The program incorporates monitoring tools and evaluation modules that help in identifying learning gaps and providing targeted support to students in remote tribal regions.
• By collaborating with UNICEF India, NESTS aims to leverage international best practices in child-centric education and teacher training to improve the quality of instruction in the Ministry of Tribal Affairs schools.

 Additional Information

• UNICEF India:
• A United Nations agency that works closely with the Government of India to promote child rights, inclusive education, and healthcare.
• It provides technical expertise for large-scale social programs and supports initiatives that target marginalized communities, particularly Scheduled Tribes (ST).
• NESTS and EMRS:
• NESTS is an autonomous organization established under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to manage and monitor Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS).
• EMRS were started in 1997-98 to provide quality middle and high-level education to ST students, enabling them to access higher professional courses.
• Other Organizations:
• Smile Foundation: An Indian NGO primarily focusing on education for underprivileged children, healthcare, and women’s empowerment through its 'Mission Education' program.
• Akshaya Patra Foundation: Known for its massive Mid-Day Meal operations, partnering with the government to eliminate classroom hunger.
• Tata Trusts: One of India’s oldest philanthropic organizations that supports rural development, education, and healthcare through various grant-making initiatives.

सही उत्तर शंघाई है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• हुरुन ग्लोबल रिच लिस्ट 2025 के अनुसार, चीन के शंघाई शहर ने अरबपतियों की संख्या के मामले में भारत की वित्तीय राजधानी मुंबई को पीछे छोड़ दिया है।
• वर्तमान रिपोर्ट के अनुसार, शंघाई में अब कुल 101 अरबपति निवास करते हैं, जिससे यह एशिया में अरबपतियों की सबसे अधिक संख्या वाला शहर बन गया है।
• पिछले वर्ष की रैंकिंग में मुंबई एशिया में शीर्ष पर था, लेकिन ताजा आंकड़ों के अनुसार मुंबई में अब 99 अरबपति हैं, जिसके कारण यह दूसरे स्थान पर खिसक गया है।
• वैश्विक स्तर पर, न्यू यॉर्क दुनिया की 'अरबपति राजधानी' के रूप में अपना पहला स्थान बनाए हुए है, जिसके बाद लंदन दूसरे और शंघाई तीसरे स्थान पर काबिज है।
• इस सूची के अनुसार, चीन अभी भी दुनिया में अरबपतियों की संख्या के मामले में प्रमुख देशों में से एक बना हुआ है, हालांकि वैश्विक आर्थिक परिस्थितियों के कारण इस संख्या में उतार-चढ़ाव होता रहता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• हुरुन ग्लोबल रिच लिस्ट:
• यह रैंकिंग हुरुन रिसर्च इंस्टीट्यूट द्वारा प्रतिवर्ष प्रकाशित की जाती है, जो वैश्विक स्तर पर संपत्ति के वितरण का विश्लेषण करती है।
• यह सूची उन व्यक्तियों को ट्रैक करती है जिनकी कुल संपत्ति 1 बिलियन अमेरिकी डॉलर या उससे अधिक है।
• भारत की स्थिति:
• भारत में मुंबई के बाद नई दिल्ली दूसरा सबसे बड़ा केंद्र है जहाँ अरबपतियों की सघनता अधिक है।
• भारत में अरबपतियों की बढ़ती संख्या देश के बढ़ते पूंजी बाजार और स्टार्टअप इकोसिस्टम को दर्शाती है।
• शंघाई का महत्व:
• शंघाई चीन का प्रमुख वित्तीय और व्यापारिक केंद्र है और यहां की बढ़ती अरबपतियों की संख्या इसकी मजबूत आर्थिक नींव और औद्योगिक विस्तार का प्रतीक है।

The correct answer is 1885.

Key Points

• The Indian National Congress (INC) was officially established on December 28, 1885, during its first session.
• The organization was founded by Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British officer of the Indian Civil Service, who played a pivotal role in organizing the initial meet.
• The first session was held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai), after the venue was shifted from Pune due to a cholera outbreak.
• Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee presided as the first President of the Congress, leading a gathering of 72 delegates from across India.
• The formation of the INC marked the transition of the Indian independence movement from scattered regional protests to a unified national political platform.

 Additional Information

• Foundational Context of the Indian National Congress:
• Safety Valve Theory: Some historians suggest that Lord Dufferin, the then Viceroy, encouraged the formation of the INC to act as a safety valve for simmering public discontent against British rule.
• Moderate Phase (1885−1905): During its first two decades, the INC followed Moderate ideologies, focusing on constitutional reforms, petitions, and prayers to influence the British Parliament.
• Key Figures: Early leadership included stalwarts like Dadabhai Naoroji (known as the Grand Old Man of India), Pherozeshah Mehta, Surendranath Banerjee, and Dinshaw Wacha.
• Initial Objectives: The Congress aimed to promote national unity, create a common political program, and demand greater Indian representation in the Legislative Councils and the Civil Services.
• Evolution: Over time, the INC transformed from an elite debating society into a mass-based political party under the influence of Extremist leaders and later, Mahatma Gandhi.

The correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India was officially established and inaugurated on January 28, 1950, just two days after India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic.
• It replaced the Federal Court of India, which had been functioning under the Government of India Act, 1935, for approximately 12 years.
• The court also superseded the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council based in London, which was previously the highest judicial authority for colonial India.
• The inaugural ceremony was held in the Chamber of Princes within the Parliament House building, where the court functioned until it moved to its own current premises in 1958.
• Under Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court was initially comprised of a Chief Justice of India and seven other judges.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework and Provisions:
• The provisions related to the Supreme Court are contained in Part V of the Constitution, from Article 124 to 147.
• Article 129 designates the Supreme Court as a Court of Record, meaning its proceedings are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony.
• Article 141 ensures that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within India.
• Key Figures and Milestones:
• The first Chief Justice of India was H.J. Kania (Harilal Jekisundas Kania).
• The first female judge of the Supreme Court was Justice Fathima Beevi, appointed in 1989.
• The court possesses three types of jurisdictions: Original, Appellate, and Advisory (under Article 143).
• Historical Context of Other Dates:
• 1947: Marked the year of Indian Independence and the end of British Rule, though the judiciary transition occurred later in 1950.
• 1952: Represented the year of the first General Elections held in independent India.

The correct answer is Vitamin C.

Key Points

• Amla, scientifically known as Phyllanthus emblica or Indian Gooseberry, is considered one of the most potent natural sources of Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid).
• The Vitamin C concentration in Amla ranges from 600 mg to 1800 mg per 100 grams of edible pulp, which is significantly higher than that of most citrus fruits.
• Unlike many other fruits, the Vitamin C in Amla is exceptionally stable and resistant to heat or drying because of the presence of tannins and polyphenols like ellagic acid and gallic acid.
• It serves as a powerful antioxidant, helping to neutralize free radicals, boost immunity, and promote the production of collagen for healthy skin and tissues.
• Consuming Amla also aids in the absorption of iron from other food sources, which is critical for preventing conditions like anaemia.

 Additional Information

• Vitamin D:
• Known as the sunshine vitamin, it is primarily synthesized in the skin upon exposure to UVB radiation.
• Food sources include cod liver oil, egg yolks, and fortified cereals.
• Vitamin K:
• Crucial for blood coagulation and bone health; its deficiency can lead to excessive bleeding.
• It is found in high quantities in green leafy vegetables such as spinach, broccoli, and cabbage.
• Plant Protein:
• Refers to proteins derived from legumes, lentils, soybeans, and nuts.
• While Amla contains essential minerals, it is not a significant source of dietary protein compared to pulses.
• Ayurvedic Significance:
• Amla is a primary ingredient in Chyawanprash and Triphala, used to balance the three doshas (Vata, Pitta, and Kapha).

The correct answer is i only.

Key Points

• Kokborok, also known as Tiprakok, is the native language of the Tripuri people and was officially recognized by the State Government of Tripura as one of the state's official languages on January 19, 1979. Hence, statement i is correct.
• The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution currently recognizes 22 languages, including Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Hence, statement ii is incorrect.
• Article 343 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script, while Article 346 deals with the official language for communication between one State and another or between a State and the Union. Hence, statement iii is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of the Eighth Schedule:
• The Constitution originally listed 14 languages in 1950.
• Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967.
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included via the 71st Amendment Act of 1992, bringing the total to 18.
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were incorporated by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003, resulting in the current 22 languages.
• Language Provisions:
• Part XVII of the Constitution (Articles 343 to 351) contains the official language provisions.
• Article 351 provides a directive for the development of the Hindi language so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all elements of the composite culture of India.
• Article 345 allows State Legislatures to adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State or Hindi as the official language of that State.

The correct answer is The Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains that stretch across the northern borders of India, forming an arc that covers a distance of approximately 2,400 km.
• These mountains run in a west-east direction from the Indus River to the Brahmaputra River, constituting the highest and most rugged mountain system in the world.
• The width of the Himalayas varies significantly, ranging from 400 km in the state of Jammu and Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh, providing a diverse altitudinal range.
• The system is divided into three parallel ranges: the Great Himalayas (Himadri), the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal), and the Outer Himalayas (Shiwaliks), which collectively define the northern, northwestern, and northeastern boundaries.

 Additional Information

• The Aravalli Hills:
• Located in the northwestern part of India, the Aravallis are one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, now heavily eroded and categorized as relict mountains.
• The Vindhya Range:
• This is a complex, discontinuous chain of mountain ridges and plateaus in central India, acting as a geographical barrier between North India and South India.
• The Western Ghats:
• Also known as Sahyadri, this range runs parallel to the western coast of India and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its immense biodiversity.
• Formation of Fold Mountains:
• The Himalayas were formed by the tectonic collision between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, a process that began about 50 million years ago and continues to this day.

The correct answer is एथिलीन गैस की उपस्थिति।.

मुख्य बिंदु

• एथिलीन (C₂H₄) एक प्राकृतिक रूप से पाया जाने वाला पादप हार्मोन (Phytohormone) है जो गैसीय अवस्था में होता है और फलों के पकने (Ripening) की प्रक्रिया को नियंत्रित करता है।
• केला एक क्लाइमेक्टेरिक फल है, जिसमें पकने के दौरान श्वसन दर और एथिलीन के उत्पादन में अचानक भारी वृद्धि होती है।
• एथिलीन गैस फल के भीतर पेक्टिनेज और एमाइलेज जैसे एंजाइमों को सक्रिय करती है, जो कोशिका भित्ति को नरम करते हैं और स्टार्च को शर्करा में परिवर्तित करते हैं।
• जैसे-जैसे पकने की प्रक्रिया आगे बढ़ती है, एथिलीन ऊतकों के टूटने और पॉलीफेनोल ऑक्सीडेज की क्रिया को तेज करती है, जिससे फल की त्वचा और गूदे में भूरापन (Browning) आने लगता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• एंजाइमी भूरापन (Enzymatic Browning):
• यह प्रक्रिया तब होती है जब फल के फेनोलिक यौगिक हवा में ऑक्सीजन के साथ प्रतिक्रिया करते हैं। एथिलीन के कारण कोशिका झिल्ली के खराब होने से यह प्रतिक्रिया और तेज हो जाती है, जिससे मेलानिन का निर्माण होता है।
• स्टार्च का रूपांतरण:
• कच्चे केले में लगभग 20-25% स्टार्च होता है, जो पकने के दौरान एथिलीन के प्रभाव से सुक्रोज, ग्लूकोज और फ्रुक्टोज जैसी सरल शर्करा में टूट जाता है।
• एथिलीन के अन्य प्रभाव:
• यह पर्णहरित (Chlorophyll) के क्षरण को बढ़ाता है, जिससे केले का रंग हरे से पीला और अंततः भूरा हो जाता है।
• व्यावसायिक रूप से फलों को पकाने के लिए एथेफॉन (Ethephon) या कैल्शियम कार्बाइड (जो एसिटिलीन उत्पन्न करता है) का उपयोग किया जाता है।

The correct answer is Article 81.

Key Points

• Article 81 of the Constitution of India defines the composition of the House of the People, which is popularly known as the Lok Sabha.
• It stipulates that the house shall consist of not more than 530 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States.
• The article further provides for not more than 20 members to represent the Union Territories, elected in a manner prescribed by Parliament by law.
• The representation is based on the principle of Universal Adult Suffrage, ensuring every citizen aged 18 years or above is eligible to vote.
• To maintain equity, the ratio between the number of seats allotted to each State and its population must, as far as practicable, be the same for all states.
• The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001 has frozen the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha at the 1971 Census level until the first census taken after the year 2026.

 Additional Information

• Article 82:
• Relates to the Readjustment of seats after each Census.
• It mandates the Delimitation of constituencies to ensure proportionate representation based on updated population data.
• Article 83:
• Describes the Duration of Houses of Parliament.
• The Lok Sabha has a normal term of five years from its first meeting, while the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution.
• Article 84:
• Sets the Qualifications for membership in Parliament.
• A candidate for the Lok Sabha must be a citizen of India and at least 25 years of age.

The correct answer is To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle.

Key Points

• The situation describes children performing a play on the life of Shaheed Bhagat Singh, who was a legendary revolutionary and a key figure in India's freedom movement.
• According to Article 51A(b) of the Indian Constitution, it is a Fundamental Duty of every citizen to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired our national struggle for independence.
• By portraying the life of a national hero, the children are being encouraged to internalize values such as patriotism, self-sacrifice, and bravery, which were central to the struggle against colonial rule.
• This specific duty aims to keep the spirit of the independence movement alive in the hearts of the younger generation, ensuring that the foundation of the sovereign nation is respected.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties:
• These were not part of the original Constitution but were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• They were incorporated into Part IV-A under Article 51A based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• While the Directive Principles are for the state, Fundamental Duties are statutory duties for the citizens, though they are non-justiciable in nature.
• Context of Other Options:
• Abiding by the Constitution: Focuses on respecting the National Flag, National Anthem, and the institutions like the Judiciary and Legislature.
• Safeguarding public property: Primarily concerns the protection of government assets and the rejection of violence during protests or civil unrest.
• Promoting harmony: Aims at transcending religious, linguistic, and regional diversities to foster a sense of common brotherhood.
• Shaheed Bhagat Singh: A member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), he is remembered for his role in the Lahore Conspiracy Case and the Central Assembly Bombing of 1929.

The correct answer is Odisha Coast.

Key Points

• Chilika Lake is recognized as the largest brackish water lagoon in Asia and the second-largest coastal lagoon in the world, situated along the Odisha Coast.
• It lies at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal, and covers an area that fluctuates between 900 and 1,165 square kilometers during different seasons.
• In 1981, it was designated as the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention due to its rich biodiversity.
• The lagoon is a significant wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian sub-continent, hosting species from the Caspian Sea, Lake Baikal, and Siberia.
• It is one of the only two lagoons in the world home to the endangered Irrawaddy dolphins, making it a critical site for marine conservation.

 Additional Information

• Coromandel Coast:
• Extends along the southeastern coast of India, primarily covering Tamil Nadu and parts of Andhra Pradesh.
• It is home to Pulicat Lake, the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India, located at the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• Malabar Coast:
• Located on the southwestern coast of India, mainly spanning Kerala.
• It is famous for its unique backwaters or Kayals, such as Vembanad Lake and Ashtamudi Lake.
• Andhra Coast:
• Features the Kolleru Lake, which is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, situated between the Krishna and Godavari deltas.
• Utkal Plain:
• The coastal stretch of Odisha is geographically referred to as the Utkal Plain, characterized by the Mahanadi Delta and several coastal lagoons.

The correct answer is Mixed intercropping.

Key Points

• Mixed intercropping is the agricultural practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land without any definite row arrangement.
• In this system, seeds of different crops are typically mixed together before sowing and are distributed across the field, often through the broadcasting method.
• The primary objective of this practice in India is to provide insurance against crop failure caused by abnormal weather conditions such as drought or excessive rain.
• This method helps in risk management for subsistence farmers, as if one crop fails due to pests or climate, the other crops may still provide a harvestable yield.
• Common examples in Indian agriculture include the simultaneous cultivation of wheat and mustard or wheat and gram without specific row patterns.

 Additional Information

• Other forms of intercropping include:
• Row intercropping: This involves growing two or more crops simultaneously where at least one crop is planted in distinct rows. It allows for better inter-cultural operations and weed management compared to mixed cropping.
• Strip intercropping: This refers to growing crops in wide strips that allow for independent mechanized management but are narrow enough for the crops to interact agronomically.
• Relay intercropping: This is a system where a second crop is planted into an existing standing crop when the first crop has reached its reproductive stage but before it is harvested. This maximizes land use efficiency over time.

The correct answer is 1951 Census.

Key Points

• The 1951 Census was the first census conducted in Independent India and the ninth in the overall series since 1872.
• It was the first exercise to officially classify the population into Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) based on the Constitution of India which came into effect in 1950.
• The classification followed the Presidential Orders issued under Article 341 and Article 342, which identified specific groups for affirmative action and constitutional safeguards.
• This census marked a departure from the British colonial practice of exhaustive Caste-based enumeration, focusing instead on these specific constitutional categories to assist in planning and Social Justice.
• The 1951 Census was carried out under the Census Act of 1948, which provides the permanent legal framework for conducting the census every ten years.

 Additional Information

• 1931 Census:
• This was the last census to conduct a full-scale enumeration of all Castes across India under the British Raj.
• It was supervised by J.H. Hutton and is often cited in modern debates regarding a Caste Census.
• 1941 Census:
• The 1941 Census faced significant administrative hurdles due to World War II, resulting in very limited data processing and publication of reports.
• 1911 Census:
• Directed by E.A. Gait, this census was known for its detailed work on Religious and Occupational classifications during the colonial era.
• Registrar General and Census Commissioner:
• The 1951 Census was organized by the Office of the Registrar General under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• M.W.M. Yeatts was initially the Commissioner, but R.A. Gopalaswami eventually led the 1951 operations.

The correct answer is Carbon.

Key Points

• Carbon is known as the fundamental element of life because it forms the structural backbone of all organic molecules, which are the building blocks of living organisms.
• The unique ability of carbon to form four stable covalent bonds with other atoms is termed tetravalency, allowing it to create complex and diverse molecular architectures.
• Through the process of catenation, carbon atoms can link together to form long hydrocarbon chains, branched structures, and stable rings, which are essential for macromolecule formation.
• In carbohydrates, carbon combines with hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio; for example, glucose has the chemical formula C₆H₁₂O₆.
• In lipids, carbon forms long chains that store metabolic energy and create the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes.
• Carbon is the central component of amino acids in proteins and the pentose sugars (ribose/deoxyribose) in nucleic acids like DNA and RNA.

 Additional Information

• Nitrogen:
• It is a critical component of the amino group in all amino acids and the nitrogenous bases (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine, and Uracil) in nucleotides.
• It is essential for the formation of peptide bonds that link amino acids into polypeptide chains.
• Oxygen:
• Acts as a key part of functional groups such as hydroxyl, carbonyl, and carboxyl groups within organic molecules.
• It is highly electronegative and plays a vital role in aerobic cellular respiration to produce ATP.
• Hydrogen:
• The most abundant element in the human body by atom count, it saturates the valency of carbon in organic compounds.
• It is fundamental for hydrogen bonding, which maintains the secondary structure of proteins and the double helix of DNA.

सही उत्तर M चरण है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• कोशिका चक्र (Cell Cycle) दो मुख्य चरणों में विभाजित होता है: अंतरावस्था (Interphase) और M चरण (M Phase)।
• M चरण (माइटोसिस चरण) वह अवस्था है जहाँ कोशिका का वास्तविक विभाजन होता है। इसमें दो प्रमुख प्रक्रियाएं शामिल हैं: कैरियोकिनेसिस (केंद्रक विभाजन) और साइटोकिनेसिस (कोशिकाद्रव्य विभाजन)।
• कोशिकाद्रव्य विभाजन (Cytokinesis) वह विशिष्ट प्रक्रिया है जिसके दौरान कोशिका का कोशिकाद्रव्य (Cytoplasm) विभाजित होता है, जिससे दो स्वतंत्र संतति कोशिकाएं बनती हैं।
• जंतु कोशिकाओं में, यह कोशिका झिल्ली में एक खांच (Furrow) के निर्माण द्वारा होता है, जबकि पादप कोशिकाओं में यह कोशिका पट्टिका (Cell plate) के निर्माण के माध्यम से होता है।
• M चरण कोशिका चक्र का सबसे छोटा लेकिन सबसे महत्वपूर्ण भाग है, जहाँ कोशिका की पूरी आनुवंशिक सामग्री और कोशिकाद्रव्य का समान वितरण सुनिश्चित किया जाता है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• G1 चरण (Gap 1):
• यह संश्लेषण-पूर्व अवस्था है जिसमें कोशिका मेटाबॉलिक रूप से सक्रिय होती है और निरंतर बढ़ती है।
• इस दौरान अधिकांश प्रोटीन और RNA का निर्माण होता है।
• S चरण (Synthesis):
• यह कोशिका चक्र का वह चरण है जहाँ DNA का प्रतिकृतिकरण (DNA Replication) होता है।
• इस चरण में DNA की मात्रा दोगुनी हो जाती है, लेकिन गुणसूत्रों की संख्या समान रहती है।
• G2 चरण (Gap 2):
• यह विभाजन-पूर्व तैयारी का चरण है जहाँ माइटोसिस के लिए आवश्यक प्रोटीन और अंगों का निर्माण होता है।
• इस चरण के दौरान कोशिका की वृद्धि जारी रहती है।
• अंतरावस्था (Interphase):
• कोशिका चक्र का लगभग 95% से अधिक समय इसी अवस्था में व्यतीत होता है, जिसमें G1, S और G2 शामिल हैं।

The correct answer is Article 343.

Key Points

• Article 343(1) of the Constitution of India explicitly declares that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi written in the Devanagari script.
• The article also dictates that the form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union must be the international form of Indian numerals (e.g., 1, 2, 3) rather than Devanagari numerals.
• Under Article 343(2), a provision was made for the continued use of the English language for all official purposes of the Union for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., until January 26, 1965).
• These provisions are contained within Part XVII of the Constitution, which is titled Official Language and spans from Article 343 to Article 351.
• The Official Languages Act, 1963 was later enacted to provide for the continued use of English for official purposes even after the initial fifteen-year period expired.

 Additional Information

• Article 352:
• Relates to the Proclamation of Emergency, commonly known as a National Emergency.
• It allows the President to declare an emergency if the security of India is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Article 356:
• Deals with provisions in case of the failure of constitutional machinery in States, popularly known as President’s Rule.
• It empowers the Union government to take over the administration of a state if it cannot be carried out in accordance with the Constitution.
• Article 340:
• Concerns the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within the territory of India.
• This article was the basis for the establishment of the Kaka Kalelkar Commission and the Mandal Commission.

सही उत्तर हर्मिका है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• बौद्ध वास्तुकला में, स्तूप के अर्धवृत्ताकार गुंबद (जिसे अंडा कहा जाता है) के ठीक ऊपर स्थित वर्गाकार रेलिंग जैसी संरचना को हर्मिका कहा जाता है।
• हर्मिका को बौद्ध धर्म में देवताओं के निवास स्थान या पवित्रता के केंद्र के रूप में देखा जाता है, जो संपूर्ण संरचना के आध्यात्मिक महत्व को बढ़ाता है।
• इस वर्गाकार संरचना के बीच से एक सीधा स्तंभ या मस्तूल निकलता है जिसे यष्टि कहा जाता है, जो ब्रह्मांडीय अक्ष का प्रतीक माना जाता है।
• यष्टि के ऊपर आमतौर पर तीन छतरियाँ लगी होती हैं, जिन्हें छत्रावली कहा जाता है, जो सम्मान और अधिकार के प्रतीकों का प्रतिनिधित्व करती हैं।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• स्तूप के अन्य महत्वपूर्ण घटक और संबंधित पारिभाषिक शब्द:
• तोरण:
• यह स्तूप के चारों ओर बनी घेराबंदी (वेदिका) के प्रवेश द्वार होते हैं।
• ये द्वार अक्सर बुद्ध के जीवन और जातक कथाओं से संबंधित सुंदर नक्काशी और मूर्तियों से सुसज्जित होते हैं।
• विहार:
• यह बौद्ध भिक्षुओं और भिक्षुणियों के रहने के लिए बनाए गए मठ या आवासीय परिसर थे।
• ये आमतौर पर चैत्य (प्रार्थना कक्षों) के पास स्थित होते थे।
• मंडप:
• यद्यपि यह शब्द भारतीय मंदिर वास्तुकला में अधिक प्रचलित है, यह एक स्तंभों वाला हॉल होता है जिसका उपयोग सार्वजनिक अनुष्ठानों के लिए किया जाता है।
• प्रदक्षिणा पथ:
• यह मुख्य गुंबद के चारों ओर एक परिक्रमा मार्ग होता है, जहाँ भक्त घड़ी की दिशा में घूमकर श्रद्धा प्रकट करते हैं।

The correct answer is amino acid.

Key Points

• Proteins are complex organic macromolecules composed of long chains of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds.
• The chemical digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, where hydrochloric acid (HCl) denatures the protein structures and the enzyme pepsin breaks them into smaller polypeptides.
• As the food moves into the small intestine, pancreatic enzymes such as trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase further hydrolyze these chains.
• Final digestion occurs at the brush border of the small intestine, where aminopeptidases and dipeptidases reduce peptides into individual amino acids.
• These amino acids are the final products that are absorbed into the bloodstream through the intestinal wall to be used for tissue repair, growth, and enzyme synthesis.

 Additional Information

• Glucose:
• It is a monosaccharide and the primary energy source for the human body.
• It is the end product of the digestion of carbohydrates like starch and sucrose.
• Glycerol:
• This is a component of lipids (fats).
• During lipid digestion, lipase enzymes break down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.
• Starch:
• A polysaccharide found in plants that serves as a major dietary carbohydrate.
• It is a complex molecule that must be broken down into maltose and eventually glucose by salivary and pancreatic amylase.

सही उत्तर पंजाब है।

मुख्य बिंदु

• पंजाब राज्य को अपनी असाधारण कृषि उत्पादकता और उर्वरता के कारण 'भारत का धान्यागार' (Granary of India) या 'भारत की रोटी की टोकरी' के रूप में जाना जाता है।
• 1960 के दशक के दौरान भारत में हरित क्रांति (Green Revolution) का सबसे अधिक प्रभाव पंजाब में देखा गया, जिससे राज्य के गेहूं और चावल के उत्पादन में भारी वृद्धि हुई।
• यहाँ की भौगोलिक स्थिति और सतलुज, ब्यास और रावी जैसी नदियों के प्रवाह के कारण उपजाऊ जलोढ़ मिट्टी उपलब्ध है, जो कृषि के लिए सर्वोत्तम मानी जाती है।
• सांख्यिकीय रूप से, पंजाब भारत के कुल गेहूं उत्पादन का लगभग 20 प्रतिशत और कुल चावल उत्पादन का लगभग 12 प्रतिशत योगदान देता है, जो राष्ट्रीय खाद्य भंडार को मजबूती प्रदान करता है।
• राज्य में नहरों और नलकूपों का एक आधुनिक और सघन सिंचाई नेटवर्क है, जिससे यहाँ साल भर गहन खेती संभव हो पाती है।

 अतिरिक्त जानकारी

• अन्य राज्यों की कृषि विशिष्टताएँ:
• गुजरात: यह राज्य भारत में कपास, मूंगफली और अरंडी के उत्पादन में शीर्ष स्थान पर है और यहाँ श्वेत क्रांति का प्रमुख केंद्र रहा है।
• महाराष्ट्र: यहाँ की रेगुर (काली) मिट्टी इसे कपास और गन्ना उत्पादन के लिए आदर्श बनाती है, साथ ही यह राज्य प्याज और अंगूर के उत्पादन में भी अग्रणी है।
• बिहार: यह राज्य लीची, मखाना और शहद उत्पादन के लिए प्रसिद्ध है, और यहाँ की अर्थव्यवस्था का मुख्य आधार कृषि ही है।

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

• Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• The Supreme Court has expanded the scope of this article through landmark cases, establishing that the right to life includes the right to live with human dignity and is not limited to mere survival.
• Protection against torture and cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment is recognized as a core component of personal liberty under this article.
• In the historic Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978) case, the court ruled that any procedure affecting liberty must be just, fair, and reasonable, effectively introducing the concept of substantive due process.
• This article is applicable to both citizens and foreigners, ensuring universal protection against arbitrary actions of the State.
• Following the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, Article 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency declared under Article 352.

 Additional Information

• Article 19:
• Guarantees six fundamental freedoms: speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• These rights are exclusively available to citizens of India and are subject to reasonable restrictions.
• Article 22:
• Provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, mandating that the arrested person be informed of the grounds of arrest.
• Includes the right to consult a legal practitioner and the requirement to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours.
• Article 32:
• Known as the Right to Constitutional Remedies, it allows individuals to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
• Empowers the court to issue writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, and Certiorari.

The correct answer is Article 235.

Key Points

• Article 235 of the Constitution of India grants the High Court the power of administrative control over all subordinate courts within its territorial jurisdiction.
• The scope of this control includes the posting, promotion, and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State who hold any post inferior to the post of District Judge.
• This provision is fundamental to maintaining judicial independence, as it insulates the lower judiciary from executive interference by placing personnel management under the higher judiciary.
• The High Court exercises disciplinary control, which includes the power to initiate departmental inquiries and recommend the suspension or dismissal of judicial officers to the Governor.
• It ensures that the subordinate judiciary functions effectively and follows the procedural rules and guidelines set by the High Court.

 Additional Information

• Article 224:
• Deals with the appointment of Additional Judges and Acting Judges in a High Court.
• Additional Judges can be appointed for a maximum period of two years to address a temporary increase in the business of the court.
• Article 225:
• Relates to the jurisdiction of existing High Courts and their power to make rules.
• It preserves the original and appellate jurisdiction that the courts held before the commencement of the Constitution.
• Article 228:
• Empowers the High Court to transfer certain cases from a subordinate court to itself.
• This occurs if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Assamese - 25th Amendment Act of 1971.

Key Points

• The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution originally included 14 languages in 1950: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Since Assamese was an original language and the 25th Amendment Act of 1971 dealt with the Right to Property and Article 31C, this pair is wrongly matched. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The 71st Amendment Act of 1992 introduced three languages into the Eighth Schedule, which were Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added four languages to the official list: Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali, raising the total count to 22. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The 21st Amendment Act of 1967 was the first amendment to add a language to the Eighth Schedule after the commencement of the Constitution, specifically adding Sindhi as the 15th language. Hence, statement 4 is correct.